NEET Reproductive Health

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Chapter 15
Reproductive Health
Solutions
SECTION - A
Objective Type Questions
(Reproductive Health-Problem and Strategies, Human Population Growth)

1. According to the World Health Organisation (WHO), reproductive health means a total well-being in all aspects
of reproduction, i.e., physical, emotional, behavioural and social. The headquarters of WHO are located in
(1) USA (2) Geneva (3) England (4) France
Sol. Answer (2)
According to it, a society with people having physically and functionally normal reproductive organs and normal
emotional and behavioural interactions among them in all sex-related aspects might be called reproductively
healthy.
2. India was amongst the first countries in the world to initiate action plans and programmes at national level to
attain reproductive health. The programmes called as 'family planning' were initiated in ______ year in India.
(1) 1951 (2) 1976 (3) 1971 (4) 1987
Sol. Answer (1)
Fact.
3. All the following are uses of amniocentesis, but one is misuse. Which one is misuse?
(1) The centres for genetic counselling offer amniocentesis on request to women for chromosome analysis
(2) This technique has been developed for detecting foetal abnormalities by analysing chromosomal defects
(3) It is used to study metabolic defects of foetus like PKU (phenyl ketonuria)
(4) It is done to examine the sex of the foetus leading to increasing female foeticides
Sol. Answer (4)
Amniocentesis is legal only for detection of any genetic disorder based on chromosomal pattern of foetus.
4. According to 2001 census, the population growth rate was

(1) 2.6% (2) 1.7% (3) 2.1% (4) 2.7%
Sol. Answer (2)
Growth rate was about 2.1% per year during 1965-1970.
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48 Reproductive Health Solutions of Assignment
5. World Population Day is

(1) 11th July (2) 21st September (3) 7th April (4) 1st July
Sol. Answer (1)
7th April  World Health Day; 21st September - World Alzheimer’s Day.
6. In India, marriageable age for boys is ______ and girls is ______ respectively.
(1) 21, 18 years (2) 15, 14 years (3) 15, 18 years (4) 18, 21 years
Sol. Answer (1)
Marrying before the respective ages is illegal.
(Methods of Birth Control)

7. Among the following methods, which one has the highest failure rate?
(1) Diaphragm with spermicide (2) Condom
(3) Intrauterine device (4) Rhythm method
Sol. Answer (4)
Rhythm method is periodic abstinence during fertile period (from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle when
ovulation could be expected) others are barrier methods.
8. Which of the following is not a natural method of contraception?

(1) Periodic abstinence (2) Withdrawal method
(3) Lactational amenorrhoea (4) Condoms
Sol. Answer (4)
Condoms are classified as barrier method. These also help in protection from sexually transmitted diseases.
9. Natural methods of contraception work on the principle of avoiding chances of ovum and sperm meeting. It
includes
A. Periodic abstinence B. Withdrawal
C. Coitus interruptus D. Lactational amenorrhoea
(1) A & B only (2) B & C only (3) A, B & C (4) A, B, C & D
Sol. Answer (4)
Periodic abstinence is natural method of avoiding coitus from day 10 to day 17 of menstrual cycle.
Coitus interruptus or withdrawal is natural method in which the male partner withdraws his penis from the vagina
just before ejaculation. Lactational amenorrhea is based on the fact that the menstrual cycle during intense
lactation following parturition.
10. In the rhythm method of birth control, the couple refrains from intercourse
(1) One day before and after ovulation (2) Two days before and after ovulation
(3) Three days before and after ovulation (4) One week before and after ovulation
Sol. Answer (3)
Day 10 to day 17 in a 28 day menstrual cycle.
11. Which of the following method of contraception has maximum chances of failure?
(1) Rhythm/Periodic abstinence (2) Vasectomy
(3) Condoms (4) IUDs
Sol. Answer (1)
Rhythm/Periodic abstinence is natural method with failure rate of 20-30 per 100 women.
Solutions of Assignment Reproductive Health 49
12. Which of the following is an incorrect statement for periodic abstinence?
(1) The couple should abstain from coitus from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle when ovulation could be
expected
(2) 10th to 17th day of the cycle is fertile period, when the chances of fertilisation are high
(3) This prevents the chances of union of male and female gametes
(4) In this method, the ovum and sperms are prevented from physically meeting with the help of barriers
Sol. Answer (4)
Periodic abstinence is a natural method, not a barrier method.
13. Lactational amenorrhoea, is a natural way of birth spacing. It is due to the high level of
(1) FSH and LH hormones (2) Estrogen (3) Prolactin (4) Progesterone
Sol. Answer (3)
High level of prolactin inhibits the release of gonadotropins.
14. Use of which of the following contraceptive device has increased in recent years due to its additional benefit
of protecting the user from contracting STDs and AIDS?
(1) Diaphragms and cervical caps (2) IUDs
(3) Condoms (4) Contraceptive pills
Sol. Answer (3)
Condoms are barrier methods.
15. Which of the following statement is/are correct about diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults?
A. Barrier methods of contraception B. Cover the cervix during coitus
C. Protect the user from contracting STDs D. They are reusable
(1) A & B only (2) A, B & C
(3) A, B & D (4) A, B, C & D
Sol. Answer (3)
Protection from STDs is mainly provided by male and female condoms.
16. 'Nirodh' is a popular brand of

(1) IUDs for female (2) Contraceptive pill for female
(3) Condom for male (4) Condom for female
Sol. Answer (3)
Factual
17. The diaphragm is a rubber dome shaped structure and stops the sperms from entering into
(1) Vestibule (2) Vagina (3) Cervix (4) Both (1) & (2)
Sol. Answer (3)
Diaphragm is placed inside the vagina.
18. Use of spermicidal creams, jellies and foams along with diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults leads to
(1) Increased contraceptive efficiency (2) Prevention of ovulation
(3) Prevention of implantation (4) Increased sexual desire and drive
Sol. Answer (1)
Chemical method includes spermicides. Barrier methods are mechanical devices preventing the deposition of
sperms into vagina and their passage into uterus. Both together will decrease the failure rate.
19. Which of the following is not included under barrier methods of birth control?
(1) Vaginal pouch (2) Diaphragm (3) Cervical cap (4) Implant
Sol. Answer (4)
Implants are hormone containing devices which are implanted subdermally for providing long term contraception.
e.g., norplant and implanon.
20. Which of the following hormone/s is/are maintained at high level during hormonal method of birth control?
(1) FSH (2) LH (3) Progesterone (4) Both (1) & (2)
Sol. Answer (3)
Progesterone maintains endometrium High levels of progesterone prevents the further extension of menstrual
cycle, thereby, no ovulation.
21. Which of the following is world’s first non-hormonal oral contraceptive pill for females, developed by scientists
at Central Drug Research Institute (CDRI) in Lucknow, India?
(1) Mala-D (2) Saheli (3) Morning after pills (4) PoP
Sol. Answer (2)
Saheli is a non steroidal drug that works by preventing implantation.
22. Which of the following is a once-a-week pill with very few side effects and high contraceptive value?
(1) Mala-D (2) Saheli (3) Depo-provera (4) Norplant
Sol. Answer (2)
Saheli works by impairing implantation. Menstrual cycle occurs normally.
23. Oral contraceptive pills contain
(1) FSH and LH hormones (2) Progestogen and estrogen combination
(3) Prolactin (4) Mifepristone
Sol. Answer (2)
Progestogen is synthetic progesterone.
24. Contraceptive pills are very effective with lesser side effects used by females. They work by
(1) Inhibiting ovulation
(2) Inhibiting implantation
(3) They alter the quality of cervical mucus to prevent/retard the entry of sperms
(4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Failure rate of oral contraceptive is 2-3 per 100 women.
25. Which one of the following is the most widely used method of contraception by females in India?
(1) Oral contraceptive pills (2) Condoms (3) IUDs (4) Sterilisation
Sol. Answer (3)
IUDs are ideal contraceptives for the females who want to delay pregnancy or space children.
26. Which of the following contraceptive device is inserted by the doctor or trained nurse in the uterus through the
vagina?
(1) Diaphragm (2) Cu-T (3) Condom (4) Vault
Sol. Answer (2)
IUDs are inserted by doctors or expert nurses in the uterus through vagina.
27. Which of the following is an additional advantage of hormone releasing IUDs?
(1) Increase phagocytosis of sperms
(2) Suppress sperm motility and the fertilising capacity of sperms
(3) They make the uterus unsuitable for implantation and cervix hostile to the sperms
(4) They always inhibit ovulation
Sol. Answer (3)
These hormones (progesterone and levonorgestrel) cause changes in cervical mucus and endometrium.
28. Amongst the following methods of contraception, which can be regarded as the most cost effective and easily
reversible method of contraception?
(1) Cu-T (2) Tubectomy (3) Vasectomy (4) Sterilisation method
Sol. Answer (1)
Sterilisation methods, i.e., tubectomy and vasectormy, are not easily reversible methods. Their reversibility is
very poor.
29. Which of the following is hormone releasing IUD?

(1) Cu-T (2) LNG-20 (3) Multiload 375 (4) Implant
Sol. Answer (2)
LNG-20 is a levonorgestrel IUD
30. Which of the following cannot protect the user from contracting AIDS?
(1) Diaphragm (2) Cervical caps (3) Vaults (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Condoms and fem shields (term used for female condoms) provide protection from sexually transmitted diseases
like AIDS.
31. Implants under the skin and injectables contain

(1) Progestogen alone (2) Progestogen and estrogen
(3) FSH and LH (4) Both (1) & (2) are correct
Sol. Answer (4)
Norplant is progestin only implant.
32. A birth control implant having six small, plastic cylinders and with the effective period much longer upto 5 years
is
(1) Norplant (2) Multiload-375 (3) Injectable (4) LNG-20
Sol. Answer (1)
Norplant is progestin only device having six small silicone capsules each having levonorgestrel.
33. Which of the following is a terminal method of contraception to prevent any more pregnancies?
(1) Barrier method (2) IUD (3) Hormonal method (4) Sterilisation method
Sol. Answer (4)
Because sterilisation methods have very poor reversibility.
34. ‘Norplant’ is the new form of birth control and it

(1) Allows ovulation but doesn’t allow fertilization
(2) Makes the cervical mucus thin making sperm entry into the uterus difficult
(3) Has progestin as the active ingredient
(4) Is effective for a maximum of one year
Sol. Answer (3)
It does not allow ovulation due to presence of progestin. It makes cervical mucus thick and is effective for 5
years.
35. MTPs are considered relatively safe up to ________ weeks of pregnancy

(1) 12 (2) 20 (3) 25 (4) 18
Sol. Answer (1)
It is safe upto 12 weeks of pregnancy. However, it can be done upto 20 weeks by Indian law.
36. Which of the following drug is progesterone antagonist and acts as an abortion drug?
(1) Saheli (2) Mifepristone (3) Mala-N (4) Depo-provera
Sol. Answer (2)
Misoprostol (prostaglandins) along with mifepristone is an effective combination for abortion.
37. A sterilisation technique in females which blocks gamete transport and thereby prevents conception is
(1) Vasectomy (2) Copper-T (3) Condom (4) Tubectomy
Sol. Answer (4)
Vasectomy blocks sperm transport while tubectomy blocks transport of ova.
38. Which of the following have been found to be very effective as emergency contraceptive as they could be used
to avoid possible pregnancy due to rape if given within 72 hours?
A. Administration of progestogens
B. Progestogen-estrogen combination
C. IUDs inserted within 72 hours of coitus
(1) A only (2) A & B only (3) B only (4) A, B & C
Sol. Answer (4)
The drugs used for emergency contraception are morning after pills.
39. Sexually transmitted diseases can get transmitted easily during use of
(1) Diaphragm (2) Cervical cap (3) Birth control pills (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
STDs can be prevented from transmission by condoms because they prevent even the genital fluids of opposite
sex to come in contact.
(Sexually Transmitted Diseases)

40. Which of the following STDs is not caused by a bacterium?
(1) Chlamydia (2) Gonorrhoea (3) Syphilis (4) Genital Herpes
Sol. Answer (4)
Genital Herpes is caused by HSV–2.
41. Which of the following STD and its causative agent is not correctly matched?
(1) Genital warts : Haemophilus ducrei
(2) Syphilis : Treponema pallidum
(3) Genital herpes : Type II Herpes simplex virus (HSV-2)
(4) Trichomoniasis : Trichomonas vaginalis
Sol. Answer (1)
Genital warts is caused by human papilloma virus.
42. Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases is caused by a protozoan?
(1) Gonorrhoea (2) Trichomoniasis (3) Chlamydiasis (4) Syphilis
Sol. Answer (2)
Gonorrhoea - Neisseria gonorrhoeae ( a bacterium)
Syphilis - By bacterium Treponema pallidum
Chlamydiasis - By bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis
Trichomoniasis - Trichomonas vaginalis, flagellated protozoan.
43. Which of the following STDs cannot be treated with antibiotics?

A. Gonorrhoea B. Syphilis
C. Chlamydia D. Genital herpes
(1) D only (2) B and D (3) C and D (4) C only
Sol. Answer (1)
Genital herpes is a viral disease (STD).
44. Which of the following STDs is caused by the human papilloma virus (HPV) and is transmitted through intimate
contact with infected person?
(1) Genital herpes (2) Genital warts (3) AIDS (4) Chlamydia
Sol. Answer (2)
- Chlamydia is a genus of bacterium.
- AIDS is caused by Human Immuno Deficiency Virus
- Genital Herpes is caused by Herps Simplex Virus II
45. Most of the sexually transmitted diseases are completely curable if detected early and treated properly, except
(1) Hepatitis-B (2) Genital herpes (3) HIV infections (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
These are viral diseases.
46. AIDS day is

(1) 11th July (2) 1st December (3) 1st July (4) 7th April
Sol. Answer (2)
7th April - World Health Day
11th July - World Population Day
1st July - World Doctor’s Day
(Infertility, Assisted Reproductive Technologies)
47. Which of the following is the most appropriate statement defining infertility?
(1) Couple is unable to produce children inspite of unprotected sexual co-habitation even after two years
(2) It is the inability to produce a viable offspring and is always due to defects abnormalities in the female
partner
(3) Infertility is due to immature sex organs
(4) Infertility cannot be helped by ART
Sol. Answer (1)
Infertility can be due to defects in males or females.
48. Surrogate mother is

(1) Mother without lactation (2) Future mother with embryo implanted from another
(3) Female carrying several embryos (4) Artificially inseminated female
Sol. Answer (2)
Surrogacy is the use of a gestational carrier.
49. The latest technique to produce a child is GIFT. The full form is
(1) Gametic internal fertilization and transfer (2) Gametic intra fallopian transfer
(3) Gametic inter fallopian transfer (4) General internal fallopian transfer
Sol. Answer (2)
Transfer of an ovum collected from a donor into the fallopian tube of another female who cannot produce ovum,
but can provide suitable environment and further development.
50. All of the following statements about ZIFT are correct, but one is wrong. Which one is wrong?
(1) It is zygote intra fallopian transfer
(2) Zygote is transferred into the fallopian tube after IVF
(3) Early embryos upto 8 blastomeres can also be transferred into the fallopian tubes
(4) Embryos with more than 8 blastomeres are also transferred into the fallopian tubes
Sol. Answer (4)
Embryos with more than eight blastomeres are transferred into uterus, i.e., Intra-uterine transfer, to complete
its further development.
SECTION - B
Objective Type Questions
(Reproductive Health-Problem and Strategies, Human Population Growth)

1. Mark the incorrect statements
A. Castration is a method of contraception
B. MTPs have a significant role in decreasing the size of population, so it is legal.
C. Amniocentesis for sex determination is banned in our country
D. Nearly 45 to 50 million MTPs are performed in a year all over the world
(1) A & B only (2) C & D only (3) A, B & C (4) A, B, C & D
Sol. Answer (1)
Castration is removal of testes. For a contraceptive, it is necessary not to interfere with formation of sex
hormones.
MTPs are mainly meant for preventing unnatural maternal deaths due to unsafe abortions.
2. A population is said to achieve demographic transition, if
(1) Birth rate equals death rate
(2) Emigration equals immigration if population is same, in both places
(3) Doubling time is 33 years
(4) Both (1) & (2)
Sol. Answer (4)
When there is a zero population growth, this is known as demographic transition. Doubling time is time required
by a population to double itself.
3. Which of the following can be taken as characteristic demographic features of the developing countries?
(a) High fertility rate (b) Rapidly rising mortality rate
(c) Very young age distribution (d) Rapid population growth
(e) Rapidly falling mortality rate (f) Very old age distribution
(1) (a), (b), (c), (d) (2) (a), (c), (d), (e) (3) (a), (b), (c), (e) (4) (a), (b), (d), (e)
Sol. Answer (2)
Developing countries have a rapidly growing population as they have much larger number of young people. Mortality
rate has fallen in many countries due to improved personal hygiene, sanitation and modern medicines.
4. Which of the following can be taken as the most convincing factor for indicating the rapid increase in population
growth of a country?
(1) Low mortality rate (2) High natality or birth rate
(3) Low replacement level (4) High population of young children
Sol. Answer (4)
Young people are in reproductive active age and number of female individuals in active reproductive age influences
birth rate within a population.
5. In India, population crossed one billion mark in May 2000. The probable reasons for this are, decline in
A. Maternal mortality rate (MMR) B. Infant mortality rate (IMR)
C. Number of people in reproducible age D. Death rate
(1) A & B only (2) A, B & C (3) A, B & D (4) A, B, C & D
Sol. Answer (3)
MMR and IMR have decreased due to improved medical facilities. Death rate has fallen due to improved personal
hygiene sanitation and modern medicines.
(Methods of Birth Control)

6. Castration cannot be taken as a contraceptive device, because
(1) Deficiency of testosterone hormone, will deprive a person of sexual drive, desire and/or the sexual act
(2) It inhibits gamete transport
(3) It is surgical method of contraception also called sterilisation
(4) This technique is highly effective but its reversibility is poor.
Sol. Answer (1)
Contraceptive devices should not interfere with arousal of sexual drive, desire and castration refers to removal
of testes in males.
7. In lactational amenorrhoea, there is no ovulation or menstruation during the period of intense lactation following
parturition, due to high level of prolactin, which?
(1) Inhibits the release of gonadotropins (2) Inhibits the release of estrogen and progesterone
(3) Stimulate the release of FSH and LH (4) Stimulates the release of estrogen and progesterone
Sol. Answer (1)
Prolactin inhibits release of FSH and LH.
8. Which of the following is a wrong match between the type of contraception and its function?
Contraceptive device Function
(1) Contraceptive pills – Inhibit ovulation
(2) Sterilisation – Inhibit gamete formation
(3) IUDs – Inhibit implantation
(4) Natural methods – Avoid chances of ovum
and sperm meeting
Sol. Answer (2)
Sterilisation methods include vasectomy and tubectomy that block the passage of gametes.
9. Which of the following is a copper releasing IUD?

(1) Lippes loop (2) Multiload 375 (3) LNG-20 (4) Progestasert
Sol. Answer (2)
Lippes loop is inert IUD.
LNG-20 is hormone releasing IUD  levonorgesterol IUD.
Progestasert is progesterone IUD.
10. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?

(1) Non-medicated IUDs – Lippes loop
(2) Copper releasing IUD – LNG-20
(3) Hormone releasing IUD – Progestasert
(4) Saheli – Once a week contraceptive pill
Sol. Answer (2)
LNG-20 is levonorgesteral IUD–a hormone releasing IUD.
11. What is the function of copper ions in copper releasing IUDs?

(1) They increase phagocytosis of sperm within the uterus
(2) They suppress sperm motility and the fertilising capacity of sperms
(3) They make the uterus unsuitable for implantation
(4) They inhibit ovulation
Sol. Answer (2)
Copper-IUDs have local antifertility effect by bringing about release of toxic cytokines which suppress sperm
motility and thereby their ability to fertilize the ovum.
12. Which of the following statement is not correct about oral contraceptive pills?
(1) They have to be taken daily for a period of 21 days, starting preferably within the first five days of menstrual
cycle
(2) They contain small doses of progestogen-estrogen combination
(3) They inhibit ovulation and implantation
(4) Ovum and sperms are prevented from physically meeting with the help of barriers
Sol. Answer (4)
Oral contraceptives are preparations containing either progestin alone or both progesterone and oestrogen. They
do not involve physical barriers.
13. All the following statements are correct about 'Saheli', but one is wrong. Which one is wrong?
(1) New oral contraceptive pill for females
(2) Contains non-steroidal preparation
(3) It is 'once a week pill'
(4) It increases the phagocytosis of the sperm within the uterus
Sol. Answer (4)
Saheli impairs implantation and has least or no side effects.
14. Contraceptive pills are very effective with lesser side effects and are well accepted by the female. They work
by
(1) Inhibiting ovulation
(2) Inhibiting implantation
(3) They alter the quality of cervical mucus to prevent/retard the entry of sperms
(4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Oral contraceptives having progesterone or both progesterone and estrogen inhibit ovulation and also change
the quality of cervical mucus. Saheli works by preventing implantation.
15. Vasectomy has no effect on the sexual life of male because :

(1) He can still ejaculate and has normal secretion of sex hormones in blood
(2) Vasectomy affects the hormonal secretion but the person can ejaculate semen with normal number of
sperms
(3) He cannot ejaculate but the hormone levels are normal
(4) Vasectomy does not affect the sexual desire but can cause impotency
Sol. Answer (1)
He can ejaculate normal but there will be no sperms.
There is no effect on production of male hormones.
16. Which of the following statements is not true w.r.t. tubectomy or tubal ligation?
(1) It is more difficult than vasectomy and is even more difficult to reverse
(2) No ovulation occurs, hence no fertilization is possible
(3) It involves ligation of both fallopian tubes
(4) The failure rate of this approach is almost zero percent
Sol. Answer (2)
Ovulation does occur. This method aims at blocking the passage of ovum, hence no fertilization occurs,
because ovum does not meet the sperm.
17. Use of which of the following contraceptive device has increased in recent years due to its additional benefit
of protecting the user from contracting STDs and AIDS?
(1) Coitus interruptus (2) IUDs (Intra Uterine Devices)
(3) Condoms (4) Vasectomy
Sol. Answer (3)
Both male and female condoms protect the user from contracting STDs.
18. Which of the following graphs is the correct representation of the level of progesterone in a female who has
been using Mala-D as a method of birth control.
Hormone
Hormone
level
level
(1) (2)
1 5 10 15 20 25 30 1 5 10 15 20 25 30
Days Days
Hormone
Hormone
level
level
(3) (4)
1 5 10 15 20 25 30 1 5 10 15 20 25 30
Days Days
Sol. Answer (2)
Progestin and oestrogen are responsible for maintaining the endometrium and its further thickening respectively.
This increased level of progestin prevents menstruation (and afterwards ovulation). These hormones are
maintained at high levels for longer time.
19. Action of which of the following hormones is blocked during use of RU 486 (mifepristone)?
(1) FSH (2) LH (3) Progesterone (4) hCG
Sol. Answer (3)
Progesterone arrests the menstrual cycle at luteal phase. Decreased level of progesterone leads to the next
phase, i.e., menstrual phase.
(Sexually Transmitted Diseases)
20. Which of the following is an important detection technique for syphilis?

(1) Gram staining of the discharge (2) Nucleic acid hybridisation, PCR
(3) Antibody detection e.g., VDRL (4) Microscopic examination of culture
Sol. Answer (3)
Agglutination is the basic principle of VDRL  Venereal Disease Research Laboratory Test.
21. Which of the following causative agents of STDs can cross the placenta?
(1) Hepatitis-B (2) HIV (3) Syphilis (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Placenta acts as an ultrafilter through which soluble organic and inorganic materials, hormones, antibodies
against diptheria, small pox etc. and causative agents - viruses of the diseases can pass from mother to foetus.
22. Which of the following virus has ds-DNA as the genetic material and is transmitted mainly by sexual contact?
(1) Hepatitis-A (2) Hepatitis-B (3) Hepatitis-C (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (2)
Hepatitis-A virus  ssRNA
Hepatitis-B virus  dsDNA
Hepatitis-C virus  ssRNA
Hepatitis-D virus  ssRNA
Hepatitis-E virus  ssRNA
23. The most common site of infection in case of Chlamydia in female is
(1) Cervix (2) Urethra (3) Uterine tubes (4) Bladder
Sol. Answer (1)
In males, urethritis is the principal result and in females, cervicitis. Main site of infection is cervix. However,
due to its proximity to vagina, female urethra may also become infected.
24. Which of the following parts cannot get affected in a female suffering from chlamydia?
(1) Cervix (2) Urethra (3) Uterine tubes (4) Bladder
Sol. Answer (4)
Chlamydia infects genital system. Due to its proximity to vagina, female urethra may also become infected.
But urinary bladder is not affected.
25. Which of the following can’t be taken as the symptom of a female suffering from gonorrhea?
(1) Enlargement of uterus (2) Discharge of pus from vagina
(3) Inflammation of uterine tubes (4) Peritonitis or inflammation of the peritoneum
Sol. Answer (1)
Gonorrhea is an STD.
26. In case of a person suffering from syphilis, the chancre formation occurs during
(1) Primary stage (2) Secondary stage (3) Tertiary stage (4) Neurosyphilis stage
Sol. Answer (1)
The primary stage shows the symptom of chancre Chancre is painless open sore.
27. Which of the following stages of syphilis is characterised by a skin rash, fever and aches in the joints and
muscles?
(1) Primary stage (2) Secondary stage (3) Tertiary stage (4) Neurosyphilis stage
Sol. Answer (2)
1° stage  painless open sores called chancre.
2° stage  skin rash, fever and aches.
3° stage  organ degeneration
Neurosyphilis  organs of nervous system get damaged.
28. The ‘symptomless’ period or latent period in case of syphilis may last for
(1) 1-5 weeks (2) 6-24 weeks (3) 4-12 weeks (4) 20 years
Sol. Answer (4)
Latent period is seen after secondary stage. During this, the symptoms disappear and the disease ceases
to be infectious but the blood test for presence of bacteria remains generally positive.
29. Which of the following cells are infected in a person suffering from AIDS?
(1) CD4 receptor cells (2) CD8 receptor cells
(3) Killer T cells (4) Germ cells
Sol. Answer (1)
HIV enters body cells by CD4 receptor-mediated endocytosis involving T4 cells.
30. Which of the following statements about hepatitis-B is incorrect?

(1) It is one of the examples of STD
(2) It is spread primarily by sexual contact, even by contaminated syringes and blood transfusion
(3) It is 42 nm enveloped virus containing ss-RNA as the genetic material
(4) Recombivax HB, vaccine is available to prevent hepatitis-B infection
Sol. Answer (3)
It has dsDNA as the genetic material.
31. Syphilis is an infectious bacterial disease caused by Treponema pallidum with 3 stages
(A) Infectious painless ulcers (i) First
on the genitals
(B) Blindness, heart trouble, (ii) Second
aortic impairment
(C) Skin lesions, hairloss, (iii) Third
swollen joints
Which of the following is the correct match between the symptoms and stage?
(1) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii) (2) (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii) (3) (A)-(i), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii) (4) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i)
Sol. Answer (3)
Syphillis
1° stage - Chancre - painless open sore
2° stage - Skin rash, swollen joints due to aches, hairloss
Latent period - Symptomless period
3° stage - Organ degeneration.
[Neurosyphillis stage  nervous organ degeneration]
32. Which of the following can be complications resulting from STDs without timely detection and treatment?
A. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) B. Still births
C. Infertility or even cancer of reproductive tract D. Ectopic pregnancies
(1) A & B only (2) A, B & C (3) A only (4) A, B, C & D
Sol. Answer (4)
Still births refer to birth of dead baby.
Ectopic pregnancies refer to implantation of blastocyst in parts of female reproductive system other than uterus.
Uterus may be infected in various STDs.
(Infertility, Assisted Reproductive Technologies)
33. Which of the following methods is used during abortion?

(1) Vacuum aspiration (2) Infusion of a saline solution / antiseptics
(3) Scraping / D & C (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Different methods are adopted depending upon the stage of pregnancy.
34. If a person is suffering from severe male infertility due to very few sperms (oligozoospermia) or even no live
sperms (azoospermia) in the ejaculate, it can be overcome by ________. This should offer couples an alternative
to using donor sperm
(1) GIFT (2) ZIFT (3) ICSI (4) IVF
Sol. Answer (3)
GIFT  Gamet Intra Fallopian Transfer.
ZIFT  Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer.
IVF  In Vitro Fertilization.
ICSI  Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection.
(One sperm is placed inside the egg by a microscopic needle)
35. Test tube baby is the one

(1) Who is reared on artificial medium outside the womb
(2) Growth of human baby inside the fallopian tube instead of uterus
(3) Ova from wife/donor (female) and sperms from husband/donor (male) are induced to form zygote by IVF
and then implanted in female
(4) Baby born after artificial insemination
Sol. Answer (3)
Test-tube baby programme involves IVF, followed by embryo implantation in uterus. (IVF  In-vitro fertilisation)
SECTION - C
Previous Years Questions
1. In a growing population of a country, [NEET-2018]

(1) Pre-reproductive individuals are more than the reproductive individuals.
(2) Reproductive individuals are less than the post-reproductive individuals.
(3) Pre-reproductive individuals are less than the reproductive individuals.
(4) Reproductive and pre-reproductive individuals are equal in number.
Sol. Answer (1)
Whenever the pre-reproductive individuals or the younger population size is larger than the reproductive group,
the population will be an increasing population.
2. The contraceptive ‘SAHELI’ [NEET-2018]
(1) Blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus, preventing eggs from getting implanted.
(2) Increases the concentration of estrogen and prevents ovulation in females.
(3) Is a post-coital contraceptive.
(4) Is an IUD.
Sol. Answer (1)
Saheli is the first non-steroidal, once a week pill. It contains centchroman and its functioning is based upon
selective Estrogen Receptor modulation.
3. The function of copper ions in copper releasing IUD's is [NEET-2017]

(1) They suppress sperm motility and fertilising capacity of sperms
(2) They inhibit gametogenesis
(3) They make uterus unsuitable for implantation
(4) They inhibit ovulation
Sol. Answer (1)
Cu2+ interfere in the sperm movement, hence suppress the sperm motility and fertilising capacity of sperms.
4. In case of a couple where the male is having a very low sperm count, which technique will be suitable for
fertilisation? [NEET-2017]
(1) Intrauterine transfer (2) Gamete intracytoplasmic fallopian transfer
(3) Artificial Insemination (4) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection
Sol. Answer (3)
Infertility cases due to inability of the male partner to inseminate the female or due to very low sperm count
in the ejaculates, could be corrected by artificial insemination (AI).
5. Which of the following is hormone releasing IUD? [NEET (Phase-2) 2016]
(1) LNG-20 (2) Multiload-375 (3) Lippes loop (4) Cu7
Sol. Answer (1)
LNG-20 (Levonorgestrel) is a hormone releasing IUDs.
6. Which of the following is incorrect regarding vasectomy? [NEET (Phase-2) 2016]
(1) No sperm occurs in seminal fluid (2) No sperm occurs in epididymis
(3) Vasa deferentia is cut and tied (4) Irreversible sterility
Sol. Answer (2)
In vasectomy, sperms occur in epididymis. In this, vas deferens are cut so sperms are not present in semen.
7. Embryo with more than 16 blastomeres formed due to in-vitro fertilization is transferred into
[NEET (Phase-2) 2016]
(1) Uterus (2) Fallopian tube (3) Fimbriae (4) Cervix
Sol. Answer (1)
In intrauterine transfer (IUT), embryo more than 8 blastomeres formed due to in-vitro fertilization is transferred
in uterus.
8. In context of amniocentesis, which of the following statement is incorrect? [NEET-2016]
(1) It can be used for detection of Cleft palate.
(2) It is usually done when a woman is between 14 - 16 weeks pregnant.
(3) It is used for prenatal sex determination.
(4) It can be used for detection of Down syndrome.
Sol. Answer (1)
Cleft palate is a developmental abnormality and can be detected by sonography.
Amniocentesis is a foetal sex determination test and is banned in India for sex determination to legally check
increasing female foeticides.
9. Which of the following approaches does not give the defined action of contraceptive? [NEET-2016]
(1) Vasectomy Prevents spermatogenesis

(2) Barrier methods Prevent fertilization
(3) Intra uterine Increase phagocytosis of sperms, suppress
devices sperm motility and fertilizing capacity of sperms
(4) Hormonal Prevent/retard entry of sperms, prevent
contraceptives ovulation and fertilization
Sol. Answer (1)
Vasectomy blocks the gamete transport and does not affect spermatogenesis.
10. A childless couple can be assisted to have a child through a technique called GIFT. The full form of this
technique is [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) Germ cell internal fallopian transfer (2) Gamete inseminated fallopian transfer
(3) Gamete intra fallopian transfer (4) Gamete internal fertilization and transfer
Sol. Answer (3)
GIFT - Gamete intra fallopian transfer
11. Which of the following is not a sexually transmitted disease? [AIPMT-2015]
(1) Encephalitis (2) Syphilis
(3) Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS) (4) Trichomoniasis
Sol. Answer (1)
Encephalitis is not sexually transmitted.
12. Tubectomy is a method of sterilization in which [AIPMT-2014]
(1) Small part of the fallopian tube is removed or tied up
(2) Ovaries are removed surgically
(3) Small part of vas deferens is removed or tied up
(4) Uterus is removed surgically
Sol. Answer (1)
Surgical removal of ovaries is ovairectomy.
13. Which of the following is a hormone releasing Intra Uterine Device (IUD)? [AIPMT-2014]
(1) Multiload 375 (2) LNG - 20
(3) Cervical cap (4) Vault
Sol. Answer (2)
Multiload 375 is copper releasing IUD.
14. Assisted reproductive technology, IVF involves transfer of [AIPMT-2014]
(1) Ovum into the fallopian tube (2) Zygote into the fallopian tube
(3) Zygote into the uterus (4) Embryo with 16 blastomeres into the fallopian tube
Sol. Answer (2)
IVF is in-vitro fertilisation.
15. Which of the following cannot be detected in a developing foetus by amniocentesis? [NEET-2013]
(1) Sex of the foetus (2) Down syndrome
(3) Jaundice (4) Klinefelter syndrome
Sol. Answer (3)
Amniocentesis is based on the chromosomal pattern of the embryo’s cells in the amniotic fluid. Jaundice is
not genetic disorder, but a digestive one.
16. Artificial insemination means [NEET-2013]
(1) Transfer of sperms of husband to a test tube containing ova
(2) Artificial introduction of sperms of a healthy donor into the vagina
(3) Introduction of sperms of a healthy donor directly into the ovary
(4) Transfer of sperms of a healthy donor to a test tube containing ova
Sol. Answer (2)
AI  Inseminating the female, i.e., artificially introducing sperms into female vagina.
17. The Test-tube Baby Programme employs which one of the following techniques? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) Zygote intra fallopian transfer (ZIFT) (2) Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI)
(3) Intra uterine insemination (IUI) (4) Gamete intra fallopian transfer (GIFT)
Sol. Answer (1)
Test-tube baby programme involves IVF (in-vitro fertilization) and transfer of embryo at 3-4 days state into fallopian
tube (upto 8-blastomeres).
ZIFT - zygote intra fallopian tube transfer.
18. What is the figure given below showing in particular? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) Vasectomy (2) Ovarian cancer (3) Uterine cancer (4) Tubectomy
Sol. Answer (4)
Tubectomy is a surgical procedure of female sterilization where a portion of both the fallopian tubes is excised
or ligated to block the passage of ovum through them.
19. Which of the following is the most widely accepted method of contraception in India, as at present?
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) IUDs' (Intra uterine devices) (2) Cervical caps
(3) Tubectomy (4) Diaphragms
Sol. Answer (1)
IUDs  Most widely accepted in India.
20. Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) is considered safe up to how many weeks of pregnancy
(1) Six weeks (2) Eight weeks (3) Twelve weeks (4) Eighteen weeks
Sol. Answer (3)
Medical termination of pregnancy is safe if it performed upto 12 weeks. However, under MTP act, termination
of pregnancy can be done upto 20 weeks, if the pregnancy is likely to produce a congenitally malformed child.
21. The technique called gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those females
[AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
(1) Whose cervical canal is too narrow to allow passage for the sperms
(2) Who cannot provide suitable environment for fertilisation
(3) Who cannot produce an ovum
(4) Who cannot retain the foetus inside uterus
Sol. Answer (3)
GIFT is transfer of an ovum collected from a donor into the fallopian tube of another female who cannot produce
ova but her body can support further development of zygote.
22. The permissible use of the technique amniocentesis is for [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) Detecting any genetic abnormality
(2) Detecting sex of the unborn foetus
(3) Artificial insemination
(4) Transfer of embryo into the uterus of a surrogate mother
Sol. Answer (1)
Amniocentesis is foetal six and disorder determinant test based on chromosomal pattern. Detecting sex of
foetus by amniocentesis is banned.
23. Cu ions released from copper-releasing Intra Uterine Devices (IUDs) [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) Prevent ovulation (2) Make uterus unsuitable for implantation
(3) Increase phagocytosis of sperms (4) Suppress sperm motility
Sol. Answer (4)
Cu-T has a local antifertility effect by bringing about release of toxic cytokines, which increase phagocytosis
of sperms.
24. Given below are four methods (A - D) and their modes of action (a - d) in achieving contraception. Select
their correct matching from the four options that follow
Method Mode of Action
(A) The pill (a) Prevents sperms reaching cervix
(B) Condom (b) Prevents implantation
(C) Vasectomy (c) Prevents ovulation
(D) Copper T (d) Semen contains no sperms
(1) A-(b), B-(c), C-(a), D-(d) (2) A-(c), B-(a), C-(d), D-(b)
(3) A-(d), B-(a), C-(b), D-(c) (4) A-(c), B-(d), C-(a), D-(b)
Sol. Answer (2)
Vasectomy blocks the passage of sperms. A person can ejaculate normally but that ejaculate is devoid of
sperms.
Condom is physical barrier. Oral contraceptives having progestin and estrogen preventing ovulation. Cu-T
suppress sperm motility.
25. Consider the statements given below regarding contraception and answer as directed thereafter
(a) Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) during first trimester is generally safe
(b) Generally chances of conception are nil until mother breast-feeds the infant upto two years
(c) Intrauterine devices like copper-T are effective contraceptives
(d) Contraception pills may be taken upto one week after coitus to prevent conception.
Which two of the above statements are correct? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) a, b (2) b, c (3) c, d (4) a, c
Sol. Answer (4)
Lactational amenorrhoea is effective only upto a maximum period of six months.
26. One of the legal methods of birth control is
(1) By abstaining from coitus from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle
(2) By having coitus at the time of day break
(3) By a premature ejaculation during coitus
(4) Abortion by taking an appropriate medicine
Sol. Answer (4)
Others are natural methods, do not involve any law Legal method is MTP.
27. One of the following is not a method of contraception – which one?
(1) Tubectomy
(2) Condoms
(3) Pills of a combination of oxytocin and vasopressin
(4) Lippes loop
Sol. Answer (3)
Pills of combination of progestin and estrogen are oral contraceptives.
28. Which one of the following statement is correct regarding Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STD)?
(1) The chances of a 5 year boy contacting a STD are very little
(2) A person may contact syphilis by sharing milk with one already suffering from the disease
(3) Haemophilia is one of the STD
(4) Genital herpes and sickle-cell anaemia are both STD
Sol. Answer (1)
STDs  Sexually Transmitted Diseases.
This explains that such diseases are transmitted mainly by sexual contact.
29. The stage transferred into the uterus after induced fertilization of ova in the laboratory is
(1) Zygote (2) Embryo at 4 blastomere stage
(3) Embryo at 2 blastomere stage (4) Morula
Sol. Answer (4)
Embryo is transferred at 3-4 days developed stage with 8 or more than 8 blastomeres. Morula is 8-32 celled
stage, usually formed after 3 days of fertilization. 8 blastomere stage is transferred into fallopian tube and more
than that in uterus.
30. The most important factor which determines the increase in human population in India during the 20th century
(1) Natality (2) Mortality (3) Immigration (4) Emigration
Sol. Answer (2)
Decrease in maternal and infant mortality rate.
31. The age of pyramid with broad base indicates
(1) High percentage of young individuals (2) Low percentage of young individuals
(3) High percentage of old individuals (4) Low percentage of old individuals
Sol. Answer (1)
Broad base of age pyramid indicates increase percentage of young individuals. Such pyramids are seen in
developing countries where large number of young people are found.
32. The present population of the world is about
(1) 15 billion (2) 6 billion (3) 500 million (4) 100 million
Sol. Answer (2)
World  6 billion
India  1.27 billion
33. The most important component of the oral contraceptive pills is
(1) Thyroxine (2) Luteinizing hormone (3) Progesterone (4) Growth hormone
Sol. Answer (3)
Low levels of progesterone causes menstruation. To maintain endometrium. Hence, maintain the cycle in
secretory phase, oral pills have progesterone.
34. Tablets to prevent female conception contain
(1) Progesterone (2) LH (3) FSH (4) Both (2) & (3)
Sol. Answer (1)
Progesterone inhibits LH, preventing ovulation.
35. Which is showing accurate pairing?
(1) Syphilis – Treponema pallidum (2) AIDS – Bacillus anthracis
(3) Gonorrhoea – Leishmania donovani (4) Typhoid – Mycobacterium leprae
Sol. Answer (1)
AIDS - Human Immuno Deficiency Virus.
Gonorrhoea - Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
Typhoid - Salmonella typhi
36. What is the function of non-medicated IUD?
(1) To inhibit ovulation (2) To inhibit fertilization
(3) To inhibit implantation of blastocyst (4) To inhibit gametogenesis
Sol. Answer (3)
IUDs mainly prevent implantation. Fertilization chances are there, though minimum.
37. What is the work of progesterone which is present in oral contraceptive pills?
(1) To inhibit ovulation
(2) To check oogenesis
(3) To check entry of sperms into cervix and to make them inactive
(4) To check sexual behaviour
Sol. Answer (1)
Progesterone inhibits LH from anterior pituitary.
38. Test tube baby means a baby born when
(1) It is developed in a test tube
(2) It is developed through tissue culture method
(3) The ovum is fertilized externally and thereafter implanted in the uterus
(4) It develops from a non-fertilized ovum
Sol. Answer (3)
Test-tube baby programme  ‘IVF’ then embryo upto atleast eight blastomeres transferred to fallopian tube.
39. In vitro fertilisation is a technique that involves transfer of which one of the following into the fallopian tube?
(1) Zygote only
(2) Embryo only, upto 8 cell stage
(3) Either zygote or early embryo upto 8 cell stage
(4) Embryo of 32 cell stage
Sol. Answer (3)
Embryo is developed for 3-4 days outside, i.e., atleast upto eight celled stage.
40. Spirochetes are
(1) A class of insects (2) A class of viruses
(3) Bacteria (4) Fungi
Sol. Answer (3)
Fact.
SECTION - D
Assertion-Reason Type Questions
1. A : Population of India crossed one billion in May 2000.
R : It is the result of rapid decline in death rate, maternal mortality rate (MMR) and infant mortality rate (IMR)
as well as an increase in number of people in reproducible age.
Sol. Answer (1)
Death rate has fallen due to improved personal hygiene, sanitation and modern medicines. IMR and MMR have
decreased due to better medical facilities.
2. A : Intrauterine devices (IUDs) are very effective contraceptive method.

R : IUDs don't allow sperms to enter the uterus.
Sol. Answer (3)
Sperms do enter the uterus, where either their motility is suppressed or quality of cervical mucus is changed.
3. A : Surgical method blocks gamete transport and thereby prevents conception.

R : Surgical method used in the male for this purpose is called vasectomy.
Sol. Answer (2)
Surgical methods do not cease gamete formation. Neither they inhibit formation of sex hormones nor interfere
with sexual drive.
4. A : Saheli - the new oral contraceptive for the female contains a non-steroidal preparation.
R : It is 'once a week' pill with very few side effects and high contraceptive value.
Sol. Answer (2)
Saheli is centchroman chemically. It works by preventing implantation.
5. A : In test-tube baby programme, ova from wife/donor (female) and sperms from the husband/donor (male) are
collected and induced to form zygote under simulated conditions in laboratory.
R : Embryos with more than 8 blastomeres are then transferred to fallopian tube (ZIFT) to complete its further
development.
Sol. Answer (3)
Embryos with more than eight blastomeres are transferred into uterus.
6. A : Once conception has occurred abortion can be induced by mifepristone drug.
R : Mifepristone is progesterone antagonistic.
Sol. Answer (1)
MTP in initial stages is done by misoprostal along with mifepristone.
7. A : Lactational amenorrhoea is due to high level of prolactin.
R : Prolactin stimulates the release of gonadotropins.
Sol. Answer (3)
Prolactin inhibits the release of gonadotropins.
8. A : Surgical method of contraception is terminal method to prevent any more pregnancies.
R : Surgical methods of contraception prevent gamete formation.
Sol. Answer (3)
Surgical methods of contraception block gamete passage.
9. A : Castration cannot be considered as a contraception option.
R : It should in no way interfere with the sexual drive, desire and/or the sexual act of the user.
Sol. Answer (1)
Castration is removal of primary sex organs.
10. A : Disease or infections which are transmitted through sexual intercourse are collectively called sexually
transmitted diseases.
R : STDs if not properly treated may lead to pelvic inflammatory diseases, abortion, still birth, ectopic
pregnancies, infertility or even cancer of reproductive tract.
Sol. Answer (2)
Fact.
11. A : Periodic abstinence is one such natural method of contraception in which the couples avoid or abstain from
coitus from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle, when ovulation could be expected.
R : Day 10 to day 17 of menstrual cycle is considered as safe period.
Sol. Answer (3)
It is considered as unsafe period.
12. A : ‘Saheli’– new oral contraceptive for the females was developed at CDRI, Lucknow.
R : It has no steroid in it.
Sol. Answer (2)
Saheli contains centchroman.
13. A : Surgical method also called sterilisation are generally advised for the male/female partner as a terminal
method to prevent any more pregnancies.
R : These techniques are highly effective but their reversibility is poor.
Sol. Answer (2)
Surgical methods include tubectomy and vasectomy.
14. A : Inability to conceive or produce children even after 2 years of unprotected sexual cohabitation is called
infertility.
R : Infertility is synonym for sterility.
Sol. Answer (3)
Infertility can be treated.
15. A : Inability to conceive or produce children even after 2 years of unprotected sexual cohabitation is infertility.
R : In vitro fertilization followed by transfer of embryo into the female genital tract is ‘Test Tube Baby’ programme.
Sol. Answer (2)
IVFET = In vitro fertilisation and embryo transfer.
16. A : Every sixth person in the world is an Indian.

R : Life expectancy depends upon average life span.
Sol. Answer (2)
Fact.
17. A : Use of condom is a safeguard against AIDS and sexual diseases besides checking pregnancy.
R : Certain contraceptive are planted under the skin of upper arm to prevent pregnancy.
Sol. Answer (2)
Norplant is an implant.
18. A : Maximum chances of failure in Rhythm method of contraception.

R : Very few women have absolutely regular cycles.
Sol. Answer (1)
Rhythm method has failure rate of 20-30%.
19. A : Both vasectomy and tubectomy are very effective, as the failure rate of such surgical approaches is almost
zero percent.
R : Reversibility is poor.
Sol. Answer (2)
Tubectomy and vasectomy prevent gamete transport.
20. A : Lactational amenorrhoea is one of natural method of birth control.

R : High level of prolactin inhibits the secretion of gonadotropins.
Sol. Answer (1)
High prolactin level inhibits gonadotropins.
21. A : Nearly 20% of the total pregnancies get aborted world-wide.

R : Under MTP Act, 1971 medical termination of pregnancy can be done upto 20 weeks but it is safe upto
12 weeks of pregnancy.
Sol. Answer (2)
Fact.
22. A : Gossypol inhibits spermatogenesis.

R : Centchroman inhibits ovulation.
Sol. Answer (3)
Centchroman prevents implantation.


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(Reproductive Health-Problem and Strategies, Human Population Growth)

4. According to 2001 census, the population growth rate was

5. World Population Day is

(Methods of Birth Control)

8. Which of the following is not a natural method of contraception?

16. 'Nirodh' is a popular brand of

29. Which of the following is hormone releasing IUD?

31. Implants under the skin and injectables contain

34. ‘Norplant’ is the new form of birth control and it

35. MTPs are considered relatively safe up to ________ weeks of pregnancy

(Sexually Transmitted Diseases)

43. Which of the following STDs cannot be treated with antibiotics?

46. AIDS day is

(Infertility, Assisted Reproductive Technologies)

48. Surrogate mother is

(Reproductive Health-Problem and Strategies, Human Population Growth)

(Methods of Birth Control)

9. Which of the following is a copper releasing IUD?

10. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?

11. What is the function of copper ions in copper releasing IUDs?

15. Vasectomy has no effect on the sexual life of male because :

(Sexually Transmitted Diseases)

20. Which of the following is an important detection technique for syphilis?

30. Which of the following statements about hepatitis-B is incorrect?

(Infertility, Assisted Reproductive Technologies)

33. Which of the following methods is used during abortion?

35. Test tube baby is the one

Previous Years Questions

1. In a growing population of a country, [NEET-2018]

3. The function of copper ions in copper releasing IUD's is [NEET-2017]

(1) Vasectomy Prevents spermatogenesis

2. A : Intrauterine devices (IUDs) are very effective contraceptive method.

3. A : Surgical method blocks gamete transport and thereby prevents conception.

16. A : Every sixth person in the world is an Indian.

18. A : Maximum chances of failure in Rhythm method of contraception.

20. A : Lactational amenorrhoea is one of natural method of birth control.

21. A : Nearly 20% of the total pregnancies get aborted world-wide.

22. A : Gossypol inhibits spermatogenesis.

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