NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Model Entrance Exam set –XIIB (2080-03-02)

NAME
NAME Institute
In front of Singhdurbar, Putalisadak
Tel: - 01- 5320255

MECEE BL
Model Entrance Exam 2080

(Set-XIIB, Day)
Date: 2080/03/02

Hints and Solutions

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Model Entrance Exam set –XIIB (2080-03-02)

Zoology
1. d)
2. d) Neoteny: the persistence of larval or fetal features in the adult form of an animal. For example,
the adult axolotl, a salamander, retains larval external gills
3. c) Hookworm infection is transmitted primarily by walking barefoot on contaminated soil.
4. a) Arthropoda is the largest phylum of animals within which the class Insecta has the maximum
number of species. Insects make up around 75% of the phylum Arthropoda.
5. d)
6. d) The myogenic heart is where the impulses for muscle contraction and relaxation of muscles
of the heart are generated and transmitted by specialized cardiac muscles. The human heart
is myogenic. The AV node is located on the floor of the right atrium.
Cardiac output is the product of heart rate (HR) and stroke volume (SV) and is measured
7. b) Simple epithelia are the first organized tissues found in evolution (early metazoans)
8. b) Parietal cells aka oxyntic cells are epithelial cells in the stomach that secrete hydrochloric acid
(HCl) and intrinsic factor. The endothelium is a single layer of squamous endothelial cells that
line the interior surface of blood vessels and lymphatic vessels.
9. c) Stria vascularis are present in the cochlear duct, aka scala media. Secretes endolymph.
10. c) The brush border morphology increases a cell's surface area, a trait especially useful in
absorptive cells. Cells that absorb substances need a large surface area in contact with the
substance to be efficient
11. d) The transitional epithelium is a stratified epithelium in which the shape of the surface cells
changes depending on the degree of stretch. Thus basement membrane is not seen in
transitional epithelium
12. b) Plague: Yersinia pestis (Bacteria)
Leprosy: Mycobacterium leprae (Bacteria)
Diphtheria: Corynebacterium diphtheriae (Bacteria)
13. b) Diphtheria bacteria spread from person to person, usually through respiratory droplets, like
coughing or sneezing.
14. d) The TB skin test is called the Mantoux tuberculin skin test (TST). A TB skin test requires two
visits with a healthcare provider. On the first visit, the test is placed; on the second visit, the
healthcare provider reads the test. The TB skin test is performed by injecting a small amount
of fluid (called tuberculin) into the skin on the lower part of the arm. A person given the
tuberculin skin test must return within 48 to 72 hours to have a trained healthcare worker look
for a reaction on the arm. The result depends on the size of the raised, hard area or swelling.
15. b)
16. a) The right lobe, the left anterior lobe, and the left posterior lobe. The liver is not primarily an
organ of digestion
17. a) Classification of Annelida: Polychaeta, Oligochaeta, Hirudinea, Archiannelida
18. d) Coelomates are organisms with a fluid-filled cavity between the gut and outer body walls.
annelids the metameric segmentation is both external and internal In arthropods, the
segmentation is external.
19. c) Infective stage: uninucleate, lancet-shaped sporozoite Schizont stage: found in human
erythrocyte and liver cells.
20. b) Asexual stages: sporozoite, schizont and trophozoites Sexual stages: gametocytes, zygote,
ookinetes and oocyst

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Model Entrance Exam set –XIIB (2080-03-02)
21. d) Menotaxis: maintaining a constant angle to a stimulus.
Telotaxis: The movement of an animal in response to a stimulus directly towards or away
from the source of stimulation, guided by the use of one sense organ.
Klinotaxis: Klinotaxis is the achievement of orientation by alternate lateral movements of part
or all of a body; there appears to be a comparison of stimulation intensities between one
position and another and a "choice" between them.
22. c)
23. b)
24. d) FADEK: Fat soluble are vitamins A, D, E, and K
25. a)
26. c)
27. b) Regulation of respiration occurs centrally in the respiratory centre in the medulla oblongata
and pons. Medullary centre: creates rhythmic innervation of the respiratory muscles and is
influenced by various respiratory stimuli 1. Dorsal respiratory group responsible for
Inspiration 2. Ventral respiratory group responsible for Expiration @DIVE Pontine centre:
modifies the activity of the medullary centre
1. Apneustic centre: Controls the intensity of breathing
28. a) Arrangement in hilum: anterior to posterior @ VAP Renal vein, artery and pelvis
29. b) Teloception (distant stimuli) Interoception: sensing internal signals from the body, like
30. b) Hypothalamus : (SEAT)2, Sex, Sleep, Endocrine, Emotion, Autonomic, Appetite, Thirst,
Temperature
31. d) Integrating system refers to the organ system that brings about coordination and integration
of different body activities
32. b) Viper: Hemotoxic Krait, Cobra: Neurotoxic
33. b) It is generally haploid and contains 23 chromosomes
34. d) Mitochondria are located in the Middle piece; @M for M The normal volume varies from 1.5
to 5.0 milliliters per ejaculation. The sperm count varies from 20 to 150 million sperm per
millilitre
35. a) Striped muscles aka straited eg. Cardiac muscle and Skeletal muscle.
36. c) On electron microscopy Z band (@ Z is like a mirror of S, S for sarcomere) Separates one
sarcomere from the other M band centre of the H zone, to which myosin filaments are attached
on opposite sides I band A zone containing only actin filaments A band Composed of three
segments: a pale central segment (the H zone) surrounded by two dark outer segments H zone
a pale band on either side of the M band that contains only myosin filaments,
37. a)
38. a) Cud is a food component that returns from the stomach to an animal's mouth for a second
chew. Rumination is the process by which cud is generated during digestion—ruminants, aka
cud-chewing animals. Eg: cattle, deer, sheep, goats, and antelope.
39. d) The ink gland serves as a defence in cephalopods
40. b) Chimera resembles cartilaginous fishes in the following characteristics: cartilaginous skeleton,
ventral mouth, two dorsal fins, claspers, and placoid scales in the young. And resembles bony
fishes in the following characteristics: small mouth with fleshy lips, tooth plates joined to the
jaws, four pairs of gills, the absence of cloaca, a separate anus, and a urogenital aperture.

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Model Entrance Exam set –XIIB (2080-03-02)

Botany
41 c) Electron microscope is used to study internal structure of cell which is illuminated by beam of
electrons to get maximum magnification.
42 a) Bacterial sex is determined by the presence of F plasmid.
43 c) The genetic materials of plant virus may be either RNA or DNA but most of plant virus bear
RNA.
44 d) Crustose lichen is very primitive lichen which has complex organization of mycobiont and
phycobiont.
45 d) All higher photosynthetic plants bear chlorophyll a and carotenoids (carotenes and xanthophyll).
46 d) Mucor or black mould bears columella for septation between sporangiosphore and sporangium.
47 b) Foot is basal part of sporophyte attached to gametophyte for absorption and mechanical support.
48 d) Ramenta is hair like brownish structure found in petioles, leaf stalk and rhizomes of ferns.
49 d) The wing of pollen grain of Pinus is extension of exine and made from sporopollenin.
50 d) The bulbs of onion have fleshy scaly leaves for storage of food materials.
51 a) Members of family Graminae (Poaceae) has caryopsis fruit bearing indistinct testa and pericarp.
52 c) The taxonomic family of potato and tomato is Solanaceae.
53 a) Grassland is characterized by warm climate with low rainfall.
54 c) The 10% transfer of energy in trophic level is proposed by Linderman.
55 a) Frog is secondary consumer in pond ecosystem which gets energy from insects (primary
consumer).
56 a) Bengal tiger is commonly found in tropical national parks like Bardiya national parka, Chitwan
national park and Parsa national park.
57 a) Eukaryotic flagella and cilia are made from tubulin proteins.
58 b) Telomere is terminal part of chromosomes or chromatids.
59 b) Growth first or G1 phase is responsible for making decision of cell division. The cell unable to
enter S phase will escape from cell cycle remain in G0 phase.
60 b) Hyaloplasm or cytosol is ground substance of cytoplasm without organelles and inclusions.
61 c) Instant substrate of respiration is carbohydrates which can be easily broken-down during
respiration.
62 d) DNA is commonly present in chloroplast, mitochondria, chromosomes and nucleus but not in
nucleolus.
63 c) Uracil and ribose sugars are only found in RNA while thymine and deoxyribose are found in
DNA.
64 d) DNA replication is error free due to application of DNA polymerase I during proof reading.
65 c) Transposable elements (TEs), also known as jumping genes or transposons, are sequences of
DNA that move (or jump) from one location in the genome to another. Maize geneticist Barbara
McClintock discovered TEs in the 1940.
66 c) Pure homozygous individuals can be produced by continue selfing.
67 b) Pure homozygous offspring in dihybrid cross (TTRR and ttrr) in F2 generation will be 2/16 or
1/8.
68 d) Penicillin is wonder drug as antibiotic and discovered by Alexander Fleming from Penicillium
notatum and later commercial production from Penicillium chrysogenum.
69 a) The central portion of stem or root is pith which consists of parenchymatous tissues.
70 d) Bidirectional flow of minerals is possible through phloem elements only.

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Model Entrance Exam set –XIIB (2080-03-02)
71 b) The first chemical event of photosynthesis is photolysis of water while first event is absorption of
light energy.
72 b) Hydathodes are permanent opening of plants which are not guided by guard cells and
responsible for guttation.
73 d) The volumetric ratio between released CO2 with consumed O2 during respiration is respiratory
quotient (RQ). It depends on respiratory substrates and mechanism of respiration.
74 d) The number of ATP produced from FADH2 in Krebs cycle is 2, because only single FADH2 is
produced per Krebs cycle and every FADH2 release 2ATP through oxidative phosphorylation.
75 d) Natural fruit ripening hormone is ethylene.
76 c) Scutellum is residual cotyledons of monocot plants.
77 d) Pollen chamber is male gamete receptive structure present at ovule of gymnosperms.
78 d) Mycorrhiza is symbiotic relationship between fungi and roots of higher plants and help to
increase soil fertility and productivity of crops.
79 a) The geitonogamy is the transfer of pollen of a flower to the stigma of another flower belonging
to the same plant.
80 b) Endonuclease is the enzyme responsible for cutting specific point of DNA during its replication
and genetic engineering.

Chemistry

81. d) Given volume = 1lit = 1000ml Mass = v×d = 1000

Now from mole concept, given mass/molar mass=given number/NA
1000/18=x/NA , x=55.5NA
82. a) C2H4+3O2→2Co2+H2O
1vol of C2H4 consumes 3 vol of O2 100 ml of C2H4 consumes 300ml of O2
83. a)
84. c) Valance shell of Mg contains 3S2 electrons, so possible value of 4 quantum numbers are 3, 0 ,0,
1/2.
85. c) bleaching powder contains Ca++ and OCl- and Cl- ions .so oxidation state of Cl is +1 and 1.
86. c)
87. d) ferrous, ferric magnesium alums are false alum.
88. a)
89. a)
90. b) Active mass of solid is taken unity.
91. a) Ka=Cα2 =0.1×(0.01/100)2
92. b) 2n =29 =512
93. b)
94. a) 3NA
95. b)
96. a) Standard electrode potential i.e. reduction potential of A is minimum (–3.05V) i.e. its oxidation
potential is maximum which implies ‘A’ is most reactive chemically.
97. c) by using M1V1=M2V2 6×x=150×0.30 x=7.5
98. b)

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Model Entrance Exam set –XIIB (2080-03-02)
99. c)

Total number of sigma bond =9 ̟ – bond = 9

100. d) Essential oil, aniline are purified by steam distillation.
101. b)
102. b)
103. c)
104. a) n heptane has 0 octane number, i.e worst fuel.
105. a)
106. a)
107. c) 30 alcohol can not be prepared by reduction of aldehyde and ketone.
108. b)
109. c)
110. a)
111. d)
112. a)
113. a)
114. b)
115. c)
116. b)
117. b) Addition of 2nd electron is always endothermic. i.e EA1 = exothermic, EA2 = endothermic.
118. a)
119. c) steam cracking process is manufacture of hydrogen gas from Natural gas in presence of steam
120. b) Castner process: manufacture of sodium
Castner Kelner Process: manufacture of sodium hydroxide
121. c) Most stable phosphorus is black phosphorus and most reactive phosphorus is white
phosphorus.
122. b) ozone acts as oxidizing agent but with peroxide it behaves as reducing agent.
123. c)
124. d)
125. a)
126. a) Acidic order of different oxyacid of halogen ∝E.N. of halogen.
127. a)
128. a)
129. a) Anthracite is purest form of charcoal.
130. b)

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Model Entrance Exam set –XIIB (2080-03-02)

Physics

131. a) Intensity =energy per sec unit area =[M1L0T-3]

→ → → → → →
132. a) ( × ). = 0, Since ( × )⊥
133. c) 2nd ball hits the ground in (5-2)=3 sec 1st ball hist the ground in 5 sec
1 1
h1=0+2 ×10×52 h2=0+2 ×10×32 h1-h2=5(52-32) =80 m

u2sin 2× 450 u2 u2 R
134. d) Horizontal range, R = g =g maximum height, H=ug H =4
135. a) mg-R=ma mg-n mg=ma a=g(1-n)
136. b) v= 2gh = 2×9.8×19.6 = 19.6×19.6 =19.6 m/s.
1
137. b) K.E of rotation =2 Iw2 =0.5 mr2w2

138. b) The total energy of satellite is zero at infinity. The force acting on satellite is attractive, hence
the total energy is negative.
139. a) weight of body = weight of water displaced 200×g=l×l×2×g l=10 cm
140. c) Total mass of the original area drop is equal to the total mass of both the droplets
F-32 k-273 x-32 x-273
141. c) let F=k=x 9 = 5 9 = 5 x=574.25

142. a) Thermal capacity = sp. heat © ×mass (m) 8=C×10 C=0.8 cal/g/0C
143. a) Boyle's law holds good if gas is perfect and of fixed amount

= 300× 27+273 =280 ml

T2 7+273
144. b) V2=V1 T
1  
T2 W 300 800
145. b) η=1 - T =Q 1-600 = Q Q1= 1600 J
1 1 1

146. d) Isothermal compression is reversible. The reverse is isothermal expansion. Heat required in
this process is gained from the surroundings.
147. c) max. force = mw2a =m4̟2f2a =288̟2
148. d) The second pendulum placed in a space laboratory orbiting around the earth is in a weight
lessness state. hence g=0 so, T=∞.
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149. c) Frequency of waves (n) =60 =0.9 V=nλ=0.9×10=9 ms-1

4̟ ε0 ra rb 1(rb-10-3)rb
150. a) rb-ra=1mm =10-3 m c= rb-ra 10-6 =9×109(10-3) rb=3 m

1
151. a) As E ∝r3 ∴ n= -3

152. b) As the electric field is non-uniform, the dipole will experience a translational force as well as
torque.
1 1
153. a) σ=ρ =RA In case of super-conductor R=0, σ=∞

154. a) Input power of motor = v2/R =(220)2 /44 =1100 watt

10
output power of motor = efficiency ×input power = 11 ×1100=1000 watt

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Model Entrance Exam set –XIIB (2080-03-02)
155. c) Peltier heat produced at a junction in directly proportion to the quantity of charge passed through
the junction.
I (I-Ig)S (I-I/2)×40
156. c) Ig =2 , S=40 Ω G= Ig = I/2 =40 Ω

157. d) F=qvVsin θ, Here θ=00 or 1800, so Sin θ=0 Hence, F=0.

158. c) For permanent magnets, steel is preferred because of large coercivity.
dΦ dB 1
159. d) e= dt =nA dt =500×(10×10×10-4) 1 =5 V

E0 707
160. c) Ev= = = 500 V
2 1.414
R 12
161. d) Power factor, Cos Φ=Z =15 =0.8

λ1D1 3λ3D λD 1/3 d

162. c) β= d1 = d/3 =27 d No. of fringes = β =81λD

I1 a2 4 a 2
163. a) I 2 = b2 = 1 b =1
164. c) fw=4fa = 4×2=8 cm
100 +100
165. a) P=p1+p2= 40 -25 = -1.5 D

Shift = x 1- µ =6 1- 3/2 =6×3 =2 cm

1 1 1
166. b)
   
167. d)
168. b) Emission of electrons due to light is called Photoelectric emission
v
169. c) For the charge to be stationary, qE=mg ned =mg

mgd 1.8×10-14×10×0.9×10-2
n= ve = 2×103×1.6×1019 =5

170. d) Number of spectral lines in hydrogen atom is infinite

171. d) A positron has the same mass as Electron
???
172. b) Quark combination of anti-proton is > >@

N  1 n  15 1
173. b) N0 = 2 = 2 =32 ≈3%
∆V 0.7-0.5
174. c) Forward resistance = ∆I = 1×10-3 = 200 Ω

175. d) The mobility of free electrons is greater than that of free holes because they require low energy
to continue their motion
176. c) An AND gate is equivalent to a series switching circuit
177. c) A rectifier converts A.C to D.C
178. b) Age of universe =1/H
179. b) Our milky way is rotating around its own axis
180. a) Asteroids are small planets

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NAME Solutions for MECEE BL Model Entrance Exam set –XIIB (2080-03-02)

MAT

181. b) From prime factorization of 165 = 3 × 5 × 11 or 165 = 15 × 11

So the two numbers whose sum = 26 and multiplication = 165 is 15 and 11
182. b) Use Venn diagram concept.
183. c) Pattern is ÷3, ÷3, ÷3, ……...
(B×CDD)
184. d) From question, Interest=Principal=P, use A =
EF
185. d)
Days Total Work Eff.
A 6 10
B 10 60 6
C 12 5
10
Share of A=4200 × 21=2000

186. c) If a number k is subtracted from each item of given data then average also reduced by k.
187. c) MP(100-D%)=CP(100+P%)⟹ CP=
188. a) Remove the vowels
189. c) The pattern is +8, 10+,12, +14, +16, …………….
190. a) Game: Playground
H(HIC)
191. d) use J
then 66 is sum upto 11, turn for 12th letter=O (from backward)
192. d) Number of odd days from 2006 to 2009 = (1 + 1 + 2 + 1) = 5 days. So, Sunday+5days=Friday
193. a) Clearly, A’s new position is 15th from the left. But this is the same as B’s earlier position which
is 9th from the right.
194. c) Now, we have the expression: 20+8-8÷4×2=20+8-2×2=20+8-4=24.
195. b) Seismograph is an instrument to measure the intensity of an earthquake. Similarly,
Taseometer is an instrument to measure strains.
196. a) common in first row and second row = third row
197. d) direction of arrow in circumference of circle is opposite than others
198. b)
199. d) 8+10+10+10+2=40
200. c)

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