BIOLOGY-II :: (Chapter-wise Test)

REPRODUCTION IN ORGANISMS

1. Life span can be defined as [ ]

(a) metabolically active life of organisms
(b) life from birth upto reproduction
(c) period from birth to natural death
(d) any of these
2. Life span of one of these is not from few hours to few days. [ ]
(a) Bacteria (b) May fly
(c) Cicada (d) Yeast
3. Life span of Indian parrot is...... years. [ ]
(a) 60 (b) 80
(c) 140 (d) 70
4. Longest living organism amongst following is [ ]
(a) Larrla (b) Sequoia
(c) Ficus (d) tortoise
5. Which of the following can be called immortal ? [ ]
(a) May fly (b) Drosophila
(c) Amoeba (d) Cicada
6. Agamospermy lacks [ ]
(a) mitosis (b) meiosis
(c) embryosac (d) all of these
7. What is common in Biyophyllum, Sansevieria and Lilium ? [ ]
(a) All are members of family liliaceae
(b) All reproduce only sexually
(c) All reproduce through leaves vegetatively
(d) All lack heterospory.
8. Vegetative reproduction is absent (except bulbils in few) in [ ]
(a) higher plants (b) angiosperms
(c) gymnosperms (d) algae

REPRODUCTION IN ORGANISMS :: 1
 BIOLOGY-II :: (Chapter-wise Test)

9. Bulb helps the vegetative reproduction in [ ]

(a) tomato (b) potato
(c) rye (d) onion
10. Rhizome helps reproduction in [ ]
(a) Solanum tuberoswn (b) ginger
(c)Achyranthus (d) all above.
11. Agamospermous embryo-sac develops from [ ]
(a) pollen (b) egg
(c)ovum (d) megaspore mother cell
12. In Amorphophallus and Colocasia vegetative reproduction is carried out through [ ]
(a) rhizome (b) bulbils
(c) corms (d) offsets
13. Tubers help in the vegetative reproduction in [ ]
(a) tomato (b) potato
(c) onion (d) garlic
14. Root stock helps in vegetatitve propagation of [ ]
(a)Amorphophallus (b)Alocasia
(c) Gladiolus (d) all above
15. Potato crop is raised with the help of [ ]
(a) seed (b) tubers
(c) cuttings (d) sexual reproduction
16. The eye of potato has [ ]
(a) roots (b) stem
(c) bud (d) flower
17. Sweet potato is propagated by [ ]
(a) stem (b) root
(c) rhizome (d) tuber
18. In which of the following plants vegetative propagation occurs by leaf [ ]
(a) Bignonia (b) Biyophyllum
(c) Adiantum (d) both a and b

REPRODUCTION IN ORGANISMS :: 2
 BIOLOGY-II :: (Chapter-wise Test)

19. In which of the following whole portion of the leaf blade regenerate a new individual ? [ ]
(a) Rose (b) Moneyplant
(c) Mango (d) Kalanchoe
20. Grapevine is propagated through [ ]
(a) cuttings (b) layering
(c) seeds (d) grafting
21. Find out wrong sequence [ ]
(a) Grass-runner (b) Mango-grafting
(c) Citrus-adventive embryony (d) Bamboo-grafting.
22. The process of development of embryo sac from unreduced megaspore mother cell is called
(a) apospory (b) diplospory
(c) haploid parthenogenesis (d) diploid parthenogenesis [ ]
23. Asexual reproduction involves [ ]
(a) amphimixis (b)syngamy
(c) fusion (d) none of these
24. When integument cells give rise to embryo it is [ ]
(a) polyembryony (b) adventive embryony
(c) half-embryony (d) none of these
25. Vegetative reproduction occurs in [ ]
(a) Chlamydomonas (b) Nostoc
(c) Amoeba (d) All of these
26. The process in which embryo developes from unfertilized oosphere is called [ ]
(a) parthenogenesis (b) apospory
(c) apogamy (d) none of above
27. The development of emhryosac from megaspore mother cell is called [ ]
(a) apospory (b) apogamy
(c) diplospory (d) none of these
28. When embryo develops from nucellus, it is known as [ ]
(a) recurrent agamospermy
(b) adventive polyembryony (sporophytic budding)
(c) non-recurrent agamospermy
(d) none of above

REPRODUCTION IN ORGANISMS :: 3
 BIOLOGY-II :: (Chapter-wise Test)

29. The process in which haploid embryo is formed from haploid egg without fertilization is
called [ ]
(a) recurrent agamospermy
(b) non-recurrent agamospermy
(c) apogamy
(d) vegetative reproduction
30. Most of the unicellular organisms show [ ]
(a) sexual reproduction
(b) asexual reproduction
(c) vegetative reproduction
(d) none of these

REPRODUCTION IN ORGANISMS :: 4
 BIOLOGY-II :: (Chapter-wise Test)

SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS

1. The number of nuclei participating in double fertilization are [ ]

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
2. Sexual reproduction in plants was reported by [ ]
(a) Camererius (b) Hormeister (c) Strasburger (d) Nawaschin
3. Double fertilization is characteristic of [ ]
(a) gymnosperms (b) pteridophytes (c) angiosperms (d) bryophytes
(e) thallophytes [ ]
4. Pollen grains are able to withstand extremes of temperature and dessication because their exine
is coin posed of [ ]
(a) cutin (b) suberin (c) sporopollenin (d) callose
5. The ‘ubisch bodies’ are present in [ ]
(a) pollentube (b) P.M.C. (c) pollengrain (d) tapetal cells
6. Triple fusion means, fusion of [ ]
(a) two polar bodies with male gametes (b) two eggs with male gametes
(c) two male gametes and one egg
(d) two male gametes and one egg and secondary nucleus
7. In a type of apomixis known as adventive embryony, embryos develop directly from
the : [ ]
(a) nucellus or integuments (b) synergids or antipodals in an embryo sac
(c) accessory embryo sacs in the ovule (d) zygote
8. Which one of the following represents an ovule, where the embryo sac becomes horse-shoe
shaped and the funiculus and micropyle are close to each other ? [ ]
(a) Circinotropous (b) Anatropous (c) Amphitropous (d) Atropous
9. Which of the following is the reproductive organ of plants ? [ ]
(a) Flower (b) Pistil zs (c) carpel (d) Stamen
10. Nucellus is [ ]
(a) basic tissue of ovary (b) basic tissue of ovule
(c) basic tissue of embryo (d) basic tissue of seed
11. If the chromosome number in the somatic cell of gymnosperm is 8. Then the number of
chromosomes in the nucellus of Cycas is [ ]
(a) 08 (b) 04 (c) 16 (d) 32
SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS :: 1
 BIOLOGY-II :: (Chapter-wise Test)

12. Book - “An introduction to Embryology of Angiosperms” was written by : [ ]

(a) Maheshwari (b) Yuho (c) Stanley (d) nageli
13. Number of pollen grains produced per pollen mother cell in gymnosperms is [ ]
(a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 6 (d) 10
14. Hybridization of bisexual flowering plants require one of the following. [ ]
(a) Removal of stamens (b) Removal of stigma
(c) Male Sterility (d) Female sterility
15. In the angiospermic ovule the synergids are [ ]
(a) haploid (b) diploid
(c)haploid before fertilization and diploid after fertilization (d) both (a) and (c)
16. Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by the division of [ ]
(a) generative cell (b) vegetative cell
(c) microspore mother cell (d) microspore
17. Angiosperms are characterised by [ ]
(a) fertilisation without gametes (b) double fertilization
(c) simple fertilization (d) parthenocarpy
18. Secondary nucleus of angiosperms is [ ]
(a) n (b) 2n (c) both a and b (d) 3n
19. Pollen grains in angiosperms develops from [ ]
(a) endothecium (b) sporogenous tissue (c) tapetum (d) middle layer
20. Most common type of embryo sac reported in angiosperm is of [ ]
(a) Polygonum (b) Oenothema (c)Adoxa (d) Plumbago
21. In fully developed male gametophyte the number of nuclei is [ ]
(a) l (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 2
22. Egg apparatus consists of an [ ]
(a) egg (b) egg and pollen nuclei
(c) egg and synergids (d) egg and autopodals
23. Double fertilisation in angiosperms was discovered by [ ]
(a) J.C. Bose (b) strasburger (c) Maheshwari (d) Nawaschin
24. Germ pores can be traced in [ ]
(a) pollen grain (b) seed (c) testa (d) ovule
25. In a mature embryo sac the central cell is [ ]
(a) single nucleate (b) binucleate (c) four nucleate (d) eight nucleate
26. Endosperm may completely be consumed by the developing embryo before in maturation
in [ ]
(a) pea (B) groundnut
(c) pea and groundnut (d) castor, pea and groundnut

SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS :: 2

 BIOLOGY-II :: (Chapter-wise Test)

HUMAN REPRODUCTION

1. Temporary and 100% effective method to control ijrth in males is [ ]

(a) tubal ligation (b) vasectomy
(c) oral contraceptives (d) mating rhythm control
2. Graafian follicle can be traced in [ ]
(a) testes (b) ovaries
(c) stomach (d) spleen
3. Translucent outer covering of egg is [ ]
(a) zona pellucida (b) zona radiata
(c) corona radiata (d) none above
4. A mature sperm has [ ]
(a) a nucleolus, an acrosome, a centriole
(b) a nucleolus, an acrosome, a pair of centrioles
(c) a pair of flagella
(d) a nucleus, an acrosome, a pair of centrioles and a long tail
5. Fertilization in mammals occurs in [ ]
(a) fallopian tubules (b) uterus
(c) vagina (d) cervix
6. Polar bodies formed during the formation of oocytes are [ ]
(A) smaller cells formed due to unequal meiosis
(B) structures which bud off during oogenesis
(c) structures formed during spermatogenesis
(D) daughter cells formed after mitosis
7. Both corpus luteum and macula lutea are [ ]
(a) found in human ovaries
(b) a source of hormones
(c) characterized by a yellow colour
(d) contributory in maintaining pregnancy
8. Sperm maturation in man occurs in [ ]
(a) epidydimis (b) vasa deferntia (c) vasa efferentia (d) rete testis
(e) none of these

HUMAN REPRODUCTION :: 1
 BIOLOGY-II :: (Chapter-wise Test)

9. Human fertilised egg is [ ]

(a) alecithal (b) microlecthal
(c) macrolecithal (d) telo-lecithal
10. In spermatogenesis the phase of maturation involves [ ]
(a) the formation of spermatogonia from genocytes through mitosis
(b) the growth of spermatogonia into primary sper-matocyte
(c) the formation of oogonia from the spermatocytes through meiosis
(d) the formation of spermatids from primary spermatocytes through meiosis
11. Seminiferous tubules are found in [ ]
(a) testes (b) ovary
(c) liver (d) kidney
12. Which of the following is not a part of female reproductive organ ? [ ]
(a) Uterus (b) Ovule
(c) Seminal vesicle (d) Clitoris
13. Onset of menstruation is due to [ ]
(a) fall in level of progesterone (b) increase in oestrogen level
(c) increase in FSH level (d) decrease in oxytocin level
14. Which of the following prevents the formation of corpus luteum and Graafian follicles? [ ]
(a) LH (b) Oestrogen
(c) FSH (d) Progesterone
15. When the uterine bleeding stops in females at age of 50 years that stage is called [ ]
(a) menopause (b) menstrual
(c) monarche (d) mesovarium
16. Spermatogenesis occurs in [ ]
(a) sertoli cells (b) uriniferous tubules
(c) seminiferous tubules (d) vas deferens
17. The phase of menstrual cycle in humans that lasts for 7-8 days, is [ ]
(a) follicular phase (b) ovulatory phase
(c) luteal phase (d) menstruation
18. The female hormone inhibin is secreted by [ ]
(a) zona pellucida (b) ovary
(c) corpus luteum (d) uterine epithelium

HUMAN REPRODUCTION :: 2
 BIOLOGY-II :: (Chapter-wise Test)

19. In the diagram of section of Graafian follicle,, different parts are indicated by alphabetes ; choose
the answer in which these alphabets have been correctly matched with the parts they
indicate: [ ]

(a) A = Theca externa ; B = Theca interna ; C = Ovum ; D = Membrana granulosa ; E = Antrum;

F = Cumulus oophorus
(b) A = Membrana granulosa; B = Theca interna; C = Ovum ; D = Cumulus oophorus ; E =
Antrum; F = Theca externa
(c) A = Membrana granulosa ; B = Theca exter-na ; C = Ovum; D = Cumulus oophorus; E =
Antrum; F = Theca interna
(d) A = Theca externa ; B = Theca interna ; C = Ovum; D = Cumulus oophorus; E = Antrum; F
= Membrana granulosa
20. Sperm releases lysozyme because it [ ]
(a) aids in fertilization (b) dissolves occyte membrane
(c) increases sperms motility (d) delays fertilization
21. Which of the following is a feature of secretory phase of menstrual cycle ? [ ]
(a) Fall in levels of oestrogen and progesterone
(b) Start of menstrual phase
(c) Bleeding phase (d) Luteal phase
22. Gubernaculum connects [ ]
(a) testes with scrotum (b) testes with ovaries
(c) ovaries with scrotum (d) testes with epididymus
23. A cross section at the midpoint of the middle piece of a human sperm will show : [ ]
(a) Centriole, mitochondria and 9 + 2 arrangement of microtubules.
(b) Centriole and mitochondria.
(c) Mitochondria and 9 + 2 arrangement of microtubules.
(d)9 + 2 arrangement of microtubules only.
HUMAN REPRODUCTION :: 3
 BIOLOGY-II :: (Chapter-wise Test)

24. One of the following causes ovulation [ ]

(a) LH (b) ADH (c) FSH (d) Thyroxine
25. Estrogen level is highest on [ ]
(a) 14th day (b) 12th day (c) 21st day (d) 5th day
26. Contraceptives adopted by females can be [ ]
(a) Copper-T (b) hysterictomy (c) Vasectpmy (d) all above
27. If mammalian ovum fails to get fertilized, which one of the following is unlikely ? [ ]
(a) Corpus luteum will disintegrate
(b) Estrogen secretion further decreases
(c) Primary follicle starts developing
(d) progesterone secrection rapidly declines
28. Which one of the following events is correctly matched with the time period in a normal menstrual
cycle ? [ ]
(a) Release of egg : 5th day
(b) Endometrium regenerates; 5-10 days.
(c) Endometrium secretes nutrients for implana-tion: 11-18 days.
(d) Rise in progesterone level: 1-15 days.
29. What happens to corpus luteum in case pregnancy is absent ? [ ]
(a) Maintained by progesterone
(b) Degenerated
(c) Release progesterone and xytovin
(d) Becomes active and secretes follicle stimulating hormone and leutenising hormone.
30. Sperms undergoing maturation are stored till ejaculation in [ ]
(a) epidydimis (b) seminal vesicle
(c) rete testes (d) seminiferous tubule

HUMAN REPRODUCTION :: 4
 BIOLOGY-II :: (Chapter-wise Test)

REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH

1. Match list I with list II and select the correct option from codes given below [ ]
List - I (Flowers) List - II (Pollinating agents)
A. Entomophilous I. Bird
B. Ornithophilous II. Bat
C. Chiropteriphilous III. Slug and snail
D. Malacophilous IV. Insect
A B C D
(a) I II III IV
(b) III IV II II
(c) II III IV I
(d) IV I II III
2. If dark period is interrupted by red light the short day plant will show [ ]
(a) early flowering
(b) delayed flowering
(c) both possibilities
(d) no flowering
3. Anther wall has 126 chromosomes in an angio-sperm its endosperm has ....................
chromosomes [ ]
(a) 252 (b) 378
(c) 63 (d) 189
4. Vivipary is most characteristic of [ ]
(a) Cocos (b) Rhizophora
(c) Sechium (d) all above
5. Unusal set of seeds amongst dicot are of [ ]
(a) Cuscuta (b) loranthaceae
(c) compositae (d) all above
6. Exineof microsporeof dicots is [ ]
(a) cellulose (b) chitin
(c) sporepollenin (d) lignin

REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH :: 1
 BIOLOGY-II :: (Chapter-wise Test)

7. Recurrent apomixis is [ ]
(a) parthenogenesis
(B) diploid parthenogenesis
(c) haploid parthenogenesis
(d) none above
8. Zeatin has been obtained from [ ]
(a) wheat (b) maize
(c) rice (d) coconutmilk
9. One of them is a synthetic phytohormone [ ]
(a) β-naphthalene acetic acid
(B) β-naphthalene acetic acid
(c) both a and b
(d) none of these
10. Who used the term ‘phytohormones’ for plant hormone ? [ ]
(a) Balls (b) Morgan
(c) Went (d) Thimman
11. The process of growth is determined by increase in [ ]
(a) size
(b) size and dry weight
(c) weight only
(d) dry weight only
12. The organic compound formed in one tissue of the plant affecting the growth and development
in minute quantity in other tissues is called [ ]
(a) enzyme (b) hormones
(c) activator (d) vitamins
13. Which of the following statement is false in relation to auxins ? [ ]
(a) Control direction of growth of plants
(b) Inhibits lateral bud growth
(c) Initiate and promote cell division
(d) produce hyperelongation

REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH :: 2
 BIOLOGY-II :: (Chapter-wise Test)

14. Most steroid metabolises produced during pregnancy result from [ ]

(a) foetal origin
(b) placental origin
(c) interplay between foetal, placenta! and mater-nal compartments [ ]
(d) maternal endocrines.
15. The flowers pollinated by animals are known as [ ]
(a) anemophily (b) anemogamy
(c) hydrogamy (d) zoophily
16. The majority of the flowers are [ ]
(a) entomophilous (b) omithophilous
(c) Chiropteriphilous (d) malacophilous
17. If synergids or antipodals make the embryo it is [ ]
(a) apospory (b) apomixis
(c) amphimixis (d) parthenogenesis
18. When there is alternate change in growth rates on opposite sides of the cylindrical stem apex in
a zig-zag manner, the growth is called [ ]
(a) mutation (b) guttation
(c) nutation (d) apical
19. Maximum growth in roots occurs [ ]
(a) at apex
(b) in presence of light
(c) benind the apex
(d) in presence of soil
20. Plant hormone which is translocated to other parts for growth of the plant is known as [ ]
(a) indole acetic acid (b) gibberellin
(c) cytokinins (d) all above
21. Nuclear endosperm is [ ]
(a) found in helobials (b) liquid of Cocos
(c) of Adoxa (d) of Peperomia
22. Megasporangium of angiosperm on maturation forms [ ]
(a) cotyledon (b) seed
(c) fruit (d) endosperm

REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH :: 3
 BIOLOGY-II :: (Chapter-wise Test)

23. Whose technique is applied for exdtraction and elimination of hormones ? [ ]

(a) Beek (b) Garner
(c) Beer (d) Went
24. Exogenous application of glibberrellins induce male flower fromation on genetically female
plants in [ ]
(a) Carica (b) Cocinia
(c) Cucumis (d) Cucurbita
25. Musa vegetatively propagates by [ ]
(a) leaves (b) bulbils
(c) ratoon (d) rhizome

REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH :: 4
 BIOLOGY-II :: (Chapter-wise Test)

HEREDITY AND VARIATION

1. Gametes are never hybrid ? It is a statement of law of : [ ]

(A) Dominance (B) Segregation
(C) Independent assortment (D) Random fertilization
2. Which is correct about traits chosen by Mendel ? [ ]
(A) Terminal pod is dominant
(B) Constricted pod is dominant
(C) Green coloured pod is dominant
(D) Tall plants are recessive
3. In a certain plant, red fruit (R) is dominant over yellow fruit (r) and tallness (T) is dominant over
shortness (t). If a plant with RRTt genotype is crossed with a plant rrtt genotype, what will be the
percentage of tall plants with red fruits in the progeny ? [ ]
(A) 50% (B) 100% (C) 75% (D) 25%
4. Mendel obtained wrinkled seeds in pea due to deposition of sugars instead of starch. It was due
to which enzyme ? [ ]
(A) Amylase (B) Invertase
(C) Diatase (D) Absence of starch branching enzyme
5. Ratio of complementry genes is : [ ]
(A) 9 : 3 : 4 (B) 12 : 3 : 1 (C) 9 : 3 : 3 : 4 (D) 9 : 7.
6. When dominant and recessive allele express itself together, it is called : [ ]
(A) Co-dominance (B) Dominance
(C) Amphidominance (D) Pseudodominance
7. What is correct for Blood group ‘O’ ? [ ]
(A) No antigens but both a and B antibodies are present
(B) A Antigen and b antibody
(C) Antigen and antibody both absent.
(D) A and B antigens and a, b antibodies.
8. Sickle cell anaemia induce to : [ ]
(A) Change of Amino Acid in α-chain of Haemoglobin
(B) Change of Amino Acid in β-chain of Haemoglobin
(C) Change of Amino Acid in both α or β chain of Haemoglobin
(D) Change of Amino Acid either α or β chain of Haemoglobin
HEREDITY AND VARIATION :: 1
 BIOLOGY-II :: (Chapter-wise Test)

9. Independent assortment of genes does not take place when : [ ]

(A) Genes are located on homologous chromosomes
(B) Genes are linked and located on same chromosome
(C) Genes are located on non-homologous chromosomes
(D) All the above
10. Two non-allelic genes produce the new phenotype when present together but fail to do so
independently, then it is called : [ ]
(A) Epistasis (B) Poly gene
(C) Non-complementary gene (D) Complementary gene
11. Two individuals with similar external appearance but different genetic make up have the
similar : [ ]
(A) Genotype (B) Phenotype (C) Heterozygote (D) Homozygote
12. Two crosses between the same pair of genotype or phenotypes in which the sources of the gametes
are reversed in one cross, is known as : [ ]
(A) Test cross (B) Reciprocal cross
(C) Dihybrid cross (D) Reverse cross
13. The genes controlling the seven pea characters studied by Mendel are now known to be located
on how many different chromosomes ? [ ]
(A) Seven (B) Six (C) Five (D) Four
14. Which one of the following traits of garden pea studied by Mendel was a recessive feature ?
(A) Round seed shape (B) Axial flower position
(C) Green seed colour (D) Green pod colour [ ]
15. When a cluster of genes show linkage behaviour they : [ ]
(A) induce cell division (B) do not show a chromosome map
(C) show recombination during meiosis (D) do not show independent assortment
16. Alleles represent : [ ]
(A) different forms of a gene
(B) same loci on homologous chromosomes
(C) two or more forms
(D) All the above
17. If a cross between two plants give 50% tall and 50% dwarf progeny, then the parents genotype
are : [ ]
(A) Tt x Tt (B) Tt x tt (C) TT x tt (D) TT x Tt

HEREDITY AND VARIATION :: 2

 BIOLOGY-II :: (Chapter-wise Test)

18. How many different types of gametes can be formed by F1 progeny, resulting from the cross
AABBCC x aabbcc ? [ ]
(A) 3 (B) 8 (C) 27 (D) 64
19. A person with blood group A has : [ ]
(A) Antigen A and antibody b (B) Antigen B and antibody a
(C) Antigen A and antibody B (D) No antibody and no antigen
20. Self-fertilising trihybrid plants form : [ ]
(A) Eight different gametes and 64 different zygotes
(B) Four different gametes and sixteen different zygotes
(C) Eight different gametes and sixteen different zygotes
(D) Eight different gametes and thirty two different zygotes
21. When a tall and red flowered individual is crossed with a dwarf and white flowered individual,
phenotype of the progeny will be : [ ]
(A) homozygous tall and red (B) heterozygous tall and red
(C) homozygous tall and white (D) homozygous dwarf and white
22. Genetic counsellors can identify heterozygous individu-als by : [ ]
(A) height of individuals (B) colour of individuals
(C) screening procedures (D) All of these
23. If a homozygous red flowered plant is crossed with a homozygous white flowered plant, the
offsprings would be: [ ]
(A) all red flowered (B) half red flowered
(C) half white flowered (D) all white flowered
24. If a plant having yellow or round seeds was crossed with another plant having green and wrinkled
seeds then F] progeny are in the ratio : [ ]
(A) 15 : 1 (B) 1 : 15
(C) 1 : 13 (D)all yellow and round seeds.
25. Given below is a pedigree chart of a family with five children. It shows the inheritance of attached
earlobes as opposed to the free ones. The squares represent the male individuals and circles the
female individuals. Which one of the following conclusions drawn is correct ? [ ]

HEREDITY AND VARIATION :: 3

 BIOLOGY-II :: (Chapter-wise Test)

(A) The parents are homozygous recessive (B) The trait is Y-linked
(C) The parents are homozygous dominant (D) The parents are heterozygous
26. Which of the following term represents a pair of con-trasting character ? [ ]
(A) Allele (B) Phenotype (C) Homozygous (D) Heterozygous
27. Following are the statements, which are either true or false. Examine them and find out the
incorrect answer. Mendel had selected Pisum sativum (garden pea) as his experimental tool
because : [ ]
(A) the hybrids remain infertile
(B) the plants can be self-fertilized
(C) these small herbaceous plants can be easily cultivated
(D) there are several pairs of contrasting characters of allotrophic traits
28. Cross between a homozygous black rough (BBRR) guinea pig and a homozygous white smooth
guinea pig (bbrr) produced F1 progeny all black and rough. Assum-ing that the black colour is
dominant over white skin and rough skin is dominant over smooth skin and the two genes involved
are present on different chromo-somes. The percentage of F2 individuals which are het-erozygous
for both the gene pairs would be : [ ]
(A) 25% (B) 50% (C) 75% (D)35%
29. The genetic ratio of 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 is due to : [ ]
(A) segregation of characters
(B) crossing over of chromosomes
(C) Independent assortment of genes
(D) homologous pairing between chromosomes
30. When cross is made between two species of the same genus, then the cross is known as :
(A) intraspecific hybridization (B) interspecific hybridization
(C) intergeneric hybridization (D) intervarietal hybridization [ ]

HEREDITY AND VARIATION :: 4

 BIOLOGY-II :: (Chapter-wise Test)

MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE

1. What is true about tRNA ? [ ]

(a) It binds with an amino acid at its 3' end
(b) It has five double stranded regions
(c) It has a codon at one end which recognizes the anticodon on messenger RNA
(d) It look like clover leaf in the three dimensional structure
2. When DNA is formed from RNA it is called [ ]
(a) D DNA (b) Z DNA
(c) c DNA (d) A DNA
3. Activation of an amino acid during protein synthesis requires a participation of specific molecule
of [ ]
(a) mRNA (b) tRNA
(c) rRNA (d) None
4. It has not escaped our notice that the specific pairing we have postulted immediately suggests a
possible copying mechanism for the genetic material’ ? This is written by [ ]
(a) Meselson and Stahl (b) Archibold Garrod
(c) Severo Ochoa (d) Watson and Crick
(e) Beedle and Tatum
5. Eukaryotic RNA polymerase III catalyse the synthesis of [ ]
(a) mRNA (b) tRNA
(c) 18 S rRNA (d) Introns
(e) 5 S rRNA
6. Which of the following is initiation codon ? [ ]
(a) AUG (b) AUU
(c) UAG (d) UVU
7. The RNA which carries the genetic message from the nucleus to the ribosomes is [ ]
(a) HnmRNA (b) mRNA
(c) tRNA (d) rRNA
8. During protein synthesis the anticodon on tRNA pairs with [ ]
(a) codon on tRNA (b) codon on mRNA
(c) ribosome unit (d) codon on rRNA

MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE :: 1

 BIOLOGY-II :: (Chapter-wise Test)

9. The triplet UUU codes for [ ]

(a) leucine (b) methionine
(c) phenyl alanine (d) glycine
10. The enzyme reverse transcriptase is basically [ ]
(a) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
(b) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
(c) RNA dependent DNA polymerase
(d) RNA dependent RNA polymerase
11. The starting t-RNA of prokaryctes is loaded with [ ]
(a) valine (b) methionine
(c) formylated methionine (d) tryptophan
12. The gene not expressing any protein is known as [ ]
(a) epistatic gene (b) hypostatic gene
(c) pseudogene (d) none of these
13. The enzyme DNA polymerase was discovered by [ ]
(a) Kornberg (b) Okazaki
(c) Watson and Crick (d) Stahl and Meselson
(e) Jacob and Monod
14. In the genetic code dictionary, how mfiiy codons are used to code for all the 20 essential amino
acids ? [ ]
(a) 20 (b) 64
(c) 61 (d) 60
15. During translation initiation in prokaryotes, a GTP molecule is needed in [ ]
(a) formation of formyl-met-tRNA
(b) binding of 30 S subunit of ribosome with mRNA
(c) association of 30 S-mRNA with formyl-met-tRNA
(d) association of 50 S subunit of ribosome with initiation complex
16. What would happen if in a gene encoding a polypeptide of 50 amino acids, 25th codon (UAU) is
mutated to UAA ? [ ]
(a) A polypeptide of 24 amino acids will be formed
(b) Two polypeptides of 24 and 25 amino acids will be formed
(c) A polypeptide of 49 amino acids will be formed
(d) Apolypeptide of 25 amino acids will be formed
MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE :: 2
 BIOLOGY-II :: (Chapter-wise Test)

17. Which one of the following triplet codes, is correctly matched with its specificity for an amino
acid in protein synthesis or as ‘start’ or ‘stop’ codon ? [ ]
(a) UCG—Start (b) UUU—Stop
(c) UGU—Leucine (d) UAC—Tyrosine
18. Degeneration of a genetic code is attributed to the [ ]
(a) first member of a codon (b) second member of a codon
(c) entire codon (d) third member of a codon
19. The terminator codons are [ ]
(a) UAA, UAG, UGA (b) AUG, UAG, UGA
(c) UAC, AUG, UAG (d) DCC, UAA, CAC
(e) AUG, ACG, GAG
20. Which of the following is the Pribnow box ? [ ]
(a) 5' TAATTA 3' (b) 5' TATAAT 3'
(c) 5’ATATTA 3' (d) 5' AATAAT 3'
21. Which experiment proved that DNAis the genetic material ? [ ]
(a) Transformation (b) Transduction
(c) Infection of tobacco with TMV (d) Lederberg’s Replica experiment
22. Which of the following sequences code for four pyrimidines ? [ ]
:
(a) AGGATC (b) TTGGAAC
(c) TTCCAAG (d) all of these
23. Process of genetic information from DNA to RNA is termed [ ]
(a) transcription (b) transversion
(c) translocation (d) transformation
24. Which of the following character is not applicable to t-RNA ? [ ]
(a) It is the smallest of the RNAs (b) It acts as an adapter for amino-acid
(c) It has a clover leaf like structure (d) It bears NODOC
(e) It is the largest of the RNAs
25. The function of non-sense codon is to [ ]
(a) to release polypeptide chain from RNA molecules
(b) form unspecified amino acid
(c) bring about termination of polypeptide chain
(d) determine message for protein synthesis

MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE :: 3

 BIOLOGY-II :: (Chapter-wise Test)

26. In a genetic code the process of degeneracy is that [ ]

(a) one codon has many meanings
(b) many codons have same meaning
(c) two codons only share many amino acids
(d) third base is not stable
27. The sigma factor is associated with [ ]
(a) RNA polymerase (b) RNA ligase
(c) DNA polymerase (d) DNA ligase
28. Duplication of DNAis catalyzed mainly by [ ]
(a) polymerase (b) helicase
(c) gyrase (d) ligase
29. Transcription is initiated by [ ]
(a) RNA polymerase (b) DNA polymerase
c) Kornberg’s enzyme (d) ligase
30. A molecule has two ends called [ ]
(a) 3' and 5' end
(b) N terminal and C terminal
(c) reducing and nonreducing ends
(d) antiparallel ends

MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE :: 4

 BIOLOGY-II :: (Chapter-wise Test)

HEALTH AND DISEASE

1. AIDS, mumps, measles, chicken pox, polio, influenza and rabies are caused by : [ ]
(A) Fungi (B) Bacteria
(C) Viruses (D) Protozoa
2. Vaccination protects a person from disease because it: [ ]
(A) Helps in better digestion (B) Increases RBC count
(C) Produces antibodies (D) Corrects body heating system
3. Immunoglobulin that increases in number during allergy is : [ ]
(A) IgA (B) IgE
(C) IgG (D) IgM
4. During infection T-cells interact with : [ ]
(A) Marcophages (B) B-cells
(C) Infected cells (D) Erythrocytes
5. The following organism causes the African sleeping sickness : [ ]
(A) Amoeba (B) Paramecium
(C) Trypanosoma (D) Plasmodium
6. Match the columns : [ ]
Column I Column II
a) Emphysema p) Nervous system
b) Ulcer q) Circulatory system
c) Arteriosclerosis r) Respiratory system
d) Epilepsy s) Digestive system
t) Excretory system
(A) a—r, b—s, c—t, d—q (B) a—r, b—s, c—q, d—p
(C) a—r, b—t, c—p, d—q (D) a—r, b—S, C—p, d—t
7. Some protection is provided against carcinogens by : [ ]
(A) Penicillic acid (B) Aflatoxin
(C) Streptomycin (D) Tocopherol/vit. E.
8. A disease which causes maximum deaths in children is : [ ]
(A) Diphtheria (B) Measles
(C) Tuberculosis (D) Whooping cough

HEALTH AND DISEASE :: 1

 BIOLOGY-II :: (Chapter-wise Test)

9. James Phipps and Ali Marvow are related to viral disease that has disappeared : [ ]
(A) Cow pox (B) Small pox
(C) Chicken pox (D) Tuberculosis
10. Which ones engulf foreign materials ? [ ]
(A) Macrophages (B) Plasma cells
(C) Mast cells (D) Lymphocytes
11. Squeezing of leucocytes from capillary walls to fight foreign agents is called : [ ]
(A) Diakinesis (B) Diapedesis
(C) Diapause (D) Diaphysis
12. What is true for monoclonal antibodies ? [ ]
(A) These antibodies obtained from one parent and for one antigen
(B) These obtained from different parents and for one antigen
(C) These obtained form one parent and for many antigens
(D) These obtained from many parents and for many antigens
13. Salmonella is related with : [ ]
(A) Typhoid (B) Polio
(C) T.B. (D) Tetanus
14. Which of the most infectious disease is : [ ]
(A) Hepatitis-B (B) AIDS
(C) Cough and cold (D) Malaria
15. Vaccination against small pox developed by : [ ]
(A) Edward Janner (B) Louis Pasteur
(C) Alexander Flemming (D) Robert Koch
16. Match the common names of diseases listed under column - I with their medical terms listed
under column - II; Choose the answer which gives the correct combination of the alphabets of
the two columns. [ ]
Column -I (common names) Column -II (medical terms)
a) Blood clotting in small capillaries p) rhinitis
b) Valve defects q) Stenosis
c) Hay fever r) Parkinson’s disease
d) Paralysis s) Coronary thrombosis
(A) a – s, b – q, c – p, d – r (B) a – q, b – s, c – r, d – p
(C) a – r, b – s, c – q, d – p (D) a – S, b – p, c – r, d – q
HEALTH AND DISEASE :: 2
 BIOLOGY-II :: (Chapter-wise Test)

17. For detection of cancer isotope used is : [ ]

(A) Iodine131 (B) Caesium60
(C) Radium (D) Uranium238
18. Which of the following disease is caused by virus ? [ ]
(A) Polio (B) Diphtheria
(C) Typhoid (D) Tuberculosis
19. Common influenza is caused by: [ ]
(A) virus (B) bacteria
(C) fungi (D)protists
20. Radiations can easily destroy cancerous cells because they: [ ]
(A) are fast mutating (B) are fast dividing
(C) get starved of nutrition (D) start replicating fast
21. The term antibiotic was coined by [ ]
(A) Alexander Flemming (B) Edward Jenner
(C) Louis Pasteur (D) Selman Waksman
22. Antibodies are produced by : [ ]
(A) RBC (B) thrombocytes
(C) monocytes (D) lymyphocytes
23. Trypanosoma causes : [ ]
(A) sleeping sickness (B) kala azar
(C) typhoid (D) filariasis
24. CAD stand for : [ ]
(A) Carotid Arterial Dysfunction (B) Cerebral Artery Dysfunction
(C) Coronary Artery Disease (D) Calcium Activated Disease
25. Carcinoma refers to : [ ]
(A) Malignant tumours of skin or mucous membrane
(B) Malignant tumour of colon
(C) Benign tumours of connective tissue
(D) Malignant tumours of connective tissue.
26. Hodgkins disease is : [ ]
(A) Cancer of the WBCs (B) Cancer of liver
(C) Cancer of lymphoid tissue (D) Cancer of mammary gland

HEALTH AND DISEASE :: 3

 BIOLOGY-II :: (Chapter-wise Test)

27. Which is the killer disease like AIDS and cancer ? [ ]

(A) Coronary heart disease (B) Alcoholism
(C) Cerebrovascular disease (D) Measles
28. A couple with blood types A and B may have children with which of following blood
groups ? [ ]
(A) A and B only (B) A, B and AB only
(C) A, B, AB and O (D) AB only
29. Zidovudine is a drug used in : [ ]
(A) Dengue fever (B) AIDS
(C) Yellow fever (D) Leukaemia
30. Which of the following viruses spreads AIDS ? [ ]
(A) SS RNA virus (B) DS DNA virus
(C) DS RNA virus (D) Circular DNA-virus

HEALTH AND DISEASE :: 4

 BIOLOGY-II :: (Chapter-wise Test)

IMPROVEMENT IN FOOD PRODUCTION

1. Triticale is obtained by crossing wheat with : [ ]

(A) Oat (B) Barley
(C) Maize (D) Rye
2. Before the European invader which vegetable was absent in India ? [ ]
(A) Potato and Tomato (B) Simla mirch and Brinjal
(C) Maize and chichinda (D) Bitter gourd
3. Which of the following is the pair of biofertilizers ? [ ]
(A) Azolla and EGA (B) Nostoc and legume
(C) Rhizobium and grasses (D) Salmonella and E.coli.
4. Which statement is correct about centre of origin of plant ? [ ]
(A) More diversity in improved variety
(B) Frequency of dominant gene is more
(C) Climatic condition more favourable
(D) None
5. A collection of plants and seeds having diverse alleles of all the genes of a crop is called :
(A) Herbarium (B) Germplasm
(C) Gene library (D) Genome [ ]
6. “Jaya” and “Ratna” developed for green revolution in India are the varieties of: [ ]
(A) Maize (B) Rice
(C) Wheat (D)Bajra
7. ‘Himgiri’ developed by hybridisation and selection for disease resistance against rust pathogens
is a variety of : [ ]
(A) Chilli (B) Maize
(C) Sugarcane (D) Wheat
8. Colchicine brings about : [ ]
(A) Gene mutations (B) Chromosome aberrations
(C) Quick replication (D) Duplication of chromosomes
9. Triticale has been developed through intergeneric hybridisation between : [ ]
(A) Wheat and Rye/Secale (B) Wheat and Aegilops
(C) Wheat and Rice (D) Rice and Maize

IMPROVEMENT IN FOOD PRODUCTION :: 1

 BIOLOGY-II :: (Chapter-wise Test)

10. In crop improvement programme haploids are important because they : [ ]

(A) Require one half of nutrients
(B) Are helpful in study of meiosis
(C) Grow better under adverse conditions
(D) Form perfect homozygous individuals on diploidisation
11. Best method to increase crop yield is (e.g. wheat) [ ]
(A) Using tractors
(B) Sowing seeds of improved varieties
(C) Eradication of weeds
(D) Reduce ration holders
12. Hereditary variations can be got with the help of: [ ]
(A) X-rays (B) DOT
(C) Auxin (D) Gtbberellin
13. Crop improvement is possible through : [ ]
(A) Judicious combination of selection, introduction and hybridisation
(B) Selection
(C) Scientific improvement of cultivated plants
(D) Introduction
14. A breeder evolving disease resistant variety will start with : [ ]
(A) Working out yield of different varieties
(B) Go through the subject in library
(C) Selection of parents
(D) Hybridisation
15. Emasculation of flowers is carried out through removal of: [ ]
(A) Sigma (B) Sepals and petals
(C) Anthers (D) Entire organism
16. Regulations governing movement of diseased plant material are called: [ ]
(A) Crop protection (B) Quarantine
(C) Plant regulation (D) Rotation
17. A tool in crop improvement involving identification of genes, transfer and integration is :
(A) Protoplast fusion and tissue cutlture (B) Somaclonal hybridisation
(C) Gene bank technology (D) Genetic engineering [ ]

IMPROVEMENT IN FOOD PRODUCTION :: 2

 BIOLOGY-II :: (Chapter-wise Test)

18. Crosses involving plants of thejs&me variety are : [ ]

(A) Intravarietal (B) Interspecific
(C) Intervarietal (D) Intra-generic
19. An old breeding technique is : [ ]
(A) Introduction (B) Selection
(C) Mutation breeding (D) Hybridisation
20. Aim of plant breeding is to : [ ]
(A) Control pollution (B) Keep soil fertile
(C) Produce improved varieties (D) To maintain wild plants
21. Pure line breeds refer to : [ ]
(A) Homozygosity and independent assortment
(B) Homozygosity only
(C) Heterozyqosity
(D) Heterozygosity and linkage
22. Quarantine regulation is meant for : [ ]
(A) Preventing entry of diseased plants/pathogen/wild plants in the country
(B) Spraying diseased plants with insecticides
(C) Promoting dry farming
(D) Growing fruit trees in all the states.
23. Androgenic haploids were produced from anther culture for the first time by : [ ]
(A) Bateson (B) Ninan
(C) Auerbach and Stadler (D)Guha and Maheshwari
(E) Sutton and Boveri
24, Emasculation is removal of: [ ]
(A) Stigma from flower of male parent
(B) Calyx from flower of male parent
(C) Calyx from flower of female parent
(D) Stamens from flowers of female parent
(E) Corolla from flower of female parent.
25. Selection is a method of: [ ]
(A) Cytology (B) Plant physiology
(C) Plant breeding (D) Genetics

IMPROVEMENT IN FOOD PRODUCTION :: 3

 BIOLOGY-II :: (Chapter-wise Test)

26. Central Sugarcane Breeding Research Institute is situated at : [ ]

(A) Coimbatore (B) Lucknow
(C) Delhi (D) Bhopal
27. Match the columns and find out the correct combination [ ]
I II
a) Mutation breeding i) Laborious and expensive process to obtain gene variations
b) Selection ii) Hybrid vigour can be maintained for several generations
c) Hybridisation iii) Simplest and earliest method of plant improvement
d) Introduction iv) Oldest breeding method
v) Quick method to obtain gene variations.
(A) a - v, b - iv, c - i, d - ii (B) a - v, b - iv, c - i, d - iii
(C) a - iv, b - ii, c - iii, d - i (D) a - i, b - ii, c - iv, d - v
28. Self pollination results in : [ ]
(A) Heterosis (B) Hybridisation
(C) Polyploidy (D) Inbreeding depression
29. Genetic diversity of agricultural crops is threatened by: [ ]
(A) Extensive intercropping
(B) Intensive use of fertilizers
(C) Introduction of high yielding varieties
(D) Intensive use of biopesticides
30. Haploid plants are preferred over diploid plants for study of mutation because in haploids :
(A) Culturing is easy
(B) Only dominant mutation expresses
(C) Only recessive mutation expresses
(D) All mutations express [ ]

IMPROVEMENT IN FOOD PRODUCTION :: 4

 BIOLOGY-II :: (Chapter-wise Test)

MICROBES IN HUMAN WELFARE

1. Farmers have reported over 50% higher yields of rice by using the biofertilizer : [ ]
(A) Mycorrhiza
(B) Azolla pinnata
(C) Cyanobacteria
(D) Legume-Rhizobium Symbiosis
2. Biological control component is central to advanced agricultural production. Which of the
following is used as a third generation pesticide ? [ ]
(A) Insect hormone analogues (B) Insect repellants
(C) Pheromones (D) Pathogens
3. Which one of the following is non-symbiotic bio-fertilizer ? [ ]
(A) VAM (B) Azotobacter
(C) Anabaena (D) Rhizobium
4. A biofertilizer is : [ ]
(A) farmyard manure consisting of mixture of cattle dung and crop residues
(B) green manure in which a quick growing crop is cultivated and ploughed under
(C) a cyanobacterium like Anabaena sp. living in cavities of Azolla leaves
(D) symbiotic’bacteria like - Azotobacter which fix atmospheric nitrogen
5. Which organism serves as a biofertilizer [ ]
(A) Azolla (B) E.coli
(C) Spirogrya (D) Cassia
6. Azotobacter and Bacillus polymyxa are : [ ]
(A) Decomposers (B) Non-symbiotic nitrogen fixers
(C) Symbiotic nitrogen fixers (D) Pathogenic bacteria
7. The phenomenon of using a predator for controllipg a pest is : [ ]
(A) Biological control (B) Genetic engineering
(C) Artificial control (D) Confusion technique
8. Crop rotation is carried out for : [ ]
(A) Increasing acidity of soil (B) Decreasing fertility of soil
(C) increasing fertility of soil (D) All the above

MICROBES IN HUMAN WELFARE :: 1

 BIOLOGY-II :: (Chapter-wise Test)

9. Nitrogen fixation is : [ ]
(A) Nitrogen → Ammonia (B) Nitrogen → Nitrates
(C) Nitrogen → Amino acids (D) Both A and B
10. Leghaemoglobin occurs in : [ ]
(A) Coralloid root (B) EGA
(C) Around bacteriods (D) Mycorrhiza
11. EGA is chiefly used as fertilizer in : [ ]
(A) Wheat (B) Paddy
(C) Mustard (D) Gram
12. Which element plays an important role in nitrogen fixation ? [ ]
(A) Mn (B) Mo
(C) Zn (D) Cu
13. Mycorrhiza represents : [ ]
(A) Antagonism (B) Endemism
(C) Symbiosis (D) Parasitism
14. The biological control of agricultural pests, unlike, chemical control is : [ ]
(A) Self perpetuating (B) Polluting
(C) Very expensive (D) Toxic
15. The neem is used as a natural insecticide because : [ ]
(A) The extract of neem contains azadirachtin which acts as an antifeedant compound.
(B) It is significantly most effective than other pesticides
(C) It is rapidly degradable in nature
(D) Its cost of production is not high
16. Which one of the following helps in absorption of phosphorus from soil by plants ? [ ]
(A) Glomus (B) Rhizobium
(C) Frankia (D) Anabaena
17. Secondary sewage treatment is mainly a : [ ]
(A) Physical process (B) Mechanical process
(C) Chemical process (D) Biological process
18. Which of the following is mainly produced by the activity of anaerobic bacteria on sewage ?
(A) Laughing gas (B) Propane
(C) Mustard gas (D) Marsh gas [ ]

MICROBES IN HUMAN WELFARE :: 2

 BIOLOGY-II :: (Chapter-wise Test)

19. An organism used as a biofertilizer for raising soyabean crop is : [ ]

(A) Azotobacter (B) Azospirillum
(C) Rhizobium (D) Nostoc
20. The most common substrate used in distilleries for the production of ethanol is : [ ]
(A) Com meal (B) Soya meal
(C) Ground gram (D) Molasses
21. Ethanol is commercially produced through a particular species of: [ ]
(A) Saccharomyces (B) Clostridium
(C) Trichoderma (D) Aspergillus
22. A prokaryotic autotrophic nitrogen fixing symbiont is found in : [ ]
(A)Alnus (B) Cycas
(C) Cicer (D) Pisum
23. Which one of the following is not a biofertilizer ? [ ]
(A) Agrobacterium (B) Rhizobium
(C) Nostoc (D) Mycorrhiza
24. Continuous addition of sugars in ‘fed batch’ fermentation is done to : [ ]
(A) Produce methane (B) Obtain antibiotics
(C) Purify enzymes (D) Degrade sewage

MICROBES IN HUMAN WELFARE :: 3

 BIOLOGY-II :: (Chapter-wise Test)

PRINCIPLES AND PROCESSES OF BIOTECHNOLOGY

1. Restriction endonucleases are used as : [ ]

(A) molecular build up at nucleotides
(B) molecular degradation to DNA breakup
(C) molecular knives for cutting DNA at specific sites
(D) molecular cement to combine DNA sites
2. A somatic plant cell has potential to develop into a full plant. This is called : [ ]
(A) totipotency (B) gene cloning
(C) tissue culture (D) regeneration
3. Enzymes breaking nucleic acids into nuleotides are called : [ ]
(A) hydrolases (B) amylases (C) nucleic acidases (D) nucleases
4. Recombinant DNA technology is related with : [ ]
(A) Stanley Cohen and Harbert Boyer
(B) Bateson and Punnet
(C) Huxley and Harvey
(D) Schleiden and Schwann.
5. Cosmid is : [ ]
(A) extragenetic material in Mycoplasma
(B) Circular DNA in bacteria
(C) extra DNA in bacteria
(D) fragment of DNA inserted in bacteria for forming copies
6. Match the correct one : [ ]
(A) RNA Polymerse-RNA primer
(B) respiration-Lysosome
(C) restriction enzyme-genetic engineering
(D) central dogma-DNA structure
7. Plasmid is used as carrier because : [ ]
(A) it has both ends with replicating points
(B) it has no free ends
(C) it is circular DNA with a capacity of binding with equkaryotic DNA
(D) All of the above

PRINCIPLES AND PROCESSES OF BIOTECHNOLOGY :: 1

 BIOLOGY-II :: (Chapter-wise Test)

8. The Ti plasmid used in genetic engineering is obtained from: [ ]

(A) Bacillus thuringeinsis
(B) Agrobacterium rhizogenes
(C) Agrobacterium tumifaciens
(D) Escherichia coli
9. The function of polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is : [ ]
(A) translation (B) transduction
(C) DNA amplification (D) None of these
10. Genetically engineered bacterium1 used in production of : [ ]
(A) thyroxine (B) human insulin
(C) epinephrine (D) cortisol
11. Abnormal gene is replaced by normal gene through : [ ]
(A) gene therapy (B) medicines
(C) cloning (D) radiation
12. In genetic engineering, the terms vector is applied for : [ ]
(A) plasmid (B) sources of DNA
(C) cell which receives (D) virus
13. Gene therapy involves : [ ]
(A) introducing of a normal genes in cell
(B) eliminating defective and useless genes
(C) treating of defective genes with radiations
(D) replacement of defective genes by normal ones
14. Which of the followign enzyme is used in genetic engineering ? [ ]
(A) Translocase (B) Topoisomerase
(C) DNAse (D) Restriction endonuclease
15. The transgenic animals are those which have : [ ]
(A) foreign RNA in all its cell
(B) foreign DNA in all its cells
(C) foreign DNA in some of its cells
(D) Both ‘A’ and ‘C’
16. Known sequence of DNA that is used to find complementary DNA strand is: [ ]
(A) vector (B) plasmid (C) DNA probe (D) recombinant DNA

PRINCIPLES AND PROCESSES OF BIOTECHNOLOGY :: 2

 BIOLOGY-II :: (Chapter-wise Test)

17. Totipotency in cell is : [ ]

(A) flower in a culture medium
(B) development of fruit from a flower in a culture medium
(C) development of an organism from a cell in culture medium
(D) development of all tissues of all kinds from a cell in a culture medium
18. The nuclease enzyme, which begins its attack from free end of a polynucleotide, is ? [ ]
(A) Exonuclease (B) Kinase
(C) Polymerase (D) Endonuclease
19. DNA finger printing method is very useful for : [ ]
(A) DNA tests for identity and relationships (B) Forensic studies
(C) Polymorphism (D) All of the above
20. Reverse transcriptase : [ ]
(A) disintegrates host DNA (B) translates host DNA
(C) transcribes viral RNA to DNA (D) polymerises host DNA
21. Boviene spongiform encephalopathy disease is equal to [ ]
(A) KalaAzar (B) Parkinson’s disease
(C) Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease (D) None of the above
22. A clone of sheep Dolly has been made by : [ ]
(A) Gene transfer (B) Somatic cell cloning
(C) Nucleus transfer (D) Germinal cell cloning
23. Which one of die following bacteria has found extensive use in genetic engineering work in
plants ? [ ]
(A) Agrobacterium tumefaciens (B) Clostridium septicum
(C) Xanthomonas citri (D) Bacillus coagule
24. Improvement of genotype of an organism by addition of some foreign genes is : [ ]
(A) Genetic diversity (B) Gene handling
(C) Tissue culture (D) Genetic engineering
25. Variable number of tendem repeats (VTNRs) in the DNA molecule are highly useful in :
(A) Monoclonal antibody production (B) DNA fingerprinting
(C) Recombinant DNA technology (D) Stem cell culture [ ]
26. The first clone animal of the world is :
(A) Molly sheep (B) Polly sheep (C) Dolly sheep (D) Molly goat

PRINCIPLES AND PROCESSES OF BIOTECHNOLOGY :: 3

 BIOLOGY-II :: (Chapter-wise Test)

27. In transgenics, the expression of transgene in the target tissue is known by : [ ]

(A) Enhancer (B) Transgene
(C) Promoter (D) Reporter
28. DNA fingerprinting is related to : [ ]
(A) Molecular analysis of profiles of DNA samples
(B) Analysis of DNA samples using imprinting devices
(C) Techniques used for molecular analysis of different specimens of DNA
(D) Techniques used in identification of finger prints of different persons
29. Which of the following is specifically used in genetic engineering ? [ ]
(A) Ligase (B) Gyrase
(C) DNA polymerase (D) Restriction endonuclease
30. Molecular scissors, which cut DNA at specific site : [ ]
(A) ligase (B) cellulase
(C) pectinase (D) polymerase
(E) restriction endonuclease

PRINCIPLES AND PROCESSES OF BIOTECHNOLOGY :: 4

 BIOLOGY-II :: (Chapter-wise Test)

APPLICATION OF BIOTECHNOLOGY IN HEALTH AND AGRICULTURE

1. Which one of the following micro-organisms is used for production of citric acid in
industries ? [ ]
(A) Lactobacillus vulgaris (B) Penicillium citrinum
(C) Aspergillus niger (D) Rhizopus nigricans
2. Important objective of biotechnology in agriculture sector is : [ ]
(A) To produce pest resistant varieties of plants
(B) To increase the nitrogen content
(C) To decrease the seed number
(D) To increase the plant weight.
3. The main technique involved in agricultural biotechnology is called : [ ]
(A) Tissue culture (B) Transformation
(C) Plant breeding (D) DNA replication
4. The new strain of bacteria produced by biotechnology in alcohol industry is : [ ]
(A) Escherichia coli (B) Saccharomcyces cerevisiae
(C) Bacillus subtilis (D) Pseudomonas putida
5. The basis of DNA fingerprinting is : [ ]
(A) Availability of cloned DNA
(B) Knowledge of human karyotype
(C) Occurrence of restriction fragment length polymorphism (RELP)
(D) Phenotypic differences between individuals.
6. Genetically engineered bacteria have been used in commercial production of: [ ]
(A) Thyroxine (B) Testosterone (C) Human insulin (D) Melatonin
7. Which of the following correctly defines a transgenic animal ? [ ]
(A) An animal which has foreign DNA in all its cells because of an injection of DNA into the
nuclei of the zygote from which it is developed
(B) An animal which has foreign DNA in all its cells because of an injection of DNA into the
nuclei of some of the cells in adulthood
(C) An animal which has foreign DNA and RNA in some of its cells because of an injection of
DNA and RNA into the nucleus of the zygote from which it is developed
(D) An animal which has foreign DNA in some of its cells because of an injection of DNA, into
the nuclei of some of the cells of the blastocyst

APPLICATION OF BIOTECHNOLOGY IN HEALTH AND AGRICULTURE :: 1

 BIOLOGY-II :: (Chapter-wise Test)

8. Which one of the following in not true about antibiotics ? [ ]

(A) First antibiotic was discovered by Alexander Fleming
(B) The term ‘antibiotic’ was coined by Selman Waksman in 1942
(C) Some persons can be allergic to a particular antibiotic
(D) Each antibiotic is effective only against one particular kind of germ
9. Rennin used in cheese industry is : [ ]
(A) Antibiotic (B) Alkaloid
(C) Enzyme (D) Inhibitor
10. The organism used for alcoholic fermentation is : [ ]
(A) Saccharomyces (B) Aspergillus
(C) Pseudomonas (D) Pencillium
11. A cell coded protein that is formed in response to infection with most animal viruses is
called : [ ]
(A) histone (B) vaccine
(C) antibody (D) interferon
12. Which of the following organelles is related with genetic engineering? [ ]
(A) Mitochondria (B) Golgi apparatus
(C) Plasmids (D) Lysosomes
13. A chemical susbtance derived from a living source that has the capacity to inhibit growth or to
destroy microbes is called. [ ]
(A) Vaccine (B) Toxoid
(C) Toxin (D) Antibiotic
14. The Central Drug Research Institute (CDRI) is situated in : [ ]
(A) New Delhi (B) Allahabad
(C) Lucknow (D) Kanpur
15. Wine and Beer are produced directly by fermentation. Brandy and Whisky require both
fermentation and distillation because : [ ]
(A) fermentation is inhibited at an alcoholic level of 10-18%
(B) distillation prolongs storage
(C) distillation improves quality
(D) distillation purifies the beverage

APPLICATION OF BIOTECHNOLOGY IN HEALTH AND AGRICULTURE :: 2

 BIOLOGY-II :: (Chapter-wise Test)

16. The antibiotics obtained from Streptomyces are : [ ]

(A) Chloramphenicol, Erythromycin
(B) Leucomycin, Neomycin
(C) Novobiocin, Spiramycin
(D) All of these
17. Human insulin has 51 amino acids in two chains. Mark the correct statement. [ ]
(A) A chain with 21 and B chain with 30 amino acids.
(B) A chain with 20 and B chain with 31 amino acids.
(C) A chain has 31 has B has 20 amino acids
(D) A chain has 30 and B has 21 amino acids.
18. During “gene cloning” which is called as “gene taxi” ? [ ]
(A) Vaccine (B) Plasmid
(C) Bacterium (D) Protozoa
19. What does Bt stands for the popular crop Bt cotton ? [ ]
(A) Biotechnology (B) Best type
(C) Bacillus tomentosa. (D) Bacillus thuringiensis
20. Name the drug used in cancer treatment produced by using biotechnology : [ ]
(A) Terramycin (B) HGH
(C) Insulin (D) Interferon
21. The main technique involved in agricultural biotechnology is called : [ ]
(A) Tissue culture (B) Transformation
(C) Plant breeding (D) DNA replication
22. The new strain of bacteria produced by biotechnology in alcohol industry is : [ ]
(A) Escherichia coll (B) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(C) Bacillus subtilis (D) Pseudomonas putida
23. Use of biology in industrial process and for improving quality of life is called : [ ]
(A) Biotechnology (B) Microbiology
(C) Genetic engineering (D) Eugenics
24. What is the reason of formation of embryoid from pollen grain in tissue culture medium ?
(A) Cellular totipotency (B) Organogenesis
(C) Double fertilization (D) Test tube culture [ ]

APPLICATION OF BIOTECHNOLOGY IN HEALTH AND AGRICULTURE :: 3

 BIOLOGY-II :: (Chapter-wise Test)

25. The technique of obtaining large number of plantlets by tissue culture method is called : [ ]
(A) Organ culture (B) Micropropagation
(C) Macropropagation (D) Plantlet culture
26. Somaclonal variation can be obtained by : [ ]
(A) Application of colchicine (B) Hybridisation
(C) Irradiation with gamma rays (D) Tissue culture
27. Cultivation of Bt cotton has been much in the news. The prefix Bt means : [ ]
(A) “Barium treated” cotton seeds
(B) “Bigger thread” variety of cotton with better tensile strength
(C) Produced by “biotechnology” using restriction enzymes and ligases
(D) Carrying an endotoxin gene from Bacillus thuringiensis
28. In transgenics, expression of transgene in target tissue is determined by : [ ]
(A) Transgene (B) Promoter
(C) Reporter (D) Enhancer
29. The Ti plasmid is often used for making transgenic plants. This plasmid is found in : [ ]
(A) Rhizobium of the roots of leguminous plants
(B) Agrobacterium
(C) Yeast as a 2 urn plasmid
(D) Azotobacter
30. The first antibiotic was discovered by ............. [ ]
(A) Louis Pasteur (B) R. Koch
(C) W. Fleming (D) A Fleming

APPLICATION OF BIOTECHNOLOGY IN HEALTH AND AGRICULTURE :: 4

 BIOLOGY-II :: (Chapter-wise Test)

ORGANIMS AND ENVIRONMENT

1. The keystone species in an ecosystem are those which : [ ]

(A) are present in large number
(B) are most frequent
(C) attain a large biomass
(D) contribute to ecosystem properties
2. The sphere of living matter together with water, air and soil on the earth is called : [ ]
(A) atmosphere (B) hydrosphere
(C) lithosphere (D) biosphere
3. Plants with irreversible and genetically fixed adaptations are known as : [ ]
(A) ecotypes (B) ecotones
(C) ecophenes (D) ecological equivalents
4. Species which has a restricted distribution is called : [ ]
(A) endemic (B) sympatric
(C) allopatric (D) ecospecies
5. Study of communities, especially their environmental relationship and structure, is known
as : [ ]
(A) autoecology (B) synecology
(C) genecology (D) phytosociology
6. When the organisms live together in such a manner that one organism is benefited while the
other remains unaffected. This type of association is called : [ ]
(A) commensalism (B) symbiosis
(C) mutualism (D) parasitism
7. Plants and animals living in a given area form a : [ ]
(A) biome (B) ecotone
(C) biotic community (D) bioindicator
8. The part of earth and atmosphere supporting life is : [ ]
(A) biota (B) biome (C) ecotone (D) biosphere
9. Which of the following is synecology ? [ ]
(A) Study of same species (B) Study of different species
(C) Both of these (D) None of these

ORGANIMS AND ENVIRONMENT :: 1

 BIOLOGY-II :: (Chapter-wise Test)

10. Term ‘biocoenosis’ was coined by : [ ]

(A) Karl Mobius (B) Charles Darwin
(C) E.P. Odum (D) E.Haeckel
11. Number of immigration is more than emigration and death is lower than natality. Growth curve
of population will show: [ ]
(A) Exponential phase (B) Lag phase
(C) Declining phase (D) Steady phase
12. Which one of the following have raised cheek bones, oblique eyes and yellowish skin
colour ? [ ]
(A) Negroids (B) Mongoloids
(C) Polynesians (D) Caucasoids
13. Scent producing glands are : [ ]
(A) Anal glands (B) Adrenal glands
(C) Bertholin’s gland (D) Prostate gland
14. Pheromone is : [ ]
(A) Product of endocrine gland (B) A protein
(C) mRNA (D) Used for animal communication
15. Percentage ratio ofihatality over mortality is : [ ]
(A) Population dynamics (B) Vital index
(C) Population density (D) Total count
16. Human population shows : [ ]
(A) J-shaped growth curve (B) Z-shaped growth curve
(C) S-shaped growth curve (D) All the above
17. The process of mating of individuals which are more closely related than the average of the
population to which they belong is called : [ ]
(A) inbreeding (B) hybridization
(C) heterosis (D) self-breeding
18. Adaptation of a species is its : [ ]
(A) ecdysis (B) metamorphosis
(C) acquired character (D) hereditary character
19. The abundance of a species in a population, within its habitat, is called : [ ]
(A) niche density (B) absolute density
(C) relative density (D) regional density
ORGANIMS AND ENVIRONMENT :: 2
 BIOLOGY-II :: (Chapter-wise Test)

20. Asymptote is a stage when a population is : [ ]

(A) stabilised (B) changing
(C) increasing (D) decreasing
21. Two species cannot occupy the same niche. This law is known as : [ ]
(A) Wien Law (B) Gause Law
(C) Alien Law (D) Competition exclusion Principle
22. In which one of the following habitat, does the diurnal temperature of soil surface vary
most ? [ ]
(A) Forest (B) Desert
(C) Grassland (D) Shrub land
23. Broad-leaved forest oak are found in : [ ]
(A) North coniferous forests
(B) Mediterranean evergreen forest
(C) Temperate deciduous forests
(D) Tropical deciduous forest
24. Prolonged liberal irrigation of agricultural field likely to create the problem of : [ ]
(A) Aridity (B) Acidity
(C) Metal toxicity (D) Salinity
25. At which latitude, heat gain through insolation approximately equals heat loss through terrestrial
radiation ? [ ]
(A) 66%° North and South (B) 22l/2° North and South
(C) 421/2° North and South (D) 40° North and South
26. Animals have the innate ability to escape from predation. Examples for the same are given
below. Select the incorrect example : [ ]
(A) Colour change in chameleon
(B) Melanism in moths
(C) Poison fangs in snakes
(D) Enlargement of body size by swallowing air in puffer fish
27. There exists a close association between the alga and the fu«gus withfh a lichen. The
fungus : [ ]
(A) fixes the atmospheric nitrogen for the alga
(B) provides protection, anchorage and absorption for the alga
(C) releases oxygen for the alga
(D) provides food for the alga

ORGANIMS AND ENVIRONMENT :: 3

 BIOLOGY-II :: (Chapter-wise Test)

28. Identify the correctly matched pair [ ]

(A) Montreal Protocol - Global warming
(B) Kyoto Protocol - Climatic change
(C) Ramsar Convention - Ground water pollution
(D) Basal Convention - Biodiversity Conservation
29. The ability of the Venus fly trap to capture insects is due to : [ ]
(A) specialized ‘muscle-like’ cells
(B) chemical stimulation by the prey
(C) a passive process requiring nc special ability on the part of the plant
(D) rapid turgor pressure changes
30. Sunderban contains mainly : [ ]
(A) mangroove plants (B) alpine trees
(C) thick forest (D) grass

ORGANIMS AND ENVIRONMENT :: 4

 BIOLOGY-II :: (Chapter-wise Test)

ECOSYSTEMS

1. Green plants constitute : [ ]

(A) First trophic level (B) Second trophic level
(C) Third trophic level (D) Fourth trophic level
2. Tip of an ecological pyramid is occupied by : [ ]
(A) Producers (B) Herbivores
(C) Carnivores (D) None of the above
3. Zooplanktonic forms are : [ ]
(A) Primary producers (B) Carnivores
(C) Primary consumers (D) Secondary consumers
4. Which of the following occurs in abiotic component of ecosystem ? [ ]
(A) Flow of energy
(B) Cycling of materials
(C) Consumers
(D) Flow of energy and cycling of materials
5. A treeless biome is : [ ]
(A) Tundra (B) Grass land
(C) Desert (D) All the above
6. A man-made microecosystem is : [ ]
(A) Plants grown in a pond
(B) Crop field
(C) Tank formed naturally in your courtyard
(D) Lake in a forest
7. Which one has always a steeper vertical gradient ? [ ]
(A) Pyramid of mass
(B) Pyramid of energy
(C) Pyramid of numbers
(D) Pyramid of energy in aquatic ecosystem
8. Which one is exclusive xerophytic adaptation ? [ ]
(A) Absence of stomata (B) Long tap root system
(C) Stipular leaves (D) Spines

ECOSYSTEMS :: 1
 BIOLOGY-II :: (Chapter-wise Test)

9. Which one has evergreen vegetation and drought adapted animals ? [ ]

(A) Chaparral (B) Savannah
(C) Tundra (D) Deciduous forest
10. Which part of the world has high density of organi sms ? [ ]
(A) Grasslands (B) Savannahs
(C) Deciduous forests (D) Tropical rain forests
11. Viviparity and pneumatophores are features of : [ ]
(A) Hydrophytes (B) Halophytes
(C) Mesophytes (D) Xerophytes
12. The flora and fauna in lakes or ponds are : [ ]
(A) lentic biota (B) lotic biota
(C) abiotic biota (D) field layer
13. Trophic levels are formed by : [ ]
(A) Only plants (B) Only animals
(C) Only carnivores (D) Organisms linked in food chains
14. An ecosystem has which of the following two components ? [ ]
(A) Frogs and men (B) Weeds and trees
(C) Biotic and abiotic (D) Plants and animals
15. The atmospheric humidity is measured by : [ ]
(A) Potometer (B) Photometer
(C) Hygrometer (D) Auxanometer
16. The concept of ecological pyramids was developed by : [ ]
(A) Elton (B) Darwin
(C) Odum (D) Reiter
17. From feeding on herbivorous insect is : [ ]
(A) Primary consumer (B) Secondary consumer
(C) Tertiary consumer (D) Top carnivore
18. Maximum biomass of autotrophs in oceans is made of: [ ]
(A) Benthic brown algae, coastal red algae and daphnids
(B) Benthic diatoms and marine viruses
(C) Sea grasses and slime moulds
(D) Free floating microalgae, cyanobacteria and nanoplankton

ECOSYSTEMS :: 2
 BIOLOGY-II :: (Chapter-wise Test)

19. Terai forest is : [ ]

(A) Tropical (B) Coniferous
(C) Deciduous (D) Temperate deciduous
20. Savannah is found commonly in : [ ]
(A) U.S.A. (B) U.S.S.R.
(C) Australia (D) India
21. A recently discovered ecosystem is : [ ]
(A) Crater (B) Tundra
(C) Floating Iceberg (D) Vent
22. Controlling factor in ecosystem is : [ ]
(A) Soil moisture (B) Food
(C) Predation (D) Temperature
23. Transition zone between two vegetational types is : [ ]
(A) Ecotone (B) Ecotype
(C) Ecocline (D) Ecosystem
24. Plant decomposers are : [ ]
(A) Monera and fungi
(B) Fungi and plants
(C) Protista and Animalia
(D) Animalia and Monga
25. The ecosystem consists of : [ ]
(A) Producers (B) Consumers
(C) Decomposers (D) All of these
26. Desert can be converted into green land by planting : [ ]
(A) Oxylophytes (B) Psammophytes
(C) Halophytes (D) Tropical trees
27. In food chain, lion is a : [ ]
(A) Primary consumer
(B) Secondary producer
(C) Tertiary consumer
(D) Secondary consumer

ECOSYSTEMS :: 3
 BIOLOGY-II :: (Chapter-wise Test)

28. Which ecosystem shows maximum genetic diversity ? [ ]

(A) Tropical rain forests
(B) Temperate forests
(C) Coniferous forests
(D) Subtropical forests
29. Which of the following is correctly matched ? [ ]
(A) Butterfly... .................camouflage
(B) Garden lizard.... ................mimicry
(C) House lizard.. ........... ....... autotomy
(D) None of these
30. Organisms found at the bottom of sea are : [ ]
(A) Planktons (B) Benthos
(C) Nektons (D) Phytons

ECOSYSTEMS :: 4
 BIOLOGY-II :: (Chapter-wise Test)

BIODIVERSITY AND ITS CONSERVATION

1. Number of Endangered species of Angiosperms in India: [ ]

(A) 487 (B) 15,000
(C) 5000 (D) 3000
2. World wildlife Fund was organised by UNESCO in : [ ]
(A) 1961 (B) 1983
(C) 1931 (D) 1915
3. Todaba National Park is located in : [ ]
(A) Mumbai (B) Cochin
(C) Chennai (D) Chandrapura
4. The species of animal protected in Biligiri Rangaswamy National Park is : [ ]
(A) Panther (B) Different species of birds
(C) Tiger (D) Elephant
5. The most threatening factor for survival of plant biodiversity is : [ ]
(A) destruction of natural habitat
(B) biosphere reserve
(C) vulnerable ecosystem like mangroves and wetlands
(D)inaccesibility of habitat
6. In bioreserves..........is allowed. [ ]
(A) Restricted, human population
(B) Private operations
(C) No human population
(D) Permanent human population
7. Which endangered animal is the source of world’s finest, lightest, warmest and most expensive
wool-the shahtoosh ? [ ]
(A) Chiru (B) Nilgai
(C)Cheetal (D) Kashmiri goat
8. According to Indian Forest policy what percentage of land area should be under forest
cover ? [ ]
(A) 13 per cent (B) 23 per cent
(C) 33 per cent (D) 43 per cent

BIODIVERSITY AND ITS CONSERVATION :: 1

 BIOLOGY-II :: (Chapter-wise Test)

9. Species listed in “Red Data Book” are : [ ]

(A) endangered (B) threatened
(C) vulnerable (D) All the above
10. Similipal is : [ ]
(A) Sanctuary (B) National Park only
(C) Biosphere Reserve (D)Zoo
11. Which is the most effective way to conserve the plant diversity of an area ? [ ]
(A) By creating biosphere reserve (B) By creating botanical gardens
(C) By developing seed bank (D)By tissue culture method
12. Which one of the following is a pair of endangered species ? [ ]
(A) Garden lizard and Maxican poppy
(B) Rhesus monkey and Sal tree
(C) Indian peacock and Carrot grass
(D) Hombill and Indian Aconite
13. If the Bengal tiger becomes extinct : [ ]
(A) Hyaenas and Wolves will become scarce
(B) The wild areas will be safe for man and domestic animals
(C) Its gene pool will be lost for ever
(D) The population of beautiful animals like deers will get stabilized
14. Which of the following animals is protected in Kaziranga Sanctuary of Assam ? [ ]
(A) Indian bison (B) Indian lion
(C) Indian rhinoceros (D) Indian elephant
15. According to IUCN Red List, what is the status of Red Panda (Ailurus fulgens) ? [ ]
(A) Vulnerable species (B) Critically endangered species
(C) Extinct species (D) Endangered species
16. Biodiversity Act of India was passed by the Parliament in the year : [ ]
(A) 1996 (B)1992
(C) 2002 (D) 2000
17. One of the ex situ conservation methods for endangered species is : [ ]
(A) wildlife sanctuaries (B) biosphere reserves
(C) cryopreservation (D) national parks

BIODIVERSITY AND ITS CONSERVATION :: 2

 BIOLOGY-II :: (Chapter-wise Test)

18. Genetic diversity in agricultural crops is threatened by: [ ]

(A) introduction of high yielding varieties
(B) intensive use of fertilizers
(C) extensive intercropping
(D) intensive use of biopesticides
19. Black buck (Antilope cervicarpa) is an example of: [ ]
(A) endangered species
(B) extinct species
(C) vulnerable species
(D) conservation dependent species
20. Keystone species deserve protection because these : [ ]
(A) are capable of surviving in harsh environmental conditions
(B) indicate presence of certain minerals in the soil
(C) have become rare due to overexploitation
(D) play an important role in supporting other species
21. In India, we find mangoes with different flavours, colours, fibre content, sugar content and even
shelf-life. The large variation is on account of : [ ]
(A) species diversity (B) induced mutations
(C) genetic diversity (D) hybridization
22. Biosphere Reverses differ from national parks and wildlife sanctuaries because in the
former : [ ]
(A) human beings are not allowed to enter
(B) people are an integral part of the system
(C) plants are paid greater attention than the animals
(D) living organisms are brought from all over the world and preserved for posterity
23. Which one of the following is the correctly matched pair of an endangered animal and a National
Park ? [ ]
(A) Great Indian Bustard — Keoladeo National Park
(B) Wild ass — Dudhwa National Park
(C) Lion — Corbett National Park
(D) Rhinoceros — Kaziranga National Park.

BIODIVERSITY AND ITS CONSERVATION :: 3

 BIOLOGY-II :: (Chapter-wise Test)

24. Which of the following is considered a “hot-spot” of biodiversity in India ? [ ]

(A) Eastern Ghats (B) Aravalli Hills
(C) Western Ghats (D) Indo-Gangetic plain
25. Which one of the following is not included under insitu conservation ? [ ]
(A) Biosphere reserve (B) National Park
(C) Sanctuary (D) Botanical garden
26. Which of the following parts of an animal and a plant represents endangered organisms in
India ? [ ]
(A) Cinchona and Leopard (B) Banjan and Black buck
(C) Bentlnckia nicobarica and Red Panda (D) Tamarind and Rhesus monkey
27. Which one is a critically endangered animal species ? [ ]
(A) Antelope cervicapra (B) Sus salvanius
(C) Ailurus fulgens (D) Calotes versicolor
(E) Hyla
28. Which of the following regions of our country are known for their rich biodiversity ? [ ]
(A) western ghats and eastern himalayas
(B) western ghats and deccan plateau
(C) eastern himalayas and gangetic plane
(D)trans himalayas and deccan peninsula
29. Pure clay is not suitable for plant growth because : [ ]
(A) it is chemically inert
(B) it is chemically active
(C) it forms a solid non-penetrable mass
(D) All of above reasons
30. Humus is an example of: [ ]
(A) Soil structure (B) Crystalloids
(C) Organic colloids (D) None of them

BIODIVERSITY AND ITS CONSERVATION :: 4

 BIOLOGY-II :: (Chapter-wise Test)

ENVIRONMENTAL ISSUES

1. Depleting of ozone umbrella is due to : [ ]

(A) CFCs (B) PAN
(C) CO2 (D) Coal burning
2. The American aquatic weed, which had become a trouble in India is ? [ ]
(A) Dolicus (B) Hibucus
(C) Eicchhornia (D) Hispinosa
3. Which of the following causes “Greenhouse effect ? [ ]
(A) oxygen and hydrogen (B) carbon dioxide and nitrogen
(C) CO2 and chlorohydrocarbons (D) nitrogen and sulphur dioxide
4. NEERI is: [ ]
(A) National Environmental Engineering Research Institute
(B) National Ecological and Environment Research Institute
(C) National Eugenics and Ecological Research Institute
(D) National Ethological and Ecological Research Institute
5. As it passes into food chain, the concentration of DOT: [ ]
(A) Remains same (B) Decreases
(C) Increases (D) Unpredictable
6. Carbon monoxide kills because it destroys : [ ]
(A) Haemoglobin (B) Phytochrome
(C) Cytochrome (D) Both A and B
7. DDT concentration recorded in human body has been : [ ]
(A) 0.3 - 0.7 ppm (B) 1.3-3.1 ppm
(C) 13 -13 ppm (D) 30 - 70 ppm
8. Lead is considered mainly : [ ]
(A) Soil pollutant (B) Water pollutant
(C) Air pollutant (D) Noise pollutant
9. Which one of the following is not pollutant ? [ ]
(A) CO2 (B) CO
(C) SO2 (D) NO2

ENVIRONMENTAL ISSUES :: 1
 BIOLOGY-II :: (Chapter-wise Test)

10. A person has impaired nervous system and signs of madness due to continued intake of metal
contaminated water. The metal is : [ ]
(A) Lead (B) Calcium
(C) Manganese (D) Mercury
11. What is the intensity of sound in normal conversation ? [ ]
(A) 10 - 20 decibel (B) 30 - 60 decibel
(C) 70 - 90 decibel (D) 120 - 150 decibel
12. Reason of lung cancer is : [ ]
(A) Coal mining (B) Calcium fluoride
(C) Cement factory (D) Bauxite mining
13. The result of Ozone hole is : [ ]
(A) Global Warming (B) Acid rain
(C) greenhouse effect (D) The UV radiations reach the earth
14. Ozone hole means : [ ]
(A) hole in the stratosphere
(B) same concentration of ozone
(C) decrease in concentration of ozone
(D) increase in the concentration of ozone.
15. Ganga Action plan was started in [ ]
(A) 1947 (B) 1956
(C) 1982 (D) 1985
16. Fluoride pollution mainly affects [ ]
(A) kidney (B) heart
(C) brain (D) teeth
17. E. coli is used as an indicator organism to determine pollution of water with : [ ]
(A) pollen of aquatic plants (B) heavy metals
(C) faecal matter (D) industrial effluents
18. BOD is a measure of : [ ]
(A) amount of oxygen needed by green plants during night
(B) industrial wastes poured into water bodies
(C) amount of CO inseparably combined with haemoglobin
(D) Extent to which water is polluted with organic compounds

ENVIRONMENTAL ISSUES :: 2
 BIOLOGY-II :: (Chapter-wise Test)

19. Frequent occurrence of water blooms in a lake indicates which of the following ? [ ]
(A) Deficiency of nutrients
(B) Deficiency of oxygen
(C) Excessive availability of nutrients
(D) Absence of herbivores in the lake
20. A range of loudness of sound of 70-90 decibels is rated as : [ ]
(A) very loud (B) painful
(C) quiet (D) uncomfortable
21. SO2 pollution affects : [ ]
(A) nucleus (B) mitochondria
(C) ribosomes (D) vacuole
22. Chernobyl nuclear tragedy occurred on which date ? [ ]
(A) 9th August 1943 (B) 9th August 1945
(C) April 1986 (D) 3rd December 1984
23. Expand BOD : [ ]
(A) Biological oxygen demand
(B) Biosynthetic oxygen demand
(C) Biogeochemical oxygen destroyer
(D) Biogeochemical oxygen dimension
24. The term ‘Bio-magnification’ refers to the : [ ]
(A) Growth of organisms due to food consumption
(B) Increase in population size
(C) Blowing up of environmental issues by man
(D) Increase in cone, of non-degradable pollutants as they pass through food chain
25. This acts as bioindicator of air pollution : [ ]
(A) Alga (B) Lichen
(C) Pinus (D) Mustard
(E) Fern
26. In 1984, the Bhopal gas tragedy took place because methyl isocyanate : [ ]
(A) Reacted with ammonia (B) Reacted with CO2
(C) Reacted with water (D) Reacted with DOT

ENVIRONMENTAL ISSUES :: 3
 BIOLOGY-II :: (Chapter-wise Test)

27. Lead cone, in blood is considered alarming if it is : [ ]

(A) 30 µg/100ml (B) 4-6 µg/100ml
(C) 10 µg/100ml (D) 20 µg/100ml
28. Blood analysis of a patient reveals an usually high quantity of carboxyhaemoglobin content.
Which of the following conclusions is most likely to be correct ? The patient has been inhaling
polluted air containing unusually high content of : [ ]
(A) Chloroform (B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Carbon monoxide (D) Carbon disulphide
29. Escherichia coli is used as an indicator organism to determine pollution of water with : [ ]
(A) Industrial effluents (B) Pollen of aquatic plants
(C) Heavy metals (D) Faecal matter
30. Common indicator organism of water pollution is : [ ]
(A) Lemna pancicostata (B) Eichhornia crassipes
(C) Escherichia coli (D) Entamoeba histolytica

ENVIRONMENTAL ISSUES :: 4