NAME Solutions for Common Medical Entrance Exam set –V (2078-6-02)

NAME
NAME Institute
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Model Questions
for
Common Medical Entrance
MBBS/BDS/BSc Nursing/BASLP
2078
Online
(Set-V)
Date: 2078/6/02

Hints and Solutions

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NAME Solutions for Common Medical Entrance Exam set –V (2078-6-02)

Zoology
1. c) Diabetes mellitus is related to insulin
2. c) Kidney, spleen is mesodermal
3. b) Haldane effect is related to carbon dioxide release into lungs
4. d) Acromegaly in adult and gigantism in children
5. c) Milk secretion is by prolactin
6. b) Simple squamous epithelium also called endothelium
7. d) Ileum is the part of small intestine
8. b) Atrial depolarization
9. b) Voluntary muscle movement is due to cerebrum but coordination occurs by
cerebellum
10. b) 12 pairs
11. c) Retina
12. a) Tuberculosis
13 . b) Ketone in urine ketonuria; unable to pass urine is anuria.
14. d) Glenoid cavity is present in scapula
15. d) Ependymal cells lines the ventricle of brain
16. c) Trypsin, lipase, amylase
17. c) Basophils is least abundant WBCs.
18. a) Capacitation is the process occurring in female reproductive tract
19. b) The sporozoites first attack liver cells and start pre-erythrocyticschizogony.
20. d) The end products of erythrocyticschizogony is merozoites.
21. b) Peristomium is the first body segment of earthworm. Prostomium is dorsally
attached to it.
Mouth is situated in it. Last body segment of earthworm is called pygidium.
22. a) Setae, muscles of body wall, and coelomic fluid are associated with locomotion in
earthworm.
23. d) Myotomes are group of muscles served by spinal nerve root that makes up most of
the body.
24. c) The copulatory pads of the male frog are present on the first digit of the forelimbs.
Frogs show sexual dimorphism and the presence of copulatory pads in male frog is
a distinguishing feature of the two sexes.
25. c) Phrenics
26. b) A grey crescent appears in the equatorial zone geometrically opposite to the sperm
entrance.
27. a) An outstanding characteristic of the echinoderm is their complex coelom
(enterocoel) and its derivatives, the water vascular system, perivisceral coelom and
haemal system.
28. a) Chordates should have dorsal hollow nerve cord.
29. c) The limbless amphibians are called caecilians or blindworms.
30. d) Organs of smell and chemoreceptors.
31. b) Head of tapeworm – scolex
False segmented body of tapeworm – strobila
Individual segment of tapeworm – proglottids
32. b) Class-Hydrozoa, e.g. Obelia that exhibits alternation of asexual polypoid and sexual
medusoid generation (metagenesis).
33. c) Cnidarians contain specialized cells known as cnidoblasts, i.e., stinging cells
containing organelles called nematocysts.
34. a) In crustaceans, head and thorax fused to form cephalothorax.

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NAME Solutions for Common Medical Entrance Exam set –V (2078-6-02)
35. d) The first life on earth were chemoheterotrophs. First living beings were formed in
the environment of the sea having abundant organic molecules. They absorbed the
organic molecules for the sake of nutrition and hence were chemoheterotrophs.
36. a) Carboniferous period of Palaeozoic era is known as age of amphibians.
37. a) Darwin couldn't explain why few species develop useful variation and others have
harmful variations. Also he was not able to tell the difference in between somatic
and germinal variations.
38. a) In 1891, hominid fossils named Homo erectus were discovered in Java, that
flourished about 1.5 mya. It had a large brain (around 900 cc) and probably ate
meat.
39. b) Hyla, commonly called tree frog, shows arboreal adaptation.
40. b) Catadromous migration is from freshwater to sea and back again.

Botany
41. c) Three kingdom system of Haeckel is based on number of cells while 2 kingdom
system is based on cell wall.
42. c) Cyanobacteria or blue green algae have myxoxanthin pigment for photosynthesis,
so they can be placed under Myxophyceae.
43. c) Virion is complete viral particle having genetic material either DNA or RNA and
waits for host and remain outside host. It requires host for replication of its genetic
materials.
44. d) Usually the number of ribbons like chloroplast in Spirogyra is 1-16 per cell.
45. a) Unicellular non-jacketed sex organs are found in algae (Spirogyra) and fungi
(Agaricus).
46. c) The hygroscopic teeth like cells found at opercular region of moss capsule are
peristomes. They are 32 in two circles; each contains 16 and help in spore dispersal
and show xerochasy.
47. b) The spore dispersal in Dryopteris occurs through stomium with the help of
hygroscopic ring cells called annulus.
48 d) The wings of pollen grains arise from exine and wings of seed are produced from
ovuliferous bract.
49. c) Australian Acacia has modified flat and swollen petiole for photosynthesis and
called phyllode; its leaves are scaly and non-photosynthetic.
50. c) The endosperms are edible in drupes (coconut), caryopsis (monocots) and pods
(legumes plants) and usually berries have edible fruit layers.
51. c) The carpel (carpel wall) is changed into pericarp (fruit wall). The testa, tegmen are
changed from integuments and perisperm is remnant form of nucellus.
52. c) The hygrophytes get water or moisture from atmosphere; so atmospheric humidity
should be greater. It is common in tropical forest and tropical rain forest.
53. b) Psammophytes grow on sandy soil like deserts.
54. b) Ferns and lichen prefers to grow in the dry habitat and starts regeneration after forest
fires.
55. a) Decomposers are responsible for mineralization of complex organic compounds through
decomposition and help in biogeochemical cycle.

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NAME Solutions for Common Medical Entrance Exam set –V (2078-6-02)
56. b) Pollution is undesirable changes in biological, physical or chemical characters. It may
become harmful for human but may be beneficial for other types of organisms.
57. c) The cementing layer of fruit wall is middle lamella which is chemically made from
calcium and magnesium pectate. The softening of ripen fruits is due to dissolution of
calcium pectate present in middle lamella.
58. b) Endoplasmic reticulum is network of cell which remains between nuclear membrane
and cell membrane and arise from nucleus.
59. a) Mitochondria and chloroplasts are semi-autonomous organelle having circular DNA
and can prepare some proteins involved in their functions.
60. a) S phase (a sub phase of interphase) is responsible for synthesis or replication of DNA.
61. d) According to Chargaff molecular rule of DNA, the molecular amount of A is equivalent
with T and G with C. It means that both strands have purine of one strand equals with
pyrimidine of another strand.
62. c) Every cell should undergo DNA replication prior to cell division but in between
two karyokinesis of meiosis (meiosis I and meiosis II) short interkinesis is present
which does not include DNA replication.
63. a) Hormones controls only phenotype and not affect genotype.
64. b) Linkage group is equal to the haploid number of chromosomes. Human male has XY as
sex chromosomes, so linkage group has haploid chromosomes plus 1.
65. c) Nucleoside composed of nitrogen base with pentose sugar while nucleotide is
phosphorylated nucleosides.
66. b) The inheritance of characters from father to grandson through daughter is criss cross
linkage. It is common character of X linked inheritance.
67. b) Restriction endonucleases are molecular scissors and widely used in genetic
engineering to cut specific segments of DNA.
68. a) Cauliflower (Brassica oleraceae var. botrytis) and cabbage (Brassica oleraceae var.
capitata) are closely related hybrid. Radish (Raphanus sativa), mustard (Brassica
campestris) and turnip (Brassica rapa) are distantly related.
69. a) Developing fruits and seeds have mass meristem which can divide in almost planes and
give irregular masses or volume of tissues.
70. b) Osmometer is used to measure osmosis.
71. b) Well-known experiments of Robert Emersion as Red drop enhancement experiment
justified the presence of two pigment system for the absorption of light of longer and
shorter wavelength.
72. d) Anthocyanin is pigment present in vacuole of plant cells which give attractive
colouration to flowers and other parts of plants and not involved in
photosynthesis.
73. d) Cytoplasm is the site of anaerobic respiration in all types of cells.
74. d) Krebs cycle produced 24 ATP molecules from two molecules of acetyl CoA or single
glucose molecule.
75. b) The chemical nature of flowering hormone or florigen is similar with Gibberellin.
76. b) Amphimixis is usual method of sexual reproduction which involves meiosis and
syngamy.

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NAME Solutions for Common Medical Entrance Exam set –V (2078-6-02)
77. b) Lepidopterophily or psychrophily is the pollination due to butterflies. The
pollination due to bees, moth and beetle are called melitophily, phalaenophily and
cantherophily respectively.
78. b) The endothecium, middle layer and tapetum are layers of microsporangium.
79. d) Biofertilizers are microscopic organisms like bacteria, fungi, algae, cyanobacteria help to
increase soil fertility or productivity of soil.
80. d) Gene therapy is the procedure of modifying genes of a person to treat or cure genetic
diseases.

Chemistry
81. c) The salt which is used in salt bridge should have approximately equal ionic
mobility of cation and anion.
82. c) Ionization energy and electron affinity generally increase in a period.
83. d) P(Y) +  P2O5; H = 9.91kJ;
P(R) +  P2O5; H = 8.78 kJ
Subtract (ii) from (i)
P(Y)  P(R) ; H = 9.91 + 8.78=1.13 kJ.
84. c) Graham’s law is valid at low pressure.
85. c) Kinetic energy =
86. b) Maximum number of electrons in given orbit = 2n2
87. d) Na+ [O – H]¯ contains both covalent and ionic bond.
88. d) ClF3 has sp3d-hybridisation with two lone pair of electrons on Cl.
89. d) IP increases along the period.
90. b) N1V1 = N2V2 M1 × 25 = 0.1 × 35;
N1 = 0.14
91. d) M.F. = = 0.0196
92. a) Oxidation number of carbon in HNC ⇒+1 – 3 + x = 0 x = +2
93. b) It is secondary reference electrode.
94. a) t½ = k= ;
Also, t = 40 = log ; find
95. b) G = 0 at equilibrium
96. a) [H+] = C = × = 1.3 × 10–3,
Thus, pH = – log 1.3 × 10–3, i.e. between 2 and 3.
97. c) OH¯ – H+ O2–
98. b) At constant temperature,U = 0
99. a) Both white and red phosphorus are not soluble in CS2only white P is soluble.
100. b) In case of nitrogen being second period element, d-orbitals are not available.
101. d) P2O5 have great affinity for water. The final product isorthophosphoric acid.

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NAME Solutions for Common Medical Entrance Exam set –V (2078-6-02)

102. c)

103. d) Na2O (basic), SO2 and B2O3 (acidic) and ZnO is amphoteric oxide.
104. a) 4KO2+2CO2→2K2CO3+3O2
105. b) Silver is recovered from the alloy (lead–silver alloy) by cupellation.
106. c) Leblanc method is used for the manufacture of Na2CO3.
107. d) Cl2 will react with CaO, NaOH and KOH. It will not react with conc. H 2SO4 hence can be
dried over it.
108. d) Reactivity follows the order: F > Cl > Br > I
109. b) Xe is also known as stranger gas
110. b) Cu2Ar3d9 ;Ti4Ar3d0 ;Co2Ar3d7 ;Fe2Ar3d6
1,3,4 are coloured ions since they contain certain number of unpaired electrons.
111. c) If nonmetal is added to the interstitial site the metal becomes less malleable due to
formation of covalent bond between metal and non-metal
112. b) Transition metal in lower oxidation state will exist as cation which are Lewis acids.
113. b)

114. d) It is a nucleophilic substitution reaction as here stronger nucleophile OH – is replacing

weaker nucleophile X–.
115. d)

116. d) Ethyl alcohol on oxidation gives acetaldehyde.

117. b) Dehydration of CH3OH gives carbene (methylene), anunstable intermediate.

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NAME Solutions for Common Medical Entrance Exam set –V (2078-6-02)

118. c) Metamerism is found in molecules having polyvalent functional group.

119. a) Inductive effect involves displacement of  - electrons.
120. d) CHF2COOH is highly acidic as –I group increases acidic strength.
121. a) CH2=CH2 X2
CH2X – CH2X; AVic– dihalide.
122. b) RX + Mg Ether
 RMgX
123. c) CH3CN Na/C 2 H 5OH HNO 2
 CH 3 CH 2 NH 2   CH3COOH
 CH 3 CH 2 OH [O]
124. c) C6H5CHO  C6H5COCl + HCl
Cl2

125. c) sodium alkyl sulphate. These contain –SO4 group.

126. a) Baeyer's reagent is 1% cold alk. KMnO4
127. b) NaBH4, LiAlH4 has no action on C = C.
CH3CH = CHCHO [H] CH3CH = CH CH2OH
128. b) Formyl chloride is unstable at room temperature.
129. a) RCH2NO2HOH RCOOH + NH2OH
130. d) Proteins contain peptide bond.

Physics
131. c) Parallactic second is a unit of distance

1 parallactic second = 3.26 light years

132. a) gT2 = 2R
gT2 = 2R tan
on comparing
tan = 1 = tan45º
 = 45º
133. c) Work = decrease in EP = EPi – Epf = mg– g =
134. b) Because for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction takes place.
135. a) t====L
136. c) The motion of a rocket is based on the principle of conservation of linear
momentum.
137. c) The velocity of the spoon will be equal to the orbital velocity when dropped out of
the spaceship.
138. b) Honey
139. a) Oil spreads over the surface of water where as water does not spread over the
surface of the oil due to surface tension of water is very high.
140. a) For floating body to be stable, meta centre should lies above the centre of gravity.
141. d) Since Vrms  also mean square velocity v2 = v2rms
142. a) ==1+
143. c) Pyrometer can measure temperature from 800ºC to 6000ºC. Hence temperature of
sun is measured with pyrometer.
144. d) Due to large specific heat of water, it releases large heat with very small
temperature change.

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NAME Solutions for Common Medical Entrance Exam set –V (2078-6-02)
145. c) Q = mC   C = when  = 0  C = 
146. b) For cyclic process U = 0
U + W = Q
0 + W = Q
W = Q
147. c) In plane mirror, size of the image is independent of the angle of incidence.
148. d) Luminous flux = 4L = 4 × 3.14 × 42 = 528 Lumen
Power of lamp = = = 264W
149. c) A = r + 0, r = 30º A
From Snell's law at surface AB
= =
sini = = sin45º i r
i = 45º
150. b) = water > air
 water < air B C

151. b) Curvature =
C=
152. b) M=
153. d) (Vmax)particle = 2 Vwave
a = 2v
y0 = 2v
 = y0
154. c) Incase of open pipe f = where N = order of harmonics = order of mode of vibration
VN = f × 2l
N==≈3
155. c) The loudness depends upon intensity while pitch depends upon frequency.
156. d) 1 = 2
=
=
E1 = E2
=1:1
157. b) Debye is the unit of electric dipole moment.
158. d) C= C
159. b) To obtain minimum resistance, all resistors must be connected in parallel. Hence
equivalent resistance of combination
Req = =
160. a) H=t
H  and R =
Rl
H = = = 2:1
161. b) The maximum power transferred is equal to so we can say maximum power
depends on load resistance.
162. a) Seebeck effect is the conversion of Peltier effect.
163. b) For charge particles, if they are moving freely in space, electrostatic force is
dominant over magnetic force between them. Hence they repel each other.

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NAME Solutions for Common Medical Entrance Exam set –V (2078-6-02)
164. c) B1 = B2 =  = 2 : 1
165. d) Work done = MB (cos1 – cos2)
1 = 0º and 2 = 180º
W = MB (cos0º – cos180º) = 2MB
166. c) Induced emf = L = 5 × = 1 volt
167. b) XC = =
For dc, f = 0,  XC = 
168. b) Value of e/m is not constant for positive rays.
169. c) m===
==0
170. c) En = – eV
If E1 = – 13.6 eV  n1 = 1
If E3 = – 13.6 + 12.1 = – 1.5 eV  n3 = 3
So, nos. of spectral line 3 1, 3 2, 2 1
171. a) Hydrogen atom does not emit X-rays because its energy levels are too closed to
each other
172. b)
173. c) = N
n=N
T1/2 =
174. c) In p-type semi conductor, holes are the majority charge carriers.
175. c) In reverse bias no current flows.
176. a) Electrons move from base to collector
177. a) The Boolean expression for NOR gate is
Y=A+B
i.e. if A = B = 0 (low), Y = O + O= O= 1 (high)
178. b) Electron and positron
179. a) Potential energy possessed by stored water is converted into electricity.
180. b) Speed of galaxy is proportional to its distance from us. This is Hubble's law.

MAT
181. a) 50 – 41 = 9 –1(c) = 8/2 = 4
182. b) 32/2 = 16 and 48/2 = 24
183. a) The correct order is :
Member Family Community Locality Country
3 1 2 4 5
184. a) All mothers are women and some mothers and some women may be engineers.
185. a) As Word is a group of letters similarly Book is a group of papers
186. b) 915 - 364 = 551
and 789 - 543 = 246
Similarly, 863 - 241 = 622.
187. b) There is no repetition of any letter in any other group.

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NAME Solutions for Common Medical Entrance Exam set –V (2078-6-02)
188. d) Since one of the numbers on the dial of a telephone is zero, so the product of all the
numbers on it is 0.
189. d) The series is baa/bba/baa/bba/baa/bb. Thus, the pattern baa/bba is repeated.
190. d)

At 9.15 P.M., the minute hand will point towards west.

191. d) (2)3 + (1)3 + (3)3 = 36
and (0)3 + (4)3 + (3)3 = 91
Therefore, (4)3 + (2)3 + (1)3 = 73.
192. c) From figures (i), (ii) and (iv) We conclude that 6, 4, 3 and 1 lie adjacent to 2. Hence,
5 must lie opposite 2.
193. a)
194. c) The figure may be labelled as shown.

The simplest triangles are IJO, BCJ, CDK, KQL, MLQ, GFM, GHN and NIO i.e. 8 in
number.
The triangles composed of two components each are ABO, AHO, NIJ, IGP, ICP,
DEQ, FEQ, KLM, LCP and LGP i.e.10 in number.
The triangles composed of four components each are HAB, DEF, LGI, GIC, ICL
and GLC i.e. 6 in number.
Total number of triangles in the figure = 8 + 10 + 6 = 24.
195. a) One, two, three, one, two, three.....arcs get inverted sequentially. This inversion
takes place in an ACW direction.
196. b) Let P, Q and R represent their respective monthly incomes. Then, we have:
P + Q = (5050 x 2) = 10100 .... (i)
Q + R = (6250 x 2) = 12500 .... (ii)
P + R = (5200 x 2) = 10400 .... (iii)
Adding (i), (ii) and (iii), we get:  2(P + Q + R) = 33000  or   P + Q + R = 16500 .... (iv)
Subtracting (ii) from (iv), we get P = 4000.
 P's monthly income = Rs. 4000.
197. b) S.P. = Rs. 250 each.
To find gain percent, we must know the C.P. of each.
 Correct answer is (B).

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NAME Solutions for Common Medical Entrance Exam set –V (2078-6-02)
198. c) Clearly, the numbers which have 1 or 9 in the unit's digit, have squares that end in
the digit 1. Such numbers from 1 to 70 are 1, 9, 11, 19, 21, 29, 31, 39, 41, 49, 51, 59,
61, 69.
Number of such number =14
 Required percentage = % = 20%
199. c) (A + B)'s 1 day's work =
C's 1 day's work =
(A + B + C)'s 1 day's work = = = ........... (i)
A's 1 day's work = (B + C)'s 1 day's work ..... (ii)
From (i) and (ii), we get 2 × (A's 1 day's work) =
 A's 1 day's work =
 B's 1 day's work = =
So, B alone could do the work in 25 days.
200. c) Let the third number be x.
Then, first number = 120% of x = =
Second number = 150% of x = =
 Ratio of first two numbers = = 12x : 15x = 4 : 5

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