DATE : 13/09/2020 Test Booklet Code

H3
NAKHA

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Ph.: 011-47623456

Time : 3 hrs.
Answers & Solutions Max. Marks : 720

for
NEET (UG) - 2020
Important Instructions :
1. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 180 questions. Each question carries
4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one
mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.

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5. The CODE for this Booklet is H3.

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11. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.

12. The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet / Answer Sheet in
the Attendance Sheet.

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 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-H3)

1. The color code of a resistance is given below 4. Two cylinders A and B of equal capacity are
connected to each other via a stop cock. A
contains an ideal gas at standard temperature
and pressure. B is completely evacuated. The
entire system is thermally insulated. The stop
cock is suddenly opened. The process is :
The values of resistance and tolerance, (1) isobaric
respectively, are
(2) isothermal
(1) 470 , 5% (2) 470 k, 5%
(3) adiabatic
(3) 47 k, 10% (4) 4.7 k, 5%
(4) isochoric
Answer (1)
Answer (3)
S o l . According to colour coding
S o l .Entire system is thermally insulated. So, no
Yellow Violet Brown Gold heat exchange will take place. Hence, process
4 7 1 5% will be adiabatic.
So, R = 47 × 101 ± 5% 5. Two particles of mass 5 kg and 10 kg
R = 470 ± 5%  respectively are attached to the two ends of a
rigid rod of length 1 m with negligible mass.
2. Find the torque about the origin when a force
The centre of mass of the system from the 5 kg
of 3j N acts on a particle whose position
particle is nearly at a distance of :
vector is 2k m .
(1) 80 cm (2) 33 cm
(1) 6k Nm (3) 50 cm (4) 67 cm
Answer (4)
(2) 6i Nm
y

(3) 6j Nm 5 kg 10 kg
Sol. x (cm)
(4) 6 i Nm (0, 0)
(x cm, 0)
(100, 0)
Answer (4) m1x1  m2 x 2
   xcm 
m1  m2
Sol .   r F
 5  0  100  10 200
  2kˆ  3 ˆj    66.66 cm
 5  10 3
  6 ˆi Nm x cm  67 cm
3. A cylinder contains hydrogen gas at pressure
6. A ray is incident at an angle of incidence i on
of 249 kPa and temperature 27°C.
one surface of a small angle prism (with angle
Its density is : (R = 8.3 J mol–1 K–1) of prism A) and emerges normally from the
(1) 0.02 kg/m3 (2) 0.5 kg/m3 opposite surface. If the refractive index of the
material of the prism is , then the angle of
(3) 0.2 kg/m3 (4) 0.1 kg/m3
incidence is nearly equal to :
Answer (3)
A
PM (1)
S o l . PM = RT   2
RT
A
P = 249 × 103 N/m2 (2)
2
M = 2 × 10–3 kg
2A
T = 300 K (3)

(249  103 )(2  10 –3 ) 0.2 kg (4) A
  
8.3  300 m3 Answer (4)

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NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-H3)

S o l . Light ray emerges normally from another 9. For transistor action, which of the following
surface, hence e(angle of emergence) = 0 statements is correct?
r2 = 0 (1) The base region must be very thin and
r1 + r2 = A lightly doped.

 r1 = A (2) Base, emitter and collector regions should

have same doping concentrations.
Applying Snell's law on first surface
(3) Base, emitter and collector regions should
1.sini = sinr1
have same size.
 sini = sinA
(4) Both emitter junction as well as the
For small angles (sin  ) collector junction are forward biased.
hence i = A Answer (1)
7. A body weighs 72 N on the surface of the Sol. E B C
earth. What is the gravitational force on it, at a
height equal to half the radius of the earth?
(1) 24 N
(2) 48 N For Bi-polar junction transistor
(3) 32 N Length Profile is LC > LE > LB
(4) 30 N and doping profile is E > C > B
Answer (3)
For transistor action Base-emitter junction is
mg0 forward biased and Base-collector junction is
S o l . mgh  2 reversed biased.
 h
 1  10. Light with an average flux of 20 W/cm2 falls on
R
a non-reflecting surface at normal incidence
72 having surface area 20 cm 2 . The energy
W= 2
 R/2 received by the surface during time span of
 1  1 minute is :
 R 
(1) 48 × 103 J
72 4
W=   72  32 N
 3 / 2 2 9 (2) 10 × 103 J
(3) 12 × 103 J
8. An iron rod of susceptibility 599 is subjected
to a magnetising field of 1200 A m –1 . The (4) 24 × 103 J
permeability of the material of the rod is : Answer (4)
(0 = 4× 10–7 Tm A–1) S o l . Energy received = Intensity × Area × Time
(1) 2.4 × 10–7 Tm A–1 = 20 × 20 × 60
(2) 2.4 × 10–4 T m A–1 = 24 × 103 J
(3) 8.0 × 10–5 T m A–1 11. A short electric dipole has a dipole moment of
(4) 2.4× 10–5 T m A–1 16 × 10–9 C m. The electric potential due to the
Answer (2) dipole at a point at a distance of 0.6 m from
the centre of the dipole, situated on a line
S o l . m = 599 making an angle of 60° with the dipole axis is :
r = 1 + m = 600
 1 
  9  109 N m2 /C2 
  r  0  4  0 
 = 600 × 4 × 10–7 (1) zero (2) 50 V
 = 2400 × 10–7 (3) 200 V (4) 400 V
 = 2.4 × 10–4 Tm A–1 Answer (3)

3
 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-H3)

kp cos  l
Sol. V  2
Now Resistance, R 
r A
9  109  16  109  cos60 R1 l1
V 
0.36 R2 l2
V = 200 V 15 1.5
 
12. A ball is thrown vertically downward with a 1 l2
velocity of 20 m/s from the top of a tower. It hits l2 = 0.1 m
the ground after some time with a velocity of
80 m/s. The height of the tower is : (g = 10 m/s2) = 1.0 × 10–1 m

(1) 300 m (2) 360 m 235

14. When a uranium isotope 92 U is bombarded
(3) 340 m (4) 320 m 89
with a neutron, it generates 36 Kr , three
Answer (1)
neutrons and :
20 m/s 103
Sol. (1) 36 Kr

144
(2) 56 Ba
g
91
(3) 40 Zr

101
80 m/s (4) 36 Kr

Answer (2)
v2 = u2 + 2gh
v = 80 m/s S o l . U235 1 89 1 A
92  0 n  Kr36  3n0  X Z

u = 20 m/s 92 + 0 = 36 + Z
v 2  u2 6400  400  Z = 56
h=   300 m
2g 20 235 + 1 = 89 + 3 + A
13. A resistance wire connected in the left gap of  A = 144
a metre bridge balances a 10  resistance in
144
the right gap at a point which divides the So, 56 Ba is generated.
bridge wire in the ratio 3 : 2. If the length of the
15. A long solenoid of 50 cm length having 100
resistance wire is 1.5 m, then the length of 1 
turns carries a current of 2.5 A. The magnetic
of the resistance wire is :
field at the centre of the solenoid is :
(1) 1.5 × 10–2 m
(0 = 4 × 10–7 T m A–1)
(2) 1.0 × 10–2 m
(1) 3.14 × 10–5 T
(3) 1.0 × 10–1 m
(2) 6.28 × 10–4 T
(4) 1.5 × 10–1 m
(3) 3.14 × 10–4 T
Answer (3)
(4) 6.28 × 10–5 T
P C Q = 10
Answer (2)
G S o l . Magnetic field at centre of solenoid = 0nI
l1 l2
Sol. A B
D N 100
n=   200 turns / m
L 50  10 –2
( )
I = 2.5 A
P l1 3
Initially,   On putting the values
10 l2 2
B  4   10–7  200  2.5
30
 P  15 
2 = 6.28 × 10–4 T

4
NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-H3)

16. The average thermal energy for a mono-atomic 19. Assume that light of wavelength 600 nm is
gas is : (k B is Boltzmann constant and T, coming from a star. The limit of resolution of
absolute temperature) telescope whose objective has a diameter of
2 m is :
7 1
(1) kB T (2) kB T (1) 6.00 × 10–7 rad
2 2
3 5 (2) 3.66 × 10–7 rad
(3) kB T (4) kB T
2 2 (3) 1.83 × 10–7 rad
Answer (3) (4) 7.32 × 10–7 rad
S o l . For monoatomic gases, degree of freedom is 3. Answer (2)
Hence average thermal energy per molecule is 
S o l . R  1.22 ;  = 600 × 10–9 m d = 2 m
3 d
KEavg  kB T
2 1.22  600  10–9
=
17. A capillary tube of radius r is immersed in 2
water and water rises in it to a height h. The  = 3.66 × 10–7 rad
mass of the water in the capillary is 5 g.
20. A wire of length L, area of cross section A is
Another capillary tube of radius 2r is immersed
hanging from a fixed support. The length of the
in water. The mass of water that will rise in this
wire changes to L1 when mass M is suspended
tube is :
from its free end. The expression for Young’s
(1) 20.0 g modulus is :
(2) 2.5 g MgL MgL1
(1) A(L  L) (2)
(3) 5.0 g 1 AL
(4) 10.0 g Mg(L1  L) MgL
(3) (4) AL
Answer (4) AL 1

S o l . Force of surface tension balances the weight Answer (1)

of water in capillary tube. Mg
S o l . Stress =
FS = 2rTcos = mg A
Here, T and  are constant  L L1 – L
Strain = 
So, m  r L L

m2 2r Stress MgL
Hence,  Young's modulus = Strain  A(L – L)
5.0 r 1

 m2 = 10.0 g 21. The energy required to break one bond in DNA

is 10–20 J. This value in eV is nearly:
18. The ratio of contributions made by the electric
field and magnetic field components to the (1) 0.006
intensity of an electromagnetic wave is : (2) 6
(c = speed of electromagnetic waves)
(3) 0.6
(1) 1 : c2 (4) 0.06
(2) c : 1 Answer (4)
(3) 1 : 1 S o l . 1 eV = 1.6 × 10–19 J
(4) 1 : c
1
1J  eV
Answer (3) 1.6  10 19
S o l . In an electromagnetic wave, half of the
10 20
intensity is provided by the electric field and 1020 J  eV
1.6  1019
half by the magnetic field
= 0.06 eV
Hence required ratio should be 1 : 1
5
 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-H3)

22. In a certain region of space with volume 25. In a guitar, two strings A and B made of same
0.2 m3, the electric potential is found to be 5 V material are slightly out of tune and produce
throughout. The magnitude of electric field in beats of frequency 6 Hz. When tension in B is
this region is : slightly decreased, the beat frequency
increases to 7 Hz. If the frequency of A is
(1) 5 N/C
530 Hz, the original frequency of B will be:
(2) zero
(1) 537 Hz
(3) 0.5 N/C
(2) 523 Hz
(4) 1 N/C (3) 524 Hz
Answer (2) (4) 536 Hz
S o l . Since, electric potential is found throughout Answer (3)
dV S o l . Difference of fA and fB is 6 Hz
constant, hence electric field, E   =0
dr
If tension decreases, f B decreases and
23. The mean free path for a gas, with molecular becomes fB .
diameter d and number density n can be
expressed as : Now, difference of fA and fB = 7 Hz (increases)
So, fA > fB
1
(1) fA – fB = 6 Hz
2 n2  2 d2
fA = 530 Hz
1
(2) fB = 524 Hz (original)
2 nd
26. A 40 F capacitor is connected to a 200 V,
1
(3) 50 Hz ac supply. The rms value of the current
2 nd2 in the circuit is, nearly :
1 (1) 25.1 A
(4) 2 2
2 n d (2) 1.7 A
Answer (3) (3) 2.05 A
S o l . According to the formula (4) 2.5 A

1 Answer (4)
 2
2 n d S o l . irms = crms
24. An electron is accelerated from rest through a c = 40 × 10–6 F
potential difference of V volt. If the  = 2f = 100
de Broglie wavelength of the electron is
1.227 × 10–2 nm, the potential difference is : rms = 200 V
 irms = 200 × 40 × 10–6 × 2 × 50
(1) 104 V
= 2.5 A
(2) 10 V
27. The increase in the width of the depletion
(3) 102 V
region in a p-n junction diode is due to :
(4) 103 V (1) increase in forward current
Answer (1) (2) forward bias only
12.27 (3) reverse bias only
Sol.   Å
V (4) both forward bias and reverse bias
12.27  10 –10 Answer (3)
V –11
 102
1.227  10 S o l . Due to reverse biasing, the width of the
 V= 104 volts depletion region increases.

6
NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-H3)

28. The Brewsters angle ib for an interface should be S o l . Electric field outside a conducting sphere
(1) ib = 90° 1 Q
E
(2) 0° < ib < 30° 4  0 r 2
(3) 30° < ib < 45°
9  109  3.2  107

(4) 45° < ib < 90° 225  104
Answer (4) = 0.128 × 106
S o l .  = tan ib = 1.28 × 105 N/C
1<< 31. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor
1 < tan ib <  with air as medium is 6 F. With the
introduction of a dielectric medium, the
tan–1(1) < ib < tan–1()
capacitance becomes 30 F. The permittivity of
45° < ib < 90° the medium is :
29. The phase difference between displacement (0 = 8.85 × 10–12 C2 N–1 m–2)
and acceleration of a particle in a simple
harmonic motion is : (1) 5.00 C2 N–1 m–2

(1) zero (2) 0.44 × 10–13 C2 N–1 m–2

(2)  rad (3) 1.77 × 10–12 C2 N–1 m–2

3 (4) 0.44 × 10–10 C2 N–1 m–2

(3) rad
2 Answer (4)

(4) rad S o l . C = KC0
2
Answer (2) C 30
K  5
C0 6
S o l . If y = A sint

dy 
then v  K
dt 0

v = A cost   K 0
dv
a = 5 × 8.85 × 10–12
dt
a = –A2sin(t) = 0.44 × 10–10 C2 N–1 m–2

a = A2sin(t + ) 32. Taking into account of the significant figures,

what is the value of 9.99 m – 0.0099 m?
So phase difference between displacement
and acceleration is . (1) 9.9 m

30. A spherical conductor of radius 10 cm has a (2) 9.9801 m

charge of 3.2 × 10–7 C distributed uniformly.
(3) 9.98 m
What is the magnitude of electric field at a
point 15 cm from the centre of the sphere? (4) 9.980 m
 1  Answer (3)
  9  109 Nm2 C2 
 4  0 
9.99
(1) 1.28 × 107 N/C
 0.0099
(2) 1.28 × 104 N/C Sol.
9.9801 m
(3) 1.28 × 105 N/C
In subtraction, answer should be reported to
(4) 1.28 × 106 N/C least number of decimal places, so answer
Answer (3) should be 9.98 m.

7
 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-H3)

33. A series LCR circuit is connected to an ac 3

voltage source. When L is removed from the Sol.   0
2
circuit, the phase difference between current
 3
    0
and voltage is . If instead C is removed from 2 4
3
   <  0
the circuit, the phase difference is again  No photoelectric emission will take place.
3
between current and voltage. The power factor 36. The solids which have the negative
of the circuit is : temperature coefficient of resistance are:
(1) –1.0 (2) zero (1) insulators and semiconductors
(3) 0.5 (4) 1.0 (2) metals
Answer (4) (3) insulators only

S o l . When L is removed, (4) semiconductors only

Answer (1)
XC  X
tan    tan  C ...(i) S o l . For metals temperature coefficient of
R 3 R
resistance is positive while for insulators and
When C is removed, semiconductors, temperature coefficient of
resistance is negative.
XL  XL
tan    tan  ...(ii) 37. A charged particle having drift velocity of
R 3 R
7.5 × 10 –4 m s –1 in an electric field of
From (i) and (ii), XL = XC
3 × 10–10 Vm–1, has a mobility in m2 V–1 s–1 of :
Since, X L = X C, the circuit is in resonance. (1) 2.25 × 10–15
Z=R
(2) 2.25 × 1015
R (3) 2.5 × 106
Power factor = cos  = 1
Z
(4) 2.5 × 10–6
34. Dimensions of stress are :
Answer (3)
(1) [ML–1 T–2]
vd
(2) [MLT–2] S o l . Mobility,  
E
(3) [ML2T–2]
7.5  104
(4) [ML0T–2] 
3  1010
Answer (1) = 2.5 × 106 m2V–1s–1
Force 38. Which of the following graph represents the
S o l . Stress = variation of resistivity () with temperature (T)
Area
for copper?
MLT 2 
  (1)
L2 
 

 ML1T 2 

35. Light of frequency 1.5 times the threshold

frequency is incident on a photosensitive T
material. What will be the photoelectric
current if the frequency is halved and intensity (2)
is doubled?
(1) zero (2) doubled
(3) four times (4) one-fourth
Answer (1) T

8
NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-H3)

(3) 40. A screw gauge has least count of 0.01 mm and

there are 50 divisions in its circular scale.
The pitch of the screw gauge is :
(1) 1.0 mm
(2) 0.01 mm
T (3) 0.25 mm
(4) 0.5 mm
(4)
Answer (4)
S o l . Least count
Pitch

Number of divisions on circular scale
T
Pitch
Answer (4) 0.01 mm 
50
S o l . At temperature much lower than 0°C, graph Pitch = 0.5 mm
deviates considerably from a straight line. 41. In Young’s double slit experiment, if the
Option (4) is correct separation between coherent sources is halved
and the distance of the screen from the
39. Two bodies of mass 4 kg and 6 kg are tied to coherent sources is doubled, then the fringe
the ends of a massless string. The string width becomes :
passes over a pulley which is frictionless
(see figure). The acceleration of the system in (1) one-fourth
terms of acceleration due to gravity (g) is : (2) double
(3) half
(4) four times
Answer (4)

D
4 kg S o l .Fringe width  
d

6 kg d
Now, d  and D  2D
2
(1) g/10
(2D) 4 D
So,   =
(2) g d/2 d
(3) g/2  = 4

(4) g/5 42. For the logic circuit shown, the truth table is:

Answer (4)
A

Sol. a
 m1  m2  g where m1 > m2 Y
 m1  m2 
B

6  4 g
a
6 4 (1) A B Y
0 0 1
g
a 0 1 0
5
1 0 0
Note : Here no option is given according to
acceleration of COM of the system. 1 1 0

9
 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-H3)

(2) A B Y S o l . From mass-energy equivalence.

0 0 0 E = mc2
0 1 0 = 0.5 × 10–3 × (3 × 108)2
1 0 0
= 4.5 × 1013 J
1 1 1
44. For which one of the following, Bohr model is
(3) A B Y not valid ?
0 0 0 (1) Singly ionised neon atom (Ne+)
0 1 1
(2) Hydrogen atom
1 0 1
(3) Singly ionised helium atom (He+)
1 1 1
(4) Deuteron atom
(4) A B Y
Answer (1)
0 0 1
S o l . Bohr model is only valid for single electron
0 1 1
species.
1 0 1
Singly ionised neon atom has more than one
1 1 0
electron in orbit. Hence, Bohr model is not
Answer (2) valid.
45. The quantities of heat required to raise the
A temperature of two solid copper spheres of
Sol. A
radii r1 and r2 (r1 = 1.5 r2) through 1 K are in
Y the ratio :
B
B 5
(1)
3

27
_________ (2)
Y  AB 8

_____ 9
(3)
 A·B 4
= A·B  AND Gate
3
Truth Table (4)
2
A B Y
Answer (2)
0 0 0
0 1 0 S o l . Q = msT
1 0 0
4 3
1 1 1 Q  r sT
3
43. The energy equivalent of 0.5 g of a substance
is : 3
Q 1  r1 
(1) 0.5 × 1013 J  
Q 2  r2 
(2) 4.5 × 1016 J
(3) 4.5 × 1013 J = (1.5)3

(4) 1.5 × 1013 J 27


Answer (3) 8

10
NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-H3)
46. The transverse section of a plant shows
following anatomical features :
(a) Large number of scattered vascular
bundles surrounded by bundle sheath
(b) Large conspicuous parenchymatous
ground tissue
(c) Vascular bundles conjoint and closed
(d) Phloem parenchyma absent
Identify the category of plant and its part :
(1) Dicotyledonous root
(2) Monocotyledonous stem
(3) Monocotyledonous root
(4) Dicotyledonous stem
Answer (2)
S o l . All features are related to monocotyledonous
stems
47. Which of the following would help in
prevention of diuresis?
(1) Decrease in secretion of renin by JG cells
(2) More water reabsorption due
undersecretion of ADH
(3) Reabsorption of Na+ and water from renal
tubules due to aldosterone
(4) Atrial natriuretic factor causes
vasoconstriction
Answer (3)
S o l . Adrenal cortex secretes mineralocorticoids
like aldosterone which increase the
reabsorption of Na + and water from renal
tubule that prevent diuresis.
48. Which of the following statements is
not correct?
(1) Genetically engineered insulin is produced
in E.Coli.
(2) In man insulin is synthesised as a
proinsulin
(3) The proinsulin has an extra peptide called
C-peptide.
(4) The functional insulin has A and B chains
linked together by hydrogen bonds.
Answer (4)
S o l . The correct option is (4) because functional
insulin has A and B chains linked together by
disulphide bridges.
49. Embryological support for evolution was
disapproved by
(1) Oparin
(2) Karl Ernst von Baer
(3) Alfred Wallace
(4) Charles Darwin
Answer (2)
S o l . Embryological support for evolution was
disapproved by Karl Ernst von Baer, he noted
that embryos never pass through the adult
stages of other animals during embryonic
development.
50. Goblet cells of alimentary canal are modified
from
(1) Compound epithelial cells
(2) Squamous epithelial cells
(3) Columnar epithelial cells
(4) Chondrocytes
Answer (3)
S o l . Goblet cells of alimentary canal are modified
to from columnar epithelial cells which secrete
mucus.
51. The QRS complex in a standard ECG
represents
(1) Repolarisation of ventricles
(2) Repolarisation of auricles
(3) Depolarisation of auricles
(4) Depolarisation of ventricles
Answer (4)
S o l . QRS complex represents the depolarisation of
ventricles.
52. In light reaction, plastoquinone facilitates the
transfer of electrons from
(1) PS-I to ATP synthase
(2) PS-II to Cytb6f complex
(3) Cytb6f complex to PS-I
(4) PS-I to NADP+
Answer (2)
S o l . After excitement, e– is passed from PS-II (P680)
to primary electron acceptor (Pheophytin).
From primary e – acceptor, e – is passed to
plastoquinone. Plastoquinone (PQ) in turn
transfer its e– to Cyt b6f complex. Therefore
plastoquinone facilitates the transfer of
electrons from PS-II to Cyt b6f complex.
11
 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-H3)
53. The product(s) of reaction catalyzed by S o l . Cyclostomes have an elongated body bearing
nitrogenase in root nodules of leguminous 6-15 pairs of gill slits for respiration, so (a)
plants is/are matches with (ii) in column-II.
(1) Ammonia and hydrogen Air bladder is present in bony fishes belonging
(2) Ammonia alone to class Osteichthyes which regulates
buoyancy, so (c) matches with (iv) in column-II.
(3) Nitrate alone
Trygon, a cartilaginous fish, possesses poison
(4) Ammonia and oxygen
sting, so, (d) matches with (i) in column-II.
Answer (1)
Heterocercal caudal fin is present in
Mg  members of class Chondrichthyes, so (b) in
S o l . N2 + 8e– + 8H+ + 16ATP   2NH3 + H2 +
column-I matches with (iii) in column-II
16ADP + 16Pi 56. Which is the important site of formation of
Ammonia and Hydrogen. glycoproteins and glycolipids in eukaryotic
54. Match the following with respect to meiosis cells?

(a) Zygotene (i) Terminalization (1) Polysomes

(b) Pachytene (ii) Chiasmata (2) Endoplasmic reticulum

(c) Diplotene (iii) Crossing over (3) Peroxisomes

(d) Diakinesis (iv) Synapsis (4) Golgi bodies

Select the correct option from the following Answer (4)

(a) (b) (c) (d) S o l . Golgi bodies are site of formation of

glycoproteins and glycolipids in eukaryotic
(1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) cells.
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) 57. Match the organism with its use in
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) biotechnology.
(4) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) (a) Bacillus (i) Cloning vector
Answer (3) thuringiensis
S o l . Zygotene  Synapsis (b) Thermus (ii) Construction of
Pachytene  Crossing over aquaticus first rDNA
Diplotene  Chiasmata formation molecule
Diakinesis  Terminalisation (c) Agrobacterium (iii) DNA polymerase
55. Match the following columns and select the tumefaciens
correct option. (d) Salmonella (iv) Cry proteins
Column-I Column-II typhimurium
(a) 6-15 pairs of (i) Trygon Select the correct option from the following:
gill slits
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(b) Heterocercal (ii) Cyclostomes
caudal fin (1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(c) Air Bladder (iii) Chondrichthyes (2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

(d) Poison sting (iv) Osteichthyes (3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

(a) (b) (c) (d) (4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(1) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii) Answer (3)

(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) S o l . (a) Bacillus thuringiensis is a source of Cry-
proteins.
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(b) Thermus aquaticus is a source of
(4) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) thermostable DNA polymerase (Taq
Answer (2) polymerase) used in PCR.
12
NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-H3)
(c) Agrobacterium tumefaciens is a cloning 60. Bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate
vector. animals are exemplified by
(d) The construction of 1st recombinant DNA (1) Annelida (2) Ctenophora
molecule was performed using native (3) Platyhelminthes (4) Aschelminthes
plasmid of Salmonella typhimurium.
Answer (3)
58. Experimental verification of the chromosomal S o l . Platyhelminthes are bilaterally symmetrical,
theory of inheritance was done by triploblastic and acoelomate animals with
(1) Morgan (2) Mendel organ level of organisation.
(3) Sutton (4) Boveri 61. Floridean starch has structure similar to
Answer (1) (1) Laminarin and cellulose

S o l . Experimental verification of the chromosomal (2) Starch and cellulose

theory of inheritance was done by Morgan. (3) Amylopectin and glycogen
Note: (4) Mannitol and algin
Sutton and Boveri proposed chromosomal Answer (3)
theory of inheritance but it was S o l . Floridean starch is stored food material in
experimentally verified by T.H. Morgan. red algae. It's structure is similar to
59. Match the following Amylopectin and Glycogen.

(a) Inhibitor of (i) Ricin 62. Identify the correct statement with regard to
G1 phase (Gap 1) of interphase.
catalytic activity
(1) Nuclear Division takes place.
(b) Possess peptide (ii) Malonate
bonds (2) DNA synthesis or replication takes place.

(c) Cell wall material (iii) Chitin (3) Reorganisation of all cell components
in fungi takes place.

(d) Secondary (iv) Collagen (4) Cell is metabolically active, grows but
does not replicate its DNA.
metabolite
Choose the correct option from the following Answer (4)
(a) (b) (c) (d) S o l . During G 1 phase the cell is metabolically
active and continuously grows but does not
(1) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) replicate its DNA.
(2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) DNA synthesis takes place in S phase. Nuclear
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) division occurs during Karyokinesis.
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) Reorganisation of all cell components takes
place in M-Phase.
Answer (2)
63. If the head of cockroach is removed, it may
S o l . Option (2) is the correct answer because live for few days because
Malonate is the competitive inhibitor of
(1) the head holds a 1/3 rd of a nervous
catalytic activity of succinic dehydrogenase,
system while the rest is situated along the
so (a) matches with (ii) in column II.
dorsal part of its body.
Collagen is proteinaceous in nature and
(2) the supra-oesophageal ganglia of the
possesses peptide bonds, so (b) matches with
cockroach are situated in ventral part of
(iv) in column II. abdomen.
Chitin is a homopolymer present in the cell (3) the cockroach does not have nervous
wall of fungi and exoskeleton of arthropods, system.
so, (c) matches with (iii) in column II.
(4) the head holds a small proportion of a
Abrin and Ricin are toxins, secondary nervous system while the rest is situated
metabolites, so (d) in column I matches with along the ventral part of its body.
(i) in column II.
Answer (4)
13
 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-H3)
S o l . The head holds a small proportion of a 66. Identify the wrong statement with reference
nervous system while the rest is situated to transport of oxygen
along the ventral part of its body.
(1) Low pCO2 in alveoli favours the formation
64. The enzyme enterokinase helps in conversion of oxyhaemoglobin
of
(2) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is
(1) pepsinogen into pepsin
mainly related to partial pressure of O2
(2) protein into polypeptides
(3) Partial pressure of CO2 can interfere with
(3) trypsinogen into trypsin
O2 binding with haemoglobin
(4) caseinogen into casein
(4) Higher H + conc. in alveoli favours the
Answer (3) formation of oxyhaemoglobin
S o l . The correct option is (3) because trypsinogen
Answer (4)
is activated by an enzyme, enterokinase,
secreted by the intestinal mucosa into active S o l . The correct option is (4) because higher H+
trypsin. Trypsinogen is a zymogen from concentration favours the dissociation of
pancreas. oxygen from oxyhaemoglobin in tissues.
65. Match the following columns and select the In the alveoli, high pO2, low pCO2, lesser H+
correct option. concentration and lower temperature favour
Column-I Column-II formation of oxyhaemoglobin.
(a) Organ of Corti (i) Connects middle 67. In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination
ear and pharynx takes place by :
(b) Cochlea (ii) Coiled part of the
(1) Insects and water
labyrinth
(2) Insects or wind
(c) Eustachian tube (iii) Attached to the oval
window (3) Water currents only
(d) Stapes (iv) Located on the (4) Wind and water
basilar membrane
Answer (2)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) S o l . In majority of aquatic plants, the flowers
emerge above the level of water.
(2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
These may be pollinated by insects or wind
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) eg.: Water hyacinth and water lily

Answer (4) 68. Bt cotton variety that was developed by the

Sol. introduction of toxin gene of Bacillus
thuringiensis (Bt) is resistant to
• Option (4) is correct because organ of Corti
is located on the Basilar membrane, thus (a) (1) Insect predators
in column-I matches with (iv) in column-II. (2) Insect pests
• The coiled portion of the labyrinth is (3) Fungal diseases
called cochlea, so (b) matches with (ii) in
(4) Plant nematodes
column II.
• The eustachian tube connects the middle Answer (2)
ear cavity with the pharynx, thus (c) S o l . Bt cotton is resistant to cotton bollworm
matches with (i) in column-II. (Insect pest).
• The middle ear contains ossicle called cry I Ac and cry II Ab genes have been
Stapes that is attached to the oval window introduced in cotton to protect it from cotton
of the cochlea, so (d) matches with (iii) in bollworm. This makes Bt cotton as
column II. biopesticide.

14
NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-H3)
69. Select the correct statement. S o l . In 1953, S.L. Miller, an American scientist
(1) Insulin is associated with hyperglycemia. created electric discharge in a closed flask
containing CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at
(2) Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis. 800°C.
(3) Glucagon is associated with 73. The specific palindromic sequence which is
hypoglycemia. recognized by EcoRI is
(4) Insulin acts on pancreatic cells and (1) 5 - GGATCC - 3
adipocytes.
3 - CCTAGG - 5
Answer (2)
(2) 5 - GAATTC - 3
S o l . Glucagon is associated with hyperglycemia.
Insulin acts on hepatocytes and adipocytes 3 - CTTAAG - 5
and is associated with hypoglycemia. (3) 5 - GGAACC - 3
Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis,
3 - CCTTGG - 5
so increase blood sugar level.
(4) 5 - CTTAAG - 3
70. Identify the basic amino acid from the
following. 3 - GAATTC - 5

(1) Valine Answer (2)

(2) Tyrosine S o l . The correct option is (2) because the specific
palindromic sequence which is recognised by
(3) Glutamic Acid
Eco RI is
(4) Lysine
5 - GAATTC - 3
Answer (4)
3 - CTTAAG - 5
S o l . Option (4) is the correct answer because
74. Secondary metabolites such as nicotine,
lysine is a basic amino acid.
strychnine and caffeine are produced by
Valine is a neutral amino acid. plants for their
Glutamic acid is an acidic amino acid while (1) Effect on reproduction
Tyrosine is an aromatic amino acid.
(2) Nutritive value
71. Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are
(3) Growth response
examples of
(4) Defence action
(1) Natural selection
Answer (4)
(2) Adaptive radiation
S o l . A wide variety of chemical substances that we
(3) Convergent evolution
extract from plants on a commercial scale
(4) Industrial melanism (nicotine, caffeine, quinine, strychnine, opium,
Answer (3) etc) are produced by them (plants) as
defences against grazers and browsers.
S o l . The correct option is (3) because flippers of
Penguins and Dolphins are an example of 75. Presence of which of the following conditions
analogous organs. Analogous structures are a in urine are indicative of Diabetes Mellitus?
result of convergent evolution. (1) Renal calculi and Hyperglycaemia
72. From his experiments, S.L. Miller produced (2) Uremia and Ketonuria
amino acids by mixing the following in a
closed flask (3) Uremia and Renal Calculi

(1) CH3, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 600°C (4) Ketonuria and Glycosuria

(2) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 800°C Answer (4)

(3) CH3, H2, NH4 and water vapor at 800°C S o l . Presence of Ketone bodies in urine
(Ketonuria) and presence of glucose in urine
(4) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 600°C (Glycosuria) are indicative of Diabetes
Answer (2) mellitus.
15
 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-H3)
76. Which of the following statements are true for (a) (b) (c) (d)
the phylum-Chordata? (1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(a) In Urochordata notochord extends from (2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
head to tail and it is present throughout
(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
their life.
(4) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(b) In Vertebrata notochord is present during
the embryonic period only. Answer (3)
(c) Central nervous system is dorsal and Sol. Column-I Column-II
hollow. (a) Clostridium (ii) Butyric acid
(d) Chordata is divided into 3 subphyla : butylicum
Hemichordata, Tunicata and
(b) Trichoderma (i) Cyclosporin-A
Cephalochordata.
polysporum
(1) (b) and (c)
(c) Monascus (iv) Blood cholesterol
(2) (d) and (c)
purpureus lowering agent
(3) (c) and (a)
(d) Aspergillus niger (iii) Citric acid
(4) (a) and (b)
79. Which of the following is correct about
Answer (1) viroids?
S o l . In vertebrata, notochord is present during (1) They have free DNA without protein coat
embryonic period only as it is replaced by
(2) They have RNA with protein coat
vertebral column.
(3) They have free RNA without protein coat
In chordates, central nervous system is
dorsal and hollow. (4) They have DNA with protein coat

77. Cuboidal epithelium with brush border of Answer (3)

microvilli is found in S o l . Viroids have free RNA without protein coat.
(1) Eustachian tube 80. The body of the ovule is fused within the
(2) Lining of intestine funicle at

(3) Ducts of salivary gland (1) Chalaza (2) Hilum

(3) Micropyle (4) Nucellus
(4) Proximal convoluted tubule of nephron
Answer (2)
Answer (4)
S o l . The attachment point of funicle and body of
S o l . Cuboidal epithelium with brush border of
ovule is known as hilum.
microvilli is found in proximal convoluted
tubule of nephron (PCT). 81. The oxygenation activity of RuBisCo enzyme
in photorespiration leads to the formation of
78. Match the following columns and select the
correct option. (1) 1 molecule of 4-C compound and
1 molecule of 2-C compound
Column-I Column-II
(2) 2 molecules of 3-C compound
(a) Clostridium (i) Cyclosporin-A
(3) 1 molecule of 3-C compound
butylicum
(4) 1 molecule of 6-C compound
(b) Trichoderma (ii) Butyric Acid
Answer (3)
polysporum
S o l . In photorespiration, O2 binds to RubisCo. As a
(c) Monascus (iii) Citric Acid result RuBP instead to being converted to
purpureus 2 molecules of PGA bind with O2 to form one
molecule each of phosphoglycerate (3 carbon
(d) Aspergillus niger (iv) Blood cholesterol
compound) and phosphoglycolate ( 2 carbon
lowering agent compound).

16
NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-H3)
82. Match the following columns and select the 84. Select the correct events that occur during
correct option. inspiration.
Column - I Column - II (a) Contraction of diaphragm
(a) Eosinophils (i) Immune response (b) Contraction of external inter-costal
(b) Basophils (ii) Phagocytosis muscles
(c) Neutrophils (iii) Release (c) Pulmonary volume decreases
histaminase, (d) Intra pulmonary pressure increases
destructive (1) only (d)
enzymes (2) (a) and (b)
(d) Lymphocytes (iv) Release granules (3) (c) and (d)
containing (4) (a), (b) and (d)
histamine Answer (2)
(a) (b) (c) (d) S o l . Inspiration is initiated by the contraction of
(1) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) diaphragm, which increases the volume of
thoracic chamber in the anterio-posterior
(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
axis.
(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
The contraction of external intercostal
(4) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) muscles increase the volume of the thoracic
Answer (2) chamber in the dorsoventral axis.
S o l . Option (2) is the correct answer because 85. In which of the following techniques, the
Eosinophils are associated with allergic embryos are transferred to assist those
reactions and release histaminase, females who cannot conceive?
destructive enzymes, so (a) in column I (1) GIFT and ICSI (2) ZIFT and IUT
matches with (iii) in column II.
(3) GIFT and ZIFT (4) ICSI and ZIFT
Basophils secrete histamine, serotonin,
heparin etc. and are involved in inflammatory Answer (2)
reactions, so (b) matches with (iv). S o l . Option (2) is the answer because ART in which
Neutrophils are phagocytic cells; so (c) embryos are transferred, include ZIFT and IUT
matches with (ii). Both B and T lymphocytes i.e. Zygote Intrafallopian Transfer and Intra
are responsible for immune responses of the Uterine Transfer respectively, both are
body, so, (d) in column I matches with (i) in embryo transfer (ET) methods.
column II. Option (3), (4) and (1) are incorrect because
83. Which of the following hormone levels will in GIFT (Gamete Intrafallopian Transfer),
cause release of ovum (ovulation) from the gamete is transferred into the fallopian tube
graffian follicle? of female who cannot produce ova. ICSI is
Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection in which
(1) Low concentration of FSH
sperm is directly injected into the ovum.
(2) High concentration of Estrogen
86. The infectious stage of Plasmodium that
(3) High concentration of Progesterone enters the human body is
(4) Low concentration of LH (1) Male gametocytes
Answer (2) (2) Trophozoites
Sol. z High level of estrogen will send positive (3) Sporozoites
feedback to anterior pituitary for release
of LH. (4) Female gametocytes

z FSH, LH and estrogen are at peak level Answer (3)

during mid of menstrual cycle (28 day S o l . Plasmodium enters the human body as
cycle). sporozoites (Infectious stage) through the bite
z LH surge leads to ovulation. of Infected Female Anopheles mosquito.
17
 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-H3)
87. Match the following columns and select the 89. Which of the following statements is
correct option. correct?
Column-I Column-II (1) Adenine does not pair with thymine
(a) Placenta (i) Androgens (2) Adenine pairs with thymine through two
H-bonds
(b) Zona pellucida (ii) Human Chorionic
Gonadotropin (hCG) (3) Adenine pairs with thymine through one
H-bond
(c) Bulbo-urethral (iii) Layer of the ovum
(4) Adenine pairs with thymine through three
glands H-bonds
(d) Leydig cells (iv) Lubrication of the Answer (2)
Penis
S o l . Adenine pairs with thymine through two
(a) (b) (c) (d) H-bonds i.e., A == T
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) 90. Which one of the following is the most
(2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) abundant protein in the animals?
(3) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii) (1) Insulin (2) Haemoglobin

(4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) (3) Collagen (4) Lectin

Answer (1) Answer (3)

S o l . The correct option is (1) becuase S o l . Collagen is the most abundant protein in
animal world and RuBisCO is the most
(a) Placenta secretes human chorionic abundant protein in the whole of the
gonadotropin (hCG) Biosphere.
(b) Zona pellucida is a primary egg membrane 91. Which of the following pairs is of unicellular
secreted by the secondary oocyte algae?
(c) The secretions of bulbourethral glands (1) Chlorella and Spirulina
help in lubrication of the penis
(2) Laminaria and Sargassum
(d) Leydig cells synthesise and secrete (3) Gelidium and Gracilaria
testicular hormones called androgens
(4) Anabaena and Volvox
88. Select the correct match
Answer (1)
(1) Thalassemia – X linked
S o l . Chlorella and Spirulina are unicellular algae.
(2) Haemophilia – Y linked
Gelidium, Gracilaria, Laminaria and
(3) Phenylketonuria – Autosomal Sargassum are multicellular. Volvox is
dominant trait colonial.
(4) Sickle cell anaemia – Autosomal 92. The plant parts which consist of two
recessive trait, generations - one within the other
chromosome-11 (a) Pollen grains inside the anther
Answer (4) (b) Germinated pollen grain with two male
S o l . Phenylketonuria – Autosomal recessive gametes
disorder (c) Seed inside the fruit
Thalassemia – Autosomal recessive (d) Embryo sac inside the ovule
disorder
(1) (a) and (d) (2) (a) only
Haemophilia – X linked recessive
(3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) (c) and (d)
disorder
Answer (1)
Sickle cell anaemia – Autosomal recessive
trait, caused due to S o l . The plant parts which consist of two
mutation in gene generations one within the other are pollen
present on grains inside the anther and embryo sac
inside the ovule.
chromosome no. 11
18
NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-H3)
Pollen grain is haploid inside the diploid
anther.
Embryo sac is haploid inside the diploid ovule.
93. Identify the incorrect statement.
(1) Due to deposition of tannins, resins, oils
etc., heart wood is dark in colour
(2) Heart wood does not conduct water but
gives mechanical support
(3) Sapwood is involved in conduction of
water and minerals from root to leaf
(4) Sapwood is the innermost secondary
xylem and is lighter in colour
Answer (4)
S o l . Incorrect statement: Sapwood is the
innermost secondary xylem and is lighter in
colour.
Correct statement: Sapwood is outermost
secondary xylem.
94. By which method was a new breed ‘Hisardale’
of sheep formed by using Bikaneri ewes and
Marino rams?
(1) Inbreeding
(2) Out crossing
(3) Mutational breeding
(4) Cross breeding
Answer (4)
S o l . Hisardale is a new breed of sheep developed
in Punjab by crossing Bikaneri-ewe and
Marino rams. In cross-breeding, superior
male of one breed are mated with superior
females of another breed.
95. Some dividing cells exit the cell cycle and
enter vegetative inactive stage. This is called
quiescent stage (G0). This process occurs at
the end of
(1) G2 phase
(2) M phase
(3) G1 phase
(4) S phase
Answer (2)
S o l . Some dividing cells exit the cell cycle and
enter vegetative inactive stage, called
quiescent stage (G0). This process occurs at
the end of M-phase and beginning of G1 phase.
19
96. Identify the correct statement with reference
to human digestive system.
(1) Vermiform appendix arises from
duodenum
(2) IIeum opens into small intestine
(3) Serosa is the innermost layer of the
alimentary canal
(4) IIeum is a highly coiled part
Answer (4)
S o l . Option (4) is correct as ileum is a highly coiled
tube. Serosa is the outermost layer of the
alimentary canal, thus, option (3) is an
incorrect statement.
A narrow finger-like tubular projection, the
vermiform appendix arises from caecum part
of large intestine thus, option (1) is incorrect
statement. Ileum opens into the large
intestine, thus option (2) is also an incorrect
statement.
97. Which of the following refer to correct
example(s) of organisms which have evolved
due to changes in environment brought about
by anthropogenic action?
(a) Darwin’s Finches of Galapagos islands.
(b) Herbicide resistant weeds.
(c) Drug resistant eukaryotes.
(d) Man-created breeds of domesticated
animals like dogs.
(1) only (d)
(2) only (a)
(3) (a) and (c)
(4) (b), (c) and (d)
Answer (4)
S o l . The correct option is (4) because :
• Herbicide resistant weeds, drug resistant
eukaryotes and man-created breeds of
domesticated animals like dogs are
examples of evolution by anthropogenic
action.
• Darwin's Finches of Galapagos islands are
example of natural selection, adaptive
radiation and founder's effect.
 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-H3)
98. Match the following columns and select the S o l . One substrate level phosphorylation in one
correct option. turn of citric acid cycle as per following
reaction:
Column-I Column-II
Succinate
(a) Pituitary gland (i) Grave’s disease Thiokinase
Succinyl Co-A Succinate
(b) Thyroid gland (ii) Diabetes mellitus
GDP GTP
(c) Adrenal gland (iii) Diabetes insipidus
(d) Pancreas (iv) Addison’s disease ATP ADP
101. Montreal protocol was signed in 1987 for
(a) (b) (c) (d)
control of
(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(1) Disposal of e-wastes
(2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) (2) Transport of Genetically modified
(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) organisms from one country to another
(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (3) Emission of ozone depleting substances

Answer (4) (4) Release of Green House gases

Answer (3)
S o l . Graves' disease is due to excess secretion of
thyroid hormones (T3 & T4). S o l . Montreal protocol – Signed in 16 Sep, 1987
(Ozone day)
Diabetes mellitus is due to hyposecretion of
insulin from -cells of pancreas. Came into force – 1 Jan, 1989.
It was aimed at stopping the production and
Diabetes insipidus is due to hyporelease of
import of ODS and reduce their concentration
ADH from posterior pituitary.
in the atmosphere.
Addison's disease is due to hyposecretion of 102. Match the following concerning essential
hormone from adrenal cortex. elements and their functions in plants
99. Select the option including all sexually (a) Iron (i) Photolysis of water
transmitted diseases.
(b) Zinc (ii) Pollen germination
(1) Cancer, AIDS, Syphilis (c) Boron (iii) Required for
(2) Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes chlorophyll
(3) Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Genital herpes biosynthesis
(4) AIDS, Malaria, Filaria (d) Manganese (iv) IAA biosynthesis
Answer (2) Select the correct option

S o l . Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes are (a) (b) (c) (d)

sexually transmitted diseases. (1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
Gonorrhoea is caused by a bacterium (2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
Neisseria gonorrhoeae. (3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Syphilis is caused by a bacterium Treponema (4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
pallidum. Answer (4)
Genital herpes is caused by a virus Type-II- S o l .(a) Iron – Essential for the formation
Herpes simplex virus. of chlorophyll
100. The number of substrate level (b) Zinc – Needed for synthesis of
phosphorylations in one turn of citric acid auxin
cycle is (c) Boron – Have a role in pollen grain
(1) Three (2) Zero germination

(3) One (4) Two (d) Manganese – Is involved in the splitting

of water to liberate O 2
Answer (3) during photosynthesis

20
 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-H3)
103. Match the following columns and select the Answer (4)
correct option. S o l . Length of DNA = [0.34 × 10–9]m × 6.6 × 109 bp
Column-I Column-II = 2.2 m
(a) Gregarious, (i) Asterias Distance between 2 base pair in DNA helix
polyphagous pest = 0.34 nm = 0.34 × 10–9 m
(b) Adult with radial (ii) Scorpion Total number of base pair = 6.6 × 109 bp
symmetry and larva 107. Match the following columns and select the
with bilateral correct option.
symmetry Column-I Column-II
(c) Book lungs (iii) Ctenoplana (a) Bt cotton (i) Gene therapy
(d) Bioluminescence (iv) Locusta (b) Adenosine (ii) Cellular defence
(a) (b) (c) (d) deaminase
(1) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) deficiency

(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) (c) RNAi (iii) Detection of HIV
infection
(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(d) PCR (iv) Bacillus
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) thuringiensis
Answer (3) (a) (b) (c) (d)
S o l . (a) Locusta is a gregareous pest. (1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(b) In Echinoderms, adults are radially (2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
symmetrical but larvae are bilaterally
(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
symmetrical.
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(c) Scorpions respire through book lungs.
Answer (2)
(d) Bioluminescence is well marked in
ctenophores. S o l . The correct option is (2) because
104. According to Robert May, the global species (a) In Bt cotton the specific Bt toxin gene was
diversity is about isolated from Bacillus thuringiensis.
(1) 7 million (2) 1.5 million (b) The first clinical gene therapy was given
in 1990 to a 4-year old girl with adenosine
(3) 20 million (4) 50 million
deaminase (ADA) deficiency.
Answer (1)
(c) RNAi (RNA interference) takes place in all
Sol. • Robert May estimated global species eukaryotic organisms as a method of
diversity at about 7 million. cellular defense.
• Although some extreme estimates range (d) PCR is now routinely used to detect HIV in
from 20 to 50 million. suspected AIDS patients.
105. Ray florets have 108. Match the trophic levels with their correct
(1) Half inferior ovary(2) Inferior ovary species examples in grassland ecosystem.
(3) Superior ovary (4) Hypogynous ovary (a) Fourth trophic level (i) Crow
Answer (2) (b) Second trophic level (ii) Vulture
S o l . • Ray floret have inferior ovary. (c) First trophic level (iii) Rabbit
• Epigynous flower are formed in family (d) Third trophic level (iv) Grass
Asteraceae (e.g., Sunflower) Select the correct option
106. If the distance between two consecutive base (a) (b) (c) (d)
pairs is 0.34 nm and the total number of base
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
pairs of a DNA double helix in a typical
mammalian cell is 6.6 × 10 9 bp, then the (2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
length of the DNA is approximately (3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(1) 2.7 meters (2) 2.0 meters (4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) 2.5 meters (4) 2.2 meters Answer (2)
21
 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-H3)
S o l . Grassland ecosystem is a terrestrial S o l . Meiotic division of secondary oocyte is
ecosystem. It includes various trophic levels completed after the entry of sperm in
secondary oocyte which lead to the formation
First trophic level (T1) – Grass
of a large ovum and a tiny IInd polar body.
Second trophic level (T2) – Rabbit
112. Identify the wrong statement with regard to
Third trophic level (T3) – Crow Restriction Enzymes.
Fourth trophic level (T4) – Vulture (1) Sticky ends can be joined by using DNA
109. Match the following diseases with the ligases.
causative organism and select the correct (2) Each restriction enzyme functions by
option. inspecting the length of a DNA sequence.
Column-I Column-II (3) They cut the strand of DNA at palindromic
(a) Typhoid (i) Wuchereria sites.
(4) They are useful in genetic engineering.
(b) Pneumonia (ii) Plasmodium
Answer (1)
(c) Filariasis (iii) Salmonella
S o l . Restriction endonucleases make cuts at
(d) Malaria (iv) Haemophilus
specific positions within the DNA.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
They function by inspecting the length of a
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) DNA sequence.
(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) Restriction endonuclease bind to the DNA and
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) cut the two strands of double helix at specific
points in their sugar-phosphate backbones.
(4) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
They are used in genetic engineering to form
Answer (3) recombinant molecules of DNA.
S o l . Typhoid fever in humans is caused by DNA ligases join the DNA fragments.
pathogenic bacterium Salmonella typhi.
113. In relation to Gross primary productivity and
Pneumonia is caused by Streptococcus Net primary productivity of an ecosystem,
Pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae. which one of the following statements is
Filariasis or elephantiasis is caused by the correct?
filarial worm, Wuchereria bancrofti and (1) There is no relationship between Gross
Wuchereria malayi. primary productivity and Net primary
Malaria is caused by different species of productivity
Plasmodium. (2) Gross primary productivity is always less
110. The roots that originate from the base of the than net primary productivity
stem are (3) Gross primary productivity is always more
than net primary productivity
(1) Lateral roots (2) Fibrous roots
(4) Gross primary productivity and Net
(3) Primary roots (4) Prop roots
primary productivity are one and same
Answer (2)
Answer (3)
S o l . The roots that originate from the base of the
S o l . Gross primary productivity of an ecosystem is
stem are fibrous roots. the rate of production of organic matter
111. Meiotic division of the secondary oocyte is during photosynthesis.
completed Net primary productivity is GPP-respiration
(1) At the time of fusion of a sperm with an Hence gross primary productivity is always
ovum more than NPP
(2) Prior to ovulation 114. The process of growth is maximum during
(3) At the time of copulation (1) Dormancy (2) Log phase
(4) After zygote formation (3) Lag phase (4) Senescence
Answer (1) Answer (2)

22
 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-H3)
S o l . In exponential growth, the initial growth is 119. Match the following columns and select the
slow (lag phase) and it increases rapidly correct option.
thereafter at an exponential rate in log or
Column-I Column-II
exponential phase.
(a) Floating Ribs (i) Located between
115. The sequence that controls the copy number
second and
of the linked DNA in the vector, is termed
seventh ribs
(1) Recognition site
(b) Acromion (ii) Head of the
(2) Selectable marker Humerus
(3) Ori site (c) Scapula (iii) Clavicle
(4) Palindromic sequence (d) Glenoid cavity (iv) Do not connect
Answer (3) with the sternum
S o l . The correct option is (3) because Ori (a) (b) (c) (d)
sequence is responsible for controlling the
(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
copy number of the linked DNA in the vector.
Ori i.e. origin of replication is responsible for (2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
initiation of replication. (3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
116. Name the enzyme that facilitates opening of
(4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
DNA helix during transcription.
Answer (1)
(1) RNA polymerase (2) DNA ligase
S o l . (a) 11 th and 12 th pairs of ribs are not
(3) DNA helicase (4) DNA polymerase
connected ventrally and are therefore,
Answer (1) called floating ribs.
S o l . RNA polymerase facilitates opening of DNA (b) Acromion is a flat expanded process of
helix during transcription. spine of scapula. The lateral end of
117. Snow-blindness in Antarctic region is due to clavicle articulates with acromion
(1) Damage to retina caused by infra-red process.
rays (c) Scapula is a flat triangular bone in the
(2) Freezing of fluids in the eye by low dorsal part of the thorax between 2nd and
temperature the 7th rib.

(3) Inflammation of cornea due to high dose (d) Glenoid cavity of scapula articulates with
of UV-B radiation head of the humerus to form the shoulder
joint.
(4) High reflection of light from snow
120. Which of the following is put into Anaerobic
Answer (3)
sludge digester for further sewage treatment?
S o l . UV-B radiations damage DNA and mutations
(1) Activated sludge
may occur.
In human eye, cornea absorbs UV-B (2) Primary sludge
radiations, and a high dose of UV-B causes (3) Floating debris
inflammation of cornea called snow
(4) Effluents of primary treatment
blindness, cataract, etc.
Answer (1)
118. Strobili or cones are found in
S o l . The sediment in settlement tank is called
(1) Equisetum
activated sludge.
(2) Salvinia
A small part of the activated sludge is
(3) Pteris pumped back into aeration tank
(4) Marchantia
Remaining major part of the sludge is pumped
Answer (1) into large tank called anaerobic sludge
S o l . Strobili or cones are found in Equisetum. digesters.

23
 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-H3)
121. Identify the wrong statement with reference 125. Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex
to the gene ‘I’ that controls ABO blood groups. occurs during
(1) Allele ‘i’ does not produce any sugar. (1) Leptotene
(2) The gene (I) has three alleles. (2) Pachytene
(3) A person will have only two of the three (3) Zygotene
alleles. (4) Diplotene
(4) When IA and IB are present together, they Answer (4)
express same type of sugar.
S o l . Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex
Answer (4) occurs During Diplotene stage of Prophase-I
S o l . ABO blood groups are controlled by the gene I. of Meiosis-I.
The gene I has three alleles IA, IB and i. The 126. Identify the substances having glycosidic bond
alleles IA and IB produce a slightly different and peptide bond, respectively in their
form of the sugar while allele i does not structure
produce any sugar. Because humans are
diploid organisms, each person can possess (1) Inulin, insulin (2) Chitin, cholesterol
at the most any two of the three I gene alleles. (3) Glycerol, trypsin (4) Cellulose, lecithin
122. The ovary is half inferior in : Answer (1)
(1) Plum (2) Brinjal S o l . Inulin is a fructan (polysaccharide of
fructose). Adjacent fructose units are linked
(3) Mustard (4) Sunflower
through glycosidic bond.
Answer (1)
Insulin is a protein composed of 51
S o l . The ovary is half inferior in Plum. aminoacids. Adjacent aminoacids are
123. The first phase of translation is attached through peptide bond.

(1) Recognition of an anti-codon 127. Name the plant growth regulator which upon
spraying on sugarcane crop, increases the
(2) Binding of mRNA to ribosome length of stem, thus increasing the yield of
(3) Recognition of DNA molecule sugarcane crop.

(4) Aminoacylation of tRNA (1) Abscisic acid (2) Cytokinin

Answer (4) (3) Gibberellin (4) Ethylene

S o l . The first phase of translation involves Answer (3)

activation of amino acid in the presence of
ATP and linked to their cognate tRNA - a
process commonly called as charging of
tRNA or aminoacylation of tRNA.
124. In gel electrophoresis, separated DNA
fragments can be visualized with the help of
(1) Ethidium bromide in infrared radiation
(2) Acetocarmine in bright blue light
S o l . Spraying sugarcane crop with gibberellins
increases the length of the stem, thus
increasing the yield by as much as 20 tonnes
per acre.
128. Which of the following statements about
inclusion bodies is incorrect?
(1) These represent reserve material in
cytoplasm

(3) Ethidium bromide in UV radiation
(4) Acetocarmine in UV radiation
Answer (3)
S o l . The separated DNA fragments can be
visualised only after staining the DNA with
Ethidium bromide followed by exposure to UV
radiation.
(2) They are not bound by any membrane
(3) These are involved in ingestion of food
particles
(4) They lie free in the cytoplasm
Answer (3)
S o l . These are not involved in ingestion of food
particles

24
 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-H3)
129. Which of the following regions of the globe S o l . Natality – Population
exhibits highest species diversity? attribute
(1) Amazon forests Mortality – Population
(2) Western Ghats of India attribute
(3) Madagascar Species interaction – Population
(4) Himalayas interaction
Answer (1) Sex ratio – Population
S o l . The largely tropical Amazonian rain forest in attribute
South America has the greatest biodiversity 133. Choose the correct pair from the following
on earth.
(1) Exonucleases - Make cuts at specific
130. How many true breeding pea plant varieties positions within DNA
did Mendel select as pairs, which were similar
except in one character with contrasting (2) Ligases - Join the two DNA
traits? molecules
(1) 8 (3) Polymerases - Break the DNA into
(2) 4 fragments

(3) 2 (4) Nucleases - Separate the two

(4) 14 strands of DNA

Answer (4) Answer (2)

S o l . Mendel selected 14 True breeding plant S o l . Ligases join the two DNA molecules.
varieties.
134. The process responsible for facilitating loss
131. Identify the wrong statement with reference of water in liquid form from the tip of grass
to immunity. blades at night and in early morning is
(1) Foetus receives some antibodies from
(1) Plasmolysis
mother, it is an example for passive
immunity. (2) Transpiration
(2) When exposed to antigen (living or dead) (3) Root pressure
antibodies are produced in the host’s
(4) Imbibition
body. It is called “Active immunity”.
(3) When ready-made antibodies are directly Answer (3)
given, it is called “Passive immunity”. Sol. • Root pressure is positive hydrostatic
(4) Active immunity is quick and gives full pressure.
response.
• It develops in tracheary element at night
Answer (4) and in early morning.
S o l . The correct option is (4) because active 135. Which of the following is not an inhibitory
immunity is slow and takes time to give its full substance governing seed dormancy?
effective response in comparison to passive
immunity where pre-formed antibodies are (1) Para-ascorbic acid
administered. (2) Gibberellic acid
132. Which of the following is not an attribute of a
(3) Abscisic acid
population?
(1) Species interaction (4) Phenolic acid

(2) Sex ratio Answer (2)

(3) Natality Sol. • Gibberellic acid break seed dormancy.
(4) Mortality • It activate synthesis of -amylase which
Answer (1) breakdown starch into simple sugar.
25
 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-H3)

136. Match the following and identify the correct S o l . CH4  x + 4 × 1 = 0  x = –4

option. CCl4  x + 4 × (–1) = 0  x = +4
(a) CO(g) + H2(g) (i) Mg(HCO3)2 + 4 4
Ca(HCO3)2 CH4 (g)  4Cl2 (g)  CCl4 (l)  4HCl(g)
(b) Temporary (ii) An electron Change in oxidation state of carbon is from
hardness of deficient hydride –4 to +4
water
139. Sucrose on hydrolysis gives
(c) B2H6 (iii) Synthesis gas
(1) -D-Fructose +-D-Fructose
(d) H2O2 (iv) Non-planar (2) -D-Glucose +-D-Fructose
structure
(3) -D-Glucose +-D-Glucose
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(4) -D-Glucose +-D-Fructose
(1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
Answer ( 4 )
(2) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) Hydrolysis
S o l . Sucrose    -D- Glucose 
(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) -D-Fructose
Answer (2)
Sol. z Mixture of CO and H2 gases is known as CH2OH
water gas or synthesis gas. O H HOH C O
H 2 OH
z Temporary hardness of water is due to H
bicarbonates of calcium and magnesium. OH H H HO
HO O CH2OH
z Diborane (B2H6) is an electron deficient
hydride. H OH OH H
z H2O2 is non-planar molecule having open -D-Glucose -D-Fructose
book like structure.
137. A tertiary butyl carbocation is more stable 140. The calculated spin only magnetic moment of
than a secondary butyl carbocation because Cr2+ ion is
of which of the following ?
(1) Hyperconjugation (1) 2.84 BM (2) 3.87 BM
(2) – I effect of – CH3 groups (3) 4.90 BM (4) 5.92 BM
(3) + R effect of – CH3 groups Answer ( 3 )
(4) – R effect of – CH3 groups S o l . Electronic configuration of Cr – [Ar] 3d5 4s1
Answer ( 1 )
Electronic configuration of Cr2+ – [Ar] 3d4

Number of unpaired e– = 4
Sol. H
Tertiary butyl carbocation Secondary butyl carbocation
Spin only magnetic moment = n(n  2)
(9 -H atoms) (5  -H atoms)
n = number of unpaired e–
More the number of -H atoms, more will be
the hyperconjugation effect hence more will
Spin only magnetic moment = 4 (4  2)
be the stability of carbocation. = 24 BM
138. What is the change in oxidation number of
carbon in the following reaction? = 4.9 BM

CH4 (g)  4Cl2 (g)  CCl4 (l)  4HCl(g) 141. Identify a molecule which does not exist.

(1) 0 to – 4 (2) + 4 to + 4 (1) O2 (2) He2

(3) 0 to + 4 (4) – 4 to + 4 (3) Li2 (4) C2
Answer (4) Answer ( 2 )
26
NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-H3)

S o l . For He2 molecule S o l . 1 equivalent of any substance is deposited by

1 F of charge.
Electronic configuration is 1s2, *1s2
We have, 20 g calcium
1
so bond order = [Nb  Na ]
2 Given mass
Number of equivalents =
Equivalent mass
1
= [2  2]
2
20
=0 = =1
20
Since, bond order is zero, so He2 molecule
does not exist. 40
Equivalent mass of Ca = = 20
142. Which of the following oxoacid of sulphur has 2
– O – O – linkage? So, 1 faraday of charge is required.
(1) H2S2O7, pyrosulphuric acid
145. Reaction between acetone and
(2) H2SO3, sulphurous acid methylmagnesium chloride followed by
hydrolysis will give :
(3) H2SO4, sulphuric acid
(1) Isobutyl alcohol (2) Isopropyl alcohol
(4) H2S2O8, peroxodisulphuric acid
(3) Sec. butyl alcohol (4) Tert. butyl alcohol
Answer ( 4 )
Answer ( 4 )
O O
Sol.
S o l . HO – S – O – O – S – OH
O O –
Peroxodisulphuric acid O – + O MgBr
CH3– MgBr
143. Which of the following is the correct order of CH3– C – CH 3 CH3– C – CH 3
+
increasing field strength of ligands to form CH3
Acetone
coordination compounds? Hydrolysis

(1) CN– < C2 O24 – < SCN– < F – OH

CH3– C – CH 3
(2) SCN– < F – < C2 O2–
4 < CN
–
CH3
(tert-Butyl alcohol)
(3) SCN– < F – < CN– < C2 O2–
4
146. Which of the following is a cationic
(4) F – < SCN– < C2 O2–
4 < CN
–
detergent?

Answer ( 2 ) (1) Sodium dodecylbenzene sulphonate

S o l . Spectrochemical series (as given in NCERT) : (2) Sodium lauryl sulphate

– – – (3) Sodium stearate

I– < Br– < SCN < Cl < S2– < F < OH < C2 O2–
4 <
– –
(4) Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide
H2O < NCS < EDTA4– < NH3 < en < CN < CO
Answer ( 4 )
144. The number of Faradays(F) required to
produce 20 g of calcium from molten CaCl2 CH3
(Atomic mass of Ca = 40 g mol–1) is + –
S o l . CH3 (CH2)15 N CH3 Br
(1) 4 (2) 1
CH3
(3) 2 (4) 3
Answer ( 2 ) Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide
27
 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-H3)

147. Identify the incorrect statement.

(1) The oxidation states of chromium in Sol.

CrO24 and Cr2O72 are not the same.

(2) Cr2+ (d4) is a stronger reducing agent than

Fe2+ (d6) in water.

(3) The transition metals and their

compounds are known for their catalytic Cu2+(aq) 2+
NH3(g) [Cu(NH3 )4 ]
activity due to their ability to adopt (B) (C)
multiple oxidation states and to form [Blue coloured
solution]
complexes.

(4) Interstitial compounds are those that are 150. The freezing point depression constant (Kf) of
formed when small atoms like H, C or N benzene is 5.12 K kg mol–1. The freezing point
are trapped inside the crystal lattices of depression for the solution of molality
metals. 0.078 m containing a non-electrolyte solute in
Answer ( 1 ) benzene is (rounded off upto two decimal
places) :
S o l . Oxidation state of Cr in CrO24 and Cr2O72 is
(1) 0.60 K (2) 0.20 K
+6
(3) 0.80 K (4) 0.40 K
148. Which of the following alkane cannot be made
in good yield by Wurtz reaction? Answer ( 4 )

(1) n-Butane S o l . Tf = kfm

(2) n-Hexane = 5.12 (K.kg mol–1) × 0.078 (mol kg–1)

(3) 2,3-Dimethylbutane = 0.399 K
(4) n-Heptane  0.40 K
Answer ( 4 )
151. The number of protons, neutrons and
S o l . Wurtz reaction is used to prepare symmetrical 175
electrons in 71 Lu, respectively, are
alkanes like R1 – R1, as
Dry ether
R1 – X + 2Na + X – R1   R1 – R1 + 2NaX (1) 175, 104 and 71

If R 1 and R 2 are different, then mixture of (2) 71, 104 and 71

alkanes may be obtained as
(3) 104, 71 and 71
Dry ether
R1 – X + 2Na + R2 – X  
(4) 71, 71 and 104
R1 – R1 + R1 – R2 + R2 – R2 + 2NaX
Answer ( 2 )
149. Urea reacts with water to form A which will
decompose to form B. B when passed through 175
Sol. 71 Lu
Cu 2+ (aq), deep blue colour solution C is
formed. What is the formula of C from the
following ? No. of Protons= 71 = No. of Electrons

(1) CuCO3Cu(OH)2 (2) CuSO4 No. of Neutrons = Mass no. – No. of Protons

(3) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ (4) Cu(OH)2 = 175 – 71

Answer ( 3 ) = 104
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NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-H3)

152. Identify compound X in the following sequence 154. Which of the following set of molecules will
of reactions have zero dipole moment?
CH3 CHO
(1) Boron trifluoride, beryllium difluoride,
carbon dioxide, 1,4-dichlorobenzene
Cl2/h H2O
X 373 K
(2) Ammonia, beryllium difluoride, water,
1,4-dichlorobenzene
CCl3 Cl
(3) Boron trifluoride, hydrogen fluoride,
(1) (2) carbon dioxide, 1,3-dichlorobenzene

(4) Nitrogen trifluoride, beryllium difluoride,

CH2Cl CHCl2 water, 1,3-dichlorobenzene

Answer ( 1 )
(3) (4)

F
Answer ( 4 )
=0
Sol. B
OH
F F
CH3 CHCl2 CH–OH

Cl2/h H2O Be =0

Sol. F F
373 K

(X) O C O =0
–H2O

CHO Cl

=0

Cl
153. Identify the correct statement from the
following :

(1) Pig iron can be moulded into a variety of 155. Paper chromatography is an example of
shapes.
(1) Column chromatography
(2) Wrought iron is impure iron with 4%
carbon. (2) Adsorption chromatography
(3) Blister copper has blistered appearance
(3) Partition chromatography
due to evolution of CO2.

(4) Vapour phase refining is carried out for (4) Thin layer chromatography
Nickel by Van Arkel method.
Answer (3)
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Paper chromatography is a type of partition
S o l . The iron obtained from blast furnace contains
about 4% carbon and many impurities like chromatography in which a special quality
S, P, Si, Mn in smaller amount. This is known paper known as chromatography paper is
as pig iron and cast into variety of shapes. used.
29
 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-H3)

156. Identify the incorrect match.

CH3 H
Name IUPAC Official Name C C CH2 CH2
(a) Unnilunium (i) Mendelevium H 2C CH2 C C

(b) Unniltrium (ii) Lawrencium H 3C H

(c) Unnilhexium (iii) Seaborgium 159. Reaction between benzaldehyde and

(d) Unununnium (iv) Darmstadtium acetophenone in presence of dilute NaOH is
known as
(1) (d), (iv) (2) (a), (i)
(1) Cross Aldol condensation
(3) (b), (ii) (4) (c), (iii) (2) Aldol condensation
Answer ( 1 ) (3) Cannizzaro’s reaction
S o l . Unununium (4) Cross Cannizzaro’s reaction
Atomic number = 111 Answer (1)
IUPAC official name : Roentgenium
O O
157. Find out the solubility of Ni(OH) 2 in 0.1 M
Sol. dil OH(–)
NaOH. Given that the ionic product of Ni(OH)2 C H+ C CH3
is 2 × 10–15
OH H O
(1) 1 × 108 M (2) 2 × 10–13 M C C C—
(3) 2 × 10–8 M (4) 1 × 10–13 M H H
O
Answer ( 2 ) –H2O
CH = CH—C—

2+
Sol. Ni(OH) 2 Ni + 2OH
s s 2s In the presence of dil.OH(–), benzaldehyde and
acetophenone will react to undergo cross-aldol
+
– condensation.
NaOH Na + OH
0.1 0.1 0.1 160. The mixture which shows positive deviation
from Raoult’s law is
Total [OH] = 2s + 0.1  0.1 (1) Chloroethane + Bromoethane
(2) Ethanol + Acetone
2+ – 2
Ionic product = [Ni ] [OH] (3) Benzene + Toluene
2 × 10–15 = s(0.1)2 (4) Acetone + Chloroform
Answer (2)
s = 2 × 10–13
S o l . Pure ethanol molecules are hydrogen bonded.
Solubility of Ni(OH)2 = 2 × 10–13 M On adding acetone, its molecules get in
between the ethanol molecules and break
158. Which of the following is a natural polymer? some of the hydrogen bonds between them.
(1) poly (Butadiene-acrylonitrile) This weakens the intermolecular attractive
interactions and the solution shows positive
(2) cis-1, 4-polyisoprene deviation from Raoult's law.
(3) poly (Butadiene-styrene) 161. The rate constant for a first order reaction is
4.606 × 10–3 s–1. The time required to reduce
(4) polybutadiene
2.0 g of the reactant to 0.2 g is :
Answer ( 2 )
(1) 1000 s (2) 100 s
S o l . Naturally occuring polymer, natural rubber (3) 200 s (4) 500 s
is cis-1, 4– polyisoprene Answer ( 4 )
30
NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-H3)

164. Identify the correct statements from the

2.303 A
Sol. k  log 0 (First order rate equation) following :
t A
(a) CO2(g) is used as refrigerant for ice-cream
and frozen food.
2.303 2
4.606  10 –3  log (b) The structure of C60 contains twelve six
t 0.2
carbon rings and twenty five carbon rings.
(c) ZSM-5, a type of zeolite, is used to convert
2.303
t  log10 alcohols into gasoline.
4.606  10 –3
(d) CO is colorless and odourless gas.
(1) (c) and (d) only
103
  500 sec (2) (a), (b) and (c) only
2
(3) (a) and (c) only
162. HCl was passed through a solution of CaCl2,
(4) (b) and (c) only
MgCl 2 and NaCl. Which of the following
Answer ( 1 )
compound(s) crystallise(s)?
Sol.  Dry ice, CO2(s), is used as refrigerant
(1) NaCl, MgCl2 and CaCl2  C60 contains 20 six membered rings, 12
five membered rings
(2) Both MgCl2 and CaCl2
165. Hydrolysis of sucrose is given by the following
(3) Only NaCl reaction.

(4) Only MgCl2  Glucose  Fructose

Answer ( 3 )
Sol. Since CaCl2 and MgCl2 are more soluble than
NaCl, on passing HCl(g) through a solution
containing CaCl2, MgCl2 and NaCl then NaCl
crystallizes out.
163. The correct option for free expansion of an
ideal gas under adiabatic condition is
(1) q > 0, T > 0 and w > 0
Sucrose  H2 O 
If the equilibrium constant (KC) is 2 × 1013 at
300 K, the value of r G○ at the same
temperature will be :
(1) –8.314 J mol–1K–1 × 300 K × ln(4 × 1013)
(2) –8.314 J mol–1K–1 × 300 K × ln(2 × 1013)
(3) 8.314 J mol–1K–1 × 300 K × ln(2 × 1013)
(4) 8.314 J mol–1K–1 × 300 K × ln(3 × 1013)
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . G = G° + RT ln Q

(2) q = 0, T = 0 and w = 0 At equilibrium G = 0, Q = Keq

So rG° = –RT ln Keq
(3) q = 0, T < 0 and w > 0
rG° = –8.314 J mol–1 K–1 × 300 K × ln(2 × 1013)
(4) q < 0, T = 0 and w = 0
166. Which of the following amine will give the
Answer ( 2 ) carbylamine test?
S o l . Free expansion  Pex = 0 NHC2H5 NH2
 w = – PexV = 0
(1) (2)
∵ Adiabatic process  q = 0
also, U = q + w [ first law of thermodynamics] NHCH3 N(CH3)2
 U = 0
(3) (4)
∵ Internal energy of an ideal gas is a
function of temperature Answer ( 2 )
 If internal energy remains constant S o l . Aliphatic and aromatic primary amines give
 T = 0 carbylamine reaction.
31
 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-H3)

167. An alkene on ozonolysis gives methanal as Answer (2)

one of the product. Its structure is

CH2CH2CH3 CH = CH – CH3
OCH3 HO CH3
(1) (2)

Sol. + H + I
CH2 – CH2 – CH3 CH2 – CH = CH2
SN2
(3) (4)
OH
Answer ( 4 )
+ CH3I
O
CH2 – CH = CH2 CH2 – CH CH2
O3 O O
Sol. 169. Elimination reaction of 2-Bromo-pentane to
form pent-2-ene is
Zn/H2O
(a) -Elimination reaction
O
(b) Follows Zaitsev rule
CH2 – C – H
O (c) Dehydrohalogenation reaction

+ H –C–H (d) Dehydration reaction

Methanal (1) (a), (b), (d) (2) (a), (b), (c)
(3) (a), (c), (d) (4) (b), (c), (d)
168. Anisole on cleavage with HI gives Answer ( 2 )
I Elimination
S o l . CH3 CH CH2 CH2 CH3

(1) + C2H5OH Br
(Reactant)
CH3 CH CH CH2 CH3

OH Mechanism:

(2) + CH3I

3
(3) + CH3OH

Since -hydrogen is abstracted it is

-elimination.
OH
Since more substituted alkene is formed, it
follows zaitsev's rule.
(4) + C2H5I Since 'H' and 'Br' are removed, it is dehydro-
halogenation.
32
NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-H3)

170. An increase in the concentration of the

S o l . Given reaction, 2Cl(g) 
 Cl2 (g)
reactants of a reaction leads to change in
(1) collision frequency We know that,
(2) activation energy
Cl2  g  
 2Cl g  is endothermic reaction
(3) heat of reaction
because it requires energy to break bond.
(4) threshold energy
So reverse reaction is exothermic rH < 0
Answer ( 3 )
Also, two gaseous atom combine together to
S o l . Heat of reaction is an extensive property.
form 1 gaseous molecule.
Hence, on change of amount/concentration of
reactants heat of reaction changes. So, randomness rS < 0
171. Which of the following is a basic amino 174. Match the following :
acid ?
Oxide Nature
(1) Lysine (2) Serine (a) CO (i) Basic
(3) Alanine (4) Tyrosine (b) BaO (ii) Neutral
Answer ( 1 ) (c) Al2O3 (iii) Acidic
(d) Cl2O7 (iv) Amphoteric
S o l . H2N CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2 CH COOH
Which of the following is correct option?
NH2 (a) (b) (c) (d)

(Structure of Lysine)
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Lysine is a basic amino acid. (3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
172. The following metal ion activates many (4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
enzymes, participates in the oxidation of
Answer (3)
glucose to produce ATP and with Na, is
responsible for the transmission of nerve S o l . CO : Neutral oxide
signals. BaO : Basic oxide

(1) Potassium (2) Iron Al2O3 : Amphoteric oxide

Cl2O7 : Acidic oxide
(3) Copper (4) Calcium
175. Measuring Zeta potential is useful in
Answer ( 1 ) determining which property of colloidal
solution?
S o l . Potassium (K) activates many enzymes
participate in oxidation of glucose to produce (1) Size of the colloidal particles
ATP and helps in the transmission of nerve
(2) Viscosity
signal along with Na.
(3) Solubility
173. For the reaction, 2Cl(g) 
 Cl 2 (g), the
(4) Stability of the colloidal particles
correct option is :
Answer (4)
(1) rH < 0 and rS < 0
S o l . In colloidal solution, the potential difference
(2) rH > 0 and rS > 0 between the fixed layer and the diffused layer
(3) rH > 0 and rS < 0 of opposite charge is known as Zeta potential.
The presence of equal and similar charges on
(4) rH < 0 and rS > 0
colloidal particles is largely responsible in
Answer ( 1 ) providing stability to the colloidal solution.
33
 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-H3)

176. A mixture of N 2 and Ar gases in a cylinder S o l . For BCC,

contains 7 g of N2 and 8 g of Ar. If the total
pressure of the mixture of the gases in the 3a  4r a  edge length
cylinder is 27 bar, the partial pressure of N2 r  radius
3a
is : r
4
[Use atomic masses (in g mol –1 ) : N = 14,
Ar = 40] Given, a = 288 pm

(1) 18 bar (2) 9 bar 3

r  288
(3) 12 bar (4) 15 bar 4
Answer ( 4 ) 179. Which one of the followings has maximum
7 1 number of atoms ?
S o l . nN2    0.25
28 4 (1) 1 g of Li(s) [Atomic mass of Li = 7]
8 1 (2) 1 g of Ag(s) [Atomic mass of Ag = 108]
nAr    0.20
40 5
(3) 1 g of Mg(s) [Atomic mass of Mg = 24]
Now, Applying Dalton’s law of partial (4) 1 g of O2(g) [Atomic mass of O = 16]

 
pressure, pN2  N2 PTotal
Answer (1)
1
S o l .  Number of Mg atoms = × NA
0.25 24
  27 bar
0.45 1
 Number of O atoms = ×2× N
32 A

5 1
  27  15 bar
9  Number of Li atoms = × NA
7
177. Which of the following is not correct about 1
carbon monoxide ?  Number of Ag atoms = × NA
108
(1) It is produced due to incomplete
180. On electrolysis of dil. sulphuric acid using
combustion.
Platinum (Pt) electrode, the product obtained
(2) It forms carboxyhaemoglobin
at anode will be
(3) It reduces oxygen carrying ability of blood.
(4) The carboxyhaemoglobin (haemoglobin (1) SO2 gas (2) Hydrogen gas
bound to CO) is less stable than
oxyhaemoglobin. (3) Oxygen gas (4) H2S gas

Answer ( 4 ) Answer ( 3 )
S o l . The carboxyhaemoglobin is about 300 times
more stable than oxyhaemoglobin. S o l . During the electrolysis of dil. sulphuric acid
178. An element has a body centered cubic (bcc) using Pt electrodes following reaction will
structure with a cell edge of 288 pm. The take place.
atomic radius is
At cathode :
4 3
(1)  288 pm (2)  288 pm
2 4 4H (aq)  4e  
 2H2 (g)

2 4 At anode :
(3)  288 pm (4)  288 pm
4 3

Answer ( 2 )  O2 (g)  4H (aq)  4e 

2H2 O(l) 

‰‰‰

34