Reading Comprehension

Read the following Passage and answer the questions given below:

On the surface, the conquest of the Aztec empire by Herman Cortes is one of
the most amazing military accomplishments in history. With a small fighting
force numbering in the hundreds, Cortes led the Spanish explorers into
victory against an Aztec population that many believe topped 21 million. In
light of such a seemingly impossible victory, the obvious question is: how
did a small group of foreign fighters manage to topple one of the world's
strongest, wealthiest, and most successful military empires?
Several factors led to Cortes' success. First, the Spanish exploited animosity
toward the Aztecs among rival groups and convinced thousands of locals to
fight. In one account of a battle, it is recorded that at least 200,000 natives
fought with Cortes. Next, the Spanish possessed superior military
equipment in the form of European cannons, guns, and crossbows, leading
to effective and efficient disposal of Aztec defenses. For example, Spanish
cannons quickly defeated large Aztec walls that had protected the empire
against big and less technically advanced armies.
Despite the Spanish advantages, the Aztecs probably could have succeeded
in defending their capital city of Tenochtitlan had they leveraged their
incredible population base to increase their army's size and ensured that no
rogue cities would ally with Cortes. In order to accomplish this later goal,
Aztec leader Motecuhzoma needed to send envoys to neighboring cities
telling their inhabitants about the horrors of Spanish conquest and the
inevitability of Spanish betrayal.
In addition, the Aztecs should have exploited the fact that the battle was
taking place on their territory. No reason existed for the Aztecs to consent to
a conventional battle, which heavily favored the Spanish. Motecuhzoma's
forces should have thought outside the box and allowed Cortes into the city,
only to subsequently use hundreds of thousands of fighters to prevent
escape and proceed in surprise "door-to-door" combat. With this type of
battle, the Aztecs would have largely thwarted Spanish technological
supremacy. However, in the end, the superior weaponry of the Spanish, the
pent-up resentment of Aztec rivals, the failure of Aztec diplomacy, and the
lack of an unconventional Aztec war plan led to one of the most surprising
military outcomes in the past one thousand years.
Questions and solutions:
1. Which of the following best characterizes the main point the
author is trying to convey in the passage?
a) Aztec failure to fight an unconventional war led to an
unnecessary defeat
b) Spanish victory was neither as impressive nor as
surprising as it may first appear
 c) Resentment toward the Aztecs led to their demise
d) Herman Cortes masterminded an amazing military
accomplishment
e) The myopic vision of the Aztecs led to their unnecessary
downfall
Answer – (B)
Solution:
In order to ascertain the main point that the author is trying to
make, it is important to examine logical flow of the passage.
1st Paragraph: Explain a seemingly amazing accomplishment
and ask whether it really is as impressive as it first appears.
2nd Paragraph: Explain factors that made the impressive
accomplishment not as impressive.
3rd Paragraph: Explain how the seemingly amazing
accomplishment didn't have to turn out the way it did.
4th Paragraph: Explain how the seemingly amazing
accomplishment didn't have to turn out the way it did.
A.The Aztec failure to fight in an unconventional manner is
discussed only in the last paragraph and is mentioned only to
make a larger point: the fall of the Aztec was not as impressive as
it originally appeared.
B.This encapsulates the logical flow and main points of the
passage. 
C.This topic is only discussed during part of the second
paragraph and is mentioned only to make a larger point: the fall
of the Aztec was not as impressive as it originally appeared.
D.The main point of the passage is to challenge this common
belief and point out that it was not as amazing as is often
asserted. 
E.The passage never even mentions that the Aztec had myopic
vision let alone makes this the main focus.
2. The passage is sequentially organized in which of the
following ways?
a) Introduce an enigma; explain the reasons for the enigma;
discuss the inevitability of the enigma
b) Define a problem; explain the sources of the problem; offer
a solution to the problem
c) Introduce a mystery; offer an explanation for the mystery;
provide an alternative explanation for the mystery
d) Pose a question; offer an answer to the question; offer an
 alternative answer to the question
e) Define a problem; explain the likelihood of the problem;
discuss the consequences of the problem
Answer – (A)
Solution:
In order to see the sequential ordering, break down the logical
flow of the passage.
1st Paragraph: Introduce something that looks very impressive
on the surface and ask how it happened.
2nd Paragraph: Offer several factors that help explain what
seemed so impressive and unbelievable.
3rd Paragraph: Provide several ways that the seemingly
unbelievable was not inevitable.
4th Paragraph: Continue with paragraph 3. Conclude by noting
that the seemingly unbelievable and unexplainable was both
explainable and not inevitable.
To summarize the sequential organization:
Introduce an enigma ("how did a small group of foreign fighters
manage to topple one of the world's strongest, wealthiest, and
most successful military empires?")
Explain reasons for the enigma (2nd paragraph)
Discuss the inevitability of the enigma (3rd and 4th paragraphs) 
A.This matches the sequential order explained above.
B.The third and fourth paragraphs are not offering a solution to a
problem but rather discussing the inevitability of an outcome.
C.The third and fourth paragraphs are not providing an
alternative explanation for the mystery but rather discussing the
inevitability of the mystery.
D.The third and fourth paragraphs are not providing an
alternative answer to the question but rather discussing the
inevitability of the mystery.
E.The second paragraph does not discuss the likelihood of the
problem but rather explains the sources of the problem (i.e., the
sources for the seemingly incredible victory of Cortes). The
passage makes no mention of the consequences of the invasion,
its success, or its seemingly impressive status etc.

3. The author implies which of the following about the Aztec

view toward an unconventional military confrontation of the
Spanish?
 a) The Aztecs did not consider it
b) The Aztecs considered it, but rejected it out of beliefs about
how battles ought to be fought
c) The Aztecs considered this, but it was too late
d) The Aztecs were certain a victory could be achieved via
traditional combat
e) The Aztecs felt the geography of Tenochtitlan did not favor
this strategy
Answer – (A)
Solution:
The author never mentions that the Aztecs had a view toward an
unconventional military conflict with the Spanish. The topic is
mentioned only as the author notes that the Aztecs should have
pursued this type of a confrontation with the Spanish. Further,
when the author did mention unconventional combat, he
prefaced it with the statement: "Motecuhzoma's forces should
have thought outside the box..." Based upon these facts, our best
inference is that the Aztecs did not ever consider an
unconventional military confrontation with Cortes.
A.This seems to be implied in the author's suggestion that
"Motecuhzoma's forces should have thought outside the box..." 
B.The passage never mentions nor implies that the Aztecs
considered an unconventional military confrontation with the
Spanish. 
C.The passage never mentions nor implies that the Aztecs
considered an unconventional military confrontation with the
Spanish.
D.The passage never mentions nor implies that the Aztecs were
certain they could achieve victory in a traditional means.
E.The passage never mentions nor implies that the Aztecs
considered an unconventional military confrontation, let alone
how it would be influenced by the geography of Tenochtitlan
4. According to the passage, all of the following led to Cortes'
success EXCEPT:
a) Advanced crossbows
b) Nimble military force
c) Local Spanish allies
d) Local tribal friction
e) Quick destruction of Aztec walls
 a) Introspective
Answer – (B)
Solution:
A.The passage mentions this as a source of success: "the Spanish
possessed superior military equipment in the form of European cannons,
guns, and crossbows"
B.Although the passage mentions that Cortes' army was small, it implies
that this as a weakness. The passage never states that the military was
nimble nor does it mention this as a source of success.
C.The passage mentions this as a source of success: "In one account of a
battle, it is recorded that at least 200,000 natives fought with Cortes."
D.The passage mentions this as a source of success: "animosity toward
the Aztecs among rival groups"
E.The passage mentions this as a source of success: "Spanish cannons
quickly defeated large Aztec walls"
5. Which of the following best characterizes the author's view about
the inevitability of Aztec demise at the hands of the Spanish?
a) Absolutely Inevitable
b) Likely Inevitable
c) Ambivalent
d) Likely Not Inevitable
e) Absolutely Not Inevitable
Answer – (D)
Solution:
The relevant portion of the passage is: "Despite the Spanish
advantages, the Aztecs probably could have succeeded in
defending their capital city of Tenochtitlan"
A.This does not match with the passage: "the Aztecs probably
could have succeeded in defending their capital"
B.This does not match with the passage: "the Aztecs probably
could have succeeded in defending their capital"
C.This does not match with the passage: "the Aztecs probably
could have succeeded in defending their capital"
D.This does match with the passage: "the Aztecs probably could
have succeeded in defending their capital"
E.This does not match with the passage: "the Aztecs probably
could have succeeded in defending their capital"
 6. The author implies which of the following about the nature
of Aztec regional influence and power?
a) Engendered some anger
b) Achieved with a non-traditional military campaign
c) Based upon a technologically outdated military
d) Achieved through alliances
e) Based upon small yet swift and brutal military force
Answer – (A)
Solution:
The relevant portion of the passage is: "Spanish exploited
animosity toward the Aztecs"
A.This matches the description of the passage.
B.The passage never mentions that that Aztec fought a non-
traditional military campaign.
C.The question refers to the "regional" Aztec influence and the
passage never states or implies that the Aztec military was
outdated when compared to regional enemies.
D.The passage implies that the Aztecs lacked adequate alliances. 
E.The passage states that the Aztecs had a large military force
(although we do not know whether it was larger than other
regional players; nonetheless, the passage does not discuss the
Aztec military size and speed relative to regional enemies).
7. The passage implies that which of the following constituted
the reason for Cortes' success seeming so impressive?
a) Utilization of technological supremacy
b) Ability to form a coalition of local tribes to fight the Aztecs
c) The vast quantities of gold and other precious metals
obtained in conquest
d) The large disparity in the size of the Aztec and Spanish
militaries
e) The possession of superior military equipment.
Answer – (D)
Solution:
The relevant portion of the passage is: "one of the most amazing
military accomplishments in history. With a small fighting
force..."
A.The passage states that this was a reason that Cortes' victory
was not as impressive as it originally appeared.
B.The passage states that this is an action that the Aztecs should
have taken to protect against Cortes.
C.The passage makes no mention of this. 
D.This matches the author's description of why Cortes' success
seemed so impressive.
E.The author does not mention or imply this as a reason for
Cortes' success seeming impressive.
8. The author's tone can best be described as?
b) Frustrated
c) Angry
d) Optimistic
e) Analytical
Answer – (D)
Solution:
The author begins with a problem and spends the remainder of the passage
analyzing the causes of the problem (2nd paragraph) and the inevitability of
the problem (3rd and 4th paragraph).
A.The author expresses virtually no emotion in the passage.
B.The author expresses virtually no emotion in the passage.
C.The author is analyzing a historical issue and is not expressing personal
emotions such as optimism or pessimism.
D.This captures the author's tone as the author analyzes an enigma by
explaining it and discussing the extent of its inevitability.
E.The author is addressing history from an objective and outside view, not
looking inward. The author never mentions himself.

Passage 2:
A fundamental principle of pharmacology is that all drugs have multiple
actions. Actions that are desirable in the treatment of disease are considered
therapeutic, while those that are undesirable or pose risks to the patient are
called "effects." Adverse drug effects range from the trivial, e.g., nausea or
dry mouth, to the serious, e.g., massive gastrointestinal bleeding or
thromboembolism; and some drugs can be lethal. Therefore, an effective
system for the detection of adverse drug effects is an important component
of the health care system of any advanced nation. Much of the research
conducted on new drugs aims at identifying the conditions of use that
maximize beneficial effects and minimize the risk of adverse effects.
The intent of drug labeling is to reflect this body of knowledge accurately so
that physicians can properly prescribe the drug; or, if it is to be sold without
prescription, so that consumers can properly use the drug.
The current system of drug investigation in the United States has proved
very useful and accurate in identifying the common side effects associated
with new prescription drugs. By the time a new drug is approved by the
Food and Drug Administration, its side effects are usually well described in
the package insert for physicians. The investigational process, however,
cannot be counted on to detect all adverse effects because of the relatively
small number of patients involved in premarketing studies and the relatively
short duration of the studies.
Animal toxicology studies are, of course, done prior to marketing in an
attempt to identify any potential for toxicity, but negative results do not
guarantee the safety of a drug in humans, as evidenced by such well known
examples as the birth deformities due to thalidomide.
This recognition prompted the establishment in many countries of programs
to which physicians report adverse drug effects. The United States and other
countries also send reports to an international program operated by the
World Health Organization. These programs, however, are voluntary
reporting programs and are intended to serve a limited goal: alerting a
government or private agency to adverse drug effects detected by physicians
in the course of practice. Other approaches must be used to confirm
suspected drug reactions and to estimate incidence rates. These other
approaches include conducting retrospective control studies; for example,
the studies associating endometrial cancer with estrogen use, and
systematic monitoring of hospitalized patients to determine the incidence of
acute common side effects, as typified by the Boston Collaborative Drug
Surveillance Program.
Thus, the overall drug surveillance system of the United States is composed
of a set of information bases, special studies, and monitoring programs,
each contributing in its own way to our knowledge about marketed drugs.
The system is decentralized among a number of governmental units and is
not administered as a coordinated function. Still, it would be inappropriate
at this time to attempt to unite all of the disparate elements into a
comprehensive surveillance program. Instead, the challenge is to improve
each segment of the system and to take advantage of new computer
strategies to improve coordination and communication.
9. The author is primarily concerned with discussing:
a) methods for testing the effects of new drugs on humans
b) the importance of having accurate information about the
effects of drugs
 c) procedures for determining the long-term effects of new
drugs
d) attempts to curb the abuse of prescription drugs
e) the difference between the therapeutic and non-therapeutic
actions of drugs
Answer – (B)
Solution:
This is a main idea question. 
Choice (B) correctly describes the overall point of the passage.
The author starts by stating that all drugs have both good and
bad effects, and that correct use of a drug requires balancing the
effects. For such a balancing to take place, it is essential to have
good information about how the drugs work. Some of this can be
obtained prior to approval of the drug, but some information will
not become available until after years of use.
Choice (A) is incorrect, for the different methods for testing
drugs are mentioned only as a part of the development just
described. The author is not concerned with talking about how
drugs are tested but about why it is important that they be
tested.
Choice (C) is incorrect for the same reason.
As for choice (E), this is the starting point for the discussion—
not the main point of the discussion.
Finally, as for choice (D), the idea of drug abuse is not part of
the passage at all.
10. The author implies that a drug with adverse side effects:
a) will not be approved for use by consumers without a
doctor’s prescription
b) must wait for approval until lengthy studies prove the
effects are not permanent
c) should be used only if its therapeutic value outweighs its
adverse effects
d) should be withdrawn from the marketplace pending a
government investigation
e) could be used in foreign countries even though it is not
approved for use in the United States
Answer – (C)
Solution:
This is an inference question. 
In the first paragraph, the author states that all drugs have
 effects and that these effects range from the unimportant to the
very important. One purpose of drug labelling is to ensure that
physicians (and ultimately consumers) are aware of these effects.
We can infer, therefore, that drugs with side effects are used—
provided the gain is worth the risk. And this is what option
(C)says.
Choice (A) seems to be contradicted by the passage. One
purpose of labelling, according to the author, is to let consumers
of non-prescription drugs know of possible side effects of those
drugs.
As for choice (B) and choice (D), the analysis in the preceding
paragraph clearly shows that drugs are approved for use and
used even though they have unwanted side effects.
Finally, there is nothing in the passage to support the conclusion
expressed in choice (E).
11. Which of the following can be inferred from the given
passage?
a) Drugs with serious side effects are never approved for
distribution.
b) A centralized drug oversight function would improve public
health.
c) Most physicians are not aware that prescription drugs have
side effects.
d) Some rare adverse drug effects are not discovered during
the limited testing.
e) Consumers are seldom unable to understand directions for
proper use of a drug.
Answer – (D)
Solution:
This is an inference question. Although this conclusion is not
stated in so many words, the author does say that some effects
are not uncovered because of the short duration of the studies.
We may therefore infer that some effects do not manifest
themselves for a long period.
12. The author introduces the example of thalidomide to show
that some:
a) drugs do not have the same actions in humans that they
do in
animals
b) drug testing procedures are ignored by careless laboratory
workers
 c) drugs have no therapeutic value for humans
d) drugs have adverse side effects as well as beneficial actions
e) drugs are prescribed by physicians who have not read the
manufacturer’s recommendations
Answer – (A)
Solution:
This is a logical structure question, and the correct answer is (A).
The example is introduced where the author is discussing animal
studies.
The author says that the fact that a drug shows no dangerous
effects in animals does not necessarily mean that it will not
adversely affect humans and then gives the example. Thus, the
example proves that a drug does not necessarily work in humans
the same way it does in animals.
13. The author of the passage regards current drug investigation
procedures as:
                               
a) important but generally ineffectual
b) lackadaisical and generally in need of improvement
c) necessary and generally effective
d) comprehensive but generally unnecessary
e) superfluous but generally harmless
Answer – (C)
Solution:
This is an author’s attitude question. We have already
determined that the author regards drug investigation
procedures as necessary, so we can eliminate choice
(D) and choice (E).
And at various points in the passage the author speaks of the
current mechanism for gathering information as effective. For
example, the author states that unwanted side effects are usually
described in detail in the pamphlets distributed to physicians
and also mentions that there is an entire discipline devoted to
this area, so you can eliminate choice (A) and choice (B).
14. The author is most probably leading up to a discussion of
some suggestions about how to:
                   
a) centralize authority for drug surveillance in the United
States
 b) centralize authority for drug surveillance among
international agencies
c) coordinate better the sharing of information among the
drug surveillance agencies
d) eliminate the availability and sale of certain drugs now on
the market
e) improve drug testing procedures to detect dangerous
effects before drugs are approved
Answer – (C)
Solution:
This is an application question, and the correct answer is choice
(C).
In the last paragraph, the author suggests that uniting disparate
elements into a comprehensive surveillance program is
inappropriate at this time. This eliminates choices (A) and (B).
The author suggests, however, that improvements are possible in
each segment of the system and urges reliance on computers to
improve coordination and communication, so choice (C) is the
correct answer.
Choice (D) is wrong because although the author might advocate
the elimination of the availability of certain drugs, that is not
what the passage is leading up to.
As for choice (E), although the author acknowledges that pre
approval studies are not infallible, this notion is too narrow in
scope to be the next logical topic for discussion.
15. The author relies on which of the following in developing the
passage?
                               
a) Statistics
b) Analogy
c) Examples
d) Authority
e) Rhetorical questions
Answer – (C)
Solution:
This is a logical structure question. The author frequently
illustrates the argument’s points with examples. In the first
paragraph there are examples of side effects, in the second an
example of side effects not detected by animal studies, and in the
third the Boston Collaborative Drug Surveillance Program. The
 author does not, however, use statistics (no numbers in this
passage), an analogy (no "this is like that"), or authority (citing an
example is not the same as appealing to an authority), and
doesn’t use rhetorical questions.
Passage 3:

On August 22, 1939, Adolf Hitler summoned his top military generals to
Obersalzberg, where he delivered a speech explaining his plans for war, first
with Poland, then with the rest of Europe. Despite resistance from those
both inside and outside Germany, Hitler felt exceedingly confident that he
could defy the will of the international community and conquer vast
amounts of land. In his speech at Obersalzberg, he laid out numerous
factors he believed would contribute to the success of his war plans.
Chief among Hitler's sources of confidence in Germany's brazen war plans
was German military quickness. Hitler said, "Our strength lies in our
quickness." On the advice of Colonel-General von Brauchitsch, Hitler
believed Poland could be captured in a few weeks, an astonishingly short
amount of time given the recent history of trench warfare and the long
history of protracted European military engagements that resulted in
minimal land gains and high casualty counts.
Hitler's confidence in the ability of the German military to inflict
considerable brutality further strengthened his determination to pursue an
exceedingly ambitious plan of territorial aggrandizement. He said, "I shall
shoot everyone who utters one word of criticism" and noted that "the goal to
be obtained in the war is not that of reaching certain lines but of physically
demolishing the opponent." In this vein, Hitler ordered his military to "be
hard, be without mercy, [and] act more quickly and brutally than others…
for it scares the others off." Hitler believed that enemies, not used to this
type of brutality, would surrender quickly.
In addition to speed and brutality, Hitler believed that, in the end, history
would overlook his inhumane conduct. To support this view, which turned
out to be anything but prescient, Hitler invoked a Pollyannaish view of Asian
leader Genghis Kahn. In Hitler's eyes, Kahn "sent millions of women and
children into death knowingly and with a light heart," yet "history sees in
him only the great founder of States."
Although Hitler brimmed with confidence and experienced initial yet widely-
expected success in Poland and then in Denmark, he overlooked important
considerations. In many ways, Hitler made the same mistake Napoleon
Bonaparte made years earlier. Hitler believed he could advance further and
conquer Britain, yet, like Napoleon, Hitler did not adequately foresee the
insurmountable barrier posed by Britain's island status. Despite the damage
inflicted at the hands of the German Luftwaffe during the Battle of Britain
(1940), British forces eventually won this important battle. Nevertheless,
Hitler pressed on and, in an even more fateful decision that carried echoes
of a Napoleonic tactical misstep, invaded the USSR where his forces suffered
the decisive defeat of World War II at Stalingrad in 1943. In the end, Hitler's
reputation in history proved to be as brutal and decisive as the battle plans
and philosophy he announced at Obersalzberg.
16. According to the passage, Hitler's confidence in his military
strategy stemmed from its:
a) Surprise invasions
b) Emphasis on unconventional warfare
c) Reliance on air supremacy
d) Swift brutality
e) Napoleonic overtones
Answer – (D)
Solution:
Beginning in the second paragraph, the author explains why
Hitler felt confident in his military strategy:
2nd Paragraph: "Chief among Hitler's sources of confidence in
Germany's brazen war plans was German military quickness.
Hitler said, 'Our strength lies in our quickness.'"
3rd Paragraph: The military's ability "to inflict considerable
brutality"
4th Paragraph: History would overlook brutality
Aggregating together the points from above, we can conclude that
Hitler's confidence in his military strategy came from: (1) speed
(2) brutality.
A. The passage contradicts this, mentioning that the invasion of
Poland was "widely-expected". Further, there is a difference
between quickness (which the article discusses as a source of
confidence) and surprise (which the article does not discuss).
B. The passage never mentions unconventional warfare.
Moreover, with references to Napoleon Bonaparte and Genghis
Kahn, it can be inferred that Hitler's plans are not too
unconventional.
C. The passage never states this as a source of confidence. The
only mention to air supremacy is the Battle of Britain, which
Hitler lost.
D. This summarizes the two main sources of confidence.
E. This is the author's comparison, not one mentioned by Hitler
as a source of confidence.
17. The author of the passage is primarily concerned with
explaining:
a) The logistics of Hitler's war strategy and the mechanics of
its failure
 b) The philosophy of Hitler's war strategy and the world's
reaction
c) Why Hitler believed his war plans would succeed and why
they eventually failed
d) Hitler's plans and their failure with an eye to pre-1900
history
e) Explaining the source of Hitler's brutality and the reasons
for its failure
Answer – (C)
Solution:
In order to understand the main thrust of the passage, examine
the logical flow and main points of the passage.

1st Paragraph: Introduction

2nd Paragraph: Hitler's Sources of Confidence
3rd Paragraph: Hitler's Sources of Confidence
4th Paragraph: Hitler's Sources of Confidence
5th Paragraph: Brief Explanation of Hitler's Failure
A. The author did not address logistics such as troop numbers,
weaponry, or intelligence.
B. The passage never discussed the world's reaction.
C. This encapsulates the author's main points and line of
argument.
D. Hitler's plans are not discussed. Instead, the article focuses
on why Hitler believed he would win. Further, the author never
related pre-1900 history with Hitler's plans (the reference to
Kahn pertained to Hitler's confidence, not his plans).
E. The author describes Hitler's brutality as a source of Hitler's
confidence. The article does not discuss the sources of the
brutality itself. In other words, the article focuses on much more
than Hitler's brutality (e.g., his military speed). The brutality is
only one example to make a larger point: why Hitler believed he
would win.
18. Which of the following best characterizes the author's view of
the relationship between Hitler and Napoleon?
a) Governed with similar styles
b) Fought military conflicts with similar ideologies
c) In general, shared a legacy as overly ambitious leaders
d) At a high-level, some similarities in military missteps
existed
 e) Both suffered final defeats by impetuously charging east
Answer – (D)
Solution:
The passage of interest is:
"In many ways, Hitler made the same mistake Napoleon
Bonaparte made years earlier. Hitler believed he could conquer
Britain, yet, like Napoleon, Hitler did not adequately foresee the
insurmountable barrier posed by Britain's island status....Hitler
pressed on and, in an even more fateful decision that carried
echoes of a Napoleonic tactical misstep, invaded the USSR"
A. The author makes no mention of governing styles, focusing
instead on military matters.
B. The author's comparison focuses on military tactics and
decisions to attack certain regions--not ideologies or motivations.
C. The passage never mentions Napoleon’s legacy so it is
impossible to ascertain the author's view on this issue.
D. This answer matches the author's assertion (shown in the
quote above) that both Napoleon and Hitler made mistakes in
dealing with Britain.
E. The passage never mentions Napoleon suffering a final defeat
in the east. Instead, it only mentions that Hitler's decision to
head east had "echoes of a Napoleonic misstep". Based upon the
passage, we have no way of knowing that Napoleon suffered a
defeat in the east.
19. According to the passage, what best describes the author's
understanding of why Hitler's military campaign eventually failed?
a) Failed to demoralize opponents
b) Overlooked important tactical and geographic
considerations
c) Underestimated international resolve
d) Fell behind technological advancements of European
enemies
e) Failed to consolidate initial military and land gains
Answer – (B)
Solution:
The part of the passage that is of special interest is:
"he overlooked important considerations.... Hitler believed he
could advance further and conquer Britain, yet, like Napoleon,
Hitler did not adequately foresee the insurmountable barrier
posed by Britain's island status. ... Hitler pressed on and, in an
even more fateful decision that carried echoes of a Napoleonic
 tactical misstep, invaded the USSR where his forces suffered the
decisive defeat of World War II"
This passage indicates that Hitler made mistakes in overlooking
geographical considerations (i.e., "Britain's island status") and
tactical considerations (i.e., "echoes of a Napoleonic tactical
misstep").
A. The passage never states that Hitler failed to demoralize his
opponents. Although Hitler's losses over England and in the
USSR likely caused Hitler to fail in demoralizing his opponents,
this is a consequence of losing not an explanation for why Hitler's
military campaign failed in the first place.
B. This answer matches the author's explanation, given in the
final paragraph.
C. The passage does not mention international resolve. Although
Hitler's losses over England and in the USSR likely strengthened
international resolve, this is a consequence of losing not an
explanation for why Hitler's military campaign failed in the first
place.
D. Technological advancements on the part of either Hitler's
forces or those of his enemies are never mentioned.
E. The passage never speaks of whether Hitler consolidated his
gains and there is not enough evidence to make any type of
inference.
20. According to the passage, Hitler's confidence in the war
plans announced at Obersalzberg stemmed from all of the
following EXCEPT:
a) The speed of the German military
b) The brutality of the German military
c) The plan to stifle dissent
d) The belief that instilling fear weakened enemies
e) The history of overlooking European military brutality
Answer – (E)
Solution:
A. This was a source of confidence: "Chief among Hitler’s sources
of confidence in Germany's brazen war plans was German
military quickness"
B. This was a source of confidence: "Hitler's confidence in the
ability of the German military to inflict considerable brutality"
C. This was a source of confidence: "I shall shoot everyone who
utters one word of criticism"
D. This was a source of confidence: "be hard, be without mercy,
 [and] act more quickly and brutally than others…for it scares the
others off"
E. The passage never mentions that history overlooked the
brutality of a European military. Instead, the passage cites
Hitler's recollection of history's positive outlook on "Asian leader
Genghis Kahn".
21. According to the passage, why did Hitler believe he could
conquer Poland in a few weeks?
a) The inaction of European neighbours
b) The example of Napoleon
c) The philosophy of Genghis Kahn
d) The counsel of a military general
e) The small size of Poland
Answer – (D)
Solution:
The portion of the passage that is relevant is:
"On the advice of Colonel-General von Brauchitsch, Hitler
believed Poland could be captured in a few weeks"
A. Hitler never mentions this as a reason he believed he could
conquer Poland.
B. The author (not Hitler) brings up Napoleon.
C. The actions of Genghis Kahn gave Hitler confidence that
history would view him in a positive light--not that he could
conquer Poland.
D. This matches the relevant section from the passage.
E. The passage never indicates that Hitler believed he could
conquer Poland because of its small size.
22. According to the passage, which of the following represents
the chronological unfolding of events?
a) Generals summoned to Obersalzberg; Invaded Poland;
Invaded Denmark; the Battle of Britain; Battle at
Stalingrad
b) Generals summoned to Obersalzberg; Invaded Denmark;
Invaded Poland; the Battle of Britain; Battle at Stalingrad
c) Generals summoned to Obersalzberg; Invaded Denmark;
Invaded Poland; Battle at Stalingrad; the Battle of Britain
d) Generals summoned to Obersalzberg; Invaded Poland;
Invaded Denmark; Battle at Stalingrad; the Battle of
Britain
 e) Generals summoned to Obersalzberg; the Battle of Britain;
Invaded Poland; Invaded Denmark; Battle at Stalingrad
Answer – (A)
Solution:
By piecing together the dates of events given in the article and by
inferring from the logical flow of the article, we can reassemble
the time line of events as they unfolded in history.
Dates Mentioned in the Passage
August 22, 1939 - Generals summoned to Obersalzberg
1940 - the Battle of Britain
1943 - Stalingrad
Logical inferences from the passage:
"Although Hitler brimmed with confidence and experienced initial
yet widely-expected success in Poland and then in Denmark, he
overlooked important considerations. In many ways, Hitler made
the same mistake Napoleon Bonaparte made years earlier. Hitler
believed he could advance further and conquer Britain"
This places the Battle of Britain after the invasions of Poland and
Denmark. The phrase "and then in Denmark" places the invasion
of Denmark after the invasion of Poland.
Combine Dates and Logical Inferences:
August 22, 1939 - Generals summoned to Obersalzberg
Unknown Date - Invasion of Poland
Unknown Date - Invasion of Denmark
1940 - the Battle of Britain
1943 - Stalingrad
A. This correctly orders the sequential chronology of events.
B. the phrase "widely-expected success in Poland and then in
Denmark" indicated Hitler invaded Poland before Denmark
C. the phrase "widely-expected success in Poland and then in
Denmark" indicated Hitler invaded Poland before Denmark
D. the Battle at Stalingrad (1943) occurred after the Battle of
Britain (1940)
E. the Battle of Britain occurred after Hitler invaded Poland

Passage 4

The word euthanasia is of Greek origin and literally means “a good death.”
The American Heritage Dictionary defines it as “the act of killing a person
painlessly for reasons of mercy.” Such killing can be done through active
means, such as administering a lethal injection, or by passive means, such
as withholding medical care or food and water. In recent years in the United
States, there have been numerous cases of active euthanasia in the news.
They usually involve the deliberate killing of ill or incapacitated persons by
relatives or friends who plead that they can no longer bear to see their loved
ones suffer. Although such killings are a crime, the perpetrators are often
dealt with leniently by our legal system, and the media usually portrays
them as compassionate heroes who take personal risks to save another from
unbearable suffering. The seeming acceptance of active forms of euthanasia
is alarming, but we face a bigger, more insidious threat from passive forms
of euthanasia. Every year, in hospitals and nursing homes around the
country, there are growing numbers of documented deaths caused by
caregivers withholding lifesustaining care, including food and water, from
vulnerable patients who cannot speak for themselves. While it is illegal to
kill someone directly, for example with a gun or knife, in many cases the law
has put its stamp of approval on causing death by omitting needed care.
Further, many states have “living will” laws designed to protect those who
withhold treatment, and there have been numerous court rulings which
have approved of patients being denied care and even starved and
dehydrated to death. Because such deaths occur quietly within the confines
of hospitals and nursing homes, they can be kept hidden from the public.
Most euthanasia victims are old or very ill, so their deaths might be
attributed to a cause other than the denial of care that really killed them.
Further, it is often relatives of the patient who request that care be withheld.
In one court case, the court held that decisions to withhold lifesustaining
care may be made not only by close family members but also by a number of
third parties, and that such decisions need not be reviewed by the judicial
system if there is no disagreement between decision makers and medical
staff. The court went so far as to rule that a nursing home may not refuse to
participate in the fatal withdrawal of food and water from an incompetent
patient! “Extraordinary” or “heroic” treatment need not be used when the
chance for recovery is poor and medical intervention would serve only to
prolong the dying process. But to deny customary and reasonable care or to
deliberately starve or dehydrate someone because he or she is very old or
very ill should not be permitted. Most of the cases coming before the courts
do not involve withholding heroic measures from imminently dying people,
but rather they seek approval for denying basic care, such as administration
of food and water, to people who are not elderly or terminally ill, but who are
permanently incapacitated. These people could be expected to live
indefinitely, though in an impaired state, if they were given food and water
and minimal treatment. No one has the right to judge that another’s life is
not worth living. The basic right to life should not be abridged because
someone decides that someone else’s quality of life is too low. If we base the
right to life on quality of life standards, there is no logical place to draw the
line. To protect vulnerable patients, we must foster more positive attitudes
towards people with serious and incapacitating illnesses and conditions.
Despite the ravages of their diseases, they are still our fellow human beings
and deserve our care and respect. We must also enact positive legislation
that will protect vulnerable people from those who consider their lives
meaningless or too costly to maintain and who would cause their deaths by
withholding life-sustaining care such as food and Water.

Questions

23. The tone of the author can best be described as

a) pleading
b) argumentative
c) compassionate
d) emphatic
e) empathetic
Answer:(C)
Solutions:
(A) A pleading tone is one where the author begs the reader to adopt
his or her position. Since the author of the passage above does not
beg the reader to do anything, (A) is incorrect.
(B) An argumentative tone is one where the author writes in
opposition to a different viewpoint. Here, the author simply presents
his or her side to the issue and does not discussing opposing points,
so (B) is not the best choice.
(C) A passage with a compassionate tone is written with the
awareness of the suffering of others along with a desire to stop that
suffering. Here, the author is writing out of the desire to protect the
lives of those who cannot speak for themselves. Since the author is
acting on behalf of others who suffer, the tone is compassionate. This
means (C) is the best choice.
(D) If the tone were emphatic, the author would make his or her
points forcefully and with great emphasis. Here, the author clearly
takes a side on an issue, but is not particularly forceful, so (D) is not
the best choice either.
(E) If the tone were empathetic, the author would write with sensitivity
to someone else’s feelings. Since the author is simply presenting his or
her opinion on the issue, the tone is not empathetic and (E) is
incorrect.
24. In paragraph 3, the author finds starvation and dehydration
induced euthanasia is to be “more insidious" because
a) euthanasia is legally considered to be a criminal act
b) the public’s attitude toward euthanasia is becoming
more positive
c) it often involves those who cannot protest
d) the patient has asked to die with dignity
 e) its perpetrators are viewed as kindly caregivers
Answer : (C)
Solutions:
(A) While the author does note in paragraph 4 that active euthanasia
is illegal, the author only uses the word ‘insidious’ to refer to
euthanasia by withholding care. This means (A) is incorrect.
(B) Again, the author does write about the public’s attitude towards
euthanasia in the first paragraph, but states that the trend toward
withholding care is insidious in paragraph 3. This rules out (B).
(C) In paragraph 3, the author writes, “we face a bigger, more
insidious threat from passive forms of euthanasia. Every year, in
hospitals and nursing homes around the country, there are growing
numbers of documented deaths caused by caregivers withholding
lifesustaining care, including food and water, from vulnerable patients
who cannot speak for themselves.” We can infer from this information
that euthanasia caused by withholding care is especially insidious
because it is often done to people who cannot protest. This means (C)
is correct.
(D) The author finds withholding food and water insidious because it
is often done to patients who cannot speak for themselves, so (D) is
incorrect.
(E) The author does object to the perpetrators of euthanasia being
viewed as compassionate, but does not call this insidious. This rules
out (E).
25. As used in paragraph 3, what is the best synonym for insidious?
a) mischievous
b) treacherous
c) seductive
d) apparent
e) cumulative
Answer: (B)
Solutions:
insidious (adjective): treacherous; spreading in a harmful and stealthy
way.
(A) Something mischievous might cause damage, but it does so in a
playful way. This is different from spreading harm in a stealthy way,
so mischievous is not a synonym for insidious. (A) is incorrect.
(B) In paragraph 3, the author writes, “we face a bigger, more
insidious threat from passive forms of euthanasia. Every year, in
hospitals and nursing homes around the country, there are growing
numbers of documented deaths caused by caregivers withholding
lifesustaining care, including food and water, from vulnerable patients
who cannot speak for themselves.” Since the numbers of these cases
is getting larger, we can infer that the practice is spreading. Since the
 author considers euthanasia through withholding care a ‘threat,’ we
can infer that the author thinks that it is bad. Since the victims
cannot speak for themselves, this practice can spread quietly, without
notice. This means that the word insidious means something bad that
spreads quietly. Something that is treacherous is dangerous because
it has unforeseen hazards. Something with unforeseen dangers is
similar to something dangerous that spreads stealthily, so treacherous
is a good synonym for insidious. (B) is the best answer.
(C) Something seductive is alluring. This is different than spreading
harm, so (C) is not the best answer.
(D) Something apparent is visible. This is different from being stealthy,
so (D) is incorrect.
(E) Something cumulative is the accumulation of many things.
Although something cumulative grows, it doesn’t necessarily grow
stealthily. This rules out (E).
26. The author maintains that death by withholding care is
a) largely confined to hospitals
b) largely confined to the terminally ill
c) often requested by family members
d) approved by living wills
e) difficult to prove if prosecuted
Answer: (C)
Solutions:
(C) In paragraph 4, the author explains that withholding care has
been sanctioned by law in many places. Then, in paragraph 5, the
author writes, “it is often relatives of the patient who request that care
be withheld.” The reader can infer from this information that it is often
family members who request that care be withheld, so (C) is the
correct answer.
(A) In paragraph 4, we learn that withholding care is largely confined
to nursing homes as well as hospitals, so (A) is incorrect.
(B) In paragraph 6, the author writes, “Most of the cases coming
before the courts do not involve withholding heroic measures from
imminently dying people, but rather they seek approval for denying
basic care, such as administration of food and water, to people who
are not elderly or terminally ill, but who are permanently
incapacitated. These people could be expected to live indefinitely,
though in an impaired state, if they were given food and water and
minimal treatment.” Since withholding care happens with those who
could live indefinitely, (B) is also incorrect.
(D) The only mention of living wills occurs in paragraph 4, where the
author writes, “many states have "living will" laws designed to protect
those who withhold treatment.” Since this sentence is talking about
 laws and not about living wills themselves, we can understand that
(D) is incorrect.
(E) The author does not discuss the difficulty of prosecuting
euthanasia cases, so (E) is also incorrect.
27. As used in paragraph 7, which is the best definition of
abridged?
a) trimmed
b) curtailed
c) lengthened
d) extended
e) compressed
Answer: (B)
Solutions:
abridged (adjective): shortened; curtailed; reduced.
(A) Trimming suggests cutting of excess. Since the author is
concerned with the loss of basic rights, not excess rights, (A) is not the
best answer.
(B) In the first 6 paragraphs, the author argues that euthanasia by
withholding care is problematic when it is used on those who cannot
communicate their wishes. This means that when the author writes in
paragraph 7, “The basic right to life should not be abridged because
someone decides that someone else's quality of life" is too low,” the
author is reinforcing his earlier points, saying that the right to life
should not be curtailed, or cut short, for those who cannot protest. (B)
is correct.
(C) Euthanasia does not lengthen life, so (C) is incorrect.
(D) Extended means drawn out. Euthanasia does not draw out life, so
(D) is also incorrect.
(E) Something that is compressed is condensed. The author is not
concerned about life being condensed, so this rules out (E).
28. Using the passage as a guide, it can be inferred that the author
would find euthanasia less objectionable in cases in which
I. The patient’s death is imminent
II. The patient has left instructions in a living will not to provide
care
III. The patient refuses to accept nourishment
a) I only
b) II only
c) I and II only
d) II and III only
e) I, II and III
Answer: (E)
Solutions:
(I) In paragraph 6, the author argues that caregivers should not be
permitted to deny customary care simply because someone is very old or
ill. The author writes, “These people could be expected to live
indefinitely, though in an impaired state, if they were given food and
water and minimal treatment.” We can understand from this information
that the author thinks it is wrong to deny care if the patient could
continue to live indefinitely if given the customary care to someone who
was terminally ill. This supports option (I).
(II) Since the author is primarily concerned with care being withheld
from those who cannot make their wishes known, the author should find
it less objectionable to withhold care from a patient who has specified in
a living will that he or she did not want care. This supports option (II).
(III) Again, the author is worried that care is withheld from those who
cannot object. If a patient were to refuse care, they would be making
their wishes known. This supports option (III). Therefore (E) is correct.

29. The main idea of paragraph 7 is that

a) lawyers will be unable to prosecute or defend caregivers
b) no comprehensive right or wrong definition of euthanasia
will exist
c) using a subjective standard will make the decision to end
an individual’s life arbitrary
d) no boundary will exist between euthanasia and care
omission
e) ‘quality of life’ will no longer be able to be rigidly defined
Answer: (C)
(A) The author is concerned that there will not be a consistent
standard for the decision to withhold care, not a consistent standard
for the law, so (A) is incorrect.
(B) The author is not arguing about what euthanasia means, so (B) is
also incorrect.
(C) In paragraph 7 the author writes, “No one has the right to judge
that another's life is not worth living. The basic right to life should not
be abridged because someone decides that someone else's quality of
life is too low. If we base the right to life on ‘quality of life’ standards,
there is no logical place to draw the line.” This means the author
thinks allowing care to be withheld because the patient has poor
quality of life is a bad idea because people may not agree on what
qualifies as a life worth living. The author thinks this will lead to the
decision being made with no real standard at all, so (C) is the best
answer.
(D) The passage is about euthanasia via withholding care, so we know
that care omission is a form of euthanasia. This rules out (D).
 (E) The author argues that no one should decide that someone else’s
life isn’t worth living, not that the definition of ‘quality of life’ will be
changed. This eliminates (E).
30. In the final paragraph the author writes, "Despite the ravages of
their diseases, they are still our fellow human beings and deserve our
care and respect." The main purpose of this statement is to
a) prove a previous argument
b) illustrate an example
c) gainsay a later statement
d) object to a larger idea
e) justify an earlier statement
Answer: (E)
(A),(B),(C),(D) The passage does not provide information to support
choices (A), (B), (C), and (D). Therefore they are incorrect.
(E) To answer this question correctly, it helps to use context. In the
final paragraph the author writes, "To protect vulnerable patients, we
must foster more positive attitudes towards people with serious and
incapacitating illnesses and conditions. Despite the ravages of their
diseases, they are still our fellow human beings and deserve our care
and respect." In the latter sentence, the author tells us that people
suffering from terrible illnesses are still our fellow human beings and
deserve our care and respect. This is used to justify the earlier
statement that we must foster more positive attitudes towards people
with serious illnesses. This means choice (E) is correct.

Passage 5

Concussions are brain injuries that occur when a person receives a blow to
the head, face, or neck. Although most people who suffer a concussion
experience initial bouts of dizziness, nausea, and drowsiness, these
symptoms often disappear after a few days. The long-term effects of
concussions, however, are less understood and far more severe. Recent
studies suggest that people who suffer multiple concussions are at
significant risk for developing chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE), a
degenerative brain disorder that causes a variety of dangerous mental and
emotional problems to arise weeks, months, or even years after the initial
injury. These psychological problems can include depression, anxiety,
memory loss, inability to concentrate, and aggression. In extreme cases,
people suffering from CTE have even committed suicide or homicide. The
majority of people who develop these issues are athletes who participate in
popular high-impact sports, especially football. Although new sports
regulations and improvements in helmet technology can help protect
players, amateur leagues, the sports media, and fans all bear some of the
responsibility for reducing the incidence of these devastating injuries.
Improvements in diagnostic technology have provided substantial evidence
to link severe—and often fatal—psychological disorders to the head injuries
that players receive while on the field. Recent autopsies performed on the
brains of football players who have committed suicide have shown advanced
cases of CTE in every single victim. In response to the growing
understanding of this danger, the National Football League (NFL) has
revised its safety regulations. Players who have suffered a head injury on the
field must undergo a “concussion sideline assessment”—a series of mental
and physical fitness tests—before being allowed back in the game. In an
effort to diminish the amount of head and neck injuries on the field, NFL
officials began enforcing stricter penalty calls for helmet-to-helmet contact,
leading with the head, and hitting a defenseless player. Furthermore, as of
2010, if a player’s helmet is accidentally wrenched from his head during
play, the ball is immediately whistled dead. It is hoped that these new
regulations, coupled with advances in helmet design, will reduce the
number of concussions, and thus curb further cases of CTE. Efforts by the
NFL and other professional sports leagues are certainly laudable; we should
commend every attempt to protect the mental and physical health of
players. However, new regulations at the professional level cannot protect
amateur players, especially young people. Fatal cases of CTE have been
reported in victims as young as 21. Proper tackling form—using the arms
and shoulders to aim for a player’s midsection—should be taught at an early
age. Youth, high school, and college leagues should also adopt safety rules
even more stringent than those of the NFL. Furthermore, young athletes
should be educated about the serious dangers of head injuries at an early
age. Perhaps the most important factor in reducing the number of traumatic
brain injuries, however, lies not with the players, the coaches, or the
administrators, but with the media and fans. Sports media producers have
become accustomed to showcasing the most aggressive tackles and the most
intense plays. NFL broadcasts often replay especially violent collisions while
the commentators marvel at the players’ physical prowess. Some sports
highlights television programs even feature weekly countdowns of the
“hardest hits.” When the media exalts such dangerous behavior,
professionals are rewarded for injuring each other on the field and amateurs
become more likely to try to imitate their favorite NFL athletes. Announcers,
commentators, television producers, and sportswriters should engage in a
collective effort to cease glorifying brutal plays. In turn, fans should stop
expecting their favorite players to put their lives on the line for the purposes
of entertainment. Players must not be encouraged to trade their careers,
their health, their happiness, and even their lives for the sake of a game.

Questions
 31. Based on information in the passage, it can be inferred that all
of the following statements are true except

A. tackling is not always dangerous; however, players who use improper

tackling form may injure others

B. scientists have established a definitive link between players who die

untimely deaths and the onset of CTE

C. NFL officials have done little to address the problem of CTE

D. athletes who are praised for exceptionally brutal hits are likely to
continue engaging in such dangerous behavior

E. the NFL has done more to mitigate future cases of CTE than youth, high
school, or college leagues have done

Answer: (C)

Solutions:

(C) In paragraph 2, the author lists ways in which the NFL has tried to
combat the problem of CTE, such as “concussion sideline assessments,”
“stricter penalty calls,” and a rule that the ball must be “whistled dead” as
soon as a player accidentally loses his helmet during play. This means it is
false that the NFL has done “little to address the problem.” Therefore (C) is
correct.

(A) In paragraph 3, the author writes, “Proper tackling form—using the

arms and shoulders to aim for a player’s midsection—should be taught at
an early age.” From this we can infer that there is a proper way to tackle
others, which minimizes risk of injury and is not necessarily dangerous.
However, players who use improper tackling form may injure others, leading
to more cases of CTE. This means (A) is incorrect.

(B) In paragraph 2, the author writes, “Recent autopsies performed on the

brains of football players who have committed suicide have shown advanced
cases of CTE in every single victim.” Based on this evidence, we can infer
that scientists have established a definitive link between players who die
untimely deaths and the onset of CTE. This makes (B) incorrect.

(D) In paragraph 4, the author writes, “NFL broadcasts often replay

especially violent collisions while the commentators marvel at the players’
physical prowess. Some sports highlights television programs even feature
weekly countdowns of the ‘hardest hits.’ When the media exalts such
dangerous behavior, professionals are rewarded for injuring each other on
the field.” From this we can infer that athletes who are praised for
exceptionally brutal hits are likely to continue such behavior. This means
(D) is incorrect.

(E) In paragraph 2, the author lists many things the NFL has done to try to
combat the problem of CTE. Then, in paragraph 3, the author writes, “New
regulations at the professional level cannot protect amateur players,
especially young people…Youth, high school, and college leagues should
also adopt safety rules even more stringent than those of the NFL.” Based on
this information we can infer that the NFL has done more to mitigate future
cases of CTE than youth, high school, or college leagues have done.
Therefore (E) is incorrect.

32. According to the passage, which of the following factors

contribute(s) to the incidence of CTE in amateur players?

I. inconsistent application of safety regulations for all levels

II. lack of education about the dangers of head injuries

III. amateur players’ desire to emulate professionals

A. l only

B. II only

C. I and II only

D. II and III only

E. I, II, and III

Answers and Explanations

Answer: (E)

Solutions:

(I) In paragraph 3, the author notes that “youth, high school, and college
leagues should also adopt safety rules even more stringent than those of the
NFL.” The author suggests that NFL standards may protect professional
players, but the regulations for amateurs are inconsistent with NFL
standards. Therefore, increased NFL safety standards do not help prevent
the injuries suffered by amateurs. The inconsistent application of safety
regulations for all levels contributes to the incidence of CTE in amateur
players. This supports option (I).

(II) In paragraph 3, the author claims, “Young athletes should be educated

about the serious dangers of head injuries at an early age.” This means
there is a lack of education about the dangers of head injuries that
contributes to the incidence of CTE in amateur players. This supports
option (II).

(III) In the final paragraph, the author argues that “amateurs” are “likely to
try to imitate their favorite NFL athletes” when they watch violent highlight
reels on sports programs. This means that amateur players’ desire to
emulate professionals can contribute to the incidence of CTE in amateurs.
This supports option (III). Therefore (E) is correct.

33. As used in paragraph 3, which is the best synonym for

laudable?

A. praiseworthy

B. ineffectual

C. memorable

D. audacious

E. satisfactory

Answer: (A)

Solutions:

laudable (adjective): worthy of praise; commendable.

(A) In paragraph 3, the author states: “Efforts by the NFL and other
professional sports leagues are certainly laudable; we should commend
every attempt to protect the mental and physical health of players.” This
tells us that we should commend laudable attempts, meaning we should
praise them, so a good synonym is praiseworthy. Therefore (A) is correct.

(B) Ineffectual means ineffective or useless. While the author states that
efforts by the NFL are not enough, he or she does not suggest they are
useless. This means (B) is incorrect.

(C) Memorable means unforgettable. The author is praising the NFL’s

efforts, but he or she does not in any way suggest that these efforts are
unforgettable. This makes (C) incorrect.

(D) Audacious means bold or daring. The author is praising the NFL’s
efforts, but he or she does not in any way suggest that these efforts are
particularly daring, only that they are worthwhile. Therefore (D) is incorrect.

(E) Satisfactory means acceptable or adequate. While the author suggests

that efforts by the NFL are a step in the right direction, he or she explicitly
argues that they are not adequate, and more should be done. This makes (E)
incorrect.

34. The author’s tone in the final paragraph can best be described
as

A. remorseful

B. hopeless

C. perplexed

D. insistent

E. arrogant

Answer : (D)

Solutions:

(D) The author’s main purpose in the final paragraph is to convince readers
that fans and media alike should stop glorifying the violent hits that make
football so dangerous. The author’s tone is insistent as he or she compiles
evidence supporting this position. The final sentence in the paragraph is
definitive, even dramatic: “Players must not be encouraged to trade their
careers, their health, their happiness, and even their lives for the sake of a
game.” Choice (D) is correct.

(A) The author is blaming the media and the fans, not him or herself.
Therefore he or she is not remorseful so (A) is incorrect.

(B) Although the author describes a negative situation, he or she ends with
a call to action for the future, implying that this situation may indeed
improve in the future. This means the author is not hopeless. Therefore (B)
is incorrect.

(C) A perplexed tone suggests that the author is confused about something.
The author is quite clear about his or her position, so (C) is incorrect.

(E) Although the author is assigning blame in this paragraph, he or she

does not do so in an arrogant manner. This means (E) is incorrect.

35. As used in the final paragraph, which is the best antonym for
exalts?

A. mitigates

B. venerates
C. mollifies D. expedites

E. castigates

Answer : (E)

Solutions:

exalt (verb): to praise or glorify something or somebody.

(E) In the final paragraph, the author writes: “Sports media producers have
become accustomed to showcasing the most aggressive tackles and the most
intense plays. NFL broadcasts often replay especially violent collisions while
the commentators marvel at the players’ physical prowess. Some sports
highlights television programs even feature weekly countdowns of the
‘hardest hits.’ When the media exalts such dangerous behavior,
professionals are rewarded for injuring each other on the field.” In the
examples given, the media is portrayed as “showcasing” aggression and
“marvel[ing]” at violence. Furthermore, the author argues that professional
players are rewarded when the media exalts their hazardous behavior. Since
the players are being rewarded, exalts must mean praises or glorifies. If the
players were being criticized or condemned for their violent behavior, then
they would not be rewarded. This means a good antonym is castigates.
Therefore (E) is correct.

(A) Mitigates means makes less severe or painful. The media is glorifying
such behavior, not making it less severe, so (A) is incorrect.

(B) Venerates means glorifies, so it is a synonym for exalts. This makes (B)
incorrect.

(C) Mollifies means soothes or appeases. While this is different from

glorifying violent behavior, it is not opposite, so (C) is incorrect.

(D) Expedites means to hasten or speed up. The media is glorifying violent
behavior, but it does not affect the speed of the behavior. This means (D) is
incorrect.

36. In describing the sports media, the author emphasizes its

A. responsibility

B. entertainment value

C. senselessness

D. danger
E. sensationalism

Answer : (E)

Solutions:

(E) In the final paragraph, the author describes the media as follows:
“Sports media producers have become accustomed to showcasing the most
aggressive tackles and the most intense plays. NFL broadcasts often replay
especially violent collisions while the commentators marvel at the players’
physical prowess. Some sports highlights television programs even feature
weekly countdowns of the ‘hardest hits.’ When the media exalts such
dangerous behavior, professionals are rewarded for injuring each other on
the field and amateurs become more likely to try to imitate their favorite NFL
athletes. Announcers, commentators, television producers, and
sportswriters should engage in a collective effort to cease glorifying brutal
plays.” The author uses verbs such as showcase, marvel, feature, exalt,
reward, and glorify to describe what the media does. He or she uses
language like “aggressive tackles,” “most intense plays,” “violent collisions,”
“hardest hits,” “dangerous behavior,” and “brutal plays” to describe what the
media depicts. By studying the language, we can determine that the author
has chosen to emphasize the sports media’s sensationalism in praising
brutality. Therefore (E) is correct.

(A) Although the author is arguing that the sports media should be more
responsible, he or she actually describes its current behavior as
irresponsible. This means (A) is incorrect.

(B) While some people may claim that glorifying violence increases
entertainment value in the sports media, the author would not likely agree
with this position. Furthermore, the author does not emphasize
entertainment value, which is a positive characteristic. Rather, he or she
focuses on the sensationalism of the sports media, which is a more negative
characteristic. This means (B) is incorrect.

(C) The author does not go so far as to characterize the sports media as
senseless, meaning completely foolish or absurd. Because it is too extreme,
(C) is incorrect.

(D) While the author describes the behavior of the players as “dangerous,”
he or she does not go so far as to describe the media itself as dangerous.
This means (D) is incorrect.

37. In the final paragraph, the author mentions “sports highlights

television programs” as an example of how

I. the media glorifies violence

II. amateurs learn to mimic professional athletes

III. professional athletes gain approval

A. I only

B. II only

C. I and II only

D. II and III only

E. I, II, and III

Answer : (E)

Solutions:

(I) In the final paragraph, the author writes, “NFL broadcasts often replay
especially violent collisions while the commentators marvel at the players’
physical prowess. Some sports highlights television programs even feature
weekly countdowns of the ‘hardest hits.’” Based on this information, we can
understand that the author mentions “sports highlights television programs”
as an example of how the media showcases violence. Later in the paragraph,
the author adds that the media “glorif[ies] brutal plays.” This supports
option (I).

(II) In the final paragraph, the author writes, “Some sports highlights
television programs even feature weekly countdowns of the ‘hardest hits.’
When the media exalts such dangerous behavior,…amateurs become more
likely to try to imitate their favorite NFL athletes.” Based on this
information, we can understand that the author mentions “sports highlights
television programs” as an example of how amateurs learn to mimic
professional athletes. This supports option (II).

(III) In the final paragraph, the author writes, “Some sports highlights
television programs even feature weekly countdowns of the ‘hardest hits.’
When the media exalts such dangerous behavior, professionals are rewarded
for injuring each other on the field.” Based on this information, we can
understand that the author mentions “sports highlights television programs”
as an example of how professional athletes gain approval. This supports
option (III). Therefore (E) is correct.

38. In the last sentence of this passage, the author writes, "Players
must not be encouraged to trade their careers, their health, their
happiness, and even their lives for the sake of a game." Which of the
following literary devices is used in this quotation?
A. Irony, characterized by the use of words to convey a meaning that is the
opposite of its literal meaning. In irony, the deeper, real layer of significance
is revealed by the situation and the context in which they are placed and not
by the words themselves.

B. Climax, characterized by the arrangement of words, phrases, or causes in

an order of ascending power that culminates into the highest or most
intense point. This works to deliver the main action or integral message to
the reader in a powerful way.

C. Authorial intrusion, characterized by a point at which the author speaks

out directly to the reader. This establishes a one to one relationship between
the writer and the reader where the latter is no longer a secondary player or
an indirect audience to the progress of the story but is the main subject of
the author’s attention.

D. Hyperbole, characterized by the use of specific words and phrases that

exaggerate and overemphasize the core of the statement in order to produce
a grander, more noticeable effect. This usually works to convey an action or
sentiment that is generally not realistically possible or plausible but helps to
emphasize an emotion

E. Anastrophe, in which the order of the noun and the adjective in the
sentence is exchanged. In standard parlance and writing the adjective comes
before the noun but when one is employing an anastrophe the noun is
followed by the adjective. This reversed order creates a dramatic impact and
lends weight to the description offered by the adjective.

Answer : (B)

Solutions:

(B) In the last sentence, the author urges players to stop trading “their
careers, their health, their happiness, and even their lives for the sake of a
game.” The ideas progress from least crucial (careers) to most crucial (lives).
Organizing ideas in order of ascending power or importance is called climax.
Therefore (B) is correct.

(A),(C),(D),(E) The passage does not contain information to support

choicchoices (A), (C), (D), and (E). Therefore they are incorrect.

Passage 6

Autism spectrum disorders (ASD) are a range of psychological conditions

characterized by abnormalities in social interaction, behavior, interests, and
communication. The five forms of ASD include classical autism, Asperger
syndrome, Pervasive Developmental Disorder, Rett syndrome, and
Childhood Disintegrative Disorder. Although the number of reported cases of
ASD has experienced a dramatic increase in the past 25 years, the majority
of doctors agree that this increase is due to changes in diagnostic practices
and advances in the understanding of psychiatric health. While there is no
general consensus among medical professionals about the underlying
causes of ASD, theories range from genetic inheritance to environmental
factors. One of the most controversial theories to have emerged in recent
times is the hypothesis that ASD could be caused by the MMR vaccine,
which is an immunization against measles, mumps, and rubella that was
first developed in the 1960’s. The vaccine is a mixture of three live viruses
and is administered via injection to children when they are one year old. By
the late 1990’s, this vaccination had led to the near-eradication of measles
in countries that employed widespread inoculation. However, a combination
of spurious scientific data and alarmist media attention led to an entirely
preventable resurgence in measles cases in the early 21st century. The first
claims of a connection between the MMR vaccine and autism were made in
1998, when an article in The Lancet, a respected British medical journal,
reported on eight cases of autism that could possibly be traced back to the
administration of an MMR vaccine. The parents of the children in this study
contended that the symptoms of autism in their children developed within
days of vaccination. During a press conference, Andrew Wakefield, one of
the authors of the article, called on British doctors to stop giving combined
MMR vaccines, instead advocating for individual inoculations against
measles, mumps, and rubella. Following the publication of this article,
Wakefield published several follow-up papers that further questioned the
safety of the MMR vaccine. An onslaught of media coverage then began.
Parents appeared on television sharing anecdotal evidence linking their
child’s inoculation to the onset of ASD. The popular press quickly seized
upon this story; in 2002, over 1200 articles were written about the link
between MMR vaccines and ASD. Less than 30% of these articles mentioned
that an overwhelming amount of scientific evidence suggested that these
vaccinations were completely safe. Since the initial panic, fears that MMR
vaccines cause ASD have generally subsided. A survey completed in 2004
showed that only 2% of people in the United Kingdom thought that there
was a legitimate link between MMR vaccines and ASD. Fears were most
likely allayed when, in 2004, an investigative reporter discovered that
Andrew Wakefield had received a large sum of money from lawyers seeking
evidence to use in cases against vaccine manufacturers. It was then
discovered that Wakefield had applied for patents on an alternate MMR
vaccine. These severe conflicts of interest damaged the credibility of
Wakefield’s study beyond repair. In 2010, Wakefield was tried by Britain’s
General Medical Council under allegations that he had falsified data and
manipulated test results. The Council found that Wakefield had acted
“dishonestly and irresponsibly,” and consequently The Lancet officially
retracted Wakefield’s 1998 article. The anti-MMR vaccine panic that arose
immediately after Wakefield’s article was published had a significant
negative effect on the health of thousands of children. Once the controversy
began, the number of parents in the United Kingdom who inoculated their
children with the MMR vaccine experienced a sharp decline. Not
surprisingly, the number of reported cases of measles increased; while there
were only 56 confirmed cases of measles in the UK in 1998; in 2008 there
were over 1300. Between 2002 and 2008, there were outbreaks of measles
throughout Europe and North America. These outbreaks cost millions of
dollars in health care and resulted in the deaths of dozens of children and
adults with compromised immune systems. Who is to blame for these
deaths? It is easy to hold Andrew Wakefield accountable, but the media
must also bear some of the responsibility. The media’s appetite for a
sensational medical story overshadowed the fact that there was very little
scientific evidence behind Wakefield’s claim. Although Wakefield is certainly
not the first person to publish fraudulent scientific findings in a respected
medical journal, the magnitude of this event was anomalous, as most
medical hoaxes are discredited before they can reach the popular media.
While The Lancet should not have published Wakefield’s article without
checking it thoroughly, the popular media should not have blown the study
out of proportion without fully considering the consequences.

Questions

39. The primary purpose of the passage is to

A. warn parents about the dangers of not vaccinating their children against
measles

B. criticize The Lancet for publishing Wakefield’s article without vetting it

more thoroughly

C. provide an overview of the MMR vaccine controversy, including its

consequences and responsible parties

D. inform readers about the history of the MMR vaccine, especially in the
U.S. and the UK

E. blame parents who believed alarmist media reports for the measles
outbreaks

Answer: (C)

(C) An author’s purpose is directly related to the content of the passage. In

this passage, the author begins in paragraph 1 with background information
about ASD and the controversy surrounding a possible link between ASD
and the MMR vaccine. In paragraph 2, the author details how the possible
link between ASD and the MMR vaccine was established. In paragraph 3,
the author describes the media’s role in heightening the controversy. In
paragraph 4, the author identifies the reasons why the scientist behind the
research came to be discredited, and why subsequently most people no
longer believed there was a connection between ASD and vaccines. In
paragraph 5, the author describes the negative consequences of parents
choosing not to vaccinate their children against MMR. In paragraph 6, the
author suggests that not only was falsified science to blame, but also the
popular media that ran the story without fully checking the facts. Based on
this content, we can determine that the author aims to provide an overview
of the MMR vaccine controversy, including its consequences and responsible
parties. Therefore (C) is correct.

(A) The author addresses a general audience, not parents specifically. He

or she also uses an informative tone rather than a warning tone. This means
(A) is incorrect.

(B) Although the author does criticize The Lancet for publishing Wakefield’s
article without checking it more thoroughly, this criticism is not the author’s
main point. The author’s tone throughout the passage is more informative
than critical. This means (B) is incorrect.

(D) The author focuses specifically on the controversy surrounding a

possible link between the MMR vaccine and ASD, not on the more general
history of the MMR vaccine. This eliminates (D).

(E) At no point does the author blame parents. This eliminates (E).

40. As used in paragraph 1, which is the best antonym for

spurious?

A. reassuring

B. safe

C. clear

D. necessary

E. legitimate

Answer : (E)

spurious (adjective): false, counterfeit, or bogus; not valid or well-founded.

(E) The author writes in paragraph 1 that “a combination of spurious
scientific data and alarmist media attention led to an entirely preventable
resurgence in measles.” Later in the passage, in paragraph 4, the author
writes that Wakefield, the scientist, testified that “he had falsified data and
manipulated test results.” Based on this information, we can understand
that because the scientific data turned out to be false, spurious means
fraudulent or illegitimate. This means a good antonym for spurious is
legitimate. Therefore (E) is correct.

(A) Reassuring means removing doubts and fears. Although the scientific
data did provide doubts and fears, the larger problem with the data was not
that it caused fear, but that it was false in the first place. This means (A) is
incorrect.

(B) Safe means protected from danger. While the scientific data led to
dangerous consequences (parents not vaccinating their children), the data
itself was false, not dangerous. This makes (B) incorrect.

(C) Clear means easy to understand or interpret. The scientific data was
false, not confusing. Therefore (C) is incorrect.

(D) Necessary means required or essential. The scientific data did turn out
not to be essential, but that is because it was false or unreliable. This makes
(D) incorrect.

41. Which of the following pieces of evidence from paragraphs 2 and

3 support(s) the author’s claim that popular media is partially
responsible for creating unnecessary panic?

I. “An article published in The Lancet, a respected British medical journal,

reported on eight cases of autism that could possibly be traced back to the
administration of an MMR vaccine.”

II. “In 2002, over 1200 articles were written about the link between MMR
vaccines and ASD. Less than 30% of these articles mentioned that an
overwhelming amount of scientific evidence suggested that these
vaccinations were completely safe.”

III. “Parents appeared on television sharing anecdotal evidence regarding the

links between their child’s inoculation and the onset of ASD.”

A. l only

B. II only

C. I and II only

D. II and III only

E. I, II, and III

Answer : (E)
(E) The author writes in paragraph 1: “Although the number of reported
cases of autism has experienced a dramatic increase in the past 25 years,
the majority of doctors agree that this increase is due to changes in
diagnostic practices and advances in the understanding of psychiatric
health.” In other words, there has not been any increase in environmental or
genetic risks that could contribute to more cases of ASD; rather, doctors
have just gotten better at recognizing and diagnosing it, which means more
cases are reported. Therefore (E) is correct.

(A) The passage ultimately discredits the link between ASD and the MMR
vaccine, so the author does not say this could be the explanation for the
increase in reported cases of ASD. This makes (A) incorrect.

(B) Although it is true that parents have been less likely to have their young
children inoculated against MMR since the results of Wakefield’s study were
published, the author does not attribute the increase in reported cases of
ASD to this fact. This means (B) is incorrect.

(C) Although in paragraph 1, the author states there is a theory that

“genetic inheritance” contributes to ASD, he or she claims that doctors agree
the increase is due to a better “understanding of psychiatric health,” not a
better understanding of genetics. Therefore (C) is incorrect.

(D) Although in paragraph 1, the author states there is a theory that

“environmental factors” contribute to ASD, he or she claims that doctors
agree the increase is due to a better “understanding of psychiatric health,”
not to environmental changes. Therefore (D) is incorrect.

42. In paragraph 4, the author cites all of the following as ways that
Wakefield’s study was discredited except

A. investigators discovered that the parents of children in Wakefield’s study

were litigants in a lawsuit against the pharmaceutical company that made
the MMR vaccine

B. The Lancet eventually retracted Wakefield’s original article

C. it was discovered that Wakefield accepted money from lawyers who were
filing a suit against the pharmaceutical companies responsible for making
the MMR vaccine

D. an investigation into Wakefield’s research found that he had falsified data

in his initial study

E. Wakefield himself had apparently been working on an alternate vaccine to

compete with MMR
Answer : (D)

Solutions:

(I) In paragraph 2, the author identifies The Lancet as a scholarly journal,

not a popular media outlet. In the final paragraph, the author writes, “While
The Lancet should not have published Wakefield’s article without checking it
thoroughly, the popular media should not have blown the study out of
proportion without fully considering the consequences.” From this
information we can further determine that the author considers The Lancet
separate from the popular media. This eliminates option (I).

(II) In paragraph 3, the author implies that by publishing articles that

ignore “an overwhelming amount of scientific evidence,” the media is guilty
of using sensationalist news to create unfounded mass panic. This supports
option (II).

(III) In paragraph 3, the author implies that by broadcasting parents who

have only “anecdotal,” or unproven, evidence to share, the media is guilty of
using sensationalist news to create unfounded mass panic. This supports
option (III). Therefore (D) is correct.

43. Based on its use in paragraph 4, it can be inferred that the

phrase “conflicts of interest” means situations in which people

A. unethically accept large sums of money

B. have interests that fail to accord with those of the mainstream media

C. falsify data and manipulate test results

D. have personal interests that threaten their official objectivity

E. stand to gain financially through illegal means

Answer : (A)

Solutions:

(A) Although the author claims that Wakefield accepted money from lawyers
filing a suit against the companies that manufactured the MMR vaccine, the
author does not state that the parents of the children in Wakefield’s study
were the litigants in the lawsuit. This idea is never mentioned in the article.
Therefore (A) is correct.

(B) In paragraph 4, the author writes, “The Lancet officially retracted

Wakefield’s 1998 article.” This eliminates (B).
(C) In paragraph 4, the author writes: “An investigative reporter discovered
that Andrew Wakefield had received a large sum of money from lawyers
seeking evidence to use in cases against vaccine manufacturers.” This
eliminates (C).

(D) In paragraph 4, the author reports that “Wakefield was tried by Britain’s
General Medical Council under allegations that he had falsified data and
manipulated test results.” This eliminates (D).

(E) In paragraph 4, the author writes: “Wakefield had applied for patents on
an alternate MMR vaccine.” This eliminates (E).

44. As used in paragraph 6, which is the best synonym for

anomalous?

A. timely

B. calamitous

C. abnormal

D. unacceptable

E. coincidental

Answers and Explanations

Answer : (D)

Solutions:

(D) In paragraph 4, the author writes: “Fears were most likely allayed when,
in 2004, an investigative reporter discovered that Andrew Wakefield had
received a large sum of money from lawyers seeking evidence to use in cases
against vaccine manufacturers. It was then discovered that Wakefield had
applied for patents on an alternate MMR vaccine. These severe conflicts of
interest damaged the credibility of Wakefield’s study beyond repair.” Based
on this information, we can understand that the phrase “conflicts of
interest” refers to two incidents: the first is that Wakefield received a large
sum of money from lawyers seeking evidence to use against vaccine
manufacturers, and the second is that Wakefield had applied for patents on
an alternate MMR vaccine. From this we can infer that Wakefield had a
financial incentive (money from the lawyers) to find evidence that something
was wrong with the MMR vaccine, and also that he stood to gain financially
from an alternate vaccine he had created if the current vaccine could be
discredited. We also know from the passage that these conflicts of interest
“damaged the results of his study beyond repair,” so they had a negative
impact. Because Wakefield had personal, financial interests that threatened
his ability to be impartial in his official role as a scientist, we can
understand that the phrase “conflicts of interest” refers to having personal
interests that threaten one’s official objectivity. Therefore (D) is correct.

(A) Although the author claims that Wakefield did accept a large sum of
money from lawyers, this incident represents only one of the conflicts of
interest described. This means (A) is incorrect.

(B) The passage does not suggest that Wakefield had interests that failed to
accord with those of the mainstream media, so (B) is incorrect.

(C) Although in paragraph 4 the author does state that Wakefield was tried
under allegations that he falsified data and manipulated test results, the
phrase “conflicts of interest” does not refer to this trial. Rather, his conflicts
of interest led the Britain’s General Medical Council to try him. Therefore (C)
is incorrect.

(E) Although the author claims that Wakefield stood to gain financially
through what some would consider unethical means, he or she does not go
so far as to say what Wakefield did was illegal. Indeed, he was not tried in a
court of law, but by Britain’s General Medical Council. This means (E) is
incorrect.

45. Which of the following pieces of evidence, if true, would best

strengthen the author’s argument in paragraph 6?

A. An estimated 1.4 million measles deaths are averted each year due to
MMR immunization.

B. 90% of parents in the UK who decided not to immunize their children

against measles reported that they did so against their doctors’ wishes.

C. Measles outbreaks in Japan can be traced back to Japanese exchange

students who were studying in the UK.

D. In the United States, over 60% of children who are not immunized
against MMR never exhibit any symptoms of the measles.

E. Andrew Wakefield sued the investigative reporter who accused him of

fraud.

Answer : (C)

Solutions:

anomalous (adjective): deviant from the norm or from expectations.

(A) Timely means done at a favorable or appropriate time. This sentence
discusses the size of this medical hoax, not the timing of it, so (A) is
incorrect.

(B) Calamitous means disastrous. Although the event did have disastrous
consequences, this sentence is discussing the size of the event as compared
to other medical hoaxes, not the consequences of this specific event. This
makes (B) incorrect.

(C) In paragraph 6, the author argues: “Although Wakefield is certainly not

the first person to publish fraudulent scientific findings in a respected
medical journal, the magnitude of this event was anomalous, as most
medical hoaxes are discredited before they can reach the popular media.” If,
as the passage states, the magnitude of this event was larger than usual
because the hoax was not discredited before reaching the popular media,
then we can infer that anomalous means unusual or deviating from the
norm. This means that abnormal is a good synonym. Therefore (C) is
correct.

(D) Unacceptable means not satisfactory. This sentence does not contain
judgment about the medical hoax, but rather objectively compares its
magnitude to that of other hoaxes. This means (D) is incorrect.

(E) Coincidental means accidental or resulting from a coincidence. We can

infer from the passage, however, that the author does not believe that the
magnitude of the hoax was accidental. Rather, he or she blames Wakefield
as well as the popular media. This eliminates (E).

Passage 7:

According to some estimates, if we could compile the amount of food, land,

water, and energy used to raise the 10 billion animals slaughtered each year
for meat, we could use those resources to feed every single starving person
on earth. The majority of these resources are depleted by concentrated
animal feeding operations (CAFOs). CAFOs are factory farms that mass-
produce livestock—harming animals, the environment, and humans in the
process. It is true that these farming methods provide an abundant source
of food and employ thousands of workers across the country. However,
CAFOs should be placed under more stringent restrictions because of their
unfair treatment of animals and the harm they do to both the environment
and humans. One of the key controversies surrounding factory farms is
animal rights. Factory farms raise livestock indoors, as opposed to allowing
the animals to graze in fields and pastures. The farmers favor this
overcrowded environment because it maximizes profits. Providing less space
for the animals costs less money; filling pens to their maximum capacity
ensures that no space is wasted. Consequently, animal pens are often so
small that larger animals cannot lie down or turn around. In some cases,
these small cages are beneficial for more than just maximizing capacity:
calves, for example, do not gain muscle mass in this environment. This
keeps their meat more tender, which makes it more attractive to consumers.
Livestock in CAFOs are often found living in their own urine and feces,
stimulating the spread of diseases—such as avian flu, foot and mouth
disease, and mad cow disease—among other animals on the farm. In order
to combat this, farmers must give the animals antibiotics. In many cases,
however, antibiotics are used for disease prevention instead of treatment. In
addition to being used to combat the spread of disease, antibiotics are also
commonly used to encourage faster growth in livestock. This overuse
increases the risk of livestock developing immunity to antibiotics, ironically
making animals even more susceptible to disease. After being digested,
these antibiotics are released back into the environment in the form of milk,
meat, and waste, which can affect the people who eat these products or the
environment that absorbs them. CAFOs also negatively impact the
environment in the form of air and water pollution. Factory farms contribute
to air pollution issues in the United States through the release of toxic gases
and vapors and by burning fossil fuels to run farm machinery. These farms
also have notable consequences for the environment in terms of water
pollution. One characteristic of CAFOs that creates water pollution is the
presence of a lagoon. Lagoons are artificial storage basins where animal
excrement is temporarily contained; periodically, farmers flush this waste
into ditches or nearby bodies of water. This waste combines with runoff from
fertilized fields to pollute the water sources surrounding CAFOs. It adds
excess nutrients, pathogens, veterinary pharmaceuticals, heavy metals, and
excreted hormones to the water sources. Such pollutants not only affect
aquatic life, but can lead to severe impacts on human health. Another
negative environmental impact of factory farms is resource depletion.
Factory farming uses more land than any other agricultural or industrial
enterprise in the country. CAFOs consume a great deal of resources in terms
of grain, energy, and land. There are far more efficient ways of using these
resources to feed people. For example, it has been estimated that the grain
used to feed livestock in the United States alone could feed up to 800 million
people in one year. By contrast, the production of livestock in CAFOs is a
wasteful use of energy. While both chicken meat and soybeans are good
sources of protein, producing equivalent amounts of protein from chicken
meat and soybeans does not require equivalent amounts of energy: chicken
meat production consumes 14 times more energy than soybean production.
Grain and energy supplies should be used more efficiently to produce food
sources other than livestock. In order to combat the unfair treatment of
animals and the risks to environmental and human health, CAFOs should
be placed under stricter guidelines. One such regulation would force factory
farms to adhere to air and water quality protection standards from which
they have previously been exempted, © Copyright Read Theory LLC, 2012.
All rights reserved. 2 like those set forth by the Clean Water Act. Enforcing
these standards would lead to banning environmental hazards such as
waste lagoons, which in turn would reduce environmental pollution and
human health liabilities. Some have suggested that due to these
environmental and human health concerns, factory farms should be banned
outright. Advocates for CAFOs, however, argue that factory farming allows
for lower production costs that translate into lower food prices for
consumers. Organic and free-range products, they argue, do not allow for
the large-scale production of livestock; prices for meat, eggs, and dairy
would increase should the country shift towards organic products. Although
this would be an inconvenience to consumers, a price increase would
encourage people to eat a diet of less meat. This cultural change would
assist in solving the broader resource crisis as fewer grain, energy, and land
resources would be needed to support smaller-scale production. Better
treatment of animals and more responsible environmental practices would
protect humans more from infectious diseases and the effects of air and
water pollution—a benefit everyone should embrace.

46) The primary purpose of the passage is to

A. persuade readers that factory farms should be more strictly regulated to

minimize the harm they cause

B. suggest economic alternatives to factory farms, such as organic farming

and soybean production C. complain about the water pollution caused by
the irresponsible practice of keeping waste lagoons on CAFOs

D. educate readers about the pros and cons of CAFOs

E. argue against the use of antibiotics for disease prevention in animals

Answer : (A)

Solutions:

(A) In the final sentence of paragraph 1, the author states his or her main
argument: “CAFOs should be placed under more stringent restrictions
because of their unfair treatment of animals and the harm they do to both
the environment and humans.” Throughout the passage the author provides
evidence about the CAFOs’ unfair treatment of animals, their pollution of
the environment, and the dangers they pose to human health. In paragraph
6, the author restates his or her point in light of the evidence presented: “In
order to combat the unfair treatment of animals and the risks to
environmental and human health, CAFOs should be placed under stricter
guidelines.” Throughout the passage the author’s tone is persuasive. From
this we can determine that the primary purpose of the passage is to
persuade readers that factory farms should be more strictly regulated to
minimize the harm they cause to animals, to the environment, and to
human beings. Therefore (A) is correct.

(B) Although in paragraph 5, the author does mention economic

alternatives to factory farms, this is only a minor point in the passage and
thus does not represent the primary purpose. This makes (B) incorrect.

(C) The author discusses the problems with waste lagoons in paragraphs 4
and 6, but he or she uses this evidence to support the larger argument that
CAFOs harm the environment as well as humans and animals. Because it is
too narrow in scope, (C) is incorrect.

(D) Educating readers about the pros and cons of CAFOs suggests a
neutral, informative tone. However, the author’s tone is persuasive and he
or she takes a clear position on the issue. Therefore (D) is incorrect.

(E) In paragraph 3, the author describes the problems with the use of
antibiotics on factory farms, but he or she does not explicitly argue against
their use in disease prevention. Furthermore, this is a minor point in the
passage used to support the larger argument that CAFOs cause harm. This
makes (E) incorrect.

47) Based on information in the passage, it can be inferred that animals

raised on CAFOs live indoors because

I. Animals that live indoors require fewer antibiotics than animals raised
outside

II. Some animals raised inside produce more appealing meat

III. Animals raised indoors are less expensive to maintain

a. I only
b. II only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II, and III

Answer : (D)

(I) In paragraph 3, the author writes, “Livestock in CAFOs are often found
living in their own urine and feces, stimulating the spread of diseases—such
as avian flu, foot and mouth disease, and mad cow disease—among other
animals on the farm. In order to combat this, farmers must give the animals
antibiotics.” From this we can infer that living indoors increases the amount
of antibiotics required by animals, so they likely require more, not fewer,
than animals that are raised outside. This eliminates option (I).

(II) In paragraph 2, the author writes of animals raised indoors: “Calves,

for example, do not gain muscle mass in this environment. This keeps their
meat more tender, which makes it more attractive to consumers.” This
means that some animals raised inside produce more appealing meat. This
supports option (II).

(III) In paragraph 2, the author writes, "The farmers favor this overcrowded
environment because it maximizes profits. Providing less space for the
animals costs less money; filling pens to their maximum capacity ensures
that no space is wasted." This means animals raised indoors are less
expensive to maintain. This supports option (III). Therefore (D) is correct.

48) The author describes CAFOs as having a negative impact on the

environment for all of the following reasons except

A. animal waste pollutes water sources near factory farms

B. exhaust from farm machinery contributes to air pollution

C. animals that live in overcrowded environments waste energy

D. fertilizer-rich runoff from farms contaminates the environment

E. antibiotics enter the human food supply through meat and milk

Answer : (C)

(C) In paragraph 5, the author writes, “CAFOs consume a great deal of

resources in terms of grain, energy, and land. There are far more efficient
ways of using these resources to feed people.” From this we can infer that
the author believes that factory farms in general waste energy. However, the
author does not specifically pinpoint overcrowded environments as the
cause of this waste. In fact, if the animals bred by factory farms lived
outside instead of inside in crowded pens, the farms would likely consume
even more land and energy resources. The author does not claim that
CAFOs have a negative impact on the environment because animals that live
in overcrowded environments waste energy. Therefore (C) is correct.

(A) In paragraph 4, the author writes, “Lagoons are artificial storage basins
where animal excrement is temporarily contained; periodically, farmers
flush this waste into ditches or nearby bodies of water. This waste combines
with runoff from fertilized fields to pollute the water sources surrounding
CAFOs.” This means (A) is incorrect.
(B) In paragraph 4, the author writes, “Factory farms contribute to air
pollution issues in the United States through the release of toxic gases and
vapors and by burning fossil fuels to run farm machinery.” This means (B) is
incorrect.

(D) In paragraph 4, the author writes, “This waste combines with runoff
from fertilized fields to pollute the water sources surrounding CAFOs.” This
means (D) is incorrect.

(E) In paragraph 3, the author writes, “After being digested, these

antibiotics are released back into the environment in the form of milk, meat,
and waste, which can affect the people who eat these products or the
environment that absorbs them.” This makes (E) incorrect.

49) Which of the following statements from paragraph 5 represents an

opinion, as opposed to a fact?

A. “Factory farming uses more land than any other agricultural or industrial
enterprise in the country.”

B. “It has been estimated that the grain used to feed livestock in the United
States alone could feed up to 800 million people in one year.”

C. “Producing equivalent amounts of protein from chicken meat and

soybeans does not require equivalent amounts of energy.”

D. “Chicken meat production consumes 14 times more energy than soybean

production.”

E. “Grain and energy supplies should be used more efficiently to produce

food sources other than livestock.”

Answer : (E)

Solutions:

(A),(B),(C),(D) Choices (A), (B), (C), and (D) all contain facts based on
experience or observation. These statements can be proven. Therefore they
are incorrect.

(E) A fact is something known to exist or be true as a result of experience or

observation. Facts can be proven. An opinion is a belief or judgment that
rests on grounds insufficient to produce complete certainty, such as an
emotion or personal bias. Opinions cannot be proven true or false. For
example, it is a fact that roses are flowers, but an opinion that roses smell
nice. The author states that grain and energy supplies should be used more
efficiently to produce food sources other than livestock. Because he or she is
claiming something should be done, it is an opinion. The owners of CAFOs,
for example, would likely disagree with this statement. Therefore (E) is
correct.

50) Which of the following pieces of information, if true, would best

strengthen the author’s argument in paragraph 6?

A. People who reduce their intake of meat raised on factory farms reduce
their chances of developing high blood pressure and heart conditions.

B. A town in North Carolina that used to be situated next to a hog waste

lagoon reported 50% fewer cases of respiratory illness after the lagoon was
shut down.

C. Factory farms that are forced to adhere to air and water quality protection
standards often report a 30% decrease in annual profits.

D. Several animal rights groups have supported bills to force factory farms
to abide by greater environmental protection standards.

E. The Clean Water Act was enacted in 1948 and expanded in 1972.

Answer : (B)

(B) In paragraph 6, the author argues that CAFOs should be placed under
stricter environmental guidelines. To illustrate the benefits of these stricter
regulations, he or she states that “enforcing these standards would lead to
banning environmental hazards such as waste lagoons, which in turn would
reduce environmental pollution and human health liabilities.” If a town in
North Carolina reported fewer cases of illness after a nearby hog waste
lagoon shut down, then this evidence would directly support the this claim,
thus strengthening the author’s argument. Therefore (B) is correct.

(A) The argument in paragraph 6 is about environmental guidelines, not

personal diet choices, so (A) is incorrect.

(C) A decrease in profits for those farms forced to comply with strict
environmental guidelines would weaken, not strengthen, the author’s
argument. This makes (C) incorrect.

(D) Noting that animal rights groups support bills to enforce stricter
environmental guidelines for factory farms only provides evidence that there
is support among the public for such guidelines, but it does not suggest that
these guidelines would be effective. Since this fact does not specifically
support the author’s claim that enforcing these environmental standards
would reduce pollution and human health liabilities, (D) is not the best
choice.
(E) While the author mentions the Clean Water Act in paragraph 6,
providing information about when the Clean Water Act was enacted merely
adds background information. It does not strengthen the author’s claim that
enforcing these environmental standards would reduce pollution and
human health liabilities, so (E) is incorrect.