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VOL. XLV NO. 16 PAGES 32
NATIONAL RECRUITMENT AGENCY: NEW GATEWAY
TO SELECTION IN GOVERNMENT JOBS
Introducing a major reform in the
recruitment process, the Union Cabinet
on 19 August 2020 approved the setting
up of National Recruitment Agency (NRA).
The agency will conduct a fully online
Common Eligibility Test (CET) the scores
for which will be immediately disclosed to
the candidates. The CET will
considered as common Tier-I examination
that all candidates seeking employment in
TIPS FOR APPEARING IN NEET & JEE
Nidhi Prasad
O h! At last after a long
examination dates for The National
Eligibility cum Entrance Test (NEET) /
wait
Joint Entrance Examination (JEE) is
announced.
One of the effects of corona virus is for
the students who are appearing above
mentioned examination is that they have
got some more time for the preparation of
this prestigious examination, but this type
of uncertainty, I understand does not
contribute quality for the final preparation
though we get more time to practice and
understand the areas which were not very
well prepared. And this uncertainty curb
our enthusiasm for systematic preparation
and energy level. But now that the dates
are announced, we need to plan a
strategy to crack the exam.
Now, it is natural to experience healthy
levels of stress, however, there must be
some questions crippling in your minds.
INSIDE
Question Paper Civil Services (Preliminary)
Examination, 2019
General Studies Paper II
On Pages: 26-29
NEW DELHI 29 AUGUST - 4 SEPTEMBER 2020
Group B and C (non-technical) posts in
various central government departments
would need to clear. Based on that score,
the candidates can apply for Tier-II
examinations that will be conducted by
various examination conducting agencies
like the Staff Selection Commission,
be Railway Recruitment Board and Institute
of Banking Personnel Selection, etc.
It is envisioned that the NRA, having its
Š Am I doing everything I can?
Š How do I make the best use of these
last few days?
Š Is there something I am missing out
on?
Š These must be the questions that are
inundating your mind right now.
Aspirants for NEET or JEE Main 2020
round the globe are left with little time until
the D-day. This is when most aspirants
realize that so much has to be done and
the time left is not enough. However, a
systematic approach during the last 30
days of exam preparation will help you
complete everything just in time.
Here are some tips for appearing in this
Exam preparation. You need to divide four
phases for last moment preparation.
1. How to Prioritize?
2. How to Memorize?
3. Stay Healthy
4. What need to avoid in the last minute
SMART STUDY TIPS
By this time, you must have completed
the entire syllabus from NCERT and other
reference books. If not complete, most of
you must have covered a larger portion of
syllabus. The first thing that you must
headquarters in Delhi, would be a
specialist body bringing the state-of-the-
art technology and best practices to the
field of Central Government recruitment.
Prime Minister Narendra Modi who
chaired the cabinet meeting said, 'The
National Recruitment Agency will prove to
be a boon for crores of youngsters.
Through the Common Eligibility Test, it will
eliminate multiple tests and save precious
remember at this point is that this is not
the time to start anything new. Whatever
has been done till now, is what you must
revise for an exam. Hence, this last month
has to be dedicated primarily to revision
and mock tests.
Š PLAN- Planning is key to good
revision. When left to our own devices
we sometimes struggle to find the
motivation to get off Netflix and
actually do some work -So draw out a
timetable of allocated time slots to
spend on each subject and stick to it!
Š PREPARING A TIME TABLE- The
next step is a schedule until the exam
`12.00
time as well as resources. This will also be
a big boost to transparency." The body will
have representatives of Ministry of
Railways, Ministry of Finance/Department
of Financial Services, the SSC, RRB and
IBPS. The government has sanctioned a
sum of Rs 1,517.15 crore for setting up the
NRA.
Shri C Chandramouli, Secretary,
Continued on page 30
day. Everything that is included in this
schedule will be your preparation
strategy. Paste it on a wall where it is
clearly visible to you. If possible, set
alarms in your mobile phone according
to this time table every morning.
Š MARATHON REVISIONS: The first
thing to be incorporated in your
schedule is, ample time for revision.
By now you must have figured out the
amount of time required to revise a
subject or topic. On the basis of this,
calculate the number of hours that you
Continued on page 4
2 www.employmentnews.gov.in Employment News 29 August - 4 September 2020

EN 16/17
Employment News 29 August - 4 September 2020
Post 2030, India to have New Crop of Innovative and
Competent Students: Education Secretary
EN Team
W ith the New Education
Policy (NEP) 2020 in
place, students who come out in
2030 onwards will be in a
position to have their choice; to
fulfill their passion and also to
contribute innovatively to the
society as well as to the world,
according to Shri Amit Khare,
Secretary, Department of Higher
Education, Ministry of
Education, Government of India.
"The National Education Policy
2020 aims to have more job
creators than job seekers," said
Shri Khare while delivering the
56th Foundation Day lecture of
the Indian Institute of Mass
Communication (IIMC), New
Delhi on August 17, 2020. The
topic of lecture was 'National
Education Policy (NEP) -
Philosophy and Guiding
Principles, and what it augurs for
Communication Education in the
Country.'
The National Education Policy
2020 is not an incremental but a
transformative change in both
the school and higher education
level in India as it gives
importance to development of
skills and competencies,
particularly learning of life skills.
The maximum brain
development of a child takes
place in his/ her foundational
years. Therefore, the NEP has
rightly given emphasis on
developing the potential of every
child holistically, said Shri Khare
www.employmentnews.gov.in 3
who is also Secretary, Ministry of
Information and Broadcasting.
Shri Khare was of the opinion
that at the higher secondary
level, the NEP has ushered in a
transformative change as there
will be no hard and fast streams
of arts, science and commerce.
The choice will be left open to
the students to take science
subjects, mix it with humanities
subjects; also have some
vocational learning and also the
co-curricular activities like music
and sports will also be treated as
part of the curriculum.
"In higher education, there will
be multi-disciplinary learning in
higher education institutions. I
am not saying teaching,
because the entire policy
focuses on learning and
relearning. As the Hon'ble Prime
Minister Shri Narendra Modi had
said while addressing a seminar
earlier this month while for the next 40 years, this development process, Shri the communication world is
addressing all the Vice century will have more of Khare advocated industry changing and the IIMC keeps on
Chancellors of the country. We relearning to keep changing oriented training of the media evolving itself to provide the best
want people how to learn along with the time. The second students; developing a better to the best who come to our
because the next century will be important point in the NEP is that "world view" in order to churn campuses," Shri Khare added
a century where people will the focus will be on critical out best talents in the field of while suggesting that IIMC
relearn many things. So, I may thinking. Instead of reading and journalism and mass should collaborate with the
have qualified in physics but I learning about what others have communication. He stressed on leading institutions like ICSSR
may relearn music as a career done, it will encourage students the need for technology driven and JNU for research and
sometime or I may relearn about to have more critical and education and devising effective training.
animation at some other time. analytical thinking. The NEP online courses in the emerging The event opened with the
So, this whole process that we also gives due importance to areas of communication. "The welcome address by DG, IIMC
used to have earlier where it research and innovation," Shri IIMC has come a long way and it Prof Sanjay Dwivedi and
was considered to be once in a Khare added. has become widely known, not culminated with a vote of thanks
lifetime opportunity that a only within the country but also
Elucidating the importance of by ADG Sh K Satish
person does his graduation and abroad for its studies in the area
communication in the Nambudripad.
post graduation and does a job of mass communication. Indeed, ****
4 www.employmentnews.gov.in
TIPS FOR APPEARING IN NEET ...
Continued from page 1
will need to revise all three
subjects. On an average you
should be spending nearly 6-
7 hours on revision. Now, this
time is inclusive of all the
breaks that you take in
between two
subjects/chapters. Therefore,
you must make the most of
this time and minimize the
time spent on breaks.
Š MOCK TESTS
Practice full-length sample
papers or mock tests during the
same time frame as that of the
exam, which is three hours.
Increase the concentration level
and alertness accordingly.
Develop speed by solving
quizzes/Mock Tests of JEE /
NEET level problems with time
management.
Take mock-test series to build
a winning exam temperament.
After the mock test or sample
paper, analyze the performance.
Make notes of the weak areas,
mistakes done, and
forgetfulness. Remember, that it
EN 16/58
Employment News 29 August - 4 September 2020
study materials will lead to THINGS YOU SHOULD so when you're tucked up in
confusion. AVOID BEFORE AN EXAM bed, have a quick read
Š Use Technology to Hone For the most part, we all know through of the most important
is very important to solve the Your Organization Skills: how to prepare for a big exam. facts, equations or
mock tests to prepare for NEET / Leveraging technology to But has anyone ever discussed vocabulary. Then switch off.
JEE in 1 month. They will get manage your time and the unwritten but universally THE DAY OF THE EXAM
you into the habit of solving of organize your work is a good agreed upon rules to not do Š Get up early, sit in meditation
the questions and improve your idea. You may set schedules before an exam. for 10 minutes. Get ready
speed, ultimately benefitting you and arrange your tasks in an Š It is advisable not to read early.
on the exam day. organizer app. Use notes new topics before the exam Š Have a light breakfast before
Š Time Management is the and reminders, create events as you may tend to forget the going, hydrate.
Key: Managing time in an on Google calendar, and use things you have already Š Don't be late
the timer while attempting remembered. Learning FEW BONUS TIPS!
organized and wise manner
mock tests. before the examination is just 1. Attitude - Don't panic just
is not just important during
Š Practice Meditation to like cramming and cramming because you have a very
exam seasons but also
develop inner calm, poise, will make you forget what
throughout our lifetimes. short time remaining for
you have already learned.
Thus, you must plan your confidence and power of exams. We now have the
Š Don't panic while preparing
days and set reasonable concentration. Also, keep power of the best time table
for the exams, it's just an
targets for yourself. Good some time for recreational and planner, so aim high,
activities to reduce stress. exam. Yes, you have a vast
time management means remain positive and calm
Dedicate an hour or two to syllabus to cover up and also
maintaining a sustainable yourself down.
the things that you like doing, there is a lot of burden of
pace in completing your 2. Keep away from
such as sports, painting, expectations. But, do not let
coursework, budgeting distractions.
watching movies and stress overcome your
enough time for revision, and It is just a matter of one month
listening to music. This will preparations.
incorporating extra-curricular and achieving a good result will
break the monotony and will Š Take proper sleep. There are
boost your confidence to achieve
activities in your routine. many studies out there on
help you stay focused on
Š Speed & Accuracy will be big things in life, so make it
studies. Try to incorporate the detrimental effect of
happen.
your key to success in JEE this time between revision sleep deprivation on
3. Remind yourself how well
Main or NEET exams. and solving the mock test. performance, especially
Š While studying, one must prepared you are- A Can Do
Š The last thing that should be cognitive performance. If you
use the most relevant study attitude cultivates self-
on your time table is 6-8 have the choice between
materials. Exam preparation hours of SLEEP. This may motivation, which in turn aids
going to sleep and staying up
in one month using various sound like too much to some, tremendously in systematic
all night to study-go to sleep
but it is important that you get preparation.
at 3 a.m. Your brain is not
adequate rest before the If you do not stick to the
absorbing anything. Sleep
examination. It is also timetable and randomly do
resets your brain and allows
important to stay healthy things, you might end up losing
for your memories to
during this phase of NEET / precious time before the
consolidate.
JEE preparation examination. Also, surround
Š Keep Calm and don't over
Š Reward yourself: Small but yourself with positive people. Do
think.
regular rewards dispel exam not give up; believe in yourself
NIGHT BEFORE AN EXAM
stress! This technique will and your preparation.
Š Pack your stationery and
also be a source of Healthy preparation for an
admit card / hall ticket
motivation. You can
Š Relax with your family and exam along with disciplined
customize these rewards
watch something that makes study routine, revision marathon,
according to your own
you laugh and mock tests can build up
preferences.
Š Close your books by the confidence.
Š Seek help whenever
required: If you feel that you evening, get some fresh air I earnestly hope that these
are losing focus and slowing and a light walk tricks and tips will assist you in
down, please seek help from Š Do not listen to your friends your efforts to tackle exam
a mentor, a friend, a parent, who tell you how well stress. Irrespective of the exam
or a teacher. These people prepared they are - or how results, please ensure that you
understand you well and their nervous they are maintain a composed and
emotional support will more Š Use Your Moments Wisely - healthy mindset.
often than not help you thrive The few minutes before you (The author is a Counseling
in your academic endeavors. switch off the light is a Psychologist & Career
Š Take care of yourself: This fantastic time for Consultant, e-mail: nidhi
is unquestionably one of the memorization. Learning prasadcs@gmail.com
most important tips for an before sleep significantly Views expressed are personal
exam. You can only perform improves memory retention - Image Courtesy : Google
when you are in good
physical and mental shape.
Don't let the exam pressure
Answer Key of Questions
get to you; get at least 6 Published in Issue 14
hours of sleep every day and
1 ........ D 21 ...... A 41 ...... D 61 ...... B 81 ...... D
have healthy, balanced 2 ........ B 22 ...... A 42 ...... D 62 ...... A 82 ...... A
meals. It is recommended 3 ........ C 23 ...... A 43 ...... B 63 ...... D 83 ...... A
that you take regular breaks 4 ........ A 24 ...... B 44 ...... B 64 ...... B 84 ...... D
5 ........ C 25 ...... D 45 ...... B 65 ...... B 85 ...... D
between study sessions and 6 ........ D 26 ...... D 46 ...... C 66 ...... C 86 ...... D
keep yourself content. 7 ........ C 27 ...... A 47 ...... A 67 ...... D 87 ...... A
Š Remember it is the quality of 8 ........ A 28 ...... D 48 ...... A 68 ...... A 88 ...... C
9 ........ D 29 ...... C 49 ...... A 69 ...... A 89 ...... B
time spent and not the
10 ...... A 30 ...... A 50 ...... B 70 ...... A 90 ...... B
quantity alone. Hence, take 11....... D 31 ...... D 51 ...... C 71 ...... A 91 ...... B
short breaks of five to ten 12 ...... A 32 ...... D 52 ...... B 72 ...... D 92 ...... B
minutes after every one or 13 ...... D 33 ...... C 53 ...... C 73 ...... A 93 ...... A
14 ...... B 34 ...... D 54 ...... C 74 ...... B 94 ...... C
two hours of serious study. 15 ...... D 35 ...... D 55 ...... B 75 ...... D 95 ...... D
Relax completely when you 16 ...... A 36 ...... B 56 ...... B 76 ...... C 96 ...... A
take a break. 17 ...... C 37 ...... B 57 ...... C 77 ...... A 97 ...... B
18 ...... D 38 ...... A 58 ...... B 78 ...... C 98 ...... B
Š Review class content but
19 ...... C 39 ...... A 59 ...... C 79 ...... C 99 ...... A
review selectively. 20 ...... A 40 ...... C 60 ...... C 80 ...... D 100 .... B
Employment News 29 August - 4 September 2020 www.employmentnews.gov.in 5

UNION PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION UNION PUBLIC SERVICE

DHOLPUR HOUSE, SHAHJAHAN ROAD, NEW DELHI-110069 COMMISSION
Corrigendum CENTRAL ARMED POLICE FORCES

(Ref. No. F.1/39(15)/2019-R.1) It is notified for information to all concerned that the (ASSISTANT COMMANDANTS) EXAMINATION, 2020
recruitment to twenty four vacancies for the post of Specialist Grade-III, Assistant
The Union Public Service Commission will hold an
Professor (Neurology) in the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (SC-07, ST-02,
Examination on 20th December, 2020 for recruitment of
OBC-09, EWS-01, UR-05) (PH-01*), by direct recruitment published in the
Employment News on 22-08-2020 vide Advertisement No. 09/2020, Vacancy No. Assistant Commandants (Group A) in Central Armed Police
20080901122, the explanation of (PH-01*) may be read as "*Of the twenty four Forces (CAPF) viz. Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF),
vacancies one vacancy is reserved for Physically Challenged persons with Multiple Border Security Force (BSF), Central Industrial Security
Disabilities (MD) i.e. at least two disabilities from the categories of Low Vision(LV)/
Force (CISF), Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP) and
Hard of Hearing (HH)/Both legs affected but not arms (BL)/ One leg affected (R or L)
(OL)/ Leprosy Cured (LC)/ Dwarfism (DW)/ Acid Attack Victims (AAV)/ Muscular Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB). The examination will be held at
Dystrophy (MDy)". Rest of the Advertisement for this vacancy remain unchanged. various centers across the country.
EN 16/66 Candidates are required to apply online at www.upsc
online.nic.in only. No other mode is allowed for submission
of application. For details regarding Eligibility Conditions, the
Syllabus and Scheme of the examination, Centres of
examination, Guidelines for filling up application form etc.,
aspirants must refer to the Detailed Notice of the examination,
which will be available on the following path in the
Commission's Website from 18th August, 2020 :-
www.upsc.gov.in ...... Examinations ...... Active Examinations
EN 16/45

EN 16/68

÷Ê⁄Uà ‚⁄U∑§Ê⁄U Govt. of India

(Ministry of Shipping)
(¬Êà ¬Á⁄Ufl„UŸ ◊¥òÊÊ‹ÿ)
Directorate of
ŒË¬SÃ¥÷ •ÊÒ⁄U ŒË¬¬Êà ÁŸŒ‡ÊÊ‹ÿ Lighthouses & Lightships
“ŒË¬ ÷flŸ”, ªÊ¥äÊËŸª⁄U ‘Deep Bhavan’, Gandhinagar
∑§«Ufl¥òÊÊ «UÊ∑§U, ∑§ÊøËŸ-682020 Kadavanthra P.O., Cochin-682020
»§ÊŸ 0484-2205720, »Ò§Ä‚ — 2206608 Ph. : 0484-2205720, Fax : 2206608
߸U-◊‹— dllrcochin@gmail.com email — dllrcochin@gmail.com

No.I-1/6/75-Admin-XXXl Dated 12.03.2020

Annexure-I EN 16/9
NOTICE OF VACANCY
In continuation to the notification No. 01/2019 dated 05.09.2019, applications are invited from eligible
candidates who fulfill the prescribed qualification, experience, age and other conditions for filling up the
following posts in the Directorate of Lighthouses and Lightships, Cochin.
Sl. Name of the Directorate Name of the Pay Scale Category Age
No. post limit
1 2 3
1. The Director, Directorate Technician PB-1 (5200-20200/-) UR-01 21-30
of Lighthouses and (General) GP Rs. 2800/- (Relaxable as
Lightships, 'Deep Bhavan", (Pre revised) per Govt.
P.O. Kadavanthra, Revised Level-5 guidelines)
Cochin-682020 (29200-92300) in
the Pay matrix)

The candidates who have already applied for the same post vide notification No. 01/2019 dated
05.09.2019 need not apply again.
The details of posts, Educational Qualification, Age, Experience, Application format are available in the
website www.dgll.gov.in and www.ncs.gov.in. Candidates are advised to go through the detailed
instructions before submitting the application. Applications in the prescribed format only will be accepted.
Applications complete in all respect duly supported with self-attested copies of certificates and testi-
monials should reach 30 days from the date of publication of this advertisement in Employment
News to "The Director, Directorate of Lighthouses and Lightships, Deep Bhavan, Gandhinagar,
P.O., Kadavanthra, Cochin, Pin 682020.
EN 16/13
EN 16/57 Director
6 www.employmentnews.gov.in Employment News 29 August - 4 September 2020

EN 16/29

÷Ê⁄UÃËÿ •ãÃŒ¸‡ÊËÿ ¡‹◊ʪ¸ ¬˝ÊÁäÊ∑§⁄UáÊ

INLAND WATERWAYS AUTHORITY OF INDIA
EN 16/30 (Ministry of Shipping, Govt. of India)
A-13, Sector -1, Noida - 201301 (U.P.)
Phone: 0120-2544036 & 2474050
Brief Employment Notice No. IWAI-17011/44/2020-Admn Rectt. Dated 18/08/2020
Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI) invites applications from Indian Nationals working in offices of
Central / State Governments / Public Sector Undertakings / Statutory or Autonomous bodies for filling up
of the one vacant post of Hydrographic Chief on deputation basis for a period of three years for IW Al,
Head Office, Noida.
The last date for receipt of application is 45 days of publication of this advertisement in Employment
News, or by 12/10/2020 whichever is later. Applications in prescribed proforma through proper channel
to be addressed to the Assistant Secretary (Admn. & Rectt.), Inland Waterways Authority of India
IWAI), A-13, Sector-1, Noida-201301 (U.P), along with self-attested copies of certificates, last 5 year's
(from 2014-2019 onwards) APAR's testimonials in support of the eligibility criteria as stipulated in the
advertisement through Registered / Speed post only. The candidates who have applied earlier should also
be eligible for applying afresh. For further details, refer IWAI website viz <www.iwai.nic.in>.
EN 16/27 SECRETARY

÷Ê⁄UÃËÿ •ãÃŒ¸‡ÊËÿ ¡‹◊ʪ¸ ¬˝ÊÁäÊ∑§⁄UáÊ

Inland Waterways Authority of India
(Ministry of Shipping, Govt. of India)
A-13, Sector - 1, Noida - 201301 (U.P.), Phone : 0120 - 2544036 & 2474050
Dated 14/08/2020
CORRIGENDUM -1
(Ref: Employment Notice No. IWAI-17011/11/2020-Admn Dated 12/06/2020).
EN 16/6 Reference to the above for filling up of the one vacant post of Chief Engineer on deputation basis for
a period of three years for posting at IWAI, Head Office Noida and Kolkata Regional Office.
"The closing date of receipt of application, has been extended till 15/09/2020."
Ministry of Finance
Other details/conditions enumerated in the Employment Notice dated 12.06.2020 remain unaltered and
Department of Financial for further details, the web-site www.iwai.nic.in under the head 'vacancy' may be visited.
EN 16/11 SECRETARY
Services It may be noted that the last date for receipt of duly filled in applications through proper channel
Applications are invited from eligible and willing candidates for
along with requisite documents in this Department is 20.10.2020. For details, please visit the
existing and anticipated vacancies upto 31.12.2020 for the
post of Assistant Registrar and Recovery Officer in Debts website: http://financialservices.gov.in// Vacancy.

Recovery Tribunals (DRTs) in Level 11 (Rs. 67700-208700/-) (Subhashchandra Amin)

of the pay matrix, respectively, under Department of Financial Under Secretary to the Govt. of India
Services, Ministry of Finance on deputation basis. EN 16/19 New Delhi
Employment News 29 August - 4 September 2020 www.employmentnews.gov.in 7

÷Ê⁄Uà ¬˝ÁÃ÷ÍÁà ◊ÈŒ˝áÊ ÃÕÊ ◊ÈŒ˝Ê ÁŸ◊ʸáÊ ÁŸª◊ Á‹Á◊≈U«U

Security Printing and Minting Corporation of India Ltd.
÷Ê⁄Uà ‚⁄U∑§Ê⁄U ∑§ ¬Íáʸ SflÊÁ◊àflÊäÊËŸ
Wholly Owned by Govt. of India
Advt. No. 03/2020-OP
Security Printing & Minting Corporation of India Limited (SPMCIL), a Schedule ‘A’ Mini- Annexure –I
ratna Category–I Central Public Sector Enterprise wholly owned by Government of
SECURITY PRINTING AND MINTING CORPORATION OF INDIA LTD.
India, started functioning as a Corporatized entity with effect from 13th January, 2006.
(Wholly Owned by Government of India)
The objective and the business of the Company is designing, manufacturing security
16th Floor, Jawahar Vyapar Bhawan, New Delhi-110001
papers, Printing Currency & Bank notes, Passports, non-judicial stamp papers, postage
www.spmcil.com
stamps and Minting of the Coins.
EMPLOYMENT APPLICATION FORM
SPMCIL is under the administrative control of Department of Economic Affairs, Ministry
Advt.No.03/2020-OP
of Finance having its registered and Corporate Office at Jawahar Vyapar Bhawan,
1. Name of the Post: ______________________________________
Janpath, New Delhi – 110001.
The Operational units of the Company are located across the Country having its four 2. Name of the candidate: __________________________________
3. Father’s Name: ________________________________________ Passport
Mints at Mumbai, Kolkata, Hyderabad and Noida, four Currency / Security presses at
4. Date of Birth: __________________________________________ size photo
Nashik, Dewas and Hyderabad, besides a high quality Paper manufacturing mill at
Hoshangabad. (Age as on 29.09.2020 ______DD ________MM __________YY)
SPMCIL operation is target oriented and the Units are accountable to ensure work- 5. Permanent Address: _____________________________________
place efficiency, optimum utilization of available resources and achieve the production 6. Address for correspondence: _________________________________________
and the sales target as per the MOU commitment with the Government. Chief General 7. Phone numbers (office): _____________________________________________
Managers are heading the Units and reporting to Directors and CMD. (Residence) : _________________________________________________
With the above background, the Company is inviting the applications in the prescribed Mobile : _____________________________________________________
format (Annexure-I&II) so as to fill up 3(three) posts of Chief General Managers on Fax : _______________________________________________________
deputation basis for a period of 3 years. The panel will be operated only as per E-mail : _____________________________________________________
requirement. The Chief General Managers are liable for transfer depending on the
8. Religion: _________________________________________________________
operational priority and functional requirement.
9. Nationality: _______________________________________________________
Name of the Level Scale of Pay Total No. of Maximum Age 10. Whether belonging to SC/ST/OBC/Minority/Ex-serviceman/physically handi-
Post (CDA)/(IDA) Post(s) (As on capped: _________________________________________________________
29.09.2020) 11. Details of Educational Qualifications starting from Graduation:
Chief General E-8 Pay level 14 of the Matrix 3 56 years S. Details of Exams Year of Subject Div./Class Institute/
Manager *(on as per the 7th CPC OR (Three) No. Passed Passing and % of Board/
deputation basis) Rs.1,20,000-2,80,000/- marks University
(IDA) for PSU Executives Obtained
* Subject to approval for exemption from the rule of immediate absorption from
DPE.
ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA :
a) QUALIFICATION : First class B.Tech/B.E. in Electrical/Mechanical/ 12. Details of Experience starting from latest employment:
Metallurgical/Electronic Engineering/Printing Technology/Chemical Engineering/
Name of Position Period Pay scale Present Basic Brief
Pulp and Paper Technology from a recognized university. Organisation held & From To (Grade Pay Pay & Total descri-
b) EXPERIENCE : Level in case of Emoluments ption of
Govt. Officers holding analogous post in PB-4 with GP of Rs. 10000/- (pre- CDA scale) last Drawn duties
revised) or Pay level 14 in pay matrix revised as per 7th Pay Commission and
PSU Executives in IDA pay scale of Rs.1,20,000-2,80,000/-(revised as per 3rd
13. Whether any relative already working with SPMCIL _______________________
PRC) or equivalent. If yes, specify the relationship.
HOW TO APPLY : 14. Details of Computer knowledge & Experience, if any : ____________________
1. The application has to be submitted in the Proforma given in Annexure – I of the 15. Trainings during last 5 years. : _______________________________________
advertisement, preferably type written. Name of Course Institute Contents
2. The outer cover should be subscribed as “APPLICATION FOR THE POST OF
CHIEF GENERAL MANAGER”.
3. The application should be accompanied with self-attested copies of certificates in
support of educational qualification, age and experience. 16. Whether any criminal case is pending: _________________________________
4. Application of Officers/ Executives working in the Govt./PSUs/Autonomous/ (If yes, please provide details)
Statutory Bodies for the post of Chief General Manager in SPMCIL on deputation 17. Whether you have been convicted in any criminal case : ___________________
has to be duly forwarded by the Competent Authority alongwith the certificate in (If yes, please provide details)
Annexure-II. 18. Copies of Certificates/testimonials enclosed.
5. Attested photocopies of the complete and up-to-date Annual Performance 1. 2. 3. 4.
Appraisal Report and dossiers for the last 5 years including for the year 2018-19 DECLARATION
should be made available by the Authority forwarding the Application. I hereby affirm and declare that the statements made in the application are true. I
6. Application should reach to the General Manager(HR), Security Printing & undertake that any misrepresentation or material omission made in this application
Minting Corporation of India Ltd., 16th Floor, Jawahar Vyapar Bhawan, Janpath, form will render the undersigned liable to immediate dismissal.
New Delhi – 110 001 by registered/speed post by 29.09.2020. Date : ........................ (Signature of the Candidate)
7. Advance copy of application from the eligible candidate shall be considered Place : ......................
provided it is duly forwarded by the Cadre Controlling Authority before the Annexure-II
interview failing which the candidate shall not be allowed to appear in the CERTIFICATE
interview. (To be filled by the Authority forwarding the application for the
GENERAL : purpose of Deputation)
1. Mere conformity to the job requirement will not entail a candidate to be called for
interview. Management reserves the right to reject the application or raise the 1. Certified that the particulars furnished by the Candidate have been checked from
standard of specifications so as to restrict the number of candidates to be called available records and found correct.
for the interview to adjudge suitability for the job. 2. Certified that candidate is eligible as per conditions mentioned in Advertisement.
2. Management reserves the right to cancel/suspend/terminate the recruitment 3. No vigilance case is either pending or being contemplated against the candidate.
process for which no appeal will be maintainable. There is nothing against the Candidate which makes him ineligible for
3. Candidates called for interview will be entitled for reimbursement of Air fare in the consideration for appointment to post applied for.
4. Complete and up-to-date Annual Performance Appraisal Report/CR dossiers for
economy class to the place of interview on production of proof of tickets.
last 5 years (upto 2018-19) in respect of the candidate are attached/being sent
4. Applications not in conformity with the requirements indicated in this
separately.
advertisement, incomplete applications and those received after the last date 5. The integrity of the Officer is beyond doubt.
i.e. after 29.09.2020 will not be entertained. 6. No Major/Minor penalties have been imposed on the officer during the last ten
5. Computation of age, minimum post-qualification experience and qualification years.
shall be reckoned as on closing date of receipt of applications. 7. Certified that in the event of the selection of the candidate he/she shall be spared
6. SPMCIL Management reserves the right to fill up the post or increase/decrease immediately to join in SPMCIL.
Signature………………...................………….
the number of posts.
Name & Designation………………………….
7. Canvassing in any form will be a disqualification. Office Address (with seal).…………………..
Manager (HR) EN 16/18 Telephone No……………………............…….
8 www.employmentnews.gov.in Employment News 29 August - 4 September 2020

‚Ë∞‚•Ê߸U•Ê⁄U-÷Ê⁄UÃËÿ Áfl·ÁflôÊÊŸ •ŸÈ‚¥äÊÊŸ ‚¥SÕÊŸ

CSIR-Indian Institute of Toxicology Research
Áfl·ÁflôÊÊŸ ÷flŸ, 31, ◊„UÊà◊Ê ªÊ¥äÊË ◊ʪ¸
Vishvigyan Bhawan, 31, Mahatma Gandhi Marg
‹πŸ™§- 226001, ©UûÊ⁄U ¬˝Œ‡Ê, ÷Ê⁄UÃ
Lucknow - 226 001, Uttar Pradesh, India
(Council of Scientific and Industrial Research)

Advt. No. IITR/ 2-2020/Technical Dated 17.08.2020

Date of commencement of online Applications - 02.09.2020 (11.00 a.m.)
Last Date for submission of online Applications - 05.10.2020 (5.00 p.m.)
Last Date for receipt of hard copy of online Applications - 21.10.2020 (5.00 p.m)
A Unique opportunity for career in Science & Technology
CSIR-Indian Institute of Toxicology Research (CSIR-IITR), Lucknow, a constituent Post Code/ Posts Essential Job Requirement
laboratory of the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR), was established Reservation Qualification
on November 4, 1965. It is the only institute of toxicology in the country contributing Status/No. & Experience
towards cutting-edge research and innovation in toxicology with the motto: "Safety to of Vacancies
Environment and Health and Service to Industry". CSIR-IITR has made an impact in T-14-18 Technical Assistant 1st Class B.Sc. (Sci) To assist scientists
addressing problems critical to human health & the environment as well as safety of UR-05 (Chemical Sciences) with Chemistry as major and carry out
chemicals/products. The Institute has Good Laboratory Practice (GLP) Compliance T-19-20 Technical Assistant subject and with one analysis of chemical
Certification from NGCMA, Government of India, and NABL accredited facilities for EWS-02 (Chemical Sciences) year full time professional samples in the
Biological and Chemical testing services. Please visit http://iitrindia.org for further T -21-22 Technical Assistant qualification or one year analytical facility.
information. OBC-02 (Chemical Sciences) experience in the relevant
CSIR-IITR has world class infrastructure and human resource in toxicology and
T- 23-24 Technical Assistant discipline from a recognized
providing one stop solution to address environment and health issues. The institute SC-02 (Chemical Sciences) Institute/ Organization.
has contributed globally to the knowledge base in various aspects of toxicology. Apart T-25 ST-01 Technical Assistant
from high impact journal articles, scientists of CSIR-IITR have published various (Chemical Sciences)
monographs, books, environmental air & water quality survey reports, awareness
T-26 UR-01 Technical Assistant 1st Class B.Sc. (Maths/ To assist in data
pamphlets (multilingual) and scientific contents in Hindi. CSIR-IITR has been in the
(Statistics) Statistics) with one year analysis using
forefront towards contributing in the research for policy and has provided inputs T-27 Technical Assistant full time professional modern medical
towards many policy documents, guidelines and BIS/ISO standards. CSIR-IITR also OBC-01 (Statistics) qualification or one year statistical tools and
provides a healthy innovation ecosystem through its "Technology Development and experience in the relevant to strengthen on-
Innovation Centre" supported by BIRAC-BioNEST, DSIR-CRTDH. Scientists discipline from a going research
constantly interact with the industry to solve their problems through innovative recognized Institute/ programmes in the
technological solutions. More than five decades of contributions in the field of Organization. area of toxicology.
toxicology have globally positioned CSIR among top five in Food, Industrial and Work with Statistical/
Nanomaterial toxicology. epidemiological
Applications for following Technical positions (Group III) are invited from packages like
enthusiastic, young Indian citizens in the prescribed format for the below mentioned SPSS/S or SAS
posts. The details of the positions and the respective emoluments as well as age limit or STATA/EPIINFO/
& reservation as per norms are given below: Open epi etc.
Designation No. of Posts & Pay Matrix Total Upper Age Limit T-28 UR-01 Technical Assistant 1st Class B.Sc. (Science) To assist in
Reservation Level Emoluments* not exceeding as (Library Sciences) with B.Lib. Science. maintenance
on last date of T-29 ST-01 Technical Assistant of institutional
receipt of online (Library Sciences) scientific library.
application** T-30 UR-01 Technical Assistant 1st Class Diploma in Civil To assist Civil Engi-
TECHNICAL 31 POSTS Pay Matrix Rs. 51,294/- 28 Years (Civil Engineer) Engineering/Technology of neer in planning of
at least 3 years full time the civil work and
ASSISTANT UR=17, EWS=03, Level -6
duration or at least 2 years maintenance of the
OBC=05, SC=03, (Rs. 35400-
full time duration in case building and labo-
ST=03 112400)
of lateral admission in ratories as per
TECHNICAL 03 POSTS Pay Matrix Rs. 63,924/- 30 Years Diploma courses or it requirements of
OFFICER UR Level -7 equivalent with experience S&T.
(Rs. 44900- of two years in the relevant
142400) area/field.
*Total Emoluments means approximate total emoluments on minimum of scale T-31 UR-01 Technical Assistant 1st Class Diploma in To assist Electrical
including House Rent Allowance in Lucknow (City). (Electrical Engineer) Electrical Engineering/ Engineer in assessing
**Please see age relaxation under "Relaxation column" Technology of at least 3 and planning the
Technical Assistant , Group III, Pay Matrix Level -6 (Rs. 35400-112400)- years full time duration or electrical require-
at least 2 years full time ments of the
Post Code/ Posts Essential Job Requirement
duration in case of lateral building and
Reservation Qualification admission in Diploma laboratories.
Status/No. & Experience courses or its equivalent
of Vacancies with experience of two
T-01-07 UR Technical Assistant 1st Class B.Sc. (Sci) with To assist scientists years in the relevant
Seven posts (Biological Sciences) biology as major subject in the research areas area/field.
T-08 EWS Technical Assistant and with one year full time of biological Technical Officer, Group III (3), Pay Matrix Level -7 (Rs. 44900-142400)-
One post (Biological Sciences) professional qualification sciences, animal Post Code/ Posts Essential Job Requirement
T-09-10 Technical Assistant or one year experience in house and testing No. of Qualification
OBC (Biological Sciences) the relevant discipline facility. Vacancies & Experience
Two posts from a recognized T 32 Technical Officer B.E./B.Tech. (Civil) To assist civil engineer in
T-11 SC Technical Assistant Institute/Organization. 1 Post (Civil Engineer) OR planning of the civil work and
One post (Biological Sciences) UR equivalent with maintenance of the building
T-12 ST Technical Assistant 55% marks and laboratories as per the
One post (Biological Sciences) requirements of S&T
T-13 UR-01 Technical Assistant 1st Class B.Sc. (Sci) with To design the T33 1 Post Technical Officer B.E./B.Tech. To assist electrical engineer in
(Biological Sciences) biology as major subject brochures, pamph-
UR (Electrical (Electrical) OR assessing and planning the
and with one year full lets, backdrops, etc.
Engineer) equivalent with electrical requirements of the
time professional qualifi- Using Corel Draw/
55% marks. building and laboratories.
cation or one year experi- Adobe Illustrator/
ence in computer sciences similar software. T34 1 Post Technical Officer M.Lib. Science with To assist in maintenance of
(Graphic designing) from UR (Library 55% marks after institutional scientific library.
a recognized Institute/ Sciences) 1st Class B.Sc.
Organization. (Science). Continued
Employment News 29 August - 4 September 2020 www.employmentnews.gov.in 9
UR: Unreserved; SC: Scheduled Caste; ST: Scheduled Tribe; OBC: Other h. The period of experience in a discipline / area of work, wherever prescribed, shall
Backward Class; EWSs: Economically Weaker Sections. be counted after the date of acquiring the minimum prescribed educational
Selection Procedure for the above TECHNICAL ASSISTANT and TECHNICAL qualifications prescribed for that Post.
OFFICER (For T-01 to T-34) Posts:- i. Persons with disabilities (PWD) fulfilling the eligibility conditions prescribed
The candidates as recommended by the Screening Committee will be invited for under GOI instructions are encouraged to apply.
Trade/Skill Test. Those who qualify in the Trade/Skill Test will be invited for a j. Any discrepancy found between the information given in application and as evident
competitive written examination. The final merit list will be prepared on the basis of the
in original documents will make the candidate ineligible for appearing in Trade Test.
performance of the candidate in the competitive written examination.
k. The decision of the IITR/CSIR in all matters relating to eligibility, acceptance or
Mode of Examination for above TECHNICAL ASSISTANT/TECHNICAL OFFICER
rejection of applications, mode of selection, conduct of examination will be final and
(For T-01 to T-34) Posts:-
For these posts, there will be three papers. The second and third paper will be binding on the candidates.
evaluated only for those candidates who secure the minimum threshold marks (to be I. Canvassing in any form and / or bringing any influence political or otherwise will be
determined by the Selection Committee) in the first paper. treated as a disqualification for the post.
Mode of Examination OMR Based or Computer Based Objective Types Multiple m. Director, CSIR-IITR reserves the right of not making any appointment against any
Choice Examination. of the advertised post(s) if suitable candidates are not found.
n. NO INTERIM ENQUIRY OR CORRESPONDENCE WILL BE ENTERTAINED.
Medium of Question The question will be set both in English and Hindi except the
3. Relaxations:
question on English Language.
a. The upper age limit is relaxable up to 05 years for SC/ST and 03 years for OBC
Standard of exam For post code T01 to T31- Diploma/Graduation Level (based
as per Government orders in force only in those cases where the post are reserved
on the advertised qualification of the post)
for respective categories, on production of relevant certificate in the prescribed
For post code T32- to T34- Post Graduate Diploma / Post
Graduation/B.E./B.Tech Level (based on the advertised format signed by the specified authority at the time of Trade Test.
qualification of the post) b. Upper age limit is also relaxable up to 05 years for the regular employees working
in CSIR laboratories / institutes, Government Departments, autonomous bodies
Total no. of Questions 200
and public sector undertakings.
Total time Allotted 3 hours
c. As per GOI provisions, age relaxation for Widows, Divorced Women and Women
Paper-I (Time Allotted-1 Hour) Judicially separated from Husbands, the upper age limit is relaxable up to the age
Subject No. of question Maximum Marks Negative Marks of 35 years (up to 40 years for members of Scheduled Castes/Scheduled Tribes
Mental Ability 50 100 (two marks for There will be no negative and upto 38 years for members belonging to the Other Backward Classes in
Test* every correct answer) marks in this paper respect of the posts reserved for them) for Widows, divorced Women and Women
*Mental Ability Test will be so devised so as to include General Intelligence, Judicially separated from their Husbands who are not remarried. The persons
Quantitative Aptitude, Reasoning Problem Solving, situational Judgement, etc. claiming age relaxation under this sub-para would be required to produce following
Paper- II (Time Allotted-30 Minutes) documentary evidence:
Subject No. of Maximum Marks Negative Marks (i) In case of Widow, Death Certificate of her husband together with the Affidavit that
question she has not remarried since.
General 25 75 (three marks for One negative marks for (ii) In case of divorced Women and Women judicially separated from their husbands,
Awareness every correct answer) every wrong answer a certified copy of the judgment/decree of the appropriate Court to prove the fact
English 25 75 (three marks for One negative marks for of divorce or the judicial separation, as the case may be, with an Affidavit in respect
Language every correct answer) every wrong answer of divorced Women and they have not remarried since.
Paper-lll (Time Allotted-90 Minutes) d. Age relaxation to Physically Handicapped (PH) persons: Age relaxation of 10
Subject No. of Maximum Marks Negative Marks years is allowed (total 15 years for SCs/STs and 13 years for OBCs in respect of
question the posts reserved for them) to blind, deaf-mute and orthopedically handicapped
Concerned 100 300 (three marks for One negative marks for persons. The persons claiming age relaxation under this sub-para would be
Subject every correct answer) every wrong answer required to produce a certificate in prescribed proforma in support of their claims
General information and conditions:- clearly indicating that the degree of physical disability is 40% or more. In any case,
1. Benefits under Council service: the appointment of these candidates will be subject to their being found medically
a. These posts carry usual allowances i.e. Dearness Allowance (DA), House Rent fit in accordance with the standards of medical fitness as prescribed by the
Allowance (HRA), Transport Allowance (TA) etc. as admissible to the central Government for each individual Group B" posts to be filled by Direct Recruitment
government employees and as made applicable to CSIR. Council employees are by Selection.
also eligible for accommodation of their entitled type as per CSIR allotment rules e. Economically Weaker Sections (EWSs) reservation will be as per DOPT, Ministry
depending on availability in which case HRA will not be admissible. of Personnel, Public Grievances & Pension, Govt. of India O.M No. 36039/1/2019-
b. In addition to the emoluments indicated against each category of posts, benefits Estt(Res.) dated 31.01.2019.
such as applicability of New Pension Scheme 2004, reimbursements of Medical f. Relaxation in age, over and above the stipulated limit, educational qualification
Expenses, Leave Travel Concession and House Building Advance are available as and/or experience may be considered in case of exceptionally meritorious
per CSIR rules. candidates or if sufficient number of candidates possessing the requisite
c. CSIR provides excellent opportunities to deserving candidates for career qualification and /or experience are not available to fill up the posts.
advancement under Assessment Promotion scheme for TA/TO. 4. How to apply
2. Other conditions a. Candidates can apply through online portal, link of which will be available on CSIR-
a. The applicant must be a citizen of India. IITR website http://iitrindia.org w.e.f. 02.09.2020, 11:00 a.m onwards and
b. All applicants must fulfil the essential requirements of the post and other conditions closes on 05.10.2020 at 5:00 p.m. It is mandatory to take the print out of the
stipulated in the advertisement as on the last date of submission of online successfully submitted online application form, sign the same and attach the self
Applications i.e. 05.10.2020. They are advised to satisfy themselves before attested mandatory documents & Photo. The print out of the application along with
applying that they possess at least the essential qualification laid down for various
the relevant documents must reach CSIR-IITR on or before 21.10.2020, 5:00 p.m.
posts as on the last date of applying for the post online. No enquiry asking for
b. Candidates are required to pay application fee of Rs. 100/- as per "Fee payment
advice as to eligibility will be entertained. The prescribed essential qualification is
procedure" available on the website. Printed copy of e-receipt of the same must be
the minimum and the mere possession of the same does not entitle candidates to
enclosed with the application.
be called for the Skill Test/Trade Test. The duly constituted Screening Committee
will adopt its own criteria for short-listing the candidates. The candidate should c. The candidates belonging to SC/ST/PwD/Women/Regular CSIR Employees/
therefore, mention in the application all the qualifications and experiences in the Abroad candidates are exempted from payment of application fee.
relevant area over and above the minimum prescribed qualification, supported with d. Candidate is required to upload his/her recent passport size scanned colour
documents. The candidates may also note that Diploma/Degree should be from the photograph, signature each (max size 50 KB) and also relevant certificates at the
State Technical Board or Government approved or Recognised Institution. specified places in the online application.
c. The hard copy (print-out) of the application for each post, generated after filling e. Candidates should keep a copy of the application print out and payment details, if
Online application form, should be accompanied by self-attested copies of the any, for their record.
relevant educational qualification, experience. Candidate should submit hard copy f. Fee once paid will not be refunded on any account nor can it be held in reserve
in separate envelope with post-code. The prescribed qualifications should have for any other recruitment of selection process.
been obtained through recognized Universities/Institutions etc. Incomplete g. A candidate can apply for multiple post codes subject to fulfilling all eligibility
applications/applications received without the required certificates/documents are conditions attached to each individual post code. However, candidate needs to fill
liable to be rejected. the application (except primary/registration details) with the requisite application
d. In respect of equivalent clause in Essential Qualifications, if a candidate is claiming
fee separately for each post code.
a particular qualification as equivalent qualification as per the requirement of
h. Candidates applying for more than one post must submit separate application form
advertisement, then the candidate is required to produce order/letter in this regard,
for each post indicating the Code No. of the post.
indicating the Authority (with number and date) under which it has been so treated
i. The print-out of the application, generated after online submission, duly
otherwise the Application is liable to be rejected.
e. The period of experience rendered by a candidate on part time basis, daily wages, accompanied by self-attested copies of the requisite certificates, mark sheets, age
visiting/ guest faculty will not be counted while calculating the valid experience for proof, education qualifications, experience, re-prints of publications and caste
Trade Test. certificate, if applicable, along with one recent coloured passport size self-signed
f. If any document/ certificate furnished is in a language other than Hindi or English, photograph affixed on the online generated application form should be sent in an
a transcript of the same duly attested by a Gazetted officer or notary is to be envelope super-scribed "APPLICATION FOR THE POST OF ________ (Post
submitted. Code _____)" by speed/Registered post only so as to reach on or before
g. The date for determining the upper age limit, qualifications and /or experience shall 21.10.2020 up to 5:00 p.m. to "Director, CSIR-lndian Institute of Toxicology
be the closing date prescribed for submission of online application i.e. 05.10.2020. Continued on page 10
 10 www.employmentnews.gov.in Employment News 29 August - 4 September 2020
Continued from page 9
Research, Vishvigyan Bhawan, 31, Mahatma Gandhi Marg, Post Bag No. 80,
Lucknow-226001". Candidates applying for more than one post must submit each
application in separate envelope for each post indicating the Code No. of the post.
j. Applications from Employees of Govt. Departments will be considered only if
forwarded through proper channel along with vigilance clearance certificate
certified by their employer that the applicant will be relieved within one month of the
receipt of the appointment orders, if selected. However, advance copy of the
application may be submitted before the closing date. Application routed through
proper channel should reach CSIR-IITR, Lucknow within 15 days from the last
date prescribed for receipt of Application otherwise online application will be
rejected. NOC must be submitted at the time of Trade Test/ Written Test.
k. Candidates should specifically note that the applications received after the closing
date for any reason whatsoever (such as envelopes wrongly addressed, delivered
elsewhere, postal delay etc.) will not be entertained by CSIR-IITR, Lucknow.
I. Incomplete applications (i.e. without photograph, unsigned and applicable
testimonials etc.) will not be entertained and will be summarily rejected.
5. Printout of Online Application Form duly signed by the candidate along with
following documents must be sent by Speed Post/Registered post only:
a. Proof for remittance of application fee paid through SBI collect (E- Receipt/
Transaction reference), wherever applicable.
b. One recent Passport size Coloured Photograph (same as uploaded with the online
application form) to be pasted on the application form and signed across in full.
c. Self Attested photocopy of 10th/12th certificate /Mark sheet indicating Date of Birth
Certificate.
d. Self Attested photocopy of 12th certificate / Mark sheet
e. Self Attested photocopies of higher educational qualifications certificates as well as
Mark sheets.
f. Professional Qualification certificate and Mark sheet.
g. Self Attested photocopy of caste certificate (OBC/EWS/SC/ST Wherever
applicable) in the format prescribed by GOI.
h. Certificate related to physically handicap (wherever applicable) in the prescribed
format.
i. Self Attested photocopies of experience certificates, as required.
j. All other supportive documents in support of the eligibility for application, if any.
k. CGPA to percentage conversion certificate of the Board / university/Institute if any.
I. No objection certificate wherever applicable.
EN 16/14 EN 16/8

GOVERNMENT OF INDIA welfare of staff, building security, monitoring of budget and inventories, control over the
expenditure etc. They may also function as DDO.
Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology Pay and allowances : The pay of the officers selected will be regularised in
Standardisation, Testing & Quality Certification accordance with Government of India, Department of Personnel and Training OM No.
AB-14017/71/89-Estt(RR) dated 3.10.1989 as amended from time to time.
(STQC) Directorate The applications of willing and eligible persons who can be spared immediately be sent
Standardisation, Testing and Quality Certification (STQC) Directorate is an attached through proper channel in the prescribed proforma as per Annexure-Il alongwith copies
office of Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). Ministry of of upto date APARs for the last five years duly attested by an officer not below the rank
Electronics and Information Technology is a key assurance service providing agency in of Under Secretary or equivalent so as to reach Shri Sanjeev Kumar, Deputy
the area of Quality and Information Technology. With the nationwide Infrastructure, Director, STQC, Directorate, Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology,
STQC occupies a prime position as far as Testing, Certification and related Quality Electronics Niketan, 6, CGO Complex, New Delhi-110003, within a period of six
Assurance services in the areas and programmes. STQC has initiated a number of weeks from the date of publication of this advertisement.
programmes and schemes aimed at export promotion assuring quality of e- This advertisement is also available at the website for STQC : www.stqc.nic.in
Governance products and establishing Information Security Assurance framework in Ref. Advt.No.__________
the country. STQC is also unique in offering Software Testing and Evaluation services Application for the post of ___________________________ in Electronics
and also conducts certified Training Programmes in the area of Software Quality Regional Test Laboratories and Electronics Test and Development Centres under
Engineering, Information Security besides Quality Management and Test Engineering STQC Directorate, Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology on
through its subordinate offices all over India namely the Electronics Regional Test deputation basis
Laboratories (ERTLs) /Electronics Test and Development Centres (ETDCs)/Centre for 1. Name and address in Block letters :
Reliability (CFR) etc. 2. Date of Birth (in Christian era) :
2. STQC Directorate requires the services of suitable officers from Central/State 3. Date of retirement :
Government on deputation basis for appointment to the following administrative (under Central/State Govt. rules)
posts. 4. Educational Qualifications :
a) DEPUTY DIRECTOR : (FOUR POSTS) - (04 posts at Delhi, Mumbai, 5. Details of employment in chronological order :
Thiruvananthapuram) General Central Service, Group 'A' (Gazetted Ministerial) in the
Name of Post held From To Pay Matrix and the Nature of
pay matrix Level 11 as per 7th Pay Commission.
office whether on last basic pay of duties
Eligibility : Holding analogous posts on regular basis; or ii) with five years regular
regular/adhoc/ the post presently
service in posts in the pay matrix Level 10 or equivalent in the relevant field or iii) six
deputation basis held
years regular service in posts in the pay matrix Level-9 in the relevant field.
b) ADMINISTRATIVE OFFICER (THREE POSTS) (01 post at Delhi, 01 post at ERTL
(W) Mumbai and 01 post at ERTL(S) Thiruvananthapuram) General Central Service,
Group 'A' (Gazetted Non-Ministerial) in the pay matrix Level-09 as per 7th Pay
Commission.
Eligibility : Holding analogous posts on regular basis; or ii) with three years regular 6. Details of experience in support of your suitability for the post
service in the posts in the pay matrix Level-7 or equivalent 7. Whether belong to SC/ST
Period of Deputation : 8. Additional information, if any:
a) Initially for a period of two years. Period of deputation including period of deputation Place : Signature of the applicant
in another ex-cadre posts held immediately preceding this appointment in the same or Date : Name:
other organisation/Department of the Central Government shall not ordinarily exceed Address:
three years. Phone No.:
b) The Departmental officers who are in the direct line of promotion shall not be eligible TO BE FILLED BY THE EMPLOYER
for consideration for appointment on deputation. Similarly, deputationist shall not be Certified that:
eligible for consideration for appoinment by promotion. 1. Particulars furnished above by Shri/Smt/Km ________________ have been verified
c) The maximum age limit for appointment on deputation (including short term contract) from her/his record and found correct.
shall not exceed 56 years as on the closing date of receipt of applications. 2. No vigilance/disciplinary proceedings are pending or contemplated against
d) The Armed Forces personnel due to retire or who are to be transferred to reserve Shri/Smt./Km. ___________. His/Her integrity is certified.
within a period of one year and having requisite experience and qualifications 3. No major or minor penalty was imposed on Shri/Smt./Km. ____________ for the last
prescribed shall also be considered. Such persons shall be given deputation term upto 05 years as per records in the Ministry/Department.
the date on which they are due to release from the Armed Forces thereafter they may 4. Attested copies of Annual Performance Appraisal Report (APAR) for the last five
be considered on re-employment. years are enclosed herewith.
e) Applications of Persons who are due for promotion within a period of two years Place : Signature of the Competent Authority
should not be forwarded by their organisations. Date : Name and Designation
Nature of duty : Candidates selected will be responsible for all Personnel, Stamp
Administrative and Accounts matters relating to recruitment, promotion, confirmations, davp 06101/11/0007/2021 EN 16/2
Employment News 29 August - 4 September 2020 www.employmentnews.gov.in 11

Defence Research & Development Organization (DRDO)

Defence Laboratory, Ratanada Palace
Jodhpur-342011, Rajasthan, PHONE: 0291-2510275, EMAIL: director@dI.drdo.in
Website: www.drdo.gov.in
AWARD OF RESEARCH ASSOCIATES (RA) & JUNIOR RESEARCH FELLOWSHIP (JRF)
Following fellowship of Research Associates (RA) and Junior Research Fellowship 6. Defence Laboratory, Jodhpur reserves the right to amend / modify or
(JRF) are available to work in DRDO project at Defence Laboratory, Jodhpur summarily cancel this advertisement. The above notified vacancies are
(Rajasthan), a material cluster laboratory of DRDO.
likely to be increased or decreased or cancelled depending upon the
Duration of Fellowship: 02 Years for RA & JRF (JRF may be extended further and
upgraded to SRF as per rules). prevailing restrictions, if any, as per the policy of Government of India.
Applications are invited from Indian Nationals possessing the qualifications 7. Applications received incomplete (i.e. without photograph, signature, percentage
mentioned in the below table against the respective posts. of marks, filled up using pencil etc.) and after the closing date will be summarily
S. Name of Number of Essential Qualification and Experience rejected. No correspondence will be entertained in this regard.
No. Fellowship Fellowship 8. The applicants should submit their applications in prescribed format only,
1. Research Two (02) Ph.D. or equivalent degree on a topic related to clearly mentioning the POST under which they wish to apply on the left
Associate Thermoelectric materials or modules.OR corner of the envelope.
(RA) having 03 (Three) years of Research, Teaching and 9. No TA/DA will be given to the candidates for appearing for the Test/Interview.
Design & Development experience in Thermoelectric
10. Candidates working in Govt. / Public Sector Undertaking / Autonomous
materials or modules area after Post graduate degree
(M.Sc. or equivalent) in Physics/Chemistry or M.E./ Bodies should apply through proper channel.
M.Tech. in Material Science/Materials Engineering/ 11. Applications in the prescribed format, complete in all respects should be
Metallurgy with at least one research paper in addressed to : Director, Defence Laboratory, Ratanada Palace, Jodhpur-
Science citation index (SCI) journal. 342 011 or
2. JRF Four (04) Post graduate degree (M.Sc. or equivalent) in Physics Applications in the prescribed format may be uploaded online through
(Physics/ with first division and National Eligibility Test (NET) internet at director@dl.drdo.in.
Material qualification conducted by CSIR-UGC (NET), MHRD
(Dr. Prashant Vasistha)
Science) (GATE) or JEST. OR
Graduate degree in professional course (B.E./B.Tech.) GD, AMS
in Material Science/Materials Engineering / Nano- Defence Laboratory (DRDO), Jodhpur-342011 (Raj.)
technology in first division with NET/GATE Tel No. 0291-2567403/2567372/2567381
qualification. OR
DEFENCE LABORATORY
Post graduate (M.E./ M.Tech.) and graduate (B.E. /
B.Tech) degrees in professional courses in Materials (DEFENCE RESEARCH & DEVELOPMENT ORGANISATION)
Science/Materials Engineering/Nanotechnology in RATANADA PALACE, JODHPUR - 342 011 (RAJASTHAN)
first division, both at graduate and post graduate level. FORMAT FOR THE POST OF RA / JRF
3. JRF One (01) Post graduate degree (M.Sc. or equivalent) in INSTRUCTIONS:
(Chemistry) Chemistry with first division and National Eligibility 1. Name of the candidate: (Write first name, middle name and then surname. Leave
Test (NET) qualification conducted by CSIR-UGC
a box blank between the names).
(NET), MHRD (GATE) or JEST. OR
Graduate degree in professional course (B.E./B. Tech.) FFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFF
in Chemical Engineering/Material Science/Polymer FFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFF
Science/Industrial Chemistry/Nanotechnology in first 2. Name of father: (Write name in abbreviated form. Leave a box blank between the
division with NET/GATE qualification. OR names).
Post graduate in Professional course (M.E./M. Tech.) FFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFF
in Chemical Engineering /Material Science/Industrial
Chemistry/Nanotechnology in first division, both at 3. Address for correspondence
graduate and post graduate level. FFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFF
4. JRF Two (02) Graduate degree in professional course (B.E./B. FFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFF
(Electronics) Tech) in Electronics/Electronics & Communication FFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFF
in first division with NET/GATE qualification. OR FFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFF
Post graduate (M.E./M. Tech.) and graduate (B.E./ FFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFFF
B.Tech) degrees in professional courses in
Electronics/Electronics & Communication in first 4. Telephone / Mobile No. :
division, both at graduate and post graduate level. 5. Email address :
5. JRF One (01) Graduate degree in professional course (B.E./B. Tech) 6. Date of Birth: 7. Sex: 8. Category Code:
(Computer) in Computer Sc./ Information Technology first division Male : 1 UR - 1, OBC - 2,
with NET/GATE qualification. OR
SC -3, ST- 4
Post graduate (M.E./M. Tech.) and graduate (B.E. /
B.Tech) degrees in professional courses in Computer Date Month Year Female: 2
Sc./Information Technology in first division, both 9. Post Applied for: ______________________ Subject:____________________
at graduate and post graduate level. 10. Educational Qualifications:
FELLOWSHIP EMOLUMENT AT PRESENT; Qualification # Subject Board / University Year of Marks
Research Associate : Rs. 54,000/- p.m. with HRA and medical facilities as per rules. passing (%)
Junior Research Fellow : Rs. 31,000/- p.m. with HRA and medical facilities as per 10th (Secondary)
rules. 12th (Hr. /Sr. Secondary)
GENERAL CONDITIONS: B.Sc.
1. Age: Not exceeding 28 years for JRF & 35 years for RA (age relaxable up to 5 M.Sc./B.E/B. Tech
years for SC/ST and up to 3 years for OBC candidates). The crucial date for Ph.D./M.E/M. Tech
determination of the age limit for all the posts will be 31.08.2020. Last date for the Area of Research &
receipt of application is 21 days from the date of publication of this Publications (for RA Only)
advertisement in newspaper. 11. Qualified NET/GATE Yes No Score Marks : Year :
2. The applicants should attach photocopy of mark sheets / Degree certificate/
NET/GATE score card / Caste Certificate along with the application. DECLARATION
All the particulars given above are correct to the best of my
However, the candidates will have to produce original educational / caste
knowledge. I am aware that any wrong information or
certificates and mark sheets etc at the time of Interview / Joining. suppression of information may result in punitive action, in Paste your recent
3. All applications shall be screened by a screening committee and short-list addition to summary rejection of my application form. I am 3.5 x 4.5 cm size
aware that mere appearing in the screening test does not colour
candidates will be called for interview. Interview may be conducted at DLJ /online
mean that I am eligible to appear for the Interview. I have photograph here
as per COVID-19 situation after 15 Sep 2020.
read the Terms and conditions given in the advertisement DO NOT STAPLE
4. IT MAY PLEASE BE NOTED THAT THE OFFER OF FELLOWSHIP DOES NOT carefully and will not claim the eligibility to appear in the
CONFER ON FELLOWS ANY RIGHT FOR ABSORPTION IN DRDO. Screening Test if I don't fulfill the requirements given
5. The Research Fellowship may be terminated at any time during the tenure with a therein.
Date : Signature of the candidate
prior notice of one month. Fellows/Associates may resign with a prior notice of one
month. davp 10301/11/0052/2021 EN 16/26
12 www.employmentnews.gov.in Employment News 29 August - 4 September 2020
Employment News 29 August - 4 September 2020 www.employmentnews.gov.in 13
14 www.employmentnews.gov.in
⁄UÊc≈˛UËÿ π‹ Áfl‡flÁfllÊ‹ÿ, ßU껧ʋ, ◊ÁáʬÈ⁄U
(∑§ãŒ˝Ëÿ Áfl‡flÁfllÊ‹ÿ)
÷Ê⁄Uà ‚⁄U∑§Ê⁄U, ÿÈflÊ ∑§Êÿ¸∑˝§◊ ∞fl¥ π‹ ◊¥òÊÊ‹ÿ
NATIONAL SPORTS UNIVERSITY
IMPHAL, MANIPUR
(A Central University)
Government of India, Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports
F.No.7.NSU/EST-POST(NT)/P-Advt/20 Dated: 13/08/2020
Invitation of Application for the post of Deputy
Controller of Examination
Applications are invited in the prescribed proforma from eligible
candidates for filling up 01 (one) post of Deputy Controller of
Examination on deputation basis in the National Sports University,
Imphal.
For details of minimum eligibility, application proforma and other
terms and conditions etc. please visit University Website
www.nsu.ac.in.
The duly completed application form in all respects along with self
attested scanned copies of testimonial/certificates and forwarding
from the Controlling Authority in the prescribed proforma, should be
sent to the email: cell-recruitment@nsu.ac.in so as to
reach/received on or before 30th September, 2020.
Registrar
davp 47116/11/0002/2021 EN 16/23
Employment News 29 August - 4 September 2020
ANDREW YULE & COMPANY LIMITED
(A Government of India Enterprise)
8, Dr. Rajendra Prasad Sarani, Kolkata-700001
CIN - L63090WB1919GOI003229
[Recruitment Advertisement No. 2020/02]
THE COMPANY :
Andrew Yule & Co. Ltd (AYCL) was the largest Managing Agency House in India with more than 55
companies under its control at one point of time during its history spanning more than 150 years. AYCL
become a Government of India Enterprise in 1979. The Company today is a multi-product, multi-unit
Company having three Operating Divisions namely, Engineering, Electrical and Tea Division and one
service Division viz. General Division. Each of the Division works as a separate Profit Centre. AYCL is
looking for committed, promising and result oriented candidates for the following position:
1. Division/Department : General Division, Finance & Accounts
Location : Kolkata, West Bengal
Position & Grade : General Manager (Finance & Accounts) (E 7)/Dy. General Manager (Finance &
Accounts) (E 6).
Qualification Required : Chartered/Cost Accountant
Min. Post Qualification Exp. : 18/15 years
No. of Post : 1
Grade & Scale Proposed : E 7 100000-260000/- (E6) 90000-240000/-
Max Age in years : 50/45
The cut-off date for post qualification relevant experience & maximum age is last date of submission of
application. All candidates who will be eligible as on the cut-off date may apply for the above mentioned
positions. Reservation for SC, ST, OBC (Non Creamy Layer), PWD & Economically Weaker Sections
(EWS) will be as per Govt. of India Rules. For details, log on to Careers at
http://www.andrewyule.com/current-opening.php. Last date for submission of Application is 30
days from date of publication of advertisement in Employment News.
EN 16/16
EN 16/20
Employment News 29 August - 4 September 2020 www.employmentnews.gov.in 15

EN 16/38

EN 16/46

ADVERTISEMENT No. 02/2020

Dated 24.07.2020

North Eastern Regional Institute of Water

and Land Management (NERIWALM)
Dolabari, Tezpur , P.O. - Kaliabhomora , Tezpur - 784 027 (Assam)
(A Registered Society registered under Societies Registration Act, 1860 and under the administrative
control of the Department of Water Resources, RD & GR, Ministry of Jal Shakti, Govt. of India.)
Applications for the following posts are invited from the eligible candidates in prescribed formats
alongwith with all necessary documents and testimonials for below mentioned posts to be submitted to
"Director, NERIWALM, Dolabari, Tezpur, P.O.-Kaliabhomora, Tezpur-784027 (Assam)" in
registered/ speed post on or before 60 (sixty) days from the date of issue of this advertisement.
EN 16/56 Details regarding application format, eligibility, qualification etc., may be found in website
www.neriwalm.gov.in.

CSIR-INDIAN INSTITUTE SI. Name of the post No. of Pay Level Category Age Limit Mode of
No. posts (as per as per Appointment
OF TOXICOLOGY 7th CPC) Reservation
RESEARCH Roster
1. Professor 1 L-13 UR Not exceeding Deputation
(Council of Scientific and Industrial Research)
(Agriculture) 56 years
Vishvigyan Bhawan, 31 , Mahatma Gandhi Marg
2. Professor 1 L-13 UR Not exceeding Deputation
Post Box - 80, Lucknow-226 001 (Uttar Pradesh)
(Social Science) 56 years
File No. 5(10)2020/E.1(108) (101) Dated : 20 August, 2020
3. Associate Professor 1 L-12 UR Not exceeding Deputation including
Corrigendum (Agriculture) 56 years Short Term Contract
The applications in the prescribed format are invited for recruitment 4. Associate Professor 1 L - 12 UR Not exceeding Deputation including
on the 11 posts of Scientist/Senior Scientist vide IITR, Lucknow (Social Science) 56 years Short Term Contract
advertisement no. IITR/1/2020 dated 05.08.2020. The notification for
5. Assistant Professor 1 L- 10 UR Not exceeding Direct Recruitment/
the same has been published in 15.08.2020 edition of Rozgar
(Social Science) 35 years Deputation
Samachar and Employment Newspaper. In view of some errors in
the advertisement following amendments are being issued:- 6. Assistant Professor 2 L- 10 UR Not exceeding Direct Recruitment/
1. Post Code A, Area- Ecological Science in Desirable experience (Water Resources 35 years Deputation
"Quality Control of India" may be read as "Quality Council of Engineering)
India". 7. Deputy Director 1 L-11 UR Not exceeding Deputation including
2. Post Code C, Area - (Molecular Toxicology), D.1 & D.2 (Admin.) 56 years Short Term Contract
(Molecular Toxicology), F (Inhalation Toxicology), G (Nano- 8. Administrative 1 L-9 UR Not exceeding Deputation including
material Toxicology), I (Metalobomics) - in Essential Educational Officer 56 years Short Term Contract
Qualification Ph.D Science (AcSIR) may read as Ph.D
9. Superintendent 1 L-6 UR Not exceeding Deputation including
Science in relevant area.
56 years Short Term Contract
3. Post Code D.1 & D.2 (Molecular Toxicology) - in Desirable
10. Lower Division 1 L-2 UR Between 18-27 Direct Recruitment
experience "For Second Position" may read as "OR".
Clerk (LDC) years
Other terms and condition will remain same.
Controller of Administration (A.K. Sharma)
EN 16/43 CSIR-IITR EN 16/35 Deputy Director (Admin.)
16 www.employmentnews.gov.in Employment News 29 August - 4 September 2020
F. No. A-35014/12/2020-Ad.V
÷Ê⁄Uà ‚⁄U∑§Ê⁄U
÷Ê⁄UÃËÿ ¬˝’¥äÊ ‚¥SÕÊŸ
Government of India Áfl‡ÊÊÅÊʬ^UU áÊ◊
ªÎ„U ◊¥òÊÊ‹ÿ Indian Institute of
Ministry of Home Management Visakhapatnam
Affairs
SPECIAL RECRUITMENT DRIVE FOR
Dated: 4th August, 2020
OBC/SC/ST/EWS/PwD
VACANCY CIRCULAR
Subject: Filling up of one (01) FOR FACULTY POSITIONS
post of Investigator
REF. NO. 02/SRD/F/2020 DATED AUGUST 26, 2020
(Communal Harmony Cell) in
Counter Terrorism and
Assistant Professors & Associate
Counter-Radicalization
Professors
(CTCR), Division of Ministry Last date for submitting application through e-mail is 28 Sep, 2020
of Home Affairs on and for submitting hard copy of the same is 17 Oct, 2020.
Please visit www.iimv.ac.in/careers for details and applying.
‘Deputation or Absorption,
Senior Administrative Officer
failing which by direct
davp 21359/11/0002/2021 EN 16/63
recruitment’ basis-reg.
Ministry of Home Affairs invites
application from eligible
candidates for filling up of one
(01) post of Investigator
(Communal Harmony Cell) in
Counter Terrorism and Counter
Radicalization (CTCR) Division
of Ministry of Home Affairs on
'Deputation or Absorption, failing
which by direct recruitment'
basis. The detailed Pay Scale,
Terms & Conditions and
eligibility criteria are available in
the vacancy circular placed on
the website of the Ministry, i.e.
https:// mha.gov.in/notifications/
vacancies. The closing date
for submission of application
through proper channel is 60 EN 16/28

days from the date of

publication of this vacancy
circular in the Employment
News"
REQUIRES
Under Secretary (Admn.V)
davp 19101/11/0004/2021 Experienced Secretarial Officer having
EN 16/21 educational qualification of B.Com (P) or
Government of India (Hons) with CS (lnter) for engagement on
Ministry of Jal Shakti contract basis for its Company Secretary Cell,
Department of Corporate Office, New Delhi. Last date for
Water Resources receipt of duly filled in Application is 30th
River Development September, 2020. For detailed eligibility
& Ganga criteria regarding experience, age, etc. please
Rejuvenation visit www.rvnl.org>'Career--Jobs'.
Refer vacancy circular
(C. P. JAIN)
published in Employment
News dated 18-25 October, EN 16/5 GENERAL MANAGER/HR EN 16/47
2019 and Employment News
again extended for a period of Dr. Ambedkar Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment,
dated 11-17 January, 2020
30 days from the date of
and 21-27 March, 2020, the International Centre Government of India. For eligibility conditions
publication of this
last date of receipt of Department of Social Justice & and further details, please refer to the official
advertisement in the
applications for filling up the Empowerment websites i.e. daic.gov.in and socialjustice.
one post of Section Officer in Employment News. The
Ministry of Social Justice & nic.in. Last date for receiving applications
the Level-7 (Rs. 44900- detailed vacancy circular is
Empowerment is 10th September, 2020.
142400/-) in the pay matrix on available on this Department's
deputation (including short website- http://mowr. gov.in/. Government of India (Vikas Trivedi)
term contract) basis in The candidates applied earlier Applications are invited from eligible Director, DAIC
Farakka Barrage Project, need not apply again. candidate for the post of Consultant (Media
Murshidabad, a sub-ordinate Ph. 011-23477499
No. A. 12025/1/2016-E.Ill Cum IT) purely on contractual basis in Dr.
office under this Department is davp 38121/11/0004/2021 EN 16/22
EN 16/42 Ambedkar International Centre (DAIC),
Employment News 29 August - 4 September 2020 www.employmentnews.gov.in 17
No. A-12026/2/2013-Admn.B
Government of India
Ministry of Housing and
Urban Affairs
Directorate of
Estates
Nirman Bhawan
New Delhi-110108
Dated the 2 June, 2020
OFFICE MEMORANDUM
Sub:- Filling up the post of
Liaison Officer (Parliament)
on deputation basis in the
Directorate of Estates - reg.
Government of India, Ministry of
Housing and Urban Affairs,
Directorate of Estates proposes
to fill up one Group 'B',
(Gazetted), Non-Ministerial post
of Liaison Officer (Parliament)
on deputation basis in Pay
Level-7 in the Pay Matrix (Pre-
revised Pay Scale of Pay Band-
2 (Rs. 9300-34800/-) with Grade
Pay of Rs. 4600/-).
2. For details relating to
eligibility, requisite qualifications
and experience, duties attached
to the post, age limit, and other
terms and conditions etc.,
applicants may visit the
Directorate of Estates website
under the link:
http://estates.gov.in
Circular
3. The last date for receipt of
complete applications will be
2 months from the date of
publication of this
advertisement in the
Employment News.
(Nidhi Garg)
Deputy Director (Estt.)
EN 16/37 Tel.No.23061372

No. A-12011/1/2017-Admn.B
Government of India
Ministry of Housing and
Urban Affairs

Directorate of
Estates
Nirman Bhawan
New Delhi-110108
Dated the 11th August, 2020
OFFICE MEMORANDUM
Subject:- Filling up the post of
Eviction Inspector on
"transfer on deputation" basis
in the Directorate of Estates -
reg.
Government of India, Ministry of
Housing and Urban Affairs,
Directorate of Estates proposes
to fill up one Group 'C', Non-
Gazetted, Non-Ministerial post
of Eviction Inspector on "transfer
on deputation" basis in Pay
Level-5 in the Pay Matrix (Pre-
revised Pay Scale of Pay Band-
1 (Rs. 5200-20200/-) with Grade
Pay of Rs. 2800/-).
2. For details relating to
eligibility, requisite qualifications EN 16/32
and experience, duties attached
to the post, age limit, and other Circular Employment News. DISCLAIMER
terms and conditions etc., 3. The last date for receipt of (Nidhi Garg) The views expressed by the authors in the articles published in the Employment
applicants may visit the complete applications will be News are their own. They do not necessarily reflect the views of the government
Deputy Director of Estates or the organisations they work for. The contents of the advertisements published
Directorate of Estates website 60 days from the date of
in the Employment News belong to the organisation or their representatives. The
under the link: (Estt.)
publication of this Employment News is in no way responsible for any liability arising out of the
http://estates.gov.in advertisement in the EN 16/36 Tel.No.23061372 contents/text of these advertisements.
18 www.employmentnews.gov.in Employment News 29 August - 4 September 2020
F. No. 3-1/2016-Adm(i)
Government of India
NATIONAL DISASTER MANAGEMENT AUTHORITY
NDMA Bhawan, A-1, Safdarjung Enclave, New Delhi-110029
Tel. No. 26701796, 26701834 (Fax)
NDMA invites applications from persons having requisite qualification and experience from Indian national for following positions:-
Sl. Name of Position Post in No. of Educational Qualification Post Qualification Experience Max. Age Limit
No. Nature Vacancy
1 Consultant Grade-II Contractual 1 Essential:- Master’s Degree in any discipline 1. Candidates should have 5-10 years and 50 years
(Policy Plans and (preferably in Disaster Management, Social above post qualification experience in the (upto 62 years
Mainstreaming) Work, Sociology, Political Science, Geography, relevant fields. for retired
Geology, Agriculture, Management, Law, Desirable :- employees from
Science, Engineering) a. Candidates having reasonable experience Central/State
Desirable :- Persons with M.Phil., Ph.D. in the field of Policy, Plans and Guidelines Government)
additional qualifications, Reseach experience, related to Disaster Management and preparation
published papers and post qualification of Disaster Management Plans will be given
experience in the relevant field would be additional weightage.
Preferred b. Candidates must have sound understanding
and knowledge of issues pertaining to policy,
plans and mainstreaming.
c. Candidates should have good knowledge
of English, as the position requires to deal
with national and international agencies
pertaining to disaster risk reduction and related
aspects.
2. For details visit at http://ndma.gov.in
2. Consultant Grade-I/ Contractual 1 Essential :- Master in Technology/ 1. Candidates should have 3-5 years and 45 years for
Grade-II (Earthquake Engineering in Structural/Earthquake above post qualification experience in the Consultant
and Tsunami) Engineering. Persons with Post Graduate, relevant fields for Consultant Grade-I and Grade-I and
qualification in Civil Engineering, Seismology, 5-10 years post qualification experience in the 50 years for
Urban Planning, Architecture, Geography relevant fields for Consultant Grade-II. Consultant
and Geology will also be considered if Grade-II
accompanied by proven expertise and (upto 62 years
experience in the Earthquake and Tsunami for retired
Risk Reduction. employees from
Desirable - M.Phil, Ph.D, additional Central/State
qualification, research experience, published Government).
papers with adequate post qualification
experience in the relevant field.
2. Remuneration Band - Rs. 75,000/- -l,00,000/- pm for Consultant Grade-l and Rs.1,25,000/- 1,75,000/- pm for Consultant Grade-II
3. The detailed terms and conditions and eligibility criteria (educational qualification, age, experience etc) for engagement of above position is indicated in the Term of Reference
(ToR) of the above position and may be seen on NDMA website at http://ndma.gov.in. NDMA reserve the right to offer lower position of Consultant if no candidate found fit for
desired position of Consultant.
4. Essential/desirable educational qualifications and experiences will be verified with original certificates.
5. Interested individuals may send their bto-data in the prescribed proforma available on the NDMA website alongwith certificates establishing their educational qualification,
experience to Shri Abhishek Biswas, Under Secretary (Admn.), National Disaster Management Authority, NDMA Bhawan, A-1, Safdarjung Enclave, New Delhi-110029,
Phone No.011-26701796 within 30 days from the date of publication of advertisement in the Employment News.
(Abhishek Biswas)
EN 16/44 Under Secretary (Admn.)

No. 12026/05/2019-E.II. 3. Duties and responsibilities attached to the post: Data Entry Work of various
Government of India Division’s in respect of various schemes, to Scrutinize/validate and correct the data, to

Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers
Welfare
Department of Agriculture, Cooperation and Farmers Welfare
Krishi Bhawan, New Delhi Dated : 07/08/2020
VACANCY CIRCULAR
Subject: : Filling up of 1 vacancy in the grade of Data Entry Operator, Grade-B,
in Level 5 of Pay Matrix Rs. 29200-92300/- on Deputation Basis in the Ministry of
Agriculture & Farmers Welfare, Department of Agriculture, Cooperation &
Farmers Welfare.
It is proposed to fill up one post of Data Entry Operator, Grade-B (General Central
Service Group 'C' Non-Gazetted, Non-Ministerial) in the Department of Agriculture,
Co-operation and Farmer's Welfare in Level 5 of Pay Matrix Rs. 29200-92300 on
Deputation basis.
2. Eligibility Conditions for appointment:
(i) Deputation:
Officials under Central Government
a. (i) Holding analogous post on regular basis; or
(ii) With five year's service in the grade rendered after appointment thereto on a
regular basis in posts in PB-1 Rs. 5200-20200/- plus Grade Pay of Rs. 2400
(Corresponding to level 4 of the Pay Matrix Rs. 25500-81100/-) or equivalent in
the parent cadre or department; and
b. Possessing the educational qualification and experience which are as follows:
i. 12th standard pass in Science stream with mathematics as a subject from a
recognised board with one year diploma in Computer Applications or DOEACC-A
level from a recognised institute and two years experience in EDP work in a
Government office/PSU/Statutory/Autonomous Organizations/recognized
institutions; OR
Bachelor's degree in Computer Applications/Information Technology/Computer
Science of a recognised University/Institute.
ii. A speed test of not less than 15000 key depressions per hour for data entry work
to be ascertained through speed test on computer.
Note 1: The Departmental Officers in the feeder grade category who are in the direct
line of promotion shall not be eligible for consideration for appointment on deputation;
similarly, deputationists shall not be eligible for consideration for appointment by
promotion.
Note 2: The period of deputation including the period of another ex-cadre post held
immediately proceeding this appointment in the same or some other Organisation or
Department of the Central Government shall ordinarily not exceeding three years.
Prepare/typeset all India reports and Input Surveys related to various Divisions, to
check the division's website for any type of errors in the data which is uploaded by NIC
on the Division's website, to prepare statistical tables required by different users and by
various Divisions of Ministry etc.
4. Regulation of pay and other terms of deputation:-
The pay of the selected candidate will be regulated under the provisions contained in
the DoP&T O.M. No. 6/8/2009-Estt. (Pay-ll) dated 17/06/2010 as amended from time
to time.
5. Age-limit :-
The maximum age-limit for appointment by deputation shall be not exceeding 56 years
as on the closing date of receipt of applications.
6. Period of deputation: -
Period of deputation including period of deputation in another ex-cadre post held
immediately preceding this appointment in the same or other organizations or
departments of the Central Govt. shall ordinarily not to exceed three years.
7. Application (in duplicate) only in the prescribed proforma (Annexure-l) of the eligible
candidates whose services can be spared immediately on selection, together with the
certificate from the Forwarding Authority (in proforma Annexure-ll) along with the
following documents:
(i) cadre clearance; (ii) Integrity certificate (iii) List of major/ minor penalties imposed if
any, on the official during the last 10 years; (if no penalty has been imposed a 'Nil'
certificate should be enclosed). (iv) Vigilance clearance certificate. (v) Attested
photocopies of the ACRs for the last five years (attested on each page by an officer not
below the rank of an Under Secretary to the Government of India).
8. Complete advertisement, Bio-data format (Annexure-l) and certificate format for CC,
IC, VC & MMP (Annexure-ll), etc. can be downloaded from the Department of
Agriculture, Cooperation and Farmers Welfare's website:- www.agricoop.nic.in (Link-
Recruitment-Vacancies).
9. The application alongwith required documents, may be forwarded to Sh. Sunil
Kumar Swarnkar, Under Secretary (Pers.-ll), Room No. 37, Ground Floor, F-Wing,
Krishi Bhawan, New Delhi - 110001, within 60 days of the publication of the
circular in the Employment News/ Rozgar Samachar. Applications not forwarded
through proper channel or those received without the requisite certificates and
necessary documents or after due date will not be entertained.
10. The candidates who apply for the post will not be allowed to withdraw their
candidature subsequently.
(Sunil Kumar Swarnkar)
Under Secretary(Pers.-ll)
Department of Agriculture, Cooperation & Farmers Welfare
EN 16/34 Tel. No. 011-23383053
Employment News 29 August - 4 September 2020 www.employmentnews.gov.in 19
No.338/RC/SSB/Combined Advertisement/CTs/2020 Sainik School Ghorakhal, Nainital
÷Ê⁄Uà ‚⁄U∑§Ê⁄U/Government of India (Under Sainik Schools Society, Ministry of Defence, Govt. of India)
ªÎ„U ◊¥òÊÊ‹ÿ/Ministry of Home Affairs 1. Applications are invited for the following post.
Quartermaster, Regular- 01 (Unreserved)
◊„UÊÁŸŒ‡Ê∑§ ∑§Êÿʸ‹ÿ Eligibility Essential Qualification:
(i) B.A./B.Com
Office of the Director General (ii) At least 5 years experience as UDC stores or as Quartermaster
or an ex-serviceman preferably a JCO with at least 10 years expe-
‚‡ÊSòÊ ‚Ë◊Ê ’‹/Sashastra Seema Bal rience in handling and accounting of stores.
Ÿß¸U ÁŒÀ‹Ë-66/New Delhi-66 Desirable : (i) Should have undergone Quartermaster's Course.
(ii) Degree/diploma in fire fighting, Security and motor vehicle
VACANCY CIRCULAR maintenance.
Online applications are invited from citizens of India, Nepal or Bhutan (post wise
Scale of Pay Pay level-5, Rs. 29,200/-
respective details are available at Sl.No. 02 of detailed advertisement) for filling up the
vacancies of following posts in SASHASTRA SEEMA BAL, GOVERNMENT OF Age Between the age 18-50 years as on 01 Jan 2021.
INDIA, MINISTRY OF HOME AFFAIRS in the Level-3 (Pay Matrix Rs. 21700-69100/-) 2. Allowances and Perquisites: Rent free accommodation, NPS, LTC, Gratuity,
(as per 7th CPC) and other allowances as admissible in the Force. The posts are Medical Allowance, Transport Allowance, subsidized schooling for two children as
temporary but likely to be continued. Selected candidates are liable to serve anywhere admissible as per Sainik School Society Rules & Regulations.
in India or outside the territory of India and will be governed under SSB Act & Rules and 3. Eligible and interested candidates may apply with complete Bio-Data and recent
other Rules as applicable:- Passport size Photograph to the Principal, Sainik School Ghorakhal, PO- Ghorakhal,
SI. Name of Posts UR EWS OBC SC ST Total Distt- Nainital (Uttarakhand) Pin-263156 along with photocopies of Mark Sheets,
No. Vacancy Educational Certificates, Experience certificates as UDC stores or as
1. Constable (Driver) for male only 148 36 114 245 31 574 Quartermaster or an ex-serviceman with at least 10 years experience in handling
and accounting of stores, one unstamped self addressed envelope and a DD for
2. Constable (Laboratory Assistant) 05 0 11 05 0 21
Rs. 500/-(non refundable) drawn in favour of "Principal, Sainik School Ghorakhal"
3. Constable (Veterinary) 67 15 42 19 18 161 payable at State Bank of India, Bhowali Branch Code 01352. Only SBI Bank Draft is
4. Constable (Ayah) Female only 02 0 02 01 0 05 acceptable. Applications complete in all respect along with DD must reach
5. Constable (Carpenter) 01 0 0 0 02 03 Principal, Sainik School Ghorakhal within 30 days from the date of publication of
6. Constable (Plumber) 0 0 01 0 0 01 the advertisement. Applications without experience certificate will not be
accepted. School will not be responsible for postal delay. By hand applications will not
7. Constable (Painter) 05 01 02 02 02 12
be accepted. Applications received after due date will not be considered. Shortlisted
8. Constable (Tailor) 11 02 0 02 05 20 candidate will be called for written/practical tests & selection process and no TA/DA will
9. Constable (Cobbler) 16 02 02 0 0 20 be paid to them. The School Authority reserves the rights to CANCEL the
10. Constable (Gardener) 08 0 01 0 0 09 employment process at any time, without assigning any reason thereof.
11. Constable (Cook) Male 123 23 40 25 21 232 Principal
Constable (Cook) Female 12 2 6 4 2 26 Sainik School Ghorakhal
EN 16/54 Phone- 5942-220051
12. Constable (Washerman) Male 27 07 24 8 26 92
Constable (Washerman) Female
13. Constable (Barber) Male
14
28
1
5
7
8
3
8
3
26
28
75
Postgraduate Institute of Medical
Constable (Barber) Female 3 0 5 4 0 12 Education & Research Chandigarh
14. Constable (Safaiwala) Male 35 8 31 9 6 89 F. 3001/Advt./AO/EI(2)/PGI/2020 Dated: 17.08.2020
Constable (Safaiwala) Female 12 1 10 4 1 28
Notice
15. Constable (Water Carrier) Male 44 10 27 14 6 101
It is proposed to fill up 04 posts of Administrative Officer on deputation basis in
Constable (Water Carrier) Female 5 1 3 2 1 12
Level 9 in the Pay Matrix as per 7th CPC at PGIMER, Chandigarh having following
16. Constable (Waiter) Male 0 0 0 0 1 1
qualification/experience: "Officers under the Central Government, State Govt, U.T.
* 10% vacancies are reserved for Ex-Servicemen in all ranks.
Note :- (i) DG, SSB reserves the right to increase/decrease, fill or not to fill the Administration, or Central Statutory Bodies holding analogous posts or with at least
vacancies or cancel the advertisement for the above mentioned posts(s), without 3/5 years of experience "Level-8/Level-7 respectively in the PAY MATRIX" or
assigning any reason. equivalent respectively and having degree and experience in administration and
(ii) A candidate can apply only for one post from amongst the posts as mentioned establishment matter and preferably account matters. Officers possessing M.B.A
above. or Postgraduate Diploma in Personnel Management shall be given preference."
2. ELIGIBILITY CONDITIONS FOR ABOVE SAID POSTS ARE AS UNDER :-
The application duly filled by the applicant on the prescribed proforma may be sent
Name of Post Age Essential Educational & Professional
to the Director, PGIMER, Chandigarh through the Head of the
Qualification
Department/Institution/ Organization by 10.09.2020 along with their ACR/APARs
Constable(Driver) 21 to 27 i) Matriculation or equivalent from a recognised Board.
for last five years and a certificate that no departmental/disciplinary proceedings
only For male years ii) Must possess valid Heavy Vehicle Driving Licence.
are pending/being contemplated against the officer. The applications received after
Constable 18 to 25 i) Matriculation with Science from a recognised
(Laboratory years Board or Institution. due date shall summarily be rejected.
Assistant) ii) Should have certificate in Laboratory Assistant Incomplete applications and the applications received after due date will be
Course from an Institution recognised by Central summarily rejected. The Director, PGIMER reserves the right to increase/decrease
Government or State Government. the number of posts/withdraw selection process at any stage without any claim
Constable 18 to 25 Essential Educational qualification : Tenth or thereto.
(Veterinary) years Matriculation Examination pass with Science as main EN 16/53 Director
subject from a recognised Board or University.
Desirable : One year experience in treatment of 3. Last date for receipt of application : The closing date for receipt of applications
different species of animals in a recognised
will be 30 days from the date of publication of advertisement in Employment
Veterinary Hospital.
News except for the Remote Areas. The last date for receipt of applications from
Constable 18 to 25 i) Matriculation with science from a recognised Board
Remote Areas (i.e. Assam, Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Manipur,
(Ayah) for years or Institution.
Nagaland, Tripura, Sikkim, Union Territories of Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh,
Female only ii) Possessing the first Aid Examination pass certificate
from Red Cross Society or should be trained Dai. Lahaul Spiti District and Pangi Sub-Division of Chamba District of Himachal
iii) One-year experience in relevant field. Pradesh, Union Territory of Andaman & Nicobar Islands and Union Territory of
Constables 18 to 25 i) Matriculation or equivalent from a recognised Board. Lakshadweep) will be 37 days from the date of publication of advertisement in
(Carpenter, years ii) Two years work experience in respective trade; or Employment News, but it will not affect the crucial date for determining the eligibility
Plumber and iii) One year certificate course from a recognised criteria.
Painter) Industrial Training Institute or Vocational Institute with 4. FEE PAYABLE AND MODE OF PAYMENT : Unreserved, EWS and OBC category
at least one year experience in the respective trade; or candidates are required to pay Rs. 100/-(Rupees One hundred) only being fees (non-
iv) Two years Diploma from a recognised Industrial refundable) through net-banking/credit card/debit card/Challan. However, SC/ST/Ex-
Training Institute in the respective trade or similar servicemen & Female candidates are exempted from payment of fees.
trade; and v) Must qualify trade test. 5. HOW TO APPLY : Only online applications will be entertained for the above said
Constables 18 to 23 a) Matriculation or equivalent from a recognised board posts. Applications received through any other mode shall not be accepted and
(Cook, years with, rejected straightway. Interested/eligible candidates may download the detailed
Washerman, (i) Two years work experience in respective trades; or
advertisement for above said posts from SSB recruitment website www.ssbrectt.
Barber, (ii) One year certificate course from a recognised
gov.in. and may apply online through www.ssbrectt.gov.in after going through all
Safaiwala, Industrial Training Institute or Vocational Institute
Water Carrier, with at least one year experience in the trade ; or provisions contained in the detailed advertisement to ensure that he/she is eligible for
Waiter, Tailor, (iii) Two years Diploma from recognised Industrial the post for which he/she is applying for.
Gardener and Training Institute in the trade or similar trade. (Suverna Sajwan)
Cobbler) (b) Must qualify trade test. Commandant(Rectt)
Note-Multi-skilled candidates will be given preference. davp 19114/11/0003/2021 EN 16/1
20 www.employmentnews.gov.in Employment News 29 August - 4 September 2020

No. A -11004/2020/NGMA
Government of India
Ministry of Culture

National Gallery of Modern Art

Jaipur House, New Delhi-110003
Applications are invited for filling up of (i) two posts of Deputy Curator (ii) three ANNEXURE-I
posts of Public Relation Officer (iii) three posts of Upper Division Clerks (UDC) BIO-DATA/CURRICULUM VITAE PROFORMA
(iv) one post of Accountant (v) one post of Assistant Director (Administration & 1. Name and Address (in Block letters) :
Finance) on deputation (including short term contract) basis and (vi) one post of
2. Date of Birth (in Christian era) :
Assistant Library and Information Officer (vii) one post of Security Officer and
(viii) one post of Deputy Curator (Restoration) on Composite method 3. i) Date of entry into service
[deputation(including short term contract) plus promotion] basis in National Gallery of ii) Date of retirement under Central/State
Modem Art, New Delhi and its two branches at Mumbai and Bengaluru. National Government Rules
Gallery of Modern Art is a subordinate office under Ministry of Culture and a premier 4. Educational Qualifications
museum of India with rich and exquisite collections of contemporary paintings. The 5. Whether Educational and other qualifications
details i.e., number of posts; pay scale and location of the posts are as under: required for the post are satisfied. (If any qualification
1. Deputy Curator [(by deputation (including short term contract)] has been treated as equivalent to the one prescribed
No. of Post-02 in the Rules, state the authority for the same)
PB-3 Rs. 15,600-39,100/- plus Grade pay Rs. 5400/- (pre revised) Level-10 in
Qualifications/Experience required as men- Qualifications/Experience
Pay Matrix Rs. 56,100 - 1,77,500/- (Revised)
tioned in the advertisement/vacancy circular possessed by the officer
General Central Service Group 'A', Gazetted, Non Ministerial
Location of the post: - One each in National Gallery of Modern Art, Mumbai Essential Essential
and Bengaluru. A) Qualification A) Qualification
2. Public Relation Officer [(by deputation (including short term contract)] B) Experience B) Experience
No. of Post-03
Desirable Desirable
PB-2 Rs. 93,00-34,800/- plus Grade pay Rs.4600/- (pre revised) Level-7 in Pay
Matrix Rs. 44,900 - 1,42,400/- (Revised) A) Qualification A) Qualification
General Central Service Group ‘B’, Gazetted Non-Ministerial B) Experience B) Experience
Location of the post: - One each in National Gallery of Modern Art, New Note: This column needs to be amplified to indicate Essential and Desirable
Delhi, Mumbai and Bengaluru. Qualifications as mentioned in the RRs by the Administrative Ministry /
3. Upper Division Clerk (UDC) [by deputation (including short term contract)] Department/ Office at the time of issue of Circular and issue of Advertisement
No. of Post-03 in the Employment News.
Level-4 in Pay Matrix Rs. 25,500 - 81,100/- In the case of Degree and Post Graduate Qualifications Elective/ main subjects
General Central Service Group 'C' Non-Gazetted Ministerial and subsidiary subjects may be indicated by the Candidate.
Location of the post: - One each in National Gallery of Modern Art, New
6. Please state clearly whether in the light of entries made by you above, you
Delhi, Bengaluru and Mumbai.
meet the Requisite Essential Qualifications and work experience of the post.
4. Accountant [by deputation (including short term contract)]
No. of post - 01 6.1 Note: Borrowing Departments are to provide their specific comments/views
Level 6 Pay Matrix Rs. 35,400-1,12,400/- (revised) confirming the relevant Essential Qualification/ Work experience possessed
General Central Service Group 'B' Non-Gazetted Ministerial by the Candidate (as indicated in the Bio-Data) with reference to the
Location of the post: - National Gallery of Modern Art, Bengaluru. post applied.
5. Assistant Director (Administration & Finance) - [by deputation (including 7. Details of Employment, in chronological order. Enclose a separate sheet duly
short term contract)] authenticated by your signature, if the space below is insufficient.
No. of post - 01 Office/ Post held on From To Level/Pay Scale Nature of Duties
PB-3 Rs. 15600-39100/- plus Grade pay Rs. 6600/- (pre-revised): Level 11 Pay Institution regular basis of the post held (in detail) Highlighting
Matrix Rs. 67700 - 208700/- (revised) on regular basis experience required
General Central Service Group 'A' Gazetted Ministerial for the post
Location of the post: National Gallery of Modern Art, Mumbai applied for
6. Assistant Library and Information Officer [Composite method [by deputation 8. Nature of present employment i.e. Adhoc
(including short term contract) plus promotion] or Temporary or Quasi-Permanent or Permanent
No. of Post-01 9. In case the present employment is held on
PB-2 Rs.9,300-34,800/- plus Grade pay Rs. 4600/- (pre revised): Level-7 in Pay deputation/contract basis, please state
Matrix Rs. 44,900 - 1,42,400/- (Revised)
a) The date b) Period of c) Name of the d) Name of the post
General Central Service Group 'B', Gazetted Non-Ministerial
of initial appointment on parent office/organi- and Pay of the post
Location of the post: - National Gallery of Modern Art, New Delhi.
appointment deputation/ zation to which the held in substantive
7. Security Officer [Composite method [(by deputation (including short term
contract applicant belongs capacity in the
contract) plus promotion] parent organization
No. of Post-01
Note: In case of Officers already on deputation, the applications of such officers
PB-2 Rs. 9,300-34,800/- plus Grade pay Rs.4600/- (pre revised) Level-7 in
should be forwarded by the parent cadre/ Department along with Cadre Clearance,
Pay Matrix Rs. 44,900 - 1,42,400/- (Revised)
Vigilance Clearance and Integrity certificate.
General Central Service Group 'B', Gazetted Non Ministerial
Note: Information under Column 9(c) & (d) above must be given in all cases where
Location of the post: - National Gallery of Modern Art, Bengaluru.
a person is holding a post on deputation outside the cadre/ organization but still
8. Deputy Curator (Restoration) by Composite Method [deputation (including
maintaining a lien in his parent cadre/ organization
short term contract) plus promotion]
Note: In case one of the posts of Restoration Assistant is held by the promotee 10. If any post held on Deputation in the past by the applicant,
date of return from the last deputation and other details.
and the other post is held by direct recruits, the method of promotion will be
operated. 11. Additional details about present employment:
No. of Post-01 Please state whether working under (indicate the
PB-3 Rs. 15,600-39,100/- plus Grade pay Rs. 5400/- (pre revised) : Level-10 in name of your employer against the relevant column)
Pay Matrix Rs. 56,100-1,77,500/- (Revised) a) Central Government
General Central Service Group 'A', Gazetted Non-Ministerial b) State Government
Location of the post: - National Gallery of Modern Art, New Delhi. c) Autonomous Organization
d) Government Undertaking
2. Applications, in duplicate, in the prescribed proforma placed below (Annexure-1)
e) Universities
and complete up-to- date ACR dossiers of the Officers (last five years) who can be
f) Others
spared in the event of their selection alongwith vigilance clearance, integrity
certificate, cadre clearance, major/minor penalty statement for the last ten years 12. Please state whether you are working in the same Department
should reach the undersigned through proper channel within a period of 60 days and are in the feeder grade or feeder to feeder grade.
from the date of publication of the advertisement in the Employment News. 13. Are you in Revised Scale of Pay? If yes, give the date
Applications received after last date or otherwise found incomplete will not be from which the revision took place and also indicate
considered and stand rejected. the pre-revised scale.
3. The details regarding eligibility conditions, educational qualifications, job 14. Total emoluments per month now drawn
description, experience and application form etc. are also available on the website
Basic Pay in the pay matrix Level Total Emoluments
of Ministry of Culture http://www.indiaculture.nic.in and NGMAs website
www.ngmaindia.gov.in .
(S. P. Datta)
Curator (Restoration) & Head of Office 15. In case the applicant belongs to an Organization which is not following the Central
Tel. No.: 011-23386208 Government Pay-scales, the latest salary slip issued by the Organization showing
Jaipur House, New Delhi-110003 the following details may be enclosed. Continued on page 21
Employment News 29 August - 4 September 2020 www.employmentnews.gov.in 21
No. 12(1)/2016-Estt.
Government of India

Ministry of
Steel
(Estt. Section)
Udyog Bhawan, New Delhi
Dated: 17th August, 2020
Filling up the post of
Assistant Library and
Information Officer in the
Ministry of Steel on
deputation basis.
Applications are invited for the
post of Assistant Library and
Information Officer (ALIO) in
Ministry of Steel in Level-7
(Rs. 44900-142400/-) of pay
matrix to be filled by
deputation.
The last date for receipt of
applications for appointment
on deputation basis to the post
of ALIO earlier published in the
Employment News editions
18-24 January-2020 giving 45
days time to submit the
application is hereby extended
up to 15.09.2020. Persons
meeting the eligibility criteria
may apply for the post by
sending their application, duly
signed (in triplicate), in the
prescribed proforma, to the
Under Secretary (Estt.),
Ministry of Steel, Room No.
64, Udyog Bhawan, Maulana
Azad Road, New Delhi -
110001 through proper
channel.
Advance copies of appli-
cations or applications recei-
ved after the prescribed period
or not accompanied with the
requisite information/ docu-
ments are liable to be rejected.
(Mukesh Kumar Jain)
Under Secretary to the
Government of India
EN 16/41 EN 16/24
Continued from page 20
I have carefully gone through the vacancy circular/advertisement and I am well aware
Basic Pay with Scale of Dearness Pay/interim relief Total Emoluments
that the information furnished in the Curriculum Vitae duly supported by the documents in
Pay and rate of increment other Allowances etc.,
(with break-up details) respect of Essential Qualification/ Work Experience submitted by me will also be
16. Additional information, if any, relevant to the post you applied assessed by the Selection Committee at the time of selection for the post. The
A for in support of your suitability for the post. information/ details provided by me are correct and true to the best of my knowledge and
(This among other things may provide information with regard to no material fact having a bearing on my selection has been suppressed/ withheld.
(i) Additional academic qualifications (ii) Professional training and
(iii) Work experience over and above prescribed in the Vacancy (Signature of the candidate)
Circular/Advertisement). Date ........................... Address-------------------
(Note: Enclose a separate sheet, if the space is insufficient) Certification by the Employer/ Cadre Controlling Authority
16. Achievements: The information/ details provided in the above application by the applicant are true and
B The candidates are requested to indicate information with regard to:
(i) Research publications and reports and special projects correct as per the facts available on records. He/she possesses educational qualifications
(ii) Awards/Scholarships/Official Appreciation and experience mentioned in the vacancy Circular. If selected, he/she will be relieved
(iii) Affiliation with the professional bodies institutions societies and: immediately.
(iv) Patents registered in own name or achieved for the organization
(v) Any research/ innovative measure involving official recognition 2. Also certified that :
vi) any other information. i) There is no vigilance or disciplinary case pending/ contemplated against Shri/Smt.
(Note: Enclose a separate sheet, if the space is insufficient) ii) His/ Her integrity is certified.
17. Please state whether you are applying for deputation iii) His/ Her CR Dossier in original are enclosed/photocopies of the ACRs for the last 5
(ISTC)/Absorption/Re- employment Basis.#
(Officers under Central/State Governments are only years duly attested by an officer of the rank of Under Secretary of the Govt. of India
eligible for "Absorption". Candidates of non-Government or above are enclosed.
Organizations are eligible only for Short Term Contract) iv) No major/ minor penalty has been imposed on him/ her during the last 10 years Or a
# (The option of 'STC'/'Absorption'/'Re-employment'
are available only if the vacancy circular specially list of major/ minor penalties imposed on him/ her during the last 10 years is enclosed,
mentioned recruitment by "STC" or "Absorption" (as the case may be)
or "Re-employment"). Countersigned----------
18. Whether belongs to SC/ST EN 16/51 (Employer/ Cadre Controlling Authority with Seal)
22 www.employmentnews.gov.in Employment News 29 August - 4 September 2020

‚ÊÚç≈Uflÿ⁄U ≈ÄŸÊ‹ÊÚ¡Ë ¬ÊÄ‚¸ •ÊÚ»§ ߥUÁ«UÿÊ

(ßU‹Ä≈˛UÊÚÁŸ∑§Ë ∞fl¥ ‚ÍøŸÊ ¬˝ÊÒlÊÁª∑§Ë ◊¥òÊÊ‹ÿ, ÷Ê⁄Uà ‚⁄U∑§Ê⁄U,
∑§ •ãê¸Ã SflÊÿûÊ ‚Ê‚Êÿ≈UË)
Software Technology Parks of India
(An Autonomous Society under Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology, Govt. of India)
Employment Notice No. 2(5)/I/STPI-HQ/2019-20
Software Technology Parks of India (STPI) is providing Statutory Services to the exporters under
STP/EHTP scheme and also extending infrastructural facilities including High Speed Internet and IPLC
links. STPI at present has 59 centers at different locations in the country. Applications are invited from the
eligible candidates for filling up Group ‘A’ S&T vacancies given below. The vacancies are proposed to be
filled-up by Transfer (absorption)/Direct Recruitment basis. Appointment made on Direct Recruitment
basis shall be on contract basis for a period of three years which is likely to be regularized/ extended/
terminated depending upon the performance of the candidate during contract period.
Post code : E-3
Name of the post : Member Technical Staff- E-III (Scientist 'D')
Pay Band and Grade Pay : Level 12 (Rs. 78800-209200)
Age Limit (Max.) : For appointment on transfer (absorption) basis 56 years
For appointment on direct recruitment basis 42 years (Relaxation
as per Govt. of India
rules)
No. of post : 03 (UR-1 , SC-1 , OBC-1)
Mode of recruitment : Transfer (absorption)/Direct Recruitment basis.
Essential Qualifications and Experience:
For Direct Recruit:
(a) Bachelors' degree in Engineering/ Technology with 1st class in Electronics/ Electricals/ Electronics &
Communications/ Telecommunications/ Computer Science/Information Technology or Masters in
Computer Applications with 1st class or M. Sc. with 1st class in Physics/ Mathematics/ Statistics/
Computer Science/ Electronics/ Applied Electronics/ Information Technology with 10 years experience.
OR
(b) Master Degree in Tech./ Engineering with 1st class in Electronics/ Electricals/ Electronics &
Communications/ Telecommunications/ Computer Science with 08 years experience.
OR
(c) Ph.D. in Science/ Engineering in any of the above mentioned disciplines /inter-disciplines alongwith
qualification mentioned at (a) or (b) above with 05 years of experience.
(d) Candidate possessing qualification as at (a) or (b) above followed by MBA/ Degree in Law would
be eligible for two (2) years relaxation in experience.
For Transfer (absorption):
In case of transfer (absorption), officers of the Central / State Government / PSUs / Autonomous Bodies:
i) holding analogous post on regular basis
OR
having 5 years regular service in Level 11 (Rs. 67700-208700).
AND
ii) Possessing qualifications as prescribed for Direct Recruitment.
Note: Preference shall be given to the PWDs candidate either in HH category or OH category by giving
additional relaxation, if found suitable for selection for the above mentioned post.
How to apply:
Candidates meeting the above eligibility requirements may fill up the application online available at
website www.stpi.in. Applicants are required to take the printout of the filled in Application Form and
signed it and send the same alongwith duly attested copies of certificates (uploaded on the website)
relating to qualification(s), date of birth, experience certificate(s), caste certificate etc. by the last date of
receipt of application to the Software Technology Parks of India, Plate-B, 1st Floor, Office Block-1,
East Kidwai Nagar, New Delhi-110023. Name of the post applied for should invariably be mentioned on
the top of the envelope containing application form. Persons working in Central/ State
EN 16/15 Government/PSUs/Autonomous organizations may send their applications through proper channel. It is
also requested that advance action may be taken to keep the ACRs/APARs for last 5 years, of those
candidates ready alongwith their latest vigilance profile [(i) penalty imposed, if any during the last 10 years
(ii) details disciplinary action initiated/ being initiated if any etc.] to be furnished as and when the selection
meeting is scheduled. However, a copy of the application may send in advance for consideration.
Application Fee: Candidate has to pay an application fee of Rs. 500/- (Rupees five hundred only) per
application by Demand Draft/Indian Postal Order (IPO) in favour of 'Software Technology Parks of India',
payable at New Delhi.
OR Through NEFT/RTGS to the following Bank Account of this office directly.
Bank Name Canara Bank, Delhi Parliament Street Branch, Saving A/C 1098101101244
New Delhi 110001 Number
Beneficiary Software Technology Parks of India, New Delhi IFSC code CNRB0001098
Name
OR Digital Payment through UPI (Unified Payments Interface) and BHIM (Bharat Interface for Money).
UPI ID-"stpi@upi" and QR code for UPI payments to Software Technology Parks of India is available at
www.stpi.in.
Candidates are advised to mention the Unique Transaction Reference (UTR) number/Transaction ID in
the online application wherever sought. No fee is required to be paid by female candidates and candidates
belonging to SC/ST/PH category. Fee once paid shall not be refunded.
Selection Process:
Selection for the above posts shall be on Interview basis. Received application by the last date of receipt
of application shall be screened and screened-in candidate shall be called for Personal Interview.
Candidate recommended by the Selection Committee shall offered appointment.
Last date of receipt of applications: Within 45 days of the publication of this advertisement in the
Employment News on 29.08.2020. 10 days extra period shall be given in respect of applications
received from the candidates residing in Assam, Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Manipur,
Nagaland, Tripura, Sikkim, Union Territory of Ladakh, Lahaul and Spiti District and Pangi Sub Division of
Chamba District of Himachal Pradesh, Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep. STPI shall not
be responsible for any postal delay.
Opening Date for Submission of Online Application : 29.08.2020
Closing Date of Receipt of Online Application : 28.09.2020
Closing Date of Receipt of duly signed-in Application : 12.10.2020
Closing Date of Receipt of duly signed-in Application : 22.10.2020
from the remote area as mentioned above
For information on general terms and conditions, the candidates may refer to STPI website www.stpi.in
(CAO-cum-Registrar)
STPI
EN 16/12 EN 16/31
Employment News 29 August - 4 September 2020 www.employmentnews.gov.in 23
Government of India
Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology (MeitY)
Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI)
4th Floor, Bangla Sahib Road, Behind Kali Mandir
Gole Market, New Delhi - 110001

Vacancy circular for filling up the various posts on deputation

(Foreign Service term) basis in UIDAI.

The UIDAI invites applications for filling up the following posts on deputation (Foreign Service term)
basis for appointment at its Headquarters, New Delhi and at various regional offices from amongst the
suitable and eligible officers as per the details given under:
Name of the Office Name of the Post Pay Matrix level No. of Vacancies
(Likely to vary)
UIDAI Headquarters, New Delhi Deputy Director 11 02
Section Officer 8 02
Assistant Section Officer 6 03
Assistant Accounts Officer 8 01
Accountant 5 01
Junior Translation Officer 6 01
Technology Centre, Bengaluru Assistant Section Officer 6 02
EN 16/39 Data Centre, Manesar Section Officer 8 01
Assistant Section Officer 6 01
Regional Office, Delhi Section Officer 8 02
Assistant Section Officer 6 01
Assistant Accounts Officer 8 01
Regional Office, Ranchi Deputy Director 11 01
Section Officer 8 01
Assistant Section Officer 6 01
Regional Office, Lucknow Deputy Director 11 02
Regional Office, Guwahati Section Officer 8 01
Assistant Section Officer 6 01
Regional Office, Chandigarh Deputy Director 11 01
Section Officer 8 03
Assistant Accounts Officer 8 01
Regional Office, Mumbai Deputy Director 11 01
Section Officer 8 03
Assistant Section Officer 6 02
Accountant 5 01
Regional Office, Hyderabad Deputy Director 11 01
Section Officer 8 01
Assistant Section Officer 6 03
Assistant Accounts Officer 8 01
Regional Offce, Bengaluru Deputy Director 11 01
EN 16/4
Section Officer 8 02
Assistant Section Officer 6 02
÷Ê¥«UʪÊ⁄UáÊ Áfl∑§Ê‚ •ÊÒ⁄U ÁflÁŸÿÊ◊∑§ ¬˝ÊÁäÊ∑§⁄UáÊ Assistant Accounts Officer 8 01
÷Ê⁄Uà ‚⁄U∑§Ê⁄U Accountant 5 01
øÊÒÕË ◊¥Á¡‹, ∞Ÿ‚ËÿÍ•Ê߸U ÷flŸ, The application may be furnished in the prescribed proforma by the cadre authorities/Head of
3, ‚Ë⁄UË ß¥US≈UË≈˜Uÿ͇ʟ‹ ∞Á⁄UÿÊ Departments and forwarded to the address as mentioned in the vacancy circular of the particular
•ªSà ∑˝§Ê¥Áà ◊ʪ¸, „UÊÒ Ê πÊ‚, Ÿß¸U ÁŒÀ‹Ë- 110016 office/regional office. The last date for receipt of application complete in aII respects is 15.09.2020.
Since these vacancies are to be filled up on deputation basis, private candidates are not eligible.
ŒÍ⁄U÷Ê·—- 49536496, 49092978
Further details including address for sending the application form may be obtained from the website
Warehousing Development and www.uidai.gov.in.
Assistant Director General (HR)
Regulatory Authority
Government of India Now Aadhaar Enrollment & Updation Facilities can also be availed at Aadhaar Seva Kendra (ASK).
4th Floor, NCUI Building, 3, Siri Institutional Area, To locate one near you, visit UIDAI.GOV.IN or Call 1947.
August Kranti Marg, Hauz Khas, New Delhi-110016 davp 54103/11/0042/2021 EN 16/64
Tel. No. 49536496, 49092978
F. No. A-12024/1/2017-O/o US (A and F) Dated: 19.08.2020 Guru Ghasidas (Pharmaceutical Chemistry), M. Pharm
Recruitment for various posts on deputation basis Vishwavidyalaya (Pharmacology)
The Warehousing Development and Regulatory Authority (WDRA), (A Central University established
Government of India, invites applications from eligible personnel B. Pharm. III Sem. (Lateral Entry), M. Tech.
under the Central Universities Act, 2009,
working in the Central/State Governments/Central and State PSUs/ (Chemical Engg),
No.25 of 2009)
Autonomous/ Statutory bodies for the following posts to be filled on Koni, Bilaspur- 495009 (C.G.) India M. Tech. (Machine Design), MBA
deputation basis:- For admission procedure, eligibility, number of
Tel - +91-7752- 260342, 260021
Sl. Name of the Post No. of Fax +91-7752- 260154 seats, reservation policy, fees, scholarship,
No. vacancies closing dates and how to apply, please visit
Ref. No. 129/Admission /Academic/20
1. Director (Technical) 01 university website www.ggu.ac.in/ admissions
Bilaspur, Date-17.08.2020
[Level-13 Rs.1,23,100 - 2,15,900 (7th CPC)]
ADMISSION NOTICE (2020-21) 1. Starting date of offline Application Process :
2. Deputy Director (Stakeholders Affairs) 01 18.08.2020
[Level- 11 Rs. 67,700 - 2,08,700 (7th CPC)] Guru Ghasidas Vishwavidyalaya, Bilaspur invites
applications for admission to following courses in Help line: 07752-260027 (M.Pharm), 260007
3. Assistant Director 02
Academic Session 2020-21: (M. Tech), 260460 (MBA)
(i) Strategy Risk and Research - 1 post
(ii) Stakeholders Affairs - 1 post M. Pharm (Pharmaceutics), M.Pharm EN 16/25 Registrar (Acting)
[Level- 8 Rs. 47,600 - 1,51,100 (7th CPC)]
4. Section Officer (Administration & Finance) 01 Detail information may be seen at the Authority's website www.wdra.gov.in. Applications in the
[Level-7 Rs. 44,900 - 1,42,400 (7th CPC)] prescribed format available on the website may be submitted to the Under Secretary (A&F) (I/C),
Warehousing Development and Regulatory Authority, New Delhi, within 45 days from the date of
5. Staff Field Officer 01
publication of the vacancy circular in the Employment News. Corrigendum etc., if any, shall be put
[Level-5 Rs. 29,200 - 92,300 (7th CPC)]
up on the WDRA website.
6. Personal Assistant / Steno 01 (Rakesh Kumar Yadav)
[Level-4 Rs. 25,500 - 81,100 (7th CPC)] EN 16/65 Assistant Director (A&F and Contracts)
24 www.employmentnews.gov.in Employment News 29 August - 4 September 2020
F. No.32013/2/2019-M-I
Government of India
Ministry of Agriculture
and Farmers Welfare
Department of
Agriculture,
Cooperation &
Farmers Welfare
VACANCY CIRCULAR
Applications are invited from
eligible candidates for filling up
one (01) post of Assistant
Director in Level-10 (Rs.56100-
177500) of the Pay Matrix in
Directorate of Marketing &
Inspection, an attached Office
under Department of
Agriculture, Cooperation &
Farmers Welfare on deputation
(including short term contract)
basis. Complete details about
eligibility conditions including
format of application are
available on Department of
Agriculture, Cooperation &
Farmer Welfare's website
www.agricoop.nic.in.
Application (in duplicate) in
prescribed proforma with
complete details should be
forwarded through proper
channel to Shri Ishwar Singh,
Deputy Secretary (Marketing),
Ministry of Agriculture &
Farmers Welfare, Department
of Agriculture, Cooperation &
Farmers Welfare, Room No.
117A, 'B' Wing, Shastri
Bhawan, New Delhi within 60
days from the date of
publication of this circular.
EN 16/48

ADDENDUM
Appointment of
Director of
National Institute
of Technical
Teachers Training
and Research
Chennai
Due to COVID-19
Pandemic, to avoid
delay in postal
services, the appli-
cants may also
send a copy of their
application for the
aforementioned
position in the e-
mail ID i.e., [ts4.
edu@nic.in]
by 1st September,
2020.
DIRECTOR
EN 16/67 EN 16/49
Employment News 29 August - 4 September 2020 www.employmentnews.gov.in 25
¡Òfl ‚¥‚ÊäÊŸ •ÊÒ⁄U SÕÊÿË Áfl∑§Ê‚ ‚¥SÕÊŸ, ßU껧ʋ
INSTITUTE OF BIORESOURCES & SUSTAINABLE
DEVELOPMENT (IBSD)
DEPARTMENT OF BIOTECHNOLOGY
GOVERNMENT OF INDIA
Takyelpat, Imphal-795001, Manipur (India)
ADVERTISEMENT
Imphal, August 17, 2020.
No. IBSD/1/75/2006: Applications are invited from the qualified and
interested candidates for the following contractual positions at IBSD,
Imphal. Last date for submission of application along with the
required document is 7th September, 2020.
SI. Name of Post Monthly Emoluments
No. (Rs.)
1. Project Scientist-II 67,000/- + HRA
2. Project Scientist-I 56,000/- + HRA
3. Research Associate 47,000/- + HRA
4. Project Associate 31,000/- + HRA
Please visit http://ibsd.gov.in/ for details on number of position,
educational qualification, process for submission of application
forms etc.
(Akbar Mazid)
Senior Administrative Officer, IBSD, Imphal
EN 16/10

Ministry of Environment
Forest and Climate Change
Indira Paryavaran Bhawan, Jor Bagh Road
Ali Ganj, New Delhi
Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
requires services of suitable officer on deputation
(including short term contract)/absorption basis to fill
up the following post: -
Name of the No. of Pay Scale
post post(s)
Library and 01 Level-6 in the Pay Matrix,
Information Rs. 35,400-1,12,400/-
Assistant
2. The Ministry's website: www.moef.gov.in may be
referred to for details.
davp 13101/11/0009/2021 EN 16/60

⁄UÊ¡Ëfl ªÊ¥äÊË ⁄UÊc≈˛UËÿ Áfl◊ÊŸŸ Áfl‡flÁfllÊ‹ÿ

Rajiv Gandhi National Aviation
University
ŸÊª⁄U Áfl◊ÊŸŸ ◊¥òÊÊ‹ÿ, ÷Ê⁄Uà ‚⁄U∑§Ê⁄U ∑§ ÄUà ∞∑§ ∑¥§Œ˝Ëÿ Áfl‡flÁfllÊ‹ÿ
(A Central University under Ministry of Civil
Aviation, Govt. of India)
2013 ◊¥ ‚¥‚Œ ∑§ ∞∑§ •ÁäÊÁŸÿ◊ mUÊ⁄UÊ SÕÊÁ¬Ã
Established by an Act of Parliament in 2013
Date: 18 August 2020
No. 2-6/14-Admn.I
CORRIGENDUM Government of India
ADMISSION ANNOUNCEMENT FOR 2020 Min. of Health & Family Welfare

This refers to our earlier advertisement published in leading Office of Medical Superintendent
newspapers on 29th June, 2020 inviting applications for admission Safdarjung Hospital, New Delhi 110029
Dated: 20.08.2020
towards PGDAO & BMS in Aviation Services & Air Cargo. (VACANCY CIRCULAR)
2. Due to COVID-19 situation, the last date for online Sub:- Filling up one post of Assistant Director (Official Language).
applications is extended upto 1700 hrs on 10 September 2020 Safdarjung Hospital & VMMC, New Delhi invites the applications for filling up the post of Assistant
and no written examination will be held. Director (Official Language) in Pay Matrix Level 10 (Revised) in this institution on deputation (including
short term contract) plus promotion. The prescribed format for applying along with the detail of posts,
3. For further details please visit RGNAU website i.e. https://www. eligibility criteria, and other terms & conditions shall be available on the hospital website (www.vmmc-
rgnau.ac.in. Any corrigendum, in this regard, will be published only sjh.nic.in). Candidates are requested to apply within 60 days of time from the date of publication of
in the official website of RGNAU. advertisement & visit official website of this institution regularly for further notifications.
Registrar (Sng. Mohelas Anal)
Deputy Director (Admn.)
Rajiv Gandhi National Aviation University VMMC & Safdarjung Hospital, New Delhi
davp 03110/11/0005/2021 EN 16/61 davp 17145/11/0005/2021 EN 16/62

Sardar Vallabhbhai filling up 01 post of Junior Laboratory
Assistant in the Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Patel National Police National Police Academy, Hyderabad -
500052 purely on deputation basis.
Academy Pay, qualifications required, other
eligibility criteria for the post and
Hyderabad -500052 application form are available in Academy
Applications are invited from eligible website http:/www.svpnpa.gov.in/
vacancies.aspx. Duly filled in
officials under the Central Government
Offices/Departments/Organisations for applications, along with all supporting
documents, should reach the Assistant
Director (Estt), SVP National Police
Academy, Hyderabad 500 052 through
proper channel not later than six weeks
(42 days) from the date of publication
of this vacancy circular in the
Employment News.
(S. Ajeetha Begum)
Assistant Director (Estt)
EN 16/59
DISCLAIMER
The views expressed by the authors
in the articles published in the
Employment News are their own.
They do not necessarily reflect the
views of the government or the
organisations they work for. The
contents of the advertisements
published in the Employment News
belong to the organisation or their
representatives. The Employment
News is in no way responsible for any
liability arising out of the contents/text
of these advertisements.
26 www.employmentnews.gov.in
Question Paper Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination, 2019
Directions for the following 8
(eight) items:
Read the following seven
passages and answer the items
that follow each passage. Your
answers to these items should
be based on the passages only.
Passage -1
Political theorists no doubt have
to take history of injustice, for
example, untouchability,
seriously. The concept of
historical injustice takes note of a
variety of historical wrongs that
continue into the present in
some form or the other and tend
to resist repair. Two reasons
might account for resistance to
repair. One, not only are the
roots of injustice buried deep in
history, injustice itself constitutes
economic structures of
exploitation, ideologies of
discrimination and modes of
representation. Two, the
category of historical injustice
generally extends across a
number of wrongs such as
economic deprivation, social
discrimination and lack of
recognition. This category is
complex, not only because of the
overlap between a number of
wrongs, but because one or the
other wrong, generally
discrimination, tends to acquire
partial autonomy from others.
This is borne out by the history of
repair in India.
Q1. What is the main idea
that we can infer from the
passage?
(a) Untouchability in India has
not been taken seriously
by political theorists.
(b) Historical injustice is
inevitable in any society
and is always beyond
repair.
(c) Social discrimination and
deprivation have their roots
in bad economies.
(d) It is difficult, if not
impossible, to repair every
manifestation of historical
injustice.
Q2. On the basis of the above
passage, the following
assumptions have been
made:
1. Removal of economic
discrimination leads to
removal of social
discrimination.
2. Democratic polity is the
best way to repair historical
wrongs.
Which of the above
assumptions is/are
valid?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Passage - 2
Education plays a great
transformatory role in life,
particularly so in this rapidly
changing and globalizing world.
Universities are the custodians
of the intellectual capital and
promoters of culture and
specialized knowledge. Culture
is an activity of thought, and
receptiveness to beauty and
human feelings. A merely well
informed man is only a bore on
God's earth. What we should
aim at is producing men who
possess both culture and expert
General Studies Paper- II
knowledge. Their expert
knowledge will give them a firm
ground to start from and their
culture will lead them as deep as
philosophy and as high as art.
Together it will impart meaning to
human existence.
Q3. On the basis of the above
passage, the following
assumptions have been
made:
1. A society without well
educated people cannot be
transformed into a modern
society.
2. Without acquiring culture,
a person's education is not
complete.
Which of the above
assumptions is/are
valid?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Passage - 3
Soil, in which nearly all our, food
grows, is a living resource that
takes years to form. Yet it can
vanish in minutes. Each year 75
billion tonnes of fertile soil is lost
to erosion. That is alarming - and
not just for food producers. Soil
can trap huge quantities of
carbon dioxide in the form of
organic carbon and prevent it
from escaping into the
atmosphere.
Q4. On the basis of the above
passage, the following
assumptions have been
made:
1. Large scale soil erosion is
a major reason for
widespread food insecurity
in the world.
2. Soil erosion is mainly
anthropogenic.
3. Sustainable management
of soils helps in combating
climate change.
Which of the above
assumptions is/are
valid?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Passage - 4
Inequality is visible, even
statistically measurable in many
instances, but the economic
power that drives it is invisible
and not measurable. Like the
force of gravity, power is the
organising principle of inequality,
be it of income, or wealth,
gender, race, religion and region.
Its effects are seen in a
pervasive manner in all spheres,
but the ways in which economic
power pulls and tilts visible
economic variables remain
invisibly obscure.
Q5. On the basis of the above
passage, the following
assumptions have been
made:
1. Economic power is the
only reason for the
existence of inequality in a
society.
2. Inequality of different
kinds, income, wealth, etc.
reinforces power.
3. Economic power can be
analysed more through its
effects than by direct
empirical methods.
Which of the above
assumptions is/are
valid?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Passage 5
Climate change may actually
benefit some plants by
lengthening growing seasons
and increasing carbon dioxide.
Yet other effects of a warmer
world, such as more pests,
droughts, and flooding, will be
less benign. How will the world
adapt? Researchers project that
by 2050, suitable croplands for
four commodities - maize,
potatoes, rice and wheat - will
shift, in some cases pushing
farmers to plant new crops.
Some farmlands may benefit
from warming, but others won't.
Climate alone does not dictate
yields; political shifts, global
demand, and agricultural
practices will influence how
farms fare in the future.
Q6. Which one of the
following is the most
logical and rational
inference that can be
made from the above
passage?
(a) Farmers who modernize
their methods and diversify
their fields will be in an
advantageous position in
future.
(b) Climate change will
adversely affect the crop
diversity.
(c) Shifting major crops to new
croplands will lead to a
great increase in the total
area under cultivation and
thus an increase in overall
agricultural production.
(d) Climate change is the most
important factor affecting
the agricultural economy in
the future.
Passage-6
A bat's wings may look like
sheets of skin. But underneath, a
bat has the same five fingers as
an orangutan or a human, as
well as a wrist connected to the
same cluster of wrist bones
connected to the same long
bones of the arm. What can be
more curious than that the hand
of a man, formed for grasping,
that of a mole for digging, the leg
of the horse, the paddle of the
porpoise, and the wing of the
bat, should all be constructed on
the same pattern?
Q7. Which one of the
following is the most
logical, scientific and
rational inference that
can be made from the
above passage?
(a) Different species having
similar structure of hands
is an example of
biodiversity.
(b) Limbs being used by
different species for
different kinds of work is an
example of biodiversity.
(c) Man and the afore-
mentioned animals having
similar structure of limbs is
an example of coincidence
in evolution.
(d) Man and the afore-
mentioned animals have a
shared evolutionary
history.
Passage - 7
Around 56 million years ago, the
Employment News 29 August - 4 September 2020
Atlantic Ocean had not fully
opened and animals, perhaps
including our primate ancestors,
could walk from Asia to North
America through Europe and
across Greenland. Earth was
warmer than it is today, but as
the Palaeocene epoch gave way
to Eocene, it was about to get
much warmer still -rapidly and
radically. The cause was a
massive geologically sudden
release of carbon. During this
period called Palaeocene -
Eocene Thermal Maximum or
PETM, the carbon injected into
the atmosphere was roughly the
amount that would be injected
today if humans burned all the
Earth's reserves of coal, oil and
natural gas. The PETM lasted for
about 1,50,000 years, until the
excess carbon was reabsorbed.
It brought on drought, floods,
insect plagues and a few
extinctions. Life on Earth
survived - indeed, it prospered -
but it was drastically different.
Q8. Based on the above
passage, the following
assumptions have been
made:
1. Global warming has a
bearing on the planet's
biological evolution.
2. Separation of land masses
causes the release of huge
quantities of carbon into
the atmosphere.
3. Increased warming of
Earth's atmosphere can
change the composition of
its flora and fauna.
4. The present man-made
global warming will finally
lead to conditions similar to
those which happened 56
million years ago.
Which of the
assumptions given
above are valid?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
Q9. The number of times the
digit 5 will appear while
writing the integers from
1 to 1000 is
(a) 269 (b) 271
(c) 300 (d) 302
Q10. A solid cube is painted
yellow, blue and black
such that opposite faces
are of same colour. The
cube is then cut into 36
cubes of two different
sizes such that 32 cubes
are small and the other
four cubes are big. None
of the faces of the bigger
cubes is painted blue.
How many cubes have
only one face painted?
(a) 4 (b) 6
(c) 8 (d) 10
Q11. A and B are two heavy
steel blocks. If B is
placed on the top of A,
the weight increases by
60%. How much weight
will reduce with respect
to the total weight of A
and B, if B is removed
from the top of A?
(a) 60% (b) 45.5%
(c) 40% (d) 37.5%
Q12. Mr 'X' has three children.
The birthday of the first
child falls on the 5th
Monday of April, that of
the second one falls on
the 5th Thursday of
November. On which day
is the birthday of his
third child, which falls on
20th December?
(a) Monday (b) Thursday
(c) Saturday (d) Sunday
Q13. Consider the following
Statements and Conclu-
sions:
Statements:
1. Some rats are cats.
2. Some cats are dogs.
3. No dog is a cow.
Conclusions :
I. No cow is a cat.
II. No dog is a rat.
III. Some cats are rats.
Which of the above
conclusions is/are drawn
from the statements?
(a) I, II and III
(b) Only I and II
(c) Only III
(d) Only II and III
Q14. The number of par-
allelograms that can be
formed from a set of four
parallel lines intersecting
another set of four
parallel lines, is
(a) 18 (b) 24
(c) 32 (d) 36
Q15. In a school every student
is assigned a unique
identification number. A
student is a football
player if and only if the
identification number is
divisible by 4, whereas a
student is a cricketer if
and only if the iden-
tification number is
divisible by 6. If every
number from 1 to 100 is
assigned to a student,
then how many of them
play cricket as well as
football?
(a) 4 (b) 8
(c) 10 (d) 12
Q16. When a runner was
crossing the 12 km mark,
she was informed that
she had completed only
80% of the race. How
many kilometres was the
runner supposed to run
in this event?
(a) 14 (b) 15
(c) 16 (d) 16.5
Q17. Raju has Rs. 9000 with
him and he wants to buy
a mobile handset; but he
finds that he has only
75% of the amount
required to buy the
handset. Therefore, he
borrows 2000 from a
friend. Then
(a) Raju still does not have
enough amount to buy the
handset.
(b) Raju has exactly the same
amount as required to buy
the handset.
(c) Raju has enough amount
to buy the handset and he
will have Rs. 500 with him
after buying the handset.
(d) Raju has enough amount
to buy the handset and he
will have Rs. 1000 with him
after buying the handset.
Q18. In 2002, Meenu's age was
one-third of the age of
Meera, whereas in 2010,
Continued
Employment News 29 August - 4 September 2020 www.employmentnews.gov.in 27

Meenu's age was half the different sectors and extract in India. (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 only following conclusion(s)
age of Meera. What is monopoly rents. A large foreign 2. India will have to Passage -6 can be drawn from the
Meenu's year of birth? company providing cab service, strengthen its disaster A majority of the TB infected in above data?
(a) 1992 (b) 1994 for instance, is not a network of management capabilities. India are poor and lack sufficient 1. 40% members went for
(c) 1996 (d) 1998 cars and drivers; it is digital Which of the above nutrition, suitable housing and shopping as well as
Q19. Rakesh and Rajesh intelligence about commuting; assumptions is/are have little understanding of sightseeing.
together bought 10 balls public transport, roads, traffic, valid? prevention. TB then devastates 2. 20% members went for
and 10 rackets. Rakesh city events, personal behavioural (a) 1 only (b) 2 only families, makes the poor poorer, only shopping.
spent Rs. 1300 and characteristics of commuters (c) Both 1 and 2 particularly affects women and Select the correct
Rajesh spent Rs. 1500. If and drivers and so on. (d) Neither 1 nor 2 children, and leads to answer using the code
each racket costs three Q22. Which one of the Passage - 4 ostracisation and loss of given below:
times a ball does, then following is the most A changing climate, and the employment. The truth is that (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
what is the price of a logical and rational eventual efforts of governments even if TB does not kill them, (c) Both 1 and 2
racket? corollary to the above - (however reluctant) to deal with hunger and poverty will. Another (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Rs. 70 (b) Rs. 90 passage? it, could have a big impact on truth is that deep-seated stigma, Q32. In a school, 60%
(c) Rs. 210 (d) Rs. 240 (a) Globalization is not in the investors' returns. Companies lack of counselling, expensive students play cricket. A
Q20. In a conference, out of a interests of India as it that produce or use large treatment and lack of adequate student who does not
total 100 participants, 70 undermines its socio- amounts of fossil fuels will face support from providers and play cricket, plays
are Indians. If 60 of the economic structures. higher taxes and regulatory family, coupled with torturous football. Every football
total participants are (b) India should be careful to burdens. Some energy side-effects demotivate patients player has got a two-
vegetarian, then which of protect its digital sover- producers may find it impossible to continue treatment - with wheeler. Which of the
the following statements eignty in global trade talks. to exploit their known reserves, disastrous health consequences. following conclusions
is/are correct? (c) India should charge and be left with "stranded Q28. Which one of the cannot be drawn from
1. At least 30 Indian monopoly rents from assets" - deposits of oil and coal following is the most the above data?
participants are vegetarian. multinational companies in that have to be left in the ground. logical, rational and 1. 60% of the students do not
2. At least 10 Indian exchange for Big Data. Other industries could be crucial message have two-wheelers.
participants are non- (d) The loss of Big Data from affected by the economic conveyed by the above 2. No cricketer has a two-
vegetarian. India is proportional to the damage caused by more passage? wheeler.
Select the correct degree/value of its foreign extreme weather - storms, (a) TB is not a curable disease 3. Cricket players do not play
answer using the codes trade. floods, heat waves and in Indian circumstances. football.
given below: Q23. Which of the following is droughts. (b) Curing TB requires more Select the correct
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only most definitively implied Q26. On the basis of the above than diagnosis and answer using the code
(c) Both 1 and 2 by the above passage? passage, the following medical treatment. given below:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Big Data is the key assumptions have been (c) Government's surveillance (a) 1 and 2 only
Directions for the following 8 resource in the digital made: mechanism is deficient; (b) 2 and 3 only
(eight) items: space. 1. Governments and comp- and poor people have no (c) 1 and 3 only
Read the following six passages (b) Big economies create Big anies need to be access to treatment. (d) 1, 2 and 3
and answer the items that follow Data. adequately prepared to (d) India will be free from Q33. The ratio of a two-digit
each passage. Your answers to (c) Access to Big Data is the face the climate change. diseases like TB only when natural number to a
these items should be based on prerogative of developed 2. Extreme weather events its poverty alleviation number formed by
the passages only. countries. will reduce the economic programmes are effectively reversing its digits is 4 :
Passage -1 (d) Access to and possession growth of governments and successfully 7. The number of such
Low-end IoT (Internet of Things) of Big Data is a and companies in future. implemented. pairs is
devices are cheap commodity characteristic of developed 3. Ignoring climate change is Q29. A five-storeyed building (a) 5 (b) 4
items: addressing security would countries. a huge risk for investors. with floors from I to V is (c) 3 (d) 2
add to the cost. This class of Passage-3 Which of the above painted using four Q34. In an examination, A has
items is proliferating with new The rural poor across the world, assumptions is/are different colours and scored 20 marks more
applications; many home including India, have contributed valid? only one colour is used than B. If B has scored
appliances, thermostats, security little to human-induced climate (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only to paint a floor. 5% less marks than A,
and monitoring devices and change, yet they are on the (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Consider the following how much has B scored?
personal convenience devices frontline in coping with its effects. Passage 5 statements: (a) 360 (b) 380
are part of the IoT. So are, fitness Farmers can no longer rely on Access to schooling for those 1. The middle three floors are (c) 400 (d) 420
trackers, certain medical historical averages for rainfall coming of school age is close to painted in different colours. Q35. Seeta and Geeta go for a
implants and computer-like and temperature, and the more universal, but access to quality 2. The second (II) and the swim after a gap of every
devices in automobiles. The IoT frequent and extreme weather exhibits a sharp gradient with fourth (IV) floors are 2 days and every 3 days
is expected to expand events, such as droughts and socio-economic status. Quotas painted in different colours. respectively. If on 1st
exponentially - but new security floods, can spell disaster. And for the weaker sections in private 3. The first (I) and the fifth (V) January both of them
challenges are daunting. there are new threats, such as schools is a provision introduced floors are painted red. To went for a swim together,
Q21. Which one of the sea level rise and the impact of by the Right of Children to Free ensure that any two when will they go
following statements is melting glaciers on water supply. and Compulsory Education Act, consecutive floors have together next?
the most logical and How significant are small farms? 2009. The quotas have imposed different colours (a) 7th January
rational inference that As many as two billion people a debate on issues of social (a) Only statement 2 is (b) 8th January
can be made from the worldwide depend on them for integration and equity in sufficient (c) 12th January
above passage? their food and livelihood. Small- education that private actors had (b) Only statement 3 is (d) 13th January
(a) Development of enabling holder farmers in India produce escaped by and large. The idea sufficient Q36. X, Y and Z are three
technologies in India can 41 percent of the country's food of egalitarian education system (c) Statement 1 is not contestants in a race of
be a big boost to its grains, and other food, items that with equality of opportunity as its sufficient, but statement 1 1000 m. Assume that all
manufacturing sector. contribute to local and national primary goal appears to be along with statement 2 is run with different uni-
(b) India is not yet fully ready food security. outside the space that private sufficient form speeds. X gives Y a
to adopt IoT in view of the Q24. What is the most logical school principals inhabit. (d) Statement 3 is not start of 40 m and X gives
imminent security chall- and rational corollary to Therefore, the imposition of the sufficient, but statement 3 Z a start of 64 m. If Y and
enges. the above passage? quotas has led to resistance, along with statement 2 is Z were to compete in a
(c) Life becomes more (a) Supporting small farmers sometimes justified. sufficient race of 1000 m, how
comfortable with the is an important part of any Q27. With reference to the Q30. P, Q and R are three many metres start will Y
development of cheap low- agenda regarding enviro- above passage, the towns. The distance give to Z?
end IoT devices. nmentally sustainable following assumptions between P and Q is 60 (a) 20 (b) 25
(d) As we go digital, we must development. have been made: km, whereas the (c) 30 (d) 35
recognise the huge threat (b) Poor countries have little 1. Making equality of distance between P and Q37. If x is greater than or
to Internet security from role to play in the opportunity a reality is the R is 80 km. Q is in the equal to 25 and y is less
some IoT devices. mitigation of global fundamental goal of the West of P and R is in the than or equal to 40, then
Passage - 2 warming. Indian education system. South of P. What is the which one of the
With the digital phenomenon (c) Due to a large number of 2. The present Indian school distance between Q and following is always
restructuring most social farmer households, India system is unable to provide R? correct?
sectors, it is little surprise that will not have food security egalitarian education. (a) 140 km (b) 130 km (a) x is greater than y
global trade negotiations are problem in the foreseeable 3. Abolition of private schools (c) 110 km (d) 100 km (b) (y-x) is greater than 15
now eyeing the digital area in an future. and establishment of more Q31. All members of a club (c) (y-x) is less than or equal
attempt to pre-emptively (d) Only small-holder farmers government schools is the went to Mumbai and to 15
colonise it. Big Data is freely in India can ensure food only way to ensure stayed in a hotel. On the (d) (x + y) is greater than or
collected or mined from security. egalitarian education. first day, 80% went for equal to 65
developing countries, and Q25. The above passage Which of the above shopping and 50% went Q38. Ena was born 4 years
converted into digital intelligence implies that assumptions is/are for sightseeing, whereas after her parents'
in developed countries. This 1. There is a potential valid? 10% took rest in the marriage. Her mother is
intelligence begins to control problem of food insecurity (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only hotel. Which of the three years younger than
28 www.employmentnews.gov.in
her father and 24 years
older than Ena, who is 13
years old. At what age
did Ena's father get
married?
(a) 22 years (b) 23 years
(c) 24 years (d) 25 years
Q39. Rakesh had money to
buy 8 mobile handsets of
a specific company. But
the retailer offered very
good discount on that
particular handset.
Rakesh could buy 10
mobile handsets with the
amount he had. What
was the discount the
retailer offered?
(a) 15% (b) 20%
(c) 25% (d) 30%
Q40. The average marks of
100 students are given to
be 40. It was found later
that marks of one
student were 53 which
were misread as 83. The
corrected mean marks
are
(a) 39 (b) 39.7
(c) 40 (d) 40.3
Directions for the following 7
(seven) items:
Read the following six passages
and answer the items that follow
each passage. Your answers to
these items should be based on
the passages only.
Passage -1
What stands in the way of the
widespread and careful adoption
of 'Genetic Modification (GM)'
technology is an 'Intellectual
Property Rights' regime that
seeks to create private
monopolies for such
technologies. If GM technology
is largely corporate driven, it
seeks to maximize profits and
that too in the short run. That is
why corporations make major
investments for herbicide-
tolerant and pest-resistant crops.
Such properties have only a
short window, as soon enough,
pests and weeds will evolve to
overcome such resistance. This
suits the corporations. The
National Farmers Commission
pointed out that priority must be
given in genetic modification to
the incorporation of genes that
can help impart resistance to
drought, salinity and other
stresses.
Q41. Which one of the
following is the most
logical, rational and
crucial message
conveyed by the above
passage?
(a) Public research institutions
should take the lead in GM
technology and prioritise
the technology agenda.
(b) Developing countries
should raise this issue in
WTO and ensure the
abolition of Intellectual
Property Rights.
(c) Private corporations
should not be allowed to
do agribusiness in India,
particularly the seed
business.
(d) Present Indian circum-
stances do not favour the
cultivation of genetically
modified crops.
Q42. On the basis of the above
passage, the following
assumptions have been
made:
1. The issue of effects of
natural calamities on
agriculture is not given due
consideration by GM
technology companies.
2. In the long run, GM
technology will not be able
to solve agricultural
problems arising due to
global warming.
Which of the above
assumptions is/are
valid?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Passage - 2
Most invasive species are
neither terribly successful nor
very harmful. Britain's invasive
plants are not widespread, not
spreading especially quickly, and
often less of a nuisance than
vigorous natives such as
bracken. The arrival of new
species almost always increases
biological diversity in a region; in
many cases, a flood of
newcomers drives no native
species to extinction. One
reason is that invaders tend to
colonise disturbed habitats like
polluted lakes and post-industrial
wasteland, where little else lives.
They are nature's opportunists.
Q43. Which one of the
following is the most
logical and rational
inference that can be
made from the above
passage?
(a) Invasive species should be
used to rehabilitate desert
areas and wastelands of a
country.
(b) Laws against the
introduction of foreign
plants are unnecessary.
(c) Sometimes, the camp-
aigns against foreign
plants are pointless.
(d) Foreign plants should be
used to increase the
biodiversity of a country.
Passage - 3
Diarrhoeal deaths among Indian
children are mostly due to food
and water contamination. Use of
contaminated groundwater and
unsafe chemicals in agriculture,
poor hygiene in storage and
handling of food items to food
cooked and distributed in
unhygienic surroundings; there
are myriad factors that need
regulation and monitoring.
People need to have awareness
of adulteration and ways of
complaining to the relevant
authorities. Surveillance of food-
borne diseases involves a
number of government agencies
and entails a good training of
inspection staff. Considering the
proportion of the urban
population that depends on
street food for its daily meals,
investing in training and
education of street vendors is of
great significance.
Q44. On the basis of the above
passage, the following
assumptions have been
made:
1. Food safety is a complex
issue that calls for a
multipronged solution.
2. Great investments need to
be made in developing the
manpower for surveillance
and training.
3. India needs to make -
sufficient legislation for
governing food processing
industry.
Which of the above
assumptions is/are
valid?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Passage - 4
The interests of working and
poor people have historically
been neglected in the planning
of our cities. Our cities are
increasingly intolerant, unsafe
and unlivable places for large
numbers of citizens and yet we
continue to plan via the old ways
- the static Development Plan-
that draws exclusively from
technical expertise, distanced
from people's live experiences
and needs, and actively
excluding large number of
people, places, activities and
practices that are an integral part
of the city.
Q45. The passage seems to
argue
(a) against the monopoly of
builders and the interests
of elite groups.
(b) against the need for global
and smart cities.
(c) in favour of planning cities
mainly for working class
and poor people.
(d) in favour of participation of
peoples' groups in city
planning.
Passage - 5
A vast majority of Indians are
poor, with barely 10 percent
employed in the organised
sector. We are being convinced
that vigorous economic growth is
generating substantial
employment. But this is not so.
When our economy was growing
at 3 percent per year,
employment in the organised
sector was growing at 2 percent
per year. As the economy began
to grow at 7 - 8 percent per year,
the rate of growth of employment
in the organised sector actually
declined to 1 percent per year.
Q46. The above passage
seems to imply that
1. most of modern economic
growth is based on
technological progress.
2. much of modern Indian
economy does not nurture
sufficient symbiotic
relationship with labour-
intensive, natural reso-
urce-based livelihoods.
3. service sector in India is
not very labour-intensive.
4. literate rural population is
not willing to enter
organised sector.
Which of the statements
given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Passage - 6
India has banking correspon-
dents, who help bring people in
the hinterland into the banking
fold. For them to succeed, banks
cannot crimp on costs. They also
cannot afford to ignore investing
in financial education and
literacy. Banking correspondents
are way too small to be viewed
as a systemic risk. Yet India's
banking regulator has restricted
them to serving only one bank,
perhaps to prevent arbitrage.
Efforts at banking outreach may
Employment News 29 August - 4 September 2020
succeed only if there are better
incentives at work for such last-
mile workers and also those
providers who ensure not just
basic bank accounts but also
products such as accident and
life insurance and micro pension
schemes.
Q47. Which one of the
following is the most
logical, rational and
crucial inference that can
be derived from the
above passage?
(a) Efforts to bring people in
India's hinterland into the
banking system are not
successful.
(b) For meaningful financial
inclusion, India's banking
system needs more
number of banking
correspondents and other
such last-mile workers.
(c) Meaningful financial
inclusion in India requires
that banking correspon-
dents have diverse skills.
(d) Better banking outreach
would be impossible
unless each banking
correspondent is allowed
to serve a number of
banks.
48. What is X in the
sequence
132, 129, 124, 117, 106,
93, X?
(a) 74 (b) 75
(c) 76 (d) 77
Q49. A wall clock moves 10
minutes fast in every 24
hours. The clock was set
right to show the correct
time at 8:00 a.m. on
Monday. When the clock
shows the time 6:00 p.m.
on Wednesday, what is
the correct time?
(a) 5:36 p.m. (b) 5:30 p.m.
(c) 5:24 p.m. (d) 5:18 p.m.
Q50. If the numerator and
denominator of a proper
fraction are increased by
the same positive
quantity which is greater
than zero, the resulting
fraction is
(a) always less than the
original fraction
(b) always greater than the
original fraction
(c) always equal to the original
fraction
(d) such that nothing can be
claimed definitely
Q51. What is X in the
sequence
4, 196, 16, 144, 36, 100,
64, X?
(a) 48 (b) 64
(c) 125 (d) 256
Q52. In a group of 15 people; 7
can read French, 8 can
read English while 3 of
them can read neither of
these two languages.
The number of people
who can read exactly one
language is
(a) 10 (b) 9
(c) 5 (d) 4
Q53. A printer numbers the
pages of a book starting
with 1 and uses 3089
digits in all. How many
pages does the book
have?
(a) 1040 (b) 1048
(c) 1049 (d) 1050
Q54. Consider the following
sequence that follows
some arrangement :
c_accaa_aa_bc_b
The letters that appear in
the gaps are
(a) abba (b) cbbb
(c) bbbb (d) cccc
Q55. A family has two children
along with their parents.
The average of the
weights of the children
and their mother is 50 kg.
The average of the
weights of the children
and their father is 52 kg.
If the weight of the father
is 60 kg, then what is the
weight of the mother?
(a) 48 kg (b) 50 kg
(c) 52 kg (d) 54 kg
Q56. Suppose you have
sufficient amount of
rupee currency in three
denominations: Rs. 1,
Rs. 10 and Rs. 50. In how
many different ways can
you pay a bill of Rs. 107?
(a) 16 (b) 17
(c) 18 (d) 19
Q57. 'A' started from his
house and walked 20 m
towards East, where his
friend 'B' joined him.
They together walked 10
m in the same direction.
Then 'A' turned left while
‘B’ turned right and
travelled 2 m and 8 m
respectively. Again 'B'
turned' left to travel 4 m
followed by 5 m to his
right to reach his office.
'A' turned right and
travelled 12 m to reach
his office. What is the
shortest distance bet-
ween the two offices?
(a) 15 m (b) 17 m
(c) 19 m (d) 20 m
Q58. Consider two statements
S1 and S2 followed by a
question
S1: p and q both are prime
numbers.
S2: p + q is an odd integer.
Question: Is pq an odd integer?
Which one of the
following is correct?
(a) S1 alone is sufficient to
answer the question
(b) S2 alone is sufficient to
answer the question
(c) Both S1 and S2 taken
together are not sufficient
to answer the question
(d) Both S1 and S2 are
necessary to answer the
question
Q59. Which year has the same
calendar as that of 2009?
(a) 2018 (b) 2017
(c) 2016 (d) 2015
Q60. Number 136 is added to
5B7 and the sum
obtained is 7A3, where A
and B are integers. It is
given that 7A3 is exactly
divisible by 3. The only
possible value of B is
(a) 2 (b) 5
(c) 7 (d) 8
Directions for the following 7
(seven) items:
Read the following five passages
and answer the items that follow
each passage. Your answers to
these items should be based on
the passages only.
Passage -1
India's economic footprint, given
its population, still remains small
compared to the US, the
European Union or China. It has
much to learn from other
economies, yet must implement
Employment News 29 August - 4 September 2020
solutions that fit its unique
circumstances. India especially
needs an effective long-term
regulatory system based on
collaboration rather than the
current top-down approach.
Regulations seek desirable
outcomes yet are repeatedly
used as political tools to push
one agenda or another. Often,
regulations fail to consider
impacts on jobs and economic
growth - or less restrictive
alternatives. Regulations may be
used to protect local markets at
the expense of more widely
shared prosperity in the future.
Additionally, regulations
inevitably result in numerous
unintended consequences. In
today's hyper competitive global
economy, regulations need to be
viewed as "weapons" that seek
cost-justified social and
environmental benefits while
improving the economic well-
being of most citizens.
Q61. Which one of
following is the most
logical, rational and
crucial inference that can
be derived from the
above passage?
(a) A better regulatory system
will help India achieve the
size of economy appro-
priate to its population.
(b) In a competitive global
economy, India must use
regulations strategically.
(c) Regulations in India do not
favour its integration with
today's hyper competitive
global economy.
(d) Job creation and economic
'growth should
dominant considerations in
developing India's
regulatory system.
Q62. On the basis of the above
passage, the following
assumptions have been
made:
In today's global
economy,
1. regulations are
effectively used to protect
local markets.
2. social and environmental
concerns are generally
ignored by
governments across the
world while implementing
the regulations.
Which of the above
assumptions is/are
valid?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Passage - 2
In a study, scientists compared
the microbiomes of poorly
nourished and well nourished
infants and young children. Gut
microbes were isolated from
faecal samples of malnourished
and healthy children. The
microbiome was "immature" and
less diverse in malnourished
children compared to the better
developed "mature" microbiome
found in healthy children of the
same age. According to some
studies, the chemical
composition of mother's milk has
shown the presence of a
modified sugar (sialylated
oligosaccharides). This is not
utilized by the baby for its own
nutrition. However, the bacteria
Answer keys will be published in next issue
www.employmentnews.gov.in 29
constituting the infant's excreted remains of those meals depend on our ability to (three) items:
microbiome thrive on this sugar that accumulated over the time, preserve the locally Read the following information
which serves as their food. provide us an insight into the cultivated varieties of and answer the three items that
Malnourished mothers have low composition and structure of crops. follow:
levels of this sugar in their milk. small mammals over the past Which of the above Six students A, B, C, D, E and F
Consequently, the microbiomes millennia. The research assumptions are valid? appeared in several tests. Either
of their infants fail to mature. suggested that when the Earth (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 C or F scores the highest.
That in turn, leads to went through a period of rapid (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 4 Whenever C scores the highest,
malnourished babies. warming about 13,000 years Q68. If every alternative letter then E scores the least.
Q63. Which one of the ago, the small mammal of the English alphabet Whenever F scores the highest,
following is the most community was stable and from B onwards B scores the least.
logical, rational and resilient. But, from the last (including B) is written in In all the tests they got different
crucial inference that can quarter- of the nineteenth lower case (small letters) marks; D scores higher than A,
be derived from the century, human-made changes and the remaining letters but they are close competitors; A
above passage? to the environment had caused are capitalized, then how scores higher than B; C scores
(a) If malnourished condition an enormous drop in biomass is the first month of the higher than A.
in children is caused by gut and energy flow. This dramatic second half of the year Q76. If F stands second in the
bacteria, it cannot be decline in energy flow means written ? ranking, then the
treated. modern ecosystems are not (a) JuLY (b) jULy position of B is
(b) The guts of malnourished adapting as easily as they did in (c) jUly (d) jULY (a) Third (b) Fourth
babies should be the past. Q69. Sunita cuts a sheet of (c) Fifth (d) Sixth
inoculated with mature Q66. On the basis of the above paper into three pieces. Q77. If B scores the least, the
microbiomes. passage, the following Length of first piece is rank of C will be
(c) Babies of malnourished assumptions have been equal to the average of (a) Second (b) Third
mothers should be fed with made: the three single digit odd (c) Fourth
dairy milk fortified with 1. Global warming is a prime numbers. Length (d) Second or third
sialylated oligosaccharides frequently occurring of the second piece is Q78. If E is ranked third, then
the instead of mother's milk. natural phenomenon. equal to that of the first which one of the
(d) Research on benign 2. The impending global plus one-third the length following is correct ?
effects of gut bacteria on warming will not adversely of the third. The third (a) E gets more marks than C
nutrition has policy affect small mammals. piece is as long as the (b) C gets more marks than E
implications. 3. Humans are responsible other two pieces (c) A is ranked fourth
Q64. On the basis of the above for the loss of the Earth's together. The length of (d) D is ranked fifth
passage, the following natural resilience. the original sheet of Directions for the following 2
assumptions have been Which of the above paper is (two) items:
made: assumptions is/are (a) 13 units (b) 15 units Read the following statements
1. Processed probiotic foods valid? (c) 16 units (d) 30 units S1 and S2 and answer the two
are a solution to treat the (a) 1 and 2 only Q70. In the sequence 1, 5, 7, 3, items that follow:
children suffering, from (b) 3 only 5, 7, 4, 3, 5, 7, how many S1: Twice the weight of Sohan is
malnutrition due to (c) 2 and 3 only such 5s are there which less than the weight of
immature gut bacteria (d) 1, 2 and 3 are not immediately Mohan or that of Rohan.
composition. Passage -5 preceded by 3 but are S2 : Twice the weight of Rohan is
2. The babies of Food varieties extinction is immediately followed by greater than the weight of
malnourished mothers happening all over the world - 7? Mohan or that of Sohan.
generally tend to be and it is happening fast. For (a) 1 (b) 2 Q79. Which one of the
malnourished. example, of the 7,000 apple (c) 3 (d) None following statements is
be
Which of the above varieties that were grown during Q71. A joint family consists of correct?
assumptions is/are the nineteenth century, fewer seven members A, B, C, (a) Weight of Mohan is
valid? than a hundred remain. In the D, E, F and G with three greatest
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Philippines, thousands of females. G is a widow (b) Weight of Sohan is
(c) Both 1 and 2 varieties of rice once thrived; and sister-in-law of D's greatest
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 now only up to a hundred are father F. B and D are (c) Weight of Rohan is
Passage - 3 grown there. In China, 90 siblings and A is greatest
Temperatures have risen nearly percent of the wheat varieties daughter of B. C is (d) Whose weight is greatest'
five times as rapidly on the cultivated just a century ago cousin of B. Who is E? cannot be determined
Western Antarctic Peninsula have disappeared. Farmers in 1. Wife of F Q80. Which one of the
not
than the global average over the the past painstakingly bred and 2. Grandmother of A following statements is
past five decades. Researchers developed crops well suited to 3. Aunt of C correct ?
have now found that melting the peculiarities of their local Select the correct (a) Weight of Mohan is least
glaciers are causing a loss of climate and environment. In the answer using the code (b) Weight of Sohan is least
species diversity among benthos recent past, our heavy given below: (c) Weight of Rohan is least
the
in the coastal waters off the dependence on a few high (a) 1 and 2 only (d) 'Whose weight is least'
Antarctic Peninsula, impacting yielding varieties and (b) 2 and 3 only cannot be determined
an entire seafloor ecosystem. technology-driven production (c) 1 and 3 only
They believe increased levels of and distribution of food is (d) 1, 2 and 3
suspended sediment in water to causing the dwindling of diversity Q72. Each face of a cube can Employment News
be the cause of the dwindling in food crops. If some mutating be painted in black or
biodiversity in the coastal region. crop disease or future climate white colours. In how Deepika Kachhal
Q65. On the basis of the above change decimates the few crop many different ways can General Manager
passage, the following plants we have come to depend the cube be painted?
Hasan Zia, Senior Editor
assumptions have been on to feed our growing (a) 9 (b) 10
population, we might (c) 11 (d) 12 Ambrish B. Kishore, Editor
made:
desperately need some of those Q73. How many triplets (x, y, Shikha Baraily, Editor
1. Regions of glaciers warm
varieties we have let go extinct. z) satisfy the equation x
faster than other regions Ikra Khan, Editor (Advt.)
Q67. On the basis of the above + y + z = 6, where x, y and
due to global warming.
passage, the following z are natural numbers? P.K. Mandal, Sr. Artist
2. Global warming can lead to
assumptions have been (a) 4 (b) 5 Employment News
seafloor sedimentation in
made: (c) 9 (10)
some areas. 7th Floor, Soochna Bhawan,
3. Melting glaciers can 1. Humans have been the Q74. If $ means 'divided by';
main reason for the large @ means 'multiplied by'; C.G.O Complex Lodhi Road
reduce marine biodiversity
in some areas. scale extinction of plant # means 'minus', then New Delhi-110003
Which of the above species. the value of 10#5@1$5 is e-mail:
assumptions is/are 2. Consumption of food (a) 0 (b) 1
director.employmentnews
valid? mainly from locally (c) 2 (d) 9
(a) 1 and 2 only cultivated crops ensures Q75. An 8-digit number @gmail.com
(b) 3 only crop diversity. 4252746B leaves Advertisement :
(c) 2 and 3 only 3. The present style of remainder 0 when
enewsadvt@yahoo.com
(d) 1, 2 and 3 production and distribution divided by 3. How many
of food will finally lead to values of B are possible? Editorial : 24369443
Passage - 4
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30 www.employmentnews.gov.in
NATIONAL RECRUITMENT AGENCY: NEW GATEWAY ...
Continued from page 1
Department of Personnel and Training
(DoPT), told during a press conference
that outreach services will be provided;
based on information, areas not throwing
up many candidates will be reached out
to; exams will be promoted and helpline
will be set up for assisting candidates. He
further said special provisions have been
made, because in the aspirational
districts, the infrastructure is very poor.
Therefore to create the necessary
infrastructure, connectivity as well as the
examination infrastructure, viability gap
funding is also being provided for in these
117 districts.
Advantages of Common Eligibility
Test
The NRA will conduct Common
Eligibility Test (CET) having a common
curriculum to screen or shortlist
candidates for the Group B and C (non-
technical) posts. The NRA will conduct
separate CETs each for the three levels of
graduate, higher secondary (12th pass)
and the matriculate (10th pass)
candidates. At present, candidates
seeking government jobs have to appear
for separate examinations conducted by
multiple recruiting agencies for various
posts, for which similar eligibility
conditions have been prescribed.
Candidates have to pay fee to multiple
recruiting agencies and also have to
travel long distances for appearing in
various exams. These multiple
recruitment examinations are a burden on
the candidates, as also on the respective
recruitment agencies, involving
avoidable/ repetitive expenditure, law and
order/security related issues and venue
related problems. On an average, 2.5
crore to 3 crore candidates appear in
each of these examinations. The CET
would enable these candidates to appear
once and apply to any or all of these
recruitment agencies for the higher level
of examination.
Access to Examination Centres
It has been envisioned that there would
be at least one CET examination centre in
every District of the country in order to
provide access to candidates at a place
nearer to where they reside. Initially, 117
aspirational districts have been identified
to set up such examination centres. The
benefits in terms of cost, effort, safety and
much more would be immense. It will not
only ease access to rural candidates, it
will also motivate the rural candidates
residing in the far-flung areas to take the
examination and thereby, enhance their
Employment News 29 August - 4 September 2020
representation in Central Government
jobs.
Major Relief to Poor/Rural/Women
Candidates
Presently, the candidates have to
appear in multiple examinations
conducted by multiple agencies. Apart
from the examination fees, candidates
have to incur additional expenses for
travel, boarding, lodging and other such
expenses. A single examination would
reduce the financial burden on candidates
to a large extent. Moreover, given the
financial and other constraints, the
candidates from rural background have to
make a choice as to which examination
they want to appear in. Under the NRA,
the candidates by appearing in one
examination will get an opportunity to
compete for many posts. NRA will
conduct the first-level/Tier I Examination
which is the stepping stone for many
other selections. Also, Women Scheduling Tests and Choosing However, over a period of time it is
candidates, especially from rural areas, Centres expected that other recruitment agencies
face constraints in appearing in multiple in the Central Government would adopt
Candidates would have the facility of
the same. Further, it would be open for
examinations as they have to arrange for registering on a common portal and give a
other agencies in the public as well as
transportation and places to stay in choice of centres. Based on availability,
private domain to adopt it if they so
destinations that are far away. They they would be allotted centres. The
choose. Thus, in the long run, the CET
sometimes have to find suitable persons ultimate aim is to reach a stage wherein score could be shared with other
candidates can schedule their own tests recruiting agencies in the Central
at centres of their choice. Government, State Governments/Union
Territories, Public Sector Undertaking and
Standardised Testing
Private Sector. This would help such
NRA shall conduct a separate CET
organizations in saving costs and time
each for the three levels of graduate, spent on recruitment.
higher secondary (12th pass) and the
Shortening the Recruitment Cycle
matriculate (10th pass) candidates for
A single eligibility test would
those non-technical posts to which
significantly reduce the recruitment cycle.
recruitment is presently carried out by the
Some Departments have indicated their
Staff Selection Commission (SSC), the
intention to do away with any second level
Railway Recruitment Boards (RRBs) and
test and go ahead with recruitment on the
by the Institute of Banking Personnel
basis of CET scores, physical tests and
Selection (IBPS). Based on the
medical examination. This would greatly
screening done at the CET score level,
reduce the cycle and benefit a large
final selection for recruitment shall be
section of youth.
to accompany them to these centres. The
location of test centres in every district
would greatly benefit candidates from
rural areas in general and women
candidates in particular.
Multiple Languages
The CET would be available in a
number of languages. This would greatly
facilitate people from different parts of the
country to take the exam and have an
equal opportunity of being selected.
CET Score to be Valid for Three
Years, No Bar on Attempts
The CET score of the candidate shall
be valid for a period of three years from
the date of declaration of the result. The
best of the valid scores shall be deemed made through separate specialised Tiers
Government recruitment exams have
to be the current score of the candidate. (II, III etc) of examination which shall be
different schedules, application processes
There shall be no restriction on the conducted by the respective recruitment
and fees; malpractices take place due to
number of attempts to be taken by a agencies. The curriculum for this test
infrastructural challenges; rural, women
candidate to appear in the CET subject to would be common as would be the
standard. This would greatly ease the and divyang candidates face a lot of
the upper age limit. Relaxation in the
burden of candidates who are at present impediments in appearing for exams. It is
upper age limit shall be given to
required to prepare for each of the expected that the setting up of the multi-
candidates of SC/ST/OBC and other
examinations separately as per different agency National Recruitment Agency will
categories as per the extant policy of the
curriculum. go a long way in eliminating these
Government. This would go a long way in
Scores - Access to Multiple challenges, thereby ushering in a new era
mitigating the hardship of candidates who
Recruitment Agencies of good governance through
spend a considerable amount of time,
money and effort preparing and giving transparency.
Initially the scores would be used by the
these examinations every year. three major recruitment agencies. -EN Team/PIB
Employment News 29 August - 4 September 2020 www.employmentnews.gov.in 31

EN 16/7

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The views expressed by the authors in the articles published in the
Employment News are their own. They do not necessarily reflect the
views of the government or the organisations they work for. The contents
of the advertisements published in the Employment News belong to the
organisation or their representatives. The Employment News is in no way
responsible for any liability arising out of the contents/text of these
advertisements.
DELHI POSTAL REGD. NO. DL-SW-05/4101/18-20U(C)-108/18-20 Licensed to Post without prepayment RNI 28728/1976 Delhi RMS, Delhi-110006 28/29.8.2020 Date of Publishing : 21.8.2020 (` 12.00)

Air Surcharge 20p for Srinagar, Leh, Kalimpong, Imphal, Dimapur, Agartala, Duliajan, Karimganj, Chabua, Diphu, Dibrugarh, Tezpur, Haillakandi, Mariani, Jorhat, Shillong, Digboi, Silchar, Port Blair

32 www.employmentnews.gov.in Employment News 29 August - 4 September 2020

News Digest
NATIONAL said even during pandemic lockdown, India

„ India Augments COVID Testing Capacity; Nears 1 Million Tests/ took care not to disturb the world food supply

Day Target chain and continued to export. The exports of

Agri commodities during March to June were
India is continuously stepping up its COVID testing capacity. With a record testing
25552.7 Crore rupees against an export of
of nearly 9 lakh samples in a day, the nation has achieved another milestone. The
20734.8 Crores during the same period in
remarkable feat has been achieved by rigorously following the "Test, Track and
2019. The agricultural exports as a percentage
Treat" strategy. The positivity rate has also witnessed a steady decline which
of India's agricultural GDP has increased from
stands at around 7.72 percent. Health Secretary said that the strong determinant
9.4 percent in 2017-18 to 9.9 percent in 2018-19. While the agricultural imports as
of this milestone has been a sustained expansion of testing labs across the country.
a percentage of India's agricultural GDP has declined from 5.7 percent to 4.9
From merely one lab in January this year, the country today has 1 thousand 476
percent indicating exportable surplus and decreased dependence on import of
labs. Out of these, 971 are government labs while the remaining 505 are private
agricultural products in India. Self-reliant agriculture is critical for attaining the goal
labs. Meanwhile, head of the Empowered Group on COVID response, Dr. V.K. Paul
of an Atmanirbhar Bharat. Exports have also resulted in increased production in the
informed that India is working on three different vaccines for COVID-19. One of the
agriculture sector by increasing area coverage and productivity.
vaccines has entered into third phase of trial while the remaining two are in first and
second phase of human trial. The government is also working alongwith private INTERNATIONAL
partners on developing a robust supply chain in the country for large scale vacci- „ Joe Biden Officially Accepts US Presidential Nomination
nation. US Democrat Joe Biden has officially accepted
„ Indore Bags Cleanest City Award the presidential nomination of his party.
Indore in Madhya Pradesh has been awarded as Addressing the Democratic National Conven-
the cleanest city in the country in the Swachh- tion at Delaware, the former Vice President
Survekshan 2020 awards. The city bagged the said, he will draw on the best of America and
position for the fourth consecutive time. Among overcome this season of darkness if elected
the towns along the banks of river Ganga, over rival Donald Trump. He urged the Ameri-
Varanasi has been conferred with the cleanest can voters to come together to overcome a season of darkness that has cloaked
town award. New Delhi has been awarded as the the country for much too long. Biden was introduced by a video that went through
cleanest capital city in the country. Chhattisgarh the former Vice President's life, and career, and highlighted his role as a father,
was awarded the first place in the states with over 100 cities while Jharkhand husband and political leader. Meanwhile, Senator Kamal Harris has become the
bagged an award for being the cleanest state in the category of states with less first Indian American to accept the Vice Presidential nomination for Democratic
than 100 cities. Jalandhar Cantonment Board was conferred the cleanest canton- Party.
ment board in the country. Ahmedabad in Gujarat was awarded for being the clean- „ Mali Prez Ibrahim Boubacar Keita Resigns amid Military Coup
est city with over 40 lakh population. President of Mali Ibrahim Boubacar Keita
„ SC Refuses to direct Transfer of PM CARES Fund to NDRF announced his resignation on state television hours
The Supreme Court has refused to direct the transfer of money collected under the after mutinous soldiers fired shots into the air
PM CARES Fund set up for COVID-19 relief to the National Disaster Response outside his home before detaining him. The dra-
Fund (NDRF). The Bench of Justices Ashok Bhushan, R. Subshash Reddy and MR matic development comes after more than two
Shah held that contributions to the PM CARES were Fund of a charitable trust. The months of regular demonstrations calling for him to
Court said that there was no statutory prohibition on contributions made to the step down three years before his final term was due to end. Keita, who was dem-
NDRF. The Bench further clarified that funds collected under the PM CARES Fund ocratically elected and re-elected, was left with few choices after the mutinous sol-
are entirely different from the NDRF. On the petitioner's prayer to set up a Nation- diers seized weapons from the armory in the garrison town of Kati and then
al Plan for COVID-19, the Apex Court held that plan prepared by the Centre is suf- advanced on the capital of Bamako.
ficient to cater to the pandemic. SPORTS
„ IIT Madras Retains Top Position among Innovative Institutions „ MS Dhoni, Suresh Raina Quit International Cricket
Indian Institute of Technology, Madras has retained the Former Indian Cricket Team Skipper
number-one position in the list of top innovative edu- Mahendra Singh Dhoni announced
cational institutes in India for the second consecutive his retirement from International
year. The premier institute was ranked number-one in Cricket. In a social media post, he
the 'Atal Ranking of Institutions on Innovation Achieve- thanked everyone for their immense
ments,' released by Vice President Venkaiah Naidu, in support and love throughout his
presence of Union Minister of Education, Ramesh career. Under his captaincy, India
Pokhriyal ‘Nishank’. The ranking was launched last won the 2007 ICC World Twenty- 20,
year by the Innovation Cell of the Ministry of Education. 674 institutions of nation- the 2010 and 2016 Asia Cups, the

al importance, central universities and centrally funded technical institutions partic- 2011 ICC Cricket World Cup and the 2013 ICC Champions Trophy. A right-handed

ipated in the rankings this year, as compared to 496 last year.
ECONOMY
„ India's Foreign Reserves Touch New All Time High of USD
538.191 Billion
India's foreign exchange reserves have surged by USD 3.623 billion to reach a new
all-time high of USD 538.191 billion in the week ended August 7, 2020. Foreign cur-
rency assets, a major part of the overall reserves, rose by USD 1.464 billion to USD
492.293 billion. In the previous week, the reserves had increased by USD 11.938
billion to end at USD 534.568 billion. Gold reserves went up by USD 2.160 billion
to end at USD 39.785 billion. India's special drawing rights with the International
Monetary Fund rose by USD 6 million to reach USD 1.481 billion, while the
country's reserve position, however declined by USD 7 million to USD 4.632 billion.
„ Agri Exports Increase by over 23 Percent
Exports of agricultural commodities during March to June this year have increased
by 23.24 percent compared to corresponding period in 2019. Agriculture Ministry
middle-order batsman and wicket-keeper, Dhoni is one of the highest run scorers
in One Day Internationals (ODIs) with a formidable score of more than 10 thousand
runs. Suresh Raina, another Indian Cricketer has also announced his retirement
from International Cricket. In a social media post, he said, it was always a pleas-
ure to play along with Dhoni and following Dhoni's retirement, he also chose to
retire from International Cricket.
„ Hockey India Announces Financial Assistance to Unemployed
Players
Hockey India (HI) has announced it will provide 61 unemployed players, including
34 women, with financial assistance amid the ongoing COVID-19 pandemic. Ath-
letes not holding employment are facing constraints due to the pandemic, impact-
ing them adversely. Under the initiative, each player will be provided a sum of
10,000 rupees to help them return to sporting activities. Hockey India officiating
President, Gyanendro Ningombam said the objective of the initiative is to provide
basic financial relief to the athletes.
(Images: Courtesy Google)

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