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071 Operational Procedures: © G LONGHURST 1999 All Rights Reserved Worldwide
071 Operational Procedures: © G LONGHURST 1999 All Rights Reserved Worldwide
This is the first edition of this manual, and incorporates all amendments to previous editions, in whatever
form they were issued, prior to July 1999.
The information contained in this publication is for instructional use only. Every effort has been made to ensure
the validity and accuracy of the material contained herein, however no responsibility is accepted for errors or
discrepancies. The texts are subject to frequent changes which are beyond our control.
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The subject matter includes both ICAO and JAR standards and requirements as well as safety and
other special procedures.
Some aspects of Operational Procedures overlap other areas of the syllabus, however, to provide
continuity, these notes are intended to be self contained.
Operation of Aircraft
1 Operation of Aircraft
This Chapter is based on ICAO Annex Part 1.
Definitions
1. The following definitions are relevant to operation of aircraft:
Aerial work. An aircraft operation in which an aircraft is used for specialised services such as
agriculture, construction, photography, surveying, observation and patrol, search and rescue, aerial
advertisement, etc.
Aerodrome. A defined area on land or water (including any buildings, installations and
equipment) intended to be used either wholly or in part for the arrival, departure and surface
movement of aircraft.
(a) take-off expressed in terms of visibility or runway visual range (RVR), and if
necessary, cloud conditions;
(b) landing in precision approach and landing operations, expressed in terms of visibility
and/or RVR and decision altitude/height (DA/H) as appropriate to the category of the
operation; and
Aeroplane flight manual. A manual, associated with the certificate of airworthiness, containing
limitations within which the aeroplane is to be considered airworthy, and instructions and
information necessary to the flight crew members for the safe operation of the aeroplane.
Aircraft operating manual. A manual acceptable to the State of the Operator containing:
(c) checklists;
Aircraft. Any machine that can derive support in the atmosphere from the reactions of the air
other than the reactions of the air against the earth’s surface.
Air operator certificate (AOC). A certificate authorising an operator to carry out specified
commercial air transport operations.
• Take-off alternate. An alternate aerodrome at which an aircraft can land should this become
necessary shortly after take-off and it is not possible to use the aerodrome of departure.
• En-route alternate. An aerodrome at which an aircraft would be able to land after experienc-
ing an abnormal or emergency condition while en-route.
• ETOPS en-route alternate. A suitable and appropriate alternate aerodrome at which an
aeroplane would be able to land after experiencing an engine shut-down or other abnormal
or emergency condition while en-route in an ETOPS operation.
• Destination alternate. An alternate aerodrome to which an aircraft may proceed should it
become impossible or inadvisable to land at the aerodrome of intended landing.
NOTE:
The aerodrome from which a flight departs may also be an en-route or a
destination alternate aerodrome for that flight.
Cabin attendant. A crew member who performs in the interest of safety of passengers, duties
assigned by the operator or pilot-in-command of the aircraft, but who must not act as a flight crew
member.
Configuration deviation list (CDL). A list established by the organisation responsible for the
aircraft type design with the approval of the State of Design which identifies any external parts of an
aircraft type which may be missing at the commencement of a flight, and which contains, where
necessary, any information on associated operating limitations and performance corrections.
Crew member. A person assigned by an operator to duty on an aircraft during flight time.
Dangerous goods. Articles or substances which are capable of posing significant risk to health,
safety or property when transported by air.
Decision altitude/height (DA/H). A specified altitude or height (A/H) in the precision approach
at which a missed approach must be initiated if the required visual reference to continue the
approach has not been established.
NOTE:
Decision altitude (DA) is referenced to mean sea level (MSL) and decision
height (DH) is referenced to the threshold elevation.
NOTE:
The required visual reference means that section of the visual aids or of the
approach area which should have been in view for sufficient time for the pilot
to have made an assessment of the aircraft position and rate of change of
position, in relation to the desired flight path.
Emergency locator transmitter (ELT). A generic term describing equipment which broadcast
distinctive signals on designated frequencies, and depending on application may either sense a crash
and operate automatically or be manually activated.
Flight crew member. A licensed crew member charged with duties essential to the operation of
an aircraft during flight time.
Flight duty period. The total time from the moment a flight crew member commences duty,
immediately subsequent to a rest period and prior to making a flight or a series of flights, to the
moment the flight crew member is relieved of all duties having completed such flight or series of
flights.
Flight plan. Specified information provided to air traffic services units, relative to an intended
flight or portion of a flight of an aircraft.
Flight recorder. Any type of recorder installed in the aircraft for the purpose of complementing
accident/incident investigation.
Flight time. The total time from the moment an aircraft first moves under its own power for the
purpose of taking-off until the moment it comes to rest at the end of the flight.
NOTE:
Flight time as here defined is synonymous with the term ‘block to block’ time
or ‘chock to chock’ time in general usage which is measured from the time the
aircraft moves from the loading point until it stops at the unloading point.
General aviation operation. An aircraft operation other than a commercial air transport
operation or an aerial work operation.
Human factors principles. Principles which apply to aeronautical design, certification, training,
operations and maintenance and which seek safe interface between the human and other system
components by proper consideration to human performance.
Human performance. Human capabilities and limitations which have an impact on the safety
and efficiency of aeronautical operations.
Instrument approach and landing operations. Instrument approach and landing operations
using instrument approach procedures are classified as follows:
• Non-precision approach and landing operations. An instrument approach and landing which
does not use electronic glide path guidance.
• Precision approach and landing operations. An instrument approach and landing using preci-
sion azimuth and glide path guidance with minima as determined by the category of opera-
tion.
Categories of precision approach and landing operations are:
(a) Category I (CAT I). A precision approach with a decision height not lower than 60m
(200ft) and with either a visibility not less than 800m or an RVR of note less than
550m;
(b) Category II (CAT II). A precision instrument approach and landing with a decision
height lower than 60m (200ft) but not lower than 30m (100ft), and an RVR not less
than 350m (but, note JAR-OPS 1 specifies 300m)*.
(c) Category IIIA (CAT IIIA). A precision instrument approach and landing with:
(i) a decision height lower than 30m (100ft) or no decision height; and
(d) Category IIIB (CAT IIIB). A precision instrument approach and landing with:
(i) a decision height lower than 15m (50ft) or no decision height; and
(ii) an RVR less than 200m but not less than 50m (but, note JAR-OPS 1 specifies
75m)*.
(e) Category IIIC (CAT IIIC). A precision instrument approach and landing with no
decision height and no RVR limitations.
Maintenance. Tasks required to ensure the continued airworthiness of an aircraft including any
one or combination of overhaul, repair, inspection, replacement, modification or defect rectification.
Note 1. MDA is referenced to mean sea level (msl) and MDH is referenced to the aerodrome
elevation or to the threshold if it is more than 2m (7ft) below aerodrome elevation.
Note 2. In the case of a circling approach the required visual reference is the runway environment.
Master minimum equipment list (MMEL). A list established for a particular aircraft type by
the organisation responsible for the type design approval of the State of Design containing items, one
or more if which is permitted to be unserviceable at the commencement of a flight. The MMEL may
be associated with special conditions, limitations or procedures.
Minimum equipment list (MEL). A list which provides for the operation of aircraft, subject to
specified conditions, with particular equipment inoperative, prepared by an operator in conformity
with, or more restrictive than, the MMEL established for the aircraft type.
Night. The hours between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil
twilight or such other period between sunset and sunrise, as may be prescribed by the appropriate
authority.
NOTE:
Civil twilight ends in the evening when the centre of the sun’s disc is 6° below
the horizon, and aligns in the morning when the centre of the sun’s disc is 6°
below the horizon.
Obstacle clearance altitude/height (OCA/H). The lowest altitude (OCA), or alternatively the
lowest height above the elevation of the relevant runway threshold or above the aerodrome elevation
as applicable (OCH), used in establishing compliance with appropriate obstacle clearance criteria.
Note 1. Obstacle clearance altitude is referenced to mean sea level (msl) and obstacle clearance height
to the threshold elevation or, in the case of non-precision approaches to the aerodrome elevation (or
threshold elevation if it is more than 2m (7ft) below aerodrome elevation. OCH for a circling
approach is referenced to aerodrome elevation.
Operational control. The exercise of authority over the initiation, continuation, diversion or
termination of a flight in the interest of the safety of the aircraft and the regularity and efficiency of
the flight.
Operational flight plan. The operator’s plan for the safe conduct of the flight based on
considerations of aeroplane performance, other operating limitations and relevant expected
conditions on the route to be followed and at the aerodromes concerned.
Pilot-in-Command. The pilot responsible for the operation and safety of the aircraft during
flight time.
RNP type. A containment value expressed as a distance in nautical miles from the intended
position within which flights would be for at least 95% of the total flying time.
Rest period. Any period of time on the ground during which a flight crew member is relieved of
all duties by the operator.
Runway visual range. The range over which the pilot of an aircraft on the centre line of a
runway can see the runway surface markings or the lights delineating the runway or identifying its
centre line.
State of the Operator. The State in which the operator’s principal place of business is located or,
if there is no such place of business, the operator’s permanent residence.
NOTE:
In the case of the registration of aircraft of an international operating agency
on other than a national basis, the States constituting the agency are jointly
and severally bound to assume the obligations which, under the Chicago
Convention, attach to a State of Registry.
Synthetic flight trainer. Any one of the following three types of apparatus in which flight
conditions are simulated on the ground:
• A flight simulator - which provides an accurate representation of the flight deck of a particu-
lar aircraft type to the extent that the mechanical, electrical, electronic, etc., aircraft systems
control functions, the normal environment of flight crew members, and the performance and
flight characteristics of that type of aircraft are realistically simulated.
• A flight procedures trainer - which provides a realistic flight deck environment, and which
simulates instrument responses, simple control functions of mechanical, electrical, electronic,
etc. aircraft systems, and the performance and flight characteristics of aircraft of a particular
class.
• A basic instrument flight trainer - which is equipped with appropriate instruments, and which
simulates the flight deck environment of an aircraft in flight in instrument flight conditions.
• Visual meteorological conditions (VMC). Meteorological conditions expressed in terms of
visibility, distance from cloud, and ceiling, equal to or better than specified minima.
General
Flight Operations
Aeroplane Performance and Operating Limitations
Aeroplane Instruments, Equipment and Flight Documents
Aeroplane Communication and Navigation Equipment
Aeroplane Maintenance
Aeroplane Flight Crew
Manuals, Logs and Records
Security
Lights To Be Displayed By Aeroplanes
Transport Operations
This Chapter is based on ICAO Annex 6 Part 1.
Note. The term Authority used in this Chapter means the official body having responsibility for the
administration of civil aviation on behalf of a State (e.g. in the UK the CAA are the Authority).
General
Operator Responsibilities
1. Knowledge of Laws of other States. An operator shall ensure that all employees when abroad
know that they must comply with the laws, regulations and procedures of those States in which
operations are conducted.
2. Flight crew knowledge. An operator shall ensure that all pilots and other members of the
flight crew of an aeroplane are familiar with the laws, regulations and procedures, pertinent to the
performance of their duties, prescribed for the areas to be traversed, the aerodromes to be used and
the air navigation facilities relating thereto.
4. Emergency violation of local regulations. The local Authority must be informed, without
delay, by a pilot-in-command when in taking action to avoid danger, local regulations or procedures
are violated. If required, the pilot-in-command must submit a report to the local Authority, with a
copy to the State of the Operator. Such reports shall be submitted as soon as possible and normally
within ten days.
5. Provisions of search and rescue information. Operators shall ensure that pilots-in-command
have available on board the aeroplane all the essential information concerning the search and rescue
services in the area over which the aeroplane will be flown.
6. Accident prevention. An operator shall establish and maintain an accident prevention and
flight safety programme.
7. Dangerous Goods. The responsibilities of the operator with regard to the safe transportation
of dangerous goods are contained in ICAO Annex 18.
Flight Operations
Operating Facilities
8. An operator shall ensure that a flight will not be commenced unless it has been ascertained by
every reasonable means available that the ground facilities available and directly required on such
flight, for the safe operation of the aeroplane and the protection of the passengers, are adequate for
the type of operation under which the flight is to be conducted and are adequately operated for this
purpose.
9. Subject to their published conditions of use, aerodromes and their facilities shall be kept
continuously available for flight operations, during their published hours of operations, irrespective
of weather conditions.
11. The issue of an operator certificate or equivalent document by the State of the Operator shall
be dependent upon the operator demonstrating an adequate organisation, method of control and
supervision of flight operations, training programme and maintenance arrangements consistent with
the nature and extent of the operations specified.
12. The air operator certificate or equivalent document shall contain at least the following:
Operations Manual
13. An operator shall provide, for the use and guidance of operations personnel concerned, an
operations manual.
15. An aeroplane shall not be taxied on the movement area of an aerodrome unless the person at
the controls:
(d) Has received instruction from a competent person in respect of aerodrome layout,
routes, signs, markings, lights, air traffic control (ATC) signals and instructions,
phraseology and procedures, and is able to conform to the operational standards
required for safe aeroplane movement at the aerodrome.
Checklists
17. Checklists shall be used by flight crews prior to, during and after all phases of operations, and
in emergency, to ensure compliance with the operating procedures contained in the aircraft operating
manual and the aeroplane flight manual, or other documents associated with the certificate of
airworthiness and otherwise in the operations manual.
These minimum flight altitudes shall not be established at a lower level than the minimum level for
IFR flights as specified in ICAO Annex 2.
21. The State of the Operator shall require that in establishing the aerodrome operating minima
which will apply to any particular operation, full account shall be taken of:
(b) the composition of the flight crew, their competence and experience;
(c) the dimensions and characteristics of the runways which may be selected for use;
(d) the adequacy and performance of the available visual and non-visual ground aids;
(e) the equipment available on the aeroplane for the purpose of navigation and/or control
of the flight path during the approach to landing and the missed approach;
(f) the obstacles in the approach and missed approach areas and the obstacle clearance
altitude/height for the instrument approach procedures;
(g) the means used to determine and report meteorological conditions; and
(h) the obstacles in the climb-out areas and necessary clearance margins.
Passengers
22. Emergency and other equipment and exits. An operator shall ensure that passengers are made
familiar with the location and use of:
(c) life jackets, if the carriage of life jackets is prescribed and when and how to use them;
(d) oxygen dispensing equipment, if the provision of oxygen for the use of passengers is
prescribed; and
(e) other emergency equipment provided for individual use including passenger briefing
cards;
23. The operator shall inform the passengers of the location and general manner of use of the
principal emergency equipment carried for collective use.
24. Seat belts. The operator shall ensure that during take-off and landing and whenever, by
reasons of turbulence or any emergency occurring during flight, the precaution is considered
necessary, all passengers on board an aeroplane shall be secured in their seats by means of the seat
belts or harnesses provided.
Flight Preparation
25. A flight shall not be commenced until flight preparation forms have been completed certifying
that the pilot-in-command is satisfied that:
(b) the appropriate instruments and equipment for the particular type of operation to be
undertaken, are installed and are sufficient for the flight;
(d) the mass of the aeroplane is such that the flight can be conducted safely, taking into
account the flight conditions expected;
(f) a check has been completed indicating that the operating limitations can be complied
with for the flight to be undertaken; and
(g) the operational flight planning (see below) has been completed.
26. Completed flight preparation forms shall be kept by an operator for a period of three months.
28. The content and use of the operational flight plan must be described in the operations
manual.
Alternate Aerodromes
Take-Off Alternate Aerodrome
29. Requirement for take-off alternate. A take-off alternate aerodrome shall be selected and
specified in the operational flight plan if the weather conditions at the aerodrome of departure are at
or below the applicable aerodrome operating minima (for landing) or, it would not be possible to
return to the aerodrome of departure for other reasons.
30. Location. The take-off alternate aerodrome shall be located within the following distance
from the aerodrome of departure:
(a) for aeroplanes having two power-units. Not more than a distance equivalent to a
flight time of one hour at the single-engine cruise speed; and
(b) for aeroplanes having three or more power-units. Not more than a distance
equivalent to a flight time of two hours at the one-engine inoperative cruise speed.
31. Conditions at the alternate aerodrome. For an aerodrome to be selected as a take-off alternate
the available information shall indicate that, at the estimated time of use, the conditions will be at or
above the aerodrome operating minima for that operation.
(a) the duration of the flight and the meteorological conditions prevailing are such that
there is reasonable certainty that, at the estimated time of arrival at the aerodrome of
intended landing, and for a reasonable period before and after such time, the
approach and landing may be made under visual meteorological conditions; or
(b) the aerodrome of intended landing is isolated and there is no suitable destination
alternate aerodrome.
Weather Conditions
34. VFR. A VFR flight shall not be commenced unless current meteorological reports or a
combination of current reports and forecasts indicate that the meteorological conditions along the
route or that part of the route to be flown under the visual flight rules will, at the appropriate time,
be such as to render compliance with these rules possible.
35. IFR. An IFR flight shall not be commenced unless information is available which indicates
that conditions at the aerodrome of intended landing or, where a destination alternate is required, at
least one destination alternate aerodrome will, at the estimated time of arrival, be at or above the
aerodrome operating minima.
36. Icing. A flight to be operated in known or expected icing conditions shall not be commenced
unless the aeroplane is certificated and equipped to cope with such conditions.
NOTE:
Where we have used the term destination in the following paragraphs this
means the aerodrome to which the flight is planned.
Propeller-driven Aeroplanes
The fuel and oil required in the case of propeller-driven aeroplanes depends on whether a destination
alternate is required or not.
38. Propeller-driven aeroplanes - destination alternate required. The aeroplane must have
sufficient fuel and oil either to:
(a) fly to the destination and then on to the most critical alternate (in terms of fuel and
oil) specified in the operational and ATS flight plan plus another 45minutes; or,
(b) fly to the alternate via any pre-determined point plus another 45 minutes, provided
this is not less than the amount required to fly to the destination plus either:
(ii) 2 hours;
whichever is less.
39. Propeller-driven - destination alternate is not required. The aeroplane must have sufficient
fuel and oil to:
(a) fly to a destination where a VMC approach and landing can be expected plus another
45 minutes; or
(b) fly to an isolated destination from which there is no suitable alternate available plus:
(ii) 2 hours;
whichever is less.
Turbo-jet Aeroplanes
The fuel and oil required in the case of turbo-jet aeroplanes depends on whether a destination
alternate is required or not.
40. Turbo-jet aeroplane – destination required. The aeroplane must have sufficient fuel and oil
either to:
(a) fly to and execute an approach, and a missed approach, at the destination
and thereafter:
(i) fly to the alternate specified in the operational and ATS flight plans; plus,
(ii) 30 minutes holding at 1500ft at the alternate in ISA conditions, and approach
to land; plus,
(iii) contingency fuel to allow for any occurrences, specified by the operator and
agreed by the State of the Operator, which might result in increased
consumption; or,
(b) fly to the alternate via any predetermined point and thereafter for 30 minutes at
1500ft at the alternate plus a contingency amount specified by the operator (as in
previous sub-paragraph) provided that in total this is not less than the fuel required to
fly to the destination plus 2 hours at the normal cruise consumption.
41. Turbo-jet aeroplanes – destination not required. The aeroplane must have sufficient fuel and
oil:
(a) in the case of a destination where a VMC approach and landing can be expected, to
fly there and in addition:
or,
(b) in the case of an isolated destination from which there is no suitable alternate, to fly
there plus an 2 hours at normal cruise consumption.
42. Factors to be considered in computing fuel required. In all cases the following factors must be
considered:
(c) for IFR flight, one instrument approach at destination, including a missed approach;
(d) engine failure en-route and where applicable loss of cabin pressurisation;
(e) any other reasons for delaying landing or increasing fuel/oil consumption.
Note. Nothing in Annex 6 concerning fuel/oil requirements precludes the amendment of a flight plan
in flight in order to replan the flight to another aerodrome, provided that the requirements of the
foregoing paragraphs can be complied with from where the flight has been replanned.
Note 1. The provisions outlined above do not necessarily require the deployment of integral
aeroplane stairs or the opening of emergency exits as a pre-requisite to refuelling.
Note 2. Additional precautions are required when refuelling with fuel other than aviation kerosene
or when refuelling results in a mixture of aviation kerosene with other aviation turbine fuels, or
when an open line is used.
Oxygen Supply
Note. Approximate altitudes in the Standard Atmosphere corresponding to the values of absolute
pressure used in the text are as follows:
45. Aeroplanes without cabin pressurisation. A flight to be operated at altitudes at which the
atmospheric pressure in personnel compartments will be less than 700 hPa shall not be commenced
unless sufficient stored breathing oxygen is carried to supply:
(a) all crew members and 10% of the passengers for any period in excess of 30 minutes
that the aeroplane is between 10,000 ft and 13,000 ft; and
(b) the crew and passengers for any period that the aeroplane is above 13,000 ft.
46. Aeroplanes with cabin pressurisation. A flight to be operated with a pressurised aeroplane
shall not be commenced unless a sufficient quantity of stored breathing oxygen is carried to supply
all the crew members and a proportion of the passenger’s, as is appropriate to the circumstances of
the flight being undertaken, in the event of loss of pressurisation, for any period that the aeroplane is
above 10,000 ft. In addition, a further 10 minutes oxygen is required for passengers when an
aeroplane is operated above 25,000 ft or when below 25,000 ft but unable to descend safely to
13,000 ft within 4 mins.
In-flight Procedures
Aerodrome Operating Minima
47. A flight shall not be continued towards the aerodrome of intended landing, unless the latest
available information indicates that at the expected time of arrival, a landing can be effected at that
aerodrome, or at least at one destination alternate aerodrome, in compliance with established
aerodrome operating minima.
48. Except in case of emergency, an aeroplane shall not continue its approach-to-land at any
aerodrome beyond a point at which the limits of the operating minima specified for that aerodrome
would be infringed.
50. En-route. All flight crew members required to be on flight deck shall remain at their stations
except when their absence is necessary for the performance of duties in connection with the
operation of the aeroplane or for physiological needs.
51. Seat belts. All flight crew members shall keep their seat belts fastened when at their stations.
52. Safety harness. Any flight crew member occupying a pilot’s seat shall keep the safety harness
fastened during the take-off and landing phases; all other flight crew members shall keep their safety
harnesses fastened during the take-off and landing phases unless the shoulder straps interfere with
the performance of their duties.
Note. Safety harness includes shoulder straps and a seat belt which may be used independently.
Note. When the above co-ordination has not been possible, operational instructions do not relieve a
pilot of the responsibility for obtaining an appropriate clearance from an ATS unit, if applicable,
before making a change in flight plan.
Duties of Pilot-in-Command
54. Responsibility for operation and safety. The pilot-in-command shall be responsible for the
operation and safety of the aeroplane and for the safety of all persons on board, during flight time.
55. Checklists. The pilot-in-command shall ensure that checklists are complied with in detail.
56. Accident notification. The pilot-in-command shall be responsible for notifying the nearest
appropriate authority by the quickest available means of any accident involving the aeroplane,
resulting in serious injury or death of any person or substantial damage to the aeroplane or property.
57. Reporting defects. The pilot-in-command shall be responsible for reporting all known or
suspected defects in the aeroplane, to the operator, at the termination of the flight.
58. Journey log book/general declaration. The pilot-in-command shall be responsible for the
journey log book or the general declaration.
(a) assist the pilot-in-command in flight preparation and provide the relevant information
required;
(b) assist the pilot-in-command in preparing the operational and ATS flight plans, sign
when applicable and file the ATS flight plan with the appropriate ATS unit;
(c) furnish the pilot-in-command while in flight, by appropriate means, with information
which may be necessary for the safe conduct of the flight; and,
(d) in the event of an emergency, initiate such procedures as may be outlined in the
operations manual.
60. A flight operations officer shall avoid taking any action that would conflict with the
procedures established by:
(a) mass;
(d) temperature;
(e) wind;
(g) condition of the runway i.e. presence of slush, water and/or ice.
Due account of these factors must be taken either, directly as operating parameters or, indirectly by
means of allowances or margins, in the scheduling of performance data for the aeroplane being
operated.
(a) the accelerate stop distance required does not exceed the accelerate stop distance
available;
(b) take-off distance required does not exceed the take-off distance available;
(c) all obstacles within a specified distance of the take-off flight path are cleared by at
least 35ft or 50ft (depending on performance category) within the take-off distance
available.
67. En-route.
(a) One engine inoperative. At all points along the route or any planned diversion
therefrom the aeroplane must be capable of a steady rate of climb at the minimum
flight altitude (i.e. at least 1000ft above terrain adjacent to and along the flight path)
(b) Two engines inoperative (applicable to four engine aeroplanes only). When at more
than 90 minutes flying time (at 4 engine cruising speed) from an en-route alternate if
two engines fail the aeroplane must be able to reach an alternate aerodrome without
coming below the minimum flight altitude.
(a) Destination. The landing distance required at the aerodrome of intended landing, as
determined from the flight manual, must not exceed a specified percentage of the
landing distance available, (eg. for performance A aeroplanes it is 60% for turbo-jet;
70% for turbo-propeller powered aeroplanes).
(Note. In terms of landing distance available (LDA), this means that the LDA for a
turbo-jet aeroplane must be x 1.7 of the landing distance required and for a turbo-
propeller aeroplane, it must be x 1.43of the landing distance required).
(b) Alternate. The landing distance at any alternate aerodrome must not exceed a
specified percentage of the landing distance available, (eg. for performance A
aeroplanes it is the same as for destination).
70. Minimum equipment list. The operator shall include in the operations manual a minimum
equipment list, approved by the State of the Operator which will enable the pilot-in-command to
determine whether a flight may be commenced or continued from any intermediate stop should any
instrument, equipment or systems become inoperative.
71. Operating manual. The operator shall provide operations staff and flight crew with an
aircraft operating manual, for each aircraft type operated, containing:
(e) the design of the manual must observe Human Factor principles.
73. Medical supplies. An aeroplane must carry accessible and adequate medical supplies
appropriate to its passenger carrying capacity which should comprise:
(b) a medical kit, for the use of medical doctors or other qualified persons in treating in-
flight medical emergencies for aeroplanes authorised to carry more than 250
passengers.
74. Portable fire extinguishers. An aeroplane must carry portable fire extinguishers of a type
which, when discharged, will not cause dangerous contamination of the air within the aeroplane. At
least one shall be located in:
(b) each passenger compartment that is separate from the pilot’s compartment and that is
not readily accessible to the flight crew.
(a) a seat or berth for each person over an age to be determined by the State of the
Operator.
(b) a seat belt for each seat and restraining belts for each berth; and
(c) a safety harness for each flight crew seat. The safety harness for each pilot seat shall
incorporate a device which will automatically restrain the occupant’s torso in the
event of rapid deceleration. The safety harness for each pilot seat should also
incorporate a device to prevent a suddenly incapacitated pilot from interfering with
the flight controls.
Note. Safety harness includes shoulder straps and a seat belt which may be used independently.
76. Passenger information. The aeroplane must be equipped with the means of ensuring that the
following information and instructions are conveyed to passengers:
(b) when and how oxygen equipment is to be used if the carriage of oxygen is required;
(d) location and use of life jackets of equivalent individual flotation devices where their
carriage is required; and
77. Fuses. Spare electrical fuses of appropriate ratings for replacement of those accessible in flight
must be carried.
(a) the operations manual, or those parts of it that pertain to flight operations;
(b) the flight manual for the aeroplane, or other document containing performance data
and any other information necessary for the operation of the aeroplane within the
terms of its certificate of airworthiness, unless this data is in the operations manual;
and
(c) current and suitable charts to cover the route of the proposed flight and any route
along which it is reasonable to expect that the flight may be diverted.
80. The colour of the markings shall be red or yellow, and if necessary they shall be outlined in
white to contrast with the background.
81. If the corner markings are more than 2 m apart, intermediate lines 9 cm x 3 cm shall be
inserted so that there is no more than 2 m between adjacent marks.
FIGURE 2-1
Flight Recorders
82. Flight recorders comprise two systems, a flight data recorder (FDR) and a cockpit voice
recorder (CVR).
(a) time;
(b) altitude;
(c) airspeed;
(e) heading.
In addition, depending on the date of first issue of the Certificate of Airworthiness (C of A) a FDR
should also be capable of recording parameters to determine pitch attitude, roll attitude, radio
transmission keying and power on each engine.
84. Preservation of data. An FDR must with one exception be capable of retaining the last 25
hours of recording (usually achieved by running on a continuous 25 hour loop). The exception is the
type known as Type IIA fitted on aircraft of maximum certificated take-off mass 27, 000kg or less
which must be able to retain at least the last 30 minutes of recording.
The operator is responsible for ensuring to the extent possible that if an aeroplane becomes involved
in an accident or incident the FDR and recordings are retained in safe custody pending any accident
inquiry/investigation.
85. Construction, location and installation. Flight data recorders must be constructed, located
and installed so as to provide maximum practical protection for the recordings in order that the
recorded information may be preserved, recovered and transcribed.
86. Operation. Flight recorders must not be switched off during flight time but must be de-
activated on completion of flight time or following an accident or incident.
88. Preservation of records. A cockpit voice recorder must be capable of retaining information
recorded in the last 30 minutes of its operation.
89. Construction and operation. The requirements for cockpit voice recorders are as for flight
data recorders.
(b) an accurate time-piece indicating the time in hours, minutes and seconds;
91. In addition, those VFR flights which are operated as controlled flights shall be equipped in
accordance with IFR requirements.
IFR Flights
92. All aeroplanes when operated in accordance with IFR, or when the aeroplane cannot be
maintained in a desired attitude without reference to one or more flight instrument, shall be equipped
with:
(c) two sensitive pressure altimeters (not 3 pointer nor drum pointer types);
(h) a means of indicating whether the power supply to the gyroscopic instrument is
adequate;
(i) a means of indicating in the flight crew compartment the outside air temperature;
93. All aeroplanes over 5 700 kg – Emergency power supply of electrically operated attitude
indicating instruments.
94. All aeroplanes of a maximum certificated take-off mass of over 5 700 kg newly introduced
into service after 1 January 1975 shall be fitted with an emergency power supply, independent of the
main electrical generating system, for the purpose of operating and illuminating, for a minimum
period of 30 minutes, an attitude indicating instrument (artificial horizon), clearly visible to the pilot-
in-command.
Operating at Night
95. All aeroplanes, when operated at night shall be equipped with:
(b) the lights required by Annex 2 for aircraft in flight or operating on the movement area
of an aerodrome.
(Note. Aeroplanes not certificated in accordance with Annex 8 which are equipped with a
single landing light having two separately energised filaments will be considered to have
complied with this requirement).
(d) illumination for all instruments and equipment that are essential for the safe operation
of the aeroplane that are used by the flight crew;
(a) Landplanes with two or more engines – when operating more than 93km (50nm) over
water;
(b) All other aeroplanes – when beyond gliding distance from land;
(c) When taking off or landing at an aerodrome where, in the opinion of the State of the
Operator, there is a likelihood of ditching in the event of a mishap occurring during
take-off or approach.
97. The equipment referred to above shall comprise one life jacket or equivalent individual
floatation device for each person on board, stowed in a position easily accessible from the seat of
berth of the person for whose it is provided.
(a) Life-saving rafts - in sufficient number to carry all persons on board, stowed so as to
facilitate their ready use in emergency, provided with such life-saving equipment
including means of sustaining life as is appropriate to the flight to be undertaken (e.g.
food, water, protective clothing) and equipment for making the pyrotechnical distress
signals described in Annex 2; and
(b) Emergency locator Transmitter (ELT). All aeroplanes on long range over water flights
must be equipped with at least two ELT(s).
99. Life Jackets. Each life jacket and equivalent individual floatation device, when carried shall be
equipped with a means of electric illumination for the purpose of facilitating the location of persons.
Note. The attestation may be contained in any document, carried on board, approved by the State of
Registry.
Note. This does not preclude the use of the airspeed indicator to derive Mach number for ATS
purposes.
(Note. Annex 6 recommends that aeroplanes with a C of A issued prior to that date should have
GPWS).
(b) Turbine-engined aeroplanes with a maximum certificated take-off mass of more than
5700kg or authorised to carry more than 9 passengers from 1 Jan 99;
(Note. Annex 6 recommends that this requirement should also apply to piston-engined aeroplanes
meeting the same criteria).
Information provided by GPWS. From 1 Jan 99, a GPWS must provide, as a minimum, warnings of
the following:
109. MEL. The State of the Operator should require the operator to prepare a minimum
equipment list (MEL) designed to allow operation of the aircraft with systems or equipment
inoperative provided an acceptable level of safety is maintained.
110. Approval of MEL. The State of the Operator should indicate, through the approval of an
MEL, those systems and items of equipment that may be inoperative for certain flight conditions but
not for any other than those specified.
111. Multiple MEL items inoperative. Operators must ensure that no flight is commenced with
multiple MEL items inoperative without determining that any interrelationship between inoperative
systems or components will not result in an unacceptable degradation in the level of safety and/or
undue increase in flight crew workload.
112. Placarding. Systems or equipment accepted as inoperative for such a flight should be
placarded where appropriate and all such items noted in the aircraft technical log.
(c) conducting two-way communication at any time during flight with at least one
aeronautical station and with such other aeronautical stations and on such frequencies
as may be prescribed by the appropriate authority.
114. The radio communication equipment required in accordance with the previous paragraph
shall provide for communications on the aeronautical emergency frequency 121.5 MHz.
Navigation Equipment
115. An aeroplane shall be provided with navigation equipment which will enable it to proceed:
(c) in accordance with the requirements of air traffic services except when, if not so
precluded by the appropriate authority, navigation for flights under the visual flight
rules is accomplished by visual reference to landmarks.
116. Minimum navigation performance specification (MNPS). For flights in defined portions of
airspace where, based on Regional Air Navigation Agreement, MNPS are prescribed, an aeroplane
shall be provided with navigation equipment which:
(a) continuously provides indication to the flight crew of adherence to or departure from
track to the required degree of accuracy at any point along that track; and
(b) has been authorised by the State of the Operator for MNPS operations concerned.
Note. The prescribed minimum navigation performance specifications and the procedures governing
their application are published in Regional Supplementary Procedures (Doc 7030).
117. Reduced vertical separation minimum (RVSM). For flights in defined portions of airspace in
which, by Regional Air Navigation Agreement, a reduced vertical separation minimum of 300m
(1000ft) applies above FL 290, an aeroplane must be provided with equipment which is capable of:
(c) providing an alert to the flight crew when a deviation occurs from the selected FL. The
threshold of detection of such a deviation must not exceed 90m (300ft); and,
Such equipment must be authorised by the State of the Operator for operation in the airspace
concerned.
118. Redundancy. The navigation equipment shall be so provided as to ensure that, in the event of
the failure of one item of equipment at any stage of the flight, the remaining equipment will be
sufficient to enable the aeroplane to continue in accordance with the above paragraphs.
Aeroplane Maintenance
Maintenance Release
121. The approved maintenance organisation is responsible for completing the required
maintenance on a commercial aeroplane and indicating completion with a certificate called the
‘maintenance release’. The maintenance release is required to contain certification including:
122. Responsibility of pilot-in-command. Annex 6 requires that a flight is not commenced until the
pilot-in-command has checked that the maintenance release has been issued and that it contains all
the details required.
124. Radio Operator. The flight crew shall include at least one member who holds a valid licence,
issued or rendered valid by the state of Registry, authorising operation of the type of radio
transmitting equipment to be used.
125. Flight Engineer. When a separate flight engineer’s station is incorporated in the design of an
aeroplane, the flight crew shall include at least one flight engineer especially assigned to that station,
unless the duties associated with that station can be satisfactorily performed by another flight crew
member, holding a flight engineer licence, without interference with regular duties.
126. Flight Navigator. The flight crew shall include at least one member who hold a flight
navigator licence in all operations where, as determined by the State of the Operator, navigation
necessary for the safe conduct of the flight cannot be adequately accomplished by the pilots from the
pilot station.
128. The requirement for recurrent flight training in a particular type of aeroplane shall be
considered fulfilled by:
(a) the use, to the extent deemed feasible by the State of the Operator, of aeroplane
synthetic flight trainers approved by that State for that purpose; or
(b) the completion within the appropriate period of the proficiency check required in that
type of aeroplane.
Qualifications
129. Recent Experience – Pilot-In-Command. An operator shall not assign a pilot to act as pilot-in-
command of an aeroplane unless, on the same type of aeroplane within the preceding 90 days, that
pilot has made at least three take-offs and landings.
130. Recent Experience – Co-Pilot. An operator shall not assign a co-pilot to serve at the flight
controls during take-off and landing unless, on the same type of aeroplane within the proceeding 90
days, that co-pilot has served as pilot-in-command or co-pilot at the flight controls or has otherwise
demonstrated competence to act as co-pilot on a flight simulator approved for the purpose.
131. Route Knowledge. Each such pilot shall demonstrate to the operator an adequate knowledge
of:
(a) The route to be flown, and the aerodromes which are to be used. This shall include
knowledge of:
(iii) the meteorological, communication and air traffic facilities, services and
procedures;
(v) the navigational facilities and procedures, including and long-range navigation
procedures, associated with the route along which the flight is to take place;
and
(b) Procedures applicable to flight paths over heavily populated areas and areas of high
air traffic density, obstructions, physical layout, lighting, approach aids and arrival,
departure, holding and instrument approach procedures, and applicable operating
minima.
Note. The portion of the demonstration relating to arrival, departure, holding and instrument
approach procedures may be accomplished in an appropriate training device which is adequate for
this purpose.
132. Aerodrome knowledge. A pilot-in-command shall have made an actual approach into each
aerodrome of landing on the route, accompanied by a pilot who is qualified for the aerodrome, as a
member of the flight crew or as an observer on the flight deck, unless:
(c) the approach to the aerodrome is not over difficult terrain and the instrument
approach procedures and aids available are similar to those with which the pilot is
familiar, and a margin to be approved by the State of the Operator is added to the
normal operating minima, or there is reasonable certainty that approach and landing
can be made in visual meteorological conditions; or
(d) the descent from the initial approach altitude can be made by day in visual
meteorological conditions; or
(e) the operator qualifies the pilot-in-command to land at the aerodrome concerned by
means of an adequate pictorial presentation; or
(f) the aerodrome concerned is adjacent to another aerodrome at which the pilot-in-
command is currently qualified to land.
133. Recency. An operator shall not continue to utilise a pilot as a pilot-in-command on a route
unless, with the preceding 12 months, the pilot has made at least one trip between the terminal points
of that route as a pilot member of the flight crew, or as a check pilot, or as an observer on the flight
deck.
(Note. In the event that more than 12 months elapse in which a pilot has not made such a trip on a
route in close proximity and over similar terrain, prior to again serving as a pilot-in-command on
that route, that pilot must requalify in accordance with the preceeding guidelines).
Note. Flight simulators approved by the State of the Operator may be used for those parts of the
checks for which they are specifically approved.
(ii) minimum equipment list and any requirements regarding RNP airspace;
(b) Accident prevention and flight safety. Details of policy and responsibilities.
(d) Fatigue and flight time limitations. Details of rules and flight duty periods for flight
and cabin crew.
(vii) checklists and their use, (normal, abnormal and emergency and systems
information);
(h) Minimum flight altitudes. Method of determining the minimum flight altitude for the
route flown.
(i) Aerodrome operating minima (AOM). Details of minima to be used including after
engine failure.
(j) Search and rescue. Ground-air visual code and procedures to be followed by the pilot-
in-command observing an accident.
(k) Dangerous goods. Instructions for carriage including action required in emergencies.
(n) Security.
Maintenance Release
137. A maintenance release shall contain a certification as to the satisfactory completion of
maintenance work carried out in a accordance with the methods prescribed in the maintenance
manual. The pilot-in-command is required to check that a certificate of maintenance release has been
issued, where necessary as part of the flight preparation.
(ii) Date.
139. Entries in the journey logbook are to be made concurrently and are to be permanent in
nature.
140. The Completed journey logbook should be retained to provide a continuous record of the last
six months’ operations.
(b) pyrotechnics;
Security
Note. In the context of ICAO Annex 6, ‘security’ is used in the sense of prevention of illegal acts
against civil aviation.
142. Security of the Flight Crew Compartment. In all aeroplanes which are equipped with a flight
crew compartment door, this door should be capable of being locked from within the compartment
only.
143. Aeroplane Search Procedure Checklist. An operator shall ensure that there is on board a
checklist of the procedures to be followed in searching for a bomb in case of suspected sabotage. The
checklist shall be supported by guidance on the course to be taken should a bomb or suspicious
object be found and information on the least-risk bomb location specific to the aeroplane.
144. Reporting Acts of Unlawful Interference. Following an act of unlawful interference the pilot-
in-command shall submit, without delay, a report of such an act to the designated local authority.
Angle of coverage. This is a specified angle through which an aircraft light must be visible.
Horizontal plane. The plane containing the longitudinal axis and perpendicular to the plane of
symmetry of the aeroplane.
Longitudinal axis of the aeroplane. A selected axis parallel to the direction of flight at a
normal cruising speed, and passing through the centre of gravity of the aeroplane.
Making way. An aeroplane on the surface of the water is ‘making way’ when it is under way and
has a velocity relative to the water. (Note, the same term is used in relation to an airship with respect
to the air).
Under command. An aeroplane on the surface of the water is "under command" when it is able
to execute manoeuvres as required by the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea
for the purpose of avoiding other vessels. (See note above under ‘Making way’.
Under way. An aeroplane on the surface of the water is "under way" when it is not aground or
moored to the ground or to any fixed object on the land or in the water.
(a) a red light projected above and below the horizontal plane through angle of coverage
110°
(b) a green light projected above and below the horizontal plane through angle of
coverage 110°
(c) a white light projected above and below the horizontal plane rearward through angle
of coverage 140°
FIGURE 2-2
Navigation Lights
JAR-OPS Requirements
Introduction
General Requirements for Commercial Operation
Information and Document Requirements
Operator Certification and Supervision Requirements
Operational Procedures - Operator Requirements
All Weather Operations Requirements
Instrument And Equipment Requirements
Communication And Navigation Equipment
Requirements
Aeroplane Maintenance Requirements
3 JAR-OPS Requirements
Introduction
1. The Civil Aviation Authorities of certain European countries have agreed common
comprehensive and detailed aviation requirements, referred to as the Joint Aviation Requirements
(JAR) in order to harmonise aircraft Type Certification requirements, maintenance procedures,
regulation of commercial air transport operations and to facilitate the export and import of aviation
products.
2. ICAO Annex 6 has been selected to provide the basic structure of JAR-OPS added to where
necessary by making use of existing European regulations and the Federal aviation Requirements of
the USA where acceptable.
3. JAR-OPS Part 1 prescribes requirements applicable to the operation of any civil aeroplane for
the purpose of commercial air transportation by any operator whose principal place of business is in
a JAA Member State.
The requirements of JAR-OPS Part 1 are applicable for operators of all aeroplanes from no later than
1 October 1999.
(Note. In the following notes where information is extracted from JAR-OPS 1 the JAR-OPS reference
number is quoted for information only).
(g) Each flight crew member is required to carry a valid flight crew licence and
appropriate rating(s) on every flight.
Leasing of Aircraft
(JAR-OPS 1.165)
Terminology
7. The principle terms used in leasing are:
(a) Dry Lease. In this case the aeroplane is operated under the AOC of the lessee.
(b) Wet Lease. In this case the aeroplane is operated under the AOC of the lessor.
(c) JAA Operator. This term describes an operator certificated under JAR-OPS 1 by a
JAA member state.
Types of Lease
8. Leasing arrangements between JAA operators.
(a) Wet Lease-out. In this situation a JAA operator provides an aeroplane and complete
crew to another JAA operator but retains all the functions and responsibilities
prescribed for an AOC holder and remains the operator of the aeroplane. The prior
approval of the Authority is not required in this case.
(b) All Leases except Wet Lease-out. Prior approval by the Authority is required in all
cases. Any conditions which are part of this approval must be included in the lease
agreement.
(a) Dry Lease-in by JAA Operator. The dry lease-in must be approved by the Authority
and differences from the requirements for aircraft equipment specified in JAR-OPS
must be notified to and approved by the Authority.
(b) Wet Lease-in by JAA Operator. The wet lease-in must be approved by the Authority.
Furthermore, the JAA operator is required to ensure that:
(i) the safety standards of the lessor with respect to maintenance and operation
are equivalent to JARs;
(ii) the lessor holds an AOC issued by a State which is signatory to the Chicago
Convention;
(iv) any JAA requirement made applicable by the Lessees’ Authority is complied
with.
(Note. A JAA operator is permitted to wet lease-in without prior approval if the
situation is urgent. The lessor must hold an AOC issued by a Chicago Convention
State, the lease must not exceed 5 consecutive days and the Authority must be
informed immediately).
(c) Dry Lease-out by JAA Operator. A JAA operator may dry lease-out an aeroplane to
any operator of a Chicago Convention signatory State providing:
(i) the Authority has exempted the JAA operator from its relevant AOC
responsibilities and after the Authority of the lessee has accepted responsibility
for monitoring the maintenance and operation of the aeroplane, has removed
it from the AOC and;
(d) Wet lease-out by JAA Operator. A JAA operator providing an aeroplane and complete
crew to another non-JAA operator retaining all the functions and responsibilities as
AOC holder remains the operator of the aeroplane.
(b) a checklist system to be used by crew members for all phases of operation under,
normal, abnormal and emergency conditions as applicable in accordance with the
operations manual;
(Note. An operator shall not require a crew member to perform any activities during a critical
phase of flight other than those required for the safe operation of the aeroplane.)
(e) if two-engined aeroplanes are used, adequate aerodromes are available within the
time/distance limitations specified in JAR-OPS;
(f) if single engined aeroplanes are used, surfaces are available that will permit a safe
forced landing to be executed.
Appendix 1 to
JAR-OPS1.270 Stowage of baggage and cargo
Procedures established by an operator to ensure that hand baggage and cargo is adequately and
securely stowed must take account of the following:
1. Each item carried in a cabin must be stowed only in a location that is capable of restraining
it;
2. Mass limitations placarded on or adjacent to stowage’s must not be exceeded;
3. Underseat stowages must not be used unless the seat is equipped with a restraint bar and the
baggage is equipped with a restraint bar and the baggage is of such size that it may
adequately be restrained by this equipment.
4. Items must not be stowed in toilets or against bulkheads that are incapable of restraining
articles against movement forwards, sideways or upwards and unless the bulkheads carry a
placard specifying the greatest mass that may be placed there;
5. Baggage and cargo placed in lockers must not be of such size that they prevent latched doors
from being closed securely;
6. Baggage and cargo must not be placed where it can impede access to emergency equipment;
and
7. Checks must be made before take-off, before landing, and whenever the pilot-in-command
illuminates the fasten seat belts signs (or otherwise so orders) to ensure that baggage is
stowed where it cannot impede evacuation from the aircraft or cause injury by falling (or
other movement) as may be appropriate to the phase of flight.
(b) The commander shall ensure that before take-off and landing, and whenever deemed
necessary in the interest of safety, all equipment and baggage is properly secured.
13. The requirements given above do not prohibit the in-flight calculation of minima for an
unplanned alternate aerodrome if carried out in accordance with an accepted method.
(e) aeroplane equipment available for navigation and/or control of the flight path during
take-off, approach, flare, landing, roll-out and missed approach;
Aeroplane Categories
15. The criteria taken into consideration for the classification of aeroplanes by categories is the
indicated airspeed at threshold ( VAT ). This value is equal to the stalling speed ( V SO ) multiplied by
1.3 or, V S1G multiplied by 1.23, in the landing configuration at the maximum certificated landing
mass. If both methods are available the higher resulting V AT must be used. Aeroplane categories are
shown in Figure 3-1.
FIGURE 3-1
Aeroplane Aeroplane category VAT
Categories
A Less than 91 kt
B From 91 to 120 kt
C From 121 to 140 kt
D From 141 to 165 kt
E From 166 to 210 kt
17. Low Visibility Procedures (LVP). Procedures applied at an aerodrome for the purpose of
ensuring safe operations during Category II and III approaches and Low Visibility Take-offs.
18. Low Visibility Take-off (LVTO). A take-off where the runway visual range (RVR) is <400m.
19. Flight control system. A system which includes an automatic landing system and/or a hybrid
landing system.
20. Fail-Passive flight control system. A flight control system is fail passive if, in the event of a
failure, there is no significant out-of-trim condition or deviation of the flight path or attitude but the
landing is not completed automatically.
21. Fail-Operational flight control system. A flight control system is fail-operational if, in the
event of a failure below alert height, the approach, flare and landing can be completed automatically.
22. Fail-Operational hybrid landing system. A system which consists of a primary fail-passive
automatic landing system and a secondary independent guidance system enabling the pilot to
complete a landing manually after failure of the primary system.
(Note. A typical secondary independent guidance system consists of a head-up display providing
guidance, which normally takes the form of command information, but it may alternatively be
situation (or deviation) information.)
23. Visual approach. An approach when either part or all of an instrument approach procedure is
not completed and the approach is executed with visual reference to the terrain.
24. Missed approach. The missed approach procedure is the procedure to be followed if the
approach cannot be continued. The missed approach point in an instrument approach procedure is
the point at or before which the prescribed missed approach procedure must be initiated in order to
ensure that the minimum obstacle clearance is not infringed. Published missed approach procedures
are normally based on a nominal gross climb gradient of 2.5%.
(a) may not commence take-off unless the weather conditions at the aerodrome of
departure are equal to or better than applicable minima for landing at that aerodrome
unless a suitable take-off alternate aerodrome is available;
(b) may, when the reported meteorological visibility is below the required value or is not
reported, and RVR is not available, only take-off if he can determine that the RVR/
visibility along the runway is equal to or better than the required minimum;
27. Visual reference. The take-off minima must be selected to ensure sufficient guidance to
control the aeroplane in the event of both a discontinued take-off in adverse circumstances and a
continued take-off after failure of the critical power unit.
28. RVR Minima - multi-engined aeroplanes. Minimum RVR values for take-off applicable to
multi-engined aeroplanes which, following the failure of a critical power unit, are capable of either
stopping or continuing take-off to a height above 1500ft aal whilst clearing obstacles by the required
margin are:
(a) For runway equipped with edge and centreline lighting and multiple RVR
information;
(b) For runway not equipped with lighting (applicable by day only) – 500m.
Note 1. The required RVR value must be achieved for all of the relevant RVR reporting points
however, the reported RVR/visibility value representative of the initial part of the take-off run can be
replaced by the pilot assessment.
Note 2. For night operations at least runway edge and runway end lights are required.
Note 3. JAR-OPS permits lower RVR values (125m Cat A, B, C; 150m Cat D) to be used when
certain specific conditions apply eg. Low Visibility Procedures in force.
29. Aeroplanes with a lower performance capability may, in the event of a critical power unit
failure need to land immediately and to see and avoid obstacles in the take-off area. These aeroplanes
are required to comply with increased minima depending on the height from which the one engine
inoperative net take-off flight path can be constructed.
Approach Minima
30. Non-precision approach. Approach minima consist of 3 elements, minimum descent height
(MDH), visual reference and RVR.
(a) MDH. An operator must ensure that the MDH for a non-precision approach is not
lower than either:
(ii) the approach system minimum. (Note. Non-precision approach system minima
are not less than 250ft)
(b) Visual reference. A pilot may not continue an approach below minimum descent
altitude (MDA) or MDH unless at least one of the following visual references for the
intended runway is distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot:
(c) RVR. The required RVR value depends on the MDH and aeroplane category. The
lowest RVR value applicable to a Cat A aeroplane with the lowest MDH value (250ft)
for a runway with full lighting facilities is 800m. For the same aeroplane and MDH
for a runway with no approach lighting the RVR value is 1500m. JAR-OPS contains
tables of RVR values applicable for each aircraft category, MDH and runway/
approach lighting facilities.
Approach minima consist of 3 elements, Decision Height (DH), visual reference, and RVR.
(a) Decision Height. An operator must ensure that the DH to be used for a Category I
precision approach is not lower than:
(i) the minimum DH specified in the aeroplane flight manual (AFM), if stated;
(ii) the minimum height to which the precision approach aid can be used (system
minimum) without the required visual reference;
(iv) 200ft.
(b) Visual reference. Visual references are the same as for non-precision approaches in
paragraph 29 excluding item (x).
(c) RVR. Minimum RVR values for Category I operations are specified in JAR-OPS based
on DH value and aerodrome approach and runway lighting facilities available. For a
DH of 200ft with full facilities the minimum RVR is 550m, with no lighting the value
becomes 1000m.
(Note 1. Full lighting facilities comprises 720m or more of high or medium intensity approach lights,
runway edge lights, threshold lights and runway end lights, which must be on.)
(Note 2. For single pilot operations the operator must calculate the minimum RVR as described
above except that the minimum RVR is to be not less than 800m unless the aeroplane has a suitable
autopilot coupled to an ILS or MLS, in which case normal minima apply. The DH must not be less
than 1.25 x the minimum use height for the autopilot.)
32. Circling Approach. The lowest minima to be used by an operator for circling are published in
JAR-OPS. For a Category A aeroplane the minimum MDH is 400ft and the minimum
meteorological visibility 1500m.
33. Visual Approach. An operator is not permitted by JAR-OPS to use an RVR <800m for a
visual approach.
34. Conversion of reported meteorological visibility to RVR. An operator must ensure that a
meteorological visibility to RVR conversion is not used for calculating, take-off minima, Category II
or III minima, or when a reported RVR is available. Conversions to be used in other circumstances
are shown in Figure 3-2.
FIGURE 3-2
Conversion of Lighting elements in operation RVR = Reported Met visibility x
Visibility to RVR
Day Night
HI approach and runway lighting 1.5 2.0
Any type of lighting installation other than above 1.0 1.5
No lighting 1.0 Not applicable
(a) each aeroplane concerned is certificated for operations with decision heights below
200ft, or no decision height, and is equipped in accordance with JAR all weather
operations (AWO) requirements or an equivalent accepted by the Authority;
(b) a suitable system for recording approach and/or automatic landing success and failure
is established and maintained to monitor the overall safety of the operation;
37. Take-off minima. Low visibility take-offs are not permitted when the RVR is <150m for
aircraft category A, B, C and when <200m for aircraft category D unless approved by the Authority.
Aerodrome Facilities
38. An operator is required by JAR-OPS (1.445) to conduct CAT II or III operations only at
aerodromes approved for such operations by the State in which the aerodrome is located. An
operator is required to verify that Low Visibility Procedures (LVP) have been established and will be
enforced where such operations are to be conducted.
(i) has completed the training and checks required by JAR-OPS; and
(b) the training and checking of flight crew has been conducted in accordance with a
detailed syllabus approved by the Authority and included in the Operations Manual;
(c) the flight crew are qualified for the specific operation and aeroplane type.
Operating Procedures
40. Operator’s responsibilities. An operator is required by JAR-OPS (1.455) to establish
procedures and instructions to be used for Low Visibility Take-off and Cat II and III operations.
These procedures must be included in the Operations Manual and must contain the duties of flight
crew members during:
(a) taxying;
(b) take-off;
(c) approach;
(d) flare;
(e) landing;
(f) roll-out;
41. Pilot-in command responsibilities. Before conducting Low Visibility Operations the
commander must be sure that:
(a) the visual and non-visual facilities at the aerodrome are adequate for the operation;
(b) appropriate LVPs are in force at the aerodrome according to information from Air
Traffic Services;
(c) flight crew members are properly qualified for the operation.
(a) Decision Height. An operator must ensure that the DH for a Category II operation is
not lower than:
(ii) the minimum height to which the approach aid can be used without the
required visual reference;
(v) 100ft.
(b) Visual reference. A pilot may not continue an approach below the Category II decision
height unless visual reference containing a segment of at least 3 consecutive lights has
been attained and can be maintained. (The lights may be the centreline of the
approach lights, or touchdown zone lights, or runway centreline lights, or runway
edge lights, or a combination of these). A lateral element of the ground pattern such as
approach lighting crossbar or, landing threshold or barrette of the touchdown zone
lighting, must also be visible.
(c) RVR. The lowest minima to be used by an operator based on calculated DH, and
aeroplane category are published in JAR-OPS. The absolute minimum value of RVR is
300m.
• Category IIIA
• Category IIIB
• Category III operations with no decision height (formerly Cat IIIC)
45. Category IIIA operations. A CAT IIA operation is a precision instrument approach and
landing using ILS or MLS with a DH lower than 100ft and an RVR not less than 200m.
46. Category IIIB operations. A CAT IIIB operation is a precision instrument approach and
landing using ILS or MLS with a DH lower than 50ft, or no DH, and an RVR lower than 200m but
not less than 75m.
47. Calculation of decision height. For operations in which a DH is used, an operator must
ensure that the DH is not lower than:
(b) the minimum height to which the approach aid can be used without the required
visual reference; or,
48. Operations with no decision height. Operations with no DH may only be conducted if;
(b) the approach aid and the aerodrome facilities can support operations with no DH;
and,
(c) the operator has an approval for CAT III operations with no DH.
(Note. In the case of a CAT III runway, it may be assumed that operations with no DH can be
supported unless specifically restricted as published in the AIP or by NOTAM.)
49. Visual reference. The required visual reference depends on whether the operation is CAT IIIA
or B.
(a) CAT IIIA. For CAT IIIA operations the required visual reference is the same as for
CAT II operations.
(b) CAT IIIB. For CAT IIIB operations with a decision height a pilot may not continue an
approach below the DH unless a visual reference containing at least one centreline
light is attained and can be maintained.
Note. For CAT III operations with no DH there is no requirement for visual contact with the runway
prior to touchdown.
50. RVR. The RVR minima to be used in CAT III operations are published in JAR-OPS. Values of
RVR minima are based on DH and flight control systems. (Note. Roll-out guidance is an essential
component in CAT IIIB and CAT III with no DH operations.)
(a) VFR flights are conducted in accordance with the Visual Flight Rules and in
accordance with the flight visibility and separation from cloud specified in Figure 3-2.
(b) Special VFR flights are not commenced when the visibility is less than 3km and not
otherwise conducted when the visibility is less than 1.5km.
FIGURE 3-3
Minimum Visibility Airspace class B C D E F G
Criteria for VFR
Above 900 m (3000 ft) At and below 900 m
Operations
AMSL or above 300 m (3000 ft) AMSL or 300 m
(1000 ft) above terrain, (1000 ft) above terrain,
whichever is the higher whichever if the higher
Distance from Clear of 1500 m horizontally Clear of cloud and in sight
cloud cloud 300 m (1000 ft) vertically of the surface
Flight visibility 8 km at and above 3050 m (10 000 ft) AMSL (Note 5 km (Note 2)
1) 5 km below 3050 m (10 000 ft) AMSL
Note 1. When the height of the transition altitude is lower than 3050m (10 000 ft) AMSL, FL 100
should be used in lieu of 10 000 ft.
Note 2. Cat A and B aeroplanes may be operated in flight visibilities down to 3000m, provided the
appropriate ATS authority permits use of a flight visibility less than 5 km, and the circumstances are
such, that the probability of encounters with other traffic is low, and the IAS is 140 kt or less.
53. In general, instruments and equipment must meet minimum performance standards as
described in Joint Technical Standard Orders (JTSO) as listed in JAR-TSO. Some items of equipment
are exempt from this requirement and these are listed in JAR-OPS. The requirements regarding
specific items of equipment are given in the following extracts for JAR-OPS.
54. Flight without AWR. By implication from JAR-OPS 1.670 an aeroplane which is operating
by day, in VMC in areas where thunderstorms/CB clouds are not expected may operate without
airborne weather radar.
In addition, in the case of an unpressurised propeller-driven aeroplane with a MTOM 5700kg or less
and certified seating for 9 or less passengers may carry other equipment (such as stormscope) instead
of airborne weather radar.
JAR-OPS 1.860 Radio Equipment for Operation Under VFR Over Routes Navigated
by Reference to Visual Landmarks
An operator shall not operate an aeroplane under VFR over routes that can be navigated by
reference to visual landmarks, unless it is equipped with the radio equipment (communication and
SSR) necessary under normal operating conditions to fulfil the following:
(a) Communicate with appropriate ground stations;
(b) Communicate with appropriate ATC facilities in controlled airspace;
(c) Receive meteorological information; and
(d) Reply to SSR interrogations for the route flown.
56. The principle adopted to ensure that maintenance is carried out to an approved standard is
that of ensuring that the operator is either JAR-145 approved or, is using a JAR-145 approved/
accepted maintenance organisation. Maintenance management personnel must be acceptable to the
Authority and must ensure the functioning of the quality system.
JAR-OPS 1.930 Continued Validity of the Air Operator Certificate in Respect of the
Maintenance System
An operator must comply with JAR-OPS 1.175 and 1.180 (general rules for AOC certification) to
ensure continued validity of the air-operator’s certificate in respect of the maintenance system.
Flight Management
Range Flights
1. The planning of long range flights requires a detailed knowledge of the relevant aeronautical
documention and procedures applicable to international flights. Particular attention must be given to
the special considerations when planning flights over areas where navigation is difficult or where
special procedures are necessary such as in polar regions or long over-water flights. Where possible
routes to be flown should be selected so as to combine the need for safety, economy or minimum
time, with the requirements of international regulations and controlled airspace.
2. The planning of such flights must not be undertaken lightly, and several hours should be set
aside as preparation time prior to the date of the initial flight. This time should be spent reviewing
the aspects of the flight in conjunction with aeronautical publications, NOTAM, arrival and
departure procedures and approach plates etc. Up-to-date charts should be used on which the
route(s) can be selected or drawn, navigation aids identified and adequate alternate airfields located.
3. The specific responsibilities of aircraft operators and of pilots-in-command in relation to
flight preparation and management for commercial flights are described in ICAO Annex 6 and JAR-
OPS 1.
Flight Management
Navigation Planning
Operator’s Responsibilities
4. An operator is required by JAR-OPS to ensure that operations are only conducted along such
routes and in such areas for which:
(b) the aeroplane performance is sufficient to comply with minimum flight altitude
limitations;
(c) the aeroplane equipment meets the minimum requirements for the operation;
(e) in the case of two engined aeroplanes adequate aerodromes are available within the
specified time/distance limitations;
(f) in the case of single engined aeroplanes surfaces are available which permit a safe
forced landing to be executed.
5. The operator must also ensure that an operational flight plan is completed for each flight.
Commander’s Responsibilities
6. The commander may not, under JAR-OPS, commence a flight unless he is satisfied that:
(b) the aeroplane is not operated contrary to the configuration deviation list (CDL) .
(Reminder. The CDL is a list established by the organisation responsible for the aircraft type design
which identifies any external parts of the aircraft which may be missing at the start of a flight, and
any associated operating limitations and performance corrections.)
(c) the instruments and equipment required for the flight are available;
(d) the instruments and equipment are in operable condition except as provided in the
MEL;
(g) current maps, data and associated documentation are available to cover the flight and
any diversion that might be expected;
(h) ground services and facilities are adequate for the flight;
(i) the requirements for fuel, oil, oxygen, minimum safe altitudes, aerodrome operating
minima and alternate aerodromes can be complied with;
(k) the aeroplane performance on the flight will be in compliance with JAR-OPS
requirements.
(Note. The ICAO Annex 6 requirements for flight preparation are described in Chapter 2 paragraph
25.
(a) must be prepared for every flight and a copy filed with the operator or a designated
agent or, if neither of these is available, with the aerodrome operating authority or
otherwise on record at the point of departure.
(b) must be approved and signed by the commander, and where applicable by the
operations officer/flight despatcher.
8. Contents of the operational flight plan. Except for items which are available in other
documentation, or from another acceptable source or, are irrelevant to the operation the following
items must be included in the operational flight plan:
(13) planned cruising speeds and elapsed times (estimated and actual overhead
times);
(18) alternate(s) for destination and if applicable, for take-off and en-route,
(including aspects covered by 12, 13, 14, 15);
9. The operator is responsible for ensuring that the operational flight plan and its use are
described in the Operations Manual. In addition, the operator must ensure that entries in the
operational flight plan are made concurrently and that they are permanent in nature.
11. The normal time in advance of departure for filing a flight plan on the ground is 60 minutes.
Selection of Route
General Criteria Applicable to Route and Aerodromes
12. The specific factors which the operator of a commercial flight must consider before
conducting operations along a route are described in paragraph 4. In general the operator will be
concerned with achieving the most economic or minimum time route consistent with the
requirements of safety and aeroplane performance criteria, air traffic control and international rules.
Aerodromes selected for destination and alternate(s) must be adequate.
(a) it is available or expected to be available (at the anticipated time of use); and,
(b) it meets with the landing performance requirements of the aeroplane; and,
(c) it has all the necessary facilities such as ATC, lighting, communications,
meteorological services, navigation aids, rescue and fire-fighting services.
14. For the purposes of extended range twin operations (ETOPS) an adequate aerodrome must
also have at least one let-down aid (ground radar would meet this requirement) for an instrument
approach.
FIGURE 4-1
Threshold Times
16. The times given in Figure 4-1 are converted to a distance, known as the ‘threshold distance’.
This distance is calculated using the one engine inoperative cruise TAS assuming ISA conditions and
level flight at a level that can be sustained on one engine but, not exceeding FL 170 for turbojet
aeroplanes or, FL 80 for propeller driven aeroplanes. The aeroplane mass is assumed to be the that
based on a take-off at maximum take-off mass (MTOM) less the fuel for the climb to optimum long
range cruise altitude and all engine cruise to the threshold distance.
17. The one engine inoperative cruising speed and the threshold distance specific to an aeroplane
must be included in the Operations Manual.
ETOPS Approval
18. An operator is not permitted by JAR-OPS to conduct operations beyond the threshold
distance determined as in paragraphs 16/17 without ETOPS approval. And, prior to conducting an
ETOPS flight an operator must ensure that a suitable ETOPS en-route alternate is available within
either the approved diversion time or a diversion time based on the MEL generated serviceability
status of the aeroplane, whichever is the least.
(ICAO Annex 8 requires that on aeroplanes certificated for ditching conditions provisions must be
made in the design to give maximum practicable assurance that safe evacuation from the aeroplane
of passengers and crew can be executed in the case of a ditching.)
20. En-route - one engine inoperative. JAR-OPS requires an operator to ensure that the one
engine inoperative en-route net flight path data shown in the Aeroplane Flight Manual (AFM),
appropriate to the meteorological conditions expected complies with the following limitations:
(a) the net flight path must have a positive gradient (i.e. the aeroplane possesses a positive
rate of climb, typically 150fpm) at 1500ft above the aerodrome where the landing is
assumed to be made after engine failure; and
(b) the gradient of the net flight path must be positive at an altitude of at least 1000ft
above all terrain and obstructions along the route within 9.3km (5nm) either side of
track.
(Note. Whenever this ‘obstacle distance’ is given in the succeeding paragraphs, it can be assumed that
it is automatically increased to 18.5km (10nm) where the navigation accuracy is not within the 95%
containment accuracy specified for the route or area.)
(c) The net flight path must allow the aeroplane to continue flight from the cruising
altitude to an aerodrome where a landing can be made clearing by at least 2000ft all
terrain and obstructions within the distances specified in sub-paragraph (b).
21. En-route – aeroplanes with three or more engines – two engines inoperative. JAR-OPS
requires that an operator must ensure that at no point along the intended track will an aeroplane
having three or more engines be more than 90 minutes, at an all engines long range cruising speed in
ISA and in still air, away from an aerodrome at which the performance requirements at the expected
landing mass are met.
22. An exemption from this requirement is allowed by JAR-OPS if the two engine inoperative net
flight path in the expected meteorological conditions permits the aeroplane to continue to an
aerodrome where a landing can be made clearing en-route all terrain and obstructions within the
distances specified in paragraph 20 (b) by at least 2000ft.
23. En-route – multi engined aeroplanes. An operator is required by JAR-OPS to ensure that the
aeroplane, in the meteorological conditions expected on the flight, in the event of the failure of one
engine, with the remaining engine(s) on maximum continuous power, is capable of continuing flight
at or above the minimum safe altitude specified in the Operations Manual to a height of 1000ft
above an aerodrome at which it can land.
24. En-route – single engined aeroplanes. An operator is required by JAR-OPS to ensure that the
aeroplane, in the meteorological conditions expected for the flight, in the event of engine failure, is
capable of reaching a place at a height overhead which (normally 1000ft) permits a safe forced
landing to be made. For land planes, a land surface is required.
25. En-route – all engines operating. An operator is required by JAR-OPS to ensure that the
aeroplane will, in any meteorological conditions expected on the flight, at any point on its route or
diversion therefrom, be capable of a rate of climb of at least 300fpm, at the minimum safe altitude,
with all engines at maximum continuous power.
26. En-route – one engine inoperative. An operator must ensure that in the event of engine
failure, the aeroplane can continue with the remaining engines on maximum continuous power, to an
aerodrome where a landing can be made.
Obstacles within 9.3km (5nm) of track must be cleared by at least 1000ft when the rate of climb is
zero or greater, (2000ft if the rate of climb is less than zero).
27. En-route – aeroplanes with 3 or more engines – two engines inoperative. An operator must
ensure that at no point along the intended track, will the aeroplane be more than 90 minutes at the
all engines long range cruising speed, in still air, from an aerodrome at which a landing can be made,
unless:
(a) with 2 engines inoperative it can clear obstacles within 9.3km (5nm) of track by at
least 2000ft; and,
(b) if the engines fail at the most critical point on the route, the expected mass of the
aeroplane will be such that it has sufficient fuel to proceed to an aerodrome and hold
overhead for at least 15 minutes at not less than 1500ft.
29. The planned route, or any subsequent changes from it, must always fall within one or more of
the threshold time lines. The procedure is illustrated in Figure 4-2.
FIGURE 4-2
32. Typically, long range cruising levels will be in the band from FL290 to FL410 for turbojet
aeroplanes.
33. Cruising levels in the North Atlantic Organised Track System are from FL310 to FL390
inclusive. Flights within the area known as Minimum Navigation Performance Specification
(MPNS) airspace can only operate with State of Registry approval. In addition, for operations in
airspace in which Reduced Vertical Separation Minima apply State of Registry approval is also
required. Where this is the case the separation between same direction cruising levels can be reduced
to 1000ft.
34. Within the constraints described the optimum cruise altitude should normally that which
combines the benefit of long range with the wind velocity. For example, where strong headwinds are
expected at a particular level the selection of a lower or higher level may provide greater overall
economy even though the rate of fuel consumption is higher.
(c) the characteristics of the terrain along routes or in areas of operation (eg. sudden
changes in elevation);
36. Where the minimum flight altitudes notified by the States to be overflown are higher than
those established by the operator, the higher values must be used.
Take-off Alternate
39. Requirement for a take-off alternate. JAR-OPS requires the operator to specify take-off
alternate if it would not be possible for an aeroplane to return to the aerodrome of departure because
of meteorological or performance reasons.
40. Location of take-off alternate – two-engined aeroplanes. The take-off alternate for a two-
engined aeroplane must be within either:
(a) one hour at the one-engine-inoperative cruising speed given in the AFM, in still air and
standard conditions based on the actual take-off mass; or,
(b) two hours or, the approved ETOPS diversion time, whichever is least, at the one-
engine-inoperative cruising speed given in the AFM, in still air and standard
conditions for aeroplanes and crews authorised for ETOPS.
41. Location of take-off alternate – three and four-engined aeroplanes. The take-off alternate for
three and four-engined aeroplanes must be within 2 hours at the one-engine-inoperative cruising
speed given in the AFM, in still air standard conditions based on the actual take-off mass.
(Note. If the AFM does not contain a one-engine-inoperative cruising speed the speed to be used
must be that achieved with remaining engine(s) set at maximum continuous power.
42. Planning minima for take-off alternate (IFR flights). An operator shall not select an
aerodrome as a take-off alternate unless:
(a) the weather forecasts or reports for one hour before to one hour after the ETA at the
alternate indicate that conditions will be at or above the applicable landing minima
specified in accordance with JAR-OPS;
(b) the cloud ceiling is taken into account when only non-precision and/or circling
approaches are available;
Destination Alternate
43. Requirement for one destination alternate. An operator is required under JAR-OPS to select
at least one destination alternate for each IFR flight unless:
(a) both:
(i) the duration of the flight from take-off to landing does not exceed 6hr; and,
(ii) two separate runways are available at the destination and the meteorological
conditions prevailing are such that, for the period from one hour before ETA
to one hour after ETA, the approach from the relevant minimum sector
altitude and the landing can be made in VMC; or,
44. Requirement for two destination alternates. An operator must select two destination
alternates when:
(a) the appropriate weather reports or forecasts for the destination for the period from
one hour before, to one hour after, ETA indicate that conditions will be below the
applicable planning minima; or,
45. Planning minima for destination alternate(s). An operator is required by JAR-OPS to select as
a destination alternate an aerodrome at which the appropriate weather reports or forecasts (or any
combination thereof), indicate that during a period from one hour before to one hour after ETA, the
weather conditions will be at or above the following planning minima:
(a) Cat II and III approach available – planning minima based on Cat I RVR;
(b) Cat I approach available – planning minima based on non-precision i.e. RVR, with
cloud ceiling at or above MDH;
46. Planning minima for en-route alternate. The planning minima for an en-route alternate are
the same as for a destination alternate.
Landing Requirements
Performance ‘A’ Aeroplanes
47. An operator is required by JAR-OPS to ensure that the landing mass of the aeroplane for the
estimated time of landing at the destination or any alternate, permits a landing from 50ft above the
threshold to full stop within:
(a) for turbo-jet aeroplanes on dry runways - 60% of the landing distance available;
(b) for turbo-propeller aeroplanes on dry runways - 70% of the landing distance
available;
(c) for all types on wet runways – 115% of the landing distance required for dry runways
48. For instrument approaches with decision heights below 200ft the mass of the aeroplane must
be calculated to allow a missed approach gradient of climb, with the critical engine failed, of 2.5%,
or the published gradient, whichever is the greater.
FIGURE 4-3
Comparison of
Great Circle and
Rhumb Line
Tracks
(Note. The total track change due to convergency, between waypoints can also be calculated from
the formula:
Convergency = ch’ long x Sine Mean Latitude).
52. The use of minimum time routes is illustrated in the North Atlantic Organised Track System
(OTS). Planners at the appropriate oceanic area control centre (OAC) determine the basic minimum
time tracks for westbound and eastbound North Atlantic traffic taking into account the routes
preferred by airlines and notified to the OAC as well as any airspace restrictions.
Procedures
Regulatory Material
1. Regulatory material concerning transoceanic aircraft operations is contained in appropriate
ICAO Regional Supplementary Procedures (Doc. 7030), ICAO Annexes and PANS/RAC (Doc.
4444). Individual States also publish relevant regulations, information/warnings and guidance in
State AIPs and current NOTAM.
2. In the case of operations in the North Atlantic region, guidance is also provided in the North
Atlantic MNPS Airspace Operations Manual. This document is published on behalf of the North
Atlantic Systems Planning Group, which is a regional planning body operating under the auspices of
ICAO. This group is responsible for developing the required procedures, services, facilities and
aircraft and operator approval standards employed in the North Atlantic region.
FIGURE 5-1
North Atlantic
(NAT) Region
4. Most of the airspace within these FIRs is high seas airspace and the Council of ICAO has
resolved that rules appropriate to the high seas apply without exception, however, the responsibility
for enforcement of them rests with the aircraft State of Registry. The airspace is designated in Doc.
7030 as IFR only, (Class ‘A’), at or above FL60 or 2000ft (600m) AGL, whichever is higher within
New York, Gander, Shanwick, Santa Maria, Oceanic Control Areas and Sondrestrom and Reykjavik
FIRs, and within Bodo Oceanic FIR when more than 100nm from the shoreline. Therefore all flights
must be subject to an air traffic control service; all flights are separated from each other. Most of the
airspace below FL60 is class ‘G’. The airspace between FL285 and FL420 is designated in Doc. 7030
as ‘Minimum Navigation Performance Specification’ (MNPS) Airspace.
6. Aircraft operating within MNPS Airspace are required to meet a Minimum Navigation
Performance Specification (MNPS) in the horizontal plane through the mandatory carriage and use
of a specified level of navigation equipment which has been approved by the State of Registry or,
State of the Operator, for the purpose.
8. The lateral dimensions of MNPS Airspace are from latitude 27N to the North Pole, bounded
in the East by the eastern boundaries of control areas Santa Maria Oceanic, Shanwick Oceanic, and
Reykjavik, and in the west by the western boundary of CTA ReykjaviK, the western boundary of
CTA Gander Oceanic and the western boundary of CTA New York Oceanic excluding west of 60N
and south of 3830N.
(The airspace within New York OCA to the west of 060W contains an extensive system of routes
between the USA, Canada, Bermuda and the Caribbean, which known as the Western Atlantic Route
System (WATRS)).
9. Within MNPS Airspace the concept of Reduced Vertical Separation Minima (RVSM) has been
introduced in order to permit suitably qualified aircraft to operate with reduced vertical separation.
FIGURE 5-2
MNPS Airspace FL
285 - FL 420
RVSM Airspace
10. The whole of MNPS Airspace from FL310 to FL390 is designated also as RVSM airspace.
Aircraft used to conduct flights within this airspace where RVSM are applied must have State of
Registry approval. Such approvals are granted only after confirmation that each aircraft meets the
Minimum Aircraft System Performance Specification (MASPS). When RVSM levels are used vertical
separation within the altitude band concerned can be reduced to 1000ft.
(a) flights operating between North America and Europe are considered to be operating
in a predominantly east-west direction;
(b) flights planned between those same two continents via the North Pole are considered
to be operating in a predominantly north-south direction.
14. Flights operating north of 70N. The planned tracks shall normally be defined by significant
points formed by the intersection of parallels of latitude in degrees and minutes with meridians
normally spaced at 20° intervals from the Greenwich meridian to 060W.
15. The distance between significant points shall, as far as possible, not exceed one hour’s flight
time.
Cruising Speed
18. For turbojet aircraft within the oceanic control areas of NAT airspace, the Mach number that
is planned to be used for any portion of their flight within these areas must be specified in Item 15 of
the flight plan. Item 15 of the flight plan should reflect the proposed speeds in the following
sequence:
• cruising TAS;
• oceanic entry point and cruising Mach number;
• oceanic landfall and cruising TAS.
(It is important to note the specific use of Mach number within MNPS Airspace: the Oceanic
Clearance given by ATC will include the ATC approved Mach number which must not be deviated
from without clearance except when necessary for safety reasons (eg. turbulence), in which case ATC
must be informed as soon as possible.
(Note. This means that in terms of the more recent reference to Required Navigation Performance
(RNP) this requirement equates to an RNP of 12.6, (in other words, for 95% of a flight, the lateral
track error will not exceed 12.6nm.)
• Two fully serviceable Long Range Navigation Systems (LRNSs). A LRNS may be one of the
following:
- one Inertial Navigation System (INS);
24. Three independent systems. Normally, such navigation systems include comparator and/or
warning devices, but it is still necessary for the crew to make frequent comparison checks. When an
installation includes three independent systems, a comparison between outputs should easily reveal
the faulty system.
25. Two independent systems. When only two systems are provided the identification of a
defective system is likely to be more difficult. If such a situation arises in oceanic airspace any or all
of the following actions should be considered:
(i) the weather radar (range marks and relative bearing lines) to determine the
position relative to an identifiable landmark; or,
(ii) the ADF to obtain bearings from a suitable NDB, (using the variation at the
aircraft to convert magnetic bearings to true); or,
(iii) if within range, a VOR, in which case the magnetic variation at the VOR
location should be used to convert the radial to a true bearing (except when
flying in the Canadian Northern Domestic Airspace where VOR bearings may
be oriented with reference to true as opposed to magnetic north). (When
simultaneous DME ranging is also available navigation errors should be
resolved rapidly).
(b) contacting a nearby aircraft on VHF, and comparing information on spot wind, or
ground speed and drift.
(c) if such assistance is not available, and as a last resort, the flight plan wind velocity for
the current DR position of the aircraft, can be compared with the navigation system
outputs.
26. Interpretation of fixing. In addition to the obvious use of establishing position, a series of at
least two fixes can also be used to determine the track made good, ground speed and, if the average
heading and TAS are known, the wind velocity.
Separation of Aircraft
27. Separation between aircraft in NAT Region (MNPS) airspace is achieved by means of lateral
separation, longitudinal separation (using the ‘Mach Number Technique’) and vertical separation,
this is known as composite separation.
Lateral Separation
28. Minimum lateral separation in the NAT Region defined in Doc.7030 is:
(a) 60nm between aircraft which meet MNPS requirements where a portion of the route
is within, above or below MNPS Airspace;
Longitudinal Separation
29. Mach Number Technique. In this technique subsonic turbojet aircraft operating successively
along suitable routes are cleared by ATC to maintain appropriate Mach Numbers for a relevant
portion of the en-route phase of their flight. The principle of this procedure is that where successive
aircraft are maintaining the same Mach number their longitudinal separation will be maintained with
only minor variations over long periods. The technique requires that aircraft adhere rigidly to their
approved Mach number and in addition make accurate position reports based on an accurate time
reference. Pilots intending to operate in MNPS Airspace are required therefore to use accurate clocks
and obtain a time check against a standard time signal, based on UTC, before entering MNPS
Airspace.
30. Minimum separation between subsonic turbojet aircraft meeting the MNPS requirements
when a portion of the route is within, above or below MNPS Airspace is:
(a) 10 minutes providing the (same) Mach number technique is applied whether in level,
climbing or descending flight and the aircraft concerned have reported over a common
reporting point and follow the same or a continuously diverging track;
(b) between 10 and 5 minutes inclusive, only when it is possible to ensure, by radar or
other means approved by the State, that the required time interval exists and will
continue to exist at the common point, providing the preceding aircraft is maintaining
a greater Mach number than the following aircraft (the length of the specified time
interval depends on the difference between the aircraft speeds, for example, 9 min if
preceding aircraft is MO.02 faster, or 5 min when preceding aircraft is MO.06 faster
than the following aircraft);
33. When an abbreviated clearance is issued to follow one of the organised tracks or a Polar
Track it will include:
(d) if the aircraft is designated to send meteorological information in flight, the phrase
‘send met reports’.
34. Read Back. Pilots are required to read back the contents of the clearance message. In addition
when cleared to follow an organised track, unless alternative procedures are approved, the pilot is
required to read back full details of the track specified by the code letter. Where the term ‘cleared via
flight planned route’ is used the pilot shall read back full details of the flight plan route.
35. Change of ETA. After obtaining a clearance for oceanic entry, if the forward estimate for the
oceanic entry point changes by 3 minutes or more the pilot must pass a revised estimate to ATC as
soon as possible. This principle applies also to any forward estimate included in a position report.
37. East-West Flights. ATS may require any flight operating in a predominantly east-west
direction to report its position at any of the intermediate meridians spaced at intervals of:
38. North-South Flights. ATS may require any flight operating generally in a north-south
direction to report its position at any intermediate parallel of latitude when deemed necessary.
39. In requiring aircraft to report their position at intermediate intervals, the ATS authorities will
be guided by the requirement to have position information at approximately hourly intervals.
41. Time in position reports is to be expressed using four digits, giving hour and minutes.
Meteorological Reports
43. From among the aircraft intending to operate on organised tracks, oceanic control centres
will designate those flights which are required to make routine meteorological observations at each
prescribed reporting point. The designation will be made by the oceanic area control centre
delivering the clearance using the phrase ‘Send Met Reports’ and should be made so as to designate
one aircraft per track, at hourly intervals.
44. The content of the routine ‘met report’ element of a position report is:
(d) Turbulence
(a) inability to maintain assigned level due to adverse weather, aircraft performance,
pressurisation failure (and problems associated with high-level supersonic flight;
(b) loss of or, significant reduction in, the navigation capability when operating in parts of
the airspace where a high accuracy of navigation is required; and,
General Procedures
46. Request for ATC clearance. If an aircraft is unable to continue flight in accordance with its
ATC clearance, a revised clearance must be obtained prior to initiating any action. This procedure
also applies when an aircraft is unable to maintain an accuracy of navigation on which the
separation minima applied by ATC between it and adjacent aircraft depends. The request for a
revised clearance must be made using the RT distress or urgency signal as appropriate. Subsequent
ATC action will depend on the intentions of the pilot and the overall air traffic situation.
47. Aircraft unable to obtain prior clearance. If prior clearance cannot be obtained, ATC
clearance must be obtained as soon as possible and in the meantime, the pilot must:
(a) broadcast position (including ATS route designator or the track code, as appropriate)
and intentions on 121.5MHz at suitable intervals until ATC clearance is obtained;
(b) make maximum use of lights to make the aircraft more visible;
(a) Initial action. If unable to obtain ATC clearance, the aircraft should leave its assigned
route or track by turning 90 degrees to the right or left, whenever this is possible. The
direction of the turn should be based on the position of the aircraft relative to any
adjacent tracks but other factors such as the direction to an alternate aerodrome,
terrain clearance and the levels assigned to adjacent tracks may also be relevant.
(ii) turn while descending to acquire and maintain in either direction a track which
is laterally separated by 30nm from its assigned route or track; and,
(iii) for the subsequent level, a level should be selected which differs from those
normally used by 1000ft if above FL410 or by 500ft if below FL410.
The specific actions in the event of an aircraft needing to make such a diversion when prior ATC
clearance cannot be obtained depend on whether the aircraft is able to maintain its assigned flight
level.
(a) turn towards the alternate aerodrome to acquire a track which is separated laterally
by 30nm from the assigned route or track; and
(e) when on the offset track, expedite a descent to an altitude below FL285 or, a climb to
an altitude above FL410; and,
(f) when at or below FL285 or above FL410, proceed towards the alternate aerodrome
while maintaining a level which differs from those normally used by 500ft if below
FL410 or 1000ft if above FL410; or,
(g) if unable or unwilling to make a major climb or descent, fly an altitude offset for the
diversion until obtaining an ATC clearance.
(a) initially minimise its descent rate to the extent that is operationally feasible; and,
(b) start its descent while turning to acquire a track separated laterally by 30nm from its
assigned route or track; and,
(c) unless circumstances dictate otherwise, maintain the offset track while expediting a
descent to below FL285; and,
(d) unless circumstances dictate otherwise, when below FL285, proceed towards the
alternate aerodrome; and
(e) continue a descent to a level which can be maintained and which differs from those
normally used, by 500ft, if below FL410.
(Note. ATC must be advised of the actions taken where possible, however, the specific guidance in
Doc.7030 is that when a twin-engined aircraft is involved in such procedures as a result of the
shutdown of a power unit or a primary system failure, ATC should be advised of the aircraft type
and the need for expeditious handling.)
Pilots communicate with OACs via aeradio stations staffed by communicators who have no
executive ATC authority and messages are relayed from the ground station to the relevant OAC for
action. Aeradio stations and OACs are not necessarily co-located.
53. Aircraft with only VHF communications equipment should plan their route outside the
Shanwick OCA and ensure that they remain within VHF coverage of appropriate ground stations.
54. Aeradio stations are also responsible for the operation of general purpose (GP) VHF outlets.
These stations are valuable in the vicinity of Iceland, Faeroes and Greenland since VHF is not as
susceptible to sunspot activity as HF. As with HF communications contact on VHF is also with an
aeradio station radio operator and not directly with ATC but, direct controller/pilot communications
(DCPC) can be arranged on some frequencies.
SELCAL Operation
55. The requirement for maintaining a continuous listening watch on assigned HF frequency is
not mandatory if a SELCAL watch is maintained and correct operation is ensured. Correct SELCAL
operation is ensured by:
(b) the issue of a correction to the SELCAL code if subsequently altered due to change of
aircraft or equipment; and,
(c) an operational check of the SELCAL equipment with the appropriate radio station at
or before initial entry into oceanic airspace. This SELCAL check must be completed
before commencing SELCAL watch.
(Note. ICAO Doc. 7030 recommends that SELCAL watch on the assigned radio frequency should be
maintained, even in areas of the region where VHF coverage is available and used for air/ground
communications.)
VHF Guard
56. Pilots operating in the NAT Region are required to monitor continuously the VHF emergency
frequency 121.5MHz except when communicating on other frequencies or when airborne equipment
or cockpit duties do not permit the simultaneous guarding of two channels.
Air-to-Air Communications
57. Should air-to-air communication be necessary, for example to arrange for the relaying of a
position report after failure of HF communications, it is recommended that initial contact is made on
121.5MHz before exchanging messages on frequency 131.8MHz (Note, this frequency is reserved
for air-to-air communications and the MNPS Operations Manual recommends that aircraft monitor
this frequency also, when flying in NAT airspace).
59. Radio failure procedures in MNPS Airspace described in Doc.7030 depend on whether the
failure occurs before entering or while operating within the NAT Region.
(a) if operating with a received and acknowledged Oceanic Clearance aircraft with radio
failure should enter oceanic airspace at the cleared level and speed at the cleared
oceanic entry point and proceed in accordance with the clearance.
(Any speed or level adjustments required to comply with the clearance must be completed within the
vicinity of the oceanic entry point).
(b) If operating without a received and acknowledged Oceanic Clearance, enter oceanic
airspace at the first oceanic entry point, level and speed as contained in the filed flight
plan and proceed in accordance with the flight plan to route to landfall. That first
oceanic level and speed must be maintained to landfall.
62. Aircraft cleared by ATC on other than filed flight plan route. Aircraft must proceed in
accordance with the last received and acknowledged Oceanic Clearance, including level and speed, to
the last specified oceanic route point, normally landfall.
After passing this point conform to relevant State procedures/regulations and rejoin the filed flight
plan route, proceeding if possible via the published ATS route structure to the next significant route
point on the flight plan.
SSR Procedures
63. Unless otherwise directed by ATC, pilots of aircraft equipped with SSR shall retain the last
assigned Mode A (identity) code for a period of 30 minutes after entry into NAT Airspace and
operate the SSR transponder on Mode A code 2000 after this time.
(Note. The requirement for the continuous operation of Mode C or the use of SSR special purpose
codes 7500, 7600, and 7700 are unaffected by this requirement).
65. Failure of one Long Range Navigation System (LRNS) before reaching (MNPS Airspace)/
OCA boundary. The pilot must consider:
(a) landing at a suitable aerodrome before the boundary or returning to the aerodrome of
departure;
(b) diverting to a special contingency route (these routes called ‘Blue Spruce Routes’ are
published for use by aircraft suffering partial loss of navigation capability and follow
closer to land and short range navigation aids);
66. Failure of one LRNS after the OCA boundary is crossed. Once the aircraft has entered
oceanic airspace, the pilot should normally continue to operate the aircraft in accordance with the
Oceanic Clearance already received however, the pilot should:
(a) assess the aircraft’s remaining navigation performance and try to obtain ATC
clearance for an appropriate course of action such as, turn-back, flight above or below
MNPS Airspace, or use of a special route;
(b) continue to monitor the performance of the remaining navigation system, for example
by comparison of compass systems (main and standby), position of other aircraft
(from contrails), and if doubt exists, by comparing wind and track details with aircraft
that should be following the same track.
67. Failure of remaining LRNS after entering MNPS Airspace. The pilot should:
(b) make the best use of the comparison procedures in the preceding paragraph;
(c) keep a look-out for possible conflicting aircraft, and make maximum use of external
lights;
(d) if no instructions are received from ATC within a reasonable time consider climbing or
descending 500ft, broadcasting action taken on 121.5MHz and advising ATC as soon
as possible.
(Note. These procedures should also be followed if when the remaining system gives an indication of
degradation of performance, or neither system fails completely but, the system indications diverge
widely and the defective system cannot be determined.)
68. Procedure recommended to minimise the effect of a total navigation computer system failure.
If the computer system fails and steering guidance is not available but the basic outputs of latitude
and longitude, drift, and groundspeed remain usable the pilot should consider plotting the navigation
parameters on a suitable chart. The type of actions to follow are:
(a) draw the cleared route on a suitable chart, extracting mean true tracks between
waypoints;
(b) use basic IRS/GPS outputs to adjust heading to maintain track and to calculate ETAs;
(c) at intervals of not more than 15 minutes plot positions on the chart and adjust
heading to regain track.
70. Because of the constraints of large horizontal separation criteria and a limited economical
height band (FL 310 – 390) the airspace is very congested at peak hours. In order to provide the best
service to the bulk of the traffic, a system of organised tracks is constructed every 12 hours to
accommodate as many aircraft as possible on or close to their minimum time tracks.
71. Airspace utilisation is improved by the use of RVSM procedures. The application of ‘Mach
Number Technique’ permits further improvement of utilisation along tracks and help to facilitate en
route step-climbs.
72. Because of the energetic nature of North Atlantic weather systems, including jet streams,
eastbound and westbound minimum time tracks are seldom identical. The creation of a different
organised track system is therefore necessary every 12 hours.
74. When the expected traffic level justifies it, tracks are established to cater for Europe -
Caribbean routing. Extra care is required when planning on these routes as they differ slightly form
the ‘core tracks’ in that they may cross, and in some cases may not extend from coast out to coast in
(necessitating random routing to join or leave). Similarly, tracks may commence at 030ºW north of
61º N to cater for NAT traffic routing via Reykjavik OCA and northern Canada.
75. The agreed organised track system is then promulgated as the NAT Track Message via the
Aeronautical Fixed Telecommunication Network (AFTN) to all interested addressees. A typical time
of publication of the daytime OTS is 0000UTC and of the night-time OTS is 1200UTC. Examples of
both systems showing track and flight level availability are given in Figure 5-3, Figure 5-4,
Figure 5-5 and Figure 5-6.
FIGURE 5-3
Example of Day-
Time Westbound
Organised Track
System (Valid 1130
to 1800UTC at
030°W)
FIGURE 5-4
Example of
Westbound NAT
Track Message
FIGURE 5-5
Example of Night-
Time Eastbound
Organised Track
System (Valid 0100
to 0800 UTC at
030°W).
FIGURE 5-6
Example of
Eastbound NAT
Track Message
78. Interpreting the NAT Track Message. In Figure 5-4, the most northerly track, Alpha, is
routed westbound via 59N 010W, 61N 020W, 61N 030W, 61N 040W, 61N 050W, 60N 060W,
reporting point ‘CIMAT’. Westbound, levels available along this track are FL310, 320, 330, 340,
350, 360, 390. There are no eastbound levels. Additional details are added concerning link routes to
Europe or North America. Alpha/numeric details relate to North American Routes (NAR) available.
In the Remarks section, the originating OAC identified each NAT Track Message with a 3-digit
Track Message Identification (TMI) number equivalent to the Julian calender date on which that
OTS is effective. (The Julian calender date is a simple progressions of numbered days, without
reference to months, with numbering starting from the first day of the year, eg. February 1st is
identified by TMI32.
79. Correct interpretation of the track message by airline dispatchers and aircrews is essential to
both economy of operation and in minimising the possibility of misunderstanding leading to the use
of incorrect track co-ordinates. Oceanic airspace outside the published OTS is available, subject to
separation criteria and NOTAM restrictions. If an operator wishes to file partly or wholly outside
the OTS, knowledge of separation criteria, the forecast upper wind situation and correct
interpretation of the NAT Track Message will assist in judging the feasibility of the planned route.
82. Flights within this period are required to file ‘random route’ flight plans.
84. Flights which are planned to remain clear of the OTS or which join or leave an OTS track (ie.
follow an OTS track for only part of its published length) and flights which are outside the OTS
periods, should normally plan flight level(s) appropriate to the direction of the flight.
85. Under the implementation of RVSM within MNPS Airspace, the system known as the Flight
Level Allocation System (FLAS) allocates approximate direction levels as follows:
(a) Appropriate Direction Eastbound Levels - FL270, 290, 310, 330, 350, 370, 390, 410,
450 etc.
(b) Appropriate Direction Westbound Levels - FL260, 280, 320, 340, 360, 380, 430, 470
etc.
Note. Current AIPs may specify some exceptions to these levels both inside and outside OTS
periods. Reference must therefore be made to current AIPs when planning such flights as level
restrictions may be imposed.
86. Random route flights which cross 030°W just prior to the start of the next OTS period and
which are opposite to that periods flow have only a limited allocation of levels. Specifically,
eastbound flights crossing at 1030 UTC or later have FLs 290, 350, 370, 410 allocated and
westbound flights crossing at 2200 UTC or later have FLs 280, 320, 340, 380, 410 allocated.
FIGURE 5-7
Polar Track
Structure
89. Although not mandatory, flights planning to operate on the Europe-Alaska axis at FL 310-
390 inclusive are recommended to submit flight plans in accordance with one of the promulgated
PTS tracks.
Flight Plans
90. If (and only if) the flight is planned to operate the whole length of one of the polar tracks, the
intended track should be defined in item 15 of the flight plan using the abbreviation ‘PTS’ plus the
track number. All other flights are considered to be random route flights and full track details must
be specified.
91. The requested Mach number and flight level should be specified at the start of the PTS or at
the NAT Oceanic boundary. Each point at which a Mach number or flight level change is planned
must be specified as latitude and longitude followed in each case by ‘PTS’ and the track code.
Abbreviated Clearances
92. An abbreviated clearance may be used when clearing an aircraft to follow one of the polar
tracks throughout its flight within the Reykjavik CTA and/or the Bodo OCA. When an abbreviated
clearance is issued it shall include:
For example: Position Japanair 422 Polar Romeo 20W/1620, estimating Polar Romeo 40W/1718
Flight Level 330, next Polar Romeo 69W.
95. Unless otherwise required by air traffic services a position report must be made at the
significant points listed in the appropriate AIP for the relevant PTS track.
Polar Navigation
Specific Problems
Navigation-Contingency Procedures
Steering By Directional Gyro (DG)
Grid Navigation
6 Polar Navigation
Specific Problems
1. Flight at high latitudes near to the North (or South) Pole requires careful planning because of
specific problems associated with polar navigation. Even with modern navigation systems difficulties
can arise and diligent monitoring of navigation systems is essential so that any errors can be
corrected quickly. Contingency procedures should be available to the flight crew to overcome the
special problems resulting from navigation systems failure in high latitudes.
(a) Horizontal component of Earth magnetism weak. Proximity to the north magnetic
pole means that the horizontal (directional) component of the Earth’s magnetic field is
sufficiently weak to make magnetic compass systems unreliable or useless. (In
addition because the vertical component of the field is strong, the angle of dip on a
compass magnet or magnetic sensor is increased resulting in increased turning and
acceleration errors). In the absence of INS, steering by directional gyro becomes
necessary in these areas. Figure 6-1 illustrates the general area of compass
unreliability.
(b) Variation changes. Large changes of magnetic variation are likely in Polar Regions
because of the proximity to the magnetic pole.
(c) Longitude changes. Rapid changes of longitude occur when operating close to the
geographic north (and south) Poles and short distance errors can result in large
positional errors.
(d) Convergence of meridians. Near to the Pole the convergence of meridians means that
an aircraft in flight will experience rapid changes in the direction of true north. This
effect causes the direction of great circle tracks to change rapidly and in the absence of
a modern INS the use of an alternative north reference and grid navigation is required.
(e) Gyro drift corrections. Operations close to the Pole using Directional Gyros result in
the need for high rates of gyro correction for the apparent drift due to the rotation of
the Earth (this is normally called ‘Earth Rate’ but is also known as ‘Astronomic
Precession’).
(f) General environment. The polar region is large and lacks suitable alternate
aerodromes, short-range navigation and communication (VHF) facilities, and
hospitable terrain. Thule airport, for example, in Greenland, is the nearest aerodrome
to the North Pole that is suitable for a large turbojet aeroplane but is approximately
810nm from the Pole and is inside the compass unreliability area.
Navigation-Contingency Procedures
3. When operating with modern long-range navigation systems normal navigation in Polar
Regions should not present any undue problems. However, in an aircraft fitted with two LRNS, if
one system should fail, contingency procedures should be adopted in case the second system should
also fail. If this were to occur, the crew would then have to contend with some of the problems
summarised in Paragraph paragraph 2.
FIGURE 6-1
Compass
Unreliable Area
5. Reversionary procedures in the event of a failure of the aircraft’s primary navigation systems
are likely to include steering the aircraft by Directional Gyro and the adoption of Grid Navigation
techniques.
8. A directional gyro aligned initially with the local meridian (true north) will appear therefore
to ‘drift’ from this direction, due to Earth Rate, at 15.04 x sine latitude deg/hr. The sense of this
apparent drift is described as negative in the Northern Hemisphere because it causes the gyro to
underread the correct true heading. The effect is the opposite and therefore positive in the Southern
Hemisphere. The effect of Earth Rate is illustrated in Figure 6-2.
FIGURE 6-2
Effect of Earth
Rate
9. At the Equator Earth Rate has no effect, (sine 0° = 0) because meridians at the Equator are
parallel to the spin axis of the Earth.
FIGURE 6-3
(a) Effect of Earth
Rate on DG -
Northern
Hemisphere
13. Automatic correction for Earth Rate. In the Northern Hemisphere the effect of ER is to cause
a Directional Gyro to under read the true heading and therefore a precession correction in the
positive sense is required. When such an hourly rate corrector is fitted, the flight crew are required to
set it to the correct latitude and to reset as necessary (in high latitudes this could mean resetting the
corrector at least every 20 minutes). The output of the corrector results in real precession of the spin
axis of the DG so as to cancel out the effect of ER.
14. When set to a southerly latitude the correction device produces a negative precession to
counteract the positive ER in the Southern Hemisphere.
15. An alternative method of correcting for ER is to turn the aircraft at the appropriate opposite
rate. When operating near to the Pole (i.e. in latitudes 70deg and above) the value of ER can be
assumed for practical purposes to be 15 deg/hr. Since the effect of ER on an aircraft steering a
constant DG reading in the Northern Hemisphere is to increase true heading by 15 deg/hr, the
correction would involve turning the aircraft left by the same amount. Such a correction could be
achieved by turning left 5 deg every 20 minutes.
Transport Precession
16. Transport Precession (also called Transport Wander) is the apparent drift of a DG caused by
being transported across meridians. The effect of Transport Precession varies with both the
hemisphere and heading direction and is illustrated in principle in Figure 6-4(a) to (d).
FIGURE 6-4
17. Figure 6-4(a) shows that when the aircraft is travelling in a direction with an easterly
component in the Northern Hemisphere, the DG will under read the correct true heading. An aircraft
maintaining a constant DG heading will therefore turn progressively to the right as the actual true
heading increases.
18. Figure 6-4 (b) shows the effect of an aircraft maintaining a DG heading with a westerly
component in the Northern Hemisphere. In this case the DG overreads the correct true heading and
the aircraft will turn progressively towards the left of its intended track.
19. Figure 6-4 (c) and (d) illustrate the effect of Transport Precession in the Southern Hemisphere.
It can be seen that the sense of the effect is opposite to that of the Northern Hemisphere, in that the
DG overreads true heading when being transported eastwards and under reads true heading when
being transported westwards.
21. The combined effect of Earth Rate (Astronomic Precession) and Transport Precession can
therefore be calculated and a suitable correction applied to a Directional Gyro so that it remains
aligned with local true north and indicates true heading. If only an Earth Rate correction is applied to
a DG it will remain in alignment with the meridian to which it was aligned originally. This property
is suitable for use with grid navigation
Grid Navigation
22. Convergence of meridians near to the Poles means that conventional navigation without the
aid of modern automatic systems is limited by the rapid changes in the direction of true north as an
aircraft crosses successive meridians. (To illustrate the magnitude of the problem, an aircraft flying in
an east-west direction at 80N at a speed of 200kt will experience a 5 degree change in the direction
of true north every 15 minutes.) An alternative to the true north reference system is required.
23. Grid navigation involves the use of a conventional chart based on the Polar Stereographic or
Lamberts Conformal Conic projections which is overprinted with a grid. The grid is normally
printed with parallel lines at 60nm or 100nm intervals. Grid north is therefore the same direction all
over the chart. In North Polar areas grid charts normally are arranged with Grid North parallel to
true north at the Greenwich Meridian. The Greenwich Meridian is therefore described as the ‘Grid
Datum Meridian’. The appearance of a Lamberts Chart overprinted with grid lines is illustrated at
Figure 6-5 and that of a Polar Stereographic Chart at Figure 6-6.
FIGURE 6-5
Example of
Gridded Lamberts
Chart
FIGURE 6-6
Gridded Polar
Stereographic
Chart
24. Tracks (and radio bearings) plotted on the grid chart as straight lines can be considered to be
great circles because the base chart is either a Polar Stereographic or a Lamberts projection on which
a straight line will represent a great circle, without significant error.
Grid Convergence
25. The angular difference between true north and grid north is called grid convergence. It can be
seen that this difference is equivalent on a Polar Stereographic chart to the difference of longitude
between the Grid Datum meridian and the local meridian.
On a Lamberts chart the convergence value must be calculated from the difference of longitude
multiplied by the chart convergence factor. The equation may be written as:
(Note. Convergence factor is the sine of the parallel of origin of the projection and can be expressed
as convergence factor or, constant of the cone or, ‘n’.)
26. The sense (east or west) of grid convergence determines whether it must be added or
subtracted from true direction to convert to grid direction. Convergence is described as ‘east’ when
true north is to the east of grid north and ‘west’ when true north is west of grid north. This
arrangement is illustrated in Figure 6-7 and Figure 6-8.
FIGURE 6-7
Convergence East
FIGURE 6-8
Convergence
West
27. Grid direction can be calculated from true using the following equation:
- Convergence West
28. For operations in the North Polar Region where the grid datum is the Greenwich Meridian a
simple ‘rule of thumb’ method of determining grid track from true track direction is:
- Longitude East
Heading references
Directional Gyro
29. In Polar areas where magnetic compass systems are unreliable and INS is not available,
steering by Directional Gyro (DG) is necessary. Providing the DG is corrected for Earth Rate
(Astronomic Precession) its output will remain referenced to the initial alignment direction. In grid
navigation this alignment will be to grid north.
A correction for Transport precession is not required in grid navigation because the grid lines on the
chart do not converge.
Magnetic Reference
30. Further away from the Poles, magnetic compass systems can be used for reference when using
a grid navigation technique, providing the output of a gyro-magnetic compass system is corrected to
give grid headings.
31. In this case, the conversion from magnetic north to grid north is a combination of magnetic
variation and grid convergence. The sum of the two corrections is called ’Grivation’ and is
annotated as east or west as appropriate, based on the two components The following equation
illustrates the relationship between grid and magnetic directions:
- Variation W - Convergence W
32. Lines of equal grivation (isogrivs) are plotted on gridded charts, in the same way as isogonals.
When operating a compass based on magnetic north, the value of grivation can therefore be inserted
at the variation setting control to give a grid heading output.
33. Two examples showing the relationship between magnetic, true and grid north are illustrated
inFigure 6-9 and Figure 6-10.
FIGURE 6-9
Effect of Variation,
Convergence and
Grivation
FIGURE 6-10
Effect of Variation,
Convergence and
Grivation
34. Some examples of problems including conversions to grid from magnetic and true are given
below:
EXAMPLE 6-1
EXAMPLE
An aircraft in position 75N 075W obtains a bearing of 290(M) from a VOR. Grid navigation is
being used, based on a Polar Stereographic chart on which the Greenwich meridian is the grid
datum. The variation at the VOR is 35° W. Convert the VOR bearing to a bearing to plot from
grid north.
SOLUTION
See Figure 6-11.
Step 1. Convert magnetic bearing to true.
• 290(M) - 35W = 255(T)
Step 2. Determine value of convergence.
• Difference of longitude 75°
• TN east of GN
Step 3. Apply convergence to true bearing.
• 255(T) + 75E = 330(G).
FIGURE 6-11
EXAMPLE 6-2
EXAMPLE
At aerodrome ‘X’ the runway QDM is 310 deg; local variation is 2W; the position is 61N 150W;
assuming the Grid datum is based on the Greenwich meridian, calculate the runway direction in
Grid.
SOLUTION
Grid convergence is 150E, variation is 2W, therefore grivation is 148E.
Runway direction (G) = 310(M) + 148E
= 458(G)
= 458 – 360
= 098(G)
[‘Rule of Thumb’ solution -
Runway grid direction = 308(T) + Longitude west.
= 308 + 150
= 458 - (360)
= 098(G)]
EXAMPLE 6-3
EXAMPLE
An aircraft is at position 80ºN 150ºW and is making good a track of 330º (T). Express this track
in degrees grid assuming that a polar stereographic chart is being used and that the chart is overlaid
with a grid which is aligned with the Greenwich meridian.
SOLUTION
See Figure 6-12.
Convergence is equal to the change of longitude between the datum meridian and the meridian in
question (150º) and by inspection is easterly. The true track direction is therefore less than the grid
track direction by 150º, and the grid track is in this case (330º + 150º) = 120º (G).
FIGURE 6-12
EXAMPLE 6-4
EXAMPLE
An aircraft is in position 60N 037W heading 260(T). Grid navigation technique is being used on a
Lambert’s chart with a grid datum based on the Greenwich Meridian. The convergence factor of
the chart is .788. Calculate the grid heading of the aircraft.
SOLUTION
Grid convergence is the value of chart convergence between 000E/W and 037W.
Using the equation:
chart convergence = d’long x convergence factor
Grid convergence = 37 x .788
= 29°
and, by inspection, true north is east of grid north at the aircraft position, therefore the
convergence is east.
FIGURE 6-13
Therefore,
Grid heading = 260(T) + 29E
= 289 (G)
EXAMPLE 6-5
EXAMPLE
An aircraft is in position 70S 140W heading 045(T). Navigation is on a Polar Stereographic chart
which is overprinted with a grid based on the 180E/W meridian. Calculate the grid heading of the
aircraft.
Grid convergence is 40° (d’long between 180E/W and 140W)
True north is east of grid north, therefore the convergence is east.
Grid heading = 045(T) + 40E
= 085(G)
The diagram at Figure 6-14 illustrates the geometry of the situation.
FIGURE 6-14
EXAMPLE 6-6
EXAMPLE
An aircraft is in position 70N 020E navigating on a Polar Stereographic chart, the grid datum is
000E/W. If the current grid heading is 310°, calculate the true heading.
SOLUTION
FIGURE 6-15
2. The MEL must be based on the master minimum equipment list (MMEL) produced by the
organisation responsible for the type design of the aeroplane and approved by the State of design.
4. The primary function of the MEL is to enable the pilot-in-command to determine whether a
flight may be commenced or, continued from any intermediate stop, should any instrument,
equipment or systems become inoperative.
5. The operator is not permitted to operate an aeroplane other than in accordance with the MEL
unless permitted by the Authority.
(h) flying time limitations after system or power unit failure in the case of ETOPS
aeroplanes;
• loading - empty mass, condition of the aeroplane at the time of weighing, the
corresponding C of G position and the reference point(s)/datum lines to which
the C of G limits are related.
• operating procedures - normal and emergency
• handing information - including any significant or unusual features and stall-
ing speeds
• performance information and guidance
• requirements for markings and placards.
Hoar Frost
9. Hoar frost forms when air is cooled and water vapour deposits directly on to surfaces which
are at or below the ‘frost point’ of the air. The process is given the name ‘sublimation’ although the
more accurate term is ‘deposition’. Hoar frost is a white crystalline coating and can form on all
surfaces. The atmospheric conditions required for Hoar frost are dry air (so that the Dew point is
below 0°C) and conditions which allow maximum cooling (night, clear skies, light/calm wind, land
surface). Such conditions are most likely in anticyclonic or col weather systems in winter.
Clear Ice
10. Clear ice can form on an aircraft on the ground in a number of ways. However, all processes
have in common the requirement for water droplets which are either supercooled (ie. liquid but
below 0°C) or are cooled to below 0°C in contact with the aircraft.
11. Small droplets such as those formed in fog which has cooled to below zero (freezing fog) or
when the airframe is just below zero tend to produce ‘rime’. This type of ice on the ground forms
when small droplets freeze quickly, trapping air and becomes a white crystalline build up,
particularly on the windward side of surfaces.
12. Larger droplets tend to spread over the airframe before solidifying resulting in a clear and
sometimes thick, dense deposit of ice. Freezing rain or rain falling on to surfaces below 0°C can
induce such ice formation. The passage of a cold front or cold occlusion when cold conditions are
likely to allow the ice to persist.
15. Clear ice is dense, heavy and is more difficult to remove. Similar problems to those caused by
hoar frost are encountered with increased severity. In particular, the locking of moveable surfaces
and the blocking of vents, and intakes can cause serious problems. The deposit of ice is likely to
increase the mass of the aircraft significantly.
16. Snow and slush is more easily removed, but if a partial thaw has taken place a coating of
snow may disguise an underlying clear ice problem. Undercarriage and control surface operations
can become restricted by slush which subsequently freezes.
In-Flight Effects
17. Similar problems to those already described can occur in flight however, the opportunities for
ice formation are greatly increased by flight through cloud and in precipitation when temperatures
are below 0°C.
(a) Aerodynamic - ice deposits can change the airflow around an aerofoil. Drag will be
increased and lift decreased. Stalling speed will increase. Wings with a thin cross-
section attract ice more readily than thicker wings and may be more susceptible to the
effect of the ice. Ice forms primarily on leading edges but can spread back to control
surfaces.
(b) Control surfaces - ice deposits on control surfaces can restrict their movements.
(c) Balance - ice deposits can add mass to various parts of an aircraft and alter
significantly the C of G position.
(d) Engines - ice can restrict the flow into jet engine intakes and cause damage when it
breaks off. The uneven distribution on propellers can cause vibration and associated
wear. The blocking of intakes and filters by ‘impact icing’ can have an adverse effect
on engine operation. Carburettor icing in piston engines can be a serious problem in
conditions of high humidity and low throttle settings even in clear air. (More
information on engine icing is contained in Meteorology, Chapter 9)
(e) Flight Instruments. Pitot-static systems in particular are vulnerable to blockage by ice
and will result in incorrect outputs from pressure instruments. A blocked Air Speed
Indicator (ASI) pitot probe for example will underread the correct airspeed on take-
off.
20. De-icing systems are designed to remove ice from the external surfaces of an aircraft once it
has formed. On the ground, hot air or fluid systems involving water or de-icing compounds may be
used. Systems used in-flight include expandable rubber ‘boots’ on leading edges and hot air
(thermal) systems.
21. De-icing in flight should only be carried out after the ice has formed so that it is of a
significant size to be broken and carried away by the airflow. If the expansions/changes of shape
created by de-icing boots, for example are applied too soon, the initial layer of ice lifts and more ice
forms on top leaving a gap within which the boot movements are ineffective.
22. Anti-icing - the precautionary procedure which provides protection against the formation of
frost or ice and the accumulation of snow or slush on treated surfaces of the aircraft for a limited
period of time (the ‘holdover’ time).
23. Anti-icing systems are designed to prevent or limit the build up of ice. On the ground, this
usually involves the use of anti-icing fluids. Aircraft anti-icing systems use fluids or hot air systems
supplied from the compressor stage of gas turbine engines.
Commander’s Responsibility
25. According to JAR-OPS a commander may not commence take-off unless the external surfaces
are clear of any deposit which could adversely affect either performance or control of an aeroplane
except as permitted in the Aeroplane Flight Manual (AFM).
26. A commander may not according to JAR-OPS commence a flight under known or expected
icing conditions unless the aeroplane is certificated and equipped to cope with such conditions.
27. Information on de-icing and anti-icing on the ground is required to be included in the
Operations Manual.
(a) Type I fluids. These types of fluid have a high glycol content and low viscosity, they
are administered in a fluid water mix.
(b) Type II/III/IV fluids. These types of fluid contain a pseudoplastic thickening agent
which enables the fluid to persist for longer on the aircraft surfaces.
Methods of De-Icing/Anti-Icing
29. De-icing/anti-icing fluid is administered in either a one-step or a two-step process. The
selection of one step or two steps depends on weather conditions, available equipment, available
fluids, and the holdover time to be achieved.
30. One step de-icing/anti-icing is carried out using either cold or heated anti-icing fluid
depending on conditions. When heated fluid is used it is applied close to the aircraft skin to
minimise heat loss. The de-icing fluid will prevent re-freezing for a period of time depending on
aircraft skin temperature, ambient temperature, the fluid used, the mixture strength and the weather.
31. Two-step de-icing/anti-icing. In the two step process, the first step is de-icing with an
appropriate fluid for the conditions. The second step follows the first (typically within 3 minutes)
before the step one fluid has time to freeze. The fluid should be administered using a spray technique
which flushes away the first-step fluid and covers the surface with an adequate depth of anti-icing
film.
Holdover Times
32. The holdover time is achieved by the anti-icing fluid remaining on the aircraft surfaces.
In the case of a one-step de-icing/anti-icing operation the holdover time begins at the start of the
operation. In a two-step operation the holdover time begins at the start of the final (anti-icing step).
33. The length of the holdover time depends on the ambient temperature, the type of fluid used
and the weather conditions. Type I fluids form a thin liquid film which provides only a limited
holdover time in freezing precipitation. However, no additional time is gained by increasing the
concentration of the fluid in the fluid/water mix.
In the case of Type II fluids the thickening agent enables the liquid to form a thicker liquid wetting
film on the aircraft external surfaces. This type of fluid provides longer holder times and is more
effective (than Type I) in freezing precipitation. Furthermore, the holdover time can be increased by
increasing the concentration of the liquid.
34. Figure 7-1 shows a table of typical holdover times for Type I fluids in different weather
conditions and ambient temperatures.
FIGURE 7-1
Holdover Times - Outside Air Approximate Holdover time (minimum - maximum) in minutes
Type I Fluids Temperature (OAT)
°C Frost Freezing Snow Freezing Light Freezing Rain on Cold
fog Drizzle Rain Soaked Wing
>0°C 45 12-30 6-15 5-8 2-5 2-5
(Note, the lower time figure applies in the case of moderate precipitation and the higher figure in
light precipitation.)
35. Figure 7-2 shows an example of a holdover time table for Type II fluids.
FIGURE 7-2
OAT Fluid mix Approximate Holdover Time (minimum - maximum) in minutes
°C Concentration Frost Freezing Snow Freezing Light Freezing Rain on Cold
Fluid%/Water% (hr) Fog Drizzle Rain Soaked Wing
>0 100/0 12hr 75-180 20-60 30-60 15-30 10-40
75/25 6hr 50-120 15-40 20-45 10-25 5-25
50/50 4hr 20-45 5-15 10-20 5-10
0 to -3 100/0 8hr 35-90 20-45 30-60 15-30
75/25 5hr 25-60 15-30 20-45 10-25
50/50 3hr 15-45 5-15 10-20 5-10
<-3 to -14 100/0 8hr 35-90 15-40 25-60 10-30
75/25 5hr 25-60 15-25 20-45 10-25
<-14 to -25 100/0 8hr 20-90 15-30
Note, the lower time figure applies in the case of moderate precipitation and the higher figure in light
precipitation.
36. Factors which reduce holdover times: Holdover times are likely to be reduced by:
Pre-Takeoff
37. When holdover times have been exceeded or when freezing precipitation exists, aerodynamic
surfaces must be checked just prior to entering the active runway or initiating the take-off roll. If
deposits of frost, ice, snow or slush are present, the de-icing/anti-icing operation must be repeated.
Additional Precautions
38. Type II fluids should be removed from flight deck windows prior to departure especially
where windows are fitted with windscreen wipers. Similarly, any forward area from which fluid
could flow back on to the windscreen should be cleared prior to departure.
39. De-icing/anti-icing fluid must not be sprayed directly on to brakes, wheels, exhausts or thrust
reversers. Fluid must not be directed into pitot heads, static vents or angle of attack sensors. All
reasonable precautions should be taken to minimise the risk of fluid entering engines, intakes/outlets
and control surface cavities.
40. Some fluids may, in low humidity conditions become thicker and adversely affect the
aerodynamic performance of the aircraft on take-off. If such gel residues are detected prior to
departure, the surface must be cleared and re-protected as necessary.
42. IBIS is a reporting system designed to collect and disseminate information on bird strikes.
Data on bird studies which has been supplied by Contracting States and aircraft operators to ICAO
are stored on computer for ease of retrieval and analysis.
43. The results of analysis of IBIS data are produced in four categories:
44. State record. This print-out is produced annually. It lists in alphabetical order, bird strikes on
or near airports, followed by bird strikes occurring off airports. Each State is also provided with a
list of bird strikes on aircraft registered in the State that occur outside the territory of the State.
45. World statistics. This print-out provides an analysis of world bird strikes for the year and
gives a general overview of the problem of bird strikes to aircraft. Among other data, the print-out
shows numbers of strikes by bird type, aircraft, time of day and phase of flight. For example, in
1999 the highest number of strikes occurred in August; daytime was by far the most frequent time of
occurrence; strikes on turbo fan aircraft (MTOM >27,000kg) accounted for two thirds of all strikes.
46. High risk areas. The take-off run and the approach were the most common phases of flight
and the highest risk areas for bird strikes. Most strikes occurred below 100ft agl. Specific
environmental factors may increase the problem by attracting birds to the area. Garbage dumps
(particularly where waste products including food are dumped) and recently ploughed fields can
attract large flocks of birds. On an aerodrome it is considered that short grass is more attractive to
birds because it does not provide cover for ground based predators.
47. State statistics. This print-out provides an analysis of bird strikes that have occurred in one
State. The information provided is similar to the world statistics. The print-out is distributed by
ICAO to the State concerned if more than ten bird strikes have occurred in the year.
48. Significant bird strike list. This list is intended to bring public attention to specific bird strikes
which have caused significant damage to an aircraft or affected the flight in some way.
49. Aeronautical charts. Bird sanctuaries and Spring and Autumn bird migration routes may be
shown on aeronautical briefing charts and in supplements.
50. NOTAM warnings of extreme bird migration activity and of expected migration routes are
published where necessary by ATS Authorities.
Commander’s Responsibility
51. The ICAO Bird Strike Reporting form should normally be completed by the pilot-in-
command following an aircraft collision with a bird. The bird strike report is made even if there was
no damage to the aircraft.
53. The take-off climb procedures for noise abatement specified by an operator for any one-
aeroplane type should be the same for all aerodromes.
55. Noise abatement procedures are not be implemented except where a need for such procedures
has been determined.
56. The procedures described in DOC. 8168 show the methods for noise abatement when a
problem is shown to exist. They have been designed for application to turbojet aeroplanes and they
can comprise any one or more of the following:
(a) use of noise preferential runways to direct the initial and final flight paths of
aeroplanes away from noise - sensitive areas;
(b) use of noise preferential routes to assist aeroplanes in avoiding noise-sensitive areas on
departure and arrival, including the use of turns to direct aeroplanes away from noise-
sensitive areas located under or adjacent to the usual take-off and approach flight
paths; and
(c) use of noise abatement take-off or approach procedures, designed to minimise the
over-all exposure to noise on the ground and at the same time maintain the required
levels of flight safety.
57. For the purpose of these procedures the heights given in metres and feet and speeds given in
kilometres/hour and knots are considered to be operationally acceptable equivalents.
59. Runways should not normally be selected for preferential use for landing unless they are
equipped with suitable glide path guidance, eg. ILS, or visual guidance system for operations in visual
meteorological conditions.
60. Noise abatement should not be the determining factor in runway nomination under the
following circumstances:
(a) if the runway is not clear and dry, i.e it is adversely affected by snow, slush, ice or
water, or by mud, rubber, oil or other substances;
(b) for landing in conditions where the ceiling is lower than 150 m (500 ft) above
aerodrome elevation, or for take-off and landing when the horizontal visibility is less
than 1.9 km;
(c) when the cross-wind component, including gust, exceeds 28 km/h (15 kt);
(d) when the tail-wind component, including gusts, exceeds 9 km/h (5 kt); and
(e) when wind shear has been reported or forecast or when thunderstorms are expected to
affect the approach or departure.
61. Noise preferential routes are established to ensure that departing and arriving aeroplanes
avoid overflying noise-sensitive areas in the vicinity of the aerodrome as far as practicable.
(a) turns during take-off and climb should not be required unless:
(b) the aeroplane has reached (and can maintain throughout the turn) a height of not less
than 150 m (500 ft) above terrain and the highest obstacles under the flight path;
Note. PANS-OPS, Volume II permits turns after take-off at 120 m (400 ft) and obstacle clearance of
at least 90 m (300 ft) during the aeroplane’s turn. These are minimum requirements for noise
abatement purposes.
(c) the bank angle for turns after take-off is limited to 15º except where adequate
provision is made for an acceleration phase permitting attainment of safe speeds for
bank angles greater than 15º.
(d) no turns should be required coincident with a reduction of power associated with a
noise abatement procedures; and
62. In establishing noise preferential routes, the safety criteria of standard departure and standard
arrival routes regarding obstacle clearance climb gradients and other factors should be taken into full
consideration.
63. Where noise preferential routes are established, these routes and standard departure and
arrival routes should be compatible.
64. An aeroplane should not be diverted from its assigned route unless:
(a) in the case of a departing aeroplane it has attained the altitude or height which
represents the upper limit of noise abatement procedures; or
(b) it is necessary for the safety of the aeroplane eg. for avoidance of severe weather or to
resolve a traffic conflict).
66. The following noise abatement take-off procedures are recommended as operationally
acceptable and effective in minimising noise.
FIGURE 7-3
Procedure ‘A’
Profile
Note. For purposes of these procedures the heights given in metres and feet, and speeds given in
kilometres/hour, are considered to be the operationally acceptable equivalents.
• Take-off power
• Take-off flap
• Climb at V2 + 20 to 40 km/h (V2 +10 to 20 kt or as limited by body angle).
At 450 m (1 500 ft):
FIGURE 7-4
Procedure ‘B’
Profile
• take-off flap
• climb at V2 + 20 to 40 km/h (V2 + 10 to 20 kt).
At 300 m (1 000 ft):
(a) for high bypass ratio engines reduce to normal climb power/thrust;
(b) for low bypass ratio engines, reduce power/thrust to below normal climb thrust but
not less than that necessary to maintain the final take-off engine-out climb gradient;
and
(c) for aeroplanes with slow flap retracting reduce power/thrust at an intermediate flap
setting:
thereafter:
68. Any special procedure developed must be shown to be necessary and meet certain limitations.
Its safety must be shown to be equivalent to that of Procedures A and B. Before a special procedure
is introduced its specific characteristics and its effect on standardisation of crew procedures and
cockpit workload should be considered.
Safety Limitations
69. The following limitations shall be observed:
(a) the minimum steady climb-out speed shall not be less than V2 + 20 km/h (V2 + 10 kt)
or less than that prescribed in the aeroplane flight manual, if that is greater;
(b) observance of the minimum steady climb-out speed shall not be required if this causes
the maximum acceptable body angle to be exceeded; and
(i) the aeroplane has reached a height of at least 300 m (1000 ft) above
aerodrome elevation;
(ii) a standard power setting is used which is sufficient for the aeroplane to
maintain, at the maximum certificated take-off mass, a steady gradient or
climb of not less than 4% at a speed obtained from a) and b) above; and
(iii) the take-off flight path, both with all engines operating and after making due
allowance for the possibility of engine failure and for the period required to
obtain full power from the remaining engine(s), ensures clearance of all
obstacles under the flight path by an adequate margin.
NOTE:
It should be assumed that before reaching the noise-sensitive area the
aeroplane will climb at a maximum gradient consistent with the maintenance
of a speed not less than that obtained from application of a) or b) above.
Approach Procedures
In noise abatement approach procedures:
(a) the aeroplane shall not be required to be in any configuration other than the final
landing configuration at any point after passing the outer marker or 5 NM from the
threshold of the runway of intended landing, whichever is earlier; and
70. When it is necessary to develop a noise abatement approach procedure based on currently
available systems and equipment, the following safety considerations shall be taken fully into
account:
(a) glide path or approach angles should not require an approach to be made:
(ii) above the glide path angle of the visual approach slope indicator system;
(iv) above an angle of 3º except where it has been necessary to establish, for
operational purposes, an ILS with a glide path angle greater than 3º;
Note. The pilot can accurately maintain a prescribed angle of approach only when provided with
either continuous visual or radio navigational guidance.
(b) the pilot should not be required to complete a turn on to a final approach at distances
less than will:
(i) in the case of visual operations, permit an adequate period of stabilised flight
on final approach before crossing the runway threshold;
or
71. Within the constraints necessary at some locations to maintain efficient air traffic services,
noise abatement descent and approach procedures utilising continuous descent and reduced power/
reduced drag techniques (or a combination or both) have proved to be both effective and
operationally acceptable. The objective of such procedures is to achieve uninterrupted descents at
reduced power and with reduced drag, by delaying the extension of wing flaps and landing gear until
the final stages of approach. The speeds employed during the application of these techniques tend,
accordingly, to be higher than would be appropriate for descent and approach with the flaps and
gear extended throughout, and such procedures must therefore comply with the limitations in this
section.
72. Compliance with published noise abatement approach procedures should not be required in
adverse operating conditions such as:
(a) if the runway is not clear and dry, ie. it is adversely affected by snow, slush, ice or
water, or by mud, rubber, oil or other substances;
(b) in conditions when the ceiling is lower than 150 m (500 ft) above aerodrome
elevation, or when the horizontal visibility is less than 1.9 km;
(d) when the tail-wind component, including gusts, exceeds 9 km/h (5 kt); and
(e) when wind shear has been reported or forecast or when adverse weather conditions,
e.g. thunderstorms, are expected to affect the approach.
Landing Procedures
73. Noise abatement procedures shall not contain a prohibition of use of reverse thrust during
landing.
74. The practice of using a displaced runway threshold as a noise abatement measure shall not be
employed unless aircraft noise is significantly reduced by such use and the runway length remaining
is safe and sufficient for all operational requirements.
(a) cabin furnishing must be of a type which minimises the possibility of in-flight and
ground fires;
(b) the material used in cabin furnishing must, in the event of fire, minimise the
production of smoke and toxic gases;
(c) means must be provided to contain or detect and extinguish such fires, so that no
additional danger to the aeroplane is caused;
(d) design precautions must be taken to protect the occupants against the presence of
smoke or other toxic gases in the cabin.
76. Annex 8 also prescribes standards for fire protection in the region of powerplants. Because of
the increased fire risk in these areas, they must be isolated from other regions of the aeroplane by fire
resistant material. In addition, fuel and other flammable fluid system components must be located in
regions capable of containing the fluid when exposed to fire conditions. The crew must also have the
means of shutting off the flow of fuel/fluid in the event of a fire. Sufficient fire detectors must be
provided so as to ensure rapid detection of a fire in the area of a powerplant and extinguishing
systems must be provided where a fire cannot be safely contained.
77. Specific requirements concerning fire and smoke detection and fire fighting equipment are
contained in JAR-OPS and appropriate Joint Airworthiness Regulations (JAR 25, 23 etc).
78. The Operations Manual is required to contain details of abnormal and emergency procedures
as well as flight procedures concerned with cabin safety.
80. Equipment bays and baggage compartments are usually protected by smoke detection
equipment and areas adjacent to hot air ducts usually contain excess temperature detectors.
81. Auxiliary Power Units (APUs) have similar fire detection and extinguishing equipment to the
main engines, but usually incorporating automatic shut-down.
82. Fire detector signals activate warning lamps and/or captions on the flight deck and often
audible warnings also. Fire warning lamps conventionally give a steady red indication. All detection
systems include functional test circuits and many are of a sophisticated type which monitor
temperature trends in engine bays. There is normally one warning lamp for each engine, but the
warning bell will be activated by any detection circuit.
83. Detection equipment falls into two main categories, unit and continuous types.
84. Unit type detectors usually employ either thermocouples or switches which are operated by
differential expansion of metals. Unit detectors are used to monitor specific points where excessive
temperatures might occur, continuous detectors are routed around a potential fire zone to provide
maximum coverage.
85. Continuous wire detectors consist of a co-axial cable in which the central conducting core is
insulated from the outer, earthed, sheath by a temperature sensitive material. These detectors may be
of either the capacitive or resistive variety.
86. Resistive continuous detectors make use of the decrease in resistance of the insulation with
increasing temperature, which will eventually allow current to flow from core to sheath and activate
a warning circuit. The disadvantage of these detectors is that a short-circuit between core and sheath
due to crushing or chafing will cause them to initiate a spurious fire warning.
87. Capacitive continuous detectors use the increase of capacitance which occurs with increased
temperature. The increase of stored charge, and therefore discharge, with increased temperature
creates a back emf and current which eventually is sufficient to activate the warning circuit. If a
capacitive detector is short-circuited it may cease to act as a capacitor, but does not produce a
spurious fire warning.
(a) Water. Colour code RED. Water works by cooling the burning material and is
suitable for ordinary combustibles such as paper, wood, cloth etc. Water must not be
used on electrical equipment or fires in fuel or oil. (Water extinguishers can be used
after non-electrical fires have been extinguished to provide cooling and prevent re-
ignition).
(b) Carbon Dioxide. Colour code BLACK. Carbon dioxide gas works by smothering the
fire (denying it oxygen) and is suitable for fires in electric motors, or electrical
equipment.
(d) Dry Powder. Colour code BLUE. Dry powder works by smothering the fire with a
blanket of powder and chemically inhibits combustion. It is used on electrical
equipment but is limited by its inability to penetrate inside equipment. Dry powder is
not used in aircraft.
(e) Foam. Colour code CREAM. Foam extinguishant can be either fluoroprotein foam
(FP) or aqueous film forming foam (AFFF). The foam forms a blanket over the
surface of burning liquid and smothers the fire. Foam is used externally in fighting
aircraft fires and fuel fires but is not used inside aircraft where the foam may come
into contact with live electrical equipment.
(b) continue motoring the engine with the starter motor until the fire has been drawn into
the engine and extinguished in the manifold;
2
(c) if the fire persists, a carbon dioxide ( CO ) or BCF extinguisher should be discharged,
by the ground crew, into the intake, while the engine is being turned by the starter
motor, until the fire is extinguished.
90. The most likely cause of carburettor fire is excessive priming to start, leading to excess fuel in
the inlet manifold, and faulty valve timing leading to backfiring.
Engine Fire
91. All gas turbine engines and their associated installation systems incorporate a fire protection
system for the detection and rapid extinguishing of fire. A detection system is provided on the engine
to sense an overheat condition or the occurrence of a fire and give warning on the flight deck. The
detector system can consist of either a number of detector units located in strategic positions, or a
continuous sensing element.
92. The occurrence of a fire is indicated on the flight deck by a steady RED warning light and
alarm bell. The red light will usually indicate the location of the fire and the alarm bell can be
silenced by a cut-out switch, leaving the light remaining. Each engine is covered by its own warning
system and is provided with an extinguishing system, which is often doubled up, either by the use of
more than one fire bottle or the optional use of another engine’s fire bottle.
Actions Required
93. In the event of engine fire, the typical actions required are:
(e) after 30 seconds, if engine fire switch remains illuminated, discharge second fire
bottle.
94. A discharge device, often called a squib, is fitted between the fire bottle and its discharge line.
The squib consists of a breakable disc and a small explosive charge which is electrically detonated to
break the disc and discharge the contents of the bottle.
96. A single fire extinguisher bottle is provided for the APU. Pulling the APU fire switch arms the
squib, which is fired by rotating the switch in either direction.
99. CO2 extinguishers are particularly suitable for electrical fires. The released CO2 gas excludes
two of the three components required for combustion, namely heat and oxygen (the third being fuel).
Because of its rapid cooling effect, CO2 can cause damage if used on an engine fire.
100. Halon (BCF) extinguishers are suitable for all types of fires and are therefore widely used in
aircraft. The disadvantages of Halon are that, once heated by the fire that it is tackling, it gives off
noxious gases. Also, Halon does not cool the fire-affected area, and it is therefore necessary to
employ a a follow-up action to cool the area and prevent re-ignition of the fire, either with a water
extinguisher (or a convenient coffee pot!).
(a) Type and quantity of extinguishing agent. The type and quantity of extinguishing
agent must be suitable for the kinds of fires likely to occur and must minimise the
hazard of toxic gas concentration;
(b) At least one Halon 1211 hand extinguisher or equivalent must be conveniently located
on the flight deck;
(c) At least one hand fire extinguisher must be located in, or readily accessible for use in,
each galley not located on the main passenger deck;
(d) At least the following number of hand fire extinguishers must be conveniently located
in the passenger compartment(s):
(Note. When two or more extinguishers are required, they must be evenly distributed).
(i) Where the passenger seating is 31 - 60, at least one of the extinguishers must
contain Halon 1211 or equivalent as the extinguishing agent;
(ii) Where the passenger seating is 61 or more, at least two of the fire
extinguishers must contain Halon 1211 or equivalent as the extinguishing
agent
(a) at least one crash axe or crowbar located on the flight deck; and
(b) if the maximum approved passenger seating is >200, an additional crash axe or
crowbar must be located in or near the most rearward galley area.
104. Crash axes and crowbars located in the passenger compartment must not be visible to
passengers.
(a) Photo-electric cells. These detect the diffusion of a abeam of light which occurs when
the beam is interrupted by smoke. The scattering of the light increases the
conductance of the cell and its output is amplified to operate a warning circuit.
(b) Alpha particle detectors. These are ionisation chambers which measure alpha
radiation from radium. Alpha particles are absorbed by smoke, which reduces the
ionisation current of the device, to operate an alarm.
(c) Visual smoke indicators. These are usually only fitted as alarm verification devices.
106. Smoke detectors fitted in the toilet compartments of passenger aircraft provide an aural
warning to alert the cabin crew, they are fully automatic and operate from the aircraft’s 28vDC
power supply. The detector unit displays a green light to indicate that power is being supplied to it
and a large red display illuminates in conjunction with the aural warning when smoke is detected. A
reset switch enables cancellation of the warning, but the alarm will sound again if smoke is still
present.
}
(a) crew don oxygen masks;
(b) check supply to ‘on’ and diluter lever to or put on PBE
100%
(c) put on smoke goggles (if required);
(d) confirm crew communications.
110. Subsequent actions depend on the circumstances and appropriate safety drills.
}
(a) crew don oxygen masks;
(b) check supply to ‘on’ and diluter lever to or put on
100%; PBE
(c) put on smoke goggles (if required);
(d) confirm crew communications;
114. Additionally, a portable PBE must be located next to the fire extinguisher in each galley.
115. The toilet compartments present additional problems because the space is unsupervised and
also because of the need for waste (paper) containers. In addition to warning passengers not to
smoke in the toilet compartment, smoke detection and fire suppression devices are required. On
large commercial aeroplanes, JAR requires that each lavatory is equipped with a smoke detector
system which provides a warning light in the cockpit or provides a warning light or audible warning
which could be detected by a cabin attendant. In addition, each lavatory must be equipped with a
built in fire extinguisher which will discharge automatically into each waste receptacle in the event of
a fire.
116. PBEs must permit communication by intercom, radio and by megaphone when required.
Cargo Compartments
117. The presence of smoke and fire in cargo or baggage compartments introduces additional
problems because of accessibility and location, the variation of materials carried and the risk of the
fire spreading.
118. JAR-OPS requires that a commercial aircraft is equipped with an easily accessible portable
PBE located outside but near to the entrance to a cargo compartment.
119. Cargo compartments are classified for fire detection and suppression purposes, in accordance
with the following requirements:
(i) the presence of a fire would easily be discovered by a crew member at a duty
station; and
(i) there is sufficient access in flight to enable a crew member to reach any part of
the compartment with the contents of a hand held fire extinguisher; and,
(iii) there is a separate approved smoke or fire detector system to give warning to
the pilot or flight engineer station.
(c) Class C. A Class C cargo or baggage compartment is one which does not meet the
requirements of A or B but in which:
(i) there is remote indication at the pilot or flight engineer station of a fire
detected in the compartment; and,
(ii) there is an approved built in fire extinguishing system, controllable by the pilot
or flight engineer and hazardous quantities of smoke, etc. are prevented from
entering the cabin;
(iii) ventilation can be controlled to allow the fire extinguishant to have an effect.
(i) a fire in it will be contained without endangering the safety of the aeroplane or
occupants;
(iv) the heating of adjacent critical areas has been taken into consideration;
(e) Class E. A Class E cargo compartment is one on aeroplanes used only for the carriage
of cargo and in which:
(i) there is a separate approved smoke or fire detector system to give warning to
the pilot or flight engineer station;
(ii) ventilating airflow in the cargo bay can be controlled from the crew
compartment;
(iii) there are means to exclude hazardous quantities of smoke etc. from the flight
crew compartment; and,
(iv) the required crew emergency exits are accessible under any cargo loading
condition.
121. If a wheel explodes, the majority of the blast is likely to be outwards from the hubs/axle area.
Personnel fighting brake fires should therefore approach the wheels in a fore/aft direction avoiding
the sides as far as possible.
122. The precise brake overheat drill depends on aircraft type but in general the handling pilot will
bring the aircraft to rest as soon as practicable. Emergency services should be alerted quickly and the
possibility of aircraft evacuation considered. The Operations Manual will contain more specific
guidance on the actions required
124. The operator of aeroplanes which operate at pressure altitudes above 10,000ft is required, by
JAR-OPS, to ensure that such aeroplanes are equipped to provide the specified amount of
supplemental oxygen when needed.
125. The amount of supplemental oxygen that must be available is calculated on the basis of the
cabin pressure altitude, the flight duration, and the assumption that the decompression will occur at
the most critical altitude and time. It is assumed that after a pressurisation failure, the pilot will
descend the aeroplane, in accordance with emergency procedures specified in the aeroplane flight
manual (AFM) to a safe altitude from which the flight may continue safely to destination or
alternate. Supplemental oxygen must be available to provide adequately for this profile.
Flight Crew
126. The minimum amount of supplemental oxygen which is specified by JAR-OPS for flight crew
positions is sufficient for the entire flight time when the cabin altitude exceeds 13,000ft and the
entire flight time when it exceeds 10,000ft but does not exceed 13,000ft after the first 30 minutes at
higher altitudes but, in no case must it be less than:
(a) 30 minutes, for aeroplanes certificated to fly at altitudes not exceeding 25,000ft; or,
(b) 2 hours, for aeroplanes certificated to fly at altitudes greater than 25,000ft.
Cabin Crew
127. The minimum amount of supplemental oxygen which is specified by JAR-OPS for cabin crew
members is:
(a) sufficient for the entire flight time when the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 13,000ft
but, not less than 30 minutes; and,
(b) sufficient for the entire flight time when cabin pressure altitude is greater than 10,
000ft but does not exceed 13,000ft after the first 30 minutes at higher altitudes.
Passengers
128. A supplemental oxygen supply is specified for certain proportions of the passengers
depending on the possible flight profile and cabin altitude, for example:
(a) when the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 15,000ft, the supply must provide for 100%
of the passengers for the entire flight time, but not less than 10 minutes;
(b) when the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 14,000ft but does not exceed 15,000ft, the
supply must provide for 30% of the passengers for the entire flight time;
(c) when the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 10,000ft but does not exceed 14,000ft after
the first 30 minutes at higher altitudes, the supply must provide for 10% of the
passengers for the entire flight time.
Types of Decompression
Slow Decompression
129. A slow decompression is gradual reduction of cabin pressure and loss of pressure differential
which is not immediately obvious to the crew. Cabin pressure altitude will increase and eventually
activate the cabin altitude warning device.
130. A slow decompression can be caused by a malfunction in the automatic cabin pressure
controller or an associated system (such as hydraulic leak which activates the undercarriage ‘squat’
switch and opens the outflow valves as if the aeroplane was on the ground).
131. The effects of a slow increase in pressure altitude to above 10,000ft is unlikely to very
obvious to the passengers however the gradual onset of hypoxia is certain. The most active crew
members are likely to be affected first. The initial symptoms are slight with minor behavioural
changes (affected persons frequently become euphoric), judgement and self criticism reduce, a
shortness of breath may become noticeable and at altitudes above about 12,000ft a severe headache
may develop after about 20 minutes. As the hypoxia continues, mental and physical co-ordination
degrade until ultimately the persons becomes unable to help themselves.
132. The time from the initial exposure to hypoxia that a person has available to assess and act on
the situation is known as the time of useful consciousness. This period of time reduces rapidly with
altitude and amount of activity required and is reduced markedly when the hypoxia results from a
rapid decompression.
2 – 3 minutes at 25,000ft,
30 – 60 seconds at 30,000ft,
15 – 30 seconds at 35,000ft.
But, note, these times are likely to be halved when the decompression is rapid.
Rapid Decompression
134. A rapid decompression is the complete and sudden loss of cabin pressure. (Some authorities
describe a rapid decompression as one in which cabin altitude reverts to an altitude above 20,000ft
within 1.5 minutes).
135. The effects of the sudden decompression depend initially on the cause and especially the size
of the rupture or hole in the pressure hull. A rapid decompression is likely to be accompanied by the
sound of rushing air combined with the dense misting of the cabin as the pressure drop causes
adiabatic cooling of the air and subsequent condensation. Persons on board are likely to suffer otic
barotrauma and/or sinus barotrauma as ears and sinuses are unable to cope with the sudden pressure
changes and depending on altitude, hypoxia will affect everyone not on oxygen. Cabin
pressurisation instruments should indicate the extent of the pressure loss and audible warning is
likely to be activated.
The cabin pressure may reduce below ambient pressure due to aerodynamic suction.
136. On large aeroplanes certificated to operate above 30,000ft, drop-down oxygen masks should
operate automatically when cabin pressure altitude reaches a pre-set level (typically before reaching
15,000ft), but it has been estimated that less than 50% of passengers will not be able or know how
to operate them (the mandatory pre-flight briefing notwithstanding). The crew must therefore have
portable oxygen sets at or near to their crew station so that they can be on oxygen rapidly and able
to assist passengers.
137. On aeroplanes operating at pressure altitudes above 25,000ft the flight crew oxygen masks
must be of the quick donning type, and must be within immediate reach of flight crew members
when at their duty stations.
138. The drill for the flight crew is to immediately don the oxygen mask at their position, check
that oxygen is flowing and then establish communication and deal with the emergency using the
approved check list as contained in the Operations Manual.
139. Subsequent actions depend on the circumstances but, in general, if the pressure loss cannot be
contained, the aeroplane will be descended to a safe but lower altitude and a diversion carried out to
the nearest suitable alternate aerodrome.
Windshear
8 Windshear
Background
1. Windshear is caused by variations in the direction and/or speed of the local wind with
changes in height and/or horizontal distance, it is almost always present but normally does not cause
undue difficulty to the pilot. It is the abnormal windshear that is dangerous. Short-term fluctuations
in the wind (gusts) are common at low altitudes, and are unlikely to cause prolonged excursions from
the intended flight path and target air speed. If these gusts are large and prolonged their effect on an
aircraft may be similar to that caused by a windshear.
2. Windshear tends to displace an aircraft abruptly from its intended flight profile such that
substantial control action is required.
4. Types of windshear. The following definitions are used in order to differentiate between three
distinct types of windshear:
(a) Vertical windshear. The change of horizontal wind vector with height (as might be
determined by two or more anemometers at different heights on a mast).
(b) Horizontal windshear. The change of horizontal wind vector with horizontal distance
(as might be determined by two or more anemometers mounted at the same height but
at different locations).
(e) Strong turbulence at the surface, especially when reinforced by strong winds and
unfavourable topography or buildings.
Thunderstorm
6. Figure 8-1 illustrates the two aspects of a thunderstorm most relevant to windshear. The
downdraught or, in a severe storm the microburst, is an area where very potent downdraught
windshear can be experienced. The cold air flows outwards close to the surface as a gust front,
perhaps reaching 32 km from the storm, or further in the case of several storms forming a squall line.
The vertical extent of this outflow may be 6000 ft and flying through it or descending into it is likely
to result in vertical windshear.
FIGURE 8-1
Air Flow Under
and Near a
Thunderstorm
Passage of a Front
7. Vertical windshear can be present whenever an aircraft climbs or descends through a weather
front. The more active the front the greater the risk of windshear. A front which is moving at 30 kt
or more and across which there is a temperature difference of 5°C or more, or at which a sharp
change in wind direction occurs, is likely to produce serious windshear problems. A vigorous cold
front is likely to pose the greatest risk. The position of the aerodrome in relation to the surface
position of the front is important. When landing (or taking off) at an aerodrome up to 30 nm ahead
of a warm front or 20 nm or less behind a cold front the greatest risk of windshear exists, as shown
at Figure 8-2. Crossing a front in level flight can result in horizontal windshear, which could present
a problem at low level, for example during the early stages of a missed approach, where windshear
induced changes in airspeed and/or rates of climb may well be masked by the changing aircraft
configuration.
8. A sea breeze front is unlikely to create significant windshear problems, however the presence
of such a front may well distort the outflow of air from a coastal thunderstorm and increase the
severity of the windshear.
FIGURE 8-2
Areas of
Windshear
associated with an
Approach Path
through a warm
and cold front
Inversions
9. A low level inversion effectively prevents mixing and decouples the retarded surface flow
from the free stream air above the inversion. The shear boundary can be very low, especially on a
cold clear winter night. Climbing or descending through such an inversion can give significant
vertical windshear at a critical stage of flight, which is one reason why marked inversion warnings
are issued at major aerodromes.
Turbulence
11. Strong mean surface winds usually generate greater differences between the gusts and lulls
and may therefore result in windshear. In hotter climates intense surface heating can give rise to
updraught/downdraught windshear. Significant changes in wind direction can also result from air
flowing over or around obstacles as large as mountains or as small as hangars. Climbing or
descending in the lee of high ground when the wind is strong can be particularly hazardous.
(f) Wind indicators at different locations on the aerodrome showing differing wind
velocities.
13. Another valuable indication of the possible presence of windshear is a significant difference
between the aircraft computed wind velocity and the surface wind velocity given by ATC. In this
respect INS based systems are of value since INS gives an instantaneous wind velocity.
14. Aerodrome Reports. Any pilots reports of windshear encounters are passed on to other
traffic by ATC. However, some aerodromes forecast windshear. Within the UK only two
aerodromes (Heathrow and Belfast Aldergrove) currently give windshear warnings in addition to
marked inversion warnings. However, all ATC units are likely to relay reports of windshear which
have been passed to them by pilots.
(a) Microwave radar. A Microwave radar signal is projected ahead of the aircraft to
detect raindrops and other moisture particles. The returning signal represents the
motion of those raindrops and moisture particles, and this is translated into wind
speed. Microwave radar works better than other systems in rain but less well in dry
conditions. Because it points toward the ground as the plane lands, it picks up
interfering ground returns, or ‘clutter.’
(b) Doppler LIDAR. A laser system called Doppler LIDAR (light detecting and ranging)
reflects energy from ‘aerosols’ (minute particles) instead of raindrops. This system can
avoid picking up ground clutter (moving cars, etc.) and thus has fewer interfering
signals. However, it does not work as well in heavy rain.
(c) Infra-red. This system uses an infra-red detector to measure temperature changes
ahead of the aircraft. The system monitors the thermal signatures of carbon dioxide to
look for cool columns of air, which can be a characteristic of microbursts. This system
is less costly and not as complex as others, but does not directly measure wind speeds.
ATC Radars
17. Radars which are used for air traffic control purposes are designed to eliminate or reduce
returns from weather. However, some specialised radars are specifically designed to detect the
different air currents associated with thunderstorms in particular. This type of Doppler radar is
being used more now to detect potential windshear situations.
Energy Loss
19. An aircraft encountering windshear tends to maintain its speed over the ground due to its
own momentum (the larger the aircraft the more momentum it will have). If the windshear is due to
a reduction in headwind component (or increase in tailwind component) this reduction manifests
itself as an energy loss and a reduction in indicated airspeed (and TAS). Lift is therefore reduced and
the aircraft will, without correction, suffer a loss of height and an increase in rate of descent and
descent gradient. This situation is illustrated at Figure 8-3. In a climb situation the aircraft will
experience a decrease in rate of climb and climb gradient.
FIGURE 8-3
Effect of the Loss
of Wind Speed
during Descent
Energy Gain
20. An increase in headwind component (or decrease in the tailwind component) results in an
energy gain and increase in indicated airspeed, as shown at Figure 8-4. For an aircraft in a climb, the
effects of the energy gain are to increase the rate of climb and the climb gradient. In the case of an
approach to landing the descent gradient would be decreased.
FIGURE 8-4
Effect of the
Increase in
Windspeed during
the Climb
These events become critical when the aircraft is being flown close to the ground during the final
stages of an approach or shortly after take-off. In the energy loss case the engine reaction time when
additional power is applied can be critical.
21. The energy gain/loss situations described above can occur as a result of either vertical
windshear or as horizontal windshear, in other words the aircraft can either climb/descend or fly
horizontally into air flowing at a different speed or from a different direction, in either event
changing the head/tail wind component. In simple terms a change in the head/tail wind component
will (in the short term) change the airspeed rather than the groundspeed of the aircraft.
Downdraught
22. Figure 8-5 shows an aircraft taking off in the vicinity of a thunderstorm. The situation
illustrated is the critical case where the headwind component decreases sharply and/or becomes a
tailwind component shortly after take-off (energy loss). In this case, because of inertia, the
groundspeed remains constant but the airspeed decreases sharply. The loss of lift associated with the
resulting low airspeed may cause the aircraft to strike the ground.
FIGURE 8-5
Take-off in
Downdraught
Conditions
FIGURE 8-6
Landing in
Downdraught
Conditions - Effect
of Windshear on
the Approach
Path
25. The effects of an encounter with a microburst when making an approach are such that even
more stringent action is required. If anticipation and avoidance have not succeeded, the pilot is faced
with a very hazardous phenomenon. The actions recommended are:
(a) accept an initial energy gain from the outflow (gust-front) of the microburst;
(b) anticipate the next stage (severe energy loss) by increasing to go-around power (be
prepared to go to maximum power if necessary);
(c) select a pitch angle consistent with a missed approach (typically about 15°) and hold it
against turbulence and buffeting;
(d) as the encounter with the downdraught proceeds, the true angle of attack may change.
If the stick-shaker (if fitted) activates, adjust the pitch angle to just below stick shaker
activation;
(e) if further energy loss occurs where the downdraught is changing into a tailwind and a
risk of striking the ground increases, even with maximum power, it may be necessary
to increase the pitch angle further and hold a value which just produces stick-shaker
activation.
27. The recommended course of action, in general, is to ignore noise abatement procedures,
maintain high pitch angles but be prepared to ease the pitch angle if the stick-shaker activates. The
recommended initial actions are:
(b) adopt a pitch angle of around 15° and try to hold that attitude; do not chase airspeed;
29. Autothrottles are unable to anticipate requirements in a changing situation, such that a rapid
rise in airspeed may lead to an undesirable low throttle setting leading to a slow power recovery
when it is needed most. In such circumstances it may be safer to revert to manual throttle control
combined with an increased level of crew cooperation and instrument monitoring.
30. Flight directors, unless designed to provide guidance during windshear should be switched
off.
General Guidance
31. It should be apparent by now that low altitude windshear is a very serious hazard and
wherever possible must be avoided. Pilots must be able therefore to:
• Recognise the situations where it occurs and the signs of its presence.
• Avoid it by diverting or delaying the flight.
• Anticipate the actions required at the onset of an encounter.
• Apply the techniques recommended for the aircraft without hesitation.
Wake Turbulence
9 Wake Turbulence
Wake Vortex Characteristics
1. Wake vortices, are present behind every aircraft, including helicopters when in forward flight,
but are particularly severe when generated by heavy aircraft. They are most hazardous to aircraft
with a small wing span during take-off, initial climb, final approach and landing phases of flight.
2. The characteristics of the wake vortex system generated by an aircraft in flight are determined
by the aircraft’s mass, wingspan, airspeed, configuration and attitude. Subsequently these
characteristics are altered by interactions between vortices and the ambient atmosphere and
eventually, after a time varying according to the circumstances from a few seconds to a few minutes
after the passage of an aircraft, the effects of the vortex become undetectable.
3. For practical purposes, the vortex system in the wake of an aircraft may be regarded as being
made up of two counter-rotating cylindrical air masses trailing aft from the aircraft (Figure 9-1 and
Figure 9-2). The vortices from an aeroplane are created by air transferring from the undersurface
(high pressure) side of the wing to the overwing (low pressure) side, usually at the wingtips. The
direction of the airflow within each vortex is based on this principle and when viewed in relation to
the aeroplane’s direction of travel is clockwise from the port wingtip and anticlockwise from the
starboard wingtip.
4. Typically the two vortices are separated by about three quarters of the aircraft’s wingspan and
in still air they tend to drift slowly downwards and either level off, usually not more than 1000 ft
below the flight path of the aircraft, or, on approaching the ground, move sideways from the track of
the generating aircraft at a height approximately equal to half the aircraft’s wingspan (see
Figure 9-3).
FIGURE 9-1
General View of
Aircraft Trailing
Vortex System
FIGURE 9-2
Helicopter
Vortices
FIGURE 9-3
Vortex Near the
Ground in Still Air,
Viewed from
behind the
Generating
Aircraft
5. The maximum tangential airspeed in the vortex system, which may be as much as 300 ft/sec
immediately behind a large aircraft, decays slowly with time after the passage of the aircraft and
eventually drop sharply as the vortex system disintegrates.
6. Wake vortex generation begins when the nosewheel lifts off the runway on take-off and
continues until the nosewheel touches down on landing.
FIGURE 9-4
Vortex
Generation on
Take-Off and
Landing
7. Vortex strength increases with the weight of the generating aircraft. With the aircraft in a
given configuration, the vortex strength increases with decreasing aircraft speed; and for a given
mass and speed the vortex strength is greatest when the aircraft is in a clean configuration (hence,
heavy, clean and slow is the worst combination). There is some evidence that for given mass and
speed a helicopter produces a stronger vortex than a fixed-wing aircraft.
8. In a stable airflow, the wake vortex system will drift with the wind. Figure 9-5 shows the
possible effect of a crosswind on the motion of a vortex pair close to the ground.
FIGURE 9-5
Vortex Movement
Near the Ground
in a Light
Crosswind,
Viewed from
Behind the
Generating
Aircraft
9. Wind shear causes the two vortices to descend at different rates and close to the ground, can
cause one of the vortices to rise. In still air, the interaction of the vortices with the surface will tend
to cause them to move outwards at about 5kt. On the other hand, turbulence and high winds close
to the ground hasten the decay and disintegration of vortices. Special attention must be given to
situations of light crosswind (5kt), when vortices may stay in the approach and touchdown areas of
airports or sink to the landing or take-off paths of succeeding aircraft as illustrated in Figure 9-5.
10. In flight, the area up to 1000 ft below and behind a large aircraft should avoided, especially at
low altitude where even a momentary wake vortex encounter could be hazardous for a smaller
aircraft. When an aircraft is at cruise speed a vortex may persist at considerable distances behind.
However, the highest proportion of reported wake turbulence incidents occur in the approach and to
a lesser extent, the departure phases of flight.
(b) Medium (M) – aircraft types of less than 136,000kg but more than 7,000kg; and,
Note 1. There is some evidence that helicopters, when in flight, produce vortices which, per kg of
aircraft mass, are more intense than those of aeroplanes.
Note 2. The letters shown in brackets are entered on the air traffic flight plan in item 9 to indicate the
aircraft’s wake turbulence category.
Arriving aircraft
13. When timed approaches are being used:
Departing Aircraft
14. Separation for departing aircraft, when taking off from:
Note. These times are increased to 3 minutes when the second aircraft is taking off from an
intermediate point on the same runway or a parallel runway separated by less than 760m
Opposite Direction
16. When aircraft are using opposite direction runways the required separation is:
(a) Light or Medium taking off or landing after a Heavy has carried out a low missed
approach in the opposite direction – 2 minutes; or,
(b) Light taking off or landing after a Medium has carried out a low missed approach in
the opposite direction – 2 minutes.
Note. The same separation applies if the second aircraft is landing on a parallel opposite direction
runway separated by less than 760m.
• one aircraft operating directly behind another at the same altitude or within 1000ft below; or,
• both aircraft using the same runway or parallel runways separated by less than 760m; or,
• one aircraft is crossing behind another at the same level or less than 1000ft below:
(a) Light after Heavy – 6nm (11.1km);
Security
10 Security
JAR-OPS Requirements - Unlawful Interference
Operator Responsibilities
1. The operator is required by JAR-OPS to ensure that all appropriate personnel are familiar
with and comply with, the relevant requirements of the national security programmes of the State of
the operator.
Training Programmes
2. The operator is required to establish, maintain and conduct approved training programmes
which enable personnel to take appropriate action to prevent acts of unlawful interference such as
sabotage or unlawful seizure of aeroplanes and to minimise the consequences of such events, should
they occur.
Search Procedures
3. The operator is required to ensure that all aeroplanes carry a checklist of the procedures to be
followed for that aeroplane type, when searching for concealed weapons, explosives or other
dangerous devices.
7. Each Contracting State responsible for providing air traffic services for an aircraft which is
the subject of an act of unlawful interference is required to collect all relevant information on the
flight and communicate it to all other States responsible for ATS units concerned, including those at
the known or presumed destination airport, so that timely contingency action can be taken.
8. Each Contracting State is required to provide such assistance to an aircraft which is subjected
to unlawful seizure, including the provision of navigation aids, air traffic services and permission to
land as may be necessitated by the circumstances.
9. A Contracting State in whose territory an aircraft which has been subjected to unlawful
seizure lands is required, as far as is practicable, to ensure that it is detained on the ground unless its
departure is necessitated by the overriding duty to protect human life. It must be recognised that
consultation between the State where the aircraft has landed and the State of the Operator of the
aircraft is an important consideration.
12. If, after selecting Mode A 7500, ATC ask for confirmation of the code, the pilot is required,
if able, to confirm it or to not reply at all. In the absence of a reply ATC will assume the code setting
was intended.
14. If circumstances dictate that the aircraft must depart from its assigned track or its assigned
cruising level without being able to make radio contact with ATS, the pilot should whenever possible:
(a) attempt to broadcast warnings on the VHF emergency frequency and other
appropriate frequencies, unless considerations on board dictate otherwise. Other
equipment such as on-board transponders, data links etc. should be used when
circumstances permit; and
(b) proceed in accordance with any special procedures for in-flight contingencies, where
such procedures have been established and promulgated in Doc.7030 (Regional
Supplementary Procedures); or,
(c) if no applicable regional procedures have been established, proceed at a level which
differs from the cruising levels normally used for IFR flight in the area by 300m
(1000ft) if above FL290 or, by 150m (500ft) if below FL290.
Carriage of Weapons
16. Law enforcement officers and other authorised persons may be permitted to carry weapons
on board an aircraft, whilst acting in the performance of their duties. ICAO Annex 17 recommends
that Contracting States should ensure that the carriage of such weapons should be subject to special
authorisation in accordance with the laws of the States involved.
17. Annex 17 also recommends that Contracting States should ensure that the carriage of
weapons by other persons is allowed only when a duly qualified person has determined that such
weapons are not loaded, and that they are stored in a place inacessable to any person during flight
time.
18. Contracting States should ensure that the pilot-in-command is notified as to the number of
armed persons and their seat location.
Sabotage
19. ICAO Annex 6 requires that an operator must establish a checklist of procedures to be
followed in searching an aircraft for a bomb in a case of suspected sabotage
20. The checklist must be supported by guidance on the course of action to be followed should a
bomb or suspicious object be found, as well as information on the least risk bomb location specific to
the aeroplane.
Landings
Definitions
1. A precautionary landing is one that is planned in flight to overcome an unforeseen occurrence
which does not immediately endanger the safety of the aircraft. For example, the sudden serious
illness of a passenger or an unexpected shortage of fuel. Some such events, if not addressed at an
early stage could, with the passage of time, become worse and eventually endanger the occupants
and/or the aeroplane. The landing is therefore made as at an aerodrome which is suitable for the
aeroplane as a precaution to prevent the situation worsening.
3. Although such an emergency landing will enable the crew to prepare for the landing,
sometimes this is not possible because it occurs immediately after take-off or prior to landing.
4. Examples of the first type of emergency are a double engine failure or structural failure and
those same incidents happening on take-off or landing would result in an immediate emergency
landing.
(a) On land the flight crew will give as much guidance as possible in the time available for
the evacuation of the aeroplane. If the condition of the aeroplane is clearly
catastrophic then the cabin crew must initiate the evacuation.
(b) On water the situation must always be treated as catastrophic and the cabin crew
must tell the passengers to put on life jackets and instruct them to inflate them only on
exit from the aircraft. The cabin crew are responsible for the immediate evacuation of
the aeroplane without instructions from the Flight Crew.
(iii) Ask the senior flight attendant to come to the flight deck;
(iv) Brief the flight attendant on the nature of the emergency and the time available
to landing;
(v) Brief the passengers on the PA and warn them on passing through each 10,000
feet during the descent;
(vi) At 1000 feet the co-pilot calls ‘cabin crew take your seats for landing’.
(b) Factors to be considered when selecting the area for an emergency landing are:
(i) The area of ground should be relatively flat, free of trees and obstructions and
in a non-mountainous area. If possible the area should be close to habitation
and/or surface transport links. All of these requirements may not be possible
particularly over desert and arctic area. It is therefore important to continue
transmitting the aircraft’s position to the controlling authority as long as
possible;
(ii) If possible, land into wind to reduce the groundspeed on impact. The surface
wind may be determined from any smoke, drifting sand or blowing snow. If
this is not possible, use the INS or doppler wind at low altitude as a guide;
(iii) Avoid landing into sun if it is at a low angle of elevation because the glare will
restrict the visibility on approach to land. At night attempt to land towards
the moon because it will illuminate the ground.
(i) At 1000 feet the co-pilot calls ‘Cabin Crew take your seats for landing’. Then
at 200 feet, ‘Brace, Brace’ is called on the PA by the co-pilot;
(ii) The co-pilot should call speed and height continuously to the captain on finals;
(iii) The decision whether to lower the undercarriage or not will depend on the
circumstances. It is the captains decision;
(iv) Just prior to impact both pilot and co-pilot should brace themselves after
turning off the HP and LP cocks.
(i) After landing the Captain, or in his absence the next most senior crew member,
will order an evacuation by PA calling ‘This is an emergency, Evacuate,
Evacuate’ followed by the evacuation alarm;
(ii) If hazardous conditions are known to exist near a particular exit additional
information may be passed over the PA;
(iii) If the landing has clearly been catastrophic the cabin crew should commence
evacuation without waiting for an order.
Ditching
8. The main differences between a pre-planned emergency landing and ditching are:
(ii) Proximity of shipping. Land as close to shipping as possible and make radio
contact on an emergency frequency. This will facilitate rapid rescue;
(iii) Estimate the swell and land along the line of the swell;
(iv) Determine the wind direction from the spray and white caps. Approach into
wind to reduce the groundspeed before touch-down;
(v) Inform passengers of the location of their life jackets and advise them to put
them on well before landing and not to inflate them before exiting the aircraft.
(ii) Due account must be made for the aircraft altitude in the water when advising
the cabin crew which exits to utilise;
(i) Ensure all survivors are well clear of the aircraft (in dinghies after a ditching);
(ii) Crew to leave the aircraft last with any survival equipment;
(iii) Determine what injuries have been sustained if any and nominate crew
members to treat them;
(iv) Assemble ground location aids for immediate use. Establish two-way
communication by radio of possible;
(vii) Captain to decide a plan of action with the rest of the crew.
Fuel Jettison
Requirements
Safety Procedures
12 Fuel Jettison
Requirements
1. JAR 25 specifies that a fuel jettisoning system must be installed on each aeroplane unless it
has been shown that the aeroplane meets certain rate-of-climb requirements at a specified mass. (The
specified mass is based upon the maximum take-off mass less the actual or computed mass of fuel
necessary for a 15 minute flight comprising a take-off, go around and landing at the aerodrome of
departure with the aeroplane in the appropriate configuration).
2. If a jettison system is installed it must be capable of jettisoning enough fuel within 15 minutes
to reduce the aeroplane mass from the value indicated in Paragraph 1 to a mass at which the
specified rate of climb can be achieved.
3. A jettison system must be designed so as to prevent the jettisoning of fuel in the tanks used for
take-off and landing below a specified level. (This level is that which provides for a climb from sea
level to 10,000 ft and thereafter 45 minutes at a cruise speed for maximum range). This specified
fuel may, however, be jettisoned using a separate auxiliary system if one is fitted.
4. Unless it has been shown that using flaps, slots and slats does not adversely affect fuel
jettisoning, there must be a placard adjacent to the jettison control warning to crew members not to
jettison fuel while such systems are in use.
Safety Procedures
5. States may specify minimum altitudes over land below which, jettisoning of fuel is not
permitted except in emergency. Furthermore, Annex 2 (Rules of the Air) requires that nothing be
dropped or sprayed from an aircraft in flight except under conditions prescribed by the appropriate
authority and as indicated by relevant information, advice and/or clearance from the appropriate air
traffic services unit.
6. Fuel jettison procedures are normally included in the aeroplane operations manual under
abnormal and emergency procedures. A typical checklist is likely to contain appropriate safety
checks, to be made before starting to jettison fuel. Such checks would include:
(c) avoid areas of precipitation (which can cause a build up of static), static or lightning
discharge;
The checklist may, if appropriate, also advise against using flaps, slots or slats during jettisoning or of
following a flight path in which the aeroplane could pass through the area of jettisoned fuel vapour.
7. The jettisoning procedure must be monitored closely to ensure that flow is even and fuel
balance is maintained. Fuel quantity indicators should be checked continuously to monitor jettison
pump operation.
Applicability of Regulations
Shipper’s Responsibilities
Operator’s Responsibilities
Acceptance checklist. A document used to assist in carrying out a check on the external appearance
of packages of dangerous goods and their associated documents to determine that all appropriate
requirements are met.
Cargo aircraft. Any aircraft, other than a passenger aircraft, which is carrying goods or
property.
Consignment. One or more packages of dangerous goods accepted by an operator from one
shipper at one time and at one address, receipted for in one lot and moving to one consignee at one
destination address.
Dangerous Goods. Articles or substances which are capable of posing significant risk to health,
safety or property when transported by air.
Dangerous Goods accident. An occurrence associated with and related to the transport of
dangerous goods by air which results in fatal or serious injury to a person or major property damage.
Dangerous Goods incident. An occurrence, other than a dangerous goods accident, associated
with and related to the transport of dangerous goods by air, not necessarily occurring on board an
aircraft, which results in injury to a person, property damage, fire, breakage, spillage, leakage of fluid
or radiation or other evidence that the integrity of the packaging has not been maintained. Any
occurrence relating to the transport of dangerous goods which seriously jeopardises the aircraft or its
occupants is also deemed to constitute a dangerous goods incident.
Dangerous goods transport document. A document which is specified by the Technical Instructions.
It is completed by the person who offers the dangerous goods for air transport (the shipper) and
contains information about those goods. The document bears a signed declaration indicating that
the dangerous goods are fully and accurately described and all appropriate procedures have been
followed.
Exception. A provision in Annex 18 which excluded a specific item of dangerous goods from the
requirements normally applicable to that item.
Flammable. Note – the word flammable has the same meaning as inflammable in the English
language.
Flight crew member. A licensed crew member charged with duties essential to the operation of
an aircraft during flight time.
Overpack. An enclosure used by a single shipper to contain one or more packages and to form
one handling unit for convenience of handling and stowage.
Package. The complete product of the packing operation consisting of the packaging and its
contents prepared for transport.
Packaging. Receptacles and any other components or materials necessary for the receptacle to
perform its containment function and to ensure compliance with the packing requirements of the
Annex.
Packing. The art and operation by which articles or substances are enveloped in wrappings and/
or enclosed in packaging or otherwise secured.
Passenger aircraft. An aircraft that carries any person other than a crew member, an operator’s
employee in an official capacity, an authorised representative of an appropriate national authority or
a person accompanying a consignment or other cargo.
Proper shipping name. The name to be used to describe a particular article or substance in all
shipping documents and notifications and, where appropriate, on packaging.
(a) Requires hospitalisation for more than 48 hours, commencing within seven days from
the date the injury was received; or
(b) Results in a fracture of any bone (except simple fractures of fingers, toes or nose); or
(c) Involves lacerations which cause severe haemorrhage, nerve, muscle or tendon
damage; or
(e) Involves second or third degree burns, or any burns affecting more than 5% of the
body surface; or
State of Origin. The State in the territory of which the cargo was first loaded on an aircraft.
State of the Operator. The State in which the operator has his principal place of business or, it
he has no such place of business, his permanent residence.
Technical Instructions. The latest effective edition of the Technical Instructions for the Safe
Transport of Dangerous Goods by Air (Doc. 9284) approved by the Council of ICAO.
UN number. The four-digit number assigned by the United Nations Committee of Experts on the
Transport of Dangerous Goods to identify a substance or a particular group of substances.
Unit local device. Any type of freight container, aircraft container, aircraft pallet with a net, or
aircraft pallet with a net over an igloo.
Applicability of Regulations
General
2. The Standards and Recommended Practices of Annex 18 are applicable to all international
operations of civil aircraft. In cases of extreme urgency or when other forms of transport are
inappropriate or full compliance with the prescribed requirements is contrary to the public interest,
the States concerned may grant exemptions from these provisions provided that in such cases every
effort shall be made to achieve an over-all level of safety in transport which is equivalent to the level
of safety provided by these provisions.
Carriage Authorisation
5. An operator shall not, according to JAR-OPS, transport dangerous goods unless approved to
do so by the Authority.
7. Where articles and substances intended as replacements for those described in paragraph 6
are carried on an aircraft, they are to transported in accordance with the provisions of Annex 18
except as permitted in the Technical Instructions.
8. Articles and substances intended for the personal use of passengers and crew members shall
be exempted from the provisions of this Annex to the extent specified in the Technical Instructions.
Classification
10. The classification of an article or substance shall be in accordance with the provisions of the
Technical Instructions.
(a) articles and substances that are identified in the Technical Instructions as being
forbidden for transport in normal circumstances; and
Packagings
15. Packagings used for the transport of dangerous goods by air must be of good quality and
constructed and securely closed so as to prevent leakage which might be caused in normal conditions
of transport, by changes in temperature, humidity or pressure, or by vibration.
16. Packagings must be suitable for the contents. Packagings in direct contact with dangerous
goods shall be resistant to any chemical or other action of such goods.
17. Packagings must meet the material and construction specifications in the Technical
Instructions.
18. Packagings must be tested in accordance with the provisions of the Technical Instructions.
Markings
20. Unless otherwise provided for in the Technical Instructions, each package of dangerous goods
shall be marked with the proper shipping name of its contents and, when assigned, the UN number
and such other markings as may be specified in those Instruction.
Shipper’s Responsibilities
Dangerous Goods Transport Document
22. Before a shipper offers any package or overpack of dangerous goods for transport by air, that
person shall ensure that the dangerous goods are not forbidden for transport by air and are properly
classified, packed, marked, labelled and accompanied by a properly executed dangerous goods
transport document, as specified in Annex 18 and the Technical Instructions.
Languages to be used
23. In addition to the languages which may be required by the State of Origin and pending the
development and adoption of a more suitable form of expression for universal use, English should be
used for the dangerous goods transport document.
Operator’s Responsibilities
Acceptance for Transport
24. An operator shall not accept dangerous goods for transport by air:
(a) unless the dangerous goods are accompanied by a completed dangerous goods
transport document, except where the Technical Instructions indicate that such a
document is not required; and
(b) until the package, overpack or freight container containing the dangerous goods has
been inspected in accordance with the acceptance procedures contained in the
Technical Instructions.
Acceptance Checklist
25. An operator shall develop and use an acceptance checklist as an aid to compliance with the
provisions of the previous paragraph.
28. An aircraft which has been contaminated by radioactive materials shall immediately be taken
out of service and not returned to service until the radiation level at any accessible surface and the
non-fixed contamination are not more than the values specified in the Technical Instructions.
30. Packages containing dangerous goods which might react dangerously one with another shall
not be stowed on an aircraft next to each other or in a position that would allow interaction between
them in the event of a leakage.
31. When dangerous goods subject to the provisions contained herein are loaded in an aircraft,
the operator shall protect the dangerous goods from being damaged, and shall secure such goods in
the aircraft in such a manner that will prevent any movement in flight which would change the
orientation of the packages.
35. Before the issue of an approval for the transport of dangerous goods, the operator should
satisfy the Authority that adequate training has been given, that all relevant documents (eg. for
ground handling, aeroplane handling, training) contain information and instructions on dangerous
goods, and that there are procedures in place to ensure the safe handling of dangerous goods at all
stages of air transport.
(e) for use in flight as a veterinary aid or as a humane killer for an animal.
(a) Batteries;
37. Gas cylinders, drugs, medicines, other medical material (such as sterilising wipes) and wet cell
or lithium batteries are dangerous goods which are normally provided for use in flight as medical aid
for a patient. (Equipment containing wet cell batteries is kept, and when necessary secured, in an
upright position to prevent spillage of the electrolyte). However, what is carried may depend on the
needs of the patient. These dangerous goods are not those which are a part on the normal equipment
of the aeroplane.
Note. Proper provision must be made to stow and secure all the equipment during take-off and
landing and at all other times when deemed necessary by the pilot-in-command in the interests of
safety.
39. The dangerous goods which each passenger or crew member can carry are:
(a) Alcoholic beverages not exceeding 70% alcohol by volume, when packed in
receptacles of less than 5 litres:
(b) Non-radioactive medicinal to toilet articles (including aerosols, hair sprays, perfumes,
medicines containing alcohol); and, in checked baggage only, aerosols which are non-
flammable, non-toxic and without subsidiary risk, when for sporting or home use.
The net quantity of each single article should not exceed 0.5 litre or 0.5 kg and the
total net quantity of all articles should not exceed 2 litres or 2 kg;
(c) Safety matches or a lighter for the person’s own use and when carried by the person.
However, ‘Strike anywhere’ matches, lighter containing unabsorbed liquid fuel (other
than liquified gas), lighter fuel and lighter refills are not permitted;
(d) A hydrocarbon gas-powered hair curler, providing the safety cover is securely fitted
over the heating element. Gas refills are not permitted.
(e) Small carbon dioxide gas cylinders worn for the operation of mechanical limbs and
spare cylinders of similar size if required to ensure an adequate supply for the duration
of the journey;
(g) A small medical or clinical thermometer containing mercury, for the person’s own use,
when in its protective case;
(a) Warning notices or placards sufficient in number and prominently displayed, at each
of the places at an airport where tickets are issued and passengers checked in, in
aeroplane boarding areas and at any other place where passengers are checked in; and
(b) A warning with the passenger ticket. This may be printed on the ticket or on a ticket
wallet or on a leaflet.
(c) The information to passengers may include reference to those dangerous goods which
may be carried.
43. As a minimum this information should consist of warning notices or placards sufficient in
number and prominently displayed at any location where cargo is accepted.
Training
47. An operator is required by JAR-OPS to establish and maintain staff training programmes, as
required by the Technical Instructions, which must be approved by the Authority.
48. However, where flight crew or other crew members, such as loadmasters, are responsible for
checking the dangerous goods to be loaded on an aeroplane, their training should also be to the
depth specified in JAR-OPS.
49. Training in Emergency Procedures. The training in emergency procedures should include as a
minimum:
(i) Actions in the event of emergencies in flight occurring in the passenger cabin or
in the cargo compartment; and
(ii) The notification to Air Traffic Services should an in-flight emergency occur .
(i) Dealing with incidents arising from dangerous goods carried by passengers; or
51. Any type of dangerous goods incident or accident should be reported, irrespective of whether
the dangerous goods are contained in cargo, mail, passengers’ baggage or crew baggage.
52. Initial reports may be made by any means, but in all cases a written report should be made as
soon as possible.
53. The report should be as precise as possible and contain all data known at the time the report
is made, for example:
(b) Location of the incident or accident, the flight number and flight date, if applicable;
(c) Description of the goods and the reference number of the air waybill, pouch, baggage
tag, ticket, etc;
Contaminated Runways
14 Contaminated Runways
Factors Affecting Braking
1. A number of factors directly affect the braking capability of an aeroplane during the landing
and in the event of an abandoned take-off.
(a) Runway surfaces. The nature and conditions of the runway surface determines in
part, the amount of grip or friction achieved by a tyre. Smooth surfaces result in less
friction and when even shallow depths of contamination are present, can result in
significantly reduced braking capability. Increased depths of water, snow, slush or ice
degrade braking capability on any runway surface.
(b) Tyre condition. The tread and condition of the tyre must be designed not only to keep
the maximum possible area in contact with the runway surface but also to permit the
dispersal of water and therefore to delay the onset of aquaplaning. Aquaplaning is
also likely to occur earlier than calculated when a tyre is under inflated.
(c) External factors. Headwind assists braking; tailwind does not. Increase in altitude,
and ambient temperature reduce braking capability.
(e) Aircraft speed. Braking at higher speeds requires increased brake energy and increases
the potential for overheating the braking system whilst reducing its effectiveness.
2. The operational aspects and considerations related to operating from contaminated runways
are described in the following paragraph.
Definitions
3. A contaminated runway is defined in JAR-OPS as one on which more than 25% of the
runway surface area (whether in isolated areas or not) within the required length and width being
used is covered by any of the following:
(a) Surface water more than 3 mm (0.125 ins) deep, or by slush, or loose snow,
equivalent to more than 3 mm (0.125 ins) of water;
(b) Snow which has been compressed into a solid mass which resists further compression
and will hold together or break into lumps if picked up (compacted snow) or;
(c) Ice including wet ice.
Damp Runway
4. A damp runway is defined in JAR-OPS as one on which the surface is not dry, but when the
moisture on it does not give it a shiny appearance. For performance purposes, a damp runway, other
than grass runway, may be considered to be dry.
Dry Runway
5. A dry runway is defined in JAR-OPS as one which is neither wet nor contaminated, and
includes those paved runways which have been specially prepared with grooves or porous pavement
and maintained to retain “effectively dry” braking action when moisture is present.
Wet Runway
6. A wet runway is defined in JAR-OPS as one on which the surface is covered with water, or
equivalent, less than 3 mm (0.125 ins) deep or when there is sufficient moisture on the surface to
cause it to appear reflective, but without significant areas of standing water.
Contaminants
7. Dry Snow. Loose hard snow is usually in the form of dry pellets which can be blown, or if
compacted by hand, will fall apart again upon release. For this contaminant to be present the
temperature must be below -5°C (and not risen since the snow fell). Its specific gravity is up to but
not including 0.35. The maximum permissible depth for take-off or landing is 60 m on any part of
the runway, measured by ruler.
8. Wet Snow. Loose snow taking the form of large flakes which if compacted by hand will stick
together to form a snowball (if forms a white covering on all surfaces which when stamped upon
does not slush up). The temperature for this type of snow is between -5°C and -1°C, with a specific
gravity of 0.35 up to but not including 0.5. For take-off and landing the maximum permissible depth
is 15 mm. A rough guide to this depth is the same as the welt of a shoe.
9. Compacted Snow. Snow which has been compressed into a solid mass and resists further
compression is compacted snow. It will hold together or break into lumps if picked up. This type of
covering is normally caused by the transit of vehicles over the surface when snow is falling. Its
specific gravity is 0.5 and over.
10. Slush. A mixture of water and snow which is displaced with a splatter when a heel-and-toe
slapping motion is made on the ground. The temperature is at or around 0ºC. A maximum depth of
15 mm is permissible for take-off and landing. Specific gravity is 0.5 up to 0.8.
11. Water. Visible puddles, usually of rain, standing on the surface causing paved surfaces to
glisten when the temperature is above 0ºC. On a natural surface it is assumed that more than 3 mm
of water exists if under a firm foot pressure and water rises to the surface.
12. Mixtures. Mixtures of ice, snow and/or standing water may, especially when rain, sleet or
snow is falling, produce a substance having an SG above 0.8. This substance is transparent at higher
SG’s, and is easily distinguished from slush which is cloudy.
13. Ice. A frozen layer of surface moisture. The thickness of which varies and produces a poor
coefficient of friction according to the condition of the surface.
Operational Aspects
Effects of Contamination
14. The effect that contaminated surfaces have on the performance of an aircraft is different for
each type because of weight, speed, tyre and undercarriage variations. If an aircraft is permitted to
operate on contaminated surfaces, the Flight Manual will contain a statement to this effect giving any
limitations and special handling techniques that may be necessary to ensure compliance with the
appropriate regulations.
15. Most aerodrome authorities take action to minimise the effect of ice, snow and rain; but it is
still necessary to measure the braking action on the surface. The most reliable and uniform method
of providing this type of information is to measure that amount of friction on the surface. Not only
the runways require testing, other surfaces such as holding bays, taxiways and aprons should be
checked for satisfactory braking. A low friction value means that braking action is reduced and
directional control on the surface degraded.
Friction Measurements
16. Various methods may be used to measure surface friction, which is considered to be the
maximum value of friction afforded when a wheel is braked but is still rolling. The most suitable
method of assessment is generally determined by operational considerations. The method used to
measure surface friction and then to report it is standardised to enable pilots to correctly interpret the
meaning of the value stated. The equipment used for this purpose provides continuous measurement
of the maximum friction along the entire runway and the value reported is called the braking
coefficient of friction.
19. A continuous runway friction measuring trailer (Mu-meter) and a brake testing decelerometer
(Tapley meter) carried in a light van or truck is used to measure the effect of ice, snow, slush and
water on braking action. This method employs a runway friction measuring trailer (Mu-meter)
towed by a vehicle at 40 mph. The equipment provides a continuous register of the mean coefficient
of friction values either on a paper trace or by means of a digital read-out that is used in conjunction
with a hand computer
Example: “Braking action medium 0.46. Heavy rain. Time of measurement 1030 “.
22. Should the value for any one-third fall below 0.40 then the values for each third will be given
in order starting with the one nearest the threshold, preceded by the qualitative term appropriate to
the whole runway and followed by a descriptive term of the conditions.
Example: “Braking action poor 0.46 0.37 0.39. Standing water. Time of measurement 1530”.
(a) Good: Pilots can expect to take-off and/or land within the scheduled wet distances
without undue directional control or braking difficulties caused by the runway
conditions. Untreated ice does not come into this category but gritted ice could
produce the friction required.
(b) Medium: Aircraft are likely to use all of the wet scheduled distance, including the
safety factor part of the distance. Directional control may be impaired. The
achievement of satisfactory landing performance depends on the precise execution of
the recommended flight technique.
(c) Poor: The pilot must expect the aircraft to run at least the full “very wet” or
aquaplaning distance, where this too is scheduled. There may be a significant
deterioration in braking performance and in directional control. It is advisable to
ensure that the landing distance specified in the flight Operations Manual for very wet
conditions does not exceed the landing distance available.
SNOWTAM
24. In winter, aerodromes participating in the SNOWTAM system are requested to make reports
of runway conditions following significant changes but in any event at least every 24 hr.
25. The SNOWTAM report identifies for the aerodrome, ‘inter alia’, the runways affects, the
extent and type of contamination and the friction coefficient or assessed braking action as a code
number (the braking action code). An illustration of this assessment code is as follows:
Note. In METAR this information will be included as part of an 8 digit code group in the
supplementary information. The last two digits representing either the friction reading (35 = 0.35
etc.) or the braking action code preceded by figure 9 (eg. 92 = braking action assessed as medium/
poor).
(b) Wet – the surface is soaked but no significant patches of standing water are visible;
(c) Water Patches – Significant patches of standing water are visible (ie. more than 25%
of the runway surface areas to be used covered by water >3mm deep, whether in
isolated areas or not);
(d) Flooded – extensive standing water is visible (ie. more than 50% of the assessed area
covered by water >3 mm deep).
(Note (c) and (d) are considered to be contaminated and automatically imply a risk of aquaplaning).
(a) additional drag – retardation effects on the wheels and spray impingement drag;
28. A water depth of less than 3 mm is normal during and after heavy rain and in such
conditions, no corrections to take-off performance are necessary other than the allowance, where
applicable, for the effect of a wet or slippery surface. However, on such a runway where the water
depth is less than 3 mm and where the performance effect is insignificant, isolated patches of
standing water or slush of depth in excess of 15 mm located in the latter part of the take-off run may
still lead to ingestion and temporary power fluctuations which could impair safety.
29. A continuous depth of water greater than 3 mm is unlikely as a result of rain alone, but can
occur if torrential rain combines with lack of runway camber/crossfall or a crosswind to reduce the
rate of water drainage from the runway. In such conditions the water depth is unlikely to persist for
more than about 15 minutes after the rain has ceased and take-off should be delayed accordingly.
(a) Take-offs should not be attempted in depths of dry snow greater than 60 mm or
depths of water, slush or wet snow greater than 15 mm. If the snow is very dry, the
depth limit may be increased to 80 mm;
(b) Ensure that all retardation and anti-skid devices are fully serviceable and check that
tyres are in good condition;
Limitations on Landing
31. Attempts to land on heavily contaminated runways involve considerable risk and should be
avoided whenever possible. If the destination aerodrome is subject to such conditions, departure
should be delayed until conditions improve or an alternate used. It follows that advice in the
Aeroplane Flight Manual or Operations Manual concerning landing weights and techniques on very
slippery or heavily contaminated runways is only there to enable the Commander to make a decision,
when airborne, as to his best course of action.
32. Depths of water or slush, exceeding approximately 3 mm, over a considerable proportion of
the length of the runway, can have an adverse effect on landing performance. Under such conditions
aquaplaning is likely to occur with its attendant problems of negligible wheel-braking and loss of
directional control. Moreover, once aquaplaning is established it may, in certain circumstances, be
maintained in much lower depths of water or slush. A landing should only be attempted in these
conditions if there is an adequate distance margin over and above the normal Landing Distance
Required and when the crosswind component is small. The effect of aquaplaning on the landing roll
is comparable with that of landing on an icy surface and guidance is contained in some Flight
Manuals on the effect on the basic landing distance of such very slippery conditions.
Contaminated Runway
35. An operator is required by JAR-OPS to ensure that when weather reports and/or forecasts
indicate that the runway at the estimated time of arrival may be contaminated, the landing distance
available must be at least the value of the required wet minimum landing distance or 115% of the
landing distance required calculated for a contaminated runway.
Hydroplaning (Aquaplaning)
36. The tyre friction required by an aeroplane to maintain directional control and effective
braking is a finite quantity for each aircraft type. The amount of friction actually obtained can be
adversely affected by any surface contaminant. Water is particularly dangerous because it can cause
an almost total loss of tyre friction. This condition which is known as hydroplaning occurs when
water underneath a tyre builds up an increasing amount of resistance to being displaced (by the tyre)
and eventually forms a layer between the runway and the tyre. The result is negligible braking and
difficulty in maintaining directional control.
37. The effects of aquaplaning on aircraft handling characteristics are similar to those
experienced on an icy or very slippery surface. Some Aeroplane Flight Manuals contain information
on handling characteristics and aircraft performance when such surface conditions exist. The
guidance given should be used at all times when the contaminant depth is “significant”. Some degree
of hydroplaning is possible at any time when the runway is contaminated by water or some other
foreign substance.
Types of Hydroplaning
38. Two types of hydroplaning can occur, either individually or together, on wet or icy runways.
They are known as DYNAMIC and VISCOUS, and they differ in their initial cause and total
duration, but may occur together to give ‘combined’ hydroplaning.
Dynamic Hydroplaning
39. For this phenomenon to occur, two essential conditions must be present:
(a) The surface must be flooded to a depth which exceeds the total depth of the runway
texture plus the tyre tread. This is the critical depth and is normally 3 mm.
(b) The second condition is that the aircraft must be travelling at or above the critical
speed, which is the tyre speed at which the standing inertia of the water is such that
the water is unable to escape from under the tyre. If both conditions are present,
dynamic hydroplaning is likely to occur.
Viscous Hydroplaning
40. The only essential condition for viscous hydroplaning to occur is a smooth surface covered by
a thin film of moisture. It happens at much lower groundspeeds than dynamic hydroplaning and is
usually of very short duration. On normal landings at the touchdown point the aircraft tyres slip and
skid momentarily until they spin up to their rotational speed. Usually the texture of the runway
surface is coarse enough to break up the liquid film, but any deposits of rubber or oil prevent this
dissipation taking place. The heat generated by the initial slippage of the tyre is enough to cause a
thin layer of rubber to melt and adhere to the runway.
42. The airfield operating authorities, during the construction or repair of runways, can assist the
pilot by ensuring the runways are porous or grooved to give better tyre traction and that there is
adequate drainage to prevent build up of moisture. However, strong crosswinds can defeat good
drainage on the windward side of the runway. Aircraft design can also assist by the incorporation of
tandem wheel arrangements because they can travel through greater depths of contaminant with less
difficulty than others.
43. Dynamic hydroplaning, after its onset, will continue whilst the two essential conditions are
maintained. If either the groundspeed falls below the critical speed or the water depth reduces below
the critical depth, this type of hydroplaning will not persist.
2
(Note. Tyre pressures can also be measured in kg/cm or in ‘bar’ where 1 bar is equal to 14.7
2 2
lb/in or 1.034 kg/cm .
In simple terms, sub paragraph (b) can be summarised as the critical (start of hydroplaning) speed in
knots equal to the square root of the tyre pressure multiplied by 9 .
The speed calculated is groundspeed and therefore only in ISA conditions at mean sea level will the
calculated speed equate to indicated airspeed (IAS). In any other conditions TAS will represent more
accurately the calculated aquaplaning groundspeed. At a higher level airfield for example, a given
value of TAS will be achieved at a lower IAS and therefore the calculated aquaplaning speed will be
reached at a lower IAS.
Note. The formula in sub paragraph (a) is applicable for a landing calculation whereas sub
paragraph (b) is applicable for a take-off calculation.
Example: Given a tyre pressure of 144lb/in 2 the critical hydroplaning speed is 108kt for take-off.
Precautions on Take-Off
45. On take-off, as the tyre commences to roll on a wet surface at slower speeds, water is able to
escape to the sides of the tyre until the speed approaches the critical speed. At this point a wedge of
water builds up in front of the tyre and lifts it clear of the surface. Therefore, to avoid the risk of
hydroplaning, take-off should not be attempted unless the water depth is less than the critical value
for the entire length of the take-off run required.
Precautions on Landing
46. For landing the non-rotating formula should be used to calculate the dynamic hydroplaning
speed. If the depth of contaminant exceeds the critical depth, the landing should be delayed until it
has drained below the critical depth. Caution is important in this situation.
47. Finally, aeroplane approach speed is also a factor. Every 1% increase in touchdown speed
above that recommended for the aircraft mass increases the landing distance required by 2%.
Combined Hydroplaning
48. The loss of tyre friction on wet or flooded runways is generally the result of combined effects
of dynamic and viscous hydroplaning. If dynamic hydroplaning is predominant the area of the tyre
under which the bulk of the water is trapped enlarges as the speed increases. If the contaminant is of
less than critical depth, however, and there is no bulk of water present, the major part of the
footprint is in contact with a thin film of moisture and viscous hydroplaning is the controlling
element.
50. All these types of hydroplaning can occur in the same landing run if conditions are
appropriate.