SEAT NO.

:
Republic of the Philippines
PROFESSIONAL REGULATION COMMISSION
Manila

BOARD OF ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING

REGISTERED ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING Licensure Examination

Sept, 2010
8:00 a.m. – 12:00 nn.

ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING-PROFESIONAL SUBJECT

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one
answer for each item by shading the box corresponding to the letter of your
choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED.
Use pencil no. 1 only.

MULTIPLE CHOICES

Power System Fault:

1. The fault current that exist immediately after the fault is known as (EE Apr 1991)
a. Transient Current b. Sub transient current
c. Steady state current d. None of these

2. There is no zero sequence component of the fault current for (EE Apr 1993)
a. line to line fault b. symmetrical fault
c. single line to ground fault d. double line to ground fault

3. The zero and negative sequence component fault current does not appear on thids
type of fault (EE Oct 1999)
a. line to line fault b. Three Phase symmetrical fault
c. single line to ground fault d. double line to ground fault

4. If a fault occurs on substation high-voltage bus, the system is protected by a

a. generator breaker
b. station feer breaker
c. low-voltage power transformer breaker
d. high-voltage power transformer breaker

5. The earthing transformer is used (EE Sept 2003)

a. to avoid the harmonics in the transformers
b. to provide artificial neutral earthing where the neutral points of the
three phase system are not accessible
c. to improve the current capacity of the neutral wire
d. none of the above
6. Given the following types of faults, which of the following would you be more likely to
immediately follow with a reclose attempt?
a. L-G fault on a transmission line
b. A 3-Phase fault on a substation bus
c. A L-L fault on a transmission line
d. A differential and sudden pressure in a transformer

7. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

a. The fourth wire in the three phase system minimize the voltage to ground
b. The fourth wire in the three phase system suppress the harmonics
c. The fourth wire in the three phase system minimize the fault current
d. All of the above

8. For measuring positive, negative and zero sequence voltages in a system, the
reference is taken as:
a. Neutral of the system only.
b. Ground only.
c. For zero sequence neutral and for positive and negative the ground.
d. None of the above.

9. A 3-phase breaker is rated at 2000 MVA, 33kV, its making current will be:
a. 35 kA. b. 49 kA. c. 70 kA. d. 89 kA.

10. A 5 MVA, 13.8 kV/480 V, 5 % impedance transformer is tapped at 13.8 kV line where
the thevenin’s equivalent impedance is ½ ohm. Determine the fault current at the
primary for a three phase fault at the secondary.(EE Mar 1998)
a. 10 500 A b. 3 300 A c. 4 200 A d. 6 050 A

11. If the fault current is 2000 amps, the relay setting 50% and the C.T. Ratio is 400/5,
then the plug setting multiplier will be:
a. 25 A b. 15 A c. 50 A d. 25 A

12. The p.u. impedace value of an alternator corresponding to base values 13.2 kV and
30 MVA is 0.2 p.u. value for the base values 13.8 kV and 50 MVA will be:
a. 0.306 p.u. b. 0.33 p.u. c. 0.318 p.u. d. 0.328 p.u.

13. If the secondary of the transformer having the reactance of 4% is short circuited with
normal voltage applied to the primary the symmetrical short circuit current will be (EE
Sept 2003)
a. 4 times of the full load current
b. 25 times of the full load current
c. 2 times of the full load current
d. 8 times of the full load current

14. If the base kVA is 25,000 then a 5000 kVA alternator with 8% reactance will have
a. a 4% reactance b. a 40% reactance
c. a 16% reactance d. a 20% reactance

15. The percentage reactance can be converted into ohmic value with the following
formula (EE April 2001)

a. Xohm  c. Xohm  (X% )(100)(kV VA

2
) (X% )(kVA2 )
k kV
 b. Xohm  d. Xohm  (X% )(kV 2 ) (X% )(100)(kVA2 )
kVA kV

16. When an alternator is short circuited on all three phases, it settles down to the steady
state short circuit value and limited by
a. sub-transient reactance b. transient reactance
c. synchronous reactance d. either a or c

17. The short circuit current of an alternator when short circuited on all three phases will
be
a. zero as time goes to infinity
b. maximum when time goes to infinity
c. infinite when time goes to infinity
d. small as time goes to infinity but not zero
e. none of the above

18. ‘a’ is an operator used in symmetrical component analysis

a. which rotates the vector, it operates upon, through an angle 900 in the
clockwise direction
b. which rotates the vector, it operates upon, through an angle 1200 in the
counter-clockwise direction
c. which rotates the vector, it operates upon, through an angle 1200 in the
clockwise direction
d. which rotates the vector, it operates upon, through an angle 2400 in the
clockwise direction

19. Which of the following statements is true?

a. 0.5 – j 0.866 b. a = 0.5 + j 0.866
c. a4 = -a d. a2 = -(1+a)

20. If a positive sequence current passes through a transformer and its phase shift is 30
degrees, the negative sequence current flowing through the transformer will have a
phase shift of
a. 30 deg. b. -30deg c. 120 deg. d. 0 deg

21. The zero sequence impedances of an ideal star-delta connected transformer (star-
grounded)
a. looking from star side is zero and looking from delta side is infinite
b. looking from star side is zero and looking from delta side is also zero
c. looking from star side is infinite and looking from delta side is zero
d. is always infinite with respect to primary and secondary

22. Symmetrical component method of analysis is more useful when

a. system has unsymmetrical fault and the network is otherwise balanced
b. system has symmetrical fault and the network is otherwise unbalanced
c. System has unsymmetrical fault and the network is unbalanced.
d. Conducting optimal load flow
23. For a line to line fault analysis using symmetrical components,
a. the positive and negative sequence networks at the fault point are
connected in series
b. the positive and negative sequence networks at the fault point are
connected in parallel
c. the positive, negative, and zero sequence networks at the fault point
are connected in parallel
d. the positive, negative, and zero sequence networks at the fault point
are connected in series

24. The machine reactance used for computation of short circuit current ratings of a
circuit breaker are
a. synchronous reactance
b. transient reactance
c. sub-transient reactance
d. sub-synchronous reactance

25. The positive sequence impedance and the zero sequence impedance of a
transmission line is 3 % and 5 % respectively. What is the negative sequence
impedance? (EE Sept 2002)
a. 8 % b. 3 % c. 2 % d. 5 %

26. Of the different shunt faults on transmission lines, is the one most prevalent,
while is the type of shunt fault that very seldom occurs.
a. Single Line to ground
b. Line to Line Fault
c. Double line to ground
d. Three phase fault

27. In computing the fault current, all the symmetrical component of the reactance is
used with the two of them in parallel. This fault is:
a. two line to ground
b. one line to ground
c. three line to ground
d. line to line

28. A 15 MVA, 34.5 kV/6.24 kV transformer is connected at an infinite bus. The percent
impedance of the transformer is 2.5%. What is the current at the 34.5 kV side for a
three-phase fault at the 6.24 kV side? (EE March 1996)
a. 55,500 A b. 10,000 A c. 5,000 A d. 25,000 A

29. In a short circuit study, the positive, negative and zero sequence impedance are 0.25
pu, 0.25 pu and 0.3 pu, respectively. The base MVA is 100. Determine the fault
current for a three-phase fault at the 115 kV level. (EE March 1998)
a. 3,000 A b. 2,000 A c. 2,500 A d. 3,500 A

30. A 5 MVA, 13.8 kV/480V, 5% impedance transformer is tapped at 13.8 kV line where
the Thevenin’s equivalent impedance is 1/2 ohm. Determine the fault current at the
primary for a three-phase fault at the secondary. (EE March 1998)
a. 10,500 A b. 3,300 A c. 4,200 A d. 6,050 A
31. In a short circuit study, the positive, negative and zero sequence impedance are
1.081 pu, 1.081 pu and 0.0245 pu, respectively. The base MVA is 100. Determine
the fault current for a double line to ground at the 230 kV level. (EE Oct 1999)
a. 120,500 A b. 150,500 A c. 180,500 A d. 130,500 A

32. At a certain point in 69 KV transmission line, the positive sequence impedance is

0.15 pu and the zero sequence impedance is 0.55 pu. Calculate the fault current if a
line to line fault occurs. The base is 50 MVA (EE Sept 2002)
a. 3,511 A b. 420 A c. 1,890 A d. 2,414 A

33. If a fault occurs near the generator, how long does the transient component of the
fault last (EE Apr 2005)
a. 10 – 15 sec b. 5 – 10 sec c. 3 – 5 sec d. 1 – 3 sec

34. At a certain point in an electric network, the available fault MVA is 400. A 15 MVA,
34.5 KV, 2.5 % impedance, wye-grounded transformer is installed at the location.
Determine the short circuit MVA at the secondary side of the transformer (EE Apr
2002)
a. 600 MVA b. 625 MVA c. 240 MVA d. 500 MVA

35. In a 34.5 KV three phase system, the Thevenin equivalent impedance are
Positive sequence impedance, Z1 = 0.015 pu at 50 MVA
Zero sequence impedance, Z0 = 0.03 pu at 50 MVA
What is the phase the phase fault current?. (EE Sept 2002)
a. 48,000 A b. 80,000 A c. 8,400 A d. 32,000 A

36. Which of the following conditions actuate a negative sequence relay?

a. L-L fault
b. Overvoltages in the system
c. Reverse power flow
d. Overcurrent

37. A zero sequence relay responds to

a. L-G fault b. L-L fault c. 3-phase fault d. SLG fault

Power System Protection:

38. A three phase, delta wye connected, 30 MVA, 33/11 kV transformer is protected by a
differential relay. Calculate the relay current setting for fault drawing up to 200
percent of the rated current. The CT current ratio on the primary side is 500:5, and
that on the secondary side is 2000:5.
a. 3.3138 A b. 5.249 A c. 6.818 A d. 9.818 A
39. A metering installation for a 115-kV tie point between two power systems has
10000:5 current transformers in each phase and 600:1 potential transformers
connected line to ground. Assuming unity power factor, the multiplying factor that
should be used to determine the power in the circuit in kilowatts is
a. 1200 b. 360 c. 3600 d. 120
40. Breaking Capacity of circuit breakers is expressed in. (EE Apr 1990)
a. MVA b. KAIC c. kV d. AH

41. Why are disconnecting switches needed in power system?

a. for protection of circuit breaker b. to break the system under fault
c. for complete isolation d. for maintenance purpose

42. The highest magnitude of fault current will determine the size of , while
the lowest magnitude will determine the size of .
a. circuit breaker, relay b. circuit breaker, isolator
c. fuse, relay d. relay, circuit breaker

43. When a circuit breaker is selected for a particular application, which one of the
following rating is usually considered most important? (EE June 1990, Oct 1993)
a. Interrupting rating b. Maximum rms current up to 1 sec.
c. Continuous current rating d. Maximum rms current up to 4 sec.

44. The arcing contacts on a circuit breaker are used to (EE June 1990)
a. reduce the heating of the trip coil
b. ensure that a closed circuit is made
c. prevent damage to the main contacts
d. increase the magnetic field of the blow out coil

45. A circuit breaker that can be closed against a fault and opened at once, although the
solenoid mechanism may continue through its closing operation is said to be: (EE
Apr 1991)
a. fully rated b. Bearing temperature
c. trip free d. Selective

46. An Alternating current is easier to interrupt than direct current in an equivalent circuit
primarily because the (EE June 1990)
a. Magnetic field in the AC circuit is stronger
b. Power factor in DC is far from unity
c. Circuit breaker operates faster in AC
d. Alternating current forms less conducting ionized gas

47. It is a disruptive discharge between electrodes of a measuring gap, voltage gap or

protective device (EE Apr 1991, Oct 1993, Oct 1994)
a. sparkover b. flashover
c. fireover d. corona

48. The main contacts of a circuit breaker are most likely to be operated by a (EE Apr
1990, Apr 1993)
a. heavy duty switch b. Mimic bus
c. vacuum d. solenoid

49. The current that a breaker must be able to carry immediately after a fault occurs is
known as (EE Apr 1990, Apr 1993)
 a. interrupting current b. Exciting current
c. short circuit current d. Momentary current

50. The load of an instrument transformer consisting of delicate moving elements of an

ammeter, voltmeter and wattmeter is termed as (EE June 1990)
a. Transformer power b. Instrument Impedance
c. burden d. meter load

51. System information for the protection of an electrical distribution system is supplied
by (EE June 1990)
a. Fuses b. lightning arresters
c. storage batteries d. Instrument transformer

52. A large electric power distribution system is protected against surges and faults by
a. protective gaps crossing drain cells
b. high-speed relays detecting the trouble
c. protective relays operating without a time delay
d. radio communication system using flow frequency

53. Protective relays that operate on the principle that the current entering and the
current leaving a section are equal normally but unequal when fault develops within
a section (EE Apr 1995)
a. none of the choices b. differential relay
c. overcurrent relay d. directional relay

Power System Load Flow:

54. The power flow between two electrical systems connected by the lines stabilize the
difference between
a. voltage magnitude
b. current magnitude
c. phase angles
d. bearing temperatures

55. KVAr and MVAr are characterized by the fact that they always flow (EE Oct 1999)
a. From point of low voltage to high voltage
b. Without effect by the voltage at line terminals
c. From point of high voltage to low voltage
d. From higher power factor

56. When a long transmission line is heavily loaded:

a. The sending end voltage increases
b. The load voltage decreases
c. The voltage settings of the swing bus decreases
d. The Newton power flow does not converge

57. On a lightly loaded long transmission line:

a. The receiving-end voltage may exceed the sending-end voltage.
 b. The receiving-end voltage always exceeds the sending-end voltage.
c. The voltage settings of the swing bus increases
d. The fast decoupled jacobian matrix is static

58. In a power system using both hydro and thermal generation, the proportion of hydro
generation can be increased by
a.Increasing the prize (gamma) of the water.
b.Reducing the prize of the water.
c. Increasing the field currents of the hydro generators.
d.Increasing the incremental cost

59. If a fixed amount of power is to be transmitted over a certain length with fixed power
loss, it can be said
a. the volume of conductor required is inversely proportional to
the square of voltage and that of the power factor of load
b. the volume of the conductor is inversely proportional to voltage and that of
power factor of load
c. the volume of the conductor is proportional to square of the voltage and
directly proportional to power factor of load
d. the volume of the conductor required is proportional to voltage only

60. Assuming the constant efficiency transmission, if the voltage is increased n times,
the size of the conductor would be. (EE Sept 2003)
a. reduced to 1/n2 that of the original
b. increased to n2 that of the original
c. reduced to 1/n that of the original
d. increased to n times that of the original

61. Using load flow study, It can be proved that the power transmission capacity of the
transmission line is
a. proportional to the square of the operating voltage
b. inversely proportional to the voltage
c. proportional to the voltage
d. inversely proportional to the square of the voltage

62. The incremental transmission loss of a plant is:

a. Positive always.
b. Negative always.
c. Can be positive or negative.
d. zero

63. Load flow study is carried out for:

a. Fault calculations.
b. Stability studies.
c. System planning.
d. Load frequency control.

64. If the load of an isolated generator is increased without increasing the power input to
the prime mover:
a. The generator will slow down.
 b. The generator will speed up.
c. The generator voltage will increase.
d. The generator field current will increase.

65. When paralleling a generating unit to a power system, if the synchroscope indicates
that the incoming machine is running slower than the system:
a. The field current should be increased
b. The power input to the prime mover should be increased slightly
c. The power input to the prime mover should be decreased slightly
d. The synchronizing switch should be closed just after it indicates zero
phase angle difference.

66. The maximum power developed in a transmission line is when its power angle is:
(EE Sept 2003)
a. 0 0 b. 45 0 c. 90 0 d. 180 0

67. During the 1991 power crisis, the only available power plants are Morong & Caliraya.
Morong has a capacity of 600 MW while Caliraya has a capacity of 300 MW. Find
the maximum capacity during the day in the Luzon area. (EE Sept 2003)
a. 900 MW b. 600 MW c. 500 MW d. 300 MW

68. If the sending end and receiving end voltages for a 3-phase transmission line are
each 33kV (line), and if the reactance of the line is 13 ohms per phase, the maximum
power transmitted per phase will be. (EE Sept 2003)
a. 60 MW b. 30 MW c. 29 MW d. 28 MW

69. In conducting load flow analysis, which type of bus is necessary to define to
Jacobian matrix using Newton-Rhapson?
a. Swing Bus
b. Load Bus
c. Generator Bus
d. Swing Bus, Load Bus and Generator Bus

70. Using the Gauss-Seidel method in load flow analysis, if the load bus has a
withdrawal power of 150 + j 57 MVA, then the per unit load using 100 MVA base is.
a. 1.5 + j 0.57 MVA
b. 1.5 - j 0.57 MVA
c. -1.5 – j 0.57 MVA
d. - 1.5 + j 0.57 MVA

Power System Economics:

71. A three-unit system is given by the following data

C
P1 g1 =0.015×P g1 2 g1 +6
+2× P 
 
C2 Pg2 =0.025× P g2 2  g2 +3
+7× P
 The total system demand is 500MW. The lower and upper limits for each generator
unit are 20 and 300MW, respectively.
Determine the optimal dispatch of the to generating units
a. Pg1 = 375 MW, Pg2 = 125 MW b. Pg1 = 125 MW, Pg2 = 375 MW
c. Pg1 = 245 MW, Pg2 = 265 MW d. Pg1 = 265 MW, Pg2 = 245 MW

72. When alternative sources of energy are available to a power system, they should be
used in such a way that:
a. Thermal generation is held at a minimum.
b. The most efficient plants are always loaded to their maximum.
c. Overall production cost is minimized.
d. Transfer power is minimized

73. Incremental-heat-rate curves, for thermal generating units, are used to determine the
a. Fuel cost in Peso per hour.
b. Values to which the units should be loaded to result in minimum fuel cost.
c. Cost per unit of electrical output.
d. Cost per unit is minimized

74. When generating units are loaded to equal incremental cost:

a. Minimum fuel cost result.
b. Fuel cost is at a maximum.
c. Fuel cost is not affected.
d. Fixed cost is adjusted

75. One advantage of Market Management System computer control of generating units
is that:
a. VAr output of the unit is minimized.
b. All remote points is monitored
c. All units under the control of the computer will be loaded to the same load.
d. Loading of the units will be frequently adjusted to maintain them at
equal Incremental fuel costs.

76. If the fuel cost of one unit, operating in parallel with other units, is increased and it is
desired to maintain fuel cost, the load on the unit will be
a. Increase. b. Held constant.
c. Decrease. d. does not affected

77. In a power system in which generating plants are remote from the load center,
minimum fuel costs occur when:
a.Equal incremental costs are maintained at the generating station buses.
b.Equal incremental costs are referred to system load center.
c. All units are operated at the same load.
d. The losses are neglected

78. Two power systems A and B are operating in parallel. If system A increases its
generation to deliver 100 MW to system B, what will be the effect if system B does
not reduce its generation simultaneously?
 a. Frequency will increase
b. Frequency of both A and B will decrease
c. Frequency will remain unchanged.
d. Frequency is constant

79. Governors for controlling the speed of power generation units provide
a. A flat speed -load characteristics
b. An increase of speed with increasing load
c. Speed is proportion with the load
d. A decrease of speed with increasing load

80. When generating units in a power plant are loaded with equal incremental costs, the
cost of generation is
a. maximum b. minimum c. not affected d. zero
.
81. Incremental heat - rate curves for thermal generating units are used to determine the
a. fuel cost in P/hour
b. values to which the units should be loaded to decrease the fuel costs to a
minimum
c. none of the above.
d. Optimal cost

82. In economic operation of a power system , the effect of increased penalty factor
between a generating plant and system load centre is
a. to decrease the load on the generating plant
b. to increase the load on the plant
c. to hold the plant load constant.
d. To maintain power factor of the plant

83. Non-conventional source-based power plants are generally best suited for
a. Working with the nearby power grid
b. Isolated operation from the power grid
c. Operation with similar plants irrespective of length of connecting transmission
system
d. Island

84. Running cost of a hydro plant with respect to that of a thermal plant is
a. More
b. Less
c. Varying from installation to installation
d. equal

85. Pumped storage hydroelectric plant can be operated with

a. Upstream reservoir only
b. downstream reservoir only
c. with both as above
d. none of the above
86. Power plant curves or graphs showing the direct relationship of the peak load and
the generated energy of the said plant
a. modified load curve c. load duration curve
b. load curve/graph d. none of the above

Power System Operation and Control:

87. You are attempting to connect two systems (or islands) together using a
synchroscope. During the process, the synchroscope needle is not rotating and is
pointing straight down. What does this indicate?
a. The systems are out of phase by 180 degrees
b. A 3.5 HZ frequency difference between systems, and a minimum voltage angle
c. The systems are out of phase by 90 degrees
d. The frequencies are matched and the angle difference is at a maximum

88. Which of the following is a primary purpose of protective relaying?

a. Transformer tap changing
b. Controlling frequency
c. Reduce excessive voltage
d. Enhance system reliability

89. Following the operation of a system's automatic under-frequency load shedding plan,
if over-frequency is likely, the amount of load shedding should be reduced or
should be provided.
a. automatic over frequency load restoration
b. automatic under voltage load restoration
c. automatic over voltage load restoration
d. automatic under frequency load restoration

90. A condition when a Control Area, Reserve Sharing Group, or Load Serving Entity
does not have adequate energy resources to provide its customers' expected energy
requirement is called:
a. capacity deficiency b. an energy emergency
c. a generation emergency d. an energy deficiency

91. If a generator is supplying reactive power to the power system, the generator is best
described as operating:
a. overexcited b. leading c. unity d. underexcited

92. A power system with 1000 MW of load has requirements that each of its members
shed 5% of their load if voltage falls below 92% and it lasts for 5 seconds or more,
and shed an additional 5% of their load if the voltage falls below 90% and it lasts for
3 seconds or more. If the system voltage falls to 89% and it lasts for 10 minutes,
how much load would be shed?
a. 0 MW b. 200 MW c. 100 MW d. 50 MW

93. A 500 MVA generator is loaded at 400 MW and -200 MVARr. What is this
generator's reactive "boost" capability?
 a. -100 b. +100 c. 500 d. -200

94. A utility distribution bus has the following individual customer loads attached. What
is the total customer MW load and is the total customer load capacitive or inductive?
Load 1--- 5 MW and 1 Mvar
Load 2--- 3 MW and 1 Mvar
Load 3--- 2 MW and -2 Mvar
Load 4--- 10 MW and 3 Mvar
a. 3 Mvar / Inductive b. 20 MW / Inductive
c. 20 MW / Capacitive d. 3 Mvar / Capacitive

95. Capacitive reactance is a measure of the circuit influence of a capacitive

device. What will happen to the value of capacitive reactance if the system
frequency drops?
a. Depends on voltage level b. Remain unchanged
c. Decrease d. Increase

96. Which of the following statements best describes the system parameters that AGC
control action is based on?
a. System voltage levels and net interchange
b. System frequency and net interchange
c. System MW reserve and system frequency
d. System voltage levels and system frequency

97. Synchronization of alternators means

a. connecting alternators in series
b. transferring load from one alternator to another
c. connecting alternators in parallel
d. adjusting the excitation of the alternators

98. To synchronize alternator, three conditions must be fulfilled, namely

a. same voltage ratio, same frequency and voltages should be in phase with
respect to the external circuit
b. same voltage, same frequency and voltages should be in phase opposition with
respect to the external circuit
c. same voltage, same frequency and voltages should be in phase opposition
with respect to local series circuit
d. same voltage ratio, different frequencies and proper phase relation of the
voltages

99. If the input to the prime-mover of an alternator is kept constant but the excitation is
changed then
a. the reactive component of the output is changed
b. the active component of the output is changed
c. the p.f. of the load remains constant
d. the p.f. of the load varies

100. The over voltage surges in power system may be caused by

a. lightening
b. switching
c. resonance
 d. any of the above

***END***
SUBMIT THIS QUESTION SET TOGETHER WITH THE ANSWER SHEET TO YOUR
WATCHERS. BRINGING THE TEST QUESTION SET OUT OF THE ROOM WILL BE A
GROUND FOR DISPLINARY ACTION.