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HOME  NCLEX PRACTICE QUESTIONS

  NCLEX PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Asthma and COPD NCLEX Practice Quiz #1

(50 Questions)
By
 Matt Vera, BSN, R.N.
 -
Updated on April 10, 2019
1
 ADVERTISEMENTS

Right knowledge and proper nursing care can have a great impact in improving
the efficiency of the patient’s respiration and ventilation and increasing the
chance for recovery. This is a 50-item NCLEX style exam that covers the
diseases affecting the Respiratory System. These questions will challenge your
knowledge about the concepts behind Bronchial Asthma, COPD, Pneumonia and
many more.

The will to succeed is important, but what’s more important is the will to prepare.
~ Bobby Knight

Topics
Included topics in this practice quiz are:

 Diseases of the Respiratory System

 Bronchial Asthma
 Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)
 Pneumonia

Guidelines
Follow the guidelines below to make the most out of this exam:

 Read each question carefully and choose the best answer.

 You are given one minute per question. Spend your time wisely!
 Answers and rationales are given below. Be sure to read them.
 If you need more clarifications, please direct them to the comments
section.

Questions

EXAM MODE

PRACTICE MODE
TEXT MODE
In Text Mode:  All questions and answers are given for reading and answering
at your own pace. You can also copy this exam and make a printout.

1. An elderly client with pneumonia may appear with which of the

following symptoms first?

1. Altered mental status and dehydration

2. fever and chills
3. Hemoptysis and dyspnea
4. Pleuritic chest pain and cough

2. Which of the following pathophysiological mechanisms that occur in

the lung parenchyma allows pneumonia to develop?

1. Atelectasis
2. Bronchiectasis
3. Effusion
4. Inflammation

3. A 7-year-old client is brought to the E.R. He’s tachypneic and afebrile

and has a respiratory rate of 36 breaths/minute and a nonproductive
cough. He recently had a cold. From his history, the client may have
which of the following?

1. Acute asthma
2. Bronchial pneumonia
3. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
4. Emphysema

4. Which of the following assessment findings would help confirm a

diagnosis of asthma in a client suspected of having the disorder?

1. Circumoral cyanosis
2. Increased forced expiratory volume
3. Inspiratory and expiratory wheezing
4. Normal breath sounds

5. Which of the following types of asthma involves an acute asthma

attack brought on by an upper respiratory infection?
1. Emotional
2. Extrinsic
3. Intrinsic
4. Mediated

6. A client with acute asthma showing inspiratory and expiratory

wheezes and a decreased expiratory volume should be treated with
which of the following classes of medication right away?

1. Beta-adrenergic blockers
2. Bronchodilators
3. Inhaled steroids
4. Oral steroids

7. A 19-year-old comes into the emergency department with acute

asthma. His respiratory rate is 44 breaths/minute, and he appears to be
in acute respiratory distress. Which of the following actions should be
taken first?

1. Take a full medication history

2. Give a bronchodilator by nebulizer
3. Apply a cardiac monitor to the client
4. Provide emotional support to the client.

8. A 58-year-old client with a 40-year history of smoking one to two

packs of cigarettes a day has a chronic cough producing thick sputum,
peripheral edema, and cyanotic nail beds. Based on this information, he
most likely has which of the following conditions?

1. Adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

2. Asthma
3. Chronic obstructive bronchitis
4. Emphysema

9. The term “blue bloater” refers to which of the following conditions?

1. Adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

2. Asthma
3. Chronic obstructive bronchitis
4. Emphysema
10. The term “pink puffer” refers to the client with which of the
following conditions?

1. ARDS
2. Asthma
3. Chronic obstructive bronchitis
4. Emphysema

11. A 66-year-old client has marked dyspnea at rest, is thin, and uses
accessory muscles to breathe. He’s tachypneic, with a prolonged
expiratory phase. He has no cough. He leans forward with his arms
braced on his knees to support his chest and shoulders for breathing.
This client has symptoms of which of the following respiratory
disorders?

1. ARDS
2. Asthma
3. Chronic obstructive bronchitis
4. Emphysema

12. It’s highly recommended that clients with asthma, chronic

bronchitis, and emphysema have Pneumovax and flu vaccinations for
which of the following reasons?

1. All clients are recommended to have these vaccines

2. These vaccines produce bronchodilation and improve oxygenation.
3. These vaccines help reduce the tachypnea these clients experience.
4. Respiratory infections can cause severe hypoxia and possibly death in these
clients.

13. Exercise has which of the following effects on clients with asthma,
chronic bronchitis, and emphysema?

1. It enhances cardiovascular fitness.

2. It improves respiratory muscle strength.
3. It reduces the number of acute attacks.
4. It worsens respiratory function and is discouraged.

14. Clients with chronic obstructive bronchitis are given diuretic

therapy. Which of the following reasons best explains why?
1. Reducing fluid volume reduces oxygen demand.
2. Reducing fluid volume improves clients’ mobility.
3. Restricting fluid volume reduces sputum production.
4. Reducing fluid volume improves respiratory function.

15. A 69-year-old client appears thin and cachectic. He’s short of breath
at rest and his dyspnea increases with the slightest exertion. His breath
sounds are diminished even with deep inspiration. These signs and
symptoms fit which of the following conditions?

1. ARDS
2. Asthma
3. Chronic obstructive bronchitis
4. Emphysema

16. A client with emphysema should receive only 1 to 3 L/minute of

oxygen, if needed, or he may lose his hypoxic drive. Which of the
following statements is correct about hypoxic drive?

1. The client doesn’t notice he needs to breathe.

2. The client breathes only when his oxygen levels climb above a certain point.
3. The client breathes only when his oxygen levels dip below a certain point.
4. The client breathes only when his carbon dioxide level dips below a certain
point.

17. Teaching for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

(COPD) should include which of the following topics?

1. How to have his wife learn to listen to his lungs with a stethoscope from Wal-
Mart.
2. How to increase his oxygen therapy.
3. How to treat respiratory infections without going to the physician.
4. How to recognize the signs of an impending respiratory infection.

18. Which of the following respiratory disorders is most common in the

first 24 to 48 hours after surgery?

1. Atelectasis
2. Bronchitis
3. Pneumonia
4. Pneumothorax
19. Which of the following measures can reduce or prevent the
incidence of atelectasis in a post-operative client?

1. Chest physiotherapy
2. Mechanical ventilation
3. Reducing oxygen requirements
4. Use of an incentive spirometer

20. Emergency treatment of a client in status asthmaticus includes

which of the following medications?

1. Inhaled beta-adrenergic agents

2. Inhaled corticosteroids
3. I.V. beta-adrenergic agents
4. Oral corticosteroids

21. Which of the following treatment goals is best for the client with
status asthmaticus?

1. Avoiding intubation
2. Determining the cause of the attack
3. Improving exercise tolerance
4. Reducing secretions

22. Dani was given Dilaudid for pain. She’s sleeping and her respiratory
rate is 4 breaths/minute. If action isn’t taken quickly, she might have
which of the following reactions?

1. Asthma attack
2. Respiratory arrest
3. Improve cardiac output
4. Constipation

23. Which of the following additional assessment data should

immediately be gathered to determine the status of a client with a
respiratory rate of 4 breaths/minute?

1. Arterial blood gas (ABG) and breath sounds

2. Level of consciousness and a pulse oximetry value.
3. Breath sounds and reflexes
4. Pulse oximetry value and heart sounds
24. A client is in danger of respiratory arrest following the
administration of a narcotic analgesic. An arterial blood gas value is
obtained. The nurse would expect to PaCO2 to be which of the following
values?

1. 15 mm Hg
2. 30 mm Hg
3. 40 mm Hg
4. 80 mm Hg

25. A client has started a new drug for hypertension. Thirty minutes

after he takes the drug, he develops chest tightness and becomes short
of breath and tachypneic. He has a decreased level of consciousness.
These signs indicate which of the following conditions?

1. Asthma attack
2. Pulmonary embolism
3. respiratory failure
4. Rheumatoid arthritis

26. Emergency treatment for a client with

impending anaphylaxis secondary to hypersensitivity to a drug should
include which of the following actions first?

1. Administering oxygen
2. Inserting an I.V. catheter
3. Obtaining a complete blood count (CBC)
4. Taking vital signs

27. Following the initial care of a client with asthma and impending
anaphylaxis from hypersensitivity to a drug, the nurse should take
which of the following steps next?

1. Administer beta-adrenergic blockers

2. Administer bronchodilators
3. Obtain serum electrolyte levels
4. Have the client lie flat in the bed.

28. A client’s ABG results are as follows: pH: 7.16; PaCO2 80 mm Hg;
PaO2 46 mm Hg; HCO3- 24 mEq/L; SaO2 81%. This ABG result
represents which of the following conditions?
1. Metabolic acidosis
2. Metabolic alkalosis
3. Respiratory acidosis
4. Respiratory alkalosis

29. A nurse plans care for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary
disease, knowing that the client is most likely to experience what type
of acid-base imbalance?

1. Respiratory acidosis
2. Respiratory alkalosis
3. Metabolic acidosis
4. Metabolic alkalosis

30. A nurse is caring for a client who is on a mechanical ventilator.

Blood gas results indicate a pH of 7.50 and a PCO2 of 30 mm Hg. The
nurse has determined that the client is experiencing respiratory
alkalosis. Which laboratory value would most likely be noted in this
condition?

1. Sodium level of 145 mEq/L

2. Potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L
3. Magnesium level of 2.0 mg/L
4. Phosphorus level of 4.0 mg/dl

31. A nurse reviews the arterial blood gas results of a patient and notes
the following: pH 7.45; PCO2 30 mm Hg; and bicarbonate concentration
of 22 mEq/L. The nurse analyzes these results as indicating:

1. Metabolic acidosis, compensated.

2. Metabolic alkalosis, uncompensated.
3. Respiratory alkalosis, compensated.
4. Respiratory acidosis, compensated.

32. A client is scheduled for blood to be drawn from the radial artery for
an ABG determination. Before the blood is drawn, an Allen’s test is
performed to determine the adequacy of the:

1. Popliteal circulation
2. Ulnar circulation
3. Femoral circulation
4. Carotid circulation
33. A nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric tube that is attached
to low suction. The nurse monitors the client, knowing that the client is
at risk for which acid-base disorder?

1. Respiratory acidosis
2. Respiratory alkalosis
3. Metabolic acidosis
4. Metabolic alkalosis

34. A nurse is caring for a client with an ileostomy understands that the
client is most at risk for developing which acid-base disorder?

1. Respiratory acidosis
2. Respiratory alkalosis
3. Metabolic acidosis
4. Metabolic alkalosis

35. A nurse is caring for a client with diabetic ketoacidosis and

documents that the client is experiencing Kussmaul’s respirations.
Based on this documentation, which of the following did the nurse
observe?

1. Respirations that are abnormally deep, regular, and increased in rate.

2. Respirations that are regular but abnormally slow.
3. Respirations that are labored and increased in depth and rate
4. Respirations that cease for several seconds.

36. A nurse understands that the excessive use of oral antacids

containing bicarbonate can result in which acid-base disturbance?

1. Respiratory alkalosis
2. Respiratory acidosis
3. Metabolic acidosis
4. Metabolic alkalosis

37. A nurse is caring for a client with renal failure. Blood gas results
indicate a pH of 7.30; a PCO2 of 32 mm Hg, and a bicarbonate
concentration of 20 mEq/L. The nurse has determined that the client is
experiencing metabolic acidosis. Which of the following laboratory
values would the nurse expect to note?
1. Sodium level of 145 mEq/L
2. Magnesium level of 2.0 mg/dL
3. Potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L
4. Phosphorus level of 4.0 mg/dL

38. A nurse is preparing to obtain an arterial blood gas specimen from a

client and plans to perform the Allen’s test on the client. Number in
order of priority the steps for performing the Allen’s test (#1 is first
step).

1. Ask the client to open and close the hand repeatedly.

2. Apply pressure over the ulnar and radial arteries.
3. Assess the color of the extremity distal to the pressure point
4. Release pressure from the ulnar artery
5. Explain the procedure to the client.

39. A nurse is preparing to obtain a sputum specimen from a client.

Which of the following nursing actions will facilitate obtaining the
specimen?

1. Limiting fluids
2. Having the client take 3 deep breaths.
3. Asking the client to spit into the collection container.
4. Asking the client to obtain the specimen after eating.

40. A nurse is caring for a client after a bronchoscopy and biopsy.

Which of the following signs if noted in the client should be reported
immediately to the physician?

1. Blood-streaked sputum
2. Dry cough
3. Hematuria
4. Bronchospasm

41. A nurse is suctioning fluids from a client via a tracheostomy tube.

When suctioning, the nurse must limit the suctioning to a maximum of:

1. 5 seconds
2. 10 seconds
3. 30 seconds
4. 1 minute
42. A nurse is suctioning fluids from a client through an endotracheal
tube. During the suctioning procedure, the nurse notes on the monitor
that the heart rate decreases. Which of the following is the most
appropriate nursing intervention?

1. Continue to suction
2. Ensure that the suction is limited to 15 seconds
3. Stop the procedure and reoxygenated the client
4. Notify the physician immediately.

43. An unconscious client is admitted to an emergency room. Arterial

blood gas measurements reveal a pH of 7.30, a low bicarbonate level, a
normal carbon dioxide level, and a normal oxygen level. An elevated
potassium level is also present. These results indicate the presence of:

1. Metabolic acidosis
2. Respiratory acidosis
3. Combined respiratory and metabolic acidosis
4. over compensated respiratory acidosis

44. A nurse is caring for a client hospitalized with acute exacerbation of

COPD. Which of the following would the nurse expect to note on
assessment of this client?

1. Increased oxygen saturation with exercise

2. Hypocapnia
3. A hyperinflated chest on x-ray film
4. A widened diaphragm noted on chest x-ray film

45. An oxygenated delivery system is prescribed for a client with COPD

to deliver a precise oxygen concentration. Which of the following types
of oxygen delivery systems would the nurse anticipate to be
prescribed?

1. Venturi mask
2. Aerosol mask
3. Face tent
4. Tracheostomy collar

46. Theophylline (Theo-Dur) tablets are prescribed for a client with

chronic airflow limitation, and the nurse instructs the client about the
medication. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further
teaching?
1. “I will take the medication on an empty stomach.”
2. “I will take the medication with food.”
3. “I will continue to take the medication even if I am feeling better.”
4. “Periodic blood levels will need to be obtained.”

47. A nurse is caring for a client with emphysema. The client is

receiving oxygen. The nurse assesses the oxygen flow rate to ensure
that it does not exceed

1. 1 L/min
2. 2 L/min
3. 6 L/min
4. 10 L/min

48. The nurse reviews the ABG values of a client. The results indicate
respiratory acidosis. Which of the following values would indicate that
this acid-base imbalance exists?

1. pH of 7.48
2. PCO2 of 32 mm Hg
3. pH of 7.30
4. HCO3- of 20 mEq/L

49. A nurse instructs a client to use the pursed lip method of breathing.
The client asks the nurse about the purpose of this type of breathing.
The nurse responds, knowing that the primary purpose of pursed lip
breathing is:

1. Promote oxygen intake

2. Strengthen the diaphragm
3. Strengthen the intercostal muscles
4. Promote carbon dioxide elimination

50. A nurse reviews the ABG values and notes a pH of 7.50, a PCO2 of
30 mm Hg, and an HCO3 of 25 mEq/L. The nurse interprets these values
as indicating:

1. Respiratory acidosis uncompensated

2. Respiratory alkalosis uncompensated
3. Metabolic acidosis uncompensated
4. Metabolic acidosis partially compensated.
Answers and Rationale
1. Answer: 1. Altered mental status and dehydration

Fever, chills, hemoptysis, dyspnea, cough, and pleuritic chest pain are the

common symptoms of pneumonia, but elderly clients may first appear with only
an altered mental status and dehydration due to a blunted immune response.

2. Answer: 4. Inflammation

The most common feature of all types of pneumonia is an inflammatory

pulmonary response to the offending organism or agent. Atelectasis and
bronchiectasis indicate a collapse of a portion of the airway that doesn’t occur
with pneumonia. An effusion is an accumulation of excess pleural fluid in the
pleural space, which may be a secondary response to pneumonia.

3. Answer: 1. Acute asthma

Based on the client’s history and symptoms, acute asthma is the most likely
diagnosis. He’s unlikely to have bronchial pneumonia without a productive
cough and fever and he’s too young to have developed COPD or emphysema.

4. Answer: 3. Inspiratory and expiratory wheezing

Inspiratory and expiratory wheezes are typical findings in asthma. Circumoral

cyanosis may be present in extreme cases of respiratory distress. The nurse
would expect the client to have a decreased forced expiratory volume because
asthma is an obstructive pulmonary disease. Breath sounds will be “tight”
sounding or markedly decreased; they won’t be normal.

5. Answer: 3. Intrinsic

Intrinsic asthma doesn’t have an easily identifiable allergen and can be

triggered by the common cold. Asthma caused be emotional reasons is
considered to be in the extrinsic category. Extrinsic asthma is caused by dust,
molds, and pets; easily identifiable allergens. Mediated asthma doesn’t exist.

6. Answer: 2. Bronchodilators

Bronchodilators are the first line of treatment for asthma because

bronchoconstriction is the cause of reduced airflow. Beta-adrenergic blockers
aren’t used to treat asthma and can cause bronchoconstriction. Inhaled or oral
steroids may be given to reduce the inflammation but aren’t used for
emergency relief.

7. Answer: 2. Give a bronchodilator by nebulizer

The client is having an acute asthma attack and needs to increase oxygen
delivery to the lung and body. Nebulized bronchodilators open airways and
increase the amount of oxygen delivered. First, resolve the acute phase of the
attack ad how to prevent attacks in the future. It may not be necessary to place
the client on a cardiac monitor because he’s only 19-years-old, unless he has a
past medical history of cardiac problems.

8. Answer: 3. Chronic obstructive bronchitis

Because of his extensive smoking history and symptoms, the client most likely
has chronic obstructive bronchitis. Clients with ARDS have acute symptoms of
and typically need large amounts of oxygen. Clients with asthma and
emphysema tend not to have a chronic cough or peripheral edema.

9. Answer: 3. Chronic obstructive bronchitis

Clients with chronic obstructive bronchitis appear bloated; they have large
barrel chests and peripheral edema, cyanotic nail beds and, at times, circumoral
cyanosis. Clients with ARDS are acutely short of breath and frequently need
intubation for mechanical ventilation and large amounts of oxygen. Clients with
asthma don’t exhibit characteristics of chronic disease, and clients with
emphysema appear pink and cachectic (a state of ill health, malnutrition, and
wasting).

10. Answer: 4. Emphysema

Because of the large amount of energy it takes to breathe, clients with

emphysema are usually cachectic. They’re pink and usually breathe through
pursed lips, hence the term “puffer”. Clients with ARDS are usually acutely short
of breath. Clients with asthma don’t have any particular characteristics, and
clients with chronic obstructive bronchitis are bloated and cyanotic in
appearance.

11. Answer: 4. Emphysema

These are classic signs and symptoms of a client with emphysema. Clients with
ARDS are acutely short of breath and require emergency care; those with
asthma are also acutely short of breath during an attack and appear very
frightened. Clients with chronic obstructive bronchitis are bloated and cyanotic
in appearance.

12. Answer: 4. Respiratory infections can cause severe hypoxia and

possibly death in these clients.

It’s highly recommended that clients with respiratory disorders be given

vaccines to protect against respiratory infection. Infections can cause these
clients to need intubation and mechanical ventilation, and it may be difficult to
wean these clients from the ventilator. The vaccines have no effect on
bronchodilation or respiratory care.

13. Answer: 1. It enhances cardiovascular fitness.

Exercise can improve cardiovascular fitness and help the client tolerate periods
of hypoxia better, perhaps reducing the risk of heart attack. Most exercise has
little effect on respiratory muscle strength, and these clients can’t tolerate the
type of exercise necessary to do this. Exercise won’t reduce the number of
acute attacks. In some instances, exercise may be contraindicated, and the
client should check with his physician before starting any exercise program.

14. Answer: 1. Reducing fluid volume reduces oxygen demand.

Reducing fluid volume reduces the workload of the heart, which reduces oxygen
demand and, in turn, reduces the respiratory rate. It may also reduce edema
and improve mobility a little, but exercise tolerance will still be harder to clear
airways. Reducing fluid volume won’t improve respiratory function, but may
improve oxygenation.

15. Answer: 4. Emphysema

In emphysema, the wall integrity of the individual air sacs is damaged, reducing
the surface area available for gas exchange. Very little air movement occurs in
the lungs because of bronchial collapse, as well. In ARDS, the client’s condition
is more acute and typically requires mechanical ventilation. In asthma and
bronchitis, wheezing is prevalent.

16. Answer: 3. The client breathes only when his oxygen levels dip
below a certain point.
Clients with emphysema breathe when their oxygen levels drop to a certain
level; this is known as the hypoxic drive. They don’t take a breath when their
levels of carbon dioxide are higher than normal, as do those with healthy
respiratory physiology. If too much oxygen is given, the client has little stimulus
to take another breath. In the meantime, his carbon dioxide levels continue to
climb, and the client will pass out, leading to a respiratory arrest.

17. Answer: 4. How to recognize the signs of an impending respiratory

infection.

Respiratory infection in clients with a respiratory disorder can be fatal. It’s

important that the client understands how to recognize the signs and symptoms
of an impending respiratory infection. It isn’t appropriate for the wife to listen to
his lung sounds, besides, you can’t purchase stethoscopes from Wal-Mart. If the
client has signs and symptoms of an infection, he should contact his physician
at once.

18. Answer: 1. Atelectasis

Atelectasis develops when there’s interference with the normal negative

pressure that promotes lung expansion. Clients in the postoperative phase often
splint their breathing because of pain and positioning, which causes hypoxia.
It’s uncommon for any of the other respiratory disorders to develop.

19. Answer: 4. Use of an incentive spirometer

Using an incentive spirometer requires the client to take deep breaths and
promotes lung expansion. Chest physiotherapy helps mobilize secretions but
won’t prevent atelectasis. Reducing oxygen requirements or placing someone on
mechanical ventilation doesn’t affect the development of atelectasis.

20. Answer: 1. Inhaled beta-adrenergic agents

Inhaled beta-adrenergic agents help promote bronchodilation, which improves

oxygenation. I.V. beta-adrenergic agents can be used but have to be monitored
because of their greater systemic effects. They’re typically used when the
inhaled beta-adrenergic agents don’t work. Corticosteroids are slow-acting, so
their use won’t reduce hypoxia in the acute phase.

21. Answer: 1. Avoiding intubation

Inhaled beta-adrenergic agents, I.V. corticosteroids, and supplemental oxygen
are used to reduce bronchospasm, improve oxygenation, and avoid intubation.
Determining the trigger for the client’s attack and improving exercise tolerance
are later goals. Typically, secretions aren’t a problem in status asthmaticus.

22. Answer: 2. Respiratory arrest

Narcotics can cause respiratory arrest if given in large quantities.

23. Answer: 2. Level of consciousness and a pulse oximetry value.

First, the nurse should attempt to rouse the client because this should increase
the client’s respiratory rate. If available, a spot pulse oximetry check should be
done and breath sounds should be checked. The physician should be notified
immediately if of the findings. He’ll probably order ABG analysis to determine
specific carbon dioxide and oxygen levels, which will indicate the effectiveness
of ventilation. Reflexes and heart sounds will be part of the more extensive
examination done after these initial actions are completed.

24. Answer: 4. 80 mm Hg

A client about to go into respiratory arrest will have inefficient ventilation and
will be retaining carbon dioxide. The value expected would be around 80 mm
Hg. All other values are lower than expected.

25. Answer: 3. Respiratory Failure

The client was reacting to the drug with respiratory signs of impending
anaphylaxis, which could lead to eventual respiratory failure. Although the signs
are also related to an asthma attack or a pulmonary embolism, consider the
new drug first. Rheumatoid arthritis doesn’t manifest these signs.

26. Answer: 1. Administering oxygen

Giving oxygen would be the best first action in this case. Vital signs then should
be checked and the physician immediately notified. If the client doesn’t already
have an I.V. catheter, one may be inserted now if anaphylactic shock is
developing. Obtaining a CBC wouldn’t help the emergency situation.

27. Answer: 2. Administer bronchodilators

Bronchodilators would help open the client’s airway and improve his
oxygenation status. Beta-adrenergic blockers aren’t indicated in the
management of asthma because they may cause bronchospasm. Obtaining
laboratory values wouldn’t be done on an emergency basis, and having the
client lie flat in bed could worsen his ability to breathe.

28. Answer: 3. Respiratory acidosis

You all should know this. Practice some problems if you got this wrong.

29. Answer: 1. Respiratory acidosis

Respiratory acidosis is most often due to hypoventilation. Chronic respiratory

acidosis is most commonly caused by COPD. In end-stage disease, pathological
changes lead to airway collapse, air trapping, and disturbance of ventilation-
perfusion relationships.

30. Answer: 2. Potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L

 Clinical manifestations of respiratory alkalosis include headache,

tachypnea, paresthesias, tetany, vertigo, convulsions, hypokalemia,
and hypocalcemia. Options 1, 3, and 4 identify normal laboratory
values. Option 2 identifies the presence of hypokalemia.
31. Answer: 3. Respiratory alkalosis, compensated.

The normal pH is 7.35 to 7.45. In a respiratory condition, an opposite (see-saw)

will be seen between the pH and the PCO2. In this situation, the pH is at the
high end of the normal value and the PCO2 is low. In an alkalotic condition, the
pH is up. Therefore, the values identified in the question indicate a respiratory
alkalosis. Compensation occurs when the pH returns to a normal value. Because
the pH is in the normal range at the high end, compensation has occurred.

32. Answer: 2. Ulnar circulation

Before radial puncture for obtaining an ABG, you should perform an Allen’s test
to determine adequate ulnar circulation. Failure to determine the presence of
adequate collateral circulation could result in severe ischemic injury o the hand
if damage to the radial artery occurs with arterial puncture.

33. Answer: 4. Metabolic alkalosis

Loss of gastric fluid via nasogastric suction or vomiting causes metabolic
alkalosis as a result of the loss of hydrochloric acid.

34. Answer: 3. Metabolic acidosis

Intestinal secretions are high in bicarbonate and may be lost through enteric
drainage tubes or an ileostomy or with diarrhea. These conditions result in
metabolic acidosis.

35. Answer: 1. Respirations that are abnormally deep, regular, and

increased in rate.

Kussmaul’s respirations are abnormally deep, regular, and increased in rate.

36. Answer: 4. Metabolic alkalosis

Increases in base components occur as a result of oral or parenteral intake of

bicarbonates, carbonates, acetates, citrates, or lactates. Excessive use of oral
antacids containing bicarbonate can cause metabolic alkalosis.

37. Answer: 3. Potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L

Clinical manifestations of metabolic acidosis include hyperpnea with Kussmaul’s

respirations; headache; N/V, and diarrhea; fruity-smelling breath resulting from
improper fat metabolism; CNS depression, including mental dullness,
drowsiness, stupor, and coma; twitching, and coma. Hyperkalemia will occur.

38. Answer: 5, 2, 1, 4, and then 3.

39. Answer: 2. Having the client take 3 deep breaths.

To obtain a sputum specimen, the client should rinse the mouth to prevent

contamination, breathe deeply, and then cough unto a sputum specimen
container. The client should be encouraged to cough and not spit so as to obtain
sputum. Sputum can be thinned by fluids or by a respiratory treatment such as
inhalation of nebulized saline or water. The optimal time to obtain a specimen is
on arising in the morning.

40. Answer: 4. Bronchospasm

If a biopsy was performed during a bronchoscopy, blood-streaked sputum is
expected for several hours. Frank blood indicates hemorrhage. A dry cough may
be expected. The client should be assessed for signs of complications, which
would include cyanosis, dyspnea, stridor, bronchospasm,
hemoptysis, hypotension, tachycardia, and arrhythmias. Hematuria is unrelated
to this procedure.

41. Answer: 2. 10 seconds

Hypoxemia can be caused by prolonged suctioning, which stimulates

the pacemaker cells within the heart. A vasovagal response may occur causing
bradycardia. The nurse must preoxygenate the client before suctioning and limit
the suctioning pass to 10 seconds.

42. Answer: 3. Stop the procedure and reoxygenated the client

During suctioning, the nurse should monitor the client closely for side effects,
including hypoxemia, cardiac irregularities such as a decrease in HR resulting
from vagal stimulation, mucosal trauma, hypotension, and paroxysmal
coughing. If side effects develop, especially cardiac irregularities, this procedure
is stopped and the client is reoxygenated.

43. Answer: 1. Metabolic acidosis

In an acidotic condition, the pH would be low, indicating the acidosis. In

addition, a low bicarbonate level along with the pH would indicate a metabolic
state.

44. Answer: 3. A hyperinflated chest on x-ray film

Clinical manifestations of COPD include hypoxemia, hypercapnia, dyspnea on

exertion and at rest, oxygen desaturation with exercise, and the use of
accessory muscles of respiration. Chest x-ray films reveal a hyperinflated chest
and a flattened diaphragm is the disease is advanced.

45. Answer: 1. Venturi mask

The venture mask delivers the most accurate oxygen concentration. The Venturi
mask is the best oxygen delivery system for the client with chronic airflow
limitation because it delivers a precise oxygen concentration. The face tent, the
aerosol mask, and the tracheostomy collar are also high-flow oxygen delivery
systems but most often are used to administer high humidity.
46. Answer: 1. “I will take the medication on an empty stomach.”

Theo-Dur is a bronchodilator. The medication should be administered with food

such as milk and crackers to prevent GI irritation.

47. Answer: 2. 2 L/min

One to 3 L/min of oxygen by nasal cannula may be required to raise to PaO2 to

60 to 80 mm Hg. However, oxygen is used cautiously and should not exceed 2
L/min. Because of the long-standing hypercapnia, the respiratory drive is
triggered by low oxygen levels rather than increased carbon dioxide levels, as is
the case in normal respiratory system.

48. Answer: 3. pH of 7.30

49. Answer: 4. Promote carbon dioxide elimination

Pursed lip breathing facilitates maximum expiration for clients with obstructive
lung disease. This type of breathing allows better expiration by increasing
airway pressure that keeps air passages open during exhalation.

50. Answer: 2. Respiratory alkalosis uncompensated

In respiratory alkalosis, the pH will be higher than normal and the PCO2 will be
low.

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 TAGS

 BRONCHIAL ASTHMA

 CHRONIC OBSTRUCTIVE PULMONARY DISEASE (COPD)

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Matt Vera, BSN, R.N.

https://nurseslabs.com
Matt Vera is a registered nurse with a bachelor of science in nursing since 2009 and is currently
working as a full-time writer and editor for Nurseslabs. During his time as a student, he knows how
frustrating it is to cram on difficult nursing topics and finding help online is near to impossible. His
situation drove his passion for helping student nurses through the creation of content and lectures
that is easy to digest. Knowing how valuable nurses are in delivering quality healthcare but limited in
number, he wants to educate and inspire students in nursing. As a nurse educator since 2010, his goal
in Nurseslabs is to simplify the learning process, breakdown complicated topics, help motivate
learners, and look for unique ways of assisting students in mastering core nursing concepts effectively.
 

1 COMMENT

1. ChilufyaNovember 2, 2019 At 8:43 AM

I want to take part in exams
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