Manufacturing by DK Singh

Manufacturing Technology
——Theory and Problems ——
D. K. Singh
Assistant Professor
Netaji Subhas Institute of Technology
University of Delhi
Copyright © 2009 by Dorling Kindersley (India) Pvt. Ltd.
Licensees of Pearson Education in South Asia
No part of this eBook may be used or reproduced in any manner whatsoever without the publisher’s prior
written consent.
This eBook may or may not include all assets that were part of the print version. The publisher reserves the
right to remove any material present in this eBook at any time.
ISBN 9788131722275
eISBN 9789332500808
Head Office: A-8(A), Sector 62, Knowledge Boulevard, 7th Floor, NOIDA 201 309, India
Registered Office: 11 Local Shopping Centre, Panchsheel Park, New Delhi 110 017, India
C O N T E N T S
Preface v
Acknowledgements vii
1. INTRODUCTION TO ENGINEERING MATERIALS 1.1-1.12
2. PROPERTIES OF MATERIALS 2.1-2.17
3. FERROUS MATERIALS AND THEIR HEAT TREATMENT 3.1-3.19
4. NON-FERROUS MATERIALS AND THEIR HEAT TREATMENT 4.1-4.6
5. OTHER IMPORTANT MATERIALS 5.1-5.32
6. INTRODUCTION TO CASTING 6.1-6.21
7. VARIOUS CASTING PROCESSES 7.1-7.10
8. JOINING PROCESSES 8.1-8.27
9. DEFECTS AND INSPECTION IN CASTING AND WELDING 9.1-9.12
10. METAL CUTTING AND MACHINING PROCESSES 10.1-10.69
11. NON-TRADITIONAL MACHINING PROCESSES 11.1-11.19
12. POWDER METALLURGY 12.1-12.10
13. FORMING PROCESSES 13.1-13.37
14. METROLOGY 14.1-14.9
15. ELEMENTS OF MODERN MANUFACTURING 15.1-15.29
References R.1-R.3
Chapter Index I.1-I.8
Subject Index I.9-I.14
This page is intentionally left blank.
P R E F A C E
It gives me immense pleasure to present this book to the readers. The subject has been dealt with in
a very lucid and easy-to-understand manner. This book consists of fifteen chapters. The inclusion of
the last chapter, ‘Elements of Modern Manufacturing’ has widened the scope of this book. The chapter
takes into account the latest philosophies and techniques used to increase the productivity of a manufacturing
unit. Each chapter begins with a brief theory, followed by multiple choice questions, short answer questions,
true/false statements and review questions. Solved numerical problems have been added in some chapters.
The problems and questions have been taken from question papers of various universities and professional
examinations. The book follows a step-by-step approach in solving problems.
A detailed index has been added at the end of the book for quick reference to the topics.
D. K. SINGH
A C K N O W L E D G E M E N TS
I’m thankful to my students for their curiosity inspired me to write this book.
I thank my colleagues, especially S. K. Sinha, Sanjay Sharma, J. K. Singh, J. Jena, Sanjeev Thakur
and Anjana Sarkar for their encouragement and support.
I am very thankful to my parents, daughters, Shalu and Sheelu, and my wife, Alka, for their unwavering
support. I dedicate this book to my wife and daughters.
I hope that the teaching community and students will appreciate this book. Suggestions for the
improvement of the book are always welcome and will be highly valued.
C H A P T E R
1
Introduction to Engineering Materials
• Materials are the basic components of a manufacturing system. The selected material should meet
the engineering requirements of the designers, the manufacturing requirements of the manufacturers
and the cost requirements of the customers.
• Materials are broadly classified into two groups: metals and non-metals. The former group includes
ferrous and non-ferrous metals and the latter group is divided into organic and inorganic materials.
Important metals include iron, aluminium, copper, zinc, magnesium and lead. Hydrogen, nitrogen
and oxygen are important non-metals.
• Iron is the basic element of ferrous materials.
• Non-ferrous materials do not contain iron. Aluminium, copper, zinc, magnesium, nickel and lead
are important non-ferrous metals.
• Some of the elements such as carbon, sulphur, silicon and phosphorous behave as both metals
and non-metals and are termed as metalloids.
• Important characteristics of non-ferrous materials include lighter weight, higher thermal and electrical
conductivity and superior corrosion resistance which give them weightage over ferrous materials
for specific applications.
• Carbon is the essential element present in organic materials. Alcohol, hydrocarbons, polymers, soaps,
leather and wood are important organic materials.
• Inorganic materials do not contain carbon. Important inorganic materials include cement and ceramics.
• Electron, proton and neutron are the fundamental particles of a material. The properties of materials
are greatly influenced by the arrangement of atoms within the materials.
• There are three basic types of atomic arrangement present in metals, namely body-centered cubic
called bcc structure, face-centered cubic called fcc structure and hexagonal close-packed called hcp
structure.
• The bcc structure consists of eight corner atoms and a central atom in its unit cell. The Atomic
Packing Factor (APF), defined as the ratio of volume of atoms to volume of unit cell, for bcc
structure is 0.68. Manganese, sodium, potassium, tungsten and iron (alpha and delta phase) have
bcc structure.
1.2 Manufacturing Technology
• The fcc structure consists of eight corner atoms and one central atom on every face of its unit
cell. The APF for fcc structure is 0.74 indicating that this structure is more dense. Materials having
fcc structure have high formability. Aluminium, copper, calcium, silver and gamma iron have fcc
structure.
• The APF for hcp structure is 0.74. Magnesium, zinc, beryllium and cadmium have hcp structure.
• There are three types of Primary bonds: ionic bond, which occurs due to electron transfer between
metals and non-metals (for example, NaCl, CaCl2 and so on); covalent bond, which occurs due
to electron sharing between two similar or dissimilar non-metals (for example, Cl2, H2, N2, diamond
and so on) and metallic bond, which is neither due to electron transfer nor due to electron sharing
but due to force of attraction between a metal and a number of electrons.
• Primary bonds as compared to secondary bonds, have higher bond energy and higher melting and
boiling points.
• Examples of secondary bonds are: Hydrogen and Van der Waals bonds.
• Metallic bonds are weaker than ionic and covalent bonds.
• Hydrogen bonds and covalent bonds are directional but ionic bonds and metallic bonds are non-
directional.
• Higher bond energy is indicative of higher strength of the bond.
• Primary bonds have smaller bond lengths (1 − 2Å) as compared to secondary bonds (2 − 5Å).
• Higher bond lengths are indicative of lower strength of the bond.
• Ionic bonded and covalent bonded solids have no free electrons and hence are good insulators
of heat and electricity.
• Crystal structure implies atomic arrangement in a crystal.
• A crystal may contain many unit cells.
• A unit cell is the smallest unit of the crystal which, when repeated infinitely, gives space lattice.
• Bravais lattices are 14 in number. There are three space lattices in a cubic crystal system, namely,
simple cubic (sc), body centered cubic (bcc) and face centered cubic (fcc).
• Miller indices are used to specify directions and planes in a crystal.
• Bragg’s law is used to study a crystal structure using X-rays. The law is expressed as
nλ = 2d sin θ
where λ = wavelength of X−ray
n = An integer
d = Interplanar spacing
θ = Bragg’s angle which indicates angle of incidence for X−ray.
• Angstrom (Å) is used to measure very small length, for example, wavelength of light, radius of
a nucleus and so on. 1Å = 10– 10 m.
• Hydrogen is the lightest element in the periodic table and has the atomic number equal to 1. It
has no neutron in its nucleus.
• Copper, silver and gold are good conductors of heat and electricity.
• Diamond is the hardest known material. Its hardness is due to a three-dimensional network of covalent
bonds.
Introduction to Engineering Materials 1.3
• Point imperfection occurs at a limited portion of the crystal and the geometry of the crystal remains
unaffected.
• Important point imperfections include vacancy, substitutional and interstitial.
• Vacancy defect arises due to missing of a regular atom from the parent crystal.
• Substitutional imperfection is due to the substitution of a foreign atom in place of a regular atom
in the crystal.
• Interstitial imperfection occurs when a small sized foreign atom enters into the void space of the
crystal.
• Line imperfections are also called dislocations. It is of two types: edge dislocation and screw dislocation.
This defect is one dimensional in nature.
• Surface imperfections are two-dimensional in nature.
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Which is the lightest particle?
(a) Proton (b) Neutron
(c) Electron (d) Photon.
2. The Heisenberg uncertainty principle can be expressed as (Δp and Δ x = uncertainty in momentum
and position of an electron, h = Planck’s constant)
h h
(a) Δp . Δx = (b) Δp . Δx =
4π 2π
h 2h
(c) Δp . Δx = (d) Δp . Δx = ⋅
3π π
3. The absolute mass of an electron is

(a) 9.109 × 10– 31 kg (b) 9.109 ×10– 28 kg
(c) 1.602× 10– 19 kg (d) 1.602 × 10– 17 kg.
4. The energy required to remove an electron from an atom is called

(a) internal energy (b) ionization potential
(c) electron affinity (d) potential energy.
5. How many space lattices does Bravais lattices consist of?
(a) 3 (b) 7 (c) 14 (d) 15.
6. A cubic crystal system has the following number of space lattices
(a) 3 (b) 7 (c) 14 (d) 15.
7. 1 Å is equal to
(a) 10– 10 cm (b) 10– 10 m
(c) 10– 8 m (d) 10– 12 cm.
8. The magnitude of charge present on an electron or a proton is equal to

(a) 1.602 × 10– 17 coulomb (b) 1.602 × 10– 18 coulomb
(c) 1.602 × 10– 19 coulomb (d) 1.602 × 10– 20 coulomb.
9. Nucleus consists of
(a) protons and electrons (b) protons and neutrons
(c) electrons and neutrons (d) protons only.
10. The energy equivalent to 1 eV/bond is equal to

(a) 25 kJ/mole (b) 50 kJ/mole
(c) 100 kJ/mole (d) 150 kJ/mole.
11. Consider the following statements:
(i) Metallic bonds are non-directional.
(ii) Water has hydrogen bond.
(iii) Tungsten has the highest melting point among the metals.
(iv) Diamond has metallic bond.
Of these statements:
(a) (ii) and (iii) are true (b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are true
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are true (d) (ii) and (iv) are true.
(i) Diamond has Atomic Packing Factor of 0.34.
(ii) Copper, silver and gold have bcc structure.
(iii) Crystalline solids have unique melting points.
(iv) Zinc has hcp crystal structure.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are true (b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are true
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) are true (d) (iii) and (iv) are true.

(i) Helium has the highest ionization potential in the group of inert gases.
(ii) Second ionization potential is higher than first ionization potential.
(iii) Hydrogen is the lightest element in the periodic table.
(iv) s-orbital is spherical.
(a) (iii) is true (b) (iii) and (iv) are true
(c) (i) and (ii) are true (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are true.
(i) The probability of finding of an electron decreases with increase in its distance from nucleus.
(ii) Fluorine has the highest electronegativity in the periodic table.
(iii) Bond energy is expressed in kJ/mole.

(iv) Principal quantum number gives the shape of an orbital.
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are true (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are true.
(i) Primary bonds have higher bond energy as compared to secondary bonds.
(ii) Covalent bond is a secondary bond.
(iii) Ionic bond is a primary bond.
(iv) Primary bonds have shorter bond length.
(a) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are true (b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are true
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) are true (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are true.
(i) Primary bonds have higher melting and boiling points as compared to secondary bonds.
(ii) Primary bonds include ionic, covalent and metallic bonds.
(iii) Van der Waals bonds are stronger bonds.
(iv) Hydrogen bonds are non-directional.
(a) (i) and (iv) are true (b) (i) and (ii) are true
(c) (ii) and (iii) are true (d) (iii) and (iv) are true.
(i) Strong bonds have higher bond lengths.
(ii) Van der Waals bonds lack permanent dipole moments.
(iii) Van der Waals bonds are weaker than hydrogen bonds.
(iv) Angstrom (Å) is used to measure large distances.
(a) (i) and (ii) are true (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are true
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) are true (d) (ii) and (iii) are true.
18. Which of the following metals has least bond energy?
(a) Tungsten (b) Silver (c) Magnesium (d) Iron.
19. Which of the following metals has highest bond energy?
20. Which of the following metals has the melting point of 1535oC?
21. Which of the following metals has the highest melting point?
22. Which of the following bonds result due to the transfer of electrons between two atoms?
(a) Covalent bond (b) Ionic bond
(c) Metallic bond (d) Hydrogen bond.
23. Schottky imperfection is a
(a) surface imperfection (b) line imperfection
(c) point imperfection (d) volume imperfection.
24. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I List II
(Crystal structure) (Atomic packing factor)
A. Simple cubic 1. 74%
B. Body-centered cubic 2. 74%
C. Face-centered cubic 3. 52%
D. Hexagonal close-packed 4. 68%
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 4 3 1 2.
25. In case of copper crystal the Atomic Packing Factor (APF) is
(a) 0.52 (b) 0.68 (c) 0.74 (d) 1.633.
List I List II
(Materials) (Applications)
A. Tungsten carbide 1. Abrasive wheels
B. Silicon nitride 2. Heating elements
C. Aluminium oxide 3. Pipes for conveying liquid metals
D. Silicon carbide 4. Drawing dies
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 4 3 1 2.
27. In substitutional solid solution
(i) Solute and solvent atoms are of similar sizes.
(ii) Solute atoms are bigger than solvent atoms.
(iii) Solute atoms are smaller than solvent atoms.
(iv) Solute and solvent atoms have similar lattice structures.
(a) (ii) and (iv) are true (b) (iii) is true
(c) (i) and (iv) are true (d) (iii) and (iv) are true.
28. In interstitial solid solution
(i) Solute and solvent atoms are of similar sizes.
(ii) Solute atoms are bigger than solvent atoms.
(iii) Solute atoms are smaller than solvent atoms.
(iv) Solute and solvent atoms have similar lattice structures.
(a) (ii) and (iv) are true (b) (iii) is true
29. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

(i) Silicon steels — Transformer stampings
(ii) Duralumin — Cooking utensils
(iii) Gun metal — Bearings
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (i) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iii).
List I List II
(Material) (Structure)
A. Charcoal 1. F.C.C
B. Graphite 2. H.C.P
C. Chromium 3. Amorphous
D. Copper 4. B.C.C
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 2 1 4
(b) 3 2 4 1
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 2 3 1 4.
List I List II
(Alloys) (Applications)
A. Chromel 1. Journal bearing
B. Babbit metal 2. Milling cutter
C. Nimonic alloy 3. Thermocouple

D. High speed steel 4. Gas turbine blades
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 1 4 2
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 2 4 1 3
(d) 2 1 4 3.
List I List II
(Materials) (Applications)
A. Engineering ceramics 1. Bearings
B. Fibre reinforced plastics 2. Control rods in nuclear reactors
C. Synthetic carbon 3. Aerospace industry
D. Boron 4. Electrical insulator
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 1 4 3 2
(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 4 3 1 2.
33. Nucleon consists of

(a) electrons and protons
(b) electrons and neutrons
(c) protons and neutrons
(d) electrons, protons and neutrons.
34. The nuclear radius is of the order of
(a) 10– 8 m (b) 10– 8 cm
(c) 10– 14 cm (d) 10– 14 m.
List I List II
A. Crankshaft 1. Supports the revolving parts and transmits
torque
B. Wireshaft 2. Transmits motion between shafts where it
is not possible to effect a rigid coupling
between them
C. Axle 3. Converts linear motion into rotary motion
D. Plainshaft 4. Supports only revolving parts
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 2 1 4
(b) 4 2 3 1
(c) 3 2 4 1
(d) 1 4 2 3.
List I List II
A. Proton 1. J.J. Thomson
B. Electron 2. Yukawa
C. Neutron 3. Goldstein
D. Meson 4. Chadwick
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 3 4 2
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 3 1 2 4
(d) 4 1 2 3.
List I List II
A. Unwin’s formula 1. Bearings
B. Wahl factor 2. Rivets
C. Reynold’s equation 3. Gears
D. Lewis form factor 4. Springs
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 4 2 3
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 1 3 2 4
(d) 2 4 1 3.
ANSWERS
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (a)
7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (c) 11. (b) 12. (c)
13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (c)
19. (a) 20. (d) 21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (a)
25. (c) 26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (b)
31. (a) 32. (d) 33. (c) 34. (d) 35. (c) 36. (b)
37. (d).
SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

1. What is an alloy?
Answer An alloy consists of two or more elements out of which one is a metal. For example,
steel is an alloy of iron and carbon.
2. What is a solid solution?
Answer A solid solution is a mixture of two or more elements in solid state. There are two
important solid solutions: Substitutional and interstitial.
3. Differentiate between substitutional and interstitial solid solutions.
Answer In substitutional solid solution, solute atoms replace some solvent atoms. Brass is a sub-
stitutional solid solution of zinc (solute) and copper (solvent).
In interstitial solid solution, the smaller size solute atoms enter empty spaces available in the lattice
structure of solvent atoms. Steel is an example of interstitial solid solution, in which small size
carbon atom is dissolved in iron.
4. Why is the electrical conductivity of metals very high?
Answer Metals have a large number of free electrons which act as charge carriers in the flow
of electric current.
5. Why are diamagnetic materials non-magnetic?
Answer Diamagnetic materials are non-magnetic on account of the absence of magnetic dipoles.
6. Ferromagnetic materials are used for making stronger magnets but paramagnetic materials are not.
Why?
Answer In ferromagnetic materials, magnetic moments are properly aligned. On the other hand,
in paramagnetic materials, magnetic moments are randomly distributed.
7. What is meson?
Answer Meson is an atomic particle discovered by a Japanese physicist, Yukawa. It is heavier
than an electron and may be electrically positive, negative or neutral. Positive meson combines
with neutron to form proton and negative meson combines with proton to form neutron.
8. Name the important properties of metals.
Answer Metals have higher strength, hardness, rigidity, toughness and better electrical and thermal
conductivity.
9. What is a phase diagram?
Answer A phase diagram shows phases of an alloy system along with its composition and temperature
of occurrence.
10. What are solidus and liquidus temperature?
Answer At solidus temperature, solid metal starts melting and at liquidus temperature the melting
process is complete.
TRUE/FALSE STATEMENTS
Choose true and false statements from the following.
1. Aluminium is a lighter non-ferrous metal.
2. Foundations are made of ferrous metals.
3. Alcohol is an inorganic material.
4. The atomic packing factor for fcc structure is 0.68.
5. Aluminium and copper have bcc structure.
6. Ionic bond is formed by sharing of electrons.
7. Covalent bond is non-directional.
8. Covalent bonds are weaker than metallic bonds.
9. Ionic solids are good conductors of electricity.
10. A crystal contains many unit cells.
ANSWERS
1. T 2. T 3. F 4. F 5. F 6. F
7. F 8. F 9. F 10. T.
REVIEW QUESTIONS
1. What is the basic element present in ferrous materials?
2. What are metalloids?
3. Differentiate between organic and inorganic materials.
4. What is meant by atomic arrangement?
5. What is atomic packing factor? What is its value for face-centered cubic crystal?
6. Differentiate between a unit cell and a crystal.
7. What is Bragg’s law? What is its use?
8. What are the important properties of an ionic bond?
9. What is bond energy? What does its higher value indicate?
10. What is meant by crystal imperfection?
11. Differentiate between substitutional and interstitial imperfections.
12. Name the fundamental particles of a material.
13. What are miller indices?
14. Name three metals having fcc crystal structure.
15. What are the important characteristics of non-ferrous materials?
16. Why is it difficult to select a particular material?

17. FCC structure has highest formability. Why?
18. In what respect are non-ferrous metals superior over ferrous metals?
19. Name the three fundamental particles of an atom.
20. What does a lower value of atomic packing factor indicate?
21. What are the important characteristics of a metalloid?
22. Differentiate between metals and non-metals.
ManufacturingTechnology
C H A P T E R
2
Properties of Materials
PHYSICAL PROPERTIES OF MATERIALS

• Physical properties do not involve mechanical forces. Important physical properties of a material
include specific heat, density, specific gravity, thermal conductivity, melting point and electrical
conductivity.
Specific heat
• The specific heat of a material is defined as the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature
of a unit mass of the material through unity.
• For a material of mass m with rise in temperature Δ t due to heat supplied Q, the specific heat
is given as
Q
C= ⋅
mΔt
• The SI unit of specific heat is Joule/Kg-K.
• There are two types of specific heats, one at constant pressure, CP and other at constant volume,
CV .
• In case of solids and liquids, the difference between CP and CV is negligible on account of very
little expansion and therefore, these materials have only one specific heat.
• In case of gases, there exists a finite difference between CP and CV , given by
CP – CV = R
where, R = Universal gas constant.
The above relationship was first discovered by Mayor in 1842 and is strictly valid for ideal gases.
For real gases, the relationship is nearly true at moderate pressures.
• The specific heat is a function of temperature and has zero value at 0 K.
• Specific heat consideration is important for casting, where heat is required to be removed during
the solidification process and heat treatment, where materials are heated and cooled at desired rates
in order to impart them the desired characteristics.
• Specific heats for some solid and liquid materials are shown in Tables 2.1 and 2.2.
Table 2.1 Specific heats of some solid materials
Material Specific heat Specific heat

(Cal/gram-oC) (Joules/Kg-K)
Aluminium 2.21 9251
Brass 0.09 377
Copper 0.093 389
Gold 0.03 126
Glass 0.1-0.2 419-837
Iron 0.112 470
Lead 0.031 130
Sand 0.19 795
Silver 0.056 234
Zinc 0.033 138
Tin 3.055 12788
Table 2.2 Specific heats of some liquid materials
Material Specific heat Specific heat

(Cal/gram-oC) (Joules/Kg-K)
Alcohol 0.55 2302
Glycerine 0.58 2428
Paraffin oil 0.51 2135
Mustard oil 9.50 39767
Mercury 0.033 138
Terpentine 0.43 1800
Water 1.00 4186
Density and specific gravity

• The density or mass density of a material is defined as the mass contained in its unit volume.
It is denoted by rho (ρ) and has the SI unit of kg ⁄ m3.
• Density of solids as well as liquids decreases with rise in temperature.
• Water has its maximum density at 4oC.
• The specific gravity of a material is the ratio of its mass density to the mass density of a standard
material. For liquids, the standard material is water at 4oC and for gases either air or hydrogen
at 0oC.
• The specific gravity, because of being a ratio of two densities, is a dimensionless quantity and
hence has no units.
• The specific gravity of mercury is 13.6, which means that mercury is 13.6 times heavier than water.
• Density and specific gravity considerations are important where weight reduction is of prime con-
sideration especially for aircraft and automobile industries. Also, they are important for components
where energy consumption and power limitations are major considerations.
• Density of some important materials is shown in Table 2.3.
Properties of Materials 2.3
Table 2.3 Densities of some metals
Material Density (kg/m3)

Aluminium 2700
Copper 8970
Glass 2500
Iron 7870
Lead 11350
Magnesium 1740
Nickel 8920
Steel 7870
Tin 7310
Zinc 7150
Thermal conductivity
• Thermal conductivity is required to conduct heat through a metal.
• It is measured in terms of coefficient of thermal conductivity. Higher value of this coefficient is
indicative of being a good conductor of heat.
• Metals have higher thermal conductivity. Insulators are poor conductors of heat.
• It has the SI unit of watt . m– 1 . K – 1.
• Factors affecting thermal conductivity of a material include its molecular structure, specific gravity,
moisture content and temperature.
• Thermal conductivity is used in the analysis of heat transfer in casting, welding, hot working operations
and heat-treatment of metals.
Melting point
• Melting point is that temperature at which a material melts to flow like a liquid.
• Metals have only one melting point but alloys have a range of melting points.
• Low melting point metals and alloys are widely used in casting for making cast products.
• Higher melting point materials can be used in machining for making cutting tools which can be
operated at higher cutting speeds. Tungsten has the highest melting point in the metal group and
is widely used in making non-consumable electrodes.
Electrical conductivity
• Electrical conductivity helps to flow electric current through a material.
• Metals have higher electrical conductivity. Insulators do not conduct electricity.
• Copper and aluminium have higher electrical conductivity as compared to other metals and hence
are used in making electrical components.
• Electrical conductivity is utilised in welding operation to join the metals. Resistance welding uses
this property tremendously.
• Non-conventional machining methods such as electrochemical machining, electrochemical grinding
and electrical discharge machining are directly dependent on the use of electrical conductivity of
work material and tool electrode.
MECHANICAL PROPERTIES OF MATERIALS

• Mechanical properties of a material are related to the effect of external forces.
• Tensile strength, compressive strength, ductility, malleability, torsional strength, hardness, creep and
fatigue are important mechanical properties.
Tensile strength
• Tensile strength of a material is its ability to
support tension load without rupture. It is deter-
mined by conducting tension test on a 50 mm
gauge length mild steel test specimen.
• During the test, load and elongation are measured
which are used to draw stress-strain curves. Such
a curve is shown in Figure 2.1.
Different points shown in the curve stand for:
p Limit of proportionality
e Elastic limit
Yu Yield point (upper)
Yl Yield point (lower) Figure 2.1 : Engineering stress-strain
U Ultimate point curve for mild steel.
f Failure point.
• Upto the limit of proportionality, Hooke’s law is strictly obeyed, that is, stress is directly proportional
to strain and the material regains its original condition once the external load applied is removed
from it.
• Elastic limit is another point which obeys Hooke’s law. But the returning of the material back
to its original condition is slightly slower as compared to limit of proportionality on the removal
of external load.
• Yield point is the stage beyond which the material no longer remains in the elastic state and it
reaches in the plastic state. Hooke’s law is not valid for this region. Stress corresponding to yield
point is called yield stress.
• Ultimate point is the stage at which a material can take maximum load without failure. Stress
corresponding to ultimate point is called ultimate
stress which is the maximum stress induced in
the material.
• Failure point is the stage at which material fails.
Before this stage reaches, the material suffers
from neck formation, which indicates the drastic
reduction in cross-section of the test specimen.
• The stress-strain curve is based on the original
cross-sectional area of the test specimen and the
slope of the curve gives the modulus of elasticity
(E) of the test material.
• The result of tension test conducted on a cast
iron test specimen is shown in Figure 2.2. Yield Figure 2.2 : Result of tension test on a
point is determined by using offset strain (usually cast iron test specimen.
0.2%). The point of intersection of the line drawn parallel to Op with the curve gives the position
of yield point.
• Engineering stress is based on original cross-sectional area of the test specimen and is defined
as
Load applied
Engineering stress = ⋅
Original cross−sectional area
• True stress is based on the actual cross-sectional area of the test specimen which changes with
change in load and is defined as
Load applied
True stress = ⋅
Instantaneous cross−sectional area
• Engineering strain is defined as the ratio of change in length of the test specimen to its original
length and is given by
lf – lo
Engineering strain =
lo
where lf = Final length
lo = Original length.
• True strain, also called natural or logarithmic strain is defined by the following equation:
⎛ li ⎞
True strain = logn ⎜ ⎟
⎝ lo ⎠
where li = Instantaneous length.
• True stress-strain curve is based on the actual
cross-sectional area of the test specimen.
Such a curve under tension test is shown
in Figure 2.3. It is observed that for a certain
value of strain, true stress is higher than en-
gineering stress.
• The equation, σ = K . ∈n is used to represent
a true stress-strain curve where
σ = stress, ∈ = strain
K = strength co−efficient
and n = strain-hardening exponent; its higher
value is indicative of the relative ease with Figure 2.3 : True and Engineering
which a material can be deformed before stress-strain curves.
neck formation. The value of n is equal to
1 for engineering stress-strain curve, where K = E. The value is not equal to 1 for true stress-strain
curve.
• Compressive strength of a material is its ability to withstand compressive loads without rupture.
It is determined by conducting a compression test on a test specimen of bigger cross-section to
prevent its buckling during the test. Cast iron has better compressive strength than mild steel whereas
mild steel has better tensile strength than cast iron.
Ductility
• Ductility of a material is its ability to be drawn into wire without rupture. The higher ductility
of the material is indicative of its ability to sustain higher tensile strain. Ductility increases with
increase in temperature. It can be measured by two parameters. The first parameter called percentage
elongation is defined as
lf – lo
Percentage elongation = × 100
lo
The second parameter is based on change in the cross-sectional area of the test specimen, defined
as
Ao – Af
Percentage reduction in area = × 100
Ao
where Ao = Original cross−sectional area
Af = Final cross−sectional area
Reduction in area is 0% for brittle materials and 100% for extremely plastic materials.
Torsional strength
• Torsional strength of a material is its ability to withstand twisting moment and is measured by
conducting a torsion test. Torsional shear strength for a solid and a hollow cylindrical test specimen
is expressed as
16T
τ= (for solid specimen)
πd 3
16T do
= (for hollow specimen)
π (do4 – di4)
where T = Twisting moment
d = Diameter of solid specimen
do = Outside diameter of hollow specimen
di = Inside diameter of hollow specimen.
Hardness
• Hardness of a material is its ability to resist penetration or indentation. There are three important
hardness testing methods, namely, Brinell hardness, Rockwell hardness and Vickers hardness. Brinell
test uses a spherical hardened steel or tungsten carbide ball of diameter 10 mm as indenter which
is pressed against the material to be tested. Brinell hardness number is obtained by using the formula
2F
BHN =
πD (D – √
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
D2 – d 2 )
where F = Load applied (kg)
D = Diameter of steel ball = 10 mm
d = Diameter of indentation.
Rockwell test uses a small diameter steel ball or a diamond-tipped cone of included angle-120o
as the indenter. It is based on the depth of penetration rather than the diameter of indentation,
as in case of Brinell test. Vickers test uses a square-based diamond pyramid of apex angle-136o
as the indenter and is able to measure the hardness of very soft materials. Vickers hardness number
is obtained by using the formula
F
VHN = 1.854
d2
where d = Diagonal of the identation made on the test specimen.
Hardness of a material decreases with rise in temperature. Hot hardness is the ability of a material
by virtue of which it retains its hardness at elevated temperatures.
Creep
• Creep is a time dependent deformation under static loading condition.
• It is a very slow process especially at room temperature but is fast at elevated temperatures. Pistons
of internal combustion engines, boilers and steam pipes which are in use for long time, due to
load and high pressure, are subjected to creep at increased temperatures.
• The test specimen under creep test is subjected to a constant tensile load at constant temperature
and the increase in its length is measured for a certain period of time.
• There are three important stages of creep. The primary stage occurs at low temperatures and is
short-lived. The secondary stage occurs at elevated temperatures and is long lasting. The tertiary
stage is short-lived and is the stage just before failure.
Fatigue
• Fatigue failure occurs when a material is subjected to cyclic or periodic loading.
• Stresses in fatigue reach their maximum and minimum values after regular interval of time.
• Endurance limit is the maximum stress a material can take before its fatigue failure and varies
between 0.3 to 0.5 times its ultimate stress.
• Majority of the mechanical failures are due to fatigue. Wings of aeroplanes, connecting rods of
internal combustion engines and leaf springs of automobiles fail due to fatigue failure.

1. Durometer is used to measure
(a) ductility of a material (b) hardness of a brittle material
(c) toughness of a brittle material (d) hardness of rubber.
2. Knoop hardness test is used to measure the hardness of
(a) ductile materials (b) fragile materials
(c) difficult-to-machine materials (d) rubber.

(i) Resilience — Resistance to deformation
(ii) Malleability — Shape change
(iii) Creep — Progressive deformation

(iv) Plasticity — Permanent deformation.
Codes:
(a) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) (d) (i), (iii) and (iv).
4. The property by which an amount of energy is absorbed by a material without plastic deformation
is called
(a) Toughness (b) Impact strength
(c) Ductility (d) Resilience.
5. Which one of the following properties is more sensitive to increase in strain rate?
(a) Yield strength (b) Proportional limit
(c) Elastic limit (d) Tensile strength.
List I List II
(Mechanical properties) (Meaning of properties)
A. Ductility 1. Resistance to indentation
B. Hardness 2. Ability to absorb energy during plastic
deformation
C. Malleability 3. Percentage of elongation
D. Toughness 4. Ability to be rolled into flat products
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 4 3 2
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 3 1 4 2.
List I List II
(Property) (Testing machine)
A. Tensile strength 1. Rotating bending machine
B. Impact strength 2. Three-point loading machine
C. Bending strength 3. Universal testing machine
D. Fatigue strength 4. Izod testing machine
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 3 2 1 4
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 3 4 2 1.
8. Which of the following materials is highly elastic?

(a) Rubber (b) Brass
(c) Steel (d) Glass.
9. Rockwell hardness test uses

(a) depth of penetration of indenter (b) surface area of indentation
(c) projected area of indentation (d) height of rebound.
List I List II
(Mechanical property) (Related to)
A. Malleability 1. Wire drawing
B. Hardness 2. Impact loads
C. Resilience 3. Cold rolling
D. Isotropy 4. Indentation
5. Direction
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 2 1 3
(b) 3 4 2 5
(c) 5 4 2 3
(d) 3 2 1 5.
List I List II
A. Toughness 1. Static loading for long period
B. Endurance strength 2. Hardness
C. Resistance to abrasion 3. Energy absorbed before fracture
D. Creep 4. Fatigue loading
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 3 4 1 2.
12. The highest stress that a material can withstand for a specified length of time without excessive
deformation is called
(a) fatigue strength (b) endurance strength
(c) creep strength (d) creep rupture strength.
List I List II
(Material properties) (Test)
A. Ductility 1. Impact test
B. Toughness 2. Fatigue test
C. Endurance limit 3. Tension test
D. Resistance to penetration 4. Hardness test
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 2 1 4
(b) 4 2 1 3
(c) 3 1 2 4
(d) 4 1 2 3.
14. During tensile-testing of a specimen using a Universal Testing Machine, the parameters actually
measured include
(a) true stress and true strain
(b) Poisson’s ratio and Young’s modulus
(c) engineering stress and engineering strain
(d) load and elongation.
15. Increasing temperature has the following effects on stress-strain curves:
(i) It increases ductility and toughness.
(ii) It increases ductility but reduces toughness.
(iii) It lowers yield stress and modulus of elasticity.
(iv) It increases yield stress but modulus of elasticity remains unaffected.
(a) (i) is true (b) (i) and (iii) are true
(c) (ii) and (iv) are true (d) (iii) and (iv) are true.
16. Superplastic behaviour is observed in
(a) Steel and cast iron (b) Aluminium, Zinc and Magnesium
(c) Bubble gum, glass and thermoplastics (d) Cement and bricks.
17. ‘It refers to the capability of some materials to undergo very large elongation before failure which
can be of the order of few hundred percent to as much as 2000 percent’. This is context of
(a) Plasticity (b) Elasticity (c) Superplasticity (d) Superelasticity.
18. Bauschinger effect is concerned with
(a) tension (b) compression
(c) both tension and compression (d) shear.
19. The yield stress in compression is lower than that in tension. This property is called
(a) elastic effect (b) plastic effect
(c) superplastic effect (d) Bauschinger effect.
20. Which of the following tests is also called ‘Microhardness test’?

(a) Brinell test (b) Rockwell test
(c) Knoop test (d) Vickers test.
21. The numerical value ‘1’ in Mohs hardness test indicates
(a) diamond (b) talc
(c) cast iron (d) hardened steel.
22. The numerical value ‘10’ in Mohs hardness test is used to indicate
(a) diamond (b) talc
(c) cast iron (d) hardened steels.
23. S-N curves are connected to
(a) creep (b) fatigue
(c) hardness (d) toughness.
24. Cyclic stress is connected to
(a) creep (b) tension
(c) fatigue (d) compression.
25. Charpy and Izod tests are used to measure
(a) hardness (b) toughness
(c) hot hardness (d) brittleness.
26. Superconductivity is observed at
(a) 0o C (b) 273oC (c) 0K (d) 100 K.
27. Dielectrics have
(a) low electrical resistivity (b) low thermal resistivity
(c) high electrical resistivity (d) high thermal resistivity.
28. Silicon and Germanium
(a) are superconducting materials (b) are semiconducting materials
(c) are ferromagnetic materials (d) show Piezoelectric effect.
ANSWERS
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (d)
7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (b) 11. (c) 12. (c)
13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (c)
19. (d) 20. (c) 21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (c)
25. (b) 26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (b).

1. Why do solids have only one specific heat whereas gases have two?
Answer The thermal expansion of solids is very low as compared to that of liquids.
2. How is true stress different from engineering stress?

Answer True stress is obtained by dividing force by the instantaneous value of cross-sectional
area. Engineering stress is defined as the force divided by the original cross-sectional area. There
is no change in cross-sectional area of the test specimen till it reaches the ultimate point and hence
the two stresses are same upto that point. After ultimate point, neck formation starts, cross-sectional
area starts decreasing and actual stress tends to increase while there is no change in the value
of engineering stress throughout the test.
3. Differentiate between elastic and plastic zones.

Answer Elastic zone is characterised by Hooke’s law. Stress varies in linear proportion to strain.
The equation for elastic zone is
σ = E∈
where E = Modulus of elasticity
σ = Stress
∈ = Strain.
In plastic zone, Hooke’s law is not obeyed and stress is not linearly proportional to strain. The
material has already crossed the yield point in this region. The equation for the plastic zone is
given by
σ = K∈n
where K = Strength co−efficient
n = Strain hardening exponent.
4. What is true strain?

Answer It is defined as the instantaneous elongation per unit length of the test specimen. Math-
ematically it is expressed as
l
dl
∈t = ∫
l
l0
l (l = Instantaneous length at any moment

= logn ⋅ l0 = Original length)
l0
5. What is true stress?

Answer True stress is obtained by dividing load by the instantaneous value of cross-sectional
area. Since the area gradually changes after the ultimate point, the true stress keeps on changing.
6. Write down the relationship between true strain and engineering strain and between true stress
and engineering stress.
Answer The true strain-engineering strain relationship is
∈t = logn (1 + ∈)
The true stress-engineering stress relationship is
σt = σ (1 + ∈).
7. When does neck formation start?

Answer Neck formation starts just after ultimate strength. During this period, the rate of increase
of strain is very high which helps in the flow of metal.
8. What is strain hardening? How does the strength of a metal increase due to strain hardening?
Answer Strain hardening is the process in which strength of a metal increases in its cold state
due to strain produced in it. It is also known as work hardening.
9. Draw the stress-strain curves for the following materials:

(i) Perfectly elastic
(ii) Elastic and perfectly plastic
(iii) Elastic with strain hardening effect.
Answer
Figure 2.4
10. What is the significance of modulus of elasticity?

Answer Modulus of elasticity is indicative of stiffness of a material. Its higher value indicates
more stiffness.
11. Draw the engineering stress-strain curve obtained during a compression test.
Answer
Figure 2.5
12. Draw the shear stress-shear strain curve for a torsion test.
Answer
Figure 2.6
13. How is elastic deformation of a material different from plastic deformation?

Answer In elastic deformation, the material regains its original conditions after the removal of
deforming forces. In plastic deformation, the material is permanently deformed and the original
conditions are not restored on the removal of deformation forces.
14. What is durometer?
Answer Durometer is used to measure the hardness of soft materials such as rubber and plastics.
15. When is a cemented carbide ball used in Brinell hardness test?
Answer A cemented carbide ball is used to measure the hardness of harder materials for which
Brinell hardness number may exceed 500.
16. How is toughness of a material different than its hardness?

Answer Toughness of a material is its ability to absorb impact or shock without undergoing
permanent deformations whereas hardness is its ability to resist indentation or scratching.
17. Why do materials having fcc structure offer high formability?

Answer Face-centered cubic (fcc) crystals have slipping tendency which makes them highly ductile
resulting in increased formability.
18. Arrange the following materials in the increasing order of their hot hardness.
Low carbon steel, High carbon steel, Ceramic, High-alloy steel.
Answer Ceramic > High alloy steel > High carbon steel > Low carbon steel.
19. What is the importance of recrystallisation temperature?

Answer Heating of a material near its recrystallisation temperature drastically reduces force and
power requirements needed for its shaping.
20. Why is the outer skin of a shuttle spacecraft usually lined with ceramic materials?
Answer During the passage of a spacecraft through atmosphere, a lot of frictional heat is generated
due to its high velocity. Ceramics have higher hot hardness and hence can withstand very high
temperatures.
21. What is viscoelasticity?

Answer It is a time dependent deformation process resulting from both viscosity and elasticity.
1. Mechanical properties are related to external forces.
2. Stress and pressure have same units.
3. Yield point occurs in the elastic zone.
4. Hardness resists scratching or indentation.
o
5. Density of water is maximum at 100 C.
6. Specific gravity has the unit of density.
7. Engineering stress differs from actual stress.
8. Strain hardening is observed at increased temperatures.
9. Poisson’s ratio for cork is zero.

10. Offset effect is observed in ductile materials.
11. Creep is a time-dependent deformation process.
12. Viscoelasticity is the combination of viscosity and elasticity.

13. Rockwell hardness test uses a spherical cemented carbide ball.
14. Elastic materials are very much suitable for forming operations.
15. A ceramic has elasticity but lacks plasticity.
ANSWERS
1. T 2. T 3. F 4. T 5. F 6. F
7. T 8. F 9. T 10. F 11. T 12. T
13. F 14. F 15. T.
NUMERICAL PROBLEMS
Problem 2.1 A 10 mm diameter hardened steel ball is used to test the hardness of a material
under a load of 1000 kg. The diameter of the indentation produced is 2.5 mm. Find the Brinell
hardness number (BHN) of the material.
Solution Given,
Diameter of steel ball, D = 10 mm
Diameter of indentation, d = 2.5 mm
Load, F = 1000 kg
The BHN is found by using the formula

2F
BHN =
πD (D – √
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
D2 – d 2 )
2 × 1000
=
π × 10 (10 – √
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ ⎯2)
102 – 2.5
= 200.48 Ans.
REVIEW QUESTIONS
1. Enlist important physical properties of a material.
2. Gases have two specific heats while solids have only one. Why?
3. Gases have two specific heats: One at constant pressure (CP) and another at constant volume (CV).
Why is CP greater than CV ?
4. What is the importance of specific heat in the manufacturing system?

5. Explain the importance of thermal conductivity in a manufacturing system.
6. What are the three important modes of heat transfer?
7. Why are metals good conductor of heat and electricity?

8. Why is water considered as a standard liquid for defining specific gravity of a material?
9. How does specific gravity differ from density?
10. What is the significance of specific heat?

11. What is the effect of temperature on specific heat?
12. Why is density important in manufacturing?
13. Differentiate between physical and mechanical properties of a material.

14. Enlist the important mechanical properties.
15. Differentiate between limit of proportionality and elastic limit.
16. What is offset strain?
17. How is plastic deformation different than elastic deformation?
18. Differentiate between engineering strain and true strain.
19. What is stress? How does it differ from pressure?
20. Draw the engineering stress-strain curve for low carbon steel and indicate the important points
on the curve.
21. Draw the engineering stress-strain curve for cast iron and indicate the important points on the curve.
22. What is the significance of yield point?

23. What is ductility? How is it measured?
24. Why is it difficult to conduct a compression test?

25. What is hardness? How is it measured?
26. Differentiate hardness and toughness.
27. How is Brinell hardness number (BHN) defined? What is the significance of low or high value
of BHN?
28. What is creep? What are the three important stages of creep? What is the effect of temperature
on creep?
29. What is torsional rigidity? What does it indicate?
30. What is endurance limit? Why does the fatigue failure occur at a stress far below the normal stress?
31. How is creep different from fatigue?

32. What is strain hardening? What is its effect?
33. What is the significance of Poisson’s ratio?
34. What is Poisson’s ratio? Indicate its values for the following materials: Cork, Cement and Rubber.
C H A P T E R
3
Ferrous Materials and Their Heat Treatment
• Iron is the basic constituent of ferrous materials. It has the melting point of 1539oC and the specific
gravity of 7.87.
• Pure iron is rarely found in nature. In pure state it lacks strength but its strength can be increased
by alloying. Pure iron finds application in making magnets.
• Two important ores of iron are: haematite (Fe2O3) and magnetite (Fe3O4).
• Cast iron, steel and stainless steel are important ferrous materials.
• Iron contains various alloying elements, important among them includes carbon, manganese, chromium,
nickel, molybdenum and vanadium.
• Ferrous materials have the maximum application in manufacturing industries on account of their
better mechanical properties.
• Wrought iron is considered the purest form of iron. Iron content in wrought iron is about 99.9%.
Wrought iron gets its name from the fact that all the shapes are obtained by hammering or pressing
it. Wrought iron is difficult to cast. It has the ability to absorb shock and finds applications in
making chains, cranes and hooks.
• Pig iron is the product of blast furnace.
• Steel is an alloy of iron and carbon. Important alloying elements to be added in steel include chromium,
nickel, manganese, molybdenum, silicon, vanadium and tungsten.
• Carbon steel, sometimes also called plain carbon steel, is an alloy of iron and carbon with small
percentage of manganese, silicon, sulphur and phosphorous.
• There are three types of carbon steel based on the carbon content. The first type, called low carbon
steel, also called mild steel, contains less than 0.30% carbon and lacks strength but is easier to
weld. Nuts, bolts, plates and tubes are typical products made out of mild steel. The second type
is called medium carbon steel and contains carbon in between 0.30% and 0.60%. It has more strength
than mild steel and finds applications in making connecting rods, crankshafts, gears and axles.
The third type is called high carbon steel and contains highest carbon as compared to other two
types. Carbon content in high carbon steel is greater than 0.6% and may go up to 1.7%. High
carbon steel has maximum strength in its category but reduced weldability. Typical products made
out of high carbon steel include cutting tools, springs, blades and cutlery.
• Alloy steel contains alloying elements in substantial amount in addition to carbon being in greater
percentage. There are two types of alloy steel: low alloy steel and high alloy steel. The former
contains less than 10% alloy whereas the latter more than 10% alloy.
• Stainless steel is an important alloy steel. The major characteristics of stainless steel is its corrosion
resistance which is due to the presence of chromium (usually above 15%). Increased carbon content
reduces its corrosion resistance property by forming chromium carbide, thus reducing the chromium
content. Important stainless steel products include kitchen equipments, cutlery and surgical instruments.
• Important types of stainless steel include austenitic, ferritic, martensitic, duplex and precipation har-
dening steel.
• High speed steel (HSS) is highly alloyed tool steel and finds major applications in making cutting
tools. Before the advent of other cutting tool materials, they were the only materials offering very
high cutting speeds and hence were so named. They have better hot hardness and retain their hardness
even at temperatures of about 600oC.
• There are two series of high speed steel: M series and T series. The M series has higher content
of Molybdenum (upto about 10%) and the T series is tungsten based (12 to 18%). 18-4-1 type
of HSS contains 18% tungsten, 4% chromium and 1% vanadium and is the most widely used T-series
HSS.
ALLOYING ELEMENTS ADDED TO STEEL

• In general, alloying increases strength and hardness of a metal.
• Chromium increases the hardening properties of steel significantly along with improving its corrosion
resistance.
• Nickel improves corrosion resistance of steel. Also if added in larger quantity it leads to greater
strength and toughness.
• Molybdenum is used to increase hardenability (significantly), toughness, hot hardness and creep
strength of steel. It also improves wear resistance by forming abrasion resisting particles (carbides).
• Manganese increases hardenability of steel if added in increased quantity.
• Vanadium improves toughness and wear resistance of steel.
• Tin is used to make steel sheet corrosion resistant by forming a silvery white protective coating
over it. For example, tin cans are used for the storage of food items.
• Cobalt increases red hardness by hardening ferrite.
• Tungsten, if added in large quantity, improves hot strength and hot hardness which is useful for
cutting tools.
• Silicon improves the oxidation resistance of steel. The resulting steel is called silicon steel which
is used for magnetic applications.
PHASE DIAGRAM
• A phase diagram shows the composition and phases of an alloy system with respect to temperature.
Tin-lead phase diagram is useful for solding. Iron-carbon phase diagram is a very important phase
diagram which has wider commercial applications.
Ferrous Materials and Their Heat Treatment 3.3
• Ferrite, also known as α-iron, exists between room temperature and 723oC. It has maximum carbon
solubility of 0.022% at 723oC. It is soft and ductile and has bcc structure.
• Austenite, also known as γ-iron, exists between 912 and 1400oC and is stable form of iron.
It has fcc structure and is most suitable for manufacturing applications. It has maximum carbon
solubility of 2.11% at 1130oC. Ferrite transforms to austenite at 912oC.
• δ-iron is formed from γ-iron at 1394oC. It has the maximum carbon solubility of 0.1% at
1490oC. It has bcc structure.
• Cementite, also called iron carbide (Fe3C), has maximum carbon content of 6.67%. It is hard and
brittle and has orthorhombic structure.
• Pearlite consists of ferrite and cementite. It is formed when austenite is cooled below 723oC.
• Eutectic reaction occurs at 1147oC. The eutectic composition has 4.3% carbon and the eutectoid
composition has 0.77% carbon.
• Eutectoid steel contains (0.77%) carbon.
• Hypo-eutectoid steels contain less than (0.77%) carbon.
• Hyper-eutectoid steels contain more than 0.77% carbon. The highest limit of carbon is 2.11%.
• The conversion process of austenite to ferrite and cementite is called eutectoid reaction and it occurs
at 723oC.
HEAT TREATMENT OF FERROUS METALS

• Heat treatment implies heating and cooling of a metal in its solid state to bring some changes
in its existing properties. Some of the important objectives of heat treatment include internal stress
relieving, reducing grain size, increasing toughness, increasing or decreasing hardness and increasing
corrosion resistance characteristics of the metals and alloys.
• Tempering Tempering reduces hardness, brittleness and residual stresses and improves ductility
and toughness. Hardened steel, which contains martensite as the chief constituent, is subjected to
tempering to bring the above listed changes by heating it below the critical temperature followed
by cooling at a definite rate.
• Annealing It involves heating of the steel above critical temperature, keeping it at that temperature
for certain time and finally cooling it very slowly. It eliminates internal stress, reduces hardness
and brittleness and softens steel to make it suitable for machining. Full annealing completely eliminates
the previous characteristics of the metal. It is very time consuming because of its extremely slow
cooling rate in the furnace.
• Normalising In normalising, the hot steel is held at heated temperature for some time and then
allowed to cool in air. Strength of the metal is increased due to grain refinement.
• Normalising offers differential rate of cooling due to air cooling but annealing has uniform cooling
rate due to furnace cooling. Different modes of cooling produces different characteristics in the
metal.
• Spheroidising It consists of slow heating of steel below the critical temperature and holding
it in that temperature for prolonged time followed by slow cooling. It produces cementite in the
form of small spheroids. It improves the toughness of steel.
• Hardening Hardening is carried out by heating the steel near its critical temperature followed
by fast cooling in water, oil or brine solution. This process ensures uniform hardness from all
the sides and is also called quenching.
• Surface hardening, also called case hardening, increases only the hardness of a certain layer (called
skin or case) of low carbon steel without affecting its interior part. The purpose is to increase
the wear resistance of the surface while keeping the interior tougher. Important surface hardening
methods include carburising, cyaniding and nitriding.
• In carburising, surface hardness is obtained by absorption and diffusion when low carbon steel
is heated in a carbon-rich environment above the critical temperature. It finds application in the
hardening of gears, bearings and camshafts.
• Pack, gas and liquid are three important carburising methods. Low carbon steel is immersed in
a hot molten bath of sodium cyanide in cyaniding which produces the surface hardness on account
of absorption of nitrogen and carbon both. Screws, nuts and bolts and small gears are hardened
by this method. In nitriding, low carbon steel is heated in the presence of ammonia. The nitrogen
of ammonia produces very hard surface by diffusion. Its typical applications include guides, gears,
valve seats and aircraft engine parts.
• Flame hardening It is a very economical and effective surface hardening method for large ferrous
machine parts using oxy-acetylene flame. Typical applications include ways of lathes, spindles, shafts,
pulleys and gear teeth.
• Induction hardening It uses induction principle to harden the surface of a metal. The induction
heated metal is cooled rapidly in water producing very hard and wear resistant surface.

1. Cast iron contains
(a) less than 0.6% of carbon (b) less than 2% of carbon
(c) between 2 to 4.5% of carbon (d) 6.7% of carbon.
2. What is the effect of carbon in steel?
(i) Hardness is increased.
(ii) Ductility is reduced.
(iii) Weldability is reduced.
(a) (i) is true (b) (iii) is true
(c) (i) and (ii) are true (d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are true.
3. Which of the following materials is brittle?
(a) Mild steel (b) Cast iron
(c) Stainless steel (d) High speed steel.
4. Which of the following cast irons contains graphite flakes?
(a) White cast iron (b) Nodular cast iron
(c) Malleable cast iron (d) Gray cast iron.
5. Which of the following elements is responsible for the formation of nodules in ductile iron?
(a) Copper (b) Zinc (c) Magnesium (d) Nickel.
6. How is white cast iron formed?

(a) By rapid heating of gray cast iron (b) By rapid cooling of gray cast iron
(c) By rapid cooling of ductile cast iron (d) By rapid cooling of nodular iron.
7. How is malleable iron formed?
(a) By rapid cooling of gray cast iron (b) By rapid cooling of white cast iron
(c) By annealing of white cast iron (d) By annealing of nodular iron.
8. Pure graphite contains
(a) zero percent of carbon (0%) (b) 2% of carbon
(c) 6.67% of carbon (d) 100% of carbon.
9. Which of the following components exists at room temperature?
(a) Delta iron (b) Gamma iron (c) Alpha iron (d) Cementite.
10. Which of the following components exists at melting point?
(a) Delta iron (b) Gamma iron (c) Alpha iron (d) Cementite.
11. Delta iron has the following crystal structure
(a) sc (b) bcc (c) fcc (d) hcp.
12. Gamma iron has the following crystal structure
13. Alpha iron has the following crystal structure
14. The curie temperature for iron is
(a) 1539oC (b) 768oC (c) 768oF (d) 659oC.
15. Which of the following is the solid solution of carbon in gamma iron?
(a) Ferrite (b) Austenite (c) Pearlite (d) Cementite.
16. Which of the following is the solid solution of carbon in alpha iron?
17. Which of the following is an intermetallic compound?
18. Which of the following consists of ferrite and cementite?
19. Ledeburite consists of

(a) ferrite and austenite (b) austenite and cementite
(c) ferrite and cementite (d) only cementite.
20. Pearlite consists of

(a) ferrite and austenite (b) austenite and cementite
(c) ferrite and cementite (d) only cementite.
21. Cementite consists of

(a) 0.83% carbon (b) 6.67% carbon
(c) 0.5% carbon (d) 1.7% carbon.
22. If the steel contains less than 0.83% carbon, it is called
(a) high speed steel (b) low carbon steel
(c) hypoeutectoid steel (d) hypereutectoid steel.
23. If the steel contains more than 0.83% carbon, it is called
(a) high speed steel (b) low carbon steel
(c) hypoeutectoid steel (d) hypereutectoid steel.
24. An eutectic reaction results in
(a) austenite and ferrite (b) ferrite and cementite
(c) austenite and cementite (d) only cementite.
25. An eutectoid reaction results in
(a) austenite and ferrite (b) ferrite and cementite
(c) austenite and cementite (d) only cementite.
26. Which of the following compounds is very hard and brittle?
(a) Ferrite (b) Cementite (c) Austenite (d) Pearlite.
27. Which of the following components is very soft and ductile?
(a) Ferrite (b) Cementite (c) Austenite (d) Pearlite.
28. Consider the following statements about the presence of sulphur in steel:
(i) It makes steel very soft.
(ii) It has no effect on steel.
(iii) It makes steel brittle.
(iv) It lowers hot working temperature of steel.
(a) (i) is true (b) (iii) and (iv) are true
(c) (i) and (iv) are true (d) (ii) is true.
29. Which of the following components has needle like structure?
(a) Cementite (b) Pearlite (c) Martensite (d) Bainite.
30. Consider the following statements about annealing:

(i) It involves slow cooling in the furnace.
(ii) It refines grain structure and relieves internal stresses.
(iii) It involves cooling in the still air.
(iv) It softens the steel.
(a) (i) and (ii) are true (b) (ii) and (iii) are true
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) are true (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are true.
31. In high alloy steel, the total alloy content exceeds

(a) 2% (b) 5% (c) 7% (d) 10%.
32. Consider the following processes:

(i) Carburising (ii) Cyaniding
(iii) Tempering (iv) Nitriding
Which of the above processes is used for surface hardening?
(a) (i) (b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (i), (ii) and (iv).
(i) Carburising (ii) Cyaniding
(iii) Nitriding (iv) Carbonitriding
Which of the above processes uses carbon and nitrogen for case hardening of steel?
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (iv) (d) (ii) and (iii).
34. 18/8 stainless steel is an example of
(a) ferritic stainless steel (b) austenitic stainless steel
(c) martensitic stainless steel (d) precipitation hardening stainless steel.
List I List II
(Ferrous materials) (Carbon content)
A. Mild steel 1. 0.6 to 1.7%
B. High carbon steel 2. Less than 0.3%
C. Cast iron 3. 6.7%
D. Cementite 4. 2 to 4.5%
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 1 3
(b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 2 1 3 4.
List I List II
(Ferrous materials) (Characteristics)
A. Mild steel 1. Corrosion resistance
B. Cast iron 2. Hot hardness
C. High speed steel 3. Brittleness
D. Stainless steel 4. Ductility
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 2 3 4 1.
List I List II
(Ferrous materials) (Typical products)
A. Mild steel 1. Columns
B. High carbon steel 2. Cutting tools
C. Cast iron 3. Blades
D. High speed steel 4. Nuts and bolts
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 4 3 1 2.
38. 18/8 stainless steel contains
(a) 18% nickel, 8% chromium (b) 18% chromium, 8% nickel
(c) 18% tungsten, 8% nickel (d) 18% tungsten, 8% chromium.
39. Killed steels
(a) have minimum impurity level
(b) have almost zero percentage of phosphorus and sulphur
(c) are produced by LD process
(d) are free from oxygen.
40. Which of the following stainless steels contains maximum carbon content?
(a) Austenitic stainless steel (b) Martensitic stainless steel
(c) Ferritic stainless steel (d) Precipitation hardening stainless steel.
41. Eutectoid reaction occurs at

(a) 600oC (b) 723oC (c) 1147oC (d) 1493oC.
42. Addition of vanadium to steel results in improvement of
(a) heat-treatability by quenching
(b) hardenability
(c) fatigue strength
(d) resistance to oxidation at elevated temperature.
43. Which one of the following elements /pairs of elements are added to steel in small quantities to
increase its machinability?
(a) Nickel (b) Sulphur and phosphorus
(c) Silicon (d) Manganese and copper.
44. A given steel test specimen is studied under metallurgical microscope. Magnification is 100 times
and different phases are observed, one of them being Fe3C. The observed phase Fe3C is also known
as
(a) ferrite (b) cementite (c) austenite (d) martensite.
45. Eutectic reaction for iron-carbon system occurs at
(a) 600oC (b) 723oC (c) 1147oC (d) 1493oC.
46. Cast iron is used for machine beds because of its high
(a) tensile strength (b) endurance strength
(c) damping capacity (d) compressive strength.
47. Which of the following components is very hard and brittle?

(a) Ferrite (b) Austenite (c) Martensite (d) Cementite.
48. Which of the following iron is the purest one?
(a) Wrought iron (b) Pig iron (c) Electrolytic iron (d) Cast iron.
Addition of silicon to cast iron
(i) Promotes graphite nodule formation.
(ii) Promotes graphite flake formation.
(iii) Increases the fluidity of the molten metal.
(iv) Improves the ductility of cast iron.
(a) (i) and (iv) are true (b) (ii) and (iii) are true
(c) (i) and (iii) are true (d) (iii) and (iv) are true.
50. Machine tool guideways are usually hardened by

(a) vacuum hardening (b) martempering
(c) induction hardening (d) flame hardening.
51. Which of the following pairs regarding the effects of alloying elements in steel are correctly matched?
(i) Molybdenum—forms abrasion resisting particles.
(ii) Phosphorus—improves machinability in free cutting steels.
(iii) Cobalt—contributes to red hardness by hardening ferrite.
(iv) Silicon—reduces oxidation resistance.
(a) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (b) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii).
52. Guideways of lathe beds are hardened by

(a) carburising (b) cyaniding
(c) nitriding (d) flame hardening.
List I List II
(Heat treatment) (Effect)
A. Annealing 1. Refines grain structure
B. Nitriding 2. Improves the hardness of the whole mass
C. Martempering 3. Increases surface hardness
D. Normalising 4. Improves ductility
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 4 2 1 3
(d) 2 1 3 4.
54. Which of the following statements are true about annealing of steels?
(i) Steels are heated to 500 to 700oC.
(ii) Cooling is done slowly and steadily.
(iii) Internal stresses are relieved.
(iv) Ductility of steel is reduced.
Codes:
(a) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (b) (i), (iii) and (iv)
55. The objective of heat treatment is to change
(i) Physical properties of a metal.
(ii) Magnetic properties of a metal.
(iii) Electrical properties of a metal.
(iv) Mechanical properties of a metal.
(a) (i) is true (b) (ii) and (iii) are true
(c) (iv) is true (d) (iii) and (iv) are true.
56. Consider the following statements about annealing process:

(i) It reduces hardness and brittleness.
(ii) It reduces residual stresses induced due to strain hardening.
(iii) It improves formability.
(a) (i) is true (b) (i) and (ii) are true
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) are true (d) (ii) and (iii) are true.
57. In TTT curve
(a) time is shown on x-axis and temperature on y-axis
(b) time is shown on y-axis and temperature on x-axis
(c) time and temperature both are shown on x-axis
(d) time and temperature both are shown on y-axis.
58. Quenching involves
(a) very slow cooling (b) slow cooling
(c) rapid cooling (d) no cooling.
59. Surface hardening is principally employed for
(a) low carbon steel (b) medium carbon steel
(c) high carbon steel (d) cast iron.
60. Which of the following is a surface hardening process?
(i) Nitriding (ii) Carburising
(iii) Carbonitriding
Of these
(a) (i) is true (b) (ii) is true
(c) (i) and (iii) are true (d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are true.
61. Carburising uses the following materials for surface hardening:
(i) Charcoal (ii) Hydrocarbons
(iii) Sodium cyanide
Of these
62. Liquid carburising uses
(i) Hydrocarbons (ii) Sodium cyanide
(iii) Charcoal
Of these
(c) (i) and (ii) are true (d) (ii) and (iii) are true.
63. Pack carburising uses
(a) sodium cyanide (b) charcoal
(c) hydrocarbons (d) calcium carbide.
64. Gas carburising uses
(a) sodium cyanide (b) charcoal
(c) hydrocarbons (d) calcium carbide.
65. Carburising uses the following compounds for heat treatment of metals:
(i) Nitrogen compounds (ii) Carbon compounds
(iii) Compounds of carbon and nitrogen both
Of these
(c) (iii) is true (d) None is true.
66. Nitriding uses the following compounds for heat treatment of metals:
Of these
67. Carbonitriding uses the following compounds for heat treatment of metals:
Of these
68. The typical depth of hardness obtained by flame hardening method is
(a) 8.5 mm (b) 5.0 mm (c) 2.5 mm (d) 4.5 mm.
69. Which of the following materials is surface hardened by flame hardening:

(i) Plain carbon steels (ii) Tool steels
(iii) Cast iron
Of these
70. Consider the following parameters:
(i) Normalising (ii) Hardening
(iii) Martempering (iv) Cold working
Hardness and tensile strength in austenitic stainless steel can be increased by
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (iv).
71. In low carbon steels, presence of small quantities of sulphur improves
(a) weldability (b) formability (c) machinability (d) hardenability.
72. Addition of magnesium to cast iron increases its
(a) hardness (b) ductility and strength in tension
(c) corrosion resistance (d) creep strength.
73. Gibb’s phase rule is given by (F = number of degrees of freedom, C = number of components,
P = number of phases)
(a) F = C + P (b) F = C + P – 2
(c) F = C – P – 2 (d) F = C – P + 2.
List I List II
(Name of material) (% carbon range)
A. Hypo-eutectoid steel 1. 4.3-6.67
B. Hyper-eutectoid steel 2. 2.0-4.3
C. Hypo-eutectic cast iron 3. 0.8-2.0
D. Hyper-eutectic cast iron 4. 0.008-0.8
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 4 1 2 3
(d) 1 2 3 4.
75. Percentage of various alloying elements present in different steel materials are given below:
(i) 18% W, 4% Cr, 1% V, 5% Co, 0.7% C.
(ii) 8% Mo, 4% Cr, 2% V, 6% W, 0.7% C.
(iii) 27% Cr, 3% Ni, 5% Mo, 0.25% C.
(iv) 18% Cr, 8% Ni, 0.15% C.
Which of these relate to that of high speed steel?
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iv).
76. The blade of a power saw is made of
(a) boron steel (b) high speed steel
(c) stainless steel (d) malleable cast iron.
List I List II
(Steel type) (Product)
A. Mild steel 1. Screw driver
B. Tool steel 2. Commercial beams
C. Medium carbon steel 3. Crane hooks
D. High carbon steel 4. Blanking dies
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 4 3 2
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 1 3 4 2
(d) 2 4 3 1.
List I List II
(Material ⁄ part) (Techniques)
A. Ductile iron 1. Inoculation
B. Malleable iron 2. Chilled
C. Roil steel joints 3. Annealing
D. White cast iron 4. Thermit welding
5. Isothermal annealing
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 3 4 2
(b) 5 3 2 1
(c) 2 1 4 5
(d) 1 5 2 3.
List I List II
(Alloys) (Their use)
A. Low carbon steel 1. Bearing
B. Hadfield manganese steel 2. Thermocouple
C. Constantan 3. Wire nails
D. Babbit alloy 4. Bulldozer blades
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 3 2 1 4
(d) 3 4 2 1.
80. Which of the following steels is widely used in automobile industry?
(a) Low carbon steel (b) Medium carbon steel
(c) High carbon steel (d) High speed steel.
List I List II
(Alloying element in steel) (Effect)
A. Nickel 1. Corrosion resistance
B. Chromium 2. Magnetic permeability
C. Tungsten 3. Heat resistance

D. Silicon 4. Hardenability
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 1 3 2
(b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 1 4 3 2
(d) 1 4 2 3.
82. Martensite is
(i) Soft (ii) Hard
(iii) Brittle (iv) Ductile
Of these
(c) (ii) and (iii) are true (d) (i) and (iv) are true.
ANSWERS
1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (b)
7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (a) 11. (b) 12. (c)
13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (c)
19. (b) 20. (c) 21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (d) 24. (c)
25. (b) 26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (b) 29. (c) 30. (c)
31. (d) 32. (d) 33. (b) 34. (b) 35. (c) 36. (b)
37. (d) 38. (b) 39. (d) 40. (b) 41. (b) 42. (a)
43. (b) 44. (b) 45. (c) 46. (c) 47. (d) 48. (c)
49. (b) 50. (d) 51. (d) 52. (d) 53. (b) 54. (d)
55. (c) 56. (c) 57. (a) 58. (c) 59. (a) 60. (d)
61. (d) 62. (b) 63. (b) 64. (c) 65. (b) 66. (a)
67. (c) 68. (c) 69. (c) 70. (d) 71. (c) 72. (b)
73. (d) 74. (a) 75. (b) 76. (b) 77. (d) 78. (a)
79. (d) 80. (a) 81. (a) 82. (c).

1. Why is white cast iron very hard and brittle?
Answer White cast iron is very hard and brittle because of the presence of iron carbide
(Fe3C) instead of graphite.
2. Why is grey cast iron used in machine foundations?

Answer Grey cast iron contains graphite flakes which have vibration dampening capacity making
it suitable for machine foundations.
3. How does silicon affect cast iron?

Answer Silicon in cast iron increases the formation of graphite (such a process is called graphitiza-
tion).
4. What is the effect of increased carbon content on stainless steel?
Answer With increased carbon content, stainless steel loses its corrosion resistance due to reduction
in its chromium content because of the formation of chromium carbide.
5. What are low and high alloy steels?
Answer In low alloy steel, the sum total of alloying elements is less than 10% whereas in high
alloy steel, alloying elements exceed 10%.
6. Why is duplex stainless steel so named?
Answer It is called duplex stainless steel because of two components (austenite and ferrite) present
in it.
7. What are the characteristic features of precipitation hardening stainless steel?
Answer Precipitation hardening stainless steel is so called because of the application of precipitation
hardening method to increase its strength. This steel can maintain its strength, hardness and corrosion
resistance at increased temperatures and hence is useful for aircraft industry.
8. What are the characteristic features of austenitic stainless steel?
Answer Austenitic stainless steel is highly corrosion resistant because of its increased chromium
content. It is non-magnetic and ductile. It does not respond to normal heat treatment but its hardness
and tensile strength can be increased by cold working. It is useful for chemical and food processing
industries.
9. There are two important ores of iron: haemetite (Fe2O3) and magnetite (Fe3O4). Which contains
more iron?
Answer Haemetite contains more iron (around 70%). Generally iron content in iron ores varies
between 50 and 70%.
10. What is soaking?
Soaking is the process of holding the heated metal for a certain duration of time at the heated
temperature in order to improve its mechanical properties.
11. Is the metal cooled slowly or rapidly after heating it to a suitable temperature in annealing?
Answer The metal is cooled very slowly.
12. What is recrystallization?

Answer Recrystallization is the process of formation of strain-free new grains when a metal
is subjected to increased temperatures.
13. What is recrystallization temperature?
Answer At recrystallization temperature, new strain-free grains are formed. It is usually one-half
of the melting temperature of the metal measured on absolute scale.
14. What does TTT stand for?
Answer TTT stands for time-temperature-transformation.
15. What is the purpose of tempering?

Answer The purpose of tempering is to reduce the brittleness of hardened steel, to increase its
ductility and toughness and to relieve its residual stresses.
16. What is case hardening?
Answer Case is the name given to the outer thin layer of a material and is also known as skin.
Case hardening is the surface hardening of parts made of low carbon steel to make them suitable
for further heat treatment processes.
17. What is flame hardening?
Answer Flame hardening is one of the surface hardening methods in which only surfaces of
the work part gets hardened when heated by a flame produced by burning hydrocarbons such as
acetylene, propane and so on.
18. Which type of electrical current is used in induction hardening method?

Answer Induction hardening method uses a high frequency alternating current.
19. What is the serious limitation of induction hardening method?

Answer Only electrically conducting materials can be hardened by induction hardening method.
20. What is the direction of induced current in the workpart in induction hardening method?
Answer The direction of induced current in the workpart is opposite to the direction of current
applied through the coil.
21. Why is martensite very hard?
Answer Martensite has body-centered tetragonal structure in which atoms are arranged in a fashion
which prevents their slippage.
22. What are the principal ores of iron?
Answer Haematite (Fe2O3) and magnetite (Fe3O4). Haemetite contains more iron as compared
to magnetite.
23. What are the important alloying elements added to steel?
Answer Chromium (Cr), Manganese (Mn), Molybdenum (Mo), Nickel (Ni), Silicon (Si), Tungsten
(W) and Vanadium (V).
24. What is the effect of chromium on steel?
Answer Chromium increases the corrosion resistance of steel. Besides this, it increases hardness,
wear resistance and hot hardness.
25. What is the effect of manganese on steel?
Answer It increases strength and hardness of steel.
26. What is the effect of nickel on steel?
Answer Nickel improves corrosion resistance of steel in addition to increasing its strength and
toughness.
27. What is the effect of molybdenum on steel?
Answer It increases toughness, creepness, hot hardness and wear resistance of steel.
28. What is the effect of vanadium on steel?

Answer Vanadium increases strength, toughness and wear resistance of steel.
29. How is the hardness of hardened steel reduced when subjected to tempering?
Answer The hardness of hardened steel is because of presence of martensite in it. During tempering,
martensite is converted into softer constituent pearlite.
30. What is the cooling medium in normalising?
Answer The cooling medium in normalising is air.
31. Differentiate between annealing and normalising.
Answer In annealing, the heated metal is left in the furnace for cooling, whereas in normalising
it is cooled in air.
o
1. Pure iron melts at 1539 C.
2. Cast iron is a ductile material.
3. Cast iron has higher compressive strength as compared to mild steel.
4. Low carbon steel is used as a cutting tool material.

5. Stainless steel is stainless because of its chromium content.
6. 18-4-1 HSS indicates 18% chromium, 4% tungsten and 1% vanadium.
7. Low carbon steel is easily welded.
8. Wrought iron lacks mechanical strength.

9. Iron is extracted from calamine.
10. Cementite is iron carbide.
11. Ferrite, also called α-iron is very hard.
12. Gray cast iron finds extensive applications in machine foundations.
ANSWERS
1. T 2. F 3. T 4. F 5. T 6. F
7. T 8. T 9. F 10. T 11. F 12. T.
REVIEW QUESTIONS
1. What are different methods of surface hardening?
2. How does cyaniding differ from nitriding?
3. What is allotropy?
4. Why does Fe-C equilibrium diagram terminate at 6.67% of carbon?

5. What is cementite? What are its use?
6. What is the carbon content of cast iron?
7. Write down the important properties of gray cast iron.
8. Why is pure iron not a suitable choice for making a product?
9. Why is wrought iron so named? List out the important properties of wrought iron.
10. What is pig iron? Why is it so called?
11. How is alloy steel different than steel?
12. What are the three important types of plain carbon steel? Write down their important applications.
13. Why is it difficult to weld high carbon steel?
14. What is the objective of adding alloying elements to iron?
15. What has made stainless steel stainless?
16. List out the important applications of stainless steel.
17. Why is high speed steel (HSS) so called?
18. What are M and T series of high speed steel?
19. Why is austenitic stainless steel used in food processing industries?
20. Differentiate between hypo-eutectoid and hyper-eutectoid steels.
21. What is the purpose of annealing?
22. How is surface hardening different than hardening?
Technology
C H A P T E R
4
Non-ferrous Materials and Their
Heat Treatment
• Non-ferrous metals lack structural strength and have poor mechanical properties. But their high
thermal and electrical conductivity, higher corrosion resistance and low density are making them
superior over ferrous metals. Non-ferrous Materials and Their Heat Treatment
• Important non-ferrous metals include aluminium, copper, zinc, magnesium, nickel, lead and tin.
• Important properties of aluminium are listed below:
(a) It is a lighter metal and its density is about one-third of steel. This property makes aluminium
suitable for aircraft and automobile industries.
(b) It is extracted from bauxite (Al2O3 . 2H2O).
(c) It has high thermal and electrical conductivity. Its electrical conductivity is approximately three
times the electrical conductivity of iron.
(d) It has excellent corrosion resistance.
(e) It has lower melting point (649oC) which makes it suitable for casting operation.
( f ) Its strength and hardness are increased by the addition of alloying elements.
(g) It is widely used in making domestic utensils, engine blocks, automobile body parts and chemical
equipments. It is also widely used as a paint pigment.
• Duralumin and alclad are two important alloys of aluminium. Duralumin consists of 95% aluminium,
4% copper, 0.5% magnesium and 0.5% manganese and finds extensive applications in aircraft and
automobile industries. Alclad is aluminium coated duralumin and has better corrosion resistance.
• Copper is extracted from copper pyrite (CuFeS2). Copper has the following important properties:
(a) It has very high electrical conductivity in its pure state, making it extremely useful for electrical
industry in the manufacture of wires and cables. The electrical conductivity of copper is approximately
five times that of iron. Also, its thermal conductivity is very good.
(b) It is corrosion resistant.
(c) It lacks strength and hardness.
(d) It is widely used in the manufacture of water heating apparatus, fire tubes for boiler and chemical
vessels.
• Brass and bronze are the important alloys of copper. Brass consists of copper and zinc and bronze
contains copper and tin. A typical brass composition is 65% copper and 35% zinc, whereas a typical
bronze contains 90% copper and 10% tin. Cartridge brass, admiralty brass, and muntz brass are
important variations of a brass. Brass finds applications in condenser tubes, costume jewellery,
screws and rivets. Bronze is classified as gun metal, phosphor bronze, aluminium bronze and silicon
bronze. Bronzes are used in bearings, gears and hydraulic valves.
• Zinc is extracted from zinc blende (ZnS) and calamine (ZnCO3). It is a low melting point (380oC)
metal. It is as heavy as steel. Zinc finds extensive applications in galvanization of iron which makes
iron corrosion resistant. Zinc and its alloys are also widely used in die casting because of their
low melting points. Important zinc alloyed components include carburetors, fuel pumps, vacuum
cleaners and washing machines. Brass is an important alloy of zinc.
• Lead and tin are low melting point metals. Solder is an important alloy of lead and tin which
is used in electrical industry. Lead finds extensive applications in the manufacture of storage batteries,
bearings and paints. Tin is an expensive metal and is used in sheet form to make food containers,
better known as tin cans. Bronze consists of copper and tin.
• Magnesium is a lighter metal which makes it useful for aircraft industries.
• Nickel is one of the principal alloying elements used in steel. It makes steel corrosion resistant.
It can sustain its strength and hardness at increased temperatures.
HEAT TREATMENT OF NON-FERROUS METALS

• By age hardening, also called precipitation hardening, hardness and strength of non-ferrous metals
and their alloys are increased with the lapse of time. Aluminium, magnesium, nickel and their
alloys are age hardened. Natural age hardening occurs at room temperature whereas artificial age
hardening at increased temperature.

1. Which of the following metals is magnetic?
(a) Aluminium (b) Nickel
(c) Copper (d) Magnesium.
2. Which of the following metals is widely used in die casting?
(a) Copper (b) Magnesium
(c) Zinc (d) Lead.
3. Which of the following metals is used for making food containers?
(a) Tin (b) Lead (c) Zinc (d) Nickel.
List I List II
(Materials) (Ores)
A. Iron 1. Galena
B. Aluminium 2. Pyrite
C. Lead 3. Haematite
Non-ferrous Materials and Their Heat Treatment 4.3
D. Copper 4. Bauxite
5. Alumina
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 3 5 1 2
(c) 2 5 1 2
(d) 2 4 5 1.
List I List II
(Materials) (Alloys)
A. Copper 1. Duralumin
B. Aluminium 2. Steel
C. Nickel 3. Brass
D. Iron 4. Monel
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 3 4 2
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 4 1 2 3
(d) 4 1 3 2.
6. Which of the following is a tin-based alloy?

(a) Monel metal (b) Gun metal
(c) White metal (d) Bronze.
7. Tin is extracted from which of the following ores?

(a) Pyrite (b) Cassiterite
(c) Galena (d) Haematite.
8. Duralumin alloy contains aluminium and copper in the ratio of
% Al % Cu
(a) 94 4
(b) 90 8
(c) 88 10
(d) 86 12.
9. Which of the following properties is found in non-ferrous materials?
(i) Low density.
(ii) High thermal and electrical conductivity.
(iii) Better corrosion resistance.
Of these
10. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(a) Brass is an alloy of copper and zinc.
(b) Bronze is an alloy of copper and tin.
(c) Duralumin is an alloy of magnesium and copper.
(d) Monel is an alloy of nickel and copper.
11. Magnesium is extruded and not rolled because
(a) it has a low melting point
(b) it has a low density
(c) its reactivity with roll material is high
(d) it has a close-packed hexagonal structure.
12. Which of the following materials is pyrophoric in nature?
(a) Aluminium (b) Copper (c) Magnesium (d) Zinc.
13. Majority of it is obtained from seawater. It is
(a) Aluminium (b) Magnesium (c) Zinc (d) Copper.
14. Dolomite is an important ore of
(a) Magnesium (b) Copper (c) Aluminium (d) Lead.
15. Low melting point metals include
(a) Lead (b) Tin (c) Zinc (a) All of the above.
(i) It is extracted from galena.
(ii) It is used in damping sound and shielding harmful radiations.
(iii) It is used in galvanizing.
(iv) It is used as journal bearing materials.
Which of the above statements is true for ‘lead’?
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii) (c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii).
(i) Babbitt is a tin alloy.
(ii) Tin-base alloys are also called white metals.
(iii) It is used in making bearings because of its low coefficient of friction.
(iv) It finds extensive applications in die casting.
Which of the above statements is true in case of ‘tin’?
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv).
Non-ferrous Materials and Their Heat Treatment 4.5

(i) It finds extensive applications in die casting.
(ii) Carburetors, fuel pumps, vacuum, cleaners and washing machines are its typical products.
(iii) It is used in galvanizing.
(iv) It is a reddish coloured metal.
Which of the above statements is true for ‘zinc’?
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (iii) and (iv).
(i) It is used in storage batteries. (ii) It is extracted from galena.
(iii) It is a high temperature material. (iv) It is used in making food containers.
Which of the above statements is true for ‘lead’?
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii).
20. Cassiterite is an ore of

(a) Copper (b) Zinc
(c) Tin (d) Aluminium.
21. Monel metal is a

(a) Nickel-copper alloy (b) Copper-zinc alloy
(c) Nickel-zinc alloy (d) Copper-tin alloy.
22. Inconel is a
(a) Nickel-zinc alloy (b) Nickel-chromium alloy
(c) Copper-tin alloy (d) Copper-nickel alloy.
23. Consider the following properties:

(i) It is magnetic in nature.
(ii) It is used in electro-magnetic applications, such as solenoids.
(iii) It is one of the principal alloying elements used in steel.
(iv) It finds applications in jet engines, rockets and nuclear installations.
Which of the above statements is true in case of ‘nickel’?
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv).
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (c)
7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (c) 11. (c) 12. (c)
13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (d) 16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (b)
19. (a) 20. (c) 21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (d).

1. What is the suitability of precipitation hardening?
Answer Precipitation hardening is used to heat non-ferrous metals such as aluminium, copper,
magnesium and nickel.
1. Brass consists of copper and zinc.
2. The chemical formula for bauxite is Al2O3.2H2O.
3. Tin a costly metal.

4. Lead is extracted from bauxite.
5. The electrical conductivity of copper is better than that of aluminium.
6. Zinc is used in galvanization.
7. Bronze contains phosphorous and tin.
8. Monel is an alloy of nickel and copper.
9. Pyrite is an ore of aluminium.
10. Copper is extracted from haematite.
ANSWERS
1. T 2. T 3. T 4. F 5. T 6. T
7. F 8. T 9. F 10. F.
REVIEW QUESTIONS
1. Why does duralumin find extensive applications in aircraft industry?
2. Enlist important properties of non-ferrous materials.
3. Why is electrical conductivity of copper higher as compared to iron?
4. Name two important alloys of copper.
5. Why is bronze used in the manufacture of bearings?
6. What is galvanization and why is it needed?
7. What are the important applications of lead?
8. Why do non-ferrous metals not respond to normal heat treatment processes?
9. What is the composition of duralumin?
10. Why is zinc widely used in die casting?
11. Tin is used in making food containers. Why?
C H A P T E R
5
Other Important Materials
CUTTING TOOL MATERIALS

• As the name suggests, these materials are used for making cutting tools.
• A cutting tool material should have the following characteristics:
(a) The tool material should be harder than work material. Also its hardness should be maintained
at increased temperatures.
(b) Its coefficient of friction should be low to reduce the frictional heat generation.
(c) Its thermal conductivity and specific heat should be high to conduct away the heat easily.
(d) It should be tough enough to resist shock or impact.
• Among the plain carbon steels, high carbon steel is the most suitable cutting tool material because
of its increased carbon content. They are suitable for low cutting speeds.
• High speed steel (HSS) was earlier used for making cutting tools to be operated at higher cutting
speeds. They contain tungsten, chromium, vanadium, molybdenum and cobalt, besides iron and
carbon. 18-4-1 type of HSS is the most popular variety today. The numbers in order indicate 18%
tungsten, 4% chromium and 1% vanadium; the remaining portion is iron.
• Coated HSS has a thin layer coating of titanium nitride with the purpose of increasing its hardness
which could be used in the machining of difficult-to-machine materials. Physical vapour deposition
method is used to provide the coating.
• Stellites are cobalt based materials, hence are also called cast cobalt alloys. It contains chromium,
tungsten and carbon in addition to cobalt, the principal constituent. They can maintain their hardness
at elevated temperatures and hence can be operated at much higher cutting speeds as compared
to high speed steel.
• Cemented carbides are produced by powder metallurgy techniques and hence also called sintered
carbides. Carbides of tungsten and titanium are mixed with cobalt which acts as a binder. They
offer very high cutting speeds without affecting their hardness at increased temperatures. Carbide
tools lack toughness and hence are brittle. They are available in the insert form which are easily
replaced once their cutting edges become blunt.
• Coated cemented carbides have a thin layer coating of titanium carbide, titanium nitride, titanium
carbo-nitride or aluminium oxide. These coatings tremendously increase the wear resistance capacity
of carbide tools offering very high cutting speeds at elevated temperatures. These tools have wider
applications. Chemical vapour deposition and physical vapour deposition are the two methods used
to provide coatings on carbide tools; the former is more popular.
• Ceramic tools are used in the form of disposable inserts. The principal constituent of ceramics
is aluminium oxide. Among cutting tool materials, ceramics have the highest hot hardness and
hence can withstand very high temperatures. It offers cutting speeds higher than carbide tools. Because
of brittle nature of ceramics, they are mainly used for uninterrupted machining operations needed
to machine difficult-to-machine materials.
• Cermets consist of ceramics and metals. A typical cermet may contain 70% aluminium oxide and
30% titanium carbide. It has the combined advantages of ceramics and metals. The toughness of
metals makes it suitable for rough cutting. The hot hardness of ceramics permits it to operate at
higher temperatures with higher cutting speed.
• Coronite mainly consists of titanium nitride. It has the combined advantages of cemented carbides
and high speed steel. The hot hardness of cemented carbides allows them to operate at higher
cutting speeds. The toughness of HSS is useful for interrupted cutting operations.
• Cubic boron nitride (CBN) is also known as artificial diamond because of its extreme hardness;
its hardness is next to diamond. It has many advantages over cemented carbides. It offers higher
cutting speeds, higher metal removal and better surface finish as compared to carbide tools. Its
cutting speed and metal removal rate are approximately five times higher. It can withstand very
high temperature, can be used for interrupted cutting with negative rake angle tools. It is used
in the machining of difficult-to-machine materials such as hardened steel, chilled cast iron and
super alloys. It is also known as borazon when used as abrasives.
• Diamond is the hardest known material. Artificially prepared diamond has more favourable properties
and has wider applications. It offers cutting speeds much higher than carbide tools. They are used
in the machining of non-ferrous materials and non-metallic materials such as composites, resins
and plastics. Diamond is also used as an abrasive in grinding for finishing operations.
• Inserts are individual cutting tools with many cutting edges attached mechanically to the shank
of the tool. In case, when one cutting edge gets damaged or becomes dull, the insert is rotated
to get the new cutting edge. The total replacement of tool is avoided to cut short the time and
hence, continuity of cutting operation is ensured. Inserts are made of carbide materials.
CERAMICS
• Ceramics consist of oxides, carbides and nitrides of metals and non-metals and their structure is
complex.
• They have high compressive strength but are brittle.
• They can withstand very high temperatures, but do not conduct heat and electricity.
• Glass, brick, stone, concrete and carbides of tungsten, titanium and zirconium are some examples
of ceramics.
COMPOSITES
• Composites consist of two or more different materials, for example, metals and polymers, metals
and ceramics or polymers and ceramics and so on.
Other Important Materials 5.3
• One of the materials is called reinforcing material. Glass, graphite and aramid are reinforcing materials.
They are used to increase the strength of the composites.
• The other material is called matrix. Epoxy polyester and phenolic are important matrix; epoxies
are most widely used. Matrix forms the major part of composites.
• Composites have promising future. They offer properties which are not obtained in any other material.
Some contradictory combinations of properties can be obtained in composites, for example, light
weight with increased strength and light weight with increased stiffness. The basic purpose is to
reduce brittleness and increase stiffness.
• Wood and concrete are common examples of composites.
• Composites find extensive applications in aircraft, aerospace, electronic and automobile industries.
HIGH TEMPERATURE MATERIALS

• High temperature materials, also known as superalloys, find major use for high temperature applications.
• Iron, nickel and cobalt are the basic elements and chromium, molybdenum, tungsten and titanium
are the principal alloying elements present in superalloys.
• Incoloy is an iron-based superalloy. Stellite or vitallium is cobalt-based. Hastelloy, astroloy, waspaloy,
nimonic, inconel, rene and udimet are nickel-based superalloys and find maximum industrial ap-
plications.
• Important properties of superalloys include its better corrosion resistance, better thermal fatigue
and creep resistance and better mechanical properties.
• Superalloys are produced by powder metallurgy techniques. Some non-conventional machining methods
such as ultrasonic, electro discharge and electro chemical machining are also used to produce them.
Investment casting is also used to process superalloy components.
• Superalloys are extensively used in the manufacture of gas turbine blades for jet engines, rocket
engines and gas turbines. They are also used to make cutting tools and dies. Nuclear, aircraft and
chemical industries are the major users of superalloys.
REFRACTORY MATERIALS
• Similar to ceramics, they consist of oxides, carbides and nitrides of metals and non-metals.
• They are insulating materials which can withstand very high temperatures and prevent heat loss.
Because of this property they are used in the manufacture of ovens and furnaces.
• Refractories are categorised in three groups: acidic, basic and neutral.
• Silica is the principal constituent of acidic refractories. Quartz and sand are acidic refractories.
• Magnesium oxide is the principal constituent of basic refractories. Dolomite and magnesite are basic
refractories.
• Acidic and basic refractories combine to produce neutral refractories. Silicon carbide and chromite
are neutral refractories.
BEARING MATERIALS
• Bearings are used to support rotating elements such as shafts or spindles.
• Important properties for bearing materials include low coefficient of friction, high compressive strength,
good hardness and toughness, high wear resistance, high fatigue strength, good corrosion resistance
and high thermal conductivity.
• Babbitts are tin and lead based bearing materials and are also known as white metals. Tin-based
white metals are used for crankshaft and camshaft bearings in internal combustion engine which
is subjected to higher loads and increased speeds. Lead-based white metals are used for lighter
loads because of its brittle nature.
• Bronzes are copper based bearing materials containing tin, lead and zinc in addition to principal
component copper. They have good strength and machinability and can support heavy loads such
as in railways.
• Teflon bearings are non-metallic (thermoplastic polymer) bearings which has very low coefficient
of friction and hence do not require lubrication. They have good corrosion resistance against water
and chemicals and are used where loads and temperatures are low.
• Self-lubricated bearings are also called porous bearings and are produced by using powder metallogy
techniques. They do not require external lubrication because their pores are filled with lubricants
such as oil, grease or wax during their manufacturing which are released when pressed during
application.
POLYMERS
• Polymers are high molecular weight compounds consisting of a large number of simple repeating
units running into hundreds or thousands.
• Polymers are useful products which have wide domestic and industrial applications.
• Important polymers include polyvinyl chloride, polypropylene, polycarbonate, polymethylmethacrylate
(Acrylics), polyesters and fluoro carbons (Teflon) which find commercial applications.
• Important properties of polymers include lower density, higher strength-to-weight ratio, good resistance
to chemicals, better formability, good transparency and better insulation.
• Polymers are suitable replacement for metals because of their lighter weight.
• Polymerisation is the process of combination of smaller molecules called monomers to produce
bigger molecules called polymers.
• There are two types of polymerisation: addition and condensation.
• Addition polymerisation results due to the combination of large number of similar monomers to
form polymers without forming any by-product. Polypropylene, polyvinyl chloride (PVC), polystyrene
and teflon are important polymers in this category. In general, thermoplastic polymers are the products
of addition polymerisation. Epoxy, polyester and silicone are important thermosetting polymers made
by addition polymerisation.
• Condensation polymerisation results due to the combination of two different monomers with by-products
such as water (mostly) or methyl alcohol. Bakelite (phenol formaldehyde) is formed by condensation
polymerisation between phenol and formaldehyde. Other condensation polymers include polyesters
and polyamides. In general, thermosetting polymers are made by condensation polymerisation.
NUCLEAR AND RADIOACTIVE MATERIALS

• Nuclear materials find application in nuclear power plants. Important nuclear fuels include natural
uranium, uranium, enriched plutonium and uranium-233.
• Granite rocks are the primary source of uranium. Other sources of uranium include volcanic rocks
and sandstone.
• Enriched uranium is made by gaseous diffusion, thermal diffusion, centrifugal and electromagnetic
method.
• Natural uranium is chemically stable at room temperature but oxidizes rapidly at low temperature
(100oC).
• Uranium has the melting point of 1129oC.
• Natural uranium consists of 99.3% of U-238 and 0.7% of U-235.
• Enriched uranium may contain U-235 between 1.5 to 90% but the process of enrichment is very
costly.
• Pure uranium is weak and has poor corrosion resistance, whereas uranium oxide has high resistance
to corrosion and is highly refractory.
• Common uranium fuels include natural uranium, uranium oxide and uranium carbide.
• Cadmium rods are used to absorb the excess neutrons released during nuclear fission.
• Moderators are used to slow down the high velocity neutrons to use them effectively during nuclear
fission. Beryllium, graphite, water (H2O) and heavy water (D2O) are important moderators.
• Plutonium (239) is in artificial nuclear fuel (secondary fuel) prepared from U-238 by neutron bom-
bardment. Other secondary fuels include uranium-233 and uranium-238.
• Energy released by one gram of plutonium is equal to that of 30 tons of tri-nitro-toluene (TNT).
• Thorium is a radio-active element.
• Beryllium is used as a moderator and reflector.
• One electron volt is equivalent to 1.602 × 10–19 Joule of energy.
• One atomic mass unit (a.m.u.) is equal to 1.66 × 10–27 kg and is equivalent to 931.5 MeV of energy.
• The energy released in the formation of a nucleus from its constituent nucleons is called binding
energy of the nucleus.
• The binding energy per nucleon is a measure of stability of the nucleus. Greater binding energy
per nucleon means that the nucleus is more stable.
• The purpose of using cladding is to prevent the fuel from corrosion by the coolant. It should have
high thermal conductivity to conduct away the heat easily. Important cladding materials include
magnesium, beryllium, stainless steel and zirconium.
• Magnesium as a cladding material has low neutron absorption capacity and finds application in
gas-cooled reactors.
• Beryllium has low neutron absorption capacity but it is the most suitable and most economical
cladding material. On the negative side, it has low corrosion resistance.
• Stainless steel has high neutron absorption capacity and finds application in fast breeder reactors.
It has high corrosion resistance.
• Zirconium has low neutron absorption capacity and finds application in pressurised water reactor
(PWR) and boiling water reactor (BWR).
• Coolants should have higher heat transfer coefficient to easily conduct away the heat from the
reactor.
• Important coolants include water (ordinary and heavy), gases (air, N2, H2, He and CO2), liquid
metals (lithium, bismuth, lead and sodium), organic liquids (benzene, diphenyl and terphenyle).
• Commonly used moderators include graphite, beryllium and heavy water. Ordinary water is also
used as moderator but with enriched uranium as nuclear fuel. Sometimes helium is also used as
moderator.
• Moderators are also good reflectors. All the moderators can be used as reflectors.
• Control rods are used to control nuclear chain reaction by absorbing the neutrons.
Important control rod materials include boron, cadmium and hafnium. Boron is commonly used
control rod material.
• Control rods should have high melting point and high thermal conductivity.
• Common nuclear radiations include alpha (α), beta (β), gamma (γ) radiations and X-rays.
• Shielding materials include concrete and steel.
• Both pressurised water reactor (PWR) and boiling water reactor (BWR) use ordinary water as coolant,
moderator and reflector; and enriched uranium as fuel but their thermal efficiencies are different.
The thermal efficiency of BWR ( 30%) is more compared to that of PWR ( 20%).
• Candu reactor was first used in Canada and it uses natural uranium as fuel and heavy water as
coolant and moderator. Its thermal efficiency is approximately equal to 30%.
• Fast breeder reactors use enriched uranium as fuel and liquid metal (sodium and potassium), helium
and CO2 as coolant but do not use moderators. Their thermal efficiency is approximately 32%.
• Nuclear fission is a process in which a heavy nucleus (having higher mass number) breaks into
two smaller nuclei (having lower mass number) of approximately equal mass.
• The total mass of the products of fission is less than the total mass of the reactants. The difference
in the two mass is called mass defect which appears in the form of energy according to Einstein’s
mass-energy relation, E = mC 2 where C is the velocity of light.
• A typical fission reaction is shown below in which an uranium atom is bombarded with a neutron.
235
92U + 0 n1 → 92U 236 → 56Ba141 + 36Kr92 + 3 0 n1.
• Fission products are generally radioactive elements emitting β-particles, neutrons and γ-radiations
during their conversion into stable elements.
235
• During fission of 92U , on an average, approximately 200 MeV of energy and 2.5 neutrons are
released.
• The principle of nuclear fission finds application in the making of atom bombs.
• Nuclear fusion is a process in which smaller nuclei are combined together to form a heavier nucleus.
• The energy released during fusion is much higher than that during fission.
• The source of energy of the sun is due to nuclear fusion.
• A typical nuclear fusion reaction is shown below in which four hydrogen nuclei are combined
together to form one nucleus of helium. During this process, 27.3 × 105 MeV of energy is released.
41H 1 → 2He4 + 21e0.
Positron
• Positron was discovered by C.D. Anderson and has mass equal to that of electron.
• The principle of nuclear fusion finds application in the making of hydrogen bombs which are far
more powerful than atom bombs.
• Nuclear waste which may be in the form of solid, liquid or gas is disposed to ground, air and
sea. Gaseous nuclear waste is disposed into air and liquid nuclear waste to sea. Solid nuclear waste
is buried in the ground.

1. Consider the following refractories:
(i) Sand (ii) Quartz
(iii) Dolomite (iv) Chromite
(v) Silicon carbide
Of these, which one is acidic refractory?
(a) (i) (b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (iii) (d) (iv) and (v).
(v) Silicon carbide
Of these, which one is basic refractory?
(a) (i) (b) (i) and (ii)

(v) Silicon carbide
Of these, which one is neutral refractory?
(a) (i) (b) (i) and (ii)
4. Consider the following methods used to produce superalloys:
(i) Powder metallurgy (ii) Non-traditional machining methods
(iii) Investment casting
Of these
5. Consider the following superalloys:

(i) Stellite (ii) Incoloy
(iii) Nimonic (iv) Inconel
Of these, which one is iron-based superalloy?
(a) (i) (b) (ii)
(c) (i) and (ii) (d) (iii) and (iv).

Of these, which one is cobalt-based superalloy?

(a) (i) (b) (ii)
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (ii).
Of these, which one is nickel-based superalloy?
(a) (i) (b) (ii)
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (ii).
8. Which of the following superalloys is age-hardenable?
(a) Incoloy (b) Ninomic (c) Stellite (d) Inconel.
List I List II
(Requirement) (Type)
A. High temperature service 1. Teflon bearing
B. High load 2. Carbon bearing
C. No lubrication 3. Hydrodynamic bearing
D. Brushings 4. Sleeve bearing
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 2 1 3 4
(d) 2 3 1 4.
10. Tin base white metals are used where the bearings are subjected to
(a) large surface wear (b) elevated temperatures
(c) light load and pressure (d) high pressure and load.
List I List II
(Bearing materials) (Properties)
A. Babbits 1. Porous
B. Bronze 2. Good embeddability
C. Cast iron 3. Suitable for high loads and low speeds
D. Sintered powdered metal 4. Runs well with cast iron journals
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 3 2 1 4
(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 3 2 4 1.
12. The chemical name of Bakelite is

(a) polytetra fluoroethylene (b) phenol formaldehyde
(c) phenol acetaldehyde (d) urea formaldehyde.
13. The chemical name of teflon is

(a) polytetra fluoroethylene (b) phenol formaldehyde
(c) phenol acetaldehyde (d) urea formaldehyde.
14. Which of the following polymers produces HCl as condensate?
(a) Phenol formaldehyde (b) Poly carbonate
(c) Urea formaldehyde (d) Nylon-6, 6.
15. Consider the following polymers:
(i) Nylon-6 (ii) Nylon-6, 6
(iii) Polyvinyl chloride (iv) Poly styrene
Polyamide includes
(a) (i) (b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv).
List I List II
A. Neoprene 1. Electric switches
B. Bakelite 2. Adhesive
C. Formed polyurethane 3. Thermal insulator
D. Araldite 4. Oil seal
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 1 2 3
(b) 1 4 2 3
(c) 4 1 3 2
(d) 1 4 3 2.
17. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

(i) Cellulose nitrate — Table tennis ball
(ii) Phenol furfurol — Brake linings
(iii) Epoxies — Jigs and fixtures
(c) (i) and (iii) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii).

(i) Silicon steels — Transformer stampings
(ii) Duralumin — Cooking utensils
(iii) Gun metal — Bearings
Codes:
19. Alloy steel which is work hardenable and is used to make the blades of bulldozers, bucket wheel
excavators and other earth moving equipment contains iron, carbon and
(a) chromium (b) silicon (c) manganese (d) magnesium.
20. Which of the following pairs of plastics and their modes of formation is correctly matched?
(i) Polythene — Condensation polymerisation
(ii) Polycarbonate — Addition polymerisation
(iii) Polystyrene — Addition polymerisation
(iv) Polyamide — Condensation polymerisation
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv).
21. What does 18/8 stainless steel mean?
(a) 18% nickel, 8% chromium (b) 18% chromium, 8% nickel
(c) 18% tungsten, 8% nickel (d) 18% tungsten, 8% chromium.
Thermosetting plastics are
(i) Formed by addition polymerisation.
(ii) Formed by condensation polymerisation.
(iii) Softened on heating and hardened on cooling for any number of times.
(iv) Moulded by heating and cooling.
(a) (i) and (iii) are true (b) (ii) and (iv) are true
(c) (i) and (iv) are true (d) (ii) and (iii) are true.
Thermoplastic polymers are
(i) Formed by addition polymerisation.
(ii) Formed by condensation polymerisation.
(iii) Softened on heating and hardened on cooling for any number of times.
(iv) Moulded by heating and cooling.
24. Fibre reinforced plastics are:
(i) Made of thermosetting resins and glass fibre.
(ii) Made of thermoplastic resins and glass fibre.
(iii) Anisotropic
(iv) Isotropic
Of these
(a) (i) and (iv) are true (b) (i) and (iii) are true
(c) (ii) and (iii) are true (d) (ii) and (iv) are true.
List I List II
(Material) (Nature of product)
A. Polyethylene 1. Adhesive
B. Polyurethane 2. Film
C. Cyano-acrylate 3. Wire
D. Nylon 4. Foam
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1
(b) 4 2 3 1
(c) 2 4 1 3
(d) 4 2 1 3.
26. Quartz is a
(a) ferroelectric material (b) ferromagnetic material
(c) piezoelectric material (d) diamagnetic material.
List I List II
(Material properties) (Test)
A. Ductility 1. Impact test
B. Toughness 2. Fatigue test
C. Endurance limit 3. Tension test
D. Resistance to penetration 4. Hardness test
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 2 1 4
(b) 4 2 1 3
(c) 3 1 2 4
(d) 4 1 2 3.
28. Killed steels
(a) have minimum impurity level
(b) have almost zero percentage of phosphorus and sulphur
(c) are produced by LD process
(d) are free from oxygen.
29. The strength of the fibre reinforced plastic product
(i) Depends upon the strength of the fibre alone.
(ii) Depends upon the fibre and plastic.
(iii) Is isotropic.
(iv) Is anisotropic.
Which of these statements is true?
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iv).
30. Consider the following processes used for thermosetting materials:
(i) Compression (ii) Transfer moulding
(iii) Injection moulding (iv) Extrusion
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv).
31. Which of the following materials is used for car tyres as a standard material?
(a) Styrene-butadiene rubber (SBR)
(b) Butyl rubber
(c) Nitrile rubber
(d) Any of the above depending upon the need.
32. Which of the following processes can be used for mass production of plastic containers (with lid)
of 5 litre capacity?
(i) Injection moulding (ii) Jet moulding
(iii) Blow moulding
33. Weldable type plastic(s) include(s):
(a) thermosets alone
(b) thermoplastics alone
(c) both thermosets and thermoplastics
(d) neither thermosets nor thermoplastics.
34. The average number of fast neutrons produced in the fission of an U-235 atom is nearly equal
to
(a) 1.23 (b) 2.46
(c) 3.69 (d) 4.92.
35. Uranium oxide is chosen as fuel element in the nuclear reactors because uranium oxide
(i) Is more stable than uranium. (ii) Does not corrode easily.
(iii) Is more brittle. (iv) Has dimensional stability.
Among these statements
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are true (d) (iii) and (iv) are true.
36. Energy released by the fission of one U-235 atom is nearly equal to
(a) 2000 MeV (b) 1000 MeV
(c) 200 MeV (d) 20 MeV.
37. Match List I with List II in respect of nuclear reactor and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the lists:
List I List II
A. Poison 1. Hafnium
B. Moderator 2. Graphite
C. Cladding 3. Zirconium
D. Fission product 4. Strontium-90
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 1 2 3 4
(d) 1 2 4 3.
List I List II
A. Coolant 1. Low neutron absorption
B. Moderator 2. Low radiation damage
C. Fuel 3. High heat transfer coefficient
D. Shield 4. High absorption of radiation
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 1 4 2
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 1 3 4 2
(d) 1 3 2 4.
39. Match List I with List II regarding nuclear reactors and select the correct answer using the codes
given below the lists:
List I List II
A. Moderator 1. U-233
B. Biological shield 2. Hafnium
C. Poison 3. Beryllium
D. Nuclear fuel 4. Sodium
5. Lead
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 2 5 1
(b) 4 5 2 3
(c) 3 5 2 1
(d) 4 2 1 3.
List I List II
(Nuclear reactors) (Moderators)
A. Pressurised water reactor 1. Graphite
B. Gas cooled reactor 2. CO2
C. Candu reactor 3. No moderator
D. Breeder reactor 4. Ordinary water
5. Heavy water
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 2 5 3
(b) 1 4 5 2
(c) 4 1 5 3
(d) 1 4 5 3.
List I List II
(Nuclear reactors) (Coolants)
A. Boiling water reactor 1. Heavy water
B. Candu reactor 2. CO2
C. Fast breeder reactor 3. Ordinary water
D. Gas cooled reactor 4. Helium
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 1 2 4
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 1 3 4 2
(d) 1 3 2 4.
List I List II
(Nuclear reactors) (Thermal efficiency)
A. Magnox reactor 1. 30%
B. Candu reactor 2. 26%
C. Boiling water reactor 3. 29%
D. Fast breeder reactor 4. 31%
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 3 2 1 4.
43. Fast breeder reactor uses the following moderator:
(a) graphite (b) heavy water
(c) no moderator (d) ordinary water.
44. Which of the following moderators is used in Candu reactor?
(a) Heavy water (b) Graphite
(c) Ordinary water (d) Polyphenyl.
45. In which of the following reactors, heavy water is used as coolant and moderator both?
(a) Boiling water reactor (b) Fast breeder reactor
(c) Candu reactor (d) Gas cooled reactor.
46. In which of the following reactors, ordinary water is used as coolant and moderator both?
47. Which of the following reactors uses graphite as moderator?

48. Which of the following reactors uses helium as coolant?
(a) Pressurised water reactor (b) Magnox reactor
(c) Fast breeder reactor (d) Candu reactor.
49. Which of the following reactors uses natural uranium as fuel?
(a) Pressurised water reactor (b) Candu reactor
(c) Boiling water reactor (d) Fast breeder reactor.
50. Which of the following reactors uses graphite as reflector?

(a) Gas cooled reactor (b) Candu reactor
(c) Fast breeder reactor (d) Pressurised water reactor.
51. Curie is the standard unit of radioactivity. One curie is equal to
(a) 1.0 × 105 disintegrations per second (b) 1.0 × 106 disintegrations per second
(c) 3.7 × 108 disintegrations per second (d) 3.7 × 1010 disintegrations per second.
52. Which of the following particles is very near to helium ion?
(a) Meson (b) Alpha (c) Beta (d) Gamma.
53. Which of the following materials has the greatest hot hardness?
(a) Plain carbon steel (b) High speed steel
(c) Cemented carbides (d) Ceramics.
54. Which of the following materials has the least hot hardness?
(a) Plain carbon steel (b) High speed steel
(c) Cemented carbides (d) Ceramics.
55. The hardness of natural diamond is
(a) equal to that of artificial diamond
(b) less than that of artificial diamond
(c) more than that of artificial diamond
(d) much more than that of artificial diamond.
56. Consider the following cutting tool materials used for metal cutting operation at high speed:
(i) Tungsten carbide (ii) Cemented titanium carbide
(iii) High speed steel (iv) Cermet
The correct sequence in increasing order of the range of cutting speed for optimum use of these
materials is
(a) (iii), (i), (iv), (ii) (b) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
(c) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv) (d) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii).
57. Artificial diamond is
(a) monocrystalline (b) polycrystalline
(c) non-crystalline (d) None of these.
58. Cast iron and steel can be best machined by the following cutting tool:
(a) high carbon steel (b) high speed steel
(c) coated carbide (d) coated carbide and ceramic.
List I List II
(Cutting tools) (Major constituent)
A. Stellite 1. Tungsten
B. HSS 2. Cobalt
C. Ceramic 3. Alumina
D. UCON 4. Columbium
5. Titanium
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 5 1 3 4
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 2 1 3 4
(d) 2 5 3 4.
60. Consider the following cutting tool materials used for metal cutting operation at high speed:
(i) Tungsten carbide (ii) Cemented titanium carbide
(iii) High speed steel (iv) Cermet
The correct sequence in increasing order of the range of cutting speeds for optimum use of these
materials is
(c) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv) (d) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii).
61. The coating materials for coated carbide tools include
(a) TiC, TiN and NaCN (b) TiC and TiN
(c) TiN and NaCN (d) TiC and NaCN.
List I List II
(Cutting tool materials) (Major constituents)
A. High speed steel 1. Carbon
B. Stellite 2. Molybdenum
C. Diamond 3. Nitride
D. Coated carbide tool 4. Columbium
5. Cobalt
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 3 5
(b) 2 5 1 3
(c) 5 2 4 3
(d) 5 4 2 3.
63. Inserts are mainly made of
(a) high carbon steel (b) high speed steel
(c) cemented carbides (d) stellites.
64. The compositions of some of the alloy steels are as under:
(i) 18 W 4 Cr 1 V. (ii) 12 Mo 1 W 4 Cr 1 V.
(iii) 6 Mo 6 W 4 Cr 1 V. (iv) 18 W 8 Cr 1 V.
The compositions of commonly used high speed steels would include

(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iii).
65. Cubic boron nitride
(a) is very hard and its hardness is comparable to that of diamond
(b) has a hardness which is slightly more than that of HSS
(c) is used for making cylinder blocks of aircraft engines
(d) is used for making optical glasses.
66. Consider the following tool materials:
(i) Carbide (ii) Cermet
(iii) Ceramic (iv) Borazon
The correct sequence of these tool materials in increasing order of their ability to retain their hot
hardness is
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (b) (i), (ii), (iv) and (iii)
(c) (ii), (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii), (i), (iv) and (iii).
67. Cubic born nitride is used
(a) as lining material in induction furnaces
(b) for making optical quality glass
(c) for heat treatment
(d) None of these.
68. The straight grades of cemented carbide cutting tool materials contain
(a) tungsten carbide only
(b) tungsten carbide and titanium carbide
(c) tungsten carbide and cobalt
(d) tungsten carbide and cobalt carbide.
69. Consider the following materials:
(i) Titanium nitride (ii) Titanium carbide
(iii) Aluminium oxide
Which of the above materials is used to provide coating on carbide tools?
(a) (i) (b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iii).
70. The usual thickness of titanium nitride coating on carbide tools is

(a) 5 micrometer (b) 2 millimeter
(c) 1 centimeter (d) 3 nanometer.

(i) Wear resistance (ii) Cutting speed
(iii) Tool life
Which of the above parameters is tremendously increased with coated carbide tools?
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i).
72. Consider the following metals:
(i) Tungsten (ii) Tantalum
(iii) Titanium
Carbide tools are made of
(a) (i) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (ii).
73. Which of the following materials has the highest red hardness?
(a) High speed steel (b) Cemented carbides
(c) High carbon steel (d) Ceramics.
74. Which of the following materials has the least red hardness?
(a) High speed steel (b) Cemented carbides
(c) High carbon steel (d) Ceramics.
75. Which of the following combinations is used to provide titanium carbide coating on carbide tools?
(a) Carbon tetrachloride and titanium
(b) Titanium chloride and methane
(c) Titanium and methane
(d) Titanium chloride and carbon tetrachloride.
76. The cutting speed obtained by CBN tools is approximately how many times as compared to carbide
tools
(a) two times (b) three times (c) four times (d) five times.
77. The CBN tools can withstand a temperature of about
(a) 1000oC (b) 2000oC (c) 4000oC (d) 5000oC.
78. The tool life of CBN tools is higher. It is approximately how many times as compared to ceramic
tools?
(a) Six times (b) Ten times
(c) Fifteen times (d) Two times.
(i) Hardened steel (ii) Chilled cast iron
(iii) Superalloys
Which of these materials can be best machined by CBN tools?
(a) (i) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (ii).
80. Consider the following statements about Cubic Boron Nitride (CBN):
(i) It is artificially prepared and is polycrystalline.
(ii) It has high abrasive wear resistance.

(iii) It has excellent hot hardness.
(c) (ii) and (iii) are true (d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are true.
(i) The tool life of CBN tools is shorter compared to carbide tools.
(ii) The CBN tools are available in the insert form.
(iii) The CBN tools offer higher cutting speeds compared to carbide tools.
(iv) The CBN tools perform better with harder work materials.
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) are true (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are true.
82. Which of the following particles has positive charge?
(a) Electron (b) Meson
(c) Proton (d) Neutron.
List I List II
A. α-particle 1. Highest penetration
B. β-particle 2. Negatively charged
C. γ-particle 3. Higher ionization power
D. Meson 4. Positively charged
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 3 1 4
(b) 3 2 1 4
(c) 4 2 3 1
(d) 1 2 3 4.
List I List II
(Particles) (Discoverer)
A. Proton 1. J.J. Thomson
B. Electron 2. Anderson
C. Meson 3. Goldstein
D. Positron 4. Yukawa
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 3 2 4
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 1 3 4 2.
85. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I List II
A. Moderator 1. CO2
B. Coolant 2. Zirconium
C. Reflector 3. Beryllium
D. Cladding 4. Graphite
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 3 4 2
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 2 1 3 4.
86. Natural uranium has the following composition
(a) 99.3% U-238 and 0.7% U-235 (b) 0.7% U-238 and 99.3% U-235
(c) 99.3% U-233 and 0.7% U-235 (d) 0.7% U-233 and 99.7% U-233.
87. 1.602 × 10–19 Joule of energy is equivalent to

(a) 0.5 eV (b) 1.0 eV (c) 1.5 eV (d) 2.0 eV.
88. Which of the following is a secondary nuclear fuel?
(a) Natural uranium (b) Uranium oxide
(c) Uranium carbide (d) Plutonium-239.
89. Borazon is another name for
(a) diamond (b) cemented carbides
(c) cubic boron nitride (d) high speed steel (HSS)
90. Consider the following statements about cubic boron nitride:
(i) It is known as super abrasive. (ii) It is artificially produced.
(iii) It is monocrystalline. (iv) It is brittle.
(a) (i) and (ii) are true (b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are true
91. Which of the following elements increases hot hardness of stellite?
(a) Titanium (b) Cobalt
(c) Aluminium (d) Copper.
92. In the manufacture of sintered carbides, which of the following acts as a binder?
(a) Tungsten (b) Titanium
(c) Cobalt (d) Copper.
93. Consider the following pairs of plastics and their distinct characteristics:
(i) Acrylics — Very good transparency to light
(ii) Polycarbonate — Poor impact resistance
(iii) PTFE — Low coefficient of friction
(iv) Polypropylene — Excellent fatigue strength
Which of these pairs are correctly matched?
(a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iv).
List I List II
(Moulding composition) (Property)
A. Binder 1. Reduces cost, shrinkage
B. Filler 2. Makes the moulding of plastic easier
C. Plasticizer 3. Cellulose derivatives
D. Lubricant 4. Accelerates condensation and
polymerisation
5. Toughness and resistance to temperature
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 1 2 5
(b) 3 1 5 2
(c) 5 3 1 4
(d) 3 5 1 4.
95. Cermets are

(a) metals for high temperature use with ceramic like properties
(b) ceramics with metallic strength and lustre
(c) coated tool materials
(d) metal-ceramic composites.
96. The structure of a polymer is shown in the given figure. This polymer finds special application
in
⎛ F F ⎞
⎜ | | ⎟
⎜ ⎟
⎜–C–C–⎟
⎜ | | ⎟
⎜ ⎟
⎝ F F ⎠n
(a) packaging (b) adhesives
(c) bearings (d) fertiliser.
[The above structure is of teflon (polytetra fluoroethylene, PTFE). It has very low coefficient of
friction and hence finds applications in nonlubricated bearings].
97. To reduce the consumption of synthetic resins, the ingredient added is

(a) accelerator (b) elastomer
(c) modifier (d) filler.
98. Superalloys are
(a) high tensile strength materials (b) high temperature materials
(c) materials of high alloy content (d) high compressive strength materials.
99. Which of the following superalloys is nickel-based?
(i) Inconel (ii) Nimonic
(iii) Udimet
Of these
100. Which of the following superalloys is iron-based?
(a) Inconel (b) Incoloy (c) Rene (d) Waspaloy.
101. Which of the following tool materials have cobalt as a constituent element?
(i) Tungsten carbide (ii) CBN
(iii) Stellite (iv) UCON
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iii).
List I List II
(Cutting tools) (Major constituent)
A. Stellite 1. Tungsten
B. HSS 2. Cobalt
C. Ceramic 3. Alumina
D. UCON 4. Columbium
5. Titanium
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 5 1 3 4
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 2 1 3 4
(d) 2 5 3 4.
103. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List I List II
(Cutting tool materials) (Fabrication processes)
A. HSS 1. Casting
B. Stellite 2. Powder metallurgy
C. Carbide 3. Forging
D. UCON 4. Extrusion
5. Rolling
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 1 2 4
(b) 1 5 3 4
(c) 2 4 3 5
(d) 3 1 2 5.

(i) HSS (ii) Cemented carbide
(iii) Ceramics (iv) Diamond
The correct sequence of these materials in decreasing order of their cutting speed is
(a) (iv), (iii), (i), (ii) (b) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
(c) (iii), (iv), (ii), (i) (d) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii).
(i) HSS (ii) Cemented carbides
(iii) Ceramics (iv) Cast cobalt alloys
The correct sequence of these materials in increasing order of their hot hardness is
(a) (i), (iv), (ii), (iii) (b) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(c) (i), (iv), (iii), (ii) (d) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i).
106. Which of the following processes can be used for producing hard, wear resistant coating such as
TiN on HSS?
(i) Physical vapour deposition.
(ii) Sintering under reducing atmosphere.
(iii) Chemical vapour deposition with post treatment.
(iv) Plasma spraying.
Codes:
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv).
107. What does CBN stand for?

(a) Carbon boron nitride (b) Calcium boron nitride
(c) Cubic boron nitride (d) Cubic beryllium nitride.
(i) Tungsten (ii) Molybdenum
(iii) Tantalum (iv) Magnesium.
Which of the above metals is categorized as refractory metal?

(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv).
109. Which of the following metals has the highest melting point temperature in the metal category?
(a) Tantalum (b) Molybdenum (c) Tungsten (d) Iron.
110. The melting point temperature of tungsten is
(a) 2100oC (b) 3410oC (c) 3410oF (d) 1538oC.
111. Superalloys are used for
(a) low temperature applications (b) high temperature applications
(c) high stress applications (d) high pressure applications.
112. Consider the following statements about superalloys:
(i) They are iron-, cobalt- or nickel-based.
(ii) They are used for high temperature applications.
(iii) They are used for low temperature and applications.
(iv) Incoloy, Inconel and Udimet are some examples of superalloys.
(a) (i) and (iii) are true (b) (i) and (ii) are true
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) are true (d) (i), (iii) and (iv) are true.
List I List II
A. Incoloy 1. Alloy of copper
B. Hastelloy 2. Iron-base superalloy
C. Brass 3. Aluminium
D. Bauxite 4. Nickel-base superalloys
5. Zinc
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 1 5
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 4 2 1 3
(d) 4 2 3 1.
(i) It is a silvery white metal.
(ii) It is an important alloying element for steel.
(iii) It is used in making filaments for incandescent light bulbs.
(iv) It finds extensive applications in electrolytic capacitors.
Which of the above statements is true in case of ‘molybdenum’?
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iii).
115. With respect to statements in Question 114, which one is true in case of ‘tungsten’?
(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iii).
116. With respect to statements in Question 114, which one is true in case of ‘tantalum’?
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (iv) only.
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (a)
7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (d) 11. (a) 12. (b)
13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (d)
19. (c) 20. (d) 21. (d) 22. (b) 23. (a) 24. (b)
25. (c) 26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (d) 30. (b)
31. (a) 32. (c) 33. (b) 34. (b) 35. (a) 36. (c)
37. (c) 38. (b) 39. (c) 40. (c) 41. (b) 42. (c)
43. (c) 44. (a) 45. (c) 46. (a) 47. (d) 48. (c)
49. (b) 50. (a) 51. (d) 52. (b) 53. (d) 54. (a)
55. (c) 56. (c) 57. (b) 58. (d) 59. (c) 60. (c)
61. (b) 62. (b) 63. (c) 64. (d) 65. (a) 66. (a)
67. (d) 68. (b) 69. (c) 70. (a) 71. (b) 72. (c)
73. (d) 74. (c) 75. (b) 76. (d) 77. (b) 78. (a)
79. (b) 80. (d) 81. (b) 82. (c) 83. (b) 84. (c)
85. (b) 86. (a) 87. (b) 88. (d) 89. (c) 90. (c)
91. (b) 92. (c) 93. (b) 94. (a) 95. (d) 96. (c)
97. (d) 98. (b) 99. (d) 100. (b) 101. (d) 102. (c)
103. (d) 104. (b) 105. (a) 106. (d) 107. (c) 108. (b)
109. (c) 110. (b) 111. (b) 112. (c) 113. (b) 114. (a)
115. (b) 116. (d).

1. What is hot or red hardness?
Answer It is the ability of a material to maintain its hardness at increased temperatures.
2. What does the different numbers in 18-4-1 high speed steel indicate?
Answer 18 indicates 18% tungsten,
4 indicates 4% chromium,
and 1 indicates 1% vanadium.
3. What is the composition of cermets?
Answer Cermets consist of ceramic and metal. Ceramics include titanium carbide (TiC), titanium
nitride (TiN) and titanium carbonitride (TiCN). Metals that act as binders include nickel and molyb-
denum.
4. What are the differences between cemented carbides and coated carbides?
Answer Cemented carbides consist of tungsten carbide (WC), titanium carbide (TiC), tantalum
carbide (TaC) and cobalt (Co) which acts as a binder.
Coated carbides are basically cemented carbides having a thin layer coating of titanium carbide,
titanium nitride or aluminium oxide with the purpose of increasing their wear resistance.
5. Why are coated carbide tools not suitable for intermittent cutting operations?
Answer Coated carbides are brittle and have low toughness. As a result, during intermittent opera-
tions, they can fail prematurely.
6. Why is high speed steel so named?
Answer Before the advent of high speed steel no tool material (high carbon or low-alloy steels)
was able to give higher cutting speed during machining operations. It was high speed steel which
permitted higher cutting speed and hence was so named.
7. Arrange the following materials in increasing order of their hot hardness.
Plain carbon steels, cemented carbides, ceramics, high speed steels, and cast cobalt alloys.
Answer Plain carbon steels < High speed steels < Cast cobalt alloys < Cemented carbides <
Ceramics.
8. What is the chief constituent of ceramic tools?
Answer Aluminium oxide (Al2O3).
9. By which method ceramic cutting tools are manufactured?
Answer Powder metallurgy.
10. What is the reason for the increased hardness of diamond?
Answer Diamond is very hard because of its three-dimensional cubic crystalline structure consisting
of covalent bonded atoms.
11. Why is graphite a good lubricant?
Answer Graphite has multi-layered structure in which atoms are bonded by weak Van der Waals
forces. It gives graphite the lubricating characteristics.
12. Is natural diamond monocrystalline or polycrystalline?
Answer Monocrystalline.
13. Is artificial diamond monocrystalline or polycrystalline?
Answer Polycrystalline.
14. What are some of the important applications of diamond?
Answer
(a) Because of its extreme hardness (hardest known material), diamond is used as cutting tools
in the machining of hard and brittle materials.
(b) It is also used in dressing tools to sharpen grinding wheels.
15. What is UCON?
Answer UCON is a costly cutting tool material consisting of 50%, Columbium, 30% titanium
and 20% tungsten. It is mainly used in the machining of steel with higher speed, large depth of
cut and low feed. It can be cast and rolled into sheets.
16. Coated carbide and ceramic cutting tools are used for machining at higher cutting speeds. Why?
Answer Since these tools are made of brittle materials, hence they cannot withstand vibration
or shock which occurs at low cutting speeds.
17. What is the effect of carbon on steel?
Answer Carbon increases hardness and strength but reduces ductility of steel.
18. What are tool steels? What are their important applications?
Answer Tool steels are iron-carbon alloys containing additional alloying elements to impart specific
properties. They are important tool materials and find applications in making cutting tools, moulds
and dies.
19. Diamond is not used in the machining of ferrous materials. Why?
Answer Carbon present in diamond has strong chemical affinity with iron making iron carbides
which pose problems for diamond tools. The CBN tools are used to machine ferrous materials.
20. What is Teflon? For what purpose it is used?
Answer Teflon is a thermoplastic polymer. Its chemical name is polytetra fluoroethylene. It finds
applications in nonlubricating bearings, because of its very low coefficient of friction.
21. Why is condensation polymerisation so named?
Answer During the moulding of polymers (plastics) by condensation polymerisation, water is
condensed as a by-product and hence the name condensation polymerisation.
22. What is the structure of polyethylene?
Answer Polyethylene also called polythene, consists of a number of ethylene molecules. Its structure
is shown below.
The value of n can vary between 100 and 1,00,000.
23. What is mer?
Answer The repeating unit in the formation of large molecules is called mer.
24. What is the difference between homopolymers and copolymers?
Answer Homopolymers are made from only one type of monomers, whereas copolymers are
made from more than one type of monomers. Addition polymers are homopolymers and condensation
polymers are copolymers.
25. What are the important properties of thermoplastic polymers?
Answer
(a) Thermoplastic polymers soften on heating and become rigid on cooling.
(b) They have usually linear or branched chain structure.
26. Name three important thermoplastic polymers.

Answer Polyethylene, polyvinyl chloride (PVC), and teflon.
27. What are the important properties of thermosetting polymers?
(a) Thermosetting polymers become hard on heating and cannot be softened by heating.
(b) They have usually a network structure which is basically a covalent bonded cross-linked three
dimensional chain structure.
28. Name three important thermosetting polymers.
Answer Epoxies, phenolics and silicones.
29. What is the structure of rubbers or elastomers?
Answer Most of the rubbers or elastomers have cross-linked structure. Vulcanisation of rubber
produces this structure.
30. What is vulcanisation? What is the purpose of it?
Answer Vulcanisation is the process in which rubber in its crude form called latex, obtained
from the rubber tree, is mixed with small amounts of sulphur and heated. As a result, rubber with
good mechanical properties is obtained. Before vulcanisation, fillers such as carbon black and zinc
oxide are added to crude rubber, in order to improve wear resistance characteristics.
31. How are thermoplastic polymers different from thermosets?
Answer Thermoplastic polymers do not degrade on repetitive heating and cooling because they
do not cross-link upon heating. This is the primary reason why thermoplastic polymers have wider
applications. On the other hand, chemical changes occur when thermosets are heated which cross-link
their molecules and hence sets these polymers.
32. Classify the following polymers into thermoplastics and thermosets.
Amino resins, Polyethylene, Polystyrene, Epoxy resins, Polypropylene, Polycarbonate, Polyesters,
Polyamides, Phenolics, Polyurethanes, Teflon, Acrylics, Acetal resins.
Answer Thermoplastics: Polyethylene, Polystyrene, Polypropylene, Polycarbonate, polyamides,
Teflon, Acrylics and Acetal resins.
Thermosets: Amino resins, Epoxy resins, Polyesters, Phenolics and Polyurethanes.
33. State the important characteristics of polyethylene.
Answer
(a) It is a most widely used thermoplastic polymer.
(b) It involves low cost, chemical inertness and easy processing.
(c) It is used in the form of sheets, film and wire insulation.
(d) Bottles, pipes and housewares are typical products.
34. What is a cyclotrone?
Answer Cyclotrone, invented by Lawrence, is a device used to increase the velocity of alpha
particles, protons and deuterons. It uses very high frequency A.C. voltage of the order of 10,000
to 20,000 volts to produce the particles velocity of about 40,000 km/s.
35. What is the difference between fast breeder reactors and thermal reactors?
Answer Fast breeder reactors use fast neutrons and no moderators are required to control them.
Thermal reactors use moderators to control the chain reactions.
36. What is controlled nuclear fission?

Answer In uncontrolled nuclear fission, more than one neutron is released which initiate the
chain reactions and hence are needed to be controlled. The reaction is controlled in such a way
that on an average one neutron is left from each fission to be utilised for further fission and hence
making the chain reaction fully controllable.
37. What are the applications of controlled nuclear fission?
Answer The energy released during the controlled nuclear fission is utilised in the generation
of electricity by driving the turbo-generators. It also finds applications in warships and submarines.
38. What is binding energy?
Answer Binding energy of a nucleus is the amount of energy released during the formation of
a nucleus from its constituent units i.e., protons and neutrons. It is also defined as the energy required
to break a nucleus into its constituent units. It depends on mass defect. Greater the mass defect,
greater is the binding energy of the nucleus.
39. What is radioactivity?
Answer Radioactivity is a process in which nuclei of certain elements, called radioactive elements,
undergo spontaneous disintegration to emit radiations such as alpha (α), beta (β) and gamma (γ).
The phenomenon was discovered by Henri Becquerel in 1896.
40. What is the unit of radioactivity?
Answer The standard unit of radioactivity is curie. One curie is equal to 3.7 × 1010 disintegrations
per second. Rutherford is another unit of radioactivity. One rutherford is equal to 106 disintegrations
per second.
41. What is half-life period?
Answer Half-life period of a radioactive substance is the period during which its radioactivity
is reduced to one half of its initial value.
42. What are the characteristics of α-particles?
Answer α-particles are positively charged helium ion (He++). They have high ionization power
but weak penetration.
43. What are the characteristics of β-particles?
Answer β-particles are considered as a stream of electrons. They have lower ionization power
compared to α-particles but their penetration is more.
44. What are the characteristics of gamma rays?
Answer Gamma rays are electromagnetic waves having velocity equal to that of light. They
have very high penetration power but low ionising power. They are not affected by electric and
magnetic fields.
1. 18-4-1 HSS contains 18% chromium, 4% tungsten and 1% vanadium.
2. Ceramic tools can absorb shock.
3. Stellites are cobalt based cutting tool materials.

4. Cubic boron nitride (CBN) is also called artificial diamond because of its extreme hardness.
5. Inserts are usually made of high speed steel.
6. Epoxy is an important reinforcing material.
7. Matrix forms the major part of the composites.
8. Incoloy is a cobalt-based super alloy.
9. Dolomite is an acidic refractory.
10. Silicon carbide and chromite are neutral refractory.
11. Teflon bearings are self lubricating.
12. Bronze consists of copper and zinc.
13. Addition polymerisation is characterised by by-products.
14. Teflon is an addition polymer.
15. Phenol formaldehyde is also called bakelite.
16. Injection moulding is used for thermoplastic polymers.
17. Compression and transfer moulding are used for thermosetting polymers.
18. The principle of atom bomb is based on nuclear fusion.
19. Alpha particles are negatively charged particles.
20. Fission of one atom of U-235 releases 200 MeV of energy.
ANSWERS
1. F 2. F 3. T 4. T 5. F 6. F
7. T 8. F 9. F 10. T 11. T 12. F
13. F 14. T 15. T 16. T 17. T 18. F
19. F 20. T.
REVIEW QUESTIONS
1. What are the important characteristics of cutting tool materials?
2. Why is high speed steel (HSS) so named?
3. Name the two methods used to provide coating on carbide tools.
4. What are inserts usually made of?
5. Why are bearing materials so named?
6. What are the important characteristics of bearing materials?
7. What is white metal?

8. What does bronze consist of?

9. For which type of applications teflon bearings are used?
10. What is polymerisation? What are its types?
11. How is condensation polymerisation different from addition one?
12. Give two examples each of addition and condensation polymers.
13. How are elastomers different from other polymers?
14. Why are thermosetting polymers so named?
15. Differentiate between thermoplastic and thermosetting polymers.
16. What is bakelite?
17. What are compression and transfer moulding?
18. How does enriched uranium differ from natural uranium?
19. What is the function of control rod?
20. What are the common nuclear radiations?
21. What are fast breeder reactors? How do they differ from conventional nuclear reactors?
22. Differentiate between nuclear fission and nuclear fusion. Give one example of each.
23. What is the function of moderator?
C H A P T E R
6
Introduction to Casting
• Casting is a very important manufacturing process used to produce the products as a single unit.
It finds extensive applications in manufacturing industries.
• In casting, metal is first melted in a suitable furnace. The molten metal is poured in a cavity similar
to the size of the object being made where it is allowed to solidify. After solidification, the cavity
is destroyed to take out the solid object from it. This solid object as well as the process are called
casting. Casting can be subjected to subsequent machining as per requirements.
• The process can be used to make intricate details, produce hollow cavities or any curved surfaces
in the parts.
• Important casting products include engine blocks, fly wheels, crankshafts, pistons, turbine blades
and machine tool beds.
• Metals chiefly suitable for casting operation include cast iron, copper alloys, aluminium, zinc, nickel
and magnesium.
• Moulding flask is a container which keeps the entire casting components inside it during the casting
process. There is a dividing line called parting line in the flask which separates it into two parts.
The upper part of the flask is called cope and the lower part drag. Sometimes flask has three
parts and the intermediate part is called cheek.
• A pattern is the exact copy of the object to be made. Wood, metal and plastic are important pattern
materials.
• A mould is a structure which is made with the help of a pattern. It contains cavity of size similar
to that of object being cast. It can be made of sand, metal, plaster and ceramic.
• A sand mould is prepared by placing and ramming the sand around a pattern and its subsequent
removal to create the desired cavity to be filled with molten metal during casting. Metallic moulds
are called permanent moulds or dies. They are used for repetitive castings.
• An expendable mould is destroyed to take the casting out of it after solidification. A disposable
pattern is consumed (lost) in the process of making a casting. It is made of polystyrene (a type
of plastic material).
• A sprue is a vertical channel which connects the pouring basin to the runner. It is also called
down sprue because it allows the liquid to flow in the downward direction.
• Runner is a horizontal channel in the parting line.
• Gate is the actual entry point near the mould cavity.
• A gating system consists of pouring basin, sprue, runner and gate. Design of a gating system includes
design of individual elements.
• Riser is a reservoir of hot molten metal used to feed the mould in case of shrinkage of metal
during solidification of a casting.
• A vent is provided to allow the easy escape of gases from the sand mould.
• A core is basically made of sand and is used to create cavity such as holes in the casting.
• A chill is a metallic structure used to conduct away the heat from the casting during its solidification.
It increases the cooling rate.
• Castability of a material is its ability to be cast. Good castability means a material can be easily
cast. Cast irons have better castability as compared to other materials.
• Moulding is the process of making a mould. Green sand moulding uses green sand which contains
moisture. Dry sand moulding uses dry sand, that is, sand without moisture.
TYPES OF PATTERN
• Selection of a pattern depends upon the number of castings required and their geometrical struc-
ture.
• A solid pattern is a wooden pattern, also called one piece pattern because of its constructional
feature. It is used when the shape of castings to be produced is not complex and also their numbers
are small.
• A split pattern is used for complex castings not obtainable from solid patterns. The pattern is
split along the parting line into two parts, one for cope and another for drag.
• A match plate pattern uses a match plate which has cope and drag impressions on its two sides
and it is useful for large scale production.
• A cope and drag pattern is a variation of match plate pattern. It uses two match plates in place
of one as in the case of match plate pattern, one for cope part and another for drag part of the
casting.
• A gated pattern is useful for small size castings to be produced in large numbers. It consists
of multicavity moulds which are fed by a single runner.
• A skeleton pattern is a wooden pattern used for large size castings. It is in the form of a frame
outlining the shape of the casting.
• A loose piece pattern is used for complex castings involving withdrawal problem. It is made in
more than one piece. The larger part is withdrawn first and the smaller part is taken out through
the space created by removing the larger part.
PATTERN ALLOWANCE
• A pattern is always made larger than the actual size of the casting. The difference in the dimensions
of pattern and casting is referred to as pattern allowance. Important pattern allowances include
shrinkage, machining, draft and rapping.
Introduction to Casting 6.3
• A shrinkage allowance takes care of contraction of metals during the solidification of a casting.
Shrinkage is of three types:
(a) liquid shrinkage during melting-pouring stage
(b) solidification shrinkage during phase transformation from liquid to solid, and
(c) solid shrinkage when the temperature finally drops to room temperature.
• The shrinkage allowance depends upon the material being cast. Grey cast iron has least shrinkage
allowance.
• Machining allowance is related to surface finish of a casting. Surfaces of a casting produced especially
by sand casting are rough and need machining. The material removed during machining to convert
it into finished product is called machining allowance.
Interior surfaces require more machining allowance compared to external ones. Die castings and
investment castings do not require any machining allowance.
• Draft allowance facilitates withdrawal of a pattern from a mould. It may happen that edges of
the mould in contact with the pattern may get damaged during pattern-mould detachment. To reduce
this possibility, surfaces of the pattern in the direction of its withdrawal from the mould are slightly
tapered and this provision is called draft allowance. Draft depends upon the shape and size of
the casting and usually varies between 0.5o and 2o. Inner surfaces require more draft.
• Rapping or shaking allowance is a negative allowance. To detach the surfaces of a pattern from
a mould, the pattern needs to be shaked. During shaking, the size of the mould cavity may increase.
This allowance is provided by decreasing the size of the pattern.
ADVANTAGES OF CASTING PROCESS

Casting offers the following advantages over other manufacturing methods:
(a) Casting produces objects in the form of a single piece, thus reducing manufacturing cost.
(b) The process is very simple and has high production rate.
(c) Very large size objects can be made which are otherwise difficult or uneconomical to produce.
Examples include large size pump housings, valves and parts of hydroelectric plants.
(d) Many cast parts do not require subsequent machining, thus reducing processing cost.
MELTING FURNACES
• Electric, induction, crucible and cupola are the important furnaces used in foundry shop.
• Electric furnace is used in the production of steels. It uses an electric arc produced between two
or three graphite electrodes and the charged metal.
• Advantages of electric furnace include high production rate (due to high melting rate), more environment
friendly and its ability to hold molten metal for prolonged time.
• Induction furnace is an electric furnace based on the induction heating. Coreless and core furnaces
are two induction furnaces. They are especially suitable for small foundries and can produce the
highest temperature of around 1750oC.
• Crucible furnace is a low cost furnace consisting of a crucible to be heated from outside and it
is mainly used for non-ferrous heating.
• Cupola furnace is the most commonly used furnace for converting pig iron into grey cast iron
and subsequently using it for casting process. The charge of the cupola consists of alternate layer
of coke, pig iron mixed with scrap castings and a flux, mostly limestone (CaCO3).
• Advantages of a cupola include its simple construction, low maintenance and operation cost and
its long continuous operation.
MOULDING SAND
• Sand is an important material used for making sand mould. Since the molten metal is directly
poured into sand mould and hence sand must not fuse.
• The moulding sand consists of silica (SiO2), water and clay which acts as a natural binding agent.
A typical moulding sand may contain 88% silica, 9% clay and 3% water. Bentonite clay is the
most commonly used clay in moulding sand.
• Natural moulding sand is directly obtained from the ground and essentially contains clay.
• Synthetic sand is artificially prepared by mixing clay-free silica, water, binder and additive. It has
improved quality and is preferred over natural moulding sand.
• Facing sand consists of carbonaceous materials and is used to make the face that is, inner surface
of the mould. It is sprinkled in smaller quantity on the pattern from all the sides, during the process
of making the mould, to improve the surface finish of the casting.
PROPERTIES OF MOULDING SAND

• Permeability, also called porosity, allows gases generated inside the sand mould to escape to the
atmosphere. In the absence of this property, the mould can burst affecting the quality of the casting.
Shape and size of sand grains, ramming pressure, moisture content and binder affect porosity of
moulding sand. Soft ramming is desirable but hard ramming undesirable. Use of excessive water
reduces permeability.
• Refractoriness of moulding sound prevents its fusion during pouring of molten metal into sand
mould.
• Cohesiveness increases strength of the moulding sand by keeping sand particles closely attached
to themselves. It greatly depends on clay and moisture content of the moulding sand.
• Collapsibility ensures sand mould to automatically collapse once the solidification process is over.
Absence of this property will prevent free contraction of the metal thereby producing defect in
the castings.
TESTING OF MOULDING SAND

• Moisture content test is conducted on a moisture teller machine. A definite amount of sand is thoroughly
heated at few degrees above 100oC and the loss in its weight is measured which is indicative
of the moisture content present in the moulding sand. Ideally the moisture content should vary
between 2 to 8%.
• Clay content test is performed on a 50 gram sand sample. The sample is thoroughly washed in
caustic soda solution which absorbs the clay. This solution is then thrown and the remaining sand
is dried and weighed. The loss in weight of the sample multiplied by 2 gives the clay percentage
in the moulding sand.
• Permeability test is based on the calculation of permeability number indicating volume of air in
cm3 that passes through a sand specimen of 1 cm2 in cross-section and 1 cm deep under a pressure
of 10 gram ⁄ cm2 for a minute.
The permeability number is expressed as

V.H
N=
p.A.t
3007.2
=
t
where V = Volume of air (= 2000 cm3)
H = Height of sand specimen (= 5.08 cm)
p = Pressure of air (= 10 gm ⁄ cm2)
A = Area of cross−section of sand specimen (= 20.268 cm2)
t = Time (in sec).
• Fineness test, also known as AFS sieve analysis test is based on the sand gain size. The AFS
grain fine number indicates the average grain size of the moulding sand.
• Mould and core hardness test is based on the indentation produced on a well rammed sand mould
when pressed by a steel ball of 5 mm diameter.
No indentation condition is arbitrarily assigned a hardness number of 100 which is indicative of
higher hardness of the moulding sand. A zero hardness number means the moulding sand is very
soft.
• Compression test measures the strength of moulding sand. It is performed by applying a compressive
force on a cylindrical sand specimen of size 50 mm in height and 50 mm in diameter.
SHELL MOULDING
• It is a variation of sand mould casting. It uses very little quantity of sand mixed with thermosetting
resin to prepare thin shells usually in even numbers. Advantages of shell moulding include better
surface finish and good dimensional accuracy. It uses a heated pattern which helps to stick sand
particles to its surface during mould formation. Shell moulding is a costly operation which can
be justified only for large production run. Typical products include camshafts, gears and valves.

(i) Sand (ii) Plaster and ceramic
(iii) Metal
A mould can be made of
(a) (i) (b) (i) and (iii)
2. Sand casting uses a
(a) metal mould (b) sand mould
(c) ceramic mould (d) plaster mould.
3. Expendable moulds are destroyed to remove the casting when the process of solidification is over.
Choose the expendable mould from the following lists.
(i) Metal moulds (ii) Sand moulds
(iii) Ceramic moulds (iv) Plaster moulds

(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iii).
4. Consider the following statements about permanent mould:
(i) It is made of metal.
(ii) It can withstand high temperatures of molten metal.
(iii) It can be used to produce a number of castings.
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) are true (d) (i) and (iii) are true.
5. Cope is defined as
(a) lower part of the moulding flask (b) upper part of the moulding flask
(c) intermediate part of the moulding flask (d) channel in the parting line.
6. Drag is defined as
(a) lower part of the moulding flask (b) upper part of the moulding flask
(c) intermediate part of the moulding flask (d) channel in the parting line.
(i) Wood (ii) Plastic
(iii) Metal
A pattern is made of
(a) (i) (b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii).
8. The design of a riser is based on
(a) Bernoulli’s theorem (b) Continuity equation
(c) Chvorinov’s rule (d) Viscosity law.
(i) Mould material (ii) Casting material
(iii) Pouring temperature
Mould constant depends on
(a) (i) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iii).
10. According to Chvorinov’s rule, the solidification time for a casting varies
(a) directly proportional to surface area of the casting
(b) directly proportional to square of the surface area of the casting
(c) inversely proportional to surface area of the casting
(d) inversely proportional to square of the surface area of casting.
11. The velocity of the liquid metal at the base of a sprue of height h is given by the following equation
(a) √⎯⎯gh
⎯ (b) √⎯⎯⎯ ⎯
2gh (c) √⎯⎯⎯⎯
3gh (d) √ ⎯⎯2 gh.
12. There are two important equation which are used in the analysis of molten metal flow in casting.
These are
(a) momentum equation and continuity equation
(b) Bernoulli’s equation and momentum equation
(c) Bernoulli’s equation and continuity equation
(d) Viscosity equation and continuity equation.
13. Fluidity of molten metal depends on the following parameters:
(i) Pouring temperature
(ii) Metal composition and its viscosity in the liquid state
(iii) Heat transfer rate
Of these
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) are true (d) (i) and (ii) are true.
14. Chills are used in casting moulds to
(a) achieve directional solidification (b) reduce possibility of blow holes
(c) reduce the freezing time (d) increase the smoothness of cast surface.
15. The liquid contraction during pouring-to-freezing temperature change is usually
(a) 0.5% of the liquid volume (b) 1.0% of the liquid volume
(c) 2.0% of the solid volume (d) 0.5% of the solid volume.
16. Molten metal in the riser solidifies late. Approximately this time is
(a) 10% more than casting (b) 15% of more than casting
(c) 20% more than casting (d) 25% more than casting.
(i) It is made in one piece. (ii) It is the simplest type of pattern.
(iii) It is useful for low production run.
With respect to a solid pattern
List I List II
(Types of pattern) (Description)
A. Solid pattern 1. Uses a single match plate; its one side
has cope impression and other side has
drag impression
B. Match plate pattern 2. Made in one piece
C. Cope and drag pattern 3. Used for small size castings in large
numbers
D. Gated pattern 4. Uses two match plates
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 2 4 1 3.
List I List II
(Types of mould) (Description)
A. Shell mould 1. Produces complex shapes
B. Permanent mould 2. Destroyed after castings
C. Expendable mould 3. Suffers from chilling effect
D. Composite mould 4. A variation of sand mould
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 2 4 1
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 1 4 3 2.
List I List II
(Casting terminology) (Description)
A. Chaplet 1. Replica of the casting to be made
B. Cope 2. Stores hot liquid metal
C. Pattern 3. Supports a core
D. Riser 4. Upper part of the mould
5. Lower part of the mould
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 5 1 2
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 1 4 3 2.
List I List II
(Casting terminology) (Description)
A. Chvorinov’s rule 1. Used to control the flow of liquid metal
B. Sprue 2. A horizontal channel in the parting line

C. Runner 3. A defect in permanent moulds
D. Chilling effect 4. Basis of a riser design
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 1 2 4
(b) 3 2 1 4
(c) 4 1 2 3
(d) 4 2 1 3.
List I List II
(Moulding process) (Binding agent)
A. Green sand 1. Silicate
B. Core sand 2. Organic
C. Shell moulding 3. Clay
D. CO2 process 4. Plaster of paris
5. Plastic
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 2 5 1
(b) 3 2 4 1
(c) 2 3 5 4
(d) 2 3 4 5.
23. Which of the following materials can be used for making patterns?
(i) Aluminium (ii) Wax
(iii) Mercury (iv) Lead
(a) (i), (iii) and (iv) (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
List I List II
(Equipments) (Functions)
A. Hot chamber machine 1. Cleaning
B. Muller 2. Core making
C. Dielectric baker 3. Die casting
D. Sand blasting 4. Annealing
5. Mixing
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 5 2 1
(b) 4 2 5 3
(c) 4 2 3 1
(d) 3 5 1 2.
25. Which of the following are the requirements of an ideal gating system?
(i) The molten metal should enter the mould cavity with as high a velocity as possible.
(ii) It should facilitate complete filling of the mould cavity.
(iii) It should be able to prevent the absorption of air or gases from the surroundings in the molten
metal while flowing through it.
Codes:
(i) Pit moulding — For large jobs
(ii) Investment moulding — Lost wax process
(iii) Plaster moulding — Mould prepared in gypsum
Of these
27. Consider the following ingredients used in moulding:
(i) Dry silica sand (ii) Clay
(iii) Phenol formaldehyde (iv) Sodium silicate
Those used for shell mould casting include
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iii) (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv).
28. In solidification of metal during casting, compensation for contraction is
(a) provided by the oversize pattern
(b) achieved by properly placed risers
(c) obtained by promoting directional solidification
(d) made by providing chills.
29. Which of the following refractory materials is recommended for steel furnaces containing CaO slags?
(a) Alumina (b) Silica (c) Magnesia (d) Fireclay.
List I List II
A. Runner 1. Vertical channel
B. Sprue 2. Horizontal channel
C. Vent 3. Reservoir of molten metal

D. Riser 4. Allows easy escape of gases
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 2 1 4
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 1 2 4 3.
31. If the melting ratio of a cupola is 10 : 1, then the coke requirement for one ton melt will be
(a) 0.1 ton (b) 10 tons (c) 1 ton (d) 11 tons.
32. Which of the following is the most widely used steel in casting?
33. What is the impact of heat-treatment on the castings of medium carbon steels?
(i) Strength is increased. (ii) Ductility is improved.
(iii) Endurance limit is increased. (iv) Impact strength is increased.
Of these parameters:
34. Which of the following castings is not suitable for heat treatment?
35. Which of the following devices is used to reduce stress concentration?
(a) Chaplet (b) Chill (c) Fillet (d) Core.
36. Which of the following materials requires least shrinkage allowance?

(a) Aluminum (b) Gray cast iron
(c) Steel (d) Brass.
37. Which of the following materials requires highest shrinkage allowance?

(a) Aluminum (b) Gray cast iron
(c) Steel (d) Brass.
38. Consider the following statements about hot spots:

(i) They have slow cooling rate.
(ii) They represent weaker zones in casting.
(iii) They create shrinkage cavities in casting.
39. Risers are used to feed excess molten metal to take care of solidification shrinkage. For steel casting,
solidification shrinkage has the following value:
(a) 1 to 2 percent (b) 2 to 3 percent
(c) 3 to 4 percent (d) 5 to 10 percent.
40. Superheating is usually carried out to reduce the chances of solidification shrinkage. Which of the
following statements is correct about the superheat temperature for steel?
(a) It is about 40oC above the liquidus temperature.
(b) It is about 70oC above the liquidus temperature.
(c) It is about 100oC above the liquidus temperature.
(d) It is about 120oC above the liquidus temperature.
41. Shrinkages are of three types: liquid shrinkage, solidification shrinkage and solid-state shrinkage.
Their values for a typical steel casting appear in the following order:
(a) 3%, 1.5% and 4% (b) 1.5%, 3% and 7%
(c) 6%, 1.0%, and 3% (d) 5%, 2.0% and 1.5%.
42. Consider the following shrinkages:

(i) Liquid shrinkage (ii) Solidification shrinkage
(iii) Solid-state shrinkage
Shrinkage allowance consists of
(a) (i) (b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (iii).
(i) Ribs are used to reinforce thinner sections and reduce warpage.
(ii) Fillets reduce stress concentration.
(iii) Chills are used to reduce shrinkage cavities.
(iv) Draft is required in sand mould and permanent mould casting both.
(a) (i) and (ii) are true (b) (i), (ii) and (iv) are true
44. Consider the following heat treatment processes:
(i) Annealing (ii) Spheroidising
(iii) Normalising (iv) Carburising
Of these, which of the following processes is generally used in case of steel castings?
(c) (i) and (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv).
45. Non-ferrous castings are subjected to
(a) Normalising (b) Annealing
(c) Precipitation hardening (d) Spheroidising.

(i) Smooth surface finish is obtained.
(ii) Close dimensional tolerances are possible.
(iii) Rate of production is high.
(iv) Aluminium alloy castings are usually produced.
Which of the above statements is applicable for permanent mould casting?
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv).
47. In shell-mould casting, the shell is made of
(a) plastics (b) silica-sand
(c) wax (d) metal.
48. What does curing of shell mean?
(a) It is connected with mixing of silica sand with phenol
(b) It is connected with heating the shell in an oven
(c) It is connected with joining of two half shells with adhesives
(d) It is connected with cooling of shell in an open atmosphere.
(i) It uses a preheated metal pattern.
(ii) It uses urea formaldehyde to mix with silica sand.
(iii) It is a variation of sand mould casting.
(iv) It is useful for large size castings.
Of these, which of the above statements is true for shell-mould casting?
(a) (ii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (iii) and (iv).
50. Which of the following is the best metal for making a pattern?
(a) Steel (b) Aluminium
(c) Cast iron (d) Brass.
51. Metal patterns are cast from
(a) plastic pattern (b) wax pattern
(c) wooden pattern (d) plaster pattern.
(i) Match plate patterns are used for producing small castings in large numbers.
(ii) Gated patterns are used for producing small castings.
(iii) Cope and drag patterns are used for large size castings.
(iv) A skeleton pattern is made of metal.
(a) (ii) is true (b) (i) and (iii) are true
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) are true (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are true.

(i) A solid pattern is used to make big size simple castings in small numbers.
(ii) A sweep pattern can produce castings having circular sections and symmetrical shapes.
(iii) A split pattern is made in three pieces.
(iv) A loose piece pattern is used when there is a withdrawal problem.
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are true (d) (i), (ii) and (iv) are true.
(i) Distortion allowance is provided for U or V shaped castings.
(ii) External surfaces require more draft as compared to internal ones.
(iii) Shake allowance is considered as a negative allowance.
(iv) Gray cast iron requires least shrinkage allowance.
(a) (i) and (ii) are true (b) (i), (iii) and (iv) are true
(i) Permanent moulds are usually used in the castings of low melting point materials.
(ii) Moulding sand contains 2 to 8% of water.
(iii) The most commonly used clay in moulding sand is bentonite.
(iv) Additives are used to impart new properties or to improve the existing properties of the moulding
sand.
(a) (ii) and (iv) are true (b) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are true
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are true (d) (ii) and (iii) are true.
56. Chills are used to promote directional solidification. They are made of
(a) Copper (b) Aluminium
(c) Brass (d) All of the above.
(i) Green sand is so called because of its green colour.
(ii) Hard ramming improves permeability of the moulding sand.
(iii) Facing sand is used to make the face of the mould cavity.
(iv) Adhesiveness helps to keep the sand particles together.
(a) (i) is incorrect (b) (i) and (iv) are incorrect
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) are incorrect (d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are incorrect.
58. A muller is used to
(a) dry the moulding sand (b) mix the moulding sand
(c) wet the moulding sand (d) ram the moulding sand.
59. Consider the following parameters of the moulding sand:

(i) Grain shape and size (ii) Moisture content
(iii) Degree of ramming (iv) Additives
Which of the above parameters affects the permeability of moulding sand?
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii).
60. For permeability test, the sand specimen has the standard height of
(a) 5.08 cm (b) 6.08 cm (c) 7.08 cm (d) 8.08 cm.
61. During permeability test, how much volume of air is allowed to pass through the sand specimen?
(a) 1000 cm3 (b) 2000 cm3
(c) 2000 mm3 (d) 3000 mm3.
62. Which of the following characteristics of the moulding sand is measured by a dilatometer?
(a) Tensile strength (b) Shear strength
(c) Compressive strength (d) Clay content.
63. According to Chvorinov’s rule, the freezing time is

(i) Directly proportional to area.
(ii) Directly proportional to square of area.
(iii) Inversely proportional to the square of area.
(iv) Directly proportional to the square of volume.
Of these
(a) (ii) is true (b) (iii) and (iv) are true
(c) (ii) and (iii) are true (d) (i) and (iv) are true.
64. According to Chvorinov’s rule, which of the following shapes is suggested for a riser?
(a) Conical (b) Cylindrical
(c) Spherical (d) Rectangular.
65. Caine’s method is connected with the design of
(a) riser (b) sprue
(c) runner (d) parting line.
66. Tuyeres are used

(a) to feed the charge in the cupola
(b) to allow the air in the combustion zone of cupola
(c) to collect the molten metal
(d) to throw the exhaust from the cupola.
67. Charging in a cupola consists of
(a) alternate layers of limestone and coke
(b) alternate layers of iron and coke
(c) alternate layers of limestone, iron and coke

(d) alternate layers of limestone and iron.
68. Consider the following statements about a cupola furnace:

(i) It has high initial cost.
(ii) It is simple in design and easier to construct.
(iii) It can’t be used continuously for long hours.
(iv) It has low operation and maintenance cost.
(a) (i) and (ii) are true
(b) (ii) and (iii) are true
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are true
(d) (ii) and (iv) are true.
69. Directional solidification in castings can be improved by using
(a) chills and chaplets (b) chills and padding
(c) chaplets and padding (d) chills, chaplets and padding.
List I List II
(Pattern allowances) (Description)
A. Machining allowance 1. Takes care of the contraction of metal
during solidification
B. Draft allowance 2. A negative allowance
C. Shrinkage allowance 3. Ensures easy withdrawal of the pattern
from the mould
D. Rapping allowance 4. Excess in dimension over actual
dimension of the pattern
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 3 4 1 2
71. Which of the following methods is used for obtaining directional solidification for riser design?
(i) Suitable placement of chills
(ii) Suitable placement of chaplets
(iii) Employing padding
Select the correct answer:
72. Expendable moulds are made of

(a) sand (b) plaster
(c) ceramics (d) All of the above.
73. Consider the following properties:
(i) Repeatability (ii) Better heat conducting
(iii) Greater accuracy (iv) Short life.
Which of the above properties is possessed by a permanent mould?
(i) A sprue is a vertical channel. (ii) A runner is a vertical channel.
(iii) A cope is the lower part of the mould. (iv) A pattern is usually made of sand.
Which of the above statements is true?
(a) (i) only (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv).
75. Cores are used
(a) to form the interior surfaces of the casting.
(b) to form external surfaces of the casting.
(c) to increase dimensional accuracy of the casting.
(d) to increase the rate of cooling of the casting.
76. Draft
(a) takes care of shrinkage in casting.
(b) facilitates withdrawal of casting from the mould.
(c) increases stability of the casting in the mould.
(d) is used to create holes in the casting.
ANSWERS
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (a)
7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (d) 11. (b) 12. (c)
13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (a) 16. (d) 17. (d) 18. (a)
19. (b) 20. (b) 21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (a)
25. (c) 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (b) 29. (b) 30. (c)
31. (a) 32. (b) 33. (d) 34. (a) 35. (c) 36. (b)
37. (c) 38. (d) 39. (c) 40. (a) 41. (b) 42. (d)
43. (d) 44. (c) 45. (c) 46. (c) 47. (b) 48. (b)
49. (b) 50. (b) 51. (c) 52. (c) 53. (d) 54. (b)
55. (b) 56. (d) 57. (c) 58. (b) 59. (d) 60. (a)
61. (b) 62. (c) 63. (b) 64. (c) 65. (a) 66. (b)
67. (c) 68. (d) 69. (b) 70. (c) 71. (b) 72. (d)
73. (b) 74. (a) 75. (a) 76. (b).

1. What are the elements of a gating system?
Answer A gating system consists of pouring basin, sprue, runner and gate.
2. What is the function of a riser?
Answer A riser is a reservoir of hot molten metal which supplies the metal in the mould cavity,
in case of shrinkage during solidification.
3. A pattern is slightly made bigger than the actual size of the casting. Why?
Answer Pattern is made oversize mainly to allow for the compensation of shrinkage of metal
during the solidification of casting.
4. What does the higher ratio of volume-to-surface area indicate?
Answer Higher value of volume-to-surface area ratio is indicative of higher solidification time
for a casting. In other words, a casting will cool and solidify more slowly than one with a lower
ratio.
5. What are the three stages of shrinkage in casting?
Answer The three stages of shrinkage in casting are the following:
(a) Contraction of liquid during its temperature change from pouring temperature to freezing tempera-
ture.
(b) Contraction during phase change from liquid state to solid state.
(c) Contraction of solid during its temperature change from freezing temperature to room tempera-
ture.
6. Wood is a common pattern material. Why?
Answer A wooden pattern is easier to be shaped because of the favourable characteristics of
wood.
7. What are the demerits of a wooden pattern?
Answer Wooden pattern can absorb moisture from the sand and its shape can get distorted affecting
the size of the casting. Its surfaces are also eroded by the sharp sand particles affecting the surface
finish of the castings produced.
8. What is Chvorinov’s rule?
Answer According to Chvorinov’s rule, the solidification time, t for a casting is given by the
following relation:
2
⎛V⎞
t = Cm ⎜ ⎟
⎝A⎠
where Cm = Mould constant
V = Volume of casting
A = Surface area of casting.
9. What are the vent holes? For what purpose are they useful?
Answer Vent holes are smaller holes made in the mould (sand or permanent) to allow easy
escape of air or gases during pouring of the molten metal in the mould cavity.
10. What is pouring temperature?
Answer Pouring temperature is the temperature of the molten metal when it enters the mould
cavity.
11. What can happen if molten metal is directly poured in the sprue without using a pouring basin?
Answer It will cause turbulence in the molten metal producing many casting defects.
12. What is the difference between match-plate pattern and cope and drag pattern?
Answer In match plate pattern, there is a single match plate which contains cope and drag pieces
of the pattern on its opposite sides. In cope and drag pattern, cope and drag pieces of the pattern
are separately mounted on two match plates.
13. Why is a core provided?
Answer Core is provided to create a cavity in the casting. It is usually made of sand. A metal
core is used in permanent mould casting.
14. What is the function of a chaplet?
Answer A chaplet is used to support a core in the mould cavity. It becomes the integral part
of the casting. A chaplet should be made of the same material as that of casting.
15. What is the purpose of ramming? What is its effect on the permeability of moulding sand?
Answer Ramming uniformly distributes the sand particles all around the mould. Soft ramming
increases the permeability of moulding sand but hard ramming reduces it by closing all the smaller
holes in the sand mass.
16. What is green sand?

Answer Sand containing moisture is called a green sand.
17. What are the advantages of a full-mould process?
Answer
(a) It uses a polystyrene foam pattern which is lost during making of the casting, hence pattern
is not required to be removed from the mould. It eliminates the scope of pattern allowances.
(b) Any intricate details can be easily made in the pattern to be finally reproduced in the casting.
18. What does charge mean in a cupola?
Answer The charge in a cupola consists of iron (pig iron and scrap), coke and flux.
1. Casting can produce a product as a single unit.
2. Vent is used to achieve directional solidification.
3. A disposable pattern is made of polystyrene.

4. Moulding flask is a part of gating system.
5. A skeleton pattern is used for small size castings.
6. Inner surfaces require less draft as compared to outer surfaces.
7. Synthetic sand contains clay.
8. Shell moulding produces rough castings.
9. Bernoulli’s theorem is used in the design of a riser.
10. Ramming is used to increase the refractoriness of moulding sand.
11. A match plate pattern uses two match plates.
12. A chaplet is used to support a core.
13. Core is the projected part in the casting.
14. Green sand contains no moisture.
15. Sprue is a horizontal channel in the parting line.
ANSWERS
1. T 2. F 3. T 4. F 5. F 6. F
7. F 8. F 9. T 10. F 11. F 12. T
13. F 14. F 15. F.
NUMERICAL PROBLEMS
Problem 6.1 A sand specimen of height 5.08 cm and diameter 5.08 cm is used in a permeability
test. Find the permeability number if 2000 cm3 of air is allowed to pass through the specimen for
a period of 120 seconds under a pressure of 7 gm ⁄ cm2.
Solution Given,
Volume of air, V = 2000 cm3
Height of sand specimen, H = 5.08 cm
Diameter of sand specimen, D = 5.08 cm
Time of air flow, T = 120 seconds = 2 min
Gas pressure, P = 7 gm ⁄ cm2
The permeability number is expressed as
V.H
N=
A.P.T
2000 × 5.08
=
π
× (5.08)2 × 7 × 2
4
= 35.8 Ans.
REVIEW QUESTIONS
1. What is casting? How does it differ from other manufacturing processes?
2. Name few important casting products.
3. What does a gating system consist of?
4. What are the different stages of shrinkage?
5. What is draft? Why is it required?
6. Why is cupola furnace most widely used in casting?
7. What is the difference between natural sand and synthetic sand?
8. Why is porosity required in moulding sand?
9. What is shell moulding?
10. Why is a sprue tapered in its lower section?
11. What is Bernoulli’s theorem?
12. What are the advantages of a metallic mould?
13. When is a loose piece pattern useful?
14. Why is a pattern made larger than the casting?
15. What is the composition of a moulding sand?
16. What is the effect of water on the porosity?
17. How does a match plate pattern differ from a cope and drag pattern?
C H A P T E R
7
Various Casting Processes
PERMANENT-MOULD CASTING
• It is also known as gravity die casting because of the fact that the molten metal enters the mould
cavity under the action of gravity.
• It uses metallic mould called die.
• Because of stable nature of mould, it can be used to produce large number of castings with the
same mould.
• It can be used to produce dimensionally accurate castings with close dimensional tolerances.
• The surface finish of the casting produced is very good.
• It is useful for small size castings.
• It is commonly employed for aluminium castings.
• The rate of production is high.
• The cast part is free from casting defects such as porosity, dirt and shrinkage.
SHELL-MOULD CASTING
• It is a variation of sand-mould casting.
• The mould is in the form of two half shells to be clamped together during the process of making
the casting.
• The shell consists of fine silica sand mixed with thermosetting resin such as phenol or urea formaldehyde.
• It uses a preheated metal pattern for making the shell mould.
• The shell mould is baked in an oven before being used for casting and this process is called curing.
• It is useful for making small size castings in small number.
• It requires lower quantity of moulding sand compared to sand-mould casting.
• The dimensional accuracy of the cast part is better than sand-mould casting.
INVESTMENT CASTING
• The process is suitable for small size castings with intricate details.
• It uses a wax pattern and refractory slurry.

• Because of delicate nature of wax pattern, the process is not suitable for large size castings.
• The dimensional accuracy of the parts produced by investment casting is very high and the parts
do not require machining.
• It is not suitable for large production run.
• It finds applications in making jewelleries, dentistries and decorative items.
CENTRIFUGAL CASTING
• It uses a rotating mould.
• Centrifugally cast parts have sound mechanical properties because of elimination of impurities by
the centrifugal action used in the process.
• Aluminium and magnesium alloys are not cast by centrifugal casting. Due to their low density,
they have a tendency to get segregated thus affecting the quality of casting.
• Hollow symmetrical and unsymmetrical parts are easily cast by centrifugal castings.
• Typical parts made by centrifugal casting include flywheel, pulleys, water pipes and gun barrels.
• There are three types of centrifugal casting: True centrifugal, Semicentrifugal and Centrifuging.
• True centrifugal casting is used to make hollow symmetrical parts such as tubes, pipes and so on.
• Centrifuging is used to make unsymmetrical parts.
DIE CASTING
• It uses metallic mould but no riser is required.
• Molten metal is fed into the mould cavity under pressure.
• Because of pressure being used in the process, it is suitable for making complex parts having several
inner details.
• It is limited to small size castings.
• Dimensionally accurate parts can be produced by die casting. Cast parts sometimes do not require
further machining.
• Zinc and aluminium are best cast by die casting, because of their low melting points and better
fluidity.
• Die casting is of two types: hot chamber die casting and cold chamber die casting.
• The furnace is the integral part in hot chamber die casting and the process is suitable for low
melting point materials such as tin, lead and zinc.
• A separate furnace is used in cold chamber die casting and the process is suitable for high melting
point materials such as aluminium, magnesium and brass.
PLASTER-MOULD CASTING
• The mould is made of plaster of paris and is not reusable that is, only one casting can be made
out of plaster-mould.
• It produces casting of high dimensional accuracy.
• Gears and valves are typical products made by this casting.
FULL MOULD CASTING

• It uses a disposable pattern made of polystyrene.
Various Casting Processes 7.3
• The pattern disappears creating a cavity in the mould while coming in contact with molten metal
and the molten metal fills up the mould cavity completely and hence the name full mould casting.
• Core and draft are not required.
SLUSH CASTING
• It is used to make hollow castings without using cores.
• Ornamental and decorative items such as lamp bases, statuettes and toys are made by using this
method.
CONTINUOUS CASTING
• It is also known as strand casting because of the fact that a longer continuous length of the casting
is produced by this method.
• The continuous length can be cut into suitable size.
• Tubes, slabs and gears are typical products made by this method.

1. Dump box and heated metal pattern are used in
(a) investment casting (b) shell-mould casting
(c) centrifugal casting (d) die casting.
2. A wax pattern is used in
(a) investment casting (b) shell-mould casting
(c) centrifugal casting (d) die casting.
3. Precision casting is another name used for
(a) shell-mould casting (b) centrifugal casting
(c) investment casting (d) permanent mould casting.
4. Which of the following casting processes uses a rotating mould?
(a) Shell-mould casting (b) Centrifugal casting
(c) Investment casting (d) Permanent mould casting.
5. Mechanical properties of the cast parts are superior in

(c) investment casting (d) permanent mould casting.

(i) It uses a wax pattern.
(ii) Large number of castings can be produced.
(iii) Only small size castings can be produced.
(iv) It uses pressure to feed the molten metal into the mould cavity.
Which of the above statements is true for investment casting?
(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii) and (iv).
7. Refractory slurry is used in

(c) investment casting (d) die casting.
8. Which of the following casting processes uses pressure to feed the molten metal?
(a) Shell-mould casting (b) Centrifugal casting
(c) Investment casting (d) Die casting.
9. Zinc alloys are preferentially cast by
(a) investment casting (b) die casting
(c) centrifugal casting (d) shell mould casting.
10. Which of the following materials will give maximum die life?
(a) Brass (b) Aluminium (c) Cast iron (d) Zinc.
11. Arrange the following materials in order of their increasing die life
(a) brass, cast iron, zinc and aluminium
(b) brass, cast iron, aluminium and zinc
(c) cast iron, brass, aluminium and zinc
(d) cast iron, brass, zinc and aluminium.
12. Bronze is best cast by
(a) shell-mould casting (b) plaster-mould casting
(c) die casting (d) centrifugal casting.
13. Investment casting is suitable for
(a) small size castings (b) medium size castings
(c) large size castings (d) very large size castings.
14. Consider the following metals and alloys:
(i) Brass (ii) Aluminium
(iii) Steel (iv) Magnesium
Which of the above materials is not suitable for centrifugal castings?
(a) (i) (b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i), (iii) and (iv).
List I List II
(Casting processes) (Description)
A. Investment casting 1. Uses metallic moulds
B. Centrifugal casting 2. Uses very high pressure
C. Permanent mould casting 3. Is also known as lost-pattern casting
D. Die casting 4. Uses a rotating mould
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 4 3 1 2.
List I List II
A. Continuous casting 1. A variation of sand mould casting
B. Squeeze casting 2. Used for making ornamental and
decorative objects
C. Shell-mould casting 3. Also known as strand casting
D. Slush casting 4. Uses pressure during solidification
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 1 4 3 2
(d) 3 1 2 4.
List I List II
A. Investment casting 1. Produces castings of very high purity
B. Continuous casting 2. Uses polystyrene pattern
C. Centrifugal casting 3. Useful for producing tubes, slabs and
gears
D. Full mould casting 4. Uses refracting slurry
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 3 1 4
(b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 1 2 4 3.
List I List II
A. Hot-chamber die casting 1. Produces castings of very high
dimensional accuracy
B. Cold-chamber die casting 2. Used for low melting point metals
C. Centrifugal casting 3. Used for high melting point metals
D. Investment casting 4. Uses no core
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 3 2 4 1
(d) 2 3 4 1.
List I List II
(Types of casting) (Working principle)
A. Die casting 1. Molten metal is forced into the mould
under pressure
B. Centrifugal casting 2. Axis of rotation does not coincide with
axis of mould
C. Centrifuging 3. Metal solidifies when mould is rotating
D. Continuous casting 4. Continuously pouring molten metal into
mould
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 3 2 4
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 1 2 3 4
(d) 4 2 3 1.
List I List II
(Processes) (Products ⁄ Materials)
A. Die casting 1. Phenol formaldehyde
B. Shell moulding 2. C.I. pipes
C. CO2 moulding 3. Non-ferrous alloys
D. Centrifugal casting 4. Sodium silicate
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 3 4 2
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 3 1 2 4
(d) 1 3 2 4.
21. Permanent mould casting is also known as

(a) corthias casting (b) gravity die casting
(c) pressure die casting (d) slush casting.

(i) In hot chamber die casting, the molten metal has higher temperature as compared to that
in cold chamber die casting.
(ii) In hot chamber die casting, the melting furnace is not the integral part of the casting machine.
(iii) Cold chamber die casting uses higher pressure to feed the molten metal into the mould cavity
as compared to hot chamber die casting.
(iv) Cold chamber die casting is used for high melting point materials.
(a) (i) and (iv) are true (b) (ii) and (iii) are true
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) are true (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are true.
(i) True centrifugal casting uses the highest spinning speed as compared to semi centrifugal and
centrifuge casting.
(ii) Semi centrifugal casting can produce more complex shapes as compared to true centrifugal
casting.
(iii) Centrifuge casting uses a central sprue to feed the mould cavities.
(iv) Centrifuge casting is mainly used for producing axi-symmetrical objects.
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) are true (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are true.
24. Which of the following casting processes uses a bottomless mould?

(a) Slush casting (b) Continuous casting
(c) Centrifugal casting (d) Investment casting.
25. Which of the following casting processes can suitably replace a rolling operation?
(a) Permanent mould casting (b) Centrifugal casting
(c) Continuous casting (d) Slush casting.
26. The typical thickness of the shell in shell moulding process is approximately
(a) 5 mm (b) 10 mm (c) 15 mm (d) 20 mm.
27. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Aluminium alloy — Pressure die casting
(b) Jewellery — Lost wax process
(c) Large pipes — Centrifugal casting
(d) Large bells — Loam moulding.
List I List II
(Product) (Process of manufacturing)
A. Automobile piston in 1. Pressure die casting
aluminium alloy
B. Engine crankshaft in spheroidal 2. Gravity die-casting

graphite iron
C. Carburetor housing in 3. Sand casting
aluminium alloy
D. Cast titanium blades 4. Precision investment casting
5. Shell moulding
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 3 1 5
(b) 3 2 1 5
(c) 2 1 3 4
(d) 4 1 2 3.
29. Which of the following pattern-materials is used in precision casting?
(i) Plaster of paris
(ii) Plastics
(iii) Anodized aluminium alloy
(iv) Frozen mercury
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iii).
30. Investment casting is most suitable for
(a) very small sized objects. (b) medium sized objects.
(c) very large sized objects. (d) medium and large sized objects.
31. Which of the following casting processes is used in making jewellery products?
(a) Sand casting (b) Centrifugal casting
(c) Investment casting (d) Vacuum casting.
32. Most commonly used materials cast by using hot-chamber die casting include
(a) Zinc (b) Tin
(c) Lead (d) All of the above.
33. Most commonly used materials cast by using cold-chamber die casting include
(a) Aluminium (b) Magnesium
(c) Copper (d) All of the above.
34. Dynamic action is involved in
(a) Slush casting (b) Investment casting
(c) Centrifugal casting (d) Die casting.
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (b)
7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (d) 11. (c) 12. (b)
13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (d)
19. (a) 20. (b) 21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (d) 24. (b)
25. (c) 26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (a) 30. (a)
31. (c) 32. (d) 33. (d) 34. (c).

1. Why is aluminium and magnesium alloys not usually cast by centrifugal casting?
Answer Aluminium and magnesium alloys have low density and due to rotating mould being
used in the centrifugal casting, these materials have tendency to get segregated, affecting the quality
of casting.
2. Why is investment casting so named?
Answer ‘Investment’ term is used to denote the coating of refractory material on the wax pattern.
3. Why is investment casting not suitable for large castings?
Answer Investment casting uses wax pattern which is delicate to handle and can break easily
on mishandling. Hence they are made in small sizes and are not suitable for large size castings.
4. Name few application areas of investment castings.
Answer Blades of gas turbines, jewellry and dental fixtures.
5. What is the suitability of plaster mould casting?
Answer Plaster mould casting uses a plaster of paris mould and is useful for low melting point
metals such as aluminium and magnesium.
6. What is the suitability of ceramic mould casting?
Answer Ceramic mould casting uses a ceramic mould and is useful for high temperature materials
such as cast steel and cast iron.
7. For which type of metals, hot-chamber die casting process is suitable?
Answer Hot-chamber die casting is suitable for low melting point metals such as zinc, tin and
lead.
8. For which type of metals, cold-chamber die casting process is suitable?
Answer Cold-chamber die casting is suitable for high temperature metals and alloys such as
aluminium, brass and magnesium alloys.
9. Formation of flash is a common phenomenon in die casting. What does flash mean?
Answer Flash is the excess metal squeezed out in the space near the parting line or into the
clearances around the core due to high pressure used in die casting. It is undesirable and has to
be machined off.
10. Which type of mould is used in centrifugal casting?
Answer Rotating mould is used.
1. Shell-mould casting is a variation of sand casting.
2. Permanent mould casting uses sand moulds.
3. Investment casting is also known as precision casting.

4. Investment casting uses metallic moulds.
5. Expendable moulds can be used for repetitive works.
6. No riser is used in diecasting.
7. Hot-chamber diecasting is suitable for low melting point metals.
8. Alloys of aluminium, magnesium and copper are best cast by hot-chamber diecasting.
9. Mechanical properties of a centrifugally cast object are superior.
10. Rotational speed in semicentrifugal casting is higher than that of true centrifugal casting.
ANSWERS
1. T 2. F 3. T 4. F 5. F 6. T
7. T 8. F 9. T 10. F.
REVIEW QUESTIONS
1. What are the advantages of permanent mould casting?
2. How does shell mould casting differ from sand casting?
3. Why is investment casting only suitable for small size casting?
4. Large castings are not made by investment casting. Why?
5. What type of products can be made by using centrifugal casting?
6. How does die casting differ from permanent mould casting?
7. What is the difference between hot chamber and cold chamber die casting?
8. Why is machining not required in investment cast parts?
9. What is full mould casting?
10. For which type of products, slush casting is useful?
11. Why is continuous casting so called?
12. What is flash? Is it desirable?
13. Name two casting processes which do not use riser.
14. What is the difference between true centrifugal and semi centrifugal casting?
15. Why is centrifuging used for large production run?
C H A P T E R
8
Joining Processes
• Manufacturing of a part as a single unit is not always possible. The part may be produced in
the form of different components and these components need to be joined to get the complete
assembly of the part using several joining processes.
• Important joining processes include welding, soldering, brazing, adhesive bonding and mechanical
fastening.
• Welding produces the strongest joint in metals and is permanent in nature. A welded part needs
to be broken to dismantle it. Welding uses heat and the use of pressure is optional.
• Soldering and brazing produce weaker joints in low melting point metals and alloys.
• Adhesive bonding is used to join metals, non-metals, plastics and composites using adhesives. It
is semi-permanent in nature.
• Mechanical fastening, for example, a nut and bolt assembly offers temporary joint.
• Welding processes may be classified in many ways:
On the basis of composition of joints
(a) Autogeneous joints do not use filler materials. All types of solid-phase welding and resistance
welding fall under this category.
(b) Homogeneous joints use filler materials and the composition of the filler material is similar
to that of parent materials. Arc, gas and thermit welding produce homogeneous joints.
(c) Heterogeneous joints use filler materials different than the materials being joined. Soldering
and brazing produce heterogeneous joints.
On the basis of use of pressure
(a) Plastic welding is accompanied by the application of pressure. Parts being joined are heated
to the their plastic states and then forged together by applying external pressure. It is similar
to a forging process. Solid-state welding and resistance welding fall under this category.
(b) Fusion weldings do not use external pressure. Parts being joined are heated to their molten
states. The molten metal is placed in the cavity between the parts and allowed to solidify.
It is similar to a casting process. Gas, arc and thermit weldings are fusion welding processes.
On the basis of heat source

(a) Gas weldings use heat of the flames produced by burning various gaseous fuels in the presence
of oxygen. Oxy-fuel gas welding is the suitable example.
(b) Arc weldings use heat of the arc produced between two electrodes or between the workpiece
and a electrode. They are most widely used. Some of the arc weldings include shielded metal,
submerged, electroslag, electrogas and atomic hydrogen.
(c) Resistance weldings use heat produced by the resistance in the flow of current through the
parts being joined. Spot, seam and projection welding are important resistance welding processes.
On the basis of use of flux and filler metals
(a) Gas and arc weldings use flux and filler metals.
(b) Resistance and solid-state weldings do not use flux and filler metals.
On the basis of heat affected zone (HAZ)
(a) High HAZ is produced by gas and arc welding processes.
(b) Low HAZ is produced by ultrasonic, electron beam and laser welding.
On the basis of nature of electrode
(a) Consumable electrodes are used by shielded metal arc, submerged arc, gas metal arc, flux-cored
arc, electroslag and electrogas welding processes.
(b) Non-consumable electrodes are used by carbon arc, gas tungsten arc, atomic hydrogen arc
and plasma arc welding processes.
GAS WELDING
• Gas welding primarily means oxy-acetylene gas welding.
• Oxygen-acetylene combination produces the highest temperature of around 3200oC in gas welding.
Other combinations such as oxygen-propane, oxygen-propylene, oxygen-natural gas and others produce
lower temperatures and are used in soldering, brazing and other low temperature applications.
• Oxidizing, carburizing and neutral flames produced by oxygen-acetylene combination are used to
join metals in gas welding.
• Oxidizing flame contains excess of oxygen and finds application in the welding of copper alloys,
zinc and zinc alloys.
• Carburizing flame has more acetylene than oxygen. It is used to join high carbon steels, cast irons
and cemented carbides.
• Neutral flame contains oxygen and acetylene in equal proportions and has neutral effect on the
joint produced by it.
• Neutral flame has wider applications in gas welding and is used in the welding of mild steel,
alloy steel, grey cast iron and others.
• Steel is not welded by oxidizing or carburizing flame. Oxidizing flame produces oxidational problem
and carburizing flame has the tendency to weaken the joint by increasing its carbon content. Steel
is best welded by neutral flame.
• Acetylene used in gas welding is produced by a chemical reaction between calcium carbide and
water
CaC2 + 2H2O → C2H2 + Ca (OH)2
Joining Processes 8.3
Due to highly explosive nature of free acetylene, it is stored in acetone which has the capacity
to absorb large volume of acetylene.
• The equipments used in gas welding are portable. There are two cylinders; one used to store oxygen
and another for acetylene. The gases are mixed well before sending them to the gas torch.
• Gas flames are also used for cutting purposes. The process is called gas cutting.
ARC WELDING
• Arc welding utilises the heat produced by an arc between two electrodes or between an electrode
and the workpiece.
• The minimum voltage required for arc ignition is 25 volts.
• The temperature of the heat produced by an arc may be 6000oC-7000oC.
• The joint produced by arc welding is stronger as compared to other welding processes because
of higher temperatures used in the process.
• Arc welding processes are of two types: Those using consumable electrodes and others using non-
consumable electrodes. Arc welding using coated electrodes is dominantly used.
• Consumable electrodes work as filler metal and no additional filler metal is required.
• Fluxes are used to remove the impurities in the form of slag.
• Alternating current (AC) or Direct current (DC) may be used in the process. When workpiece is
connected to positive terminal and electrode to negative terminal of the DC circuit, this set up
is called straight polarity. On the other hand, when workpiece is connected to negative terminal
and electrode to positive terminal of the DC circuit, the setup is called reverse polarity. The selection
of the polarity depends upon type of metal being joined, depth of penetration required and the
type of electrode used.
About two-thirds of the heat is generated near the workpiece in straight polarity.
• Arc welding processes using consumable electrode include shielded metal-arc welding, gas metal-arc
welding (also called MIG welding), submerged arc welding, flux-cored arc welding, electrogas welding
and electroslag welding.
• Arc welding processes using non-consumable electrode include atomic hydrogen welding, gas tungsten
arc welding (also called TIG welding), carbon arc welding and plasma-arc welding.
CARBON ARC WELDING

• In carbon arc welding, arc is created between a pure graphite (carbon) electrode and the workpiece.
• Although carbon electrode is considered non-consumable but it disintegrates with the passage of
time and there is a possibility of disintegrated carbon being mixed with the workpiece making
the joint brittle and weak. But the positive point is that the disintegrated carbon forms shielding
atmosphere of CO and CO2 around the joint thus protecting it from atmospheric contamination.
• It uses DC power supply with straight polarity to reduce the disintegration of the electrode because
majority of the heat is produced near the positive terminal of the circuit.
• A variation of carbon arc welding is twin electrode carbon arc welding where arc is created between
two carbon electrodes.
• Twin electrode carbon arc welding uses alternating current (AC) which helps to keep the temperature
of the two electrodes same because of its frequently changing polarity.
• Carbon arc welding does not offer any specific advantages compared to other arc welding processes
and is not being used in practice now a days. It is mainly used as a low temperature heat source
for brazing, braze welding and soldering and in the repairs of iron and steel castings.
SHIELDED METAL ARC WELDING (SMAW)
• It is an extensively used welding process which can be used to join all the metals in all welding
positions.
• It is also known as stick electrode welding because of resemblance of the electrode to a stick.
• It uses coated electrode and the coating material melts during heating of the workpiece to form
a protective atmosphere (shielding) around the joint.
• Arc is produced between an electrode and the workpiece. The electrode is consumable in nature
and it also acts as a filler metal.
• It finds major applications in the fabrication of ships, bridges, pressure vessels and structural members.
GAS METAL-ARC WELDING

• Gas Metal Arc Welding (GMAW) is also called Metal Inert Gas (MIG) welding.
• Initially, GMAW was mainly used in the welding of aluminium and stainless steels with shielding
atmosphere of inert gases (argon and helium), hence was earlier called MIG welding. But now
it is also used for other ferrous and non-ferrous metals.
• The gases used for providing shielding atmosphere include argon, helium, CO2, nitrogen and hydrogen.
These gases are used separately or in combination of two or more. When CO2 alone is used as
a shielding gas, then the process is called CO2 welding.
• It uses consumable bare electrode which acts as a filler metal and the arc is created between the
electrode and the workpiece.
• It uses DC power supply with reverse polarity which ensures stable arc and smooth metal transfer
resulting in good quality weld.
SUBMERGED ARC WELDING (SAW)

• As the name suggests, the arc created between a continuous bare electrode (consumable) and the
workpiece remains hidden inside a blanket of granular flux.
• Since the arc is hidden, there is no possibility of weld spatter and protection against harmful radiations
is not required, but control of arc is difficult.
• Both AC and DC power sources can be used. While using DC power source, reverse polarity is
preferred.
• There is no possibility of joint contamination by atmospheric contaminants due to flux covering
and no additional shielding medium is required.
• Due to heavier currents used in the process, the deposition rate is very high.
• It is mainly used to join thick plates of low carbon and low alloy steels and finds applications
in ships, pressure vessels, bridges, structural members and nuclear reactors.
• It is mainly suitable for flat horizontal welding position in butt and fillet joints and is not recommended
for overhead welding because of danger of fall of molten metal in large quantity.
FLUX CORED ARC WELDING

• It uses a consumable tubular electrode containing flux in its central part called core.
• The electrode is in the form of a continuous length which overcomes the difficulty of limited length
of the electrode being used in shielded metal arc welding.
• The tubular electrode also contains alloying elements in addition to flux to produce shielding atmosphere
around the weld pool.
• It is mainly used for welding steels and stainless steels.
ELECTROSLAG WELDING
• It uses the heat of molten slag produced by electrical resistance principle to melt the work part
to be joined. The role of arc is restricted to just melt the flux forming slag.
• The process is very much suitable for making vertical joints in thicker plates with higher metal
deposition rates.
• It finds applications in ship building, building construction and repair of large size castings and
forgings.
ELECTROGAS WELDING
• It is another method to produce vertical joints but in thinner workpieces.
• The basic equipments used in electrogas welding is similar to those used in electroslag welding.
• The process uses a continuous arc in the presence of a shielding gas (argon, helium or carbon
dioxide) to heat the work part.
• It produces better quality joints and finds applications in pressure vessels, shipbuilding and storage
tanks.
GAS TUNGSTEN ARC WELDING (GTAW)

• Gas tungsten arc welding was earlier used for the welding of aluminium and magnesium alloys
using inert gas shielding atmosphere and was hence named tungsten inert gas (TIG) welding.
• The arc is created between a nonconsumable tungsten electrode and the workpiece.
• The inert gases used to provide shielding atmosphere include argon, helium or their mixtures.
• Both AC and DC power sources are used in the process. While using DC power supply, straight
polarity is preferred.
• Materials commonly welded by GTAW include aluminium, magnesium, copper, stainless steel, silver,
tungsten, molybdenum, titanium and high temperature materials.
• Major users of GTAW include aircraft industry, chemical plants and nuclear plants.
ATOMIC HYDROGEN WELDING

• Atomic hydrogen welding uses two nonconsumable tungsten electrodes to create the arc for producing
the required heat.
• Workpiece is not the part of electrical circuit.
• Hydrogen gas is made to pass through the arc. The heat of the arc breaks molecular hydrogen
into atomic hydrogen.
• When atomic hydrogen comes out of the arc, the atoms recombine to form molecular hydrogen.
This reaction is exothermic releasing tremendous amount of heat producing temperature of around
6000oC. This heat is utilised for joining purpose.
• There is no need for providing shielding atmosphere around the weld pool because hydrogen itself
acts as a shielding medium.
• The process has limited use now and is mainly used in the repair of dies.
ELECTRON BEAM WELDING (EBW)

• The source of heat in electron beam welding is a highly energetic electron beam which is allowed
to strike the workpiece at the point of making the joint.
• It requires vacuum to prevent the scattering of electron beam which ultimately increases its cost.
• It is comparatively a newer method of welding with several advantages, important among them
include low heat affected zone, deeper penetration and almost negligible thermal distortion.
• It produces high quality welds and does not require flux, filler metal and shielding atmosphere.
• The materials usually welded by EBW include refractory metals, reactive metals, super alloys and
stainless steels.
• It finds major applications in electronics, nuclear, automotive and aircraft industries.
• Major disadvantages of EBW are its high equipment cost and production of harmful X-ray radiations.
LASER WELDING
• In laser welding, a highly concentrated and coherent light beam called LASER (Light Amplification
by Stimulated Emission of Radiation) is used to produce deep and narrow joints of very high quality.
• Solid as well as gas lasers are used in the process. Solid laser YAG and gas laser CO2 are widely
used for welding applications.
• The process does not require vacuum or generate X-rays.
• Because of its low heat affected zones, it is widely used in electronics industries.
• Similar to electron beam welding, no flux, no filler metal or no shielding medium are required
but its higher initial cost is a major hindrance in its way to get its due.
RESISTANCE WELDING
• Resistance welding uses heat produced by electrical resistance of the parts being joined, given by
H = I 2 Rt
where H = Heat produced in Joules
I = Current in amperes
R = Electrical resistance in ohms
t = Time of current flow in seconds.
• The process uses high current but low voltage. Control of current and pressure are critical in resistance
welding.
• Parts to be joined are heated by electrical means to their plastic state followed by suitable amount
of pressure applied through the electrodes.
• No flux, no filler metal and no shielding atmosphere is required.
• The electrodes are usually copper made and water cooled.
• Resistance welding finds major applications in automobile industry.
• Parts to be joined are placed in lap and butt position.
• Spot, seam, projection, flash, upset and percussion weldings are important variations of resistance
welding.
• Spot welding is the simplest and most commonly employed resistance welding. Here parts are placed
in lap position between two copper electrodes. Heating and subsequent application of pressure completes
the process. Heating is confined to a very limited area called spot where welding is performed.
The process can suitably replace riveting.
• Seam welding is a continuous series of spot welding where no gap exists between two spots. It
gives a leak proof joint and finds applications in the welding of gasoline tanks, boilers, automobile
mufflers and pressure vessels.
• In projection welding, one of the parts (thinner one) to be joined has one or two projection impressions
(dimples) which are the locations of high heat concentration. These impressions when sufficiently
heated are allowed to collapse at the time when pressure is applied to complete the joint.
• Flash welding utilises both arc and electrical resistance heating. The joining parts which require
edge preparation are placed in butt (end-to-end) position. At the joint, some material is expelled
out which needs to be subjected to machining.
• In upset welding, parts which need to be edge prepared, are placed in intimate contact in butt
position. An upset is formed at the joint which can be removed through machining.
• Percussion welding utilises electrical energy stored in a capacitor. This process is very fast and
finds applications in the repair of electronic components due to its capacity to produce low heat
affected zones.
STUD WELDING
• It is used to connect studs (headless threaded bolts) or similar pieces on flat workpieces such as
plates.
• It uses arc heating and the joint is completed by applying pressure in contrast to conventional
arc welding processes where pressure is missing.
• Materials usually joined by stud welding include low carbon steels and low alloy steels.
• Typical applications of stud welding include attachment of handles to cookware, conduits and piping
to metal workpieces.
THERMIT WELDING
• Thermit welding, a fusion welding process, uses a thermit mixture for joining the two parts. The
thermit mixture consists of aluminium powder and iron oxide in the ratio of 1 : 3. This mixture
when ignited to about 1300oC produces temperature of around 2500oC according to the following
reaction
8Al + 3Fe3O4 → 9Fe + 4Al2O3 + Heat.
• The heat is sufficient to produce superheated iron in the molten state which can flow in the gap
used for making the joint. The aluminium oxide floats on the top as slag protecting the iron from
atmospheric contamination. This process is used for connecting railroad rails and for repair works
in casting and forging.
SOLDERING
• Soldering is used to produce a weaker joint without melting the work material.
• It uses a low melting point (lower than 450oC) tin-lead alloy called solder which melts and fills
the gap between the workpart by capillary action.
• Cleaning of the work surface near the joint is very much essential before the start of the process.
Fluxes such as zinc chloride or ammonium chloride are mainly used for this purpose.
• There are several methods to produce the required heat in soldering. Iron, torch, dip, wave, resistance,
induction and furnace are important means of heating. The most commonly used one is iron soldering
which uses a copper tipped iron rod heated by electrical resistance principle.
• Soldering is widely used in electrical and electronics industries to connect wire or lighter components.
BRAZING
• It is another method to produce a joint without melting the workpart.
• The filler metal fills the gap between the parts by capillary action.
• The filler metals have melting point higher than 450oC but lower than that of work material. Copper
and silver alloys are commonly used filler metals in brazing.
• Torch, furnace, induction, dip and resistance are important brazing methods to produce the required
heat.
• Brazing produces stronger joint as compared to soldering due to higher temperature application.
• The principle of braze welding, fundamentally different than brazing, is similar to oxy-acetylene
gas welding where the work material is heated at the joint point and molten filler metal fills up
the gap.

1. Autogeneous joint
(a) uses a filler metal whose composition is similar to that of base metal
(b) uses a filler metal whose composition is different than base metal
(c) uses no filler metal
(d) None of these.
2. Homogeneous joint
(d) None of these.
3. Heterogeneous joint
(d) None of these.
4. Which of the following joining processes is best suited for manufacturing pipes to carry gas products?
(i) Riveting (ii) Welding
(iii) Bolts and nuts

(c) (ii) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii).
5. In oxy-acetylene gas welding, for complete combustion, the volume of oxygen required per unit
of acetylene is
(a) 1 (b) 1.5 (c) 2 (d) 2.5.
6. A thermit mixture consists of
(a) iron powder and aluminium oxide
(b) aluminium powder and iron oxide
(c) copper powder and aluminium oxide
(d) aluminium powder and copper oxide.
7. In thermit mixture, the ratio of aluminium powder and iron oxide is
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 3 (c) 1 : 3 (d) 2 : 5.
8. A thermit mixture can produce a temperature of around
(a) 4000oC (b) 2500oC
(c) 6000oC (d) 1000oC.
(i) Welding produces permanent joint.
(ii) Fusion welding is similar to casting process.
(iii) Resistance welding uses no flux.
(iv) Thermit welding is a fusion welding process.
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) are true (d) (i), (ii) and (iii) and (iv) are true.
10. Nut and bolt assembly falls under the category of
(a) permanent joint (b) semi-permanent joint
(c) temporary joint (d) cotter joint.
11. Riveting is an example of
12. Welding produces a
13. Why is cleaning important in welding?
(a) It makes the process economical. (b) It reduces the scope of oxidation.
(c) It improves quality. (d) It increases strength of the joint.
14. Which of the following joining methods does not use filler metal?
(a) Gas welding (b) Arc welding
(c) Resistance welding (d) Soldering.
15. The principle of fusion welding is similar to a
(a) forging process (b) casting process
(c) bending process (d) drawing process.
16. Pressure is essentially employed in the following welding method:
(a) gas welding (b) arc welding
(c) resistance welding (d) thermit welding.
17. Soldering and brazing are examples of
(a) autogeneous joining (b) homogeneous joining
(c) heterogeneous joining (d) plastic joining.
18. Adhesive bonding is not used for structural applications, because
(a) it is a costly method
(b) it lacks the required strength
(c) it can produce detrimental effects
(d) it can not withstand heat.
19. Consider the following statements in the context of a welded joint:
(i) The strength of the joint is less than that of parent metal.
(ii) The strength of the joint is more than that of parent metal.
(iii) The strength of the joint is equal to that of parent metal.
(c) (i) and (iii) are true (d) (ii) and (iii) are true.
List I List II
(Welding processes) (Description)
A. Electric resistance welding 1. Arc is produced between two electrodes
B. Oxy-fuel gas welding 2. Heat produced is equal to I 2 Rt
C. Atomic hydrogen arc welding 3. It is mostly suitable for flat-position
welding
D. Submerged arc welding 4. Source of heat is a gas-flame
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 2 1 3
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 2 4 3 2
(d) 3 4 1 2.
List I List II
A. Plasma arc welding 1. Arc is produced between a nonconsumable
electrode and the workpiece
B. MIG welding 2. Is very much useful for joining thick
materials
C. TIG welding 3. Gives high heat concentration resulting
in higher welding speeds
D. Electroslag welding 4. Uses consumable electrodes
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 3 2 1 4
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 2 4 1 3.
List I List II
(Joining processes) (Description)
A. Soldering 1. Is a fusion welding process
B. Adhesive bonding 2. Uses large amount of flux
C. Gas welding 3. Finds extensive application in electronic
industries
D. Submerged arc welding 4. Can be used to join plastics
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 3 4 1 2.
23. Oxy-acetylene combination is widely used in gas welding, because

(a) it gives the cleanest process
(b) complete combustion is possible
(c) it gives the highest temperature as compared to other combinations
(d) it is most economical.
24. Oxy-acetylene combination produces temperatures of around
(a) 2000oC (b) 2500oC
(c) 3000oC (d) 3200oC.
25. Acetylene is produced by a chemical reaction between

(a) propane and water (b) ethylene and water
(c) calcium carbide and water (d) calcium silicate and water.
26. Acetylene is stored in acetone. This is because of the following reason:
(a) The combination gives a neutral atmosphere.
(b) Free acetylene forms explosive mixture with air.
(c) Acetone is a cheaper chemical.
(d) There is no specific reason.
27. Carburising flame contains
(a) excess of oxygen (b) excess of propane
(c) excess of acetylene (d) excess of ethylene.
28. Carburising flame is used in the welding of
(i) High carbon steels (ii) Oxygen free copper alloys
(iii) Hard-surfacing materials
Of these
29. Carburising flame is not suitable for steel, because

(a) it weakens the joint (b) it makes the joint brittle
(c) it is not economical (d) melting point of steel is very high.
List I List II
A. Electrogas welding 1. Uses tubular electrode containing flux
B. Electroslag welding 2. Uses shielding gases such as argon,
helium and carbon dioxide
C. MIG welding 3. Useful for joining thinner materials
D. Flux-cored arc welding 4. Useful for joining thicker materials
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 4 1 2 3.
(i) Arc is created between a metal electrode and a workpiece.
(ii) Arc is created between two metal electrodes.
(iii) Arc is created between two workpieces.
(c) (iii) is true (d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are true.
(i) In straight polarity, workpiece is connected to positive and electrode to negative terminals
of the circuit.
(ii) In straight polarity, workpiece is connected to negative and electrode to positive terminals
of the circuit.
(iii) In reverse polarity, workpiece is connected to positive and electrode to negative terminals
of the circuit.
(iv) In reverse polarity, workpiece is connected to negative and electrode to positive terminals
of the circuit.
(i) In reverse polarity, most of the heat is liberated near to the workpiece.
(ii) In straight polarity most of the neat is liberated near to the workpiece.
(iii) In straight polarity, most of the heat is liberated near to the electrode.
(c) (i) and (iii) are true (d) (iii) is true.
34. In overhead welding, which of the following polarity is recommended?

(i) Straight polarity (ii) Reverse polarity
(iii) Straight and reverse polarity both
35. Shielding performs the following functions:
(i) It provides protection from the atmospheric contaminants.
(ii) It ensures arc stability.
(iii) It affects the metal transfer characteristics of the arc.
36. Which of the following statement is not correct about the submerged arc welding?
(a) It gives high deposition rate.
(b) Very high currents can be used.
(c) Problems such as flash, spatter or smoke are missing.

(d) Very thin metals can be best welded.
37. Consider the following statements about DC arc welding:
(i) It is more easier to control the heat input offered by DC arc welding.
(ii) DC arc welding provides a stable arc.
(iii) Thinner as well as thicker material can be welded by adopting the suitable polarity in DC
arc welding.
38. Consider the following statements about a consumable electrode:
(i) High thermal conductivity (ii) High electrical conductivity
(iii) Low melting point
39. Consider the following statements about a coated electrode:
(i) It helps to stabilize the arc.
(ii) It provides a shielding atmosphere around the molten metal pool.
(iii) It provides flux which gets mixed with the impurities to form a slag.
(i) Steel and cast iron (ii) Brass and bronze
(iii) Aluminium
A consumable electrode is made of
(a) (i) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(i) Tungsten (ii) Carbon
(iii) Graphite
A non-consumable electrode is made of
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (i).
42. Consider the following statements about a non-consumable electrode:
(i) Non-consumable electrodes are made of tungsten.
(ii) Carbon and graphite electrodes are used only with DC arc welding.
(iii) Tungsten electrodes are used in both AC and DC arc welding.
43. Consider the following statements about shielded metal arc welding (SMAW):
(i) It is most extensively used.
(ii) It is less expensive than other arc welding processes.
(iii) Welding can be done in all positions.
(iv) It can be used for simple as well as sophisticated jobs.
(a) (iii) is true (b) (i) and (ii) are true
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are true (d) (iv) is true.
44. Consider the following statements about submerged arc welding:
(i) Higher currents can be used. (ii) The deposition rate is high.
(iii) Higher welding speed is possible.
(a) (ii) is true (b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are true
(c) (ii) and (iii) are true (d) (i) and (iii) are true.
45. Consider the following statements about a flux:
(i) It acts as a deoxidizer and forms slag.
(ii) It stabilises the arc.
(iii) It provides alloying elements and shielding atmosphere.
(a) (ii) is true (b) (iii) is true
46. Submerged arc welding (SAW) is used mainly for flat-position welding. This is because of the
following reason
(a) due to higher current used in the process
(b) due to higher deposition rate
(c) due to higher welding speed
(d) larger amount of molten metal and flux can be conveniently handled in the flat position.
47. Submerged arc welding (SAW) is usually not suitable for overhead welding.
(a) Due to high current used in the process
(b) Due to high fluidity of weld pool and flux
(c) Due to high deposition rate
(d) Due to non-visibility of the arc.
48. Consider the following statements about spray transfer:
(i) Higher current can be used. (ii) It uses argon as the shielding gas.
(iii) It is suitable for welding thicker sections.
49. Spray transfer is used for
(a) thinner sections (b) thicker sections
(c) both thinner and thicker sections (d) circular sections.
50. Consider the following statements about dip transfer:
(i) It is useful for thinner sections.
(ii) It uses low current and low voltage.
(iii) Welding can be done in all the positions.
(a) (ii) is true (b) (iii) is true
51. Carbon arc welding uses
(a) straight polarity DC (b) reverse polarity DC
(c) AC (d) pulsed AC.
52. Twin electrode carbon arc welding uses
(a) straight polarity DC (b) reverse polarity DC
(c) AC (d) pulsed AC.
53. Consider the following currents:
(i) Reverse polarity DC (ii) Straight polarity DC
(iii) AC
A bare electrode uses
(a) (i) (b) (ii)
(c) (i) and (ii) (d) (iii).
(i) Wrought iron (ii) Low carbon steel
(iii) Medium carbon steel (iv) Aluminium
Bare electrodes are suitable for
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (i) and (ii)
55. Alternating current uses the following electrodes:
(i) Bare electrodes (ii) Coated electrodes
(iii) Special electrodes
Of these
(a) (i) (b) (ii)
56. Direct current uses the following electrodes:

(i) Bare electrodes (ii) Coated electrodes
(iii) Special electrodes
Of these
(a) (i) (b) (ii)
57. The normal range of voltage required during AC arc welding process is
(a) 220 volts (b) 80-100 volts
(c) 15-25 volts (d) 25-50 volts.
58. Which of the following range of voltage is used for the maintenance of arc while using alternating
current?
(a) 60-80 volts (b) 80-100 volts
(c) 30-40 volts (d) 15-25 volts.
59. Which of the following range of voltage is used for the maintenance of arc while using direct
current?
(a) 60-80 volts (b) 80-100 volts
(c) 30-40 volts (d) 15-25 volts.
60. Which of the following range of voltage is used for the creation of arc while using direct current?
(a) 60-80 volts (b) 80-100 volts
(c) 30-40 volts (d) 15-25 volts.
61. Consider the following statements about arc blow. It can be minimised
(i) By increasing the current and the arc length.
(ii) By increasing the current but reducing the arc length.
(iii) By reducing both the current and the arc length.
(iv) By reducing the current but increasing the arc length.
(c) (iii) is true (d) (iv) is true.
62. Arc blow, defined as the deflection of the arc from its intended path, occurs with which of the
following current?
(i) Straight polarity DC (ii) Reverse polarity DC
(iii) Both straight and reverse polarity DC (iv) AC
63. Selection of an electrode depends upon which of the following factors?
(i) Chemical composition (ii) Welding position
(iii) Type of current and polarity
Of these factors:
List I List II
(Welding processes) (Features)
A. Ultrasonic welding 1. Gas heated to ionized condition for
conduction of electric current
B. Electron beam welding 2. High frequency and high intensity
vibrations
C. Plasma arc welding 3. Requires vacuum
D. Stud welding 4. Exothermic chemical reaction
5. Ceramic ferrule
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 4 5
(b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 2 3 1 5.
65. Consider the following welding processes:
(i) TIG welding (ii) Submerged arc welding
(iii) Electro-slag welding (iv) Thermit welding
Which of these welding processes is used for welding thick pieces of metals?
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
List I List II
(Shielding methods) (Welding processes)
A. Flux coating 1. Gas metal arc welding
B. Flux granules 2. Submerged arc welding
C. CO2 3. Shielded metal arc welding
D. Vacuum 4. Laser beam welding
5. Electron beam welding
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 5 3
(b) 1 4 2 5
(c) 3 5 1 4
(d) 3 2 1 5.
67. In gas welding of mild steel using an oxy-acetylene flame, the total amount of acetylene consumed
was 10 litre. The oxygen consumption from the cylinder is
(a) 5 litre (b) 10 litre (c) 15 litre (d) 20 litre.
List I List II
(Filler rod materials) (Joining processes)
A. Mild steel 1. MIG welding
B. Bronze 2. Soldering
C. Brass 3. Brazing
D. Lead and tin alloy 4. Thermit welding
5. Braze welding
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 5 3 2
(b) 4 3 2 5
(c) 4 3 5 2
(d) 1 3 5 4.
69. Electron beam welding can be carried out in
(a) open air (b) a shielding gas environment
(c) a pressurised inert gas chamber (d) vacuum.
List I List II
(Filler metals) (Joining processes)
A. Cu, Zn, Ag alloy 1. Braze welding
B. Cu, Sn alloy 2. Brazing
C. Pb, Sn alloy 3. Soldering
D. Iron oxide and aluminium powder 4. TIG welding of aluminium.
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 3 4
(b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 2 1 3 4
(d) 2 1 3 4.
71. Which of the following welding processes uses non-consumable electrodes?
(a) TIG welding (b) MIG welding
(c) Normal arc welding (d) Submerged arc welding.
72. Consider the following statements. MIG welding process uses
(i) Consumable electrode (ii) Non-consumable electrode
(iii) DC power supply (iv) AC power supply
(a) (ii) and (iv) are true (b) (ii) and (iii) are true
(c) (i) and (iv) are true (d) (i) and (iii) are true.
73. Which of the following materials has the best weldability?
(a) High carbon steel (b) Low carbon steel
(c) High speed steel (d) Cast iron.
(i) Thermit welding (ii) Resistance welding
(iii) Arc welding (iv) Gas welding.
Which of the above welding processes can be categorized as fusion welding?
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv).
(i) Resistance welding (ii) Ultrasonic welding
(iii) Electron-beam welding (iv) Laser-beam welding.
Which of the above welding processes can be categorized as solid-state welding?
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (iii) and (iv)

(i) Electron-beam welding (ii) Thermit welding
(iii) Laser-beam welding (iv) Resistance welding.
Which of the above welding processes find applications in modern manufacturing?
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
77. Carburizing flame is used in
(i) soldering (ii) brazing
(iii) flame hardening (iv) cutting.
Of these
(c) (iii) and (iv) are true (d) (i), (ii) and (iv) are true.
78. Which of the following welding processes uses non-consumable electrode?

(a) Shielded metal-arc welding (b) Submerged arc welding
(c) TIG welding (d) MIG welding.
79. Which of the following welding processes is also known as ‘stick welding’?
(a) TIG welding (b) MIG welding
(c) Shielded metal-arc welding (d) Submerged arc welding.
80. In which of the following welding processes, the arc is completely hidden inside a layer of
flux?
(a) Shielded metal-arc welding (b) Submerged arc welding
(c) TIG welding (d) MIG welding.
(i) TIG welding uses consumable electrode.
(ii) A non-consumable electrode is used in submerged arc welding.
(iii) MIG welding uses three methods of metal transfer: spray, globular and short circuiting.
(iv) Electron-beam welding uses a high energy beam.
(a) (i) and (ii) are true (b) (iii) and (iv) are true
(c) (ii) and (iii) are true (d) (i), (iii) and (iv) are true.
82. Flux-cored arc welding combines the advantages of

(i) Shielded metal arc welding (ii) MIG welding
(iii) TIG welding (iv) Submerged arc welding.
Of these

(i) Electrogas and Electroslag welding processes use consumable electrodes.
(ii) Submerged arc welding uses a large pool of molten flux.
(iii) Atomic hydrogen welding is suitable for low temperature applications.
(iv) TIG welding does not use any shielding medium.
Which of the above statements are true?
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii) and (iv).
84. Which of the following welding processes use non-consumable electrodes?

(i) Atomic hydrogen welding (ii) MIG welding
(iii) Plasma arc welding (iv) Submerged arc welding.
85. In which of the following welding processes, workpiece is not a part of the electrical circuit?
(a) Thermit welding (b) TIG welding
(c) MIG welding (d) Atomic hydrogen welding.
86. Railroad rails are best welded by
(a) electron-beam welding (b) ultrasonic welding
(c) thermit welding (d) laser-beam welding.
87. Vacuum is an essential requirement in

(a) electron-beam welding (b) ultrasonic welding
(c) thermit welding (d) laser-beam welding.
ANSWERS
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (b)
7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (c) 11. (b) 12. (a)
13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (b)
19. (d) 20. (b) 21. (c) 22. (d) 23. (c) 24. (d)
25. (c) 26. (b) 27. (c) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (b)
31. (b) 32. (c) 33. (b) 34. (b) 35. (d) 36. (d)
37. (d) 38. (d) 39. (d) 40. (b) 41. (c) 42. (c)
43. (c) 44. (b) 45. (c) 46. (d) 47. (b) 48. (d)
49. (b) 50. (d) 51. (a) 52. (c) 53. (b) 54. (c)
55. (b) 56. (c) 57. (b) 58. (c) 59. (d) 60. (a)
61. (c) 62. (c) 63. (d) 64. (d) 65. (d) 66. (d)
67. (b) 68. (a) 69. (d) 70. (a) 71. (a) 72. (d)
73. (b) 74. (b) 75. (a) 76. (c) 77. (b) 78. (c)
79. (c) 80. (b) 81. (b) 82. (a) 83. (b) 84. (c)
85. (d) 86. (c) 87. (a).

1. What is welding?
Answer Welding is a manufacturing process used to join two parts (mostly metals of similar
nature) with the application of heat and/or pressure. It gives a permanent joint.
2. What is the purpose of using a filler metal?

Answer Filler metal is used to connect thicker parts when more joint strength is required.
3. What is solid-state welding?
Answer Solid-state welding is performed in the solid state at room temperature or elevated tempera-
ture with the application of pressure.
4. Give few examples of solid-state welding.
Answer (a) Cold welding (b) Friction welding (c) Ultrasonic welding.
5. What is the most convenient position for welding?
Answer Flat and horizontal.
6. What is the principle of resistance welding?
Answer In resistance welding, the heat required for joining is obtained by the electrical resistance
of the parts being joined.
7. Name the basic types of joints used in welding.

Answer There are five basic types of joints in welding. These are: butt joint, lap joint, tee joint,
corner joint and edge joint.
8. Name the different joints where fillet weld is useful.
Answer Corner joint, lap joint and tee joint.
9. What is the maximum temperature obtained by oxy-acetylene gas?
Answer Around 3300oC.
10. Why is it difficult to weld aluminium?
Answer Welding of aluminium and its alloys offers difficulty because of the formation of oxide
film (Al2O3) on their surfaces before and during the welding process.
11. What is heat affected zone (HAZ)?

Answer Heat affected zone lies in close proximity to fusion zone. The base metal has lower
temperature in this zone as compared to its melting point but suffers from metallurgical changes.
1. Autogeneous joint uses a filler metal whose composition is similar to that of parent material.
2. Flux is used to remove the impurities from the joining surfaces.
3. Gas welding uses pressure during joining.
4. Submerged arc welding is chiefly suitable for flat position welding.
5. Neutral flame produces the lowest temperature.
6. Electroslag welding is useful for joining thick metals.
7. Electrogas welding is suitable for vertical positions.
8. Carburising flame contains excessive oxygen.
9. Electric resistance welding uses heat and pressure both.
10. MIG welding uses non-consumable electrode.
11. In straight polarity, work is connected to positive terminal and electrode to negative terminal of
the circuit.
12. For overhead welding, straight polarity is most suitable.
13. Soldering is used mainly for low temperature applications.
14. In seam welding, parts are placed end-to-end.
15. Solid-state welding does not require heating.
16. Carburising flame is the most widely used flame in gas welding.
17. Gas welding produces temperature equal to arc welding.
18. Arc weldments are stronger than gas weldments.

19. Ceramic ferrule is used in stud welding.
20. Tungsten has the highest melting point temperature in the metal group.
21. Arc weldment has low heat affected zones.
22. A thermit mixture consists of aluminium powder and iron oxide.
23. Filler metal is required in thick plate welding.
24. Straight polarity produces maximum heat near the negative terminal of the circuit.
25. Electrode disintegrates rapidly in reverse polarity.
ANSWERS
1. F 2. T 3. F 4. T 5. F 6. T
7. T 8. F 9. T 10. F 11. T 12. F
13. T 14. F 15. F 16. F 17. F 18. T
19. T 20. T 21. F 22. T 23. T 24. F
25. T.
NUMERICAL PROBLEMS
Problem 8.1 The voltage-length characteristics of a DC arc is represented by V = 18 + 25l,
where V is the arc voltage and l is the length of the arc in cm. The power source characteristics
can be approximated by a straight line with no load voltage of 75 volts and short circuit current
of 800 amp. Find the optimum arc length.
Solution The power source characteristics can be expressed as
75
V = 75 – I ...(i)
800
where I = Current.
The arc characteristics is
V = 18 + 25l ...(ii)
Equations (i) and (ii) are equated for stable arc condition.
75
75 – I = 18 + 25l
800
75
I = 75 – 18 – 25l
800
= 57 – 25l
or I = 608 – 266.67l
The arc power is expressed as
P = V.I
= (18 + 25l) . (608 – 266.67l )
– 6666.75l 2 + 10399.94l + 10944 ...(iii)
For optimum arc length, we differentiate Equation (iii) w.r.t. l and equate it to zero
dP
= – 6666.75 × 2l + 10399.94 = 0
dl
Solving for l, we get
l = 0.78 cm Ans.
Problem 8.2 The power source characteristics is given by I 2 = – 350 (V – 90) and the volt-
age-length characteristics of a DC arc is expressed by V = 25 + 5l, where l is the arc length in mm,
and V is the arc voltage. Find the change in welding current for a change in arc length from
5 mm to 7 mm.
Solution The power source characteristics is
I 2 = – 350 (V – 90) ...(i)
The voltage-length characteristics of the arc is
V = 25 + 5l ...(ii)
For l = 5 mm
Using Equation (ii)
V = 25 + 5 × 5
= 50 volts
Using Equation (i)
I 2 = – 350 (50 – 90)
= 350 × 40
∴ I = 118.32 Amp
For l = 7 mm
V = 25 + 5 × 7
= 60 volts
and I 2 = – 350 (60 – 90)
= 350 × 30
∴ I = 102.47 Amp
Hence, change in welding current is (118.32 – 102.47) Amp
= 15.85 Amp Ans.
Problem 8.3 The voltage-length characteristics of a DC arc is expressed as V = 20 + 4l, where
l is arc length in mm and its current-voltage characteristics as I = 25 (V – 20). The power source
characteristics is given by I 2 = – 450 (V – 90). Find the arc power and the optimum arc length.
Solution The current-voltage characteristics of the arc is
I = 25 (V – 20) ...(i)
The power source characteristics is
I 2 = – 450 (V – 90) ...(ii)
Squaring of Equation (i) results in
I 2 = 625 (V – 20)2 ...(iii)
Equate Equations (ii) and (iii) for stable arc condition

625 (V – 20)2 = – 450 (V – 90)
625 (V 2 – 40 V + 400) = – 450 (V – 90)
625V 2 – 25,000 V + 2,50,000 = – 450 V + 40,500
625V 2 – 25,000 V + 450 V + 2,50,000 – 40,500 = 0
625V 2 – 24,550 V + 2,09,500 = 0
On solving this equation, we get two values of V. These are 26.75 volts and 12.53 volts. The value
of V = 12.53 volt is not admissible. Hence the accepted value of V = 26.75 volts.
From Equation (i)
I = 25 (26.75 – 20)
= 168.75 Amp
Hence, the arc power is
P=V×I
= 26.75 × 168.75 Volt−Amp
= 4.514 KVA Ans.
The voltage-length characteristics of the arc is
V = 20 + 4l ...(iv)
From Equation (ii)
I 2 = – 450 (V – 90)
Substituting Equation (iv) in the equation of current, we have
I 2 = – 450 (20 + 4l – 90)
= – 9000 – 1800l + 40,500
= 31,500 – 1800l
∴ I=√
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ ⎯
31,500 – 1800l
The power is expressed as
P=V×I
= (20 + 4l ) × √
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ ⎯
31,500 – 1800l
For maximum power,
dP
=0
dl
1 1
i.e., 4×√
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ ⎯ + (20 + 4l ) ×
31,500 – 1800l × =0
2 √ ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ ⎯
31,500 – 1800l
Solving for l, we get
l = 17.5 mm Ans.
REVIEW QUESTIONS
1. What are the three flames used in gas welding? Which one is most preferred and why?
2. What is the principle of resistance welding?
3. What is the difference between fusion welding and pressure welding?

4. What is heat affected zone? Name two welding processes which have low heat affected zones.
5. Steel is not welded by either oxidizing or carburizing flame. Why?
6. What is the difference between TIG and MIG welding?
7. Why is shielding not required in atomic hydrogen arc welding?
8. How does straight polarity differ from reverse polarity?
9. When is AC or DC used in arc welding?
10. Why is submerged arc welding so called?
11. Why is metal deposition rate high in submerged arc welding?
12. Why is submerged arc welding most suitable for flat horizontal position?
13. Why is vacuum required in electron beam welding?
14. What is friction welding?
15. How do soldering and brazing differ from each other?
16. Why is tungsten used as non-consumable electrode?
17. How does electroslag welding differ from electrogas welding?
18. How does flash welding differ from upset welding?
19. Percussion welding is different than other types of resistance welding. How?
20. Why is shielded metal arc welding also known as stick welding?
C H A P T E R
9
Defects and Inspection in Casting
and Welding
DEFECTS IN CASTING
• Defects in casting may arise due to faulty design of pattern, mould, core and gating system and
due to defects in pouring techniques. Important casting defects with possible reason of their occurrence
are tabulated below:
Casting Defects Remarks

Blows These are in the form of big gas cavities formed near the casting surface due to
pressure of the mould gases.
Permeability of the moulding sand needs to be improved to eliminate or minimise
this defect.
Scar It is a variation of blow and usually occurs on the top flat surface of a casting.
Blister It resembles scar but is covered by a thin layer of metal over its certain portion.
Scab It occurs on the flat surface of a casting due to thermal expansion of the moulding
sand. It appears as if certain portion of the casting is raised.
Shrinkage/porosity This defect occurs when the density of cast part varies in its solid and liquid state.
Misrun It is due to lack of fluidity of molten metal where the molten metal does not reach
the desired part of the mould cavity and solidification takes place in the mid way.
Cold shut It is a variation of misrun which occurs in the centre of a casting when the molten
metal coming from two sides does not reach there on account of its low
temperature.
Wash This defect occurs on the drag surface of a cast part near the gate due to high
velocity of the molten metal.
Pin holes These defects are in the form of small gas cavities. They are produced just below
the surface of a cast part due to excessive moisture content and poor permeability
of the moulding sand.
Casting Defects Remarks

Drop This defect appears in the form of a projection on drag part of a casting due to
fall of its cope part on account of poor cohesiveness of moulding sand. Rough
mould handling can also produce this defect.
Rat tail This defect looks like a rat tail and is produced mainly on the flat surfaces of a
casting due to thermal expansion of the moulding sand.
Core shift This defect occurs due to shifting of a core from its designated location. When the
core is not supported properly by a chaplet, then core may shift producing variable
thicknesses in the cast part.
Swell This defect is caused by swelling of mould cavity due to molten metal pressure.
Hot tear This defect appears in the form of breakage in the casting due to tensile stress.
DEFECTS IN WELDING
• A welded joint may be defective due to the presence of contaminants such as dirt, oil and rust
near the joint; excessive molten metal used in the joint; inclusion of oxides, sulphides and fluxes;
defective weld profile; excessive welding current and arc voltage or wrong selection of electrodes.
Some important welding defects with their possible cause of occurrence are tabulated below:
Weld Defects Remarks
Porosity It is in the form of cavities caused due to gas entrappment during solidification.
The gases are generated due to pressure of oil, dirt and other such contaminants
in the weld metal and their removal reduces the scope of this defect.
Shrinkage cavity It occurs in the arc welding of thick plates and is found near the surface. The
cavity is formed due to shrinkage of weld metal during solidification.
Cracks Stresses produced due to thermal changes or hindrance in free cooling are mostly
responsible for crack formation. Undesirable elements such as sulphur and carbon
also induce cracks. Proper joint design and preheating of weld metal minimises
this defect.
Slag inclusion Slag inclusions such as oxides and sulphides get enrapped in the weld metal and
float on its surface because of being lighter in weight. Thorough cleaning of weld
area before the start of welding reduces this defect.
Undercutting and Undercutting is just the opposite of overlapping. Undercutting appears in the form
overlapping of cavity and overlapping in the form of excess solidified weld metal. These
defects occur due to excessive welding current and arc voltage and improper
positioning of electrode and hence their control is essential to minimise the defect.
Distortion Differential heating and cooling produces stresses which in turn cause distortion.
Welding current needs to be carefully controlled to minimise this defect.
Incomplete fusion and This defect is mainly due to low welding current and higher welding speed and
penetration hence control of these two parameters reduces the scope of the defect.
Spatter This defect appears in the form of small metal particles thrown randomly around
the arc in different directions. It occurs due to higher welding current and arc
blow.
INSPECTION OF CASTINGS AND WELDMENTS

Inspection ensures defect-free castings and welded joints. Inspection methods may be destructive or
non-destructive. Destructive testing is based on the breaking of test specimen and its subsequent examination
Defects and Inspection in Casting and Welding 9.3
to find any flaw. During the test strength, hardness, fatigue, creep and other mechanical properties are
measured. Destructive tests are not reliable. Non-destructive tests are highly reliable and are conducted
without damaging the test specimen. Major non-destructive tests are discussed below:
• Liquid penetrant inspection is used to find surface defects such as cracks, laps, porosity and seams.
It uses a liquid penetrant such as red colour dye to detect the defect.
• Ultrasonic inspection is useful for finding internal defects. It uses a high-frequency ultrasonic beam
to find the defects. The beam is affected by the presence of defects such as voids and impurities
in its way and the changed characteristics of the beam is used to locate the defect.
• Radiographic testing uses X-rays, gamma rays and other radiations to find internal defects such
as cracks and porosity in the castings and weld joints.
• Magnetic particle inspection is used to find surface defects in magnetic materials.
• Eddy-current inspection is based on the principle of electromagnetic induction and detects surface
defects. Amplitude and direction of the eddy current induced are affected by any discontinuity appearing
in the part, forming basis for this method.
• Thermal testing uses thermal equipments such as thermometers, thermocouples and pyrometers to
find the defects. The test is based on change in temperature on account of presence of defects
in the castings or weld joints.
• Resistivity method is used to detect defects in electrically conductive materials.
• Acoustic emission monitoring is used to detect dynamic defects and is based on change in frequencies
of sound waves during occurrence of defects. Such defects occur during plastic deformation, crack
initiation and propagation and phase transformation.
• Pressure testing can be used to detect defects such as leaks and is based on the use of hydraulic
pressure.
• Holography is an optical method used to detect internal defects.

1. Shrinkage cavities can be reduced using the following devices:
(i) Riser (ii) Chills
(iii) Cores (iv) Chaplet
Of these parameters:
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) true (d) (iii) and (iv) are true.
2. Pinholes are produced on account of the following reasons:
(i) Presence of moisture in the molten metal.
(ii) Presence of volatile matters in the molten metal.
(iii) Poor venting in sand moulds.
Of these
3. Swells can be minimized by
(i) The use of optimum quantity of moisture in the sand mould
(ii) The use of optimum ramming

(iii) Increasing the fluidity of molten metal
(iv) Reducing the turbulence in the molten metal
Of these
(a) (i) and (ii) are true (b) (ii) alone is true
(c) (iii) and (iv) are true (d) (i), (iii) and (iv) are true.
4. Shrinkage cavities are formed because of the following reasons:
(i) Poor fluidity of molten metal (ii) Turbulence in the molten metal
(iii) Lower temperature of molten metal (iv) Poor ramming of sand mould
Of these
(c) (iii) alone is true (d) (iii) and (iv) are true.
List I List II
(Casting defects) (Possible reasons)
A. Swell 1. Low casting temperature
B. Misrun 2. Erosion by hot molten metal
C. Cold shut 3. Poor metal fluidity
D. Wash 4. Insufficient ramming
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 2 4 1 3.
6. Washes are common with
(i) High melting alloys (ii) Low melting alloys
(iii) Die-cast parts (iv) Sand-cast parts
Of these
(c) (ii) and (iv) are true (d) (ii) is true.
7. Hot tears can be minimized by
(i) Optimum ramming of moulding sand
(ii) Using easily collapsible cores
(iii) Increasing the molten metal fluidity
(iv) Increasing the molten metal temperature
Of these
(c) (iii) and (iv) are true (d) (ii) and (iv) are true.
8. Which of the following casting defects appears as a projection on the surface of a casting?
(a) Misrun (b) Pinholes
(c) Scabs (d) Cold shuts.
9. Consider the following casting defects:
(i) Scabs (ii) Swells
(iii) Washes (iv) Hot tears
Of these defects, which one occurs due to the cutting action of hot molten metal?
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv).
10. Which of the following casting defects results due to gases entrapped in the solidified metal?
(a) Scabs (b) Misrun (c) Pinholes (d) Fins.
List I List II
(Casting defects) (Description)
A. Penetration 1. Poor mould attachment
B. Misrun 2. Slag entrappment in molten metal
C. Fin 3. Rough casting surface
D. Dirt spot 4. Lack of molten metal fluidity
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 2 4 1 3
(d) 3 4 2 1.
12. Which of the following welding defects occurs due to differential rate of heating and cooling in
the weld zone?
(a) Porosity (b) Distortion
(c) Cracks (d) Undercutting.
13. Consider the following welding parameters:
(i) Welding current
(ii) Arc voltage
(iii) Positioning of electrode
Which of the above parameters affect undercutting?
(a) (i) (b) (i) and (ii)
14. Which of the following welding defects occurs due to excessive welding current?
(i) Undercutting (ii) Spatter
(iii) Overlapping (iv) Distortion
Of these
15. Consider the following statements about shrinkage cavity:

(i) It is common in welding of thick plates.
(ii) It is common in welding of thin plates.
(iii) It is common with gas welding.
(iv) It is common with arc welding.
(a) (i) and (iii) are true (b) (i) and (iv) are true
(c) (i) is true (d) (iv) is true.
16. Consider the following statements about cracks in weld metal:
(i) It results due to thermal stresses in the weld zone.
(ii) Higher sulphur and carbon content induces cracks.
(iii) Free cooling of welded metal reduces cracks.
(a) (ii) and (iii) are true (b) (i) and (ii) are true
17. Incomplete fusion results due to
(i) Low welding current (ii) Faulty joint design
(iii) Higher welding speed
Of these
18. A defective weld profile occurs due to
(i) Faulty joint design (ii) Poor joint preparation
(iii) Higher welding current (iv) Higher welding speed
Of these
(c) (ii) and (iv) are true (d) (ii) and (iii) are true.
19. Spatter occurs due to

(i) Higher welding current (ii) Wrong selection of electrodes
(iii) Arc blow
Of these
20. Consider the following statements about overlapping:

(i) It occurs due to excessive welding current.
(ii) It is just opposite of undercutting.
(iii) Higher welding speed induces overlapping.
(a) (i) and (iii) are true (b) (i) and (ii) are true
21. Consider the following statements about destructive testing:
(i) The test specimen is broken.
(ii) The test is highly dependable.
(iii) The test is used to measure mechanical properties.
22. Consider the following statements about visual inspection:
(i) It is used to detect surface defects. (ii) It is non-destructive in nature.
(iii) It is mainly used for casting defects.
(a) (i) is true (b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are true
(c) (ii) and (iii) are true (d) (i) and (ii) are true.
23. Consider the following statements about non-destructive testing:
(i) The test specimen maintains its integrity.
(ii) The test specimen is broken.
(iii) The test is highly dependable.
(iv) Hardness test is non-destructive testing.
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are true (d) (i), (iii) and (iv) are true.
List I List II
(Non−destructive testing) (Description)
A. Radiographic testing 1. Electromagnetic induction
B. Liquid penetrant testing 2. Dynamic defects
C. Eddy current testing 3. X-rays
D. Acoustic-emission testing 4. Surface defects
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 3 2 1 4
(c) 4 2 1 3
(d) 3 2 4 1.
List I List II
A. Thermal testing 1. Quartz
B. Ultrasonic testing 2. Excitation coil
C. Liquid penetrant testing 3. Pyrometer
D. Eddy current testing 4. Red dye
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 2 4 1
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 4 1 3 2.
26. Consider the following statements about radiographic testing:
(i) It uses X-rays.
(ii) It can detect surface defects.
(iii) It can detect internal defects.
(iv) It is based on change in wavelength of radiation.
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) are true (d) (i) and (iv) are true.
27. Consider the following statements about eddy current inspection method:
(i) It is based on electromagnetic induction theory.
(ii) It uses an excitation coil.
(iii) It is used to detect surface defects.
(iv) It is most suitable for smaller defects.
(a) (i), (iii) and (iv) are true (b) (ii) and (iv) are true
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are true (d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are true.
28. Consider the following statements about magnetic particle inspection method:
(i) It is used to detect surface defects.
(ii) It uses only alternating current.
(iii) It is used only for magnetic materials.
(a) (iii) is true (b) (ii) and (iii) are true
29. Consider the following statements about acoustic-emission testing:

(i) It uses piezo electric ceramic elements.
(ii) It is used to detect dynamic defects.
(iii) It is monitoring method of testing.
(c) (i) and (ii) are true (d) (ii) alone is true.
List I List II
A. Acoustic emission monitoring 1. Micro ohmmeter
B. Resistivity method 2. Peening
C. Opitical method 3. Piezo electric ceramic element
D. Pressure testing 4. Holography
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 3 1 2 4.
31. Which of the following inspection methods can be used to locate leaks?
(a) Radiographic testing
(b) Pressure testing
(c) Thermal testing
(d) Acoustic emission monitoring.
32. Misrun occurs due to

(a) very high pouring temperature of the metal
(b) insufficient fluidity of the molten metal
(c) absorption of gases by the liquid metal
(d) improper alignment of the mould flasks.
33. Mould shift occurs due to
34. Fusion is a casting defect which occurs due to

ANSWERS
1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (b)
7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (c) 11. (a) 12. (b)
13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (b)
19. (c) 20. (b) 21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (a) 24. (a)
25. (b) 26. (c) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (c)
31. (b) 32. (b) 33. (d) 34. (a).
1. Why does misrun occur?

Answer Due to lack of fluidity, molten metal does not reach the designated portion of the mould
cavity and gets solidified in the way.
2. Cracks are critical welding defects. How?
Answer Cracks may appear anywhere and in any direction affecting seriously the strength of
the weldment. The joint can break any moment without prior indication.
3. Name three non-destructive inspection methods which can detect internal defects.
Answer Ultrasonic inspection, radiographic inspection and acoustic emission monitoring.
4. Name three non-destructive inspection methods which can detect surface defects.
Answer Liquid penetrant inspection, magnetic particle inspection and eddy-current inspection.
5. What is the principle of resistivity method?

Answer Resistivity method is based on the measurement of change in electrical resistance of
conducting materials due to presence of defects.
1. Faulty pouring techniques may give rise to turbulence of molten metal in the mould cavity.
2. Scab occurs due to thermal expansion of moulding sand.

3. Misrun occurs due to over flow of molten metal in the mould cavity.
4. Swell occurs due to high velocity molten metal.

5. Undercutting occurs due to low welding current.
6. Differential heating of weldment results in distortion.
7. Fusion is not complete because of low welding speed.

8. Low welding current is responsible for spatter.

9. Liquid penetrant inspection is used to detect surface defects.
10. Eddy current inspection can detect internal defects.

11. Magnetic particle inspection is used for magnetic materials.
12. Holography is a radiographic method to detect internal defects.
ANSWERS
1. T 2. T 3. F 4. T 5. F 6. T
7. F 8. F 9. T 10. F 11. T 12. F.
REVIEW QUESTIONS
1. How is a casting defect produced?
2. How is a faulty design of pattern responsible for producing a casting defect?

3. How can faulty pouring technique produce casting defect?
4. How is scar different from blow?
5. What is misrun?
6. How does a core shift?
7. For what purpose a chaplet is used?
8. Why is cleaning essential before the start of welding?

9. What is arc blow?
10. Why is a correct weld profile essential?
11. What are the possible causes for cracks formation?

12. How does welding current affect weldment?
13. What is the effect of welding speed on weldment?
14. What is spatter? How does it occur?

15. What is the purpose of inspection?
16. What is visual inspection? For which type of defects it is useful?
17. How does non-destructive inspection methods differ from destructive methods?
18. How are non-destructive methods more reliable?
19. What is the working principle of ultrasonic inspection method?
20. What are the different radiations used in radiographic testing?

21. What are the limitations of magnetic particle inspection method?
22. How does eddy current inspection method work?

23. How is acoustic emission testing a monitoring technique rather than an inspection method?
24. What is holography?
25. For which type of defects pressure testing is used?

C H A P T E R
10
Metal Cutting and Machining Processes
• In orthogonal cutting, the cutting edge of the tool is perpendicular to the direction of cutting speed.
• Material is removed in the form of chips along the shear plane where it is subjected to shear
deformation.
• The chip thickness ratio or cutting ratio, r is expressed as
t lc Vc
r= = =
tc l V
where t = Uncut chip thickness (depth of cut)
tc = Chip thickness
lc = Length of chip
l = Length of uncut material
Vc = Chip velocity
V = Cutting tool velocity.
Since tc > t, therefore, chip thickness ratio is always less than unity.
• Lower value of cutting ratio is indicative of good cutting action.
• The reciprocal of cutting ratio is called chip reduction coefficient.
• The rake angle (α) and shear plane angle (φ) are related by the equation
r cos α
tan φ = ⋅
1 – r sin α
• The shear strain which occurs along the shear plane is expressed as
γ = tan (φ – α) + cot φ
• The area of shear plane is expressed as
t.w
As =
sin φ
where w = Width of the workpiece.
• There are two mutually perpendicular forces involved in orthogonal cutting (a) friction force
(F), which occurs between tool and chip interface and (b) normal force (N), which is perpendicular
to friction force. These two forces are related to each other by the following equation
F = μN
where μ = Coefficient of friction between tool and chip.
• The coefficient of friction (μ) and angle of friction (β) are related as
μ = tan β.
• Tool signature consists of seven parameters and is used to identify a single-point cutting tool. The
parameters, in order, are listed below.
Back rake angle, Side rake angle, End relief angle (ERA), Side relief angle (SRA), End cutting
edge angle (ECEA), Side cutting edge angle (SCEA) and nose radius.
• Dynamometer is used to measure cutting force (axial force) and thrust force (normal to cutting
force) directly.
• The power consumption in a machining operation is given by the equation, P = Fc V where
Fc = cutting force and V is cutting speed.
• The metal removal rate (MRR) in a machining operation using a single point cutting tool, is given
by
MRR = V f d
where V = Cutting speed, m ⁄ min
f = Feed, mm
d = Depth of cut, mm.
• At low cutting speeds, most of the heat generated during the machining processes is taken by the
cutting tool. Hence tool life is short at low speeds.
• At higher cutting speeds, majority of the heat is taken away by the chip itself and hence tool
life is increased.
• The size effect implies that with decrease in uncut chip thickness, there is an increase in the requirement
of power and energy.
• In a single point cutting tool, only one cutting edge is involved in cutting operation. It is a brazed
carbide tip tool.
Rake angle It controls the flow of chip.
A positive rake (back) angle moves the chip away from the machined surface of the workpiece;
at the same time it reduces cutting forces, temperature and power requirements.
A negative rake angle ensures longer tool life and performs better under interrupted cutting conditions.
End relief angle It allows some clearance between tool and workpiece and thus prevents rubbing
of workpiece against the tool.
Side relief angle It prevents tool breakage and hence increases tool life. Its typical values for
chilled iron, hard steels and non-ferrous materials are 2-4o, 4-6o and 7-12o respectively.
Side cutting edge angle Its lower value increases tool life and also helps to machine difficult
materials. Its zero value gives strong initial shock to tool. Increased angle reduces shock.
• A perfectly smooth surface can be produced with zero end cutting edge angle.
Metal Cutting and Machining Processes 10.3
• The heat generated during metal cutting is shared by chip, tool and work material in the ratio
of 80 : 10 : 10 respectively.
• Most of the heat is generated in the primary zone of deformation followed by secondary zone.
• The parameters which define the model of continuous chips include uncut chip thickness (depth
of cut), chip thickness, shear angle and rake angle.
• A sharp tool has small nose radius. It produces rough surface and has reduced tool life.
• Increase in nose radius produces good surface finish and increases the tool life by reducing the
cutting forces and cutting temperature. But excessive nose radius produces tool chatter.
• In turning operation, the cutting force has the maximum influence and it acts in the direction of
cutting velocity. The feed force is approximately one-half of the cutting force and acts in the direction
of tool feed. The thrust force also called radial force is approximately equal to one-half of the
feed force or one-fourth of the cutting force and acts in the radial direction, that is, in a direction
perpendicular to the machined surface. Cutting force consumes maximum power and thrust force
least power.
• VT n = C is known as Taylor’s tool life equation, where V is the cutting speed; T, the tool life;
C, a constant and n, an exponent which largely depends upon tool material. A lower value of
n is desirable since it will reduce the dependency of the tool life on velocity.
• Carbide tools are also known as cemented or sintered carbide tools because these tools contain
cobalt which acts as a binder and cements the basic carbide particles such as tungsten carbide
and titanium carbide by using sintering operation.
• Cutting condition in a machining operation involves cutting speed, feed and depth of cut. These
three parameters directly influence the metal removal rate which is given by their product.
• Roughing cuts remove bulk material and are performed at lower cutting speed with higher feed
and higher depth of cut.
• Finishing cuts remove little material and are performed at higher cutting speed with low feed and
low depth of cut.
• Cutting speed has significant impact on surface being machined. Surface finish is improved with
increase in cutting speed and deteriorates at lower speeds. Lower coefficient of friction between
tool and work material also improves surface finish. Continuous chip without built-up edge and
use of cutting fluid also improve surface finish.
• There are two basic types of tool wear:
(a) Crater wear, which occurs on the rake face of the tool. It appears in the form of a concave
section due to thermal softening of the tool, and
(b) Flank wear, which occurs on the flank of the tool due to rubbing of newly machined work
surface with the flank of the tool.
• There are three important types of chips: continuous, discontinuous and continuous with built-up
edge.
• Continuous chips are produced while machining ductile materials such as low carbon steel, copper
and aluminium alloys using a sharp cutting tool with higher rake angle and running at higher cutting
speed. Other favourable conditions include smaller feed, lower depth of cut and lower friction at
tool-chip interface.
• Discontinuous chips are produced while machining brittle materials such as cast iron with a low
rake angle cutting tools operating at lower speed. Similarly, large feed and depth of cut and higher
friction at tool-chip interface help to form such chips.
• Continuous chips with built-up edge are produced while machining ductile materials at lower cutting
speeds. Some portion of the workpiece breaks due to tool-chip friction and gets attached to the
face of the tool forming built-up edge.
• Chip breakers, as the name suggests, are used to break the continuous chips into smaller pieces
so that they do not interfere with the machined surface. Chip breakers are provided in the tool
itself and are of groove type and obstruction type.
• Machinability is defined as ease with which a material can be machined. Higher tool life, lower
force and power requirements, smaller chips and better surface finish are indications of good machina-
bility.
• Machinability of steel is improved by the addition of sulphur. Generally, non-ferrous materials have
better machinability over ferrous materials.
• Machinability of a material is measured by comparing its machinability index with that of standard
steel B 1112 for which the machinability index is assumed to be 100%.
MACHINE TOOLS AND OPERATIONS

Lathe
• Lathe is a basic machine tool used to perform a number of operations. The engine lathe is its
oldest version which was driven by a steam engine. The important parts of a lathe include headstock,
tailstock, carriage, tool post, cross-slide and bed.
• The workpiece is held between the headstock and the tailstock. Most of the operations on a lathe
are performed in horizontal position because length of the job is usually greater than its diameter
in such cases.
• The size of a lathe is specified by two parameters: (a) the swing, which represents the maximum
workpiece diameter that can be rotated, and (b) the maximum distance between the centres, which
represents the maximum workpiece length to be mounted between headstock and tailstock centres.
• The lathe can perform the following operations:
(a) Turning removes material from the surface of a cylindrical workpiece while it is rotating.
Here, the tool is applied parallel to the rotational axis of the workpiece. The cutting speed
in turning is expressed as
πDN ,
V= m⁄s
60,000
where D = Workpiece diameter, mm
N = Spindle speed (rpm).
The feed is expressed in mm/rev.
(b) Taper turning produces two different diameters at the ends of a workpiece. Here, the tool
is applied at a certain angle to the rotational axis of the workpiece.
(c) Contour turning produces contour on the surface of a workpiece. Here, the tool follows a
contoured path opposite to its straight line movement in a conventional turning.
(d) Drilling is the process of producing a circular hole in the workpiece.
(e) Boring is the process of enlargement of a hole already drilled in a workpiece.

(f) Reaming is the process of finishing a drilled hole.
(g) Parting or cut-off is the process of cutting the workpiece into suitable number of parts.
(h) Chamfering is the process of producing a tapered corner on the workpiece to avoid its sharp
edges.
(i) Threading is the process of producing screw threads either on outer or inner surface of a
workpiece.
( j ) Knurling is the process of producing regular cross-hatched patterns on the surface of a workpiece
in order to make a firm grip over it.
• In turret lathe, a hexagonal turret replaces the tailstock. The turret has six cutting tools which can
be used separately by bringing each of them in the operating position. A turret lathe is used for
large production run. Important parts of a turret lathe include chaser saddle, work holding device,
cross-slide and tool post (rear and front), also known as square turret, which can hold four tools
at a time. Ram type (also called capstan lathe) and saddle type are two basic types of turret lathe.
DRILLING MACHINE
• A drilling machine is used to produce circular hole in a workpiece and the process is called drilling.
The cutting tool used in drilling machine is called a drill which has usually two cutting edges
(flutes). The tool is fed in a direction parallel to its axis of rotation.
• A drilling machine can also perform several other operations such as boring, reaming, counter boring,
countersinking and lapping.
• Twist drills are the most commonly used drilling tools and they are made of HSS. It has three
important parts: body, shank (tapered) and point. Its body has two spiral flutes.
• A tapered shank drill is used to produce larger hole, whereas a straight shank drill finds application
in drilling smaller holes. Both drills have two helical flutes.
• A step drill can produce holes of different diameters.
• A spot drill is used to initiate a hole by marking in the form of a spot.
• A gun drill, also called straight flute drill, has zero rake angle and zero helix angle, and has single
straight flute running throughout its length and is used to produce holes in soft metals.
• Core drills have three or more flutes and they are used to enlarge an already drilled hole.
• Spade drills, also called flat drills, were earlier used to produce large diameter inaccurate holes.
• Soft materials are drilled using low helix angles. Higher helix angles can cut more material.
• Trepanning is used to produce very large diameter holes in thin materials such as flate plates or
sheet metals by removing the entire material in the solid cylindrical form and not in the form
of smaller chips.
• The drill diameter and drill speed are related by the equation
πDN
V=
1000
where V = Drill cutting speed, m ⁄ min
D = Drill diameter, mm
N = Rotational speed of drill, (rpm).
• Feed ( f ) and feed rate ( fr) are related to each other by the equation
fr = f . N.
• Machining time, tm in drilling is expressed as
t+A
tm =
fr
where t = Thickness of the workpiece
A = Approach allowance.
• The metal removal rate (MRR) in drilling is expressed as
πD2 fr
MRR = (Neglecting approach allowance).
4
SHAPER AND PLANER

• Shaper, also called shaping machine, planer or planing machine, uses a single point cutting tool
to produce straight flat surfaces.
• In shaping, the workpiece is stationary and the cutting tool moves forward and backward (reciprocating
motion) in a straight line over the workpiece.
• In planing, the cutting tool is stationary and the workpiece has the linear motion in the forward
and backward direction under the cutting tool.
• Cutting takes place during the forward stroke and the return stroke (idle stroke) is used to bring
the tool to original position to make it ready for the next cut.
• Feed, in shaping, is expressed as the distance moved by the workpiece for each cutting stroke
and it is expressed in mm/stroke.
• A planer can machine a larger workpiece and also produce more accurate surface as compared
to a shaper.
• A crank shaper is the most commonly used mechanical shaper. It works on the principle of quick-return
slotted link mechanism.
• A hydraulic shaper is simpler in construction and does not contain crank, gear and so on. It works
on oil pressure. It has constant cutting speed during the forward stroke and higher speed on return
stroke, making more strokes per minute at a given cutting speed.
• A vertical shaper is called a slotter and it is used to generate internal surfaces, keyways, slots
and grooves.
• The size of a shaper is specified by maximum length of stroke.
• A planer is classified according to the largest workpiece that can be held on its worktable or that
can be accommodated between two columns.
• Important parts of shaper and planer include base (bed), which forms the body and supports the
entire structure; column, ram, cross rail, saddle, work table, tool head and driving mechanism.
• A shaper cutting tool is usually made of high speed steel but sintered carbide tipped tools can
be used for harder materials.
• Two important types of planer are: open side planer, also called single column (housing) planer,
on account of a single column which provides more workpiece movement and double column planer
which contains two columns one on either side of the bed and worktable forming closed frame
structure and it is the most common and conventional type of planer.
• A planer has much longer stroke length as compared to shaper.
Shaper and Planer parameters

Let, L = Stroke length including clearance at each end of stroke
N = Number of complete strokes per minute
f = Feed per cycle (one cycle consists of one cutting stroke and one return stroke)
Vc = Tool speed during forward (cutting) stroke
Vr = Tool speed during return (non−cutting) stroke
d = Depth of cut
l = Length of job
W = Width of job including the distance moved by the tool in width direction on either
side of the job.
• The time of cutting stroke is given as
L
tc = ⋅
Vc
• The time of return stroke is given as
L
tr = ⋅
Vr
• The total time, t for one cycle is the sum of tc and tr , that is,
t = tc + tr .
W
• Number of cycles = ⋅
f
• The machining time of a shaper is expressed as
W
tm = ×t
f
W ⎛ L L ⎞
= ×⎜ + ⎟⋅
f ⎝ Vc Vr ⎠
• The average cutting speed is given as

V = NL (1 + R)
where R = Quick return ratio
tr
= < 1.
tc
• The metal removal rate (MRR) is given as
MRR = f . d . L . l.
MILLING
• Milling produces plain or straight surfaces with the help of a cutting tool called milling cutter
having multiple cutting edges (teeth). The milling cutter has two angles: axial rake angle and radial
rake angle and it is mounted on an arbor (a shaft) to be driven by spindle. The feed motion is
normal to the rotational axis of the cutting tool.
• Milling is an interrupted cutting operation in which chips produced are of small sizes.
• There are two types of milling operations: peripheral milling and face milling.
• Peripheral milling removes material from the periphery of a workpiece producing a plain surface
and hence it is also called plain milling. The axis of the cutting tool and the feed motion are
parallel to each other.
• Slab milling, slotting and side milling are important peripheral milling operations.
• In slab milling, cutter width extends the width of the workpiece producing a slab.
• In slotting, cutter width is smaller than the width of the workpiece producing a slot in the workpiece.
• Side milling is a variation of slotting and removes material from the side of a workpiece. If the
material is removed from both sides of a workpiece, then the resulting milling process is called
straddle milling.
• In face milling, axis of the cutting tool is normal to the surface being machined. It is a versatile
process. Several variations of face milling exist depending upon the way of removal of material
from a workpiece. Conventional face milling, partial face milling, end milling, profile milling, pocket
milling and surface contouring are important face milling operations. Chip is of uniform thickness
in face milling.
• Conventional face milling removes material from the entire surface of the workpiece. Here, the
diameter of the cutting tool is more than the width of the workpiece.
• Partial face milling removes material not from the entire surface but from certain portion of the
workpiece.
• End milling removes material in such a way that a slot is created in the workpiece. Here, the
diameter of the cutting tool is less than the width of the workpiece.
• Profile milling removes material in such a way that it creates profile on outer periphery of the
workpiece.
• Pocket milling removes material in such a way that a pocket is created in the flat surface of a
workpiece.
• Surface contouring removes material in such a way that it creates contour on the surface of a
workpiece.
UP AND DOWN MILLING

• The cutting tool in peripheral milling rotates in two different ways giving rise to up and down
milling. In up milling (conventional milling), the milling cutter rotates in a direction opposite to
that of workpiece travel. Here, the cutter has the tendency to lift the workpiece from the milling
table and hence the name up milling.
• In down milling (climb milling), the milling cutter rotates in the direction of workpiece travel.
Here, the cutter tends to push the workpiece against the milling table in the downward direction
thereby increasing the stability.
• Longer chips are produced in up milling than in down milling.
• In up milling, initially the chip is thin and its thickness gradually increases and becomes maximum
at the end of the cut.
• In down milling, initially the chip is thick and its thickness gradually decreases and becomes minimum
at the end of the cut.
• In down milling, the cutter has increased tool life as compared to up milling because of higher
values of rake angles.
• In down milling, specific power consumption is low.
• Thread milling is used to cut threads.
• Gear milling machines are also called hobbing machines and the hobbing tools are called hobes
which are in the shape of inverted teeth milling cutters. The hobes are fed while revolving exactly
in the same manner as the milling cutters.
• Gang milling is a variation of straddle milling and has several milling cutters to machine several
surfaces in one go.
• Feed in milling is expressed in mm/tooth.
• The feed rate, fr and feed, f are related as
fr = n . N . f
where n = Number of teeth in the milling cutter
N = Spindle speed.
• The cutting speed is given as
V = πDN
where D = Cutter diameter (outside).
• The material removal rate (MRR) is given as
MRR = W . d . fr
where d = Depth of cut
W = Width of workpiece.
• The time of machining during milling is expressed as
l+A
tm = for slab milling
ff
l + 2A
= for face milling
fr
where l = Length of workpiece
A = Approach length
=√
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
d (D – d) for slab milling
D
= for face milling.
2
GRINDING
• Grinding is a abrasive machining process which removes material with the help of hard abrasive
particles. It is a finishing operation.
• Abrasive particles are made of aluminium oxide (most commonly employed), silicon carbide, cubic
boron nitride and diamond.
• Diamond and cubic boron nitrides are used in the machining of hard materials.
• Abrasive particles may be classified as coarse, medium, fine and very fine sized. In general, coarse
sized particles are used for soft materials and fine sized particles for hard materials.
• Surface finish of the workpiece is strongly dependent on the grain size of the abrasive particles.
Better surface finishing can be obtained using small grit size.
• A grinding wheel consists of sharp abrasive particles on its surface, bonding material which holds
the abrasive particles and voids.
Table 10.1 Abrasive particles used in the
machining of various materials
Materials to be grinded Abrasives used Bond types

Steel Aluminium oxide Vitrified
Cast iron Aluminium oxide and silicon carbide Vitrified
Aluminium Silicon carbide Vitrified
Copper Silicon carbide Vitrified
Brass Silicon carbide Vitrified
Bronze Aluminium oxide Vitrified
Ceramics Silicon carbide and diamond Metal
Cemented carbides Silicon carbide and diamond Vitrified and Resinoid
• Grinding ratio is the ratio of volume of material removed from the workpiece to the volume of
wheel wear.
• Grinding ratio may typically vary between 95 to 125 and depends on a number of factors including
workpiece material and grinding wheel parameters such as type of wheel, grinding speed, depth
of cut and grinding fluid. The ratio increases with increase in wheel speed.
• A grinding wheel is said to be loaded when porosities on its surfaces are filled with worn out
grain particles or chips thus affecting its grinding efficiency adversely. This situation can arise
due to grinding of soft materials or low porosity of grinding wheel or low speed of grinding wheel.
The effect can be minimised by increasing the speed of the grinding wheel and by the use of
proper grinding fluids (oil mixed water).
• Dressing is a conditioning operation for grinding wheel which removes the worn or dull grains
on the surface of a grinding wheel produced during the grinding operation. As a result, new sharp
grains are exposed to be used for further operation. A single point diamond is the most widely
used dressing tool for surface, cylindrical, centreless and internal grinding.
• Truing is basically a dressing operation which restores the original cylindrical shape of the wheel
by making its circumference a true circle. It also sharpens the grinding wheel.
• A loaded wheel has the following effects:
(a) More frictional heat is generated.
(b) Surface damage results.
(c) Dimensional accuracy is difficult to achieve.
• Soft grinding involves high wear whereas hard grinding causes low wear.
• Grindability is the ability of a material to be grinded. Better grindability means a material can
be more easily grinded. It can be expressed in terms of surface finish, wheel wear and cycle time.
• Friability is defined as the tendency of grains to fracture. Higher friability is indicative of increased
tendency to fracture.
• Better surface finish is obtained with increased speed of the grinding wheel but very high speed
deteriorates the surface. A dense wheel structure contributes to better surface finish.
• Majority of the heat produced in grinding is retained by the workpiece in sharp contrast to conventional
machining methods where chips conducts away the maximum heat.
• The specific power consumption (energy/volume) in grinding is much higher as compared to that
of conventional machining methods. The power consumption increases with negative rake angle.
• The peripheral speed of the grinding wheel is directly proportional to the rotational speed of the
wheel.
• The average length of chip in grinding varies directly proportional to the square root of wheel
diameter and depth of cut.
• The different types of bond used in the grinding wheel include vitrified (most commonly used),
silicate, resinoid/bakelite, rubber, shellac and metallic. The purpose of using the bond is to hold
the abrasive particles intact on the grinding wheel.
• Vitrified bond consists of clay and feldspar to be mixed with abrasive particles to form the grinding
wheel.
• A grinding wheel can be used to machine flat surfaces (surface grinding); cylindrical surfaces,
internal and external both (cylindrical grinding); contour shapes (contour grinding) and to produce
threads (thread grinding).
• The following table shows the trade names of different abrasive materials.
Table 10.2 Trade name of abrasive materials
Abrasive materials Trade name

Silicon carbide Carborundum and crystolon
Aluminium oxide Aloxite, Alundum and Borolon
Cubic boron nitride (CBN) Borazon
CENTRELESS GRINDING
• In centreless grinding, workpiece is not supported by centres but by a workrest blade and hence
it is so named.
• Workpiece lies on the line connecting the centres of grinding wheel and regulating wheel.
• The regulating wheel regulates the axial movement of the workpiece.
• The grinding wheel is of bigger diameter and has higher rotational speed whereas the regulating
wheel is of smaller diameter and has low speed.
• The feed rate depends on diameter (D), rotational speed (N) and inclination angle (α) of regulating
wheel and is expressed as
f = πD . N sin α.
• The method is used on large scale for the grinding of cylindrical surfaces, and is of external or
internal type.
• Typical parts produced by centreless grinding include roller bearings, piston pins, camshafts and
engine valves.
• Centreless grinding has the following variations:
(a) Through feed grinding
(b) Infeed or plunge grinding
(c) End-feed grinding.
GEAR MANUFACTURING
• Gears are meant for transmitting torque and angular velocity to be used for various applications.
• Spur gears are the simplest and most economical type of gears which operate on parallel shafts.
They have straight teeth parallel to the axis of the shaft.
• Helical, benel and worm gears operate on non-parallel shafts.
• In a gearset of two gears, the smaller one is called pinion and the second member is known as
gear.
• The gear ratio is the ratio of output and input angular velocities. It is always greater than unity.
• The most prevalent gear shape i.e., tooth form is involute of a circle. Cycloid shape is used in
watches and clocks.
• Rack is a linear gear of infinite radius. Rack and pinion gearset is used to convert rotary motion
into linear motion or vice-versa. Automobiles use rack and pinion gearset.
• Because of practical difficulty in producing exactly similar gear teeth, some gap, called backlash
appears during their mating. Ideally backlash should be zero.
• The circular pitch is expressed as
πd
pc =
N
where d = Pitch diameter
N = Number of teeth.
• The diametral pitch is defined as
N
pd = ⋅
d
• The module is defined as the reciprocal of diametral pitch, expressed as
d
m= ⋅
N
• Undercutting involves the removal of material from the root of a tooth, thereby reducing its strength.
• Gear manufacturing methods include casting (sand casting, die casting and investment casting),
injection moulding, forging, extrusion, drawing, thread rolling, blanking, powder metallurgy, form
milling, gear shaping and hobbing.
• Gear hobbing, gear shaping and rack planing are called gear generating processes.
• Gear form cutting processes use form cutters (gear shaped) to be used in milling, broaching and
shaping machine.
• Casting, blanking, powder metallurgy, extrusion, injection moulding and rolling are called gear cutting
methods.
• Generating and form cutting are the most commonly used methods for gear manufacture.
• Blanking (stamping) is used to produce thin gears to be used in watches and clocks from sheet
metal blanks.
• Sand casting is an economical method for producing poor quality gears to be used in toys and so on.
Die casting and investment casting produce dimensionally accurate gears of high surface finish.
• Injection moulding and casting are used to produce non-metallic gears made of thermoplastic polymers
such as nylon and acetals.
• Extrusion is used to produce gears in large quantities especially from non-ferrous materials such
as aluminium and copper alloys.
• Form milling uses gear shaped milling cutters to produce accurate gears with better surface finish.
The method is used to produce spur and helical gears but not bevel gears.
• Hobbing is a fast and extensively used method for producing good quality internal gears using
a hob which is analogous to a tap. All motions (of hob as well as gear blank) are rotary. Additionally,
the hob has linear axial reciprocatory motion.
• Broaching is particularly useful to produce dimensionally accurate internal gears of fine surface
finish.
• Shaving, grinding, burnishing, lapping and honing are gear finishing operations.
• Cast irons, malleable irons, nodular irons, steels, bronzes are commonly used gear materials. Ther-
moplastic polymers such as nylon and acetal are important gear materials in the non-metallic category.
They have low coefficient of friction and produce low noise.
• Gears fail due to tooth breakage or pitting. The former is due to fluctuating bending stresses at
the root of the tooth and is more catastrophic whereas the latter occurs on the tooth surface and
is a slow process. The root cause for both failures is fatigue. Lewis equation is used to find the
bending stress in a gear tooth assuming it to be a cantilever beam supported at the root.
• Helical gears are widely used in automobiles for quiet operations. Their teeth have involute shape
forming helix and the angle of helix typically ranges between 10o and 45o.
JIGS AND FIXTURES

• Jigs and fixtures are production tools used to hold and support the workpiece during its machining.
• Jigs also guide the cutting tool during the machining of workpieces whereas fixture does not.
• Use of jigs and fixtures ensures interchangeability of parts and thus reduces dimensional variations.
• Increased productivity, higher production rate and overall economy are some of the important advantages
of jigs and fixtures.
• Jigs are usually connected with machining operations. Drilling jigs are used to drill holes and reaming
jigs are used to finish the holes.
• Fixtures are usually connected with machine tools. Milling fixtures can be used to produce flat
surfaces and broaching fixtures to produce a hole in a given workpiece.
• Locators, also called locating elements and clamps or clamping elements and indexing or rotary
elements, are the major elements of jigs and fixtures. Locators locate the position of the workpiece
and indexing changes its position with respect to cutting tool and clamps hold the workpiece
firmly.
• There are twelve degrees of freedom for the movement of workpiece during its machining.

1. Turning produces
(a) square shape (b) triangular shape
(c) cylindrical shape (d) All of the above.
2. Cutting conditions for a machining process include the following parameters:
(a) cutting speed (b) feed
(c) depth of cut (d) All of the above.
3. During machining, on the shear plane, material is subjected to
(a) elastic deformation (b) plastic deformation
(c) both elastic and plastic deformation (d) viscoelastic deformation.
4. Chip ratio is defined as ratio of
(a) chip thickness to uncut thickness
(b) uncut thickness to chip thickness
(c) length of uncut material to length of chip
(d) None of these.
5. The shear plane angle, φ is expressed as
r sin α r cos α
(a) tan φ = (b) tan φ =
1 – r cos α 1 – r sin α
cos α r cos α
(c) tan φ = (d) tan φ = ⋅
1 – r sin α 1 – sin α
where r is chip ratio and α is rake angle.
6. The shear strain, γ produced during machining is expressed as
(a) γ = tan (α – φ) + tan φ (b) γ = cot (φ – α) + tan φ
(c) γ = tan (φ – α) + cot φ (d) γ = tan (φ – α) – cot φ.
7. Which of the following statements is incorrect about the continuous chip?
(a) It is formed while machining ductile materials at high cutting speeds.
(b) It is the most ideal chip because it results in good surface.
(c) It is formed when feed and depth of cut are low.
(d) None of these.
8. Which of the following statements is incorrect about the discontinuous chip?
(a) It is formed while machining brittle materials at low cutting speeds.
(b) It is formed when feed and depth of cut are high.
(c) It is formed due to high tool-chip friction.
(d) None of these.
9. In an orthogonal cutting process, rake angle of the tool is 20o and friction angle is 25.5o. Using
Merchant’s shear angle relationship, the value of shear angle will be
(a) 39.5o (b) 42.25o (c) 47.75o (d) 50.5o.
10. The approximate variation of the tool life exponent ‘n’ of cemented carbide tool is
(a) 0.03 to 0.08 (b) 0.08 to 0.20
(c) 0.20 to 0.48 (d) 0.48 to 0.70.
11. The cutting velocity in m/sec, for turning a workpiece of diameter 100 mm at spindle speed of
480 rpm is
(a) 1.26 (b) 2.51
(c) 48 (d) 151.
List I List II
(Cutting tool material) (Value of ‘n’ in eqn. VT n = C )
A. HSS 1. 0.18
B. Cast alloy 2. 0.12
C. Ceramic 3. 0.25
D. Sintered carbide 4. 0.50
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 1 2 4 3.
13. Which of the following statements is true about face milling?
(i) Face milling cutter is held on an arbor.
(ii) It has two rake angles: axial rake and radial rake.
(iii) The maximum chip thickness equals the feed per tooth.
(iv) The chip thickness varies from a minimum at the start to cut to a maximum at the end of
cut.
(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv).
14. In metal cutting operation, the approximate ratio of heat distributed among chip, tool and work,
in that order is
(a) 80 : 10 : 10 (b) 33 : 33 : 33
(c) 20 : 60 : 10 (d) 10 : 10 : 80.
15. In a tool life test, doubling the cutting speed reduces the tool life to 1 ⁄ 8th of the original. The
Taylor’s tool life index is
(a) 1 ⁄ 2 (b) 1 ⁄ 3 (c) 1 ⁄ 4 (d) 1 ⁄ 8.
16. Which of the following indicate better machinability?
(i) Smaller shear angle (ii) Higher cutting forces
(iii) Longer tool life (iv) Better surface finish

(c) (i) and (ii) (d) (iii) and (iv).
17. In orthogonal cutting, the depth of cut is 0.5 mm at a cutting speed of 2 m ⁄ s. If the chip thickness
is 0.75 mm, the chip velocity is
(a) 1.33 m ⁄ s (b) 2 m ⁄ s (c) 2.5 m ⁄ s (d) 3 m ⁄ s.
18. Consider the following forces acting on a finish turning tool:
(i) Feed force (ii) Thrust force
(iii) Cutting force
The correct sequence of the decreasing order of the magnitudes of these forces is
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) (b) (ii), (iii), (i)
(c) (iii), (i), (ii) (d) (iii), (ii), (i).
19. The radial force in single-point tool during turning operation varies between
(a) 0.2 to 0.4 times the main cutting force
(b) 0.4 to 0.6 times the main cutting force
(c) 0.6 to 0.8 times the main cutting force
(d) 0.5 to 0.6 times the main cutting force.
20. Which of the following operations is called internal turning?
(a) Drilling (b) Reaming
(c) Boring (d) Counterboring.
21. Enlarging an existing circular hole with a rotating single point tool is called
(a) boring (b) drilling
(c) reaming (d) internal turning.
22. In reaming process
(a) metal removal rate is high (b) high surface finish is obtained
(c) high form accuracy is obtained (d) high dimensional accuracy is obtained.
23. Consider the following operations:
(i) Under cutting (ii) Plain turning
(iii) Taper turning (iv) Thread cutting
The correct sequence of these operations in machining a product is
(a) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i) (b) (iii), (ii), (iv), (i)
(c) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv) (d) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv).
24. The following parameters determine the model of continuous chip formation:
(i) True feed (ii) Cutting velocity
(iii) Chip thickness (iv) Rake angle of the cutting tool
The parameters which govern the value of shear angle would include
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv).
25. Some conditions for the formation of continuous chips are given below:
(i) Continuous chips are produced while machining ductile materials.
(ii) Lower tool-chip friction favours continuous chips.
(iii) Lower feed and sharp cutting edge are desirable.
(iv) Cutting speed and rake angle should be higher.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) are true (b) (i), (iii) and (iv) are true
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are true (d) (i) is true.
26. The favourable conditions for the formation of discontinuous chips are:
(i) Brittle materials (ii) Lower cutting speed
(iii) Higher friction at tool-chip interface
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) are true (d) (i) is true.
27. The favourable conditions for the formation of continuous chips with built-up edge are:
(i) Ductile material (ii) Lower cutting speed
(iii) Coarse feed (iv) Smaller rake angle
(a) (i) and (ii) are true (b) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are true
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) are true (d) (i) is true.
28. Cutting conditions include the following:
(i) Cutting speed (ii) Depth of cut
(iii) Feed
Of these
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (i).
29. Which of the following processes use single point cutting tool?
(a) Drilling (b) Milling
(c) Turning (d) Grinding.
30. Continuous chip with built-up edge is formed
(a) when ductile material is machined (b) when the cutting speed is medium
(c) when the tool-chip friction is low (d) All of the above.
31. The merchant equation is
α β α β
(a) φ = 45o + + (b) φ = 45o + –
2 2 2 2
φ β α φ
(c) α = 45o + + (d) β = 45o + – ⋅
2 2 2 2
where φ = Shear plane angle, α = rake angle and β = friction angle.
32. The chip thickness ratio r is given by

cos φ sin (φ – α)
(a) (b)
sin (φ – α) cos φ
cos (φ – α) sin φ
(c) (d) ⋅
sin α cos (φ – α)
33. Crater wear starts at some distance from the tool tip because
(a) cutting fluid cannot penetrate that region
(b) stress on rake face is maximum at the region
(c) tool strength is minimum at that region
(d) tool temperature is maximum at that region.
34. Dynamometer is a device used for the measurement of

(a) chip thickness ratio (b) forces during metal cutting
(c) wear of the cutting tool (d) deflection of the cutting tool.
35. The primary tool force used in calculating the total power consumption in machining is the
(a) radial force (b) tangential force
(c) axial force (d) frictional force.
36. Which of the following forces are measured directly by strain ganges or force dynamometers during
metal cutting?
(i) Force exerted by the tool on the chip acting normally to tool face.
(ii) Horizontal cutting force exerted by the tool on the workpiece.
(iii) Frictional resistance of the tool against the chip flow acting along the tool face.
(iv) Vertical force which helps in holding the tool in position.
Of these
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iii).
37. The limit to the maximum hardness of a work material which can be machined with HSS tools
even at low speeds is set by which one of the following tool failure mechanisms?
(a) Attrition (b) Abrasion
(c) Diffusion (d) Plastic deformation under compression.
38. A tool signature consists of

(a) four parameters (b) five parameters
(c) six parameters (d) seven parameters.
39. Which of the following statements is correct about nose radius?

(a) It appears at the beginning of tool signature
(b) It appears in the middle of tool signature
(c) It appears at the end of tool signature
(d) It has no fixed position and can appear anywhere.
40. Back rake angle

(a) appears at the second position of tool signature
(b) appears at the start of tool signature
(c) appears at the middle of tool signature
(d) appears at the end of tool signature.
41. First six parameters of tool signature are expressed in
(a) mm (b) inch (c) degree (d) radian.
42. Nose radius is expressed in
(a) metre (b) inch (c) cm (d) degree.
43. The Taylor’s tool life equation is
(a) Vn T = C (b) VT n = C (c) V2 Tn = C (d) V n T 2 = C.
44. Which of the following statements is true?
(i) Tool life increases with increase in cutting speed.
(ii) Tool life decreases with increase in cutting speed.
(iii) Tool life remains unaffected with increase or decrease in cutting speed.
Of these
(a) (i) (b) (ii)
(c) (iii).
45. In Taylor’s tool life equation VT n = C, n depends mainly on the following parameter:
(a) work material (b) cutting conditions
(c) depth of cut (d) tool material.
46. What is the correct sequence of the following parameters in order of their maximum to minimum
influence on tool life?
(i) Feed rate (ii) Depth of cut
(iii) Cutting speed
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) (b) (iii), (ii), (i)
(c) (ii), (iii), (i) (d) (iii), (i), (ii)
47. Tool geometry of a single point cutting tool is specified by the following elements:
(i) Back rake angle (ii) Side rake angle
(iii) End cutting edge angle (iv) Side cutting edge angle
(v) Side relief angle (vi) End relief angle
(vii) Nose radius
The correct sequence of these tool elements used for correctly specifying the tool geometry is
(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (vi), (v), (iv) and (vii) (b) (i), (ii), (vi), (v), (iii), (iv) and (vii)
(c) (i), (ii), (v), (vi), (iii), (iv) and (vii) (d) (i), (ii), (vi), (iii), (v), (iv) and (vii).
48. Consider the following statements about nose radius:
(i) It improves tool life.
(ii) It reduces the cutting force.

(iii) It improves the surface finish.
49. For achieving a specific surface finish in single point turning, the most important factor to be
controlled is
(a) depth of cut (b) cutting speed
(c) feed (d) tool rake angle.
50. In ASA system, if the tool nomenclature is 8-6-5-5-10-15-2 mm, then the side rake angle will
be
(a) 5o (b) 6o (c) 8o (d) 10o.
51. Consider the following elements:
(i) Nose radius (ii) Cutting speed
(iii) Depth of cut (iv) Feed
The correct sequence of these elements in decreasing order of their influence on tool life is
(a) (ii), (iv), (iii) and (i) (b) (iv), (ii), (iii) and (i)
(c) (ii), (iv), (i) and (iii) (d) (iv), (ii), (i) and (iii).
52. For machining very hard materials, the cutting tool has
(a) zero rake angle (b) negative rake angle
(c) small positive rake angle (d) higher rake angle.
53. The typical range of rake angle for machining cemented carbide is
(a) 10o to 15o (b) – 5o to 10o
(c) – 5o to – 15o (d) 0o to 5o.
54. The typical range of rake angle for machining ceramics is
(a) 10o to 15o (b) – 5o to 10o
(c) – 5o to – 15o (d) 0o to 5o.
55. The typical value of relief angle is
(a) 0o (b) 10o (c) – 10o (d) 5o .
(i) High speed steel (ii) High carbon steel
(iii) Cemented carbides (iv) Ceramics
Negative rake angle is provided for
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv).
57. The type of wear that occurs due to the cutting action of the particles in the cutting fluid is referred
to as
(a) attritious wear (b) diffusion wear
(c) erosive wear (d) corrosive wear.
58. Consider the following characteristics:
(i) The cutting edge is normal to the cutting velocity.
(iii) The cutting forces occur in two directions only.
(iii) The cutting edge is wider than depth of cut.
The characteristics applicable to orthogonal cutting would include
59. In an orthogonal cutting, the depth of cut is halved and the feed rate is doubled. If the chip thickness
ratio is unaffected with the changed cutting conditions, the actual chip thickness will be
(a) doubled (b) halved (c) quadrupled (d) unchanged.
60. In a single point turning operation with a cemented carbide and steel combination having a Taylor
exponent of 0.25, if the cutting speed is halved, then the tool life will become
(a) half (b) two times
(c) eight times (d) sixteen times.
61. The tool life increases with
(a) increase in side cutting edge angle (b) decrease in side rake angle
(c) decrease in nose radius (d) decrease in back rake angle.
62. In the Taylor’s tool life equation, VT n = C, the value of n = 0.5. The tool has a life of 180 minutes
at a cutting speed of 18 m ⁄ min. If the tool life is reduced to 45 minutes, then the cutting speed
will be
(a) 9 m ⁄ min (b) 18 m ⁄ min
(c) 36 m ⁄ min (d) 72 m ⁄ min.
63. The tool life is increased by

(i) Build-up edge formation
(ii) Increasing cutting velocity
(iii) Increasing back rake angle upto a certain value
Which of these statements is correct?
64. In turning operation
(a) tool rotates and workpiece remains stationary
(b) workpiece rotates and tool remains stationary
(c) tool and workpiece both rotate
(d) None of these.
65. A turret lathe is useful for

(a) small scale production (b) medium scale production
(c) large scale production (d) None of these.
66. Consider the following statements associated with the lathe accessories:
(i) Steady rest is used for supporting a long job in between head stock and tail stock.
(ii) Mandrel is used for turning small cylindrical job.
(iii) Collets are used for turning disc-shaped job.
(c) (iii) is true (d) (i) is true.
67. In turning operation, the feed could be doubled to increase the metal removal rate. To keep the
same level of surface finish, the nose radius of the foot should be
(a) halved (b) kept unchanged
(c) doubled (d) made four lines.
68. Which of the following operations is carried out at the minimum cutting velocity if the machines
are equally rigid and the tool and the work material are the same?
(a) Turning (b) Grinding (c) Boring (d) Milling.
69. Feed in milling is expressed in
(a) mm ⁄ stroke (b) mm ⁄ rev
(c) mm ⁄ tooth (d) All of the above.
70. Feed in turning is expressed in
71. Feed in shaping and planing is expressed in
72. Boring is similar to
(a) turning (b) Drilling
(c) Facing (d) internal turning.
73. A drill has the following number of cutting edges:
(a) one (b) two (c) three (d) four.
74. The spindle speed, N in drilling can be found by using the following formula:
V V
(a) N= 2
(b) N=
π D πD2
V V
(c) N= (d) N= ⋅
πD π D2
2
where N is in rpm, V is surface cutting speed in mm ⁄ min and D is the drill diameter in mm.
75. The main purpose of boring operation, as compared to drilling is to

(a) drill a hole (b) finish the drilled hole
(c) correct the hole (d) enlarge the existing hole.
76. The metal removal rate (MRR) in drilling is
(a) directly proportional to the drill diameter
(b) directly proportional to the square of drill diameter
(c) inversely proportional to the drill diameter
(d) inversely proportional to the square of drill diameter.
77. The metal removal rate (MRR) in drilling is
(a) directly proportional to the feed rate
(b) directly proportional to the square of feed rate
(c) inversely proportional to the feed rate
(d) inversely proportional to the square of feed rate.
List I List II
(Drill bits) (Application)
A. Core drill 1. To enlarge a hole to a certain depth so
as to accommodate the bolt head of a
screw
B. Reamer 2. To drill and enlarge an already existing
hole in a casting
C. Counterbore drill 3. To drill a hole before making internal
thread
D. Tap drill 4. To improve the surface finish and
dimensional accuracy of the already
drilled hole
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 3 2 4
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 2 4 1 3
(d) 3 2 4 1.
79. Which of the following processes results in the best accuracy of the hole made?
(a) Drilling (b) Reaming (c) Broaching (d) Boring.
80. Which of the following statements is correct?
(i) A boring machine is suitable for a job shop.
(ii) A jig boring machine is designed specially for doing more accurate work when compared
to a vertical milling machine.
(iii) A vertical precision boring machine is suitable for boring holes in cylinder blocks and liners.

81. A hole of 30 mm diameter is to be produced by reaming. The minimum diameter permissible
is 30.00 mm while the maximum diameter permissible is 30.05 mm. In this regard, consider the
following statements about the reamer size:
(i) The minimum diameter of the reamer can be less than 30 mm.
(ii) The minimum diameter of the reamer cannot be less than 30 mm.
(iii) The maximum diameter of the reamer can be more than 30.05 mm.
(iv) The maximum diameter of the reamer must be less than 30.05 mm.
82. Arrange the following processes in ascending order of their cutting speeds.
(i) Drilling (ii) Turning
(iii) Milling (iv) Grinding
Of these
(a) 1 < 2 < 3 < 4 (b) 2 < 1 < 4 < 3
(c) 3 < 2 < 1 < 4 (d) 3 < 4 < 2 < 1.
83. A component requires a hole which must be within the two limits of 25.03 and 25.04 mm diameter.
Which of the following statements about the reamer size is correct?
(i) Reamer size cannot be below 25.03 mm.
(ii) Reamer size cannot be above 25.04 mm.
(iii) Reamer size can be 25.04 mm.
(iv) Reamer size can be 25.03 mm.
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (iv) and (iii).
84. Stroke of a shaping machine is 250 mm. It makes 30 double strokes per minute. Overall average
speed of operation is
(a) 3.75 m ⁄ min (b) 5.0 m ⁄ min
(c) 7.5 m ⁄ min (d) 15.0 m ⁄ min.
85. Size of a shaper is given by
(a) stroke length (b) motor power
(c) weight of the machine (d) table size.
86. In a shaping operation, the average cutting speed is (stroke length S, Number of strokes per minute
N, Quick return ratio R)
NSR
(a) NSR (b)
2
NS (1 + R)
(c) NS (1 + R) (d) ⋅
2
87. The type of quick return mechanism employed mostly in shaping machines is
(a) DC reversible motor (b) fast and loose pulleys
(c) whitworth motion (d) slotted link mechanism.
88. Which of the following are the advantages of a hydraulic shaper over a mechanically driven shaper?
(i) More strokes per minute can be obtained at a given cutting speed.
(ii) The cutting stroke has a definite stopping point.
(iii) It is simpler in construction.
(iv) Cutting speed is constant during the forward stroke.
Of these
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (i), (iii) and (iv).
List I List II
(Types of shaper) (Related parameters)
A. Hydraulic shaper 1. Slotted link mechanism
B. Mechanical shaper 2. Rotary worktable
C. Standard shaper 3. Oil pressure
D. Vertical shaper 4. Worktable has horizontal and vertical
movements
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 3 4 2
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 1 3 2 4.
90. Consider the following statements about shaping:

(i) It is an intermittent cutting operation.
(ii) It is based on slotted link quick return mechanism.
(iii) Forward stroke is a cutting stroke and backward stroke is idle.
(iv) It can machine large workpieces.
(a) (i), (iii) and (iv) are true (b) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are true
91. Consider the following statements about a hydraulic shaper:
(i) It works on oil pressure.
(ii) It has uniform cutting speed.
(iii) It is more expensive.
(iv) It can make strokes per minute at a given cutting speed.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are true (b) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are true
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) are true (d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are true.
92. Consider the following statements about planing:
(i) Larger workpieces can be machined.
(ii) More number of cutting tools can be used simultaneously.
(iii) It works on the principle of slotted link mechanism.
(iv) It produces more accurate surfaces.
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are true (b) (i), (iii) and (iv) are true
(c) (iii) and (iv) are true (d) (i), (ii) are (iv) are true.
List I List II
(Types of planer) (Related parameters)
A. Open side planer 1. Steel plates
B. Double housing planer 2. One column
C. Edge planer 3. Conventional planer
D. Divided table planer 4. Tandem planer
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 3 2 4 1
(d) 4 3 1 2.
List I List II
(Planer components) (Details)
A. Cross rail and saddle 1. Planer accessories
B. Duplex table and index centre 2. Work holding devices
C. Step block and angle plate 3. Driving mechanism
D. Motor drive and hydraulic drive 4. Planer main parts
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 1 2 3
(b) 4 2 1 3
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 1 2 4 3.
95. Consider the following statements about shaping and planning:
(i) Shaping is suitable for small size workpieces and planning for large workpieces.
(ii) Longer stroke length can be used in planing as compared to shaping.

(iii) Workpiece is stationary and the cutting tool moves in shaping whereas it is just reverse in
planing.
(iv) Planer works on quick-return link mechanism.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are true (b) (ii) and (iii) are true
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) are true (d) (i), (iii) and (iv) are true.
96. In a mechanical shaper, the length of stroke is increased by
(a) increasing the centre distance of bull gear and crank pin
(b) decreasing the centre distance of bull gear and crank pin
(c) increasing the length of the ram
(d) decreasing the length of the slot in the slotted lever.
97. The time for drilling a hole is given by
Depth of hole + h
t=
feed × rpm
where h is the
(a) length of the drill (b) drill diameter
(c) flute length of the drill (d) cone height of the drill.
98. Machining centre is
(a) an automatic tool changing unit
(b) a group of automatic machine tools
(c) a next logical step beyond NC machine
(d) an NC machine tool.
99. To drill a 10 mm diameter hole through a 20 mm thick M-S plate with a drill bit running at 300 rpm
and a feed of 0.25 mm per revolution, time taken will be
(a) 8 sec (b) 16 sec (c) 24 sec (d) 32 sec.
(i) Drill press : Trepanning
(ii) Centreless grinding : Through feeding
(iii) Capstan lathe : Ram type turret
101. The rake angle in a twist drill
(a) varies from minimum near the dead centre to a maximum as the periphery
(b) is maximum at the dead centre and zero at the periphery
(c) is constant at every point of the cutting edge
(d) is a function of the size of the chisel edge.
List I List II
(Type of drill) (Application)
A. Straight shank 1. Soft materials
B. Taper shank 2. Deep holes
C. Single flute 3. General purpose
D. High helix 4. Small hole diameter
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 4 3 1 2.
List I List II
(Drill bits) (Application)
A. Core drill 1. To enlarge a hole to a certain depth so
as to accommodate the bolt head of a
screw
B. Reamer 2. To drill and enlarge an already existing
hole in a casting
C. Counterbore drill 3. To drill a hole before making internal
thread
D. Tap drill 4. To improve the surface finish and
dimensional accuracy of the already
drilled hole
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 3 2 4
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 2 4 1 3
(d) 3 2 4 1.
104. Which of the following sets of tools or tools and processes are normally employed for making
large diameter holes?
(a) Boring tool
(b) BTA tool (boring and trepanning association) and gun drill
(c) Gun drill and boring tool
(d) Boring tool and trepanning.
105. A milling cutter has the following number of cutting edges.
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Multiple.
106. Which of the following statements is correct in respect of up-milling and down-milling?
(i) In up-milling, the cutter rotates in a direction opposite to that of workpiece travel whereas
in down-milling, the cutter rotates in a direction similar to that of workpiece travel.
(ii) In down-milling, chip will be thin at the beginning and increases to a maximum at the end
of the cut and reverse will be the case for a chip formed by up-milling.
(iii) Down-milling is desirable with milling cutters having a high radial rake angle when compared
to up-milling.
(iv) Down-milling forces the workpiece against the milling table to exert more pressure while
up-milling tends to lift the workpiece from the table.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (iii) and (iv).
In up milling
(i) The cutter starts the cut from the machined surface and proceeds upwards.
(ii) The cutter starts the cut from the machined surface and proceeds downwards.
(iii) The job is fed in a direction opposite to that of cuter rotation.
(iv) The job is fed in the same direction as that of cutter rotation.
(a) (i) and (iii) are true (b) (i) and (iv) are true
108. Climb milling is chosen while machining because
(a) the chip thickness increases gradually
(b) it enables the cutter to dig in and start the cut
(c) the specific power consumption is reduced
(d) better surface finish can be obtained.
109. Consider the following operation:
(i) Cutting key ways on shafts (ii) Cutting external screw threads
(iii) Cutting teeth of spur gears (iv) Cutting external splines
Those which can be performed with milling cutters would include
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iii) (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv).
110. In a milling operation, two side milling cutters are mounted with a derised distance between them
so that both sides of a workpiece can be milled simultaneously. This setup is called
(a) gang milling (b) straddle milling
(c) string milling (d) side milling.
111. Consider the following machining operations. Arrange them in increasing order of their cutting
speed and select the correct choice : Drilling, Grinding, Turning and Milling
(a) Turning, Drilling, Milling and Grinding
(b) Drilling, Truning, Milling and Grinding

(c) Drilling, Turning, Grinding and Milling
(d) Turning, Milling, Grinding and Drilling.
112. Arrange the following operation in sequence to make a threaded bolt from a raw rod and select
the correct choice : Swaging, Upsetting, Flattening, Threading
(a) Swaging, Threading, Flattening, Upsetting
(b) Swaging, Flattening, Upsetting, Threading
(c) Flattening, Upsetting, Swaging, Threading
(d) Upsetting, Flattening, Swaging, Threading.
(i) Grinding wheel diameter (ii) Regulating wheel diameter
(iii) Speed of the grinding wheel (iv) Speed of the regulating wheel
(v) Angle between the axes of grinding and regulating wheels.
Among these parameters, those which influence the axial feed rate in centreless grinding would
include:
(a) (ii), (iv) and (v) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (iv) and (v) (d) (iii), (iv) and (v).
114. The specific energy consumption in grinding is much greater (approximately ten times) than in
conventional machining. This is because of the following reason:
(a) minute size of the abrasive grits (size-effect)
(b) higher values of negative rake angle
(c) non-participation of all the grits in the cutting operation
(d) All of the above.
115. Specific energy requirements in a grinding process are more than those in turning for the same
metal removal rake because of the
(a) specific pressures between wheel and work being high
(b) size effect of the larger contact areas between wheel and work
(c) high cutting velocities
(d) high heat produced during grinding.
116. A grinding wheel of 150 mm diameter is rotating at 3000 rpm. The grinding speed is
(a) 7.5π m ⁄ s (b) 15 π m ⁄ s (c) 45π m ⁄ s (d) 450π m ⁄ s.
117. Which of the following materials is used as the bonding material for grinding wheels?
(a) Silicon carbide (b) Sodium silicate
(c) Boron carbide (d) Aluminium oxide.
118. In centreless grinding, the workpiece centre will be
(a) above the line joining the two wheel centres
(b) below the line joining the two wheel centres
(c) on the line joining the two wheel centres
(d) at the intersection of the line joining the wheel centres with the work plate plane.
119. Tool life in case of a grinding wheel is the time

(a) between two successive regrinds of the wheel
(b) taken for the wheel to be balanced
(c) taken between two successive wheel dressings
(d) taken for a wear of 1 mm on its diameter.
120. In the grinding wheel of A 60, G 7, B 23, B stands for

(a) resinoid bond (b) rubber bond
(c) shellac bond (d) silicate bond.
121. The sequence of markings ‘‘S 14 K 14 S’’ on a grinding wheel represents respectively
(a) bond type, structure, grade, grain size and abrasive type
(b) abrasive type, grain size, grade, structure and bond type
(c) bond type, grade, structure, grain size and abrasive type
(d) abrasive type, structure, grade, grain size and bond type.
122. Consider the following statements regarding grinding of high carbon steel:
(i) Grinding at high speed results in the reduction of chip thickness and cutting forces per grit.
(ii) Aluminium oxide wheels are employed.
(iii) The grinding wheel has to be of open structure.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) are true (b) (i) and (ii) are true
(c) (i) and (iii) are true (d) (ii) and (iii) are true.
List I List II
A. Quick return mechanism 1. Lathe
B. Apron mechanism 2. Milling machine
C. Indexing mechanism 3. Shaper
D. Regulating wheel 4. Centreless grinding
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 2 1 4
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 4 2 3 1
(d) 3 1 2 4.
124. Consider the following reasons:
(i) Grinding wheel is soft.
(ii) RPM of grinding wheel is too low.
(iii) Cut is very fine.
(iv) An improper cutting fluid is used.
A grinding wheel may become loaded due to reason stated at

(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iii).
For precision machining of non-ferrous alloys, diamond is preferred because it has
(i) Low coefficient of thermal expansion
(ii) High wear resistance
(iii) High compression strength
(iv) Low fracture toughness
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv).
126. Grinding wheel is said to be loaded when the
(a) metal particles get embedded in the wheel surface blocking the interspaces between cutting
grains
(b) bonding material comes on the surface and the wheel becomes blunt
(c) workpiece being ground comes to a stop in cylindrical grinding
(d) grinding wheel stops because of very large depth of cut.
127. The peripheral speed of the grinding wheel varies

(i) Inversely proportional to the spindle speed.
(ii) Directly proportional to the spindle speed.
(iii) Directly proportional to the square of the spindle speed.
(iv) directly proportional to the wheel diameter.
Of these
(a) (i) and (iv) are true (b) (ii) and (iv) are true
(c) (iii) and (iv) are true (d) (i) is true.
128. The average length of chip in grinding varies
(a) directly proportional to wheel diameter
(b) directly proportional to the square root of wheel diameter
(c) directly proportional to the square of wheel diameter
(d) inversely proportional to wheel diameter.
129. Consider the following statements in respect of a grinding wheel of specification, 51-A-36-L-7-R-23,
using the standard alphanumeric codification:
(i) Abrasive used in the wheel is aluminium oxide.
(ii) The grain size of abrasive is medium.
(iii) The wheel grade is medium hard.
(iv) It has an open structure.
(v) It has resinoid as bonding agent.
Which of these statements are current?

(c) (ii), (iii) and (v) (d) (i), (iv) and (v).
130. Consider the following statements regarding numerically controlled machine tools:
(i) They reduce non-productive time. (ii) They reduce fixturing.
(iii) They reduce maintenance cost.
Which of these statements are correct?
131. Consider the following criteria in evaluating machinability:
(i) Surface finish (ii) Type of chips
(iii) Tool life (iv) Power consumption
In modern high speed CNC machining with coated carbide tools, the correct sequence of these
criteria in DECREASING order of their importance is
(a) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii) (b) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
(c) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (d) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv).
132. In tape preparation for an NC machine tool, the code S 624 would represent spindle speed of
(a) 624 rpm, 240 rpm and 246 rpm (b) 624 rpm and 240 rpm
(c) 624 rpm and 246 rpm (d) 240 rpm and 246 rpm.
133. Which of the following are the rules of programming NC machine tools in APT (Automatically
Programmed Tools) language?
(i) Only capital letters are used.
(ii) A period is placed at the end of each statement.
(iii) Insertion of space does not affect the APT word.
(c) (i) and (iii) (d) (i).
134. Transfer machines can be defined as
(a) material processing machines
(b) material handling machines
(c) material processing and material handling machines
(d) component feeders for automatic assembly.
List I List II
(A function connected (Associated parameters)
with NC machine tool)
A. Interpolation 1. Tape preparation
B. Parity check 2. Canned cycle
C. Preparatory function 3. Drilling
D. Point-to-point control 4. Contouring

5. Turning
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 1 2 3
(b) 4 1 2 5
(c) 5 1 3 2
(d) 1 4 3 2
136. Feed drives in CNC milling machines are provided by
(a) synchronous motors (b) induction motors
(c) stepper motors (d) servo motors.
(i) CNC machine — Post processor
(ii) Machining centre — Tool magazine
(iii) DNC — FMS
Of these
138. Which of the following is/are the advantage(s) of numerical control of machine tools?
(i) Reduced lead line (ii) Consistently good quality
(iii) Elaborate fixtures are not required
Of these
(a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (i) (d) (i) and (iii).
139. Which of the following are valid statements for point-to-point motion of the tool in APT language?
(i) GO/TO/ .......... (ii) GO/DLTA/ ..........
(iii) GO/TO, ..........
140 A ‘block’ of information is NC machine program means

(a) one row on tape
(b) a word comprising several rows on tape
(c) one complete instruction
(d) one complete program for a job.
141. Internal gears can be made by
(a) hobbing (b) shaping with pinion cutter
(c) shaping with rack cutter (d) milling.
142. Consider the following machine tools:

(i) Hobbing machine (ii) Gear shaping machine
(iii) Broaching machine
The teeth of internal spur gears can be cut in
143. Which of the following processes of gear manufacturing results in best accuracy of involute gear
tooth profile?
(a) Milling (b) Hobbing
(c) Rotary gear shaper (d) Rack type gear shaper.
List I List II
(Gear components) (Methods of
manufacturing)
A. Gear for clocks 1. Hobbing
B. Bakelite gears 2. Stamping
C. Fluminium gears 3. Power compacting
D. Automobile transmission gear 4. Sand casting
5. Extrusion
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 3 5 1
(b) 5 3 4 2
(c) 5 1 2 3
(d) 2 4 5 3.
145. Which of the following motions is not needed for spur gear cutting with a hob?
(i) Rotary motion of hob
(ii) Linear axial reciprocatory motion of hob
(iii) Rotary motion of gear blank
(iv) Radial advancement of hob
146. Consider the following processes for the manufacture of gears:
(i) Casting (ii) Powder metallurgy
(iii) Machining from bar stock (iv) Closed die forging
The correct sequence in increasing order of bending strength of gear teeth is
(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (b) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
(c) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii) (d) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv).
147. Consider the following processes of gear manufacture:

(i) Milling with form cutter.
(ii) Rack type gear shaper (gear planer).
(iii) Rotary gear shaper (gear shaper).
(iv) Gear hobbing.
The correct sequence of these processes in increasing order of accuracy of convolute profile of
the gear is
(a) (iii), (ii), (iv), (i) (b) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
(c) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv) (d) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv).
148. Gear cutting on a milling machine using an involute profile cutter is a
(a) gear forming process (b) gear generating process
(c) gear shaping process (d) highly accurate gear producing process.
149. The floating position of the holding fixture in a rotary transfer device is used to
(a) improve the accuracy of location
(b) reduce the tendency to over index
(c) reduce the cycle time
(d) improve upon the acceleration and deceleration characteristics.
150. A diamond locating pin is used in jigs and fixtures because
(a) diamond is very hard and wear resistant
(b) it occupies very little space
(c) it helps in assembly with tolerance on centre distance
(d) it has a long life.
151. Consider the following statements regarding fixtures employed for holding workpiece during machining:
(i) The location is based on the 3-2-1 principle.
(ii) The numbers refer to the pins employed in three mutually perpendicular planer to arrest all
the degrees of freedom.
(iii) Fixture also provides tool guidance.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) are true (b) (ii) and (iii) are true
(c) (i) and (iii) are true (d) (i) and (ii) are true.
152. One of the pins in a dual pin locator of a jig or fixture is shaped as a ‘diamond pin locator’
because
(a) diamond pin does not wear fast
(b) it is easy to clamp
(c) any variation between the centres of the hole is taken care of
(d) it will be easy to machine afterwards when the locator is worn out.
153. Consider the following work materials:
(i) Titanium (ii) Mild steel
(iii) Stainless steel (iv) Grey cast iron
The correct sequence of these materials in term of increasing order of difficulty in machining is
(a) (iv), (ii), (iii), (i) (b) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)
(c) (ii), (iv), (iii), (i) (d) (ii), (iv), (i), (iii).
154. Match List I with List II with and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I List II
A. Reaming 1. Smoothing and squaring surface around
the hole for proper seating
B. Counterboring 2. Sizing and finishing the hole
C. Countersinking 3. Enlarging the end of the hole
D. Spot facing 4. Conical enlargement at the end of the
hole
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 2 4 1
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 3 2 1 4
(d) 2 3 4 1.
155. Machining centre is

(a) an automatic tool changing unit (b) a group of automatic machine tools
(c) a next logical step beyond NC machine (d) an NC machine tool.
156. Which of the following processing sequences will give the best accuracy as well as surface finish?
(a) Drilling, reaming and grinding (b) Drilling, boring and grinding
(c) Drilling, reaming and lapping (d) Drilling, reaming and electroplating.
157. In APT language, the cutter motion in incremental coordinate mode is addressed as
(a) GO TO/.......... (b) GO/TO..........
(c) GO DLTA/.......... (d) GO FWD/..........
158. Consider the following components:
(i) A dedicated computer (ii) Bulk memory
(iii) Telecommunication lines
Which of these components are required for a DNC system?
(a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iii).
List I List II
(Terminology) (Related terms)
A. Interference 1. Arc of approach, arc of recess, circular
pitch
B. Dynamic load on tooth 2. Lewis equation

C. Static load 3. Minimum number of teeth on pinion
D. Contract ratio 4. Inaccuracies in tooth profile
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 3 4 2 1.
160. The cutting ratio is expressed as
cos φ
(a)
cos (φ – α)
sin φ
(b)
cos (φ – α)
tan φ
(c)
cos (φ – α)
sin φ
(d) (where φ = shear angle, α = rake angle).
sin (φ – α)
161. The cutting ratio, in terms of velocity components, is expressed as
V
(a)
Vc
V
(b)
V – Vc
Vc
(c)
V
Vc
(d) 1+ (where Vc = velocity of chip, V = cutting speed).
V
162. The co-efficient of friction in metal cutting varies between
(a) 0 and 1 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 0.5 and 1 (d) 0.5 and 2.
(i) The cutting force acts in the direction of the cutting speed.
(ii) The thrust force acts in the direction normal to the cutting velocity.
(iii) Chip breaker is attached to the rake face of the tool.
(iv) Continuous chips are usually formed with brittle materials.
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) are true (d) (i), (iii) and (iv) are true.
164. The main source of heat generation in metal cutting is
(a) primary shear zone
(b) secondary shear zone
(c) primary shear zone and tool-chip interface

(d) secondary shear zone and tool-chip interface.
165. Chipping results due to
(a) low shear angle (b) high shear angle
(c) high positive rake angle (d) negative rake angle.
(i) Surface finish (ii) Tool life
(iii) Force and power requirements.
‘Machinability’ is defined in terms of
(a) (i) only (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (i) and (iii) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii).
(i) Turning (ii) Facing
(iii) Drilling (iv) Boring
Which of the above processes is connected to the enlargement of hole?
(a) (i) only (b) (ii) only (c) (iv) only (d) (iii) and (iv).
168. Material removal rate in ‘turning’ operation is proportional to the
(i) Diameter of workpiece (ii) Depth of cut
(iii) Feed rate (iv) Cutting force.
Of these
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) are true (d) (iii) and (iv) are true.
169. Which one is the oldest lathe?
(a) Tracer lathe (b) Engine lathe
(c) Turret lathe (d) Automatic lathe.
170. Carriage of a lathe consists of
(i) Cross-slide (ii) Tool post
(iii) Apron (iv) Spindle.
Of these
171. A lathe is specified by
(i) Maximum diameter of the workpiece to be machined
(ii) Maximum distance between headstock and tailstock
(iii) Length of bed.
Of these
172. The most common drill is
(a) Step drill (b) Twist drill (c) Spot drill (d) Spade drill.
173. The conventional milling is also known as

(a) Face milling (b) Down milling (c) Up milling (d) End milling.
(i) Sharing (ii) Burnishing
(iii) Grinding (iv) Honing.
Gear-finishing operations include
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv).
(i) An abrasive is a small, non-metallic hard particle having sharp edge with irregular shape.
(ii) Abrasive machining is used to produce very fine surface finish with close tolerances.
(iii) The chips produced by abrasive machining are of extremely small size.
(iv) Abrasive machining is used for very hard and brittle materials.
(c) (ii) and (iv) are true (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are true.
176. Consider the following commonly used abrasives:
(i) Aluminium oxide (ii) Diamond
(iii) Silicon carbide (iv) Cubic boron nitride.
Which of the abrasives is termed as ‘superabrasive’?
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iii).
177. Friability
(a) is connected to hardenability of workpiece.
(b) refers to the ability of abrasive grins to fracture into small pieces.
(c) refers to the ability of a brittle workpiece to break into small pieces.
(d) refers to the ability of the workpiece to get its heat released in the atmosphere.
178. Consider the following types of bonds for abrasives:
(i) Vitrified bond (ii) Resinoid bond
(iii) Rubber bond (iv) Metal bond.
Which of the above bonds is also called ‘ceramic bond’?
(a) (i) (b) (ii) (c) (iii) (d) (iv).
179. Which of the bonds in Question 178 is also called ‘Organic bond’?
(a) (i) (b) (ii) (c) (iii) (d) (iv).
(i) A single-point cutting tool may have positive or negative rake angle.
(ii) An abrasive grain has always negative rake angle.
(iii) Grinding ratio is the ratio of volume of material removed to volume of wheel wear.
(iv) Truing is used to make the circumference of the grinding wheel perfectly in the circular shape.
(a) (i) and (iii) are true (b) (ii) and (iii) are true
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) are true (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are true.
181. Which of the following grinding processes is used for high production run?
(a) Surface grinding (b) Cylindrical grinding
(c) Centreless grinding (d) Internal grinding.
ANSWERS
1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (c)
7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (c) 11. (b) 12. (c)
13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (b) 16. (d) 17. (a) 18. (c)
19. (a) 20. (c) 21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (b)
25. (c) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (c) 29. (c) 30. (d)
31. (b) 32. (d) 33. (d) 34. (b) 35. (b) 36. (b)
37. (b) 38. (d) 39. (c) 40. (b) 41. (c) 42. (b)
43. (b) 44. (b) 45. (d) 46. (d) 47. (b) 48. (d)
49. (b) 50. (b) 51. (a) 52. (b) and (c) 53. (b) 54. (c)
55. (d) 56. (c) 57. (c) 58. (d) 59. (b) 60. (d)
61. (d) 62. (c) 63. (a) 64. (b) 65. (c) 66. (a)
67. (b) 68. (a) 69. (c) 70. (b) 71. (a) 72. (d)
73. (b) 74. (c) 75. (d) 76. (b) 77. (a) 78. (c)
79. (b) 80. (a) 81. (a) 82. (a) 83. (b) 84. (c)
85. (a) 86. (c) 87. (d) 88. (d) 89. (c) 90. (c)
91. (b) 92. (d) 93. (b) 94. (a) 95. (c) 96. (a)
97. (d) 98. (b) 99. (b) 100. (b) 101. (a) 102. (c)
103. (c) 104. (b) 105. (d) 106. (d) 107. (a) 108. (c)
109. (d) 110. (b) 111. (b) 112. (c) 113. (a) 114. (d)
115. (b) 116. (a) 117. (b) 118. (c) 119. (a) 120. (a)
121. (b) 122. (b) 123. (d) 124. (c) 125. (a) 126. (a)
127. (b) 128. (b) 129. (a) 130. (b) 131. (c) 132. (b)
133. (b) 134. (c) 135. (a) 136. (d) 137. (a) 138. (a)
139. (a) 140. (c) 141. (a) 142. (a) 143. (b) 144. (d)
145. (a) 146. (a) 147. (c) 148. (a) 149. (a) 150. (c)
151. (d) 152. (c) 153. (c) 154. (d) 155. (a) 156. (c)
157. (b) 158. (c) 159. (b) 160. (b) 161. (c) 162. (d)
163. (c) 164. (c) 165. (c) 166. (d) 167. (c) 168. (c)
169. (b) 170. (c) 171. (d) 172. (b) 173. (c) 174. (d)
175. (d) 176. (b) 177. (b) 178. (a) 179. (b) 180. (d)
181. (c).

1. Name a machining process which uses single-point cutting tool.
Answer Turning.
2. Name two machining processes which use multiple-cutting edge tools.
Answer Drilling and milling.
3. What is the difference between turning and boring?
Answer Turning is performed on the outside diameter of a solid cylinder whereas boring is performed
on the inside diameter of an existing hole i.e., boring increases the size of an already drilled hole.
4. Is the Merchant equation based on orthogonal cutting or oblique cutting?
Answer Orthogonal cutting.
5. Why is a cutting tool provided nose radius?
Answer No nose radius means that the cutting tool has very pointed edge which can damage
the surface or leave indentation marks on it during machining.
6. What is tool life?
Answer Tool life is the total time during which a tool can be successfully used for cutting operations.
7. Why is a positive rake angle generally desirable?
Answer Cutting forces, temperature and power consumption during a cutting operation are reduced
with positive rake angle.
8. A negative or small positive rake angle is provided for the machining of very hard materials. Why?
Answer Negative or small rake angle helps to keep the tool in compression more favourably
than in shear which is advantageous because of high compressive strength of harder materials.
9. What is an engine lathe?
Answer An engine lathe is a basic machine tool used mainly for turning operations. Previously
it was driven by steam engines and hence was called engine lathe.
10. What are headstock and tailstock of a lathe?
Answer Headstock and tailstock are the two important components of a lathe. Workpiece is held
between these two components during its machining. Headstock contains control units and a spindle
is attached to it.
11. What is a tool post?
Answer A tool post is used to hold the cutting tool.
12. How is a lathe specified?
Answer A lathe is specified by two elements: swing and maximum distance between headstock
and tailstock centres. Swing represents the maximum diameter of the workpiece that can be rotated
in the spindle. Maximum distance between the two centres actually represents the maximum length
of the workpiece to be accommodated between the two centres.
13. What is a turret lathe?

Answer A turret lathe contains turret used to hold cutting tools. There is no tailstock in the
turret lathe.
14. What is a CNC lathe?

Answer A CNC lathe is based on computer numerical control and is capable of machining complex
cycles and part geometries than a conventional lathe. It is very much useful for contour turning
operations with precise accuracy.
15. Differentiate between horizontal and vertical turning machines.

Answer In horizontal turning machines, the spindle axis is horizontal. It is useful for machining
a workpiece whose length is more compared to its diameter. In vertical turning machines, the spindle
axis is vertical. It is useful when diameter of the workpiece is greater than its length.
16. What is boring?
Answer Boring is the process of enlargement of a drilled hole.
17. What is drilling?

Answer Drilling is the process of making a circular hole in a workpiece by means of a cutting
tool known as drill.
18. How is feed expressed in drilling?

Answer Feed is expressed in mm ⁄ rev.
19. What is the difference between through hole and blind hole in drilling?
Answer A hole made in the entire thickness of the workpiece is called through hole. A hole
made in a certain depth and not in the entire thickness of the workpiece is called blind hole.
20. What is the relationship between feed and feed rate?
Answer Feed rate (mm/min) is equal to the product of rotational speed (rpm) and feed (mm/rev).
21. Write down the expression for machining time in drilling.
Answer The machining time, tm is expressed as
t+A,
tm = min (for a through hole)
fr
d
=
fr
where t = Thickness of the workpiece, mm
A = Approach allowance, mm
fr = Feed rate, mm ⁄ min
d = Depth of hole, mm.
22. What does approach allowance mean in drilling?
Answer Approach allowance is defined as the distance the drill must feed into the workpiece
before attaining its full diameter. It is expressed as
⎛ θ⎞
A = 0.5D tan ⎜ 90o – ⎟ , mm
⎝ 2⎠
where D = Drill diameter, mm
θ = Drill point angle, degree.
23. Which is the most common cutting tool in drilling?

Answer Twist drill.
24. What is the typical value of point angle for twist drill?
Answer 118o.
25. Write down the equation for metal removal rate (MRR) in drilling.
Answer The MRR equation, neglecting approach allowance is expressed as
πD2 fr
MRR (mm3 ⁄ min) =
4
where D = Drill diameter, mm
fr = Feed rate, mm ⁄ min.
26. What is reaming?

Answer Reaming is the process of finishing a drilled hole by means of a reamer.
27. What is tapping?
Answer Tapping is the process of making internal screw threads in a drilled hole by means
of a tap.
28. What is a drill press?
Answer A drill press is a standard machine tool used for drilling. Upright drill press is the most
basic one.
29. What is the difference between drilling and milling operations?
Drilling Milling
(a) It is the process of making a circular hole (a) It is the process of making a desired part
in a workpiece. by removing materials from the workpiece.
(b) The cutting tool, called a drill, has two (b) The cutting tool, called a milling cutter, has
cutting edges. multiple cutting edges.
(c) The cutting tool is fed in a direction (c) The axis of rotation of the cutting tool is
parallel to its axis of rotation. normal to feed direction.
30. Why is shaper unsuitable for machining large workpieces?

Answer A shaper is a light machine which puts limitations on the stroke length and overhang
of the ram making it unsuitable for large workpieces.
31. Why is diamond cutting tool not used in the machining of steel, titanium, nickel or cobalt based
alloys?
Answer Carbon in diamond has strong chemical affinity with these materials and hence is not
used in their machining.
32. The diamond is the hardest known substance. Why?

Answer Each carbon atom in diamond is attached to four other atoms by covalent bond. Again,
each carbon atom is surrounded by four others at the four corners of a regular tetrahedron that
is, every atom is allowed to complete its outer electron octet giving rise to a three-dimensional
network. This network makes diamond very hard.
1. Turning is the most basic example of orthogonal cutting.
2. Chip thickness ratio is always less than unity.
3. A tool signature has six elements.
4. In machining, most of the heat is taken by the cutting tool.
5. A sharp tool has small nose radius.
6. Carbide tools are produced by powder metallurgy.
7. Tool life increases with decrease in cutting speed.
8. Rough cutting requires higher feed.
9. Continuous chips are produced while machining brittle materials.
10. Inserts are usually made of carbides.
11. Boring is the finishing of a drilled hole.
12. Milling is a continuous operation.
13. In up milling, cutter rotates in the direction of workpiece.
14. Grinding uses abrasive particles for machining.
15. Majority of the heat generated is absorbed by the workpiece in grinding.
ANSWERS
1. T 2. T 3. F 4. F 5. T 6. T
7. T 8. T 9. F 10. T 11. F 12. F
13. F 14. T 15. T.
NUMERICAL PROBLEMS
Problem 10.1 In turning trial using orthogonal tool geometry, a chip length of 84 mm was
obtained for an uncut chip length of 200 mm. The cutting conditions were: V = 30 m ⁄ min,
a = 0.5 mm, rake angle = 20o, cutting tool is H.S.S. Estimate the shear plane angle φ, chip thickness
and shear plane angle for minimum chip strain.
Solution Given,
Length of chip, lc = 84 mm
Uncut chip length, l = 200 mm
Cutting speed, V = 30 m ⁄ min
Rake angle, α = 20o
The chip thickness ratio is given as
lc
r=
l
84
=
200
= 0.42
The shear plane angle, φ is expressed as
r cos α
tan φ =
1 – r sin α
0.42 cos 20o
=
1 – 0.42 sin 20o
= 0.4608
∴ φ = 24.74o Ans.
The chip thickness ratio, r is also expressed as
lc t
r= =
l tc
where t = a = 0.5 mm
= Uncut thickness
tc = Chip thickness
0.5
or 0.42 =
tc
0.5
∴ tc =
0.42
= 1.19 mm Ans.
For minimum shear strain, shear plane angle is given as
π α
φ= +
4 2
180o 20o
= +
4 2
= 45o + 10o
= 55o Ans.
Problem 10.2 A single point turning tool has the following specifications in order:
10o, – 12o, 7o, 5o, 20o, 50o, 0 (mm).
Indicate the different parameters.
Solution Back rake angle (BRA) = 10o
Side rake angle (RA) = – 12o
End relief angle (ERA) = 7o
Side relief angle (SRA) = 5o
End cutting edge angle (ECEA) = 20o
Side cutting edge angle (SCEA) = 50o

Nose radius = 0 mm.
Problem 10.3 If Merchant’s machinability constant is 70 when the rake angle is 20o and
mm
friction angle is 40o, calculate the chip thickness for a feed of 0.4 ⋅
rev
Solution Given,
Merchant’s constant, Cm = 70
Friction angle, β = 40o
mm
Uncut thickness or feed, t = 0.4
rev
The Merchant’s equation is
2φ + β – α = Cm
or 2φ + 40 – 20 = 70
or 2φ = 70 – 40 + 20
∴ φ = 25o
The chip thickness ratio, r is defined as
t sin φ
r= = ...(1)
tc cos (φ – α)
where tc = Chip thickness
sin 25o
or r=
cos (25o – 20o)
= 0.4242
Using Equation (1), we have
0.4
0.4242 =
tc
∴ tc = 0.943 mm Ans.
Problem 10.4 In an orthogonal cutting operation on a workpiece of width 2.5 mm, the uncut
chip thickness was 0.25 mm and the tool rake angle was zero degree. It was observed that the
chip thickness was 1.25 mm. The cutting force was measured to be 900 N and the thrust force
was found to be 810 N.
(a) Find the shear strength of the workpiece material.
(b) If the coefficient of friction between the chip and the tool was 0.5, what is the machining
constant Cm?
Solution Given,
Width of workpiece, w = 2.5 mm
Uncut chip thickness, t = 0.25 mm
Chip thickness, tc = 1.25 mm

Cutting force, Fc = 900 N
Thrust force, Ft = 810 N
Coefficient of friction, μ = 0.5
Machining constant, Cm = ?
(a) The chip thickness ratio is
t
r=
tc
0.25
=
1.25
= 0.2
The shear angle, φ is expressed as
r cos α
tan φ =
1 – r sin α
0.2 cos 0o
= (Assuming rake angle, α = 0)
1 – 0.2 sin 0o
= 0.2
or φ = 11.31o
The shear force, Fs is expressed as
Fs = Fc cos φ – Ft sin φ
= 900 cos 11.31o – 810 sin 11.31o
= 723.66 N
The shear area is given as
t.w
As =
sin φ
0.25 × 2.5
=
sin 11.31o
= 3.187 mm2
The shear strength of the workpiece is given as
Shear force
τS =
Shear area
723.66 N
=
3.187 mm2
= 227 MPa Ans.
(b) The angle of friction is
β = tan–1 (μ)
= 26.56o
Using 2φ + β – α = Cm
or 2 × 11.31o + 26.56o = Cm (∵ α = 0o)
∴ Cm = 49.18o Ans.
Problem 10.5 (a) Calculate the chip velocity in the orthogonal machining process for which
the cutting conditions are:
Cutting speed = 90 m ⁄ min
Feed = 0.15 mm ⁄ rev
Depth of cut = 5 mm
Chip thickness = 0.35 mm
Rake angle = 10o
Clearance angle = 8o
Tangential fore = 220 kgf
Feed force = 120 kgf.
(b) In the above process, also calculate the specific energy.
Solution (a) The chip thickness ratio is
t
r=
tc
0.15
=
0.35
= 0.43
r cos α
tan φ =
1 – r sin α
0.43 cos 10o
= (∵ α = 10o)
1 – 0.43 sin 10o
= 0.4576
or φ = 24.6o
The chip velocity, Vc is obtained as
Vc = r × V
= 0.43 × 90 m ⁄ min
= 38.7 m ⁄ min Ans.
(b) More force is required in cutting and hence 220 kgf of tangential force is basically the cutting
force Fc .
The power consumption during cutting is
P = Fc . V
kgf . m
= 220 × 90
min
= 3237.3 watt (∵ 1 kgf = 9.81 N)

Volume of material removed during cutting is
feed × depth of cut × cutting speed
90 m3 ⎛ 90 m ⎞
= 0.15 × 10–3 × 5 × 10–3 × ⎜V= ⎟
60 s ⎝ 60 s ⎠
m3
= 1.125 × 10–6
s
The specific energy is defined as the energy consumed per unit volume of material removal.
3237.3
∴ US = –6
watt ⁄ (m3 ⁄ s)
1.125 × 10
= 2.877 × 109 Joule ⁄ m3 Ans.
Problem 10.6 In an orthogonal cutting process, the following observations were made:
Depth of cut = 0.25 mm
Chip thickness ratio = 0.45
Width of cut = 4 mm
Cutting velocity = 40 m ⁄ min
Cutting force component parallel to cutting velocity vector
= 1150 N
Feed force = 140 N
Rake angle of the tool = 18o
Determine resultant cutting force, power of cutting, shear angle, friction angle and force com-
ponent parallel to shear plane.
Solution The resultant cutting force, R is defined as
R=√
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
Fc2 + ⎯
Ft2
=√
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ ⎯2
11502 + 140 (∵ Fc = 1150 N and Ft = 140 N)
= 1158.5 N Ans.
The power consumption during cutting is
P = Fc . V
40
= 1150 × (∵ V = 40 m ⁄ min)
60
= 766.67 watt Ans.
r cos α
tan φ =
1 – r sin α
0.45 cos 18o
= (∵ r = 0.45 and α = 18o)
1 – 0.45 sin 18o
= 0.4971
∴ φ = 26.43o Ans.
The friction force F and normal force N are obtained as
F = Fc sin α + Ft cos α
= 1150 sin 18o + 140 cos 18o
= 488.52 N
and N = Fc cos α – Ft sin α
= 1150 cos 18o – 140 sin 18o
= 1050.45 N
Now, the coefficient of friction is
F
μ=
N
488.52
=
1050.45
= 0.465
The coefficient of friction and friction angle are related as
μ = tan β
∴ β = tan–1 (μ)
= tan–1 (0.465)
= 24.94o Ans.
The force component parallel to shear plane is called shear force, given by
= 1150 cos 26.43o – 140 sin 26.43o
= 967.5 N Ans.
Problem 10.7 While turning 15 steel rod of 160 mm dia at 315 rpm, 2.5 mm depth of cut
and feed of 0.16 mm/rev by a tool of geometry 0o, 10o, 8o, 9o, 15o, 75o, 0 (mm), the following observations
were made:
Tangential component of the cutting force = 500 N
Axial component of the cutting force = 200 N
Chip thickness = 0.45 mm
Determine the dynamic yield strength of work material.
Solution The chip thickness ratio is given as
t
r=
tc
0.16
=
0.48
= 0.334
Shear angle φ is defined as

r cos α
tan φ =
1 – r sin α
0.334 cos 0o
= (∵ α = 0o)
1 – 0.334 sin 0o
= 0.334
or φ = 18.435o
The shear force Fs is expressed as
= 500 cos 18.435o – 200 sin 18.435o
= 411.1 N
The shear area As is
t.w
As =
sin φ
0.16 × 2.5 ⎛ w = 2.5 mm ⎞
= o ⎜ ⎟
sin 18.435 ⎝ = Depth of cut ⎠
= 1.265 mm2
Hence, the dynamic yield strength of the work material is given as
Fs
τs =
As
411.1 N
=
1.265 mm2
= 325 MPa Ans.
Problem 10.8 A seamless tube 32 mm outside diameter is turned on a lathe. Cutting velocity
of the tool relative to the workpiece is 10 m ⁄ min. Rake angle = 35o, depth of cut = 0.125 mm, length
of chip = 60 mm, horizontal cutting force of the tool on the workpiece = 200 N, vertical cutting
force required to hold the tool against the work = 80 N. Calculate:
(i) Coefficient of friction,
(ii) Chip thickness ratio,
(iii) Shear plane angle,
(iv) Velocity of chip relative to the tool, and
(v) Velocity of chip relative to the workpiece.
Solution Given,
Diameter of the tube, D = 32 mm
Cutting velocity, V = 10 m ⁄ min
Length of chip after cut, lc = 60 mm
Cutting force, Fc = 200 N

Tangential force, Ft = 80 N
(i) The friction force F is
F = Fc sin α + Ft cos α
= 200 sin 35o + 80 cos 35o
= 180.247 N
The normal force N is
N = Fc cos α – Ft sin α
= 200 cos 35o – 80 sin 35o
= 117.944 N
The coefficient of friction is expressed as
F
μ=
N
180.247 N
=
117.944 N
= 1.528 Ans.
(ii) Length of chip before cut is
l = πD
= π × 32
= 100.53 mm
Hence, the chip thickness ratio is given by
lc
r=
l
60
=
100.53
= 0.6 Ans.
(iii) The shear plane angle φ is expressed as
r cos α
tan φ =
1 – r sin α
0.6 cos 35o
=
1 – 0.6 sin 35o
= 0.749
∴ φ = 36.84o Ans.
(iv) Velocity of chip relative to the tool is
Vc = r . V
= 0.6 × 10
= 6 m ⁄ min Ans.
(v) Velocity of chip relative to the workpiece is

cos φ
Vs = V
cos (φ – α)
cos 36.84o
= 10
cos (36.84o – 35o)
= 8 m ⁄ min Ans.
Problem 10.9 If under a given condition of plain turning, the life of cutting tool decreases
by 50% due to increase in the cutting velocity by 20%, then by what percentage will the life of
that tool increase due to reduction in the cutting velocity of 20% from its original value?
Solution Let V = Initial cutting velocity
T = Initial tool life
First case
V1 = Final cutting velocity
= 1.2 V
T1 = Final tool life
= 0.5 T
Second case
V2 = Final cutting velocity
= 0.8 V
T2 = Final tool life
=?
The Taylor’s tool life equation is
V T n = Constant ...(1)
V1 T1n = Constant
n
or 1.2 V (0.5T) = Constant ...(2)
Again V2 T2n = Constant
or 0.8V T2n = Constant ...(3)
Dividing Equation (2) by Equation (1), we have
1.2 × 0.5n = 1 ...(4)
Solving for n, we get
n = 0.263
⎛ T2 ⎞ n
0.8 × ⎜ ⎟ =1
⎝ T ⎠
⎛ T2 ⎞ 0.263
or 0.8 × ⎜ ⎟ =1
⎝ T ⎠
⎛ T2 ⎞ 0.263
⎜ ⎟ = 1.25
⎝ T ⎠
T2
= 2.336
T
or T2 = 2.336T
Hence, the tool life is increased by 133.6%. Ans.
Problem 10.10 The following equation for tool life was obtained for H.S.S. tool
V T 0.13 f 0.6 d 0.3 = C
A 60 min tool life was obtained using the following cutting conditions
V = 40 m ⁄ min, f = 0.25 mm, d = 2.0 mm
Calculate the effect on tool life if speed, feed and depth of cut are together increased by
25% and also if they are individually increased by 25%; where f = feed, d = depth, V = Speed.
Solution The given tool life equation is
V T 0.13 f 0.6 d 0.3 = C ...(1)
Case I When speed, feed and depth are increased together by 25%, then the tool life equation
is
1.25VT10.13 (1.25 f )0.6 (1.25d)0.3 = C
or 1.25VT10.13 1.250.6 f 0.6 1.250.3 d 0.3 = C ...(2)

where T1 is the new tool life on account of increased parameters.
⎛ T1 ⎞ 0.13
1.25 ⎜ ⎟ 1.250.6 1.250.3 = 1
⎝ T ⎠
⎛ T1 ⎞ 0.13
or ⎜ ⎟ = 0.6544
⎝ T ⎠
T1
= 0.0383
T
Substituting T = 60 min, we get T1 = 2.3 min Ans.
Case II When the parameters are increased individually by 25%, then the tool life equations
are
1.25VT20.13 f 0.6 d 0.3 = C ...(3)
VT30.13 1.250.6 f 0.6 d 0.3 = C ...(4)
VT40.13 f 0.6 1.250.3 d 0.3 = C ...(5)

Equations (3), (4) and (5) are obtained on account of increased parameters considered separately
and T2, T3 and T4 are the resulting tool lives.

⎛ T2 ⎞ 0.13
1.25 ⎜ ⎟ =1
⎝ T ⎠
⎛ T2 ⎞ 0.13
⎜ ⎟ = 0.8
⎝ T ⎠
T2
or = 0.179
T
Putting T = 60 min, we get
T2 = 10.74 min Ans.
And, dividing Equation (4) by Equation (1), we have
⎛ T3 ⎞ 0.13
⎜ ⎟ 1.250.6 = 1
⎝ T ⎠
⎛ T3 ⎞ 0.13
⎜ ⎟ = 0.874
⎝ T ⎠
T3
or = 0.3548
T
T3 = 21.29 min Ans.
Finally, dividing Equation (5) by Equation (1), we have
⎛ T4 ⎞ 0.13
⎜ ⎟ 1.250.3 = 1
⎝ T ⎠
⎛ T4 ⎞ 0.13
⎜ ⎟ = 0.9352
⎝ T ⎠
T4
or = 0.5973
T
T4 = 35.84 min Ans.
Problem 10.11 During an orthogonal cut with H.S.S. tool having a rake angle of 20o, it
was found that at a speed of 45 m/min, a feed of 0.3 mm/rev and a depth of cut of 4 mm, the
chip thickness was 0.6 mm. Calculate:
(a) shear plane angle, and
(b) tool life, making suitable assumptions for data not given.
The material machined was steel.
Solution Rake angle, α = 20o
Feed (uncut thickness) t = 0.3 mm ⁄ rev

Chip thickness, tc = 0.6 mm
(a) The chip thickness ratio is
t
r=
tc
0.3
=
0.6
= 0.5
The shear plane angle, φ is expressed as
r cos α
tan φ =
1 – r sin α
0.5 cos 20o
=
1 – 0.5 sin 20o
= 0.5667
∴ φ = 29.54o Ans.
(b) Assuming workpiece material to be medium carbon steel, the following parameters are used:
C = 190 and n = 0.11
The Taylor’s tool life equation is
VTn = C
or 45 × T 0.11 = 190
T 0.11 = 4.22
∴ T = 483791.96 min Ans.
Problem 10.12 Cylindrical bars of 100 mm diameter and 576 mm length are turned in a
single-pass operation. The spindle speed used is 144 rpm and the total feed is 0.2 mm ⁄ rev. Taylor’s
tool life relationship is V T 0.75 = 75 where V is the cutting speed (m ⁄ min) and T is tool life (min).
Calculate:
(i) time for turning one piece
(ii) the average total change time per piece, given that it takes 3 min to change the tool each
time, and
(iii) the time required to produce one piece, given that handling time is 4 min.
Solution Given,
Diameter to be cut, D = 100 mm
Spindle speed, N = 144 rpm
(i) The cutting speed is
πDN
V= m ⁄ min
1000
π × 100 × 144
=
1000
= 45.239 m ⁄ min
mm
A feed of 0.2 means that the tool covers an axial distance of 0.2 mm in one revolution. Cor-
rev
576
responding to a length of 576 mm, the total number of revolutions required is = 2880.
0.2
The time required for turning one piece for a spindle speed of 144 rpm is
2880
= 20 min Ans.
144
(ii) The Taylor’s tool life equation is
V T 0.75 = 75
45.239 × T 0.75 = 75
or T = 1.96 min
Hence, during the entire turning time of 20 minutes, the tool needs to be changed after every 1.96 min.
20
Number of times the tool needs to be changed = = 10.2.
1.96
Hence, the total time required for changing the tool during the turning of one piece is
10.2 × 3 = 30.6 min Ans.
(iii) The total time required for turning one piece is
Timetotal = Time for turning + tool changing time + handling time
= (20 + 30.6 + 4) min
= 54.6 min Ans.
Problem 10.13 A cylinder of 155 mm diameter is to be reduced to 150 mm diameter in
one turning cut with a feed of 0.15 mm ⁄ rev and a cutting speed of 150 m ⁄ min on an NC lathe.
What are the programmed spindle speed, feed rate and material removal rate?
Solution Given,
Uncut diameter, D1 = 155 mm
Cut diameter, D2 = 150 mm
mm
Feed, fr = 0.15
rev
The average diameter of the cylinder is
D1 + D2
Dav =
2
155 + 150
=
2
= 152.5 mm
The cutting speed, on the basis of average diameter, is
πDav N
V= m ⁄ min
1000
V × 1000
or N=
πDav
150 × 1000
= rpm
π × 152.5
= 313 rpm Ans.
The feed rate is given as
fm = fr × N
mm rev
= 0.15 × 313
rev min
mm
= 46.95
min
46.95 mm
=
60 s
mm
= 0.7825 Ans.
s
D1 – D2 155 – 150
Depth of cut, d= = = 2.5 mm
2 2
The material removal rate (MRR) is given as
mm3
MRR = π . fr . N . Dav . d
min
π × 0.15 × 313 × 152.5 × 2.5 mm3
=
60 s
mm3
= 937.22 Ans.
s
Problem 10.14 When milling a slot 20 mm wide, 10 cm long in a rectangular plate
10 cm × 20 cm, cutting conditions used were:
Diameter of end mill = 20 mm
Number of flutes =8
Feed = 0.01 mm ⁄ flute
Depth of cut = 3 mm
Find the cutting time for this operation.
Solution Given,
Length of cut, L = 10 cm = 100 mm
Diameter of end mill, D = 20 mm
m
Cutting speed, V = 60
min
Feed of cutter, ft = 0.01 mm ⁄ flute
Depth of cut, d = 3 mm
Number of flutes, n=8

The cutting speed, V is given as
πDN m
V=
1000 min
V × 1000
or N= rpm
π×D
60 × 1000
=
π × 20
= 954.92 rpm
The milling cutter feed rate is
mm
fm = ft × n × N
min
= 0.01 × 8 × 954.92
mm
= 76.4
min
The cutter approach to the work is
ΔL = √⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
d (D – d)
=√⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
3 (20 – ⎯3) mm
= 7.14 mm
Now, the cutting time for the operation is given by
L + ΔL
tm = min
fm
100 + 7.14
=
76.4
= 1.4 min Ans.
Problem 10.15 A mild steel block of width 40 mm is being milled using a straight slab cutter
70 mm diameter with 30 teeth. If the cutter rotates at 40 rpm and depth of cut is 2 mm, determine
the value of maximum uncut chip thickness when the table feed is 20 mm ⁄ min.
Solution Given,
Cutter diameter, D = 70 mm
Number of teeth in the cutter, n = 30
Speed of cutter, N = 40 rpm
Depth of cut, d = 2 mm
Feed rate, fm = 20 mm ⁄ min
The feed rate, ft in mm ⁄ tooth is found as
fm
ft =
n×N
20 mm
=
30 × 40 tooth
mm
= 0.0166
tooth
Now, the uncut chip thickness is given as
tc = 2ft ⎯√Dd
= 2 × 0.0166 × √⎯702 mm
⎯
= 0.00561 mm Ans.
Problem 10.16 Find the average cutting speed during cutting of a workpiece with stroke
length 240 mm. The number of double strokes per minute is 30 and quick return ratio is 0.5.
Solution Given,
Stroke length, L = 240 mm
Number of double strokes per minute, N = 30
Quick return ratio, R = 0.5
The average cutting speed is obtained as
NL (1 + R)
V= m ⁄ min
1000
30 × 240 (1 + 0.5)
=
1000
= 10.8 m ⁄ min Ans.
Problem 10.17 During the tool-wear test with a high speed steel tool, the following data
are obtained:
Tool life Cutting speed
30 min 20 m/min
5 min 75 m/min
Find the exponent n and the constant C used in Taylor’s tool life equation.
Solution The Taylor’s tool life equation is
VTn = C
Using the given conditions, we have
V1 T1n = V2 T2n
20 × 30n = 75 × 5n
n
⎛ 30 ⎞ 75
⎜ ⎟ =
⎝ 5 ⎠ 20
∴ n = 0.7376 Ans.
Now, V1 T1n = C
20 × 300.7376 = C
∴ C = 245.8 Ans.
Problem 10.18 A carbide cutting tool is used to machine a mild steel specimen at 25 m/min.
The tool lasted for 3 hours. Estimate the cutting speed if the same tool operates for 2 hours at
25% higher speed. Take n = 0.2.
Solution Given,
Initial cutting speed, V1 = 25 m ⁄ min
Initial tool life, T1 = 3 hours
= 3 × 60 = 180 minutes
Final tool life, T2 = 2 hours
= 2 × 60 = 120 minutes
The final cutting speed is obtained as
25
V2 = V1 + V
100 1
= 1.25V1
= 1.25 × 25
= 31.25 m ⁄ min
From Taylor’s equation, we have
VT n = V1 T1n = C
or 25 × 1800.2 = C
∴ C = 70.63
Again, V2 T2n = C
or 31.25 × T20.2 = 70.63
∴ T2 = 58.98 min Ans.
Problem 10.19 Find the angle at which a compound rest can be swivelled during the taper
turning of a workpiece of length 90 mm with diameters 75 mm and 15 mm at its end.
Solution Given,
Bigger diameter, D = 75 mm
Smaller diameter, d = 15 mm
Length, l = 90 mm
The required angle is obtained as
D–d
tan α =
2l
75 – 15
=
90
= 0.667
∴ α = 33.7o Ans.
Problem 10.20 Calculate the tail stock setover for taper turning a workpiece of length 200 mm
with diameters 80 mm and 60 mm at its two ends. The tapered length of the workpiece is 150 mm.
Solution Given,
Total length of the workpiece, L = 200 mm
Tapered length of the workpiece, l = 150 mm
Bigger diameter, D = 80 mm
Smaller diameter, d = 60 mm
D–d
The setover is obtained as ×L
2l
80 – 60
= × 200
2 × 150
= 13.3 mm Ans.
Problem 10.21 Estimate the time required for one complete cut on a workpiece of length
350 mm and diameter 70 mm by a cutting tool which operates at 35 m ⁄ min. Take feed to be
0.25 mm ⁄ rev.
Solution Given,
Length of the workpiece, L = 350 mm
Diameter of the workpiece, D = 70 mm
Feed, f = 0.25 mm ⁄ rev
πDN
Using V= m ⁄ min
1000
V × 1000
N=
π×D
35 × 1000
=
π × 70
= 159.155 rpm
The machining time required is obtained as
L
t=
N.f
350
=
159.155 × 0.25
= 8.796 min
= 8.796 × 60 sec
= 527.76 sec Ans.
Problem 10.22 Taking n = 0.3 and C = 350, in Taylor’s equation, find the percentage increase
in tool life if cutting speed is reduced by (i) 15% and (ii) 25%.
Solution Let T1, V1 and T2, V2 are initial and final conditions respectively.
Using Taylor’s equation
TV n = C
Here, T1 V10.3 = 350 ...(i)
and T2 V20.3 = 350 ...(ii)

Dividing Equation (ii) by Equation (i) results in
T2 ⎛ V1 ⎞
0.3
= ⎜ ⎟ ...(iii)
T1 ⎝ V2 ⎠
(i) Given, V2 = 0.85V1

On substituting V2 in Equation (iii), we have
0.3
T2 ⎛ 1 ⎞
=⎜ ⎟
T1 ⎝ 0.85 ⎠
= 1.05
or T2 = 1.05T1
Hence, tool life is increased by 5% Ans.
(ii) Now V2 = 0.75V1
On substituting V2 in Equation (iii), we get
0.3
T2 ⎛ 1 ⎞
=⎜ ⎟
T1 ⎝ 0.75 ⎠
= 1.09
or T2 = 1.09T1
Hence, tool life is increased by 9% Ans.
Problem 10.23 Show that the shear plane angle φ is expressed as
r cos α
tan φ =
1 – r sin α
where r is the chip thickness ratio and α,
the rake angle.
Solution The chip thickness ratio r
is expressed as
t
r=
tc
where t = Uncut thickness
= AC sin φ
tc = Chip thickness
= AC cos (φ – α)
sin φ
or r=
cos (φ – α)
Dividing numerator and denominator by cos φ, we have

⎛ sin φ ⎞
⎜ ⎟
⎝ cos φ ⎠ tan φ . cos φ
r= =
cos (φ – α) cos (φ – α)
cos φ
r cos φ
=
tan φ cos (φ – α)
tan φ cos (φ – α)
or =
r cos φ
cos φ . cos α + sin φ . sin α
=
cos φ
= cos α + tan φ . sin α
tan φ
or – tan φ . sin α = cos α
r
⎛1 ⎞
tan φ ⎜ – sin α ⎟ = cos α
⎝r ⎠
tan φ (1 – r sin α) = r cos α
r cos α
or tan φ = ⋅
1 – r sin α
Problem 10.24 Assuming orthogonal cutting with rake angle 15o and coefficient of friction
0.5, find the percentage change in chip thickness if friction is doubled. Use Merchant’s theory.
Solution Given,
Initial coefficient of friction, μ1 = 0.5
Final coefficient of friction, μ2 = 2 × μ1 = 1.0
The Merchant’s theory equation is
2φ + β – α = 90o
90o + α – β
φ= ...(i)
2
β and μ are related as
μ = tan β
or β1 = tan–1 μ1
= tan–1 (0.5)
= 26.56o
From Equation (i)
90o + 15o – 26.56o
φ1 =
2
= 39.22o
The chip thickness ratio is
t sin φ
r= =
tc cos (φ – α)
t sin φ1 sin 39.22o

Now = =
tc cos (φ1 – α) cos (39.22o – 15o)
1
= 0.6933 ...(ii)
when μ2 = 1.0
β2 = tan–1 μ2 = tan–1 (1.0)
= 45o
Using Equation (i)
90o + 15o – 45o
φ2 =
2
= 30o
t sin φ2
Now =
tc cos (φ2 – α)
2
sin 30o
=
cos (30o – 15o)
= 0.5176 ...(iii)
Dividing Equation (ii) by Equation (iii), we have
tc 0.6933
= = 1.34
2
tc 0.5176
1
or tc = 1.34tc
2 1
Hence, chip thickness is increased by 34% Ans.

Problem 10.25 During turning of a rod, the following parameters are used:
Feed rate = 0.4 mm ⁄ rev
Depth of cut = 5.0 mm
Estimate the metal removal rate.
Solution The approximate metal removal rate (MRR) is obtained as
mm3
MRR = 1000 V . fr . d
min
= 1000 × 65 × 0.4 × 5
mm3
= 13 × 104 Ans.
min
Problem 10.26 Find the time to drill a 15 mm hole in a mild steel workpiece of thickness
40 mm. The cutting speed is 12 m ⁄ min and the feed rate is 0.2 mm/revolution. Neglect the approach
allowance.
Solution Given,
Diameter of hole, D = 15 mm
Workpiece thickness L = 40 mm = Depth of cut
Feed rate, fr = 0.2 mm ⁄ revolution
The cutting speed is expressed as
πDN
V=
1000
V × 1000
or N= where N = Rotational speed (rpm)
πD
12 × 1000
=
π × 15
= 254.65
The cutting time, neglecting approach allowance, is given as
L
t=
fr . N
40
=
0.2 × 254.65
= 0.785 min Ans.
Problem 10.27 From the data given below for a shaper, find the time required for finishing
one flat surface of a plate of size 700 mm × 30 mm.
Average cutting speed = 9 m ⁄ min
Return time to cutting time ratio =1:2
Feed = 0.3 mm ⁄ stroke
Clearance at each end of stroke = 25 mm
The plate is fixed with 700 mm side along the direction of tool travel.
Solution Stroke length,
L = Length of plate + clearance
= 700 + 2 × 25 = 750 mm
750 1
Cutting time = × min
1000 9
= 0.0833 min
Return time 1 1
Given, = ⇒ Return time = × 0.0833
Cutting time 2 2
= 0.0416 min
Total time for one cycle (one cutting stroke + one return stroke)
= 0.0833 + 0.0416 = 0.1249 min
Total number of cycles (strokes) required
Width 30
= = = 100
Feed 0.3
∴ Total time of finishing
= 100 × 0.1249
= 12.5 min Ans.
Problem 10.28 Find the time required to machine a plate of size 300 mm × 50 mm with
a cutting speed of 10 m ⁄ min and a return speed of 15 m ⁄ min. The tool clearances at the end of
cutting stroke and return stroke are 25 mm and 20 mm respectively. The distance moved by the
tool in width direction on either side of the plate is 8 mm. Feed per cycle is 1.5 mm.
Solution Given,
Length of the plate, l = 300 mm
Width of the plate, w = 50 mm
Cutting speed, Vc = 10 m ⁄ min
Return speed, Vr = 15 m ⁄ min
Tool clearance on cutting stroke,
Cc = 25 mm
Tool clearance on return stroke,
Cr = 20 mm
Feed, f = 1.5 mm ⁄ cycle
The stroke length is L = l + Cc + Cr
= 300 + 25 + 20 = 345 mm
The shaping width is W=w+2×8
= 50 + 16 = 66 mm
The time required to machine the plate is given by
W ⎛ L L ⎞
tm = ⎜ + ⎟
f ⎝ Vc Vr ⎠
66 1 ⎛ 345 1 345 1 ⎞
= × ×⎜ × + × ⎟
1000 (1.5 ⁄ 1000) ⎝ 1000 10 1000 15 ⎠
= 2.53 min Ans.
REVIEW QUESTIONS
1. How does orthogonal cutting differ from oblique cutting?
2. What is the significance of rake angle?
3. What is size effect?
4. What is tool signature?

5. What are the different types of chips formed in a machining operation?
6. What are chip breakers? Why are they needed?
7. What is machinability? Which material is assumed to have 100% machinability index?
8. Why is lathe considered as the most basic machine tool?
9. What are the different operations performed on a lathe?
10. What is the difference between drilling and reaming?
11. Differentiate between a shaper and a planer.
12. How is a lathe specified?
13. How does peripheral milling differ from face milling?
14. How does up milling differ from down milling?
15. What is grinding ratio?
16. What is friability?
17. When is a grinding wheel loaded?
18. What is centreless grinding? How is it different from other grinding operations?
19. What are the different methods used to manufacture a gear?
20. What is the difference between jig and fixture?
C H A P T E R
11
Non-traditional Machining Processes
• Non-traditional machining methods are used to machine harder materials, difficult-to-machine materials
and fragile parts more accurately compared to conventional methods of machining.
• Because of absence of physical contact between work and tool, tool wear is minimum in such
processes. Also the hardness of the tool does not matter.
• Work material is removed in various ways.
• Chemical machining removes material from the workpiece by the chemical action of an electrolyte.
Processes falling under this category include chemical milling, chemical blanking and photochemical
blanking.
• Processes such as water jet machining, abrasive water-jet machining, abrasive jet machining and
ultrasonic machining use mechanical energy to remove the material from the workpiece without
having a physical contact between the tool and the workpiece.
• Thermal energy is used to remove work material in electron beam machining, laser beam machining
and electrical discharge machining.
• Electrical energy and chemical action of an electrolyte both are utilised in removing work material
in electrochemical machining and electrochemical grinding.
CHEMICAL MACHINING
• In chemical machining, a strong chemical agent called etchant is used to remove material from
the workpiece.
• Important etchants include NaOH, NH4OH, HNO3, H2SO4 and others and their selection depends
on the work material being machined.
• The process can be used to remove material from the desired part of the workpiece and not thoroughly
by using maskant (wax or polymer) for undesired portion.
• Intricately shaped objects can be easily machined.
• The process is very slow and metal removal rate is quite low. It suffers from undercutting, an
undesirable phenomenon caused by etchant.
• Typical applications include production of printed circuit boards and microprocessor chips.
• Chemical milling finds extensive applications in aircraft industry to remove excess material from
the aircraft wing and similar other components in order to reduce weight.
• Chemical blanking removes work material by erosive action of a chemical in sharp contrast to
shearing action in conventional blanking operation. The process is used to produce desired cut in
very thin materials.
• Photo chemical blanking, also called photochemical machining, uses the combined effect of ultraviolet
light and an etchant to remove material from the workpiece. The process can be used in the processing
of fragile parts made from very thin materials. Typical applications include fine screens and printed
circuit cards.
ELECTRICAL DISCHARGE MACHINING (EDM)

• Electrical discharge machining uses a spark (discharge) to melt the work material at the desired
location.
• The spark is created in the gap between tool and workpiece.
• A dielectric fluid medium is used to flush away the worn work particles from the gap.
• Kerosene oil, paraffin, deionized water and mineral oil are important dielectric fluids.
• The metal removal rate increases with increase in discharge current and frequency of discharges.
• The tool also deteriorates in the process due to high temperature of the spark.
• Graphite is the most preferred tool material because of its high melting point, low wear rate and
high electrical conductivity.
• Other tool materials include copper, brass and copper-tungsten alloy.
• The process is widely used in the manufacture of tools and dies used in forging, drawing, extrusion
and so on.
• Hard, brittle and difficult-to-machine materials are easily processed by EDM. Production of irregularly
shaped holes and cavities is an attractive feature of EDM.
• On the negative side, it can be used to machine only electrically conductive materials.
WIRE-EDM
• It uses a moving thin wire to continuously produce spark for machining and cutting purpose.
• The process is faster than conventional EDM and is more economical.
• Its basic operation including dielectric fluids, cutting tool materials and its fields of application
are similar to that of conventional EDM.
• It can produce fine and intricate cuts without using shaped electrode.
• The process is usually CNC operated.
• This process uses a copper bonded alumina grinding wheel which acts as a negative electrode (cathode).
• The workpiece acts as a positive electrode (anode).
• Its basic principle is similar to that of electrochemical machining (ECM) where material is removed
by the chemical action of the electrolyte.
• Majority of the material is removed by electrolytic dissolution.
• The rapid flow of electrolyte through the gap between the rotating wheel and the workpiece helps
to wash away the removed material from the workpiece.
Non-traditional Machining Processes 11.3
• Material removal by abrasive action is less than 5% and hence tool life in increased.
• The process is used in the processing of cemented carbide tools and fragile parts.
ELECTROCHEMICAL MACHINING (ECM)

• It is used to machine very hard or difficult-to-machine materials where conventional machining
methods may damage the workpiece.
• It is independent of the hardness of the work material.
• There is no mechanical contact between the workpiece and the cutting tool and hence there is
no possibility of tool wear. The material from the workpiece is removed by the chemical action
of the electrolyte using Faraday’s first law of electrolysis. Workpiece forms positive electrode (anode)
and the cutting tool negative electrode (cathode). The removed work material is deposited on the
tool to be washed away by the high velocity electrolyte.
• Typically it is used in die sinking, deburring and multiple hole drilling. The hole produced need
not be circular and their shape is decided by the shape of electrode (formed electrode).
• The tool wear is almost nil and no burr results.
ULTRASONIC MACHINING
• Ultrasonic machining uses a slurry consisting of water and abrasive particles (aluminum oxide,
diamond, silicon carbide and so on) activated by a high frequency vibrating tool to remove the
material from the workpiece.
• The metal removal rate increases with increase in frequency and amplitude of the vibrating tool
and is also affected by the concentration of the slurry.
• The surface finish is affected by the grit size.
• One of the serious demerits of the process is that the cutting tool is adversely affected by erosive
action of the abrasive particles.
• It can be used to machine hard and brittle materials such as carbides, ceramics and glass.
LASER BEAM MACHINING

• LASER is a short form of Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation. It is a device
used to convert electrical energy into a highly coherent and monochromatic light beam.
• Various types of lasers are available. Solid lasers include Nd-YAG, Nd-glass and ruby. Gas lasers
include carbondioxide. Solid lasers are widely used in laser beam machining.
• Like electron beam machining, it is also not a bulk metal removal process.
• It does not require vacuum and can cut any hard material.
• Thermal distortion is minimum because of less heat affected zone.
• It is chiefly used for producing microsize holes in thinner parts.
• Laser can also be used for cutting operations.
• Important limitations include its high cost of equipment and its unsuitability for thicker work materials
because of lower cutting efficiency.
ELECTRON BEAM MACHINING

• Electron beam machining (EBM) is a micromachining operation used to remove very little quantity
of material from the workpiece.
• It uses a high velocity electron beam which strikes the workpiece at the desired location where
its kinetic energy is converted into thermal energy producing very high temperatures. This high
temperature can melt the work material and get it removed by evaporation.
• The process is performed in a vacuum chamber which prevents the scattering of electrons to avoid
their collisions. This increases the efficiency of the process.
• The process is suitable for producing very small diameter holes and cutting grooves and slots in
thinner parts.
• Important limitations include its high equipment cost, vacuum requirement and high energy cost.
WATER JET MACHINING

• Water jet machining uses a high velocity jet of water to cut the material. During the process the
water jet is directed at the point of cutting.
• It is a very clean process with minimal burr production.
• It produces no heat and hence heat affected zones are missing.
• On the negative side, it has high noise level.
• Leather, plastics, fabrics and rubber are usually processed by this method.
• It can also produce various contours.
• Because of cleanliness in the process, it is widely used in food processing industries.
ABRASIVE WATER-JET MACHINING

• It uses an abrasive mixed water jet for cutting purpose. Presence of abrasive particles in water
jet increases its cutting efficiency.
• Aluminium oxide and silicon carbide abrasive particles are usually used in this process.
• It can cut metals, non-metals and composites of various thicknesses. Because of absence of heat,
it is also useful for heat-sensitive materials.
ABRASIVE JET MACHINING

• It uses an abrasive jet consisting of abrasive particles mixed in gaseous medium to cut the material.
• Aluminium oxide, silicon carbide and diamond are important abrasives used in this process.
• Nitrogen and carbon dioxide are used to mix the abrasive particles.
• The process has the ability to produce narrow holes in metals and non-metals including heat-sensitive,
fragile and brittle materials.
• It is primarily used as a finishing operation.
• Sharp corners and uniform holes are difficult to produce.
• It finds wider applications in electronics industry due to absence of heat in the process.
PLASMA ARC CUTTING

• Plasma arc is a concentrated source of heat producing very high temperature. It can be used to
melt the work material at its desired location.
• Gases such as argon, hydrogen and nitrogen are used to remove the residue material from the
cut.
• Water-injection plasma cutting uses water mixed plasma to cool the workpiece and restrict the
size of the kerf produced.
• Advantages of plasma arc cutting include higher metal removal rate, ability to produce narrower
kerf and minimum heat affected zones.
• The higher equipment cost is a hindrance in its widespread use. Overheating may take place due
to very high temperature.
• It is used on large scale in the profile cutting of ferrous and nonferrous metals.

1. The cutting tool used in wire-EDM is made of
(i) Brass (ii) Copper
(iii) Tungsten
Of these
(i) Plasma is a hot ionized gas.
(ii) Plasma can produce very high temperatures.
(iii) Plasma arc cutting is used only for electrically conductive metals.
(iv) Wider kerf is produced by plasma arc cutting.
3. Which of the following gases is used for cleaning the cut in plasma arc cutting?
(i) Argon (ii) Oxygen
(iii) Hydrogen (iv) Nitrogen
Of these
4. Consider the following advantages offered by plasma arc cutting:
(i) Heat affected zone is minimal.
(ii) Higher metal removal rate is achieved.
(iii) All metals irrespective of their electrical conductivity can be cut.
(iv) Narrower kerf is produced.
Of these advantages:
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) are true (d) (i), (ii), (iii) are (iv) are true.
5. Water is the main cutting agent in water jet machining. Other cutting fluid used may be
(i) Alcohol (ii) Glycerine
(iii) Liquid nitrogen (iv) Liquid hydrogen
Of these
(a) (iii) and (iv) are true (b) (i) and (ii) are true
(c) (ii) and (iii) are true (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are true.
6. The average waterjet velocity in water jet machining may be
(a) 100 m/s (b) 200 m/s (c) 700 m/s (d) 1500 m/s.
7. Consider the following statements about water jet machining:
(i) It produces rough cut.
(ii) Heat affected zones are missing.
(iii) It offers a clean process with minimum burr production.
(iv) It uses a abrasive mixed water-jet.
8. Which of the following materials are best cut by water-jet machining:
(i) Plastics (ii) Leather
(iii) Rubber (iv) Copper
Of these
(a) (i) and (ii) are true
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are true
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are true.
9. Consider the following statements about abrasive water-jet machining:
(i) A water-jet thoroughly mixed with abrasive particles acts as cutting agent.
(ii) Abrasive particles increase the cutting efficiency.
(iii) Abrasive particles such as aluminium oxide and silicon carbide are used in the process.
(iv) It is mainly suitable for electronics industry.
10. The purpose of using sodium bicarbonate powder in abrasive jet machining is
(a) to clean the cut
(b) to increase the cutting efficiency
(c) to act as mixer for abrasive particles
(d) to provide neutral atmosphere around the jet.
(i) Abrasive jet machining uses finer abrasive particles as compared to abrasive water-jet machining.
(ii) Nitrogen and carbon dioxide are used to mix abrasive particles in abrasive jet machining.
(iii) Abrasive jet machining finds applications in food processing industries.
(iv) Abrasive jet machining is used to cut softer materials.

(c) (ii) and (iii) are true (d) (i), (iii) and (iv) are true.
12. Consider the following statements about abrasive jet machining:
(i) It is an environment-friendly process.
(ii) It is cost effective because abrasives are reusable.
(iii) It is used to cut very hard materials.
(iv) It produces a uniform hole.
(a) (ii) is true (b) (i) and (iv) are true
(c) (iii) is true (d) (i), (ii) and (iv) are true.
13. Consider the following statements about abrasive jet machining:
(i) Sharp corners are easily produced.
(ii) It is a clean process and does not pose any environment problem.
(iii) The process is very fast.
(iv) Fragile and brittle material can be cut.
(c) (iii) and (iv) are true (d) (iv) is true.
(i) Irregularly shaped holes and cavities are easily produced.
(ii) It has higher power consumption.
(iii) Work and tool materials should be electrically conducting.
(iv) Metal removal is independent of discharge voltage.
Which of the above statements is true in case of electrical discharge machining (EDM)?
(a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
15. Which of the following materials can be used as tool material in EDM?
(i) Copper (ii) Brass
(iii) Graphite
Of these
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (iii)
16. Consider the following functions of dielectric fluids used in EDM:
(i) It serves as a coolant.
(ii) It carries discharge.
(iii) It takes away the worn out work particles.
(iv) It acts as an insulator in the gap between workpiece and tool.
Of these
(a) (i) and (iii) are true (b) (iii) and (iv) are true
17. The gap between nozzle tip and workpiece in abrasive jet machining is approximately equal to
(a) 1 mm (b) 1 cm (c) 1 m (d) 2 m.
18. The metal removal in electro discharge machining depends on
(i) Discharge current (ii) Pulse frequency
(iii) Pulse duration
Of these
(c) (ii) is true (d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are true.
19. The metal removal rate in EDM varies
(a) directly proportional to discharge voltage
(b) directly proportional to the square of discharge voltage
(c) inversely proportional to discharge voltage
(d) inversely proportional to the square to discharge voltage.
20. Which of the following is a non-traditional machining method?
(a) Milling (b) Drilling
(c) Grinding (d) Ultrasonic machining.
21. Which of the following methods uses combination of electrical and chemical energy for machining?
(a) Ultrasonic machining (b) Abrasive jet machining
(c) Electrochemical machining (d) Electron beam machining.
22. Consider the following machining methods:
(i) Electron beam machining (ii) Laser beam machining
(iii) Electric discharge machining
Which of the above methods uses thermal energy for removing work material?
(a) (i) (b) (i) and (ii)
23. Which of the following methods uses very high frequency vibration for machining?
(a) Electron beam machining (b) Ultrasonic machining
(c) Electric discharge machining (d) Electrochemical machining.
24. Water jet machining uses water at

(a) high pressure but low velocity (b) high pressure and high velocity
(c) low pressure but high velocity (d) low pressure and low velocity.
25. In water jet machining, typical value of standoff distance is

(a) 25.0 mm (b) 10.5 mm
(c) 15.5 mm (d) 3.2 mm.

(i) Water pressure (ii) Standoff distance
(iii) Nozzle diameter
Which of the above parameters affects material removal in water jet machining?
(a) (i) (b) (i) and (ii)
27. Consider the following workpiece materials:
(i) Carbides (ii) Glass
(iii) Copper (iv) Ceramics
Of these materials, which materials is best suited for ultrasonic machining?
(a) (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
28. Consider the following abrasives:
(i) Silicon carbide (ii) Aluminium oxide
(iii) Glass
Choose suitable abrasive for water jet machining.
(a) (ii) (b) (i) and (iii)
(i) Workpiece forms the positive electrode (anode).
(ii) Tool forms negative electrode (cathode).
(iii) Metal removal is governed by Faraday’s law of electrolysis.
(iv) Tool wear is maximum.
Of these statements, which one is correct for electrochemical machining?
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (iv).
30. In electric discharge machining, better surface finish is obtained at
(a) low frequency and low discharge current
(b) low frequency and high discharge current
(c) high frequency and low discharge current
(d) high frequency and high discharge current.
31. The metal removal in electrochemical machining varies
(a) inversely proportional to the gap between work and tool electrode
(b) inversely proportional to the square of the gap
(c) directly proportional to the square of the gap
(d) directly proportional to the gap.
(i) Copper (ii) Tungsten
(iii) Molybdenum (iv) Aluminium

Which of the above materials is used as wire material in wire-EDM process?
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv).
33. The velocity of electrons in electron beam machining is
(a) about one-quater of the velocity of light
(b) about one-half of the velocity of light
(c) about three-quarter of the velocity of light
(d) equal to the velocity of light.
34. Which of the following processes is called a micromachining operation?
(a) Electric discharge machining (b) Electrochemical machining
(c) Electron beam machining (d) Water jet machining.
35. Which of the following processes can be used to produce very small diameter holes?
(a) Electric discharge machining (b) Electrochemical machining
(c) Electron beam machining (d) Water jet machining.
36. Consider the following machining methods:
(i) Electrochemical machining (ii) Electric discharge machining
(iii) Electron beam machining (iv) Laser beam machining
Which one is not a bulk metal removal process?
(a) (iii) and (iv) (b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv).
37. Which of the following methods uses a chemical known as etchant during machining?
(a) Electrochemical machining (b) Electro discharge machining
(c) Chemical machining (d) Electron beam machining.
38. The typical value of etch factor in chemical machining varies between the following limits:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 4 and 5.
39. Consider the following methods:
(i) Electron beam machining (ii) Laser beam machining
(iii) Electric discharge machining (iv) Electrochemical machining
Which method can produce an irregular hole?
List I List II
(Machining processes) (Description)
A. Electron beam machining 1. Uses sparks for melting the work
materials
B. Electric discharge machining 2. Uses etchant to remove material from

the workpiece
C. Electrochemical machining 3. Can produce very small diameter holes
D. Chemical machining 4. Uses electrical and chemical energy
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 2 4 1
(b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 2 1 4 3.
List I List II
A. Abrasive jet machining 1. Abrasive particles
B. Laser beam machining 2. Water mixed abrasive particles
C. Electrochemical grinding 3. Abrasive particles in gaseous medium
D. Abrasive water-jet machining 4. Micromachining operation
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 4 3 2
(b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 3 1 4 2.
List I List II
A. Laser beam machining 1. Can be used for machining hard and
brittle materials
B. Electron beam machining 2. Can produce microsize circular holes
C. Electric discharge machining 3. Uses a vacuum chamber
D. Abrasive jet machining 4. Can produce holes with high depth-to-
diameter ratios
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 2 4 1
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 2 3 1 4.
43. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List I List II
(Non−conventional machining methods) (Related description)
A. Electric discharge machining 1. Drilling of microholes in harder materials
B. Electrochemical machining 2. Drilling of holes in glass
C. Ultrasonic machining 3. Die sinking
D. Laser beam machining 4. Machining contours
5. Vacuum requirement
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 2 3 5
(b) 3 4 5 2
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 3 4 2 1.
44. Ultrasonic machining removes material from the workpiece by
(a) hammering action of abrasive particles
(b) rubbing action between tool and workpiece
(c) high frequency sound waves
(d) high frequency eddy currents.
45. Vacuum is required in which of the following non-conventional machining method?
(a) Laser beam machining (b) Electron beam machining
(c) Electric discharge machining (d) Electrochemical machining.
(i) Low metal removal rate (ii) Poor surface finish
(iii) High tooling cost
Which of the above parameters is true in case of ultrasonic machining (USM)?
(i) Fragile and intricately shaped parts are easily machined.
(ii) Workpiece hardness is immaterial.
(iii) Automation is difficult.
(iv) Absence of physical contact between tool and workpiece ensures longer tool life.
Which of the above statements is true in case of non-conventional machining methods?
(a) (ii) and (iv) (b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(i) Specific power consumption is very high.
(ii) Processes are chipless.
(iii) Close tolerances are difficult to achieve.

(iv) Equipment cost is not very high.
Which of the above statements is true in case of non-conventional machining methods?
(a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (ii) (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv).
List I List II
A. Die sinking 1. Abrasive jet machining
B. Deburring 2. Laser beam machining
C. Fine hole drilling (thin materials) 3. EDM
D. Cutting/sharpening hard materials 4. Ultrasonic machining
5. Electrochemical grinding
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 5 4 1
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 3 1 2 5
(d) 4 5 1 3.
(i) A rubber bonded alumina grinding wheel acts as the cathode and the workpiece as the anode.
(ii) A copper bonded alumina grinding wheel acts as the cathode and the workpiece as the anode.
(iii) Metal removal takes plate due to the pressure applied by the grinding wheel.
(iv) Metal removal takes place due to electrolysis.
Which of these statements is correct with respect to electrochemical grinding?
(a) (ii) and (iv) (b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iv).
List I List II
A. Ultrasonic machining 1. Kerosene
B. EDM 2. Abrasive slurry
C. ECM 3. Vacuum
D. EBM 4. Salt solution
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 4 1 2 3
(d) 4 3 2 1.
52. Which of the following non-conventional machining methods does not cause tool wear?
(a) Ultrasonic machining (b) Electrochemical machining
(c) Electric discharge machining (d) Anode mechanical machining.
ANSWERS
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (c)
7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (a) 11. (a) 12. (c)
13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (d) 17. (a) 18. (d)
19. (b) 20. (d) 21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (b)
25. (d) 26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (c)
31. (a) 32. (c) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (c) 36. (a)
37. (c) 38. (a) 39. (c) 40. (c) 41. (c) 42. (b)
43. (c) 44. (a) 45. (b) 46. (a) 47. (b) 48. (c)
49. (a) 50. (a) 51. (b) 52. (b).

1. Why are abrasive particles not reused in abrasive jet machining?
Answer During the process, abrasive particles get contaminated with different gases used in the
process, affecting their cutting efficiency.
2. Why is abrasive jet machining not suitable for soft materials?
Answer Abrasive particles used in abrasive jet machining can penetrate and embed with soft
materials.
3. Why is metal removal maximum at the point where spark occurs?
Answer Due to high current density at the spark point, metal removal is maximum.
4. How does non-traditional machining differ from conventional machining?
Answer Conventional machining processes use sharp cutting tool to remove material from a
workpiece and there is a physical contact between the tool and the workpiece. Non-traditional machining
processes do not use sharp cutting tools, instead use electrical, mechanical, chemical and thermal
means to remove the material from the workpiece and there is no physical contact between the
tool and the workpiece.
5. How do amplitude and frequency of vibration affect metal removal in ultrasonic machining?
Answer Metal removal increases with increase in amplitude and frequency of vibration.
6. Name the abrasive materials used in ultrasonic machining?
Answer Aluminium oxide, boron carbide, diamond and silicon carbide.
7. How does water jet machining differ from abrasive water-jet machining?
Answer Water jet machining uses a high velocity water jet for removing the material from the
workpiece. On the other hand, abrasive water-jet machining uses abrasive particles along with water
for removing the material.
8. Name the abrasive materials used in abrasive water jet machining.
Answer Aluminium oxide and silicon dioxide.
9. Why is water jet machining not suitable for brittle materials?

Answer Brittle materials may crack and break during water jet machining.
10. Why is glass not machined by water jet machining?
Answer Glass is a brittle material which cracks during water jet machining.
11. Ultrasonic machining uses slurry for cutting materials. What is the composition of slurry?
Answer Slurry consists of water and abrasive particles.
12. Why is it desirable to keep the standoff distance minimum in water jet machining?
Answer Standoff distance is kept minimum in order to prevent the dispersion of water stream
before it strikes the workpiece.
13. What is standoff distance?
Answer It is the distance of the nozzle opening from the work surface.
14. How does abrasive jet machining differ from abrasive water jet machining?
Answer Abrasive jet machining uses gaseous medium containing abrasive particles for removing
the material, whereas water containing abrasive particles is used for removing the material in abrasive
water-jet machining.
15. Name different gases used in abrasive jet machining.
Answer Carbon dioxide, helium and nitrogen.
16. Name the different materials used for making tool electrode in electrochemical machining.
Answer Copper and stainless steel.
17. Which type of electrolyte is used in electrochemical machining?
Answer Aqueous solution of sodium chloride and sodium nitrate.
18. For which type of work, electrochemical machining is useful?
Answer Electrochemical machining is suitable for hard and difficult-to-machine materials and
when complex shapes are required which are not machinable by conventional methods.
19. How do discharge current and frequency of discharge affect metal removal rate in electric discharge
machining?
Answer With increase in discharge current and frequency of discharge, metal removal rate increases.
20. Why is graphite the most preferred electrode material in electric discharge machining?
Answer Graphite has very high melting point (3727oC). It does not melt rather vaporizes. At
the same time, the tool wear is minimum.
21. Name three electrode materials used in electric discharge machining.
Answer Brass, copper and graphite.
22. How does the melting temperature of work material affect the metal removal rate in electric discharge
machining?
Answer Work materials having higher melting temperatures have lower metal removal rates.
23. What is the range of wire diameter in wire-EDM?
Answer Wire diameter varies between 0.076 mm and 0.30 mm.
24. What is the purpose of using a dielectric fluid in EDM or wire-EDM?

Answer Dielectric fluid acts as a flushing medium to carry away the worn work material particles.
25. Name the dielectric fluid used in EDM.

Answer Deionized water or oil.
26. What are salient features of wire-EDM?

Answer Wire-EDM uses a small diameter wire as tool electrode which produces a very narrow
kerf in the work. Because of this reason, very sharp corners can be easily produced.
27. Why is a magnetic lens used in electron beam machining?
Answer A magnetic lens is used to focus the electron beam on the workpiece to its specific
spot.
28. Why is a vacuum chamber needed in electron beam machining?
Answer A vacuum chamber is used to prevent the scattering of electrons so that their collisions
can be minimised, thereby increasing the efficiency of the process.
29. What is the principle of electron beam machining?

Answer Electron beam machining uses a high velocity electron beam which when strikes a
workpiece, its kinetic energy is converted into thermal energy producing very high temperatures
sufficient to melt the work material and get it removed by vaporization.
30. Out of the two processes, electron beam machining and laser beam machining, which can produce
small diameter holes?
Answer Both processes are used for producing very small diameter holes but the size of hole
produced by laser beam machining is smaller.
31. What are the important limitations of electron beam machining?
Answer
(a) The process can machine thinner parts only.
(b) It has high equipment cost.
(c) It requires vacuum.
(d) Energy requirement is very high.
32. Which type of lasers are widely used in machining? Why?
Answer Because of their higher power outputs, solid lasers are widely used for machining.
33. Name three important maskant materials used in chemical machining.
Answer Neoprene, polyethylene and polyvinyl chloride (PVC).
34. How is etch factor defined in chemical machining?
Answer Etch factor is the ratio of undercut to depth of cut. Its value depends on the material
being machined.
35. Name few important etchants used in chemical machining.
Answer Nitric acid (HNO3), sulphuric acid (H2SO4) hydrochloric acid (HCl), sodium hydroxide
(NaOH) and ferrous chloride (FeCl2).
36. What is the typical application area of chemical machining?

Answer Chemical machining is widely used in aircraft industry to remove materials from various
components of an aircraft in order to reduce its weight.
37. Name three important micromachining methods.
Answer
(a) Electron beam machining
(b) Laser beam machining
(c) Photochemical machining.
38. What is the typical application area of water jet machining?
Answer Water jet machining is used in case of plastics, leather and cardboards.
39. Why is it essential to maintain a slurry flow through the gap between work and tool in ultrasonic
machining?
Answer A continuous flow of slurry serves two functions:
(a) It brings new abrasive particles regularly needed to remove the work material.
(b) It washes away the older and used abrasive particles.
40. What is die sinking?
Answer Die sinking involves the machining of irregular shapes and contours into forging dies,
plastic moulds and other shaping tools.
41. For which type of materials, ultrasonic machining is useful?
Answer Ultrasonic machining is useful in the machining of hard and brittle materials such as
carbides, ceramics and glass.
42. What does slurry in ultrasonic machining consist of? How does slurry concentration affect metal
removal?
Answer Slurry in ultrasonic machining consists of water and abrasive particles. Slurry concentration
means quantity of abrasive particles in a definite volume of water. Higher slurry concentration
increases metal removal. For better result, slurry concentration must vary between 20% and 60%.
1. Chemical blanking and photochemical blanking are similar operations.
2. Harder materials are easily machined using non-conventional methods.
3. Non-conventional machining methods have higher specific power consumption.
4. Electro-discharge machining uses maskant.
5. Photochemical blanking can be used to cut complex profiles in extremely thin metal.
6. The metal removal rate in EDM varies inversely proportional to discharge voltage.
7. Glass and ceramics are best machined by EDM.
8. Electrochemical machining is based on Faraday’s law of electrolysis.
9. A low voltage high current is passed through the electrolyte in electrochemical machining.
10. Majority of the material in electrochemical grinding is removed by abrasive action.
11. Solid lasers are widely used in laser beam machining.
12. Electron beam machining requires vacuum.
13. Water jet machining is widely used for food processing industries.
14. Abrasive water-jet machining and abrasive jet machining are similar operations.
15. Abrasive jet machining uses a high velocity water-jet for machining.
16. Holes tend to be tapered in abrasive jet machining.
17. Abrasive jet machining is an environment-friendly process.
ANSWERS
1. F 2. T 3. T 4. F 5. T 6. F
7. F 8. T 9. T 10. F 11. T 12. T
13. T 14. F 15. F 16. T 17. F.
REVIEW QUESTIONS
1. What are the salient features of non-conventional machining methods?
2. Why is it more easier to machine harder materials by non-conventional machining than conventional
methods?
3. Why is it not necessary to use a harder tool in non-conventional machining?
4. What is the principle of chemical machining?
5. How does photochemical blanking differ from chemical blanking?
6. What are the functions of a cutting fluid used in electro-discharge machining?
7. Why is graphite considered a best tool material in electro-discharge machining?
8. Name the factors affecting metal removal in EDM.
9. Differentiate between EDM and wire-EDM.
10. How does electrochemical machining differ from chemical machining?
11. Name important electrolytes used in electrochemical machining.
12. What are the demerits of electrochemical machining?
13. How does electrochemical grinding differ from electrochemical machining?
14. Why are laser beam and electron beam machining not very popular?
15. What is the difference between plasma arc cutting and oxy-acetylene cutting?
16. How does abrasive water-jet machining differ from water jet machining?
17. How does abrasive jet machining differ from abrasive water-jet machining?
18. Name the abrasives used in abrasive water-jet machining.
19. What is the purpose of using gaseous medium in abrasive jet machining?
20. Why are sharp corners difficult to produce in abrasive jet machining?
21. Why and when are non-conventional machining methods preferred?
22. What is the principle of electrochemical grinding?
23. Why there is no tool wear in case of electrochemical machining?
24. What is die sinking?
25. How is material removed in ultrasonic machining?
26. Name two machining processes which do not remove material in bulk quantity.
27. Which machining process can be most suitable for producing microsize holes?
28. What does LASER stand for?
29. What is etch factor?
30. Which machining process uses Faraday’s law of electrolysis?
31. What is thermal cutting? Name two processes used for thermal cutting.
32. Why is vacuum required in electron beam machining?
C H A P T E R
12
Powder Metallurgy
• Powder metallurgy (P/M) uses metal powders to manufacture a product. The P/M products have
desired characteristics which are otherwise difficult to obtain.
• Atomization, electrolytic deposition and reduction methods are used to produce metal powders.
• Atomization is the most widely used method. Electrolytic deposition method produces metal powders
of high quality.
• In compaction, metal powders are pressed by hydraulic or mechanical presses to obtain the required
density. The pressed powder is called green compact.
• Cold isostatic compaction is performed at room temperature, whereas hot isostatic compaction at
elevated temperatures.
• Injection moulding is an important compaction method used to produce thinner intricate parts with
density equal to theoretical density. But the higher cost of the process restricts its applications;
can be justified for large scale productions.
• Roll compaction, also called powder rolling, uses two rolling mills rotating in opposite directions
to compress the metal powders. This method is used to produce sheet metals for electronic industry.
• Sintering is the process of heating the compact powder to the required temperature. The sintering
temperature depends on the type of metal used in the process but is below its melting point. The
purpose of sintering is to increase the strength of the components.
• In impregnation, the sintered parts are immersed in oil, grease or other lubricants so that the voids
are filled with these substances by capillary action. Such parts have self lubrication properties.
for example, oil-impregnated bearings.
• In infiltration, a low melting point metal in its molten state is forced into the voids of the sintered
parts to increase their density, strength, hardness and machinability.
• Advantages of powder metallurgy are the following:
(a) P/M parts have better surface finish and higher dimensional accuracy. As a result, there is
no requirement of further machining and wastage of material is almost nil.
(b) P/M can be used to make parts with variable compositions which can offer variable properties
required for specific applications. The excellent damping characteristics of P/M parts is one
such example under this category.
(c) P/M can make parts which are otherwise not possible for example, porous bearings and cemented
carbide tools.
• Limitations of powder metallurgy are the following:
(a) The equipment cost is very high.
(b) It is difficult to produce parts with uniform density. Mechanical properties of P/M parts are
inferior.
• Important P/M parts include self-lubricating bearings, gears, cams, cutting tools, connecting rods,
brake drums, alnico magnets, electric motor bushes and dies.

(i) Sintering is a heating process used to increase the strength and hardness of the compact powder.
(ii) Sintering temperature is approximately equal to three-fourth of melting temperature.
(iii) Vacuum sintering is employed for stainless steel and titanium.
2. Which of the following metals has the greatest sintering temperature?
(a) Copper (b) Iron (c) Tungsten (d) Stainless steel.
3. Which of the following metals has the highest sintering time?
(a) Copper (b) Iron (c) Tungsten (d) Stainless steel.
4. Pores in the metal powder are significantly reduced by sintering. It is mainly due to
(a) cohesion (b) adhesion
(c) diffusion (d) covalent bonding.
5. How is impregnation defined?

(a) It is the process of filling the pores of a sintered part with oil or any other liquid by immersing
the part into a hot oil/liquid bath.
(b) It is the process of filling the pores of a sintered part with a molten metal.
(c) It is the process of applying pressure on metal powders kept in a flexible mould from all
the sides.
(d) It is the process of converting molten metal into small size droplets by the use of a nozzle.
6. What is infiltration?
Powder Metallurgy 12.3
the sides.
7. What is isostatic pressing?
the sides.
8. How is atomization defined?
the sides.
(i) The bulk density of metal powder is less than its true density.
(ii) The sum of the porosity and packing factor is equal to unity.
(iii) The packing factor for loose metal powders lies between 0.5 and 0.7.
10. Consider the following statements about powder metallurgy:
(i) Wastage of material is almost nil. (ii) Close dimensional tolerances are possible.
(iii) Near net shaped products are obtained.
(i) Aluminium (ii) Copper
(iii) Iron
Which of the above metals is commonly employed in powder metallurgy?
(a) (i) (b) (ii)
(c) (i) and (ii) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii).
12. Powder metallurgy uses
(a) pressure (b) heat
(c) pressure and heat both (d) no pressure.
13. Consider the following methods:

(i) Atomization (ii) Electrolytic deposition method
(iii) Reduction method
Which of the above methods is used for converting metals into their powdered form?
(a) (i) (b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii).
14. Atomization is one of the important methods for producing metallic powders. Choose the suitable
metal from among the following lists:
(i) Aluminium (ii) Zinc
(iii) Tin
(a) (i) (b) (ii)
(c) (i) and (ii) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii).
(i) Size of the nozzle (ii) Rate of flow of the metal
(iii) Temperature of the metal
The size of metallic powder in atomization depends on
(a) (i) (b) (i) and (ii)
16. Formation of spherical shapes of metal powders is favoured under the following conditions:
(i) High rate of cooling (ii) Slow rate of cooling
(iii) High surface tension (iv) Low surface tension
Of these
(c) (ii) and (iv) are true (d) (i) and (iv) are true.
17. Choose the metals from among the following list suitable for electrolytic deposition method:
(i) Silver (ii) Tantalum
(iii) Molybdenum
(a) (i) (b) (i) and (ii)
18. Which of the following methods converts metal oxides into metallic form?
(a) Electrolytic deposition method (b) Reduction method
(c) Atomization (d) Sintering.
19. Choose the suitable method from among the following list which produces metal powders of very
high purity:
(i) Atomization (ii) Electrolytic deposition method
(iii) Reduction method
(a) (i) (b) (ii)
20. Choose the metals from among the following list suitable for reduction method:
(i) Copper (ii) Iron
(iii) Tungsten
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (iii)
21. Choose the metals from among the following list that require vacuum during sintering:
(i) Refractory metals (ii) Stainless steel
(iii) Titanium
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) (d) (iii).
22. Consider the following gases:
(i) Oxygen (ii) Hydrogen
(iii) Helium (iv) Nitrogen
Select the gases used in sintering for providing reducing atmosphere
(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv).
23. Which of the following processes is performed in powder metallurgy to promote self-lubricating
properties in sintered parts?
(a) Infiltration (b) Impregnation
(c) Plating (d) Graphitisation.
(i) Mechanical pulverization (ii) Atomization
(iii) Chemical reduction (iv) Sintering
Which of these processes is used for powder preparation in powder metallurgy?
(a) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii) and (iv).
25. Which of the following methods is suitable for the production of super alloys?
(i) Atomization from molten state using inert gas
(ii) Atomization using plasma arc and rotating electrode
(iii) Reduction and crushing
26. Which of the following components can be manufactured by powder metallurgy methods?
(i) Carbide tool tips (ii) Bearings
(iii) Filters (iv) Brake linings
(a) (i), (iii) and (iv) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv).
27. The correct sequence of the given processes in powder metallurgy is

(a) blending, compacting, sintering and sizing
(b) blending, compacting, sizing and sintering
(c) compacting, sizing, blending and sintering
(d) compacting, blending, sizing and sintering.
28. The favourable conditions for spherical metal powders are the following:
(i) Slow cooling (ii) High surface tension
(iii) Vacuum
Of these
29. The reducing agents used in reduction method are the following:
(i) Carbon monoxide (ii) Hydrogen
(iii) Iron
Of these
30. Which of the following metals requires wet blending?
(a) Tin (b) Zinc (c) Aluminium (d) Cadmium.
31. Consider the following statements about injection moulding:
(i) It produces more denser parts as compared to other methods of P/M.
(ii) Injection moulding parts are made larger than the actual size to compensate for the shrinkage
during sintering.
(iii) It is an expensive process.
32. Sintering temperature is approximately equal to
(a) 25% of melting temperature (b) 50% of melting temperature
(c) 75% of melting temperature (d) 100% of melting temperature.
33. P/M products have
(i) Variable composition (ii) Good damping characteristics
(iii) Good mechanical properties (iv) Better surface finish
Of these
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) are true (b) (i), (ii) and (iv) are true
(i) Stainless steel (ii) Titanium
(iii) Refractory metals
Which of these materials requires vacuum sintering?

(a) (i) (b) (i) and (ii)
35. Consider the following metal powders:

(i) Aluminium (ii) Magnesium
(iii) Zirconium
Which of the above metals requires inert atmosphere?
(i) Cadmium (ii) Tin
(iii) Zinc
Which of the above metals offers problem during sintering?
(i) Blending (ii) Atomization
(iii) Sintering (iv) Comminution.
Which of the above processes is used for producing metal powder?
(c) (iii) (d) (iii) and (i).
38. Compaction is defined as
(a) a heating process (b) a pressing process
(c) a powder producing process (d) a mixing process.
(i) Extrusion (ii) Sintering
(iii) Injection moulding (iv) Rolling.
Which of the above processes is considered as ‘compaction process’?
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii)
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv).
40. Consider the following variables:
(i) Temperature (ii) Time
(iii) Furnace atmosphere.
Sintering includes
(a) (i) (b) (i) and (ii)
ANSWERS
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (b)
7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10. (b) 11. (d) 12. (c)
13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (d) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (b)
19. (b) 20. (c) 21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (b)
25. (d) 26. (d) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29. (b) 30. (c)
31. (c) 32. (c) 33. (b) 34. (c) 35. (d) 36. (c)
37. (b) 38. (b) 39. (c) 40. (c).

1. What is sintering?
Answer Sintering is the process of heating the pressed (compact) powders of a metal below
its melting temperature in order to increase its strength and hardness.
2. What is packing factor?
Answer Packing factor is defined as the ratio of bulk density of metal powders to their true
density. Since true density is greater than bulk density, hence the packing factor is always less
than unity.
3. Name the factors affecting packing factor.
Answer Packing factor depends on the shape and size of metal powders and their distribution
in a given volume.
4. What is the difference between true density and bulk density?
Answer True density is the density of the metal powders in their compact state. Bulk density
is the density of metal powders in loose state. Bulk density is smaller than true density.
5. Differentiate cold and hot isostatic pressing.
Answer
Cold isostatic pressing Hot isostatic pressing
• It is performed at room temperature. • It is performed at high temperatures.
• Compression medium is liquid such as water or • Compression medium is inert gases such as helium
oil. or argon.
• A flexible mould (made of rubber) is used. • A rigid mould (sheet metal) is used.
• Dimensional accuracy is poor because of the use • Dimensional accuracy is better.
of flexible mould.
• Parts have poor mechanical properties. • Parts have superior mechanical properties.
6. Name some important products manufactured by powder metallurgy.

Answer Gears, cams, bearings, cutting tools, piston rings and connecting rods.
7. Name two important iron alloys which are used in the powdered form in powder metallurgy.
Answer Stainless steel and high-speed steel.
8. Name few shapes of metal powders.
Answer Metal powders can be spherical, cylindrical, acicular cubic and rounded.
9. Out of the two electrodes, cathode and anode, which one is used in electrolytic deposition method
to deposit metal powders?
Answer Cathode (negative electrode).
10. Name the reducing agents used in reduction method.
Answer Carbon monoxide and hydrogen.
11. What is the purpose of powder mixing?
Answer Powders are mixed to obtain uniformity in a given volume by homogenising the particle
sizes.
12. What is meant by green compact?
Answer The pressed powder before being subjected to sintering is called green compact.
13. Why are lubricants used during powder mixing?
Answer Lubricant increases metal flow during compaction by reducing friction between the particles.
Secondly, it also increases die life by reducing the temperature.
14. Why is temperature increased gradually in sintering?
Answer Fast heating can produce high pressure of air entrapped in the pores of the compact
powder forming cracks in the compacts.
15. Why is protective atmosphere needed in sintering?
Answer Protective atmosphere is needed to prevent oxidation of metal powders.
16. Why has a sintered part more density?
Answer A sintered part has more density because of intimate contacts between metal powders
during heating.
17. How does self-lubricating bearings work?
Answer The voids in self-lubricating bearings are filled with oil which come on their surfaces
once any load or pressure is applied. On surface it helps to reduce friction.
1. Electrolytic deposition method produces metal powders in the purest form.
2. Loose metal powders are also called green compact.
3. Injection moulding is an important method used to produce metal powders.
4. Sintering is a heating process used to increase the strength of green compact.
5. Porous bearings require external lubrication.
6. Dimensional accuracy of P/M parts are not good.
7. P/M parts have inferior mechanical properties.
8. Porous bearings are produced by impregnation.
9. Infiltration is used to increase the density of P/M parts.
10. Sintering temperature is approximately equal to melting temperature of a metal.

11. Water is used in hot isostatic pressing as compression medium.
12. High surface tension is conducive for spherical shapes of metal powders.
13. Vacuum sintering is employed for aluminium.
14. Impregnation works on capillary action.
15. P/M parts have density exceeding theoretical density.
ANSWERS
1. T 2. F 3. F 4. T 5. F 6. F
7. T 8. T 9. T 10. F 11. F 12. T
13. F 14. T 15. F.
REVIEW QUESTIONS
1. How are metal powders prepared?
2. What is green compact?
3. What is the purpose of sintering?
4. Name three metals used to produce powder.
5. What is the size of metal powders?
6. Differentiate between cold and hot isostatic pressing.
7. What is injection moulding?
8. What is roll compaction?
9. How is sintering temperature decided?
10. Name three metals which require vacuum sintering.
11. What is impregnation? How does it differ from infiltration?
12. Name four powder metallurgy products.
13. List out important characteristics of powder metallurgy products.
14. What are the limitations of powder metallurgy?
C H A P T E R
13
Forming Processes
• Forming processes are used to shape a material into useful products. The material is permanently
deformed during such processes.
• Forming processes are performed in cold or hot state.
• Cold working processes are performed below the recrystallization temperature of a metal, preferably
at room temperature.
• Hot working processes are performed above the recrystallization temperature of a metal.
• The recrystallization temperature of a metal is approximately one-half of its melting temperature
on absolute scale.
• During hot working, grain structure of a metal is refined and lower energy and less deformation
forces are required.
• During cold working, grains are distorted and greater deformation forces and higher energy are
required but the surface finish of the products is better over their hot worked products.
• Strain hardening effect is observed in cold working processes. This effect is missing in hot working
operations.
• Some hot working processes include forging, rolling and spinning.
• Extrusion, bending and cup drawing are commonly employed cold working processes.
ROLLING
• Rolling is used to reduce the thickness of a workpiece by passing it through rolling mills. It is
mostly performed in hot state. The process is used to produce flat plate, sheet and foil. Steel sheets
are typical rolling products. For more reduction in thickness, rolling is performed in more than
one pass.
• The difference between initial and final thicknesses is called draft, expressed as
t1 – t2 = μ2 R
where t1 = Initial work thickness
t2 = Final work thickness
μ = Coefficient of friction between contact surfaces

R = Radius of rolling mills.
• The roll force, F is obtained as
F = σY . l . W (Neglecting friction)
where σY = Yield stress
W = Width of workpiece
l = Roll gap √
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
R (t1– t⎯2) .
• The power required per roll is obtained as
2π Fl N ,
P= watt
60
where N = Rotational speed of the rolls, rpm.
• To obtain complete flatness, levelling rolls are used. The surface of a mild steel workpiece is not
perfectly flat during its rolling due to yield point elongation effect.
• Thread rolling is used to produce threads on cylindrical parts.
DRAWING
• Drawing refers to bar or wire drawing.
• Drawing is used to reduce the diameter of cylindrical workpieces such as rods, wires and tubes.
During the process, the workpiece is pulled through a die by applying a tension force.
• During tube drawing, use of mandrel is optional. Mandrel is used to obtain uniform thickness of
the tube. A round die is preferred in case no mandrel is used; the process is called sinking. Lubricants
may be used for smooth surface.
• The drawing stress is empirically obtained as
⎛ do ⎞ 2K ⎤
σ ⎛1+K ⎞ ⎡
=⎜ ⎟ ⎢1–⎜ ⎟ ⎥
σy ⎝ K ⎠ ⎣ ⎝ di ⎠ ⎦
where σ = Tensile stress of work material at the outlet
σy = Yield stress
K = μ cot α
α = Semi die angle
di = Diameter at inlet
do = Diameter at outlet.
• The drawing force is
π 2
F=σ× d .
4 o
FORGING
• Forging is essentially a hot working operation in which work material is shaped by compressive
forces.
• Typical forging products include connecting rods, bolts and shafts.
Forming Processes 13.3
• Smith forging is its oldest version which hammers the workpiece to produce the required shape.
• Drop forging uses impact energy to shape the work material. The serious demerit of this process
is that most of the energy goes waste as it is taken by the supporting devices.
• Press forging uses hydraulic press to compress the work material. Majority of the energy is used
in shaping. Uniform deformation and higher dimensional accuracy are characteristics of press forging.
• Forging may be performed in closed or open die; accordingly the process is termed closed-die
forging or open die forging.
• Closed-die forging confines the work material within shaped dies and pressure is more uniformly
distributed.
• Open-die forging uses flat dies and work material is not confined.
• Flash is the extra material coming out of die opening. It is undesirable and needs to be machined
for smooth surface.
• Upset forging or upsetting is localised forging operation. A portion of the work material is forged
leaving the remaining part unaffected for example, forging of bolt head.
• Upsetting can be performed in open die or closed die. In open upsetting, the unsupported length
of the workpiece (l) should not exceed three times its diameter (d) to prevent buckling. If the
length exceeds this limit then closed upsetting is preferred where die diameter, D ≤ 1.5d.
• Roll forging is used to reduce the cross-section of a cylindrical or flat workpiece by passing it
through two cylindrical rolls. Typical products of roll forging include leaf springs, hand tools and
tapered shafts.
• Swaging uses rotating dies to exert radial pressure during shaping the workpiece. It is used to
reduce the diameter or taper the ends of bars and tubes. Insulation covering on cables is one typical
example of swaging.
• Hobbing is used to produce cavity in a blank by pressing the blank against a hob made of hardened
steel. It is an economical method to produce multiple identical cavities.
EXTRUSION
• The difference between extrusion and drawing is that in drawing, a tension force is used to shape
the work material; whereas in extrusion, a compressive force is used for this purpose.
• In direct or forward extrusion, the metal flows through the die opening in the direction of force
applied.
• In indirect or backward extrusion, direction of metal flow through the die opening and direction
of force applied are opposite.
• Because of absence of friction between billet chamber and billet, lesser deformation force is required
in indirect extrusion.
• Impact extrusion uses impact energy to produce thin walled products such as toothpaste tubes, medicine
tubes, shaving cream tubes etc.
• Hydrostatic extrusion uses fluid pressure to force the metal, thus eliminating the scope of physical
contact between billet and billet chamber.
• Tube extrusion uses mandrel to shape tubular products.
• Centre burst, piping and surface cracking are common extrusion defects.
SHEET METAL OPERATIONS
• Sheet metal operations are essentially performed in cold state by means of punch and die. Typical sheet
metal products include beverage cans, food containers, automobile fuel tanks and domestic pots.
• The force required to cut a sheet metal is given by

F = τs . p . t
where τs = Shear strength of the sheet metal
p = Perimeter of the cut
t = Thickness of sheet metal.
Values of p for different sections of cut are tabulated below:
Calculation for p
Type of hole Formula for p Remarks

1. Circular hole π×D D = Diameter of hole
2. Square hole 4×a a = Side of square
l = Length of hole
3. Rectangular hole 2 (l + b) b = Breadth of hole
DEEP DRAWING
• Deep drawing, also called cup drawing, is an important sheet metal operation used to produce
cup shaped products such as cooking pots and beverage cans from a sheet metal blank.
• The ratio of blank diameter to punch diameter is called limiting drawing ratio and it is a measure
of deformation.
• The relationship between blank diameter and cup diameter during deep drawing is given as
D=√ ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
d 2 + 4dh
where D = Blank diameter
d = Cup diameter
h = Height of the cup.
• The force F required for drawing is obtained as
F = σu . π . d . t
where t = Blank thickness
σu = Ultimate tensile strength of blank material.
• To accomplish the operation in one pass, height of the cup should be less than 1.5 times its diameter.
For greater height, more than one pass is required.
• Wrinkling, tearing, earing and surface scratching are common defects found in drawn cup.
OTHER SHEET METAL OPERATIONS
• Ironing is used to obtain uniform wall thickness of the cup drawn by deep drawing.
• Redrawing is used to increase the depth of cup. It is of two types: direct redrawing and reverse
redrawing.
• Coining and embossing are used to produce impressions on a sheet metal blank by means of a
shaped die and shaped punch. In coining, lateral flow of metal is prevented. Typical products include
coins, name plates, jewelleries and medals.
• Bending is used to give a definite curvature to a sheet metal blank. V-bending and edge bending
are two common bending operations performed with V-die and wiping die respectively. Due to
spring back effect, the bent part has the tendency to revert back to its original conditions.
• Roll bending, also called roll forming, is a faster and common method for producing required curvature
in a sheet metal. It is used for large production run. Channels, gutters and panels are typical products
of roll bending.
• Stretch forming uses tensile force for reducing the thickness of a sheet metal blank. The process
is used in aircraft and automobile industries to make large panels economically.
• Spinning is used to shape a circular sheet metal blank on a rotating mandrel called former. Lamp
reflectors, domestic utensils and musical bells are typical products of spinning.
• Shear spinning is based on shear flow of metal along a conical or cylindrical former.
• Tube spinning is used to reduce thickness of tubular sections by means of a cylindrical former.
The resulting product has more thickness at base than its wall. Gas cylinder is a tube spinned
product.
• Shearing, blanking and punching are important sheet metal cutting operations.
1. Consider the following factors:

(i) Tensile stress (ii) Compressive stress
(iii) Shear stress
In forming processes, metals are subjected to
(a) (i) (b) (i) and (ii)
2. Which of the following combination of properties are favourable for forming operations?
(a) High yield strength and high ductility
(b) Low yield strength and high ductility
(c) High ductility and high ultimate strength
(d) High ductility and low ultimate strength.
3. In forging operation, workpiece is usually subjected to

(a) compressive stress (b) tensile stress
(c) shear stress (d) bending stress.
4. Consider the following factors. Sheet metal operations are:

(i) Hot working operations (ii) Cold working operations
(iii) Warm working operations
Of these
(c) (iii) is true (d) (i) and (ii) are true.
5. Consider the following statements about cold working operations:
(i) Strength of the work material is increased due to strain hardening.
(ii) Better surface finish is obtained.
(iii) Grain structure of the work material is distorted.
6. Consider the following statements about hot working operations:
(i) Deformation forces and power are significantly reduced.
(ii) Work material is easier to shape.
(iii) Strain hardening effect is missing.
7. Consider the following statements about forging:

(i) It is a hot working operation. (ii) It is a cold working operation.
(iii) It involves hammering or pressing.
8. In blanking operation, the clearance is provided
(a) 50% on punch and 50% on die
(b) only on die
(c) only on punch
(d) on die or punch depending upon designer’s choice.
9. Removal of metal particles from the receway of a rolling contact bearing, is a kind of failure of
bearing known as
(a) pitting (b) wearing (c) spalling (d) scuffing.
10. Which of the following forging operations is termed as localised forging?
(a) Precision forging (b) Upset forging
(c) Roll forging (d) Hot-die forging.
11. Which of the following operations can produce a seamless tube?
(a) Roll forging (b) Blanking
(c) Piercing (d) Embossing.
12. Hot-die forging is also known as
(a) isothermal forging (b) roll forging
(c) precision forging (d) embossing.
13. Which of the following operations can be used to provide insulation on cables?
(a) Upset forging (b) Roll forging
(c) Embossing (d) Swaging.
14. Consider the following statements about coining:

(i) It is a hot working operation.
(ii) It does not allow lateral flow of metal in the die.
(iii) Coins, metals etc. are its typical products.
15. Which of the following forging operations is also known as precision forging?
(a) Open-die forging (b) Impression-die forging
(c) Flashless forging (d) Roll forging.
16. If R be the roll radius and μ, the coefficient of friction between contact surfaces, then draft can
be expressed as
(a) μR2 (b) μ2 R
(c) μ3 R (d) μR3.
17. The typical values of coefficient of friction for cold and hot rolling operations are respectively:
(a) 0.2 and 0.3 (b) 0.1 and 0.3 (c) 0.1 and 0.4 (d) 0.2 and 0.4.
18. The roll pressure is maximum at the following location in flat rolling:
(i) At the entrance point (ii) At the exit point
(iii) At the neutral point
Of these
19. Consider the following statements about flat rolling:
(i) The frictional force is more on the entrance side than on the exit side.
(ii) The frictional force is equal on both entrance and exit sides.
(iii) Without friction, rolling is not possible and the work will slip rather than passing between
the rolls.
(c) (i) and (iii) are true (d) (iii) is true.
20. Reduction in flat rolling is defined as
(a) the ratio of original work thickness to final work thickness
(b) the ratio of final work thickness to original work thickness
(c) the ratio of draft to original work thickness
(d) difference in original work thickness and final work thickness.
21. The relationship among surface velocity of the rolls (Vr), entrance velocity of work (Vo) and exit
velocity of work (Vf ) in rolling is expressed as
(a) Vo < Vr < Vf (b) Vf < Vr < Vo

(c) Vr < Vf < Vo (d) Vo < Vf < Vr .
22. The forward slip in rolling is expressed as
Vf – Vr Vf – Vr
(a) (b)
Vf Vr
Vr Vo – Vf
(c) (d) ⋅
Vf – Vr Vr
23. The work material experiences strain during its entry and exit through rolls. If to represents original
work thickness and tf be its final thickness, then true strain is expressed as
to – tf to
(a) logn (b) logn
to to – tf
to tf
(c) logn (d) logn ⋅
tf to
24. Which of the following methods can be used for manufacturing 2 metre long seamless metallic
tubes?
(i) Drawing (ii) Extrusion
(iii) Rolling (iv) Spinning
25. Roll piercing is used to produce
(a) cooking pot (b) seamless tube
(c) railroad rail (d) crankshaft.
26. Bend allowance depends on
(i) Angle of bend (ii) Metal thickness
(iii) Bend radius
Of these
(i) Bending is a cold working operation.
(ii) Folder is used to bend a sheet metal at large bend angle.
(iii) Bending produces tensile and compressive stresses on the two sides of the workpiece.
(iv) Thickness of the metal remains unaffected during bending.
28. Consider the following statements about roll bending:

(i) It is commonly used to produce desired curvature in a sheet metal.
(ii) It uses three rolls of equal diameter.
(iii) It is also known as roll forming.
(a) (i) and (ii) are true (b) (i) is true
29. To produce a hollow section by using direct extrusion
(i) A hollow ram is used. (ii) A solid ram is used.
(iii) A mandrel is used.
Of these
(c) (i) and (ii) are true (d) (iii) is true.
30. Indirect extrusion can produce a solid section by using a
(i) Solid ram (ii) Hollow ram
(iii) Mandrel
Of these
31. Indirect extrusion can produce a hollow section by using a

(i) Solid ram (ii) Hollow ram
(iii) Mandrel
Of these
32. Which of the following metals is best suitable for extrusion, either hot or cold?
(a) Zinc (b) Magnesium
(c) Copper (d) Aluminium.

(i) Cold extrusion (ii) Warm extrusion
(iii) Hot extrusion
Which of the above processes requires lubrication?
(a) (i) (b) (iii)
(c) (ii) (d) (i) and (iii).
34. If Ao is the original cross-sectional area of the starting billet and Af , final cross-sectional area
of the extruded part, then the reduction ratio is expressed as
Ao – Af Ao
(a) (b)
Ao Ao – Af
Ao Af
(c) (d) ⋅
Af Ao
35. Consider the following statements about die materials used for hot extrusion:
(i) It should be highly wear resistant.
(ii) It should have greater hot hardness.
(iii) It should have higher thermal conductivity.
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) are true (d) (iii) is true.
36. The following operations are performed while preparing the billets for extrusion process:
(i) Alkaline cleaning (ii) Phosphate coating
(iii) Pickling (iv) Lubricating with reactive soap
The correct sequence of these operations is
(c) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii) (d) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv).
37. Compound die performs
(a) two or more operations at one station in one stroke
(b) two or more operations at different stations in one stroke
(c) only one operation and that too at one work station
(d) two operations at two different work stations in the same stroke.
38. Neutral point is the location where
(a) workpiece velocity is less than roll velocity
(b) workpiece velocity is greater than roll velocity
(c) workpiece velocity equals roll velocity
(d) workpiece velocity and roll velocity are independent of each other.
39. Lueder’s bands are found in

(a) Forging (b) Bending
(c) Rolling (d) Drawing.
40. Levelling rolls are required in the rolling of

(a) high carbon steel (b) aluminium
(c) high speed steel (d) low carbon steel.
41. Which of the following materials does not require lubrication during hot rolling?
(a) Aluminium (b) Stainless steel
(c) Copper (d) Zinc.
42. Which of the following materials produces Leuder’s bands?

(a) Mild steel (b) Stainless steel
(c) High speed steel (d) High carbon steel.
43. If Ao and Af be respectively the original and final cross-sectional areas of the stock during bar
drawing, then the area reduction is expressed as
Ao Ao – Af
(a) (b)
Ao – Af Ao
Ao Af
(c) (d) ⋅
Af Ao
44. The true strain for no friction condition is expressed as

Ao Af
(a) (b)
Af Ao
Ao Af
(c) logn (d) logn ⋅
Af Ao
45. Drawing depends on the following parameters:

(i) Die angle
(ii) Ratio of initial and final cross-sectional areas of the stock
(iii) Friction of stock-die interface
Of these
46. For maximum possible reduction in one pass under no friction condition, the maximum value of
the true strain is
(a) 0.5 (b) 1.0 (c) 1.5 (d) 2.0.
47. The maximum possible area reduction in the previous case is

(a) 0.50 (b) 0.63 (c) 0.75 (d) 1.0.
48. For bar drawing, semi-die angle may vary between
(a) 0 and 5o (b) 25 and 30o
(c) 5 and 20o (d) 20 and 25o
49. Consider the following state of stress:
(i) Compressive stress in flange (ii) Tensile stress in the wall
(iii) Tensile stress in the bottom part
During drawing operation, the states of stress in cup would include

(i) Clearance between the punch and the die is too small.
(ii) The finish at the corners of the punch is poor.
(iii) The finish at the corners of the die is poor.
(iv) The punch and die alignment is not proper.
The factors responsible for the vertical lines parallel to the axis noticed on the outside of a drawn
cylindrical cup would include
(a) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (b) (i) and (ii)
51. Which of the following factors promotes wrinkling?
(i) Increase in the ratio of thickness-to-blank diameter of work material
(ii) Decrease in the ratio of thickness-to-blank diameter of work material
(iii) Decrease in the holding force on the blank
(iv) Use of solid lubricants
Of these
(c) (ii) is true (d) (i), (ii) and (iv) are true.
52. Consider the following statements about tearing in a drawn part. It occurs
(i) When the tensile stress in the flange is high
(ii) When the tensile stress in the wall is high
(iii) When the drawn part is pulled over a sharp die corner
(iv) When the compressive stress in the base is high
Of these
(c) (iv) is true (d) (ii) is true.
53. Consider the following characteristics about a rolling process:

(i) It shows work hardening effect.
(ii) Its surface finish is no good.
(iii) Heavy reduction in areas can be obtained.
Which of these characteristics are associated with hot rolling?
54. In a rolling process, roll separating force can be decreased by

(a) reducing the roll diameter
(b) increasing the roll diameter
(c) providing back-up rolls
(d) increasing the friction between the rolls and the metal.

In forward extrusion process
(i) The ram and the extruded part travel in the same direction.
(ii) The ram and the extruded part travel in the opposite direction.
(iii) The speed of travel of the extruded part is same as that of the ram.
(iv) The speed of the travel of the extruded part is greater than that of the ram.
Which of these statements is true?
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iv).
List I List II
(Products) (Suitable processes)
A. Connecting rods 1. Welding
B. Pressure vessels 2. Extrusion
C. Machine tool beds 3. Forming
D. Collapsible tubes 4. Casting
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 1 4 2
(b) 3 2 4 1
(c) 4 1 3 2
(d) 4 2 3 1.
List I List II
(Forging operations) (Descriptions)
A. Flattening 1. Thickness is reduced continuously at
different sections along length
B. Drawing 2. Metal is displaced away from centre,
reducing thickness in middle and
increasing length
C. Fullering 3. Rod is pulled through a die
D. Wire drawing 4. Pressing a workpiece between two flat
dies
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 2 1 4
(b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 3 1 2 4
(d) 4 2 1 3.
List I List II
(Operations) (Stresses induced)
A. Blanking 1. Tension
B. Stretch forming 2. Compression
C. Coining 3. Shearing
D. Deep drawing 4. Tension and compression
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 3 4
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 2 4 3 1
(d) 3 1 2 4.
List I List II
(Processes) (Production of parts)
A. Rolling 1. Discrete parts
B. Forging 2. Rod and wire
C. Extrusion 3. Wide variety of shapes with thin walls
D. Drawing 4. Flat plates and sheets
5. Solid and hollow parts
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 5 3 4
(b) 1 2 5 4
(c) 4 1 3 2
(d) 4 1 5 2.
60. In order to get uniform thickness of the plate by rolling, one provides
(a) camber on the rolls (b) offset on the rolls
(c) hardening of the rolls (d) antifriction bearings.
61. The blank diameter used in thread rolling will be

(a) equal to minor diameter of the thread
(b) equal to pitch diameter of the thread
(c) a little larger than the minor diameter of the thread
(d) a little larger than the pitch diameter of the thread.
62. Which of the following manufacturing processes requires the provision of gutters?
(a) Closed die forging (b) Centrifugal casting
(c) Investment casting (d) Impact extrusion.
63. During cold working of a metal

(i) It is worked below room temperature.
(ii) It is worked below recrystallisation temperature.
(iii) Its hardness and strength increase.
(iv) Its hardness increases but strength remains unaffected.
Of these
64. Which of the following is the correct temperature range for hot extrusion of aluminium?
(a) 300 – 340oC (b) 350 – 400oC
(c) 430 – 480oC (d) 550 – 650oC.
List I List II
(Metal forming processes) (A similar process)
A. Blanking 1. Wire drawing
B. Coining 2. Piercing
C. Extrusion 3. Embossing
D. Cup drawing 4. Rolling
5. Bending
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 3 2 1 5
(d) 2 3 1 5.
List I List II
(Metal forming processes) (Associated force)
A. Wire drawing 1. Shear force
B. Extrusion 2. Tensile force
C. Blanking 3. Compressive force
D. Bending 4. Spring back force
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 2 1 3
(b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 4 3 2 1.
67. In metals subjected to cold working, strain hardening is due to

(a) slip mechanism (b) twinning mechanism
(c) dislocation mechanism (d) fracture mechanism.
68. In drop forging, the operation is performed by dropping
(a) the workpiece at high velocity
(b) the hammer at high velocity
(c) the die with hammer at high velocity
(d) a weight on hammer to produce the requisite impact.
69. Metal extrusion process is generally used for producing
(a) uniform solid sections (b) uniform hollow sections
(c) uniform solid and hollow sections (d) varying solid and hollow sections.
List I List II
(Components of a table fan) (Manufacturing processes)
A. Base with stand 1. Stamping and pressing
B. Blade 2. Wire drawing
C. Armature coil wire 3. Turning
D. Armature shaft 4. Casting
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 4 1 2 3.
71. Drop forging is used to produce
(a) small components (b) large components
(c) identical components in large numbers (d) medium size components.
List I List II
(Products) (Processes)
A. MS angles and channels 1. Welding
B. Carburetors 2. Forging
C. Roof trusses 3. Casting
D. Gear wheels 4. Rolling
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 1 2 4 3
(d) 4 3 1 2.
List I List II
(Metal forming processes) (Associated feature)
A. Blanking 1. Shear angle
B. Flow forming 2. Coiled stock
C. Roll forming 3. Mandrel
D. Embossing 4. Closed matching dies
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 3 4 2
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 1 3 2 4
(d) 3 1 2 4.
List I List II
(Products) (Processes)
A. Railway wagon wheels 1. Hydrostatic extrusion
B. Reactor fuel rods 2. Machine forging
C. Gear blanks 3. Rolling
D. Dished ends of pressure vessels 4. Hot spinning
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 3 4
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 3 4 2 1.
75. Extrusion force does not depend upon
(a) extrusion ratio (b) type of extrusion process
(c) material of the die (d) working temperature.
76. For mild steel, the hot forging temperature range is
(a) 400oC to 600oC (b) 700oC to 900oC
(c) 1000oC to 1200oC (d) 1300oC to 1500oC.
77. Magnesium is extruded not rolled because
(a) it has a low melting point
(b) it has a low density
(c) its reactivity with roll material is high
(d) it has a close-packed hexagonal structure.
List I List II
A. Drawing 1. Soap solution
B. Rolling 2. Camber
C. Wire drawing 3. Pilots
D. Sheet metal operations using 4. Crater
progressive dies
5. Ironing
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 5 1 4
(b) 4 1 5 3
(c) 5 2 3 4
(d) 5 2 1 3.
79. Tandem drawing of wires and tubes is necessary because
(a) it is not possible to reduce the diameter in one stage
(b) annealing is needed between stages
(c) accuracy in dimension is not possible otherwise
(d) surface finish improves after every drawing stage.
80. Which of the following pairs of process and draft is correctly matched?
(i) Rolling — 2
(ii) Extrusion — 50
(iii) Forging — 4
Codes:
81. For obtaining a cup of diameter 25 mm and height 15 mm by drawing, the size of the round blank
should be approximately
(a) 42 mm (b) 44 mm
(c) 46 mm (d) 48 mm.
82. Which of the following processes is most commonly used for the forging of bolt heads of hexagonal
shape?
(a) Closed die drop forging (b) Open die upset forging
(c) Closed die press forging (d) Open die progressive forging.
83. The forging defect due to hindrance to smooth flow of metal in the component called ‘Lap’ occurs
because
(a) the corner radius provided is too large
(b) the corner radius provided is too small
(c) draft is not provided

(d) the shrinkage allowance is inadequate.
84. Rolling very thin strips of mild steel requires
(a) large diameter rolls (b) small diameter rolls
(c) high speed rolling (d) rolling without a lubricant.
85. Consider the following operations involved in forging a hexagonal bolt from a round bar stock,
whose diameter is equal to the bolt diameter:
(i) Flattening (ii) Upsetting
(iii) Swaging (iv) Cambering
The correct sequence of these operation is
(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (b) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
(c) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv) (d) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv).
86. The power required during rolling varies
(i) Directly proportional to roll gap (ii) Inversely proportional to roll gap
(iii) Directly proportional to roll force (iv) Directly proportional to roll speed
Of these
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) are true (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are true.
87. The roll force in rolling varies
(i) Directly proportional to roll gap
(ii) Inversely proportional to roll gap
(iii) Directly proportional to width of work material
(iv) Inversely proportional to width of work material
Of these
88. Levelling rolls are required in
(a) rolling (b) roll bending
(c) roll forging (d) swaging.
(i) Tool steel (ii) Carbides
(iii) Diamond (iv) Copper
Which of the above materials is used to make die for drawing?
(a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
90. Deep drawing can be used to produce
(i) Cooking pots (ii) Beverage cans
(iii) Automobile fuel tanks (iv) Connecting rods
Of these
Earing in a drawn cup can be due to non-uniform
(i) Speed of the press (ii) Clearance between tools
(iii) Material properties (iv) Blank holding
Which of these statements is correct?
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii) and (iv).
92. Ironing is used to
(a) increased wall thickness of the drawn cup
(b) obtain uniform wall thickness in the drawn cup
(c) decrease wall thickness of the drawn cup
(d) decrease the diameter of a rod.
93. Redrawing is used to
(a) obtain more reduction in diameters of rods and tubes
(b) increase length of the rods and tubes
(c) increase depth of drawn cup
(d) increase diameter of drawn cup.
94. Consider the following statements about embossing:
(i) It is used to make impressions on a sheet metal blank.
(ii) It is a hot working operation.
(iii) It does not allow lateral flow of metal in the die.
(iv) Punch and die have opposite configurations.
(a) (i) and (ii) are true (b) (i) and (iv) are true
95. The force required to bend a sheet metal varies
(i) Directly proportional to the square of metal thickness
(ii) Directly proportional to die opening
(iii) Inversely proportional to die opening
(iv) Inversely proportional to the metal thickness
Of these
(c) (i) and (iii) are true (d) (iii) and (iv) are true.
96. Spring back effect is found in
(a) forging (b) bending (c) rolling (d) drawing.
97. A cup of 10 cm height and 5 cm diameter is to be made from a sheet metal of 2 mm thickness.
The number of reductions necessary will be
(a) one (b) two (c) three (d) four.
98. Consider the following statements about stretch forming:
(i) It is used to reduce sheet metal thickness.
(ii) It can reduce thickness upto 50%.
(iii) The work material suffers from strain-hardening effect.
(iv) Aircraft industry uses this process.
(a) (i) and (ii) are true (b) (i), (iii) and (iv) are true
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) are true (d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are true.
99. Which of the following is the basic forging operation?

(a) Roll forging (b) Swaging
(c) Precision forging (d) Smith forging.
100. Consider the following statements about spinning:
(i) It is a hot working operation.
(ii) It uses a mandrel to shape an object.
(iii) It can produce axi-symmetric parts.
(iv) The work material has circular shape.
101. Consider the following statements about spinning:

(i) It is a sheet metal operation.
(ii) It uses a rotating former.
(iii) Musical bells and lamp reflectors are typical spinning products.
(iv) It is usually performed in cold state.
(a) (ii) is true (b) (ii) and (iv) are true
102. Mandrel is used in

(i) Piercing (ii) Tube extrusion
(iii) Spinning (iv) Forging
Of these
(a) (ii) is true (b) (i) and (ii) are true
List I List II
A. Shear spinning 1. Reduces sheet metal thickness
B. Tube spinning 2. Semi cone angle
C. Impact extrusion 3. Higher deformation force
D. Direct extrusion 4. No friction
5. Collapsible medicine tubes
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 5 3
(b) 1 2 5 3
(c) 4 1 5 3
(d) 2 1 5 4.
List I List II
(Extrusion processes) (Related description)
A. Direct extrusion 1. Mandrel
B. Indirect extrusion 2. No friction
C. Hydrostatic extrusion 3. Stationary die
D. Tube extrusion 4. Moving die
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 2 3 1
(b) 3 2 4 1
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 3 4 1 2.
List I List II
A. Hubbing 1. Cable insulation
B. Piercing 2. Bolt-head
C. Swaging 3. Identical multiple cavities
D. Upset forging 4. Seamless tubes
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 3 1 2 4.

(i) Cutting (ii) Bending
(iii) Drawing
Sheet metal work includes
(i) Cold working operation. (ii) Warm working operation.
(iii) Hot working operation.
Sheet metal work is
(a) (i) (b) (iii) (c) (ii) (d) (i) and (iii).
108. The normal range of thickness for sheet metal is
(a) 4 mm to 8 mm (b) 3 mm to 5 mm
(c) 0.4 mm to 6 mm (d) 0.4 mm to 1 mm.
(i) Extrusion (ii) Forging
(iii) Drawing (iv) Rolling
Which of the above operations is used to manufacture sheets and plates?
(c) (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv).
(i) Shearing (ii) Blanking
(iii) Punching
Pressworking operation includes
(a) (i) (b) (i) and (ii)
111. In bending, the upper and the lower part of the sheet metal are respectively subjected to
(a) compression and tension (b) compression and shear
(c) tension and compression (d) tension and shear.
112. What is the effect of spring back?
(i) Bent radius decreases. (ii) Bent radius remains unaffected.
(iii) Bent radius increases. (iv) Bending stress increases.
Of these
(c) (iii) is true (d) (i) and (iv) are true.
113. If θ and α be respectively the included angle of the punch and the sheet metal part, then spring
back is expressed as
α–θ θ–α
(a) (b)
θ α
α θ
(c) (d) ⋅
θ–α θ–α
114. The bending force depends on the following parameters:

(i) Punch and die configuration (ii) Tensile strength of sheet metal
(iii) Thickness of sheet metal
Of these
115. In deep drawing, a cup-shaped object is formed. If D be the diameter of the sheet metal blank
and d, the punch diameter, then the drawing ratio is defined as
d D
(a) (b)
D d
D–d D–d
(c) (d) ⋅
D d
116. The maximum value of the drawing ratio can be
(a) 0.5 (b) 1.0 (c) 1.5 (d) 2.0.
117. In deep drawing, the ratio of sheet metal blank thickness to its diameter should be
(a) equal to one percent (b) equal to two percent
(c) less than one percent (d) greater than one percent.
118. The reduction in sheet-metal drawing is defined as
D d
(a) (b)
D–d D–d
D–d d–D
(c) (d)
D D
where D = Blank diameter
d = Punch diameter.
119. The desirable value of reduction is
(a) 0.5 (b) 1.0
(c) less than 0.5 (d) greater than 0.5.
120. The maximum reduction for first draw is
(a) 20% (b) 25% (c) 30% (d) 40%.
121. The maximum reduction for first redraw is

(a) 5% (b) 10% (c) 20% (d) 30%.
122. The maximum reduction for second redraw is
(a) 10% (b) 16% (c) 20% (d) 25%.

(i) Reverse drawing (ii) Redrawing
(iii) Deep drawing
Earing usually occurs in
(a) (i) (b) (ii)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (iii).
(i) Surfaces of punch and die are rough.
(ii) Lubrication is not proper.
(iii) Punch and die have sharp corners.
(iv) Sheet metal blank is not homogeneous and isotropic.
Which of the above factors is responsible for surface scratching on a drawn part?
125. Which of the following defects occurs on the vertical walls of a drawn part near its base?
(i) Earing (ii) Wrinkling
(iii) Tearing
Of these
(c) (ii) and (iii) are true (d) (iii) is true.
126. Ironing results in
(i) Uniform wall thickness of the drawn cup.
(ii) Thinner wall thickness of the drawn cup.
(iii) Thicker wall thickness of the drawn cup.
Of these
127. In shear spinning, the relationship between original thickness to and final thickness tf of a sheet
metal blank with α being semi cone angle of the mandrel is expressed as
(a) to = tf cos α (b) tf = to sin α
(c) tf = to cos α (d) tf = to tan α.
128. Tube spinning is used to

(a) reduce wall thickness of a cylindrical part
(b) increase wall thickness of a cylindrical part
(c) increase length of a cylindrical part
(d) reduce wall thickness and increase length of a cylindrical part.
129. Tube spinning
(i) Reduces external wall thickness of a cylindrical part.
(ii) Reduces internal wall thickness of a cylindrical part.

(iii) Reduces both external and internal thicknesses of a cylindrical part.
(iv) Increases the internal diameter of a cylindrical part.
Of these
130. In sheet metal work, the cutting force on the tool can be reduced by
(a) grinding the cutting sharp edges
(b) increasing the hardness of tool
(c) providing shear on tool
(d) increasing the hardness of die.
131. A moving mandrel is used in
(a) wire drawing (b) tube drawing
(c) metal cutting (d) forging.
132. In sheet metal blanking, shear is provided on punches and dies so that
(a) press load is reduced (b) good cut edge is obtained
(c) warping of sheet is minimised (d) cut blanks are straight.
133. The mode of deformation of the metal during spinning is
(a) bending (b) stretching
(c) rolling and stretching (d) bending and stretching.
134. The tool for spinning copper is usually made of
(a) brass (b) copper (c) tool steel (d) aluminium.
135. The initial shape of sheet metal blank in spinning is
(a) triangular (b) rectangular
(c) circular (d) square.
136. Spinning involves combined action of
(a) bending and stretching (b) shear and stretching
(c) compressing and stretching (d) shear and compressing.
137. Sinking uses
(a) mandrel of round size (b) mandrel of square size
(c) mandrel of conical size (d) no mandrel.
138. Tube spinning can suitably replace
(a) bending (b) drawing
(c) deep drawing (d) extrusion.
139. Coining resembles
(a) upset forging (b) flashless forging
(c) open-die forging (d) swaging.
ANSWERS
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (d)
7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (b) 11. (c) 12. (a)
13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (c)
19. (c) 20. (c) 21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (b)
25. (b) 26. (d) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (d) 30. (b)
31. (a) 32. (d) 33. (b) 34. (c) 35. (c) 36. (d)
37. (a) 38. (c) 39. (c) 40. (d) 41. (b) 42. (a)
43. (b) 44. (c) 45. (c) 46. (b) 47. (b) 48. (c)
49. (a) 50. (d) 51. (c) 52. (b) 53. (c) 54. (a)
55. (a) 56. (a) 57. (b) 58. (d) 59. (d) 60. (a)
61. (b) 62. (a) 63. (c) 64. (b) 65. (d) 66. (c)
67. (a) 68. (b) 69. (c) 70. (d) 71. (b) 72. (d)
73. (c) 74. (a) 75. (c) 76. (c) 77. (c) 78. (d)
79. (a) 80. (c) 81. (c) 82. (b) 83. (b) 84. (b)
85. (b) 86. (c) 87. (b) 88. (a) 89. (b) 90. (c)
91. (c) 92. (b) 93. (c) 94. (b) 95. (c) 96. (b)
97. (b) 98. (b) 99. (d) 100. (b) 101. (d) 102. (c)
103. (a) 104. (c) 105. (b) 106. (c) 107. (a) 108. (c)
109. (c) 110. (d) 111. (c) 112. (c) 113. (a) 114. (d)
115. (b) 116. (d) 117. (d) 118. (c) 119. (c) 120. (d)
121. (d) 122. (b) 123. (d) 124. (a) 125. (d) 126. (a)
127. (b) 128. (d) 129. (c) 130. (a) 131. (b) 132. (c)
133. (d) 134. (c) 135. (c) 136. (a) 137. (d) 138. (c)
139. (b).
1. What is the similarity and dissimilarity between drawing and extrusion?

Answer Drawing operation uses a tensile force, whereas extrusion a compressive force. Both
drawing and extrusion operations are used to reduce the cross-section of a work material.
2. How are sheet metal operations different than bulk deformation processes?
Answer In sheet metal operations, the surface area-to-volume ratio of the starting metal is higher
in contrast to lower value of this ratio in bulk deformation processes. The former includes bending
and drawing and the latter rolling, forging and extrusion.
3. What is the difference between cold working and hot working operations?
Answer Cold working operations are performed below recrystallisation temperatures (mostly room
temperatures) and do not involve heating of the work material. Hot working operations are performed
above the recrystallisation temperature of the work material. Cold working requires large deformation
forces and distorts the grain structure, whereas hot working needs small deformation forces and
refines the grain structure.
4. Give two examples each of cold and hot working operations.

Answer Cold working operations—Drawing and rolling.
Hot working operations—Forging and extrusion.
5. What is the approximate relationship between melting point and recrystallisation temperature of
a metal?
Answer The recrystallisation temperature is approximately one-half of the melting point of a
metal on absolute scale.
6. What are warm working operations?
Answer Warm working operations are performed above the room temperature but below the
recrystallisation temperature of a metal. The required temperature is approximately one-third of
the melting point on absolute scale for a given metal.
7. What is the difference between open-die and closed-die forging?

Answer In open-die forging, the work material is compressed between two flat open dies.
In closed-die forging, the work material is compressed between two shaped dies which confines
the material.
8. What is the difference between impression-die forging and flashless forging?

Answer In impression-die forging, the work material can expand laterally coming out of die
opening and forming flash.
In flashless forging, the work material is completely confined within the dies and no flash is formed.
Coining is a suitable example of flashless forging.
9. What is flash?
Answer Flash is the excess work material squeezed out through die opening during compression.
10. Name few important products made out of forging.

Answer Crankshafts, connecting rods and jet engine turbine parts.
11. What important property is achieved by forging which is not obtainable by other machining operations?
Answer Forging orients work material grains into desired direction in order to get specific properties.
12. What is drop forging?
Answer In drop forging, impact energy is used to shape the work material.
13. What is the serious demerit of drop forging?
Answer Most of the impact energy of drop forging is taken by the anvil and other supporting
structures which goes as a waste and very few energy is fruitfully utilised for shaping the work
material.
14. What is the difference between swaging and radial forging?

Answer Swaging uses rotating dies and exerts radial pressure on the work material. In radial
forging, the dies do not rotate rather the work material rotates.
15. Is rolling performed in cold or hot state?
Answer Rolling is performed in both cold and hot state.
16. What is draft?

Answer The difference between the original thickness and the final thickness of the work material
is called draft.
17. How is neutral point defined?
Answer Neutral point, also known as no-slip point, is the location where work velocity and
roll velocity are equal.
18. Name the parameters affecting coefficient of friction in rolling.
Answer Work material, working temperature and lubrication.
19. Why is crankshaft usually made by forging rather than casting?
Answer A cast part is made of randomly oriented fixed grains and is essentially isotropic in
nature. In forging, grains can be made to move in desired direction by applying external force
to obtain improved mechanical properties. Because of this property of forging, a forged part such
as crankshaft has better shock and fatigue resistance.
20. What is the difference between direct and indirect extrusion?
Answer In direct extrusion, work material is forced from behind through a solid ram and it
comes out through a die opening in the direction of motion of the ram.
In indirect extrusion, the work material is forced to come out through a die opening in a direction
opposite to the motion of the ram. It uses a hollow as well as a solid ram.
21. What is the shape of the starting billet in direct extrusion?
Answer Starting billet is of circular cross-section.
22. It is not possible to extrude the entire work material and there is always some portion left unextruded.
What is the name of the unextruded portion left?
Answer Butt.
23. What are the other names used for direct and indirect extrusion?
Answer Direct extrusion is also called forward extrusion and indirect extrusion is also known
as backward extrusion or reverse extrusion.
24. Name the metals which are typically suitable for hot extrusion.
Answer Aluminium, copper, magnesium, tin, zinc and their alloys.
25. Steel alloys are extruded hot or cold?

Answer Due to their greater hardness and more force and power requirements in cold state,
steel alloys are usually extruded in hot state.
26. Why is a lubricant used in hot extrusion?
Answer Use of lubricant reduces friction, thereby ensuring smooth flow of work material in
the extrusion chamber.
27. Why is more force required in direct extrusion than indirect extrusion?
Answer There is a physical contact between the work material and the walls of the container
in direct extrusion. It produces friction between the two and to overcome friction, more force is
required.
28. Name the die materials used for hot extrusion.

Answer Alloy steels and tool steels.
29. Name the extrusion process used for making toothpaste tubes and battery cases.
Answer Impact extrusion.
30. How is hydrostatic extrusion different from direct extrusion?
Answer In hydrostatic extrusion, the work (billet) is surrounded by a fluid and there is no physical
contact between the work and the walls of the container. It drastically reduces the friction between
the two, thereby decreasing the ram force significantly. In direct extrusion, such contact exists which
is the major cause of friction between the two. It increases ram force to be applied.
31. Tube drawing can be performed with or without a mandrel. Which of the two situations is difficult
and why?
Answer Mandrel guides the work material and controls the inside diameter of the tube as well
as its thickness and hence it makes the process easier. Without mandrel, uniform wall thickness
and desired inside diameter are difficult to achieve.
32. What is wrinkling? How does it occur?
Answer Wrinkling is one of the defects found in a drawn product. It can occur in the flange
as well as in the wall. In the flange, it appears in the form of horizontal lines and in the wall
as vertical lines. Wrinkling depends on the thickness-to-diameter ratio of the blank. The tendency
for wrinkling decreases with increase in thickness-to-diameter of the blank and vice-versa.
33. What are the common defects that occur in drawn parts?
Answer Common defects occuring in drawn parts include wrinkling, tearing, earing and surface
scratch.
34. What is tearing? How does it occur?
Answer Tearing is a defect that occurs in deep drawn parts. It is in the form of discontinuity
in the vertical wall near the base of the part. It occurs due to two reasons:
(a) When the tensile stress in the wall is very high.
(b) When the part is drawn through a sharp edged die.
35. What is earing and how does it occur?
Answer Earing is a defect which looks like curved shape of an ear and it occurs in the upper
edge of the drawn part due to anisotropy of the work material.
36. What is high energy rate forming?
Answer High energy rate forming (HERF) is a sheet-metal operation used to produce die shaped
cavity using high energy devices. Explosive forming, electrohydraulic forming and electromagnetic
forming are high energy rate forming operations.
37. What is the principle of explosive forming?
Answer Explosive forming uses the explosion energy of a detonator to shape the sheet metal.
38. What is the difference between metal sheet and plate?
Answer The thickness of the sheet metal lies normally between 0.4 mm and 6 mm. If its thickness
exceeds 6 mm, then the resulting product is called a plate.
39. By which name are sheet-metal products known?

Answer Stampings.
40. What is the difference between blanking and punching?

Answer In blanking, the cut out part, known as blank, is useful and the remaining part is considered
as a waste. In punching, the cut out part, known as slug, is considered as a waste and the remaining
part is useful.
41. What is shearing?

Answer Shearing is a sheet-metal cutting operation in which large size sheets are cut into smaller
segments.
42. Enlist sheet metal cutting operations.
Answer Shearing, blanking, punching, cutoff, parting, slotting, perforating, notching, trimming,
shaving and so on.
43. What is slotting?
Answer Slotting is basically a punching operation used to produce an elongated or rectangular
hole.
44. What is perforating?
Answer Perforating is chiefly a punching operation which can produce a number of similar size
holes in a sheet metal.
45. What is notching?

Answer Notching involves cutting out of a certain portion from the sides of a sheet metal blank.
V-notch and rectangular notches are shown below.
Figure 13.1
46. What is the difference between notching and seminotching?

Answer Notching removes metal from the sides of a sheet metal whereas seminotching removes
metal from its interior.
47. What is shaving?
Answer Shaving is basically a finishing operation performed on a sheet metal to smoothen its
sharped cut edges in order to make it dimensionally more accurate.
48. What is the difference between V-bending and edge bending?

Answer V-bending involves bending of a sheet metal blank in the V-form by means of V-shaped
punch and die. Edge bending involves bending of edge of the sheet metal blank at 90o or less.
49. What is springback?

Answer During bending, on removal of bending load from the bent part, the part has the tendency
to reverse back to its original shape partially, thereby increasing the bent radius. This phenomenon
is called springback.
50. Differentiate between flanging and hemming.
Answer In flanging, a sheet metal blank is usually bent at 90o at its edge. In hemming, edge
of the sheet metal is bent on itself to ensure safety.
51. What does the higher value of drawing ratio indicate?
Answer Higher value of drawing ratio is indicative of larger deformation force requirement.
52. Name the common defects occuring in sheet-metal drawing.
Answer Wrinkling, tearing, earing and surface scratching are common defects in sheet-metal draw-
ing.
53. What are coining and embossing?
Answer Both coining and embossing are sheet metal operations used to make impressions or
indentations on a sheet metal blank. The former produces raised sections in a part such as coin
and the latter raised lettering as in case of name plates and medals.
54. How does embossing differ from coining?
Answer Punch and die used in embossing have essentially fitting cavity contours and one side
of the embossed part is the reverse of the other. Coining can have different cavity contours in
punch and die.
55. What is stretch forming?
Answer Stretch forming consists of stretching a sheet metal by applying a tension force and
then subjecting it simultaneously to bending to give it the required shape.
56. Where is stretch forming used?
Answer Stretch forming is widely used in aircraft and automobile industries to make large panels
economically.
57. What is roll bending?
Answer Roll bending is used to bend a sheet metal blank into the desired curvature by means
of rolls. It is also known as roll forming.
58. What are the important products made by roll bending?
Answer Channels, gutters and structural sections such as frames.
59. Which type of products are made by spinning?
Answer Spinning is used to produce axisymmetric parts such as lamp reflectors, cooking utensils
and musical bells.
1. Cold working operations require larger deformation forces.
2. The strength of the hot worked products is increased due to strain hardening.
3. Recrystallisation distorts grain structure.

4. Forging is essentially a hot working operation.
5. Drop forging utilizes press energy fruitfully.
6. Upsetting is a localized forging operation.
7. Coining is a bulk deformation process.
8. Frictional contact is missing in direct extrusion.
9. Sinking uses round mandrel for shaping the work material.
10. Redrawing is used to increase the width of drawn cup.
11. Open die forging produces more dimensionally accurate parts.
12. Extrusion uses a tension force during shaping of the work material.
13. Drawing and deep drawing are essentially sheet metal operations.
14. Blanking is a shearing operation.
15. Embossing uses matching dies.
16. A rectangular sheet metal blank is used in spinning.
17. The pressure is maximum at the neutral point in flat rolling.
ANSWERS
1. T 2. F 3. F 4. T 5. F 6. T
7. F 8. F 9. F 10. F 11. F 12. F
13. F 14. T 15. T 16. F 17. T.
NUMERICAL PROBLEMS
Problem 13.1 A cup of 50 mm diameter and 20 mm height is to be produced by drawing
from a 1.5 mm thick sheet metal. Find the blank diameter and the maximum drawing force. Assume
ultimate strength of the sheet metal to be 650 MN.
Solution Given,
Diameter of the cup, d = 50 mm
Height of the cup, h = 20 mm
Thickness of sheet metal, t = 1.5 mm
Ultimate strength of sheet metal,
σu = 650 MN
The blank diameter, D is given as
D=√
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
d 2 + 4dh
=√
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
502 + 4 × 50 × 20
= 80.62 mm Ans.
80.62
The drawing ratio is = 1.612.
50
Hence the cup is assumed to be drawn in one operation. The maximum force required is
F = πdt . σu
50 1.5
=π× × × 650 × 106 N
1000 1000
= 1.53 × 105 N Ans.

Problem 13.2 Rolling is used to reduce the thickness of a plate 15 mm thick by 3 mm
using cylindrical rolls of diameter 400 mm. Calculate the bite angle.
Solution Refer Figure 13.2.
Figure 13.2
Given,
Initial thickness of workpiece, t1 = 15 mm
Final thickness of workpiece, t2 = (15 – 3) mm
= 12 mm
Diameter of roll, D = 400 mm
< AOC is the bite angle (β) to be determined.
t1 – t2
BC =
2
OC
In Δ AOC, cos β =
OA
OB – BC
=
OA
(D ⁄ 2) – (t1 – t2) ⁄ 2
=
D⁄2
⎛ 400 ⎞ ⎛ 3 ⎞
⎜ ⎟–⎜ ⎟
⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎝2⎠
=
⎛ 400 ⎞
⎜ ⎟
⎝ 2 ⎠
= 0.9925
∴ β = 7.02o Ans.
Problem 13.3 A cylindrical block of diameter do and height ho is forged to a disc of diameter
df and height hf in an open die forging operation:
(i) Determine the final disc diameter, df .
(ii) Determine the true strain in the longitudinal direction.
(iii) Show that the true longitudinal strain is twice the true radial strain.
Solution (i) Assuming that the volume of the work material before and after forging remains
constant, we have
π 2 π
d h = d2 h
4 o o 4 f f
do2 ho = df2 hf
or df = ⎯√ hh ⋅ d
o
f
o Ans.
(ii) The true strain in the longitudinal direction is given as

ho
dh
∈l = – ∫
h
h
h
= – (logn h)ho
= – (logn ho – logn h)
= logn h – logn ho
h
= logn Ans.
ho
(iii) The volume is expressed as
V = Ah = Constant (A = Cross−sectional area)
∴ A dh + h dA = 0
dh dA
or =–
h A
The longitudinal strain is
A
dh dA
∈l = – ∫ = ∫ ...(i)
h A
Ao
The area A can be expressed as

A = πr 2 (r = Radius)
∴ dA = 2πr . dr
Substituting dA in Equation (i), we have
r
2πr . dr
∈l = ∫ πr 2
ro
r
dr
=2 ∫ r
ro
r
= 2 (logn r)r
o
= 2 (logn r – logn ro)

r
= 2 logn
ro
= 2∈r
Hence, the true longitudinal strain is twice the true radial strain.
Problem 13.4 A 10 mm circular hole is required to be cut in a 2 mm thick sheet metal.
Estimate the cutting force required assuming the shear strength of the sheet metal to be 275 MN/m2.
Solution Given,
Diameter of circular hole, D = 10 mm
Thickness of sheet metal, t = 2 mm
Shear strength, τs = 275 MN ⁄ m2
The cutting force required is
F = τs × p × t
= τs × π × D × t
10 2
= 275 × 106 × π × × N
1000 1000
= 5.5 kN Ans.
REVIEW QUESTIONS
1. What is plastic deformation? How is it different from elastic deformation?
2. What is recrystallisation temperature?
3. Differentiate between hot working and cold working operations.

4. What is strain hardening?
5. What is flash? Is it desirable?
6. How does closed die forging differ from open die forging?
7. What is the difference between drawing and extrusion?
8. How does hydrostatic extrusion differ from other extrusion processes?
9. Differentiate between blanking and punching.
10. For what purpose mandrel is used?
11. How does deep drawing differ from bar drawing?
12. What is redrawing?
13. Differentiate between embossing and coining.
14. What is spring back? What is its effect?
15. Differentiate between drop and press forging. Which forging process is more useful and why?
16. How does tube swaging differ from normal swaging?
17. Differentiate between direct and indirect extrusion.
18. For which type of products impact extrusion is useful?
19. What is spinning? Name few products made out of it.
20. Name few typical tube spinned products.
C H A P T E R
14
Metrology
• Metrology is the science of measurement.

• SI (International Standard) unit is universally accepted. It is also called metric units of standard.
There are seven basic and two supplementary SI units. They are shown in Tables 14.1 and 14.2,
respectively.
Table 14.1 Basic units
Quantity Unit Symbol

Length Metre m
Mass Kilogram kg
Time Second s
Electric current Ampere A
Temperature Kelvin K
Luminous Intensity Candela cd
Amount of substance Mole mol
Table 14.2 Supplementary units
Quantity Unit Symbol

Plane angle Radian rad
Solid angle Steradian sr
• The important characteristics of a measuring instrument are: accuracy, sensitivity and repeatability.
• There are six degrees of freedom: three linear and three rotational.
• A surface plate is used as a reference surface to measure the flatness of a given surface. It may
be made of cast iron or granite.
• A straight edge is used to check straightness and flatness of parts.
• Line measurement is connected with the measurement of distance between two lines or edges.
• End measurement is connected with the measurement of distance between two surfaces.
• Vernier Caliper and micrometer are line measuring instruments and slip gauges are end measuring
instruments.
• Vernier calipers can measure both internal and external dimensions.
• Vernier height depth gauge is used to measure height of a surface or depth of a hole.
• A spirit level is usually used to test the position of a surface with respect to horizontal position.
• Gauge blocks, also called slip gauges, are used for linear measurements. They are made of hardened
steel.
• Comparators are used as an inspection tool for comparison between two measured dimensions. Important
comparators include mechanical, hydraulic, optical, pneumatic and electronic.
• Johansson Mikrokator, Sigma and Dial indicator are mechanical comparators.
• Dial indicator is the most widely used mechanical comparator and is of two types: plunger and
lever type.
• Try square is used to measure perpendicularity of two surfaces of a component.
• Sine bar is used for accurate angular measurement in conjunction with slip gauges.
• An angle gauge is a hardened steel block used to measure angles.
• An autocollimator is used to measure small angular differences using optical principle.
• Micrometer is used for the fine measurements of linear dimensions both internal and external.
• Bevel protractor is used for measuring angles.
• Clinometer is used to measure included angle between two adjacent faces of an object.
• An optical flat is used to measure the flatness of a surface accurately using principle of interference
of light.
• Transducers convert linear displacement into an electrical signal.
• Screw threads are helical grooves made on a cylindrical or conical part. They are used as fastening
devices as well as for power transmission.
• Components such as stud, bolt and nut have screw threads.
• Square threads are suitable for power transmission.
• V-threads are used in fastening devices.
• Buttress threads are used for power transmission in one direction only.
• A coordinate measuring machine (CMM) is a computer numerical controlled machine used for the
dimensional inspection of parts. Most common is a three dimensional CMM which can measure
dimensions in X, Y and Z directions.
1. Surface plate is used to measure

(a) flatness (b) straightness
(c) roundness (d) squareness.
2. Ra value is used to measure

(a) flatness (b) roughness
(c) roundness (d) straightness.
Metrology 14.3
3. A surface plate is made of

(a) aluminium (b) brass
(c) cast iron (d) steel.
4. The included angle of the V-block is
(a) 45o (b) 60o (c) 90o (d) 120o
5. V-blocks are used
(a) to test the flatness of a surface (b) to hold cylindrical pieces
(c) to hold triangular pieces (d) to measure the roundness of a surface.
6. A straight edge is used
(i) To check straightness of parts (ii) To measure roundness
(iii) To check flatness of parts (iv) To check parallelism
Of these
(c) (iv) is true (d) (ii) and (iv) are true.
(i) A vernier caliper is used for precise measurements.
(ii) A vernier caliper can be used for both inside and outside measurements.
(iii) Micrometer gives more accurate measurement with respect to vernier caliper.
(iv) Engineer’s rule is used for angular measurement.
(a) (ii) is true (b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are true
(c) (iii) and (iv) are true (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are true.
(i) A comparator with higher magnification has small range.
(ii) Brooke’s level comparator is a mechanical comparator.
(iii) Sigma comparator is an optical comparator.
(iv) Johansson Mikrokator is a pneumatic comparator.
(c) (ii) and (iii) are true (d) (iii) and (iv) are true.
(i) Mechanical comparators are used for higher accuracy.
(ii) Optical comparators use both optical and mechanical means to get magnification.
(iii) Pneumatic comparators are used for very high magnification.
(iv) Dial indicator is the most widely used mechanical comparator.
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are true (d) (iii) is true.
List I List II
A. Feeler gauges 1. End measurement
B. Slip gauges 2. Line measurement
C. Micrometer 3. Clearance between components
D. Surface plates 4. Flat surfaces
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 2 1 3
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 3 2 1 4
(d) 4 1 2 3.
List I List II
(Physical quantities) (SI units)
A. Pressure 1. Joule (J)
B. Work 2. Kelvin (K)
C. Temperature 3. Pascal (Pa)
D. Power 4. Degree centrigate (oC)
5. Joule/sec (J/S)
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 5 1 4 3
(b) 3 5 4 1
(c) 3 1 2 5
(d) 3 1 4 5.
12. Mole is the SI unit of
(a) work (b) amount of substance
(c) force (d) power.
13. Newton-metre (N.m) is equivalent to
(a) Erg (b) Watt
(c) Joule (d) Dyne.
14. kg . m2 . s–3 is the unit of

(a) work (b) force
(c) momentum (d) power.
15. kg . m2 . s–2 is the unit of

(a) work (b) force
(c) momentum (d) power.
Metrology 14.5
List I List II
A. Sine bar 1. Optical principles
B. Auto-collimator 2. Slip gauge
C. Clinometer 3. Small linear measurement
D. Micrometer 4. Included angle
5. Compares linear measurements
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 3 5 1
(b) 4 2 3 1
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 2 1 5 3.
List I List II
A. Mechanical comparator 1. Variable inductance
B. Pneumatic comparator 2. Dial indicator
C. Electrical comparator 3. Higher accuracy
D. Optical comparator 4. Air pressure
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 4 2 1 3
(d) 1 4 3 2.
(i) Vernier caliper is a precision measuring instrument.
(ii) Micrometer can be used to measure internal and external dimensions as well as height of
an object.
(iii) Divider is an indirect measuring device.
(iv) Least count is the smallest dimension measured by an instrument.
(i) Straight edge can check straightness and flatness of a part.
(ii) Bevel protractor is a linear measuring instrument.
(iii) Feeler gauges are used to measure clearance between work and tool.
(iv) Slip gauges are made of hardened steel.
(a) (i), (iii) and (iv) are true (b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are true
20. Consider the following statements about a surface plate:

(i) It is used for linear and angular measurement.
(ii) It is used for testing the flatness of a surface.
(iii) It is made of cast iron or granite.
(i) Pitch circle is an imaginary circle.
(ii) Module is the ratio of pitch circle diameter to the number of teeth.
(iii) Addendum is the radial distance between addendum circle and pitch circle.
(i) Profile projector is an optical instrument.
(ii) Square threads are used for power transmission.
(iii) Lead is the axial distance moved by the screw thread in one revolution.
(iv) Pitch diameter is the smallest diameter.
(a) (iii) and (iv) are true (b) (i) and (ii) are true
23. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list:
List I List II
A. Addendum 1. Radial distance between bottom land and
pitch circle
B. Dedendum 2. Radial distance between top land and pitch
circle
C. Lead 3. Axial distance covered in one revolution
D. Pitch 4. Axial distance between two consecutive
threads
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 3 4
(b) 2 1 4 3
Metrology 14.7
(c) 1 2 3 4
(d) 4 2 1 3.

(i) Module and diametral pitch are reverse of each other.
(ii) Auto collimator is an optical instrument used to measure straightness and flatness.
(iii) Pitch circle diameter is the smallest diameter of a screw thread.
(a) (ii) and (iii) are true
(b) (i) and (ii) are true
(c) (i) and (iii) are true
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are true.
(i) V-threads are used in fastening devices.
(ii) Square threads are used in power transmission.
(iii) Metric threads are V-shaped.
(iv) Lead is the axial distance between two consecutive threads.
26. Try square is used

(i) To check perpendicularity of two surfaces.
(ii) For angular measurements.
(iii) To measure flatness of a surface.
Of these
27. Consider the following instruments:
(i) Caliper (ii) Sine bar
(iii) Micrometer (iv) Bevel Protractor.
Angle measuring instruments include
(c) (iv) (d) (ii) and (iv).
28. With respect to Question 27, linear measurement instruments include
(c) (iv) (d) (ii) and (iv).
29. Interferometry is used to measure
(a) straightness (b) flatness (c) roundness (d) angularity.
ANSWERS
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (b)
7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (b) 11. (c) 12. (b)
13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (c)
19. (a) 20. (d) 21. (d) 22. (c) 23. (a) 24. (b)
25. (b) 26. (a) 27. (d) 28. (a) 29. (b).

1. Differentiate between direct and indirect measuring devices.
Answer Direct measuring devices are used to measure the dimensions of an object directly. Vernier
caliper and micrometer are direct measuring devices.
Indirect measuring devices first measure some other dimensions which are to be used later on to
get the actual dimension of an object. Sine bar is an indirect measuring device.
2. How is least count of an instrument defined?
Answer Least count is the smallest value of measurement obtained from a measuring instrument.
Least count of a micrometer is defined as the ratio of distance moved by the screw in one revolution
to the total number of divisions on its circular scale.
3. Find the least count of a micrometer in which its screw moves by 0.5 mm in one revolution with
total number of divisions on the circular scale to be 50.
0.5
Answer LC = mm = 0.01 mm.
50
4. How is thread depth defined?
Answer Thread depth is one-half of the difference between major diameter and minor diameter.
1. Metrology is the science of measurement.
2. Kelvin is the unit of electric current.
3. Plane angle is measured in steradian.
4. A surface plate is made of cast iron.
5. Vernier caliper is an end measuring instrument.
6. Dial indicator is an optical comparator.
7. Clinometer measures length.
8. Bevel protractor is used to measure angles.
9. Autocollimator works on pneumatic principle.
10. Gauge blocks are also called slip gauges.
Metrology 14.9
ANSWERS
1. T 2. F 3. F 4. T 5. F 6. F
7. F 8. T 9. F 10. T.
REVIEW QUESTIONS
1. Differentiate between line and end measurement.
2. What is the function of a comparator?

3. Name few mechanical comparators.
4. What is sine bar?
5. How does vernier caliper differ from micrometer?
6. What is an optical flat?
7. What is the difference between clinometer and autocollimator?
8. What is transducer? Name few transducers.
9. Differentiate between square and vee threads.
C H A P T E R
15
Elements of Modern Manufacturing
INVENTORY AND INVENTORY CONTROL

• An inventory is defined as stock of goods, may be in the form of raw materials or finished goods.
• Inventories are considered as a buffer against uncertain supplies. But at the same time, lower inventory
levels save financing and storage costs.
• The concept of zero inventories is very appealing but this approach is not practically feasible.
• Inventory problems involve finding the optimum level of inventory to avoid shortage or surplus
situation.
• Quality of inventory is important because defective inventories involve extra purchasing and carrying
costs.
• Unit cost of inventory is the cost to procure its unit quantity. This cost is independent of quantity
of inventory produced.
• Inventory holding or carrying cost is the cost of maintenance of inventory including its storage,
insurance and pilferage. It is a variable cost to be expressed on percentage basis of inventory value.
• Ordering cost is connected with the placement of an order of inventory and is independent of the
size of order for similar inventory.
• Setup cost is connected with the change over of machines to produce different items. It is independent
of order size.
• Stock-out cost is connected with the non-fulfillment of a customer demand due to shortage of inventories
in terms of loss of goodwill and lost-sale.
• Safety stock is the reserve of inventory to be used in uncertain demand situations.
• ABC analysis is used to classify inventory into three classes according to its worth and volume.
• Class A inventory consists of low volume and high valued items. It constitutes about 10-20% of
the total inventory items and accounts for about 70-80% of the total inventory cost.
• Class B inventory consists of medium volume and medium valued items. It constitutes about 20-30%
of the total inventory items and accounts for about 15-20% of the total inventory cost.
• Class C inventory consists of high volume but low valued items. It constitutes about 60-70% of
total inventory items and accounts for about 5-10% of the total inventory cost.
• Inventory control is the process of maintaining appropriate stock level of inventories such as raw
materials, work-in-progress and finished goods so as to minimise their maintenance costs.
• The basic purpose of an efficient inventory control system is to find the optimal level of inventory
in order to avoid shortage or surplus situation.
• A computer-based inventory control system has the potential to reduce the investment in inventory
and inventory carrying cost drastically by integrating the various activities in the organisation.
• There are two inventory control systems. The first is order point system, which is valid for independent
demand items and is based on the determination of economic order quantity (EOQ). The second
system is called material requirements planning (MRP) and it is valid for dependent demand items.
• Economic order quantity (EOQ), better called lot size, is that order quantity which minimises the
total annual inventory cost.
• At EOQ point, ordering cost and holding cost of inventory are equal.
• Annual ordering cost decreases and annual inventory holding cost increases with increase in EOQ.
• Important assumptions considered in the derivation of EOQ formula include constant demand rate,
constant lead time and fixed ordering/setup cost.
• The EOQ formula is valid for independent demand items.
• The total cost consists of cost for carrying the inventory and ordering cost.
• Lead time is the time between the requisition and receipt of an order.
• Infinite replenishment rate means that the complete order of a stock is delivered at one time. It
is a theoretical concept.
MATERIAL REQUIREMENTS PLANNING (MRP)

• MRP is a technique which can be used to determine the optimum quantity and timing of material
requirements for production operations according to master production schedule.
• It is a computerised system designed to reduce inventory levels by planning in advance the future
requirements of materials.
• It helps in reducing the delay in production by decreasing lead time and hence it increases the
productivity.
• The three basic components of an MRP system include bill of materials file, inventory status file
and master production schedule.
MANUFACTURING RESOURCE PLANNING (MRP II)

• Manufacturing resource planning, also called MRP II, is an extension of MRP.
• It relates manufacturing function of a company to its financial and marketing functions.
• It acts as a manufacturing control system.
ENTERPRISE RESOURCE PLANNING (ERP)

• Enterprise resource planning, in short ERP, is based on the integration of various functions of an
organisation.
• It emphasises on supporting supply chain processes without making changes in their structure.
Elements of Modern Manufacturing 15.3
• It reduces non-productive activities and ensures smooth flow of information between different functions
of the organisation which ultimately improves quality and enhances customer satisfaction.
JUST-IN-TIME (JIT)
• JIT philosophy was introduced in Japan and is a widely used philosophy in the recent years. It
is an idea rather than a technique. It refers to a change in management thinking which deviates
in many respects from the conventional manufacturing practices.
• JIT manufacturing requires raw materials, parts, components and assemblies to reach the production
operations in small quantities just a short time before they are needed, so that input inventories
can be kept to a minimum level. Thus it reduces the inventory costs drastically and moves towards
zero inventories concept.
• The concept of zero inventories is very attractive but ideal and its implementation is very difficult
in real practice. Firms can think of moving closer to this goal. It requires extraordinary discipline
in the organisation and works under stable and reliable operating conditions.
• Possible benefits of JIT include waste elimination in production and material, reduction of setup
and lead time, reduction in inventories, improvement in product quality, increase in productivity,
improvement in company-supplier relationship and improvement in customer satisfaction.
• Comparing a JIT company with a traditional one, we find that the former uses product layout
and small lot size and the latter is based on process layout and large lot size. The organisational
structure has tremendous effect on JIT implementation.
• The structure defines how individuals and organisational units are grouped to carry out company
objectives. Complete centralisation and complete decentralisation of the entire activities of an or-
ganisation is not at all possible and feasible and is far beyond the actuality and may prove to
be the extreme cases. Centralisation involves higher-level management producing strategic decisions
to affect the long term interests of the organisation and helps in the initiation and implementation
of JIT. On the other hand, decentralisation ensures total employee involvement and is effective
at operating levels.
• Quality of inventory is important for successful implementation of JIT. In anticipation of defects,
more inventories are required to be purchased involving higher carrying costs.
SUPPLY CHAIN MANAGEMENT

• Supply chain is a link in which product flows from suppliers to manufacturers, from manufacturers
to distributors and from distributors to customers along a chain.
• It connects various activities involving procurement of raw materials, production of goods, storing
and distribution of goods and delivering the goods to end users, that is, customers.
• Supply chain is governed by four important factors called performance drivers of supply chain.
These are: inventory, transportation, facilities and information.
• Supply chain management is connected with the management of supply chain processes. A close
cooperation between suppliers and customers is essentially required for an effective supply chain.
• One of the important goals of the supply chain management is to optimise information and product
flows among the processes and business partners within the supply chain in order to reduce or
eliminate the buffer of inventory.
• Important benefits of supply chain management include reduced cost, increased product quality
and improved profit margins.
QUALITY CIRCLE
Quality circle is a small group of people who meet informally to concentrate on a problem to find its
solution. This is primarily a quality improving technique which was introduced in Japan. The suggestions/ideas
coming out of quality circle are passed on to the management to make the necessary changes in the
existing setup. The group employees may be paid for their voluntarly work carried out during their normal
working time or off time.
KAIZEN
• Kaizen is a Japanese concept which evolved in mid 1980s. It consists of Kai meaning change
and Zen meaning good. Hence Kaizen literally means improvement. It is a very powerful management
philosophy in Japan.
• It refers to small, incremental but continuous improvements in every element of manufacturing.
These small improvements collectively can make significant change.
• It emphasises on problem finding and subsequently eliminating them in order to make the improvement.
• Customer satisfaction is a key factor in today’s manufacturing world. To survive in the market,
customer satisfaction is a must. Kaizen helps the manufacturers to continuously improve their products
and services by setting higher standards of performance which ultimately ensures total customer
satisfaction.
• Kaizen does not involve huge investment rather it requires commitment, dedication, loyalty, competence
and mutual aid of everyone in the organisation.
TOTAL QUALITY CONTROL (TQC)

• Quality ensures zero defects in a product. A quality product means a customer can think to buy
it at any cost and will not think of other products.
• Quality of inventory is important because poor quality inventory means extra purchasing and carrying
costs.
• Product quality is crucial for the long-term survival of an organisation.
• Higher quality needs to pay cost for it but investment made today is bound to be more profitable
in future. Hence management must concentrate on quality improvement.
• Genichi Taguchi evolved quality loss function (QLF) which measures the economic losses suffered
by a customer due to loss of quality, that is, poor quality of a product.
• Maintaining quality is a continuous process. Quality control must originate from the very beginning
of manufacturing when the product is in its planning stage and must extend till it reaches to its
end users.
• Sampling inspection is a statistical method used to control quality of a product. In this method,
a random sample of the items is taken from the entire lot of production and each and every item
of the sample is tested for its quality. Approval or rejection of the sample decides the acceptance
or refusal of the entire lot.
• A 100% inspection method tests each and every item of the production lot and ensures perfectness
of the entire lot. It may be useful for critical components but normally is not feasible practically.
• Japanese are very much quality-conscious and do not allow any type of defects either in work-in-process
inventories or end products. They believe in work-in-process inspection so that defects can be detected
and eliminated at the start of operation. Their quality awareness can be judged from the fact that
they allow parts defective per million.
• The concept of total quality control (TQC) was evolved by Feigenbaum in 1951 and is a detailed
approach to quality.
• W. Edward Deming, a well-known management consultant and a famous quality guru put forward
14 points, more commonly called ‘Deming’s 14 points for management to achieve the goal of
total quality control.
• Total quality control is critical for the successful implementation of JIT.
• International Standards Organisation, ISO 9000 certification is a European set of quality control
standard used to promote quality at every level of the organisation.
STATISTICAL QUALITY CONTROL

• Statistical Quality Control (SQC) uses statistical methods to control the quality of a product or
process.
• SQC is based on the collection of relevant data and their analysis helps to find out the cause
of occurrence of the defect.
• There are two types of data: variable data and attribute data. Variable data is measurable whereas
attribute data non-measurable.
• SQC uses control limits to estimate the variations in the dimensions of a product or a process.
• Normal distribution curve, also known as Gaussian curve, is the most commonly used curve. It
is a bell shaped curve which lies between the limits – ∞ to + ∞. Standard deviation and mean
value are the two parameters used to construct the curve. __
• Control charts are important tools for SQC. Different control charts used in SQC include X chart,
R charts, p-chart, C-chart and U-chart. Control charts are reliable tools to control the quality of
a process.
• Acceptance sampling rejects or accepts a lot based on the results of a randomly drawn sample
from the lot.
TOTAL QUALITY MANAGEMENT

• Total quality management, in short TQM, is an integrated management approach based on continuous
improvements in quality of products and services.
• It is based on zero-defect concept and achieves quality at every level of the organisation.
• It ensures total customer satisfaction by improving product design, organisational activities and other
parameters.
• The realisation of good quality can be acquired through the implementation of TQM.
ELECTRONIC DATA INTERCHANGE

• Electronic Data Interchange, in short, EDI, is connected with the transfer of data between business
partners by electronic means.
• It is based on the computer-to-computer transactions of business informations relating to manufacturing
production and marketing.
• It is an effective tool that can be used to globalise a business.
• Advantages of EDI include reduced lead time, enhanced customer satisfaction through faster and
better services and reduced overall business costs.
COMPUTER-AIDED DESIGN
• Computer-aided design, in short CAD, is a modern approach used to generate a design for a product
by using a computer.
• It is an important element of computer integrated manufacturing (CIM).
• Using CAD system, any design can be created more easily, effectively and economically. Changes
in the existing design are easier to incorporate.
• It drastically cuts short the time involved in the design of a product.
• It finds extensive applications in product modelling.
COMPUTER-AIDED MANUFACTURING
• Computer-aided manufacturing, in short CAM, is used to help manufacturing activities of a business
such as their planning and control by using a computer.
• CAD and CAM are core elements of a CIM system.
COMPUTER INTEGRATED MANUFACTURING

• Computer integrated manufacturing, in short CIM, integrates all the activities of a manufacturing
unit using a computer to convert the raw material into finished products including their marketing.
The major benefits of CIM are the following:
(a) CIM uses flexible manufacturing environment which can quickly adjust to changing market and
customer demands.
(b) Customer satisfaction can be ensured by providing them high quality products within no time.
(c) It helps to reduce the inventory cost drastically through better planning and control.
(d) It effectively utilises production facilities, thus reducing the overall cost of production and increasing
the productivity.
FLEXIBLE MANUFACTURING SYSTEM

• Flexible manufacturing system, in short FMS, has the manufacturing flexibilities to change product
design and obtain its desired quantity.
• The system uses software based automation to accomplish the task.
• Changes in the product design is easier to incorporate and can be quickly effected by making changes
in its programming. The process is simulated before the actual start of the operation to ensure
correctness in the programming and avoid any damage that may occur afterwards.
• Major elements of FMS include computerised numerical control (CNC), machining centres, robots,
automated guided vehicles (AGVs) and automated storage and retrieval (AS/AR) systems.
NUMERICAL CONTROL AND COMPUTER NUMERICAL CONTROL

• In numerical control (NC), numbers or digits (more precisely alphanumeric) are used to control
various manufacturing operations.
• Numerical control is required to make the manufacturing processes suitable for flexible automation.
• In NC, informations required to control a machine tool are contained in a part program consisting
of coded instructions made of digits or numbers.
• The NC system uses binary code having a base of 2. Binary code consists of only two digits
0 and 1.
• APT, UNIAPT and COMPACT are higher level languages used in part program of NC machine
tools.
• The NC tape contains punched holes. Each hole signifies specific coded instruction.
• The NC tapes are made of paper, mylar, mylar-coated aluminium and plastics.
• The machine control unit (MCU) is the heart of NC machine. It reads the program and runs the
machine tool.
• The first NC machine was developed by MIT in 1952.
• There are three types of motion control for NC machines: point-to-point control, straight line control
and continuous control, also called contouring. The last motion control is more complex.
• There are two types of interpolation used in NC machines: linear and circular. In linear interpolation,
coordinates of the destination point is desired to be known. In circular destination, coordinates
of the centre of the arc with respect to starting point is required in addition to coordinates of
destination point.
• Computer numerical control (CNC) is based on the use of computer hardware and software which
increases the accuracy and reliability of the process.
• Machining centres are CNC machine tools which can perform several operations such as milling,
drilling, boring, reaming, tapping and so on, using automatic tool changer (ATC).
GROUP TECHNOLOGY
• Group technology is a technique used to arrange similar parts with respect to similarity in their
design such as shape and size or manufacturing techniques.
• Parts are classified and coded on the basis of similarities existing between them commonly called
design attributes and manufacturing attributes.
• It helps in the structured flow of parts in a plant.
• Important benefits of group technology include reduced machine set up times, reduced material
handling, reduced lead times, improved machines utilisation, reduced variations of parts and increased
standardisation.
CELLULAR MANUFACTURING
• Cellular manufacturing is based on the use of group technology.
• It is based on the formation of manufacturing cells where dissimilar machines are arranged at one
place in order of their operations being performed on a part during its conversion from raw stage
to final shape. It makes the control processes simpler and easier and reduces the manufacturing
lead time.
CONCURRENT ENGINEERING
• It is based on the simultaneous working on the design and manufacturing of a product.
• It helps to reduce lead time significantly by increasing the interaction between the design and manufac-
turing unit of a product.
• It ensures enhanced customer satisfaction through timely delivering of defect-free and quality pro-
ducts.

1. Consider the following statements about master production schedule (MPS):
(i) It decides the products to be manufactured.
(ii) It estimates the completion time of the products.
(iii) It estimates the quantity of the products.
(iv) It is a short-range plan.
(a) (i) and (iii) are true (b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are true
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are true (d) (iii) and (iv) are true.
2. Consider the following statements about lean production:
(i) It reduces the lead time drastically. (ii) It improves product quality.
(iii) It is based on customised products.
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) true (d) (i) and (iii) are true.
3. Lean production concept was first used by
(a) Womack (b) Porter (c) Deming (d) Taguchi.
4. Consider the following statements about mass production:
(i) It produces items in large number. (ii) All the items are highly standardised.
(iii) It uses make-to-stock environment. (iv) It is based on hard automation.
5. Manufacturing of customised products uses which of the following manufacturing system?
(a) Make to stock (b) Make to order
(c) Engineer to order (d) Assemble to order.
6. Which of the following relationship is correct?
C = Cost per piece
H = Holding cost
r = Annual holding cost rate.
(a) C = rH (b) H = rC
r
(c) C = (d) None of these.
H
7. The total annual inventory cost includes the following costs:
(a) carrying cost, ordering cost and setup cost
(b) carrying cost and setup cost
(c) production cost, carrying cost, ordering cost and setup cost
(d) production cost, carrying cost and ordering cost.
List I List II
A. Economic order quantity 1. One-half of maximum inventory
B. Average inventory 2. Reduced set-up
C. Higher setup cost approach 3. Optimum batch size
D. Just-in-time (JIT) 4. Longer production run
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 1 2 4
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 1 3 4 2
(d) 1 3 2 4.
9. The economic order quantity (EOQ) is expressed as (D = Annual demand, S = Ordering cost,
H = Holding cost)
(a) ⎯√⎯DSH (b) ⎯√⎯2DS

H
(c) ⎯⎯2DH
√ ⎯S (d) ⎯⎯DH
√ 2S
⋅
List I List II
A. MRP 1. Production of a single item in large
numbers
B. Reorder point 2. Tool used to decide stock level of
inventory
C. Inventory control 3. Batch production
D. Mass production 4. Tool used to signify a minimum level of
stock
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 3 2 4 1.
List I List II
A. JIT 1. Tool used to signify a minimum level of
stock
B. MRP 2. Zero inventory
C. EOQ 3. Dependent demand items
D. Reorder point 4. Independent demand items
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 1 4 3 2
(d) 2 4 1 3.
(i) It ensures reduced inventories.
(ii) It is based on effective company-supplier relationship.
(iii) It is a push system.
(iv) It uses product layout.
Which of the above statements is true for JIT manufacturing?
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
13. Which of the following statements is incorrect about JIT?
(i) It increases lead time.
(ii) It is a zero inventory concept.
(iii) It uses a small lot size.
(iv) It requires stable and reliable operating conditions.
Of these
14. JIT ensures
(i) Improved customer satisfaction.
(ii) Increased purchasing costs.
(iii) Better product quality.
(iv) Waste elimination in production and material.
Of these
15. Consider the following statements about JIT:
(i) While a JIT company uses product layout, the traditional companies use process layout.
(ii) For a JIT company to be successful, both centralisation and decentralisation of production
operations are desirable.
(iii) A JIT company has reduced setup time but increased lead time.
(iv) A JIT company maintains a better relationship with its suppliers.

(i) Required setup time in JIT is because of use of automation.
(ii) A JIT company has more manufacturing flexibility.
(iii) Operating conditions have nothing to do with JIT implementation.
(iv) Prompt deliveries, reliable service, high quality products and close coordination with suppliers
and customers are essential components of a JIT company.
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) are true (d) (i), (ii) and (iv) are true.
17. A retail store uses the following layout:
(a) process layout (b) product layout
(c) hybrid layout (d) fixed-position layout.
18. Group technology is connected with

(a) process layout (b) product layout
(c) hybrid layout (d) fixed-position layout.
19. Materials management is connected with the planning of

(i) Raw materials (ii) Work-in-process inventories
(iii) Finished goods
Of these
20. What is hybrid layout?
(a) It is the combination of process layout and fixed-position layout.
(b) It is the combination of process layout and product layout.
(c) It is the combination of product layout and fixed-position layout.
(d) It is an independent layout.
List I List II
A. JIT 1. Push system
B. MRP 2. Pull system
C. Upstream operation 3. Final assembly
D. Downstream operation 4. Parts feeding.
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 1 2 4 3.
List I List II
A. Job sequencing 1. Requires good relationship with suppliers
B. Shop loading 2. Order assignment to individual work
centres
C. Machine loading 3. Order assignment to all work centres in
the plant
D. JIT 4. Decides order of job processing
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 4 2 3 1
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 1 3 2 4.
23. The ideal batch size in JIT production consists of
(a) ten parts (b) five parts (c) two parts (d) one part.
24. Who emphasized the role of management in improving the quality?
(a) Juran (b) Taguchi (c) Deming (d) Womack.
25. Quality can be achieved through continuous improvement. Who said this?
26. Quality loss function concept was evolved by
27. Consider the following statements about total quality management (TQM):
(i) It lowers production costs. (ii) It is based on zero defects.
(iii) It improves productivity. (iv) It is a continuous improvement process.
(a) (ii) is true (b) (ii) and (iv) are true
28. Consider the following statements about TQM:
(i) It is based on continuous improvement.
(ii) It ensures customer satisfaction.
(iii) It makes quality everyone’s concern in the business.
(a) (ii) is true (b) (i) is true
(i) Kaizen is connected with small improvement in manufacturing.
(ii) Deming, Juran and Crosby are connected with quality standards.
(iii) Planning horizon is the time span which covers the master production schedule.
(iv) Electronic data interchange (EDI) is also known as paperless trading.
(a) (i) and (ii) are true (b) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are true
(i) Focused factory concept is based on the production of customised products.
(ii) JIT functions well under stable and reliable manufacturing environment.
(iii) ISO 9000 is an Indian Standard for quality.
(iv) Deming award is connected with quality.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are true (b) (ii) and (iii) are true
31. Consider the following statements about strategic planning:
(i) It covers long-term decisions.
(ii) It requires capital investment.
(iii) It does not consider diversification.
(iv) It decides the success or failure of a company.
(a) (i) is true (b) (i), (ii) and (iv) are true
(c) (i) and (iv) are true (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are true.
32. The JIT manufacturing system includes the following elements:
(i) Zero lead time (ii) Zero defects
(iii) Zero inventories
Of these
(i) MRP is a push system. (ii) EOQ is based on dependent items.
(iii) JIT is a pull system. (iv) JIT requires an effective supply chain.
(a) (i) and (ii) are true (b) (i) and (iii) are true
34. Consider the following costs:
(i) Purchase cost (ii) Storage cost
(iii) Order cost
Inventory cost includes
35. The JIT approach emphasises on the reduction of inventories. An effective JIT system requires
(i) Minimum number of suppliers (ii) Good suppliers relationship
(iii) Total quality control (iv) Effective supply chain
Of these
(c) (i) and (iv) are true (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are true.
36. Consider the following statements about economic order quantity (EOQ):
(i) It is the optimum quantity that minimizes total cost.
(ii) It is based on independent demand items.
(iii) It considers constant lead time.
(iv) It represents average cycle inventory.
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) are true (d) (iii) and (iv) are true.
37. The total cost curve is
(a) L-shaped (b) O-shaped
(c) U-shaped (d) S-shaped.
38. Consider
_ the following statements:
(i) x-chart measures mean.
(ii) R-chart measures range.
(iii) p-chart is used for variables.
(iv) Two sigma quality standard corresponds to 4.56 percent defective parts.
39. In normal distribution curve, ± 2σ corresponds to (σ = standard deviation)
(a) 95.44% of total data (b) 68.26% of total data
(c) 99.74% of total data (d) 75.78% of total data.
40. In normal distribution curve, ± 1σ corresponds to

41. In normal distribution curve, ± 3σ corresponds to

42. Consider the _following statements:

(i) R- and x-charts are used for variables.
(ii) p-chart is used for attributes.
(iii) c-chart is used for variables.

(iv) R-chart is used to monitor process variability.
43. Which of the following manufacturing systems keeps maximum inventory?
(c) Assemble to order (d) Engineer to order.
44. Which of the following manufacturing systems has shortest delivery time?
45. Which of the following manufacturing systems maintains lowest inventory?
46. A product is designed as per the requirements of a customer. The manufacturing system best suited
for this purpose is
(a) make to stock (b) make to order
(c) assemble to order (d) engineer to order.
47. Mass production is characterised by
(a) low volume items with maximum flexibility in their design
(b) high volume items with maximum flexibility in their design
(c) high volume items with minimum flexibility in their design
(d) low volume items with minimum flexibility in their design.
48. Which of the following manufacturing systems is most suitable for mass production?
(a) Assemble to order (b) Make to order
(c) Make to stock (d) Engineer to order.
49. Consider the following statements about strategic planning:

(i) Decisions are taken by top-level management.
(ii) It has short-term effect.
(iii) It is based on the formulation of policies.
(iv) It decides the capital investment for the business.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) are true (b) (i), (iii) and (iv) are true
50. Long-range manufacturing plan has the following planning horizon:

(a) more than a year (b) in between six months and a year
(c) approximately equal to six months (d) few days or few weeks.

(i) Scheduling (ii) Monitoring
(iii) Dispatching
Shop floor control consists of
(a) (i) (b) (i) and (ii)
52. The JIT manufacturing system originated in
(a) USA (b) Japan
(c) Germany (d) UK.
53. Loss of goodwill of customer is connected with
(a) ordering cost (b) carrying cost
(c) stock-out cost (d) inventory cost.
(i) JIT helps in reducing the level of inventory.
(ii) Average inventory is one-half of the economic lot size.
(iii) The total cost is insensitive in the vicinity of EOQ.
(iv) C-type inventories are high valued and low volume items.
(c) (ii) and (iv) are true (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are true.
(i) EOQ corresponds to lowest total cost.
(ii) A-type inventory requires high safety stock.
(iii) Carrying cost increases with the size of inventory.
(iv) Ordering cost decreases with the size of inventory.
(i) MRP system is useful for dependent demand items.
(ii) MRP reduces inventory cost.
(iii) A bill of materials (BOM) is a list showing materials and their quantities required to produce
the end item.
(iv) Master production schedule, bill of material file and inventory status file are three basic inputs
of an MRP system.
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are true (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are true.

(i) Lot sizing rule is used to determine the timing and order size quantities.
(ii) Master production schedule (MPS) determines the required quantities of goods to be produced
in a specified time period.
(iii) MRP is a push system.
(iv) A lumpy demand follows a continuous pattern.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) are true (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are true
List I List II
A. MRP system 1. Time measurement unit in MRP
B. Safety stock 2. A basic input of an MRP system
C. Master production schedule 3. Inventories to be used in emergency
situations
D. Bucket 4. Push system
5. Pull system
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 5 3 2 1
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 5 3 1 2.

(i) A bill of material (BOM) file is a list of work-in-process (WIP) inventories only.
(ii) MRP II stands for manufacturing resource planning.
(iii) MRP II relates manufacturing function of a company to its financial and marketing functions.
(iv) Planning horizon refers to the time span to cover a master production schedule.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) are true
(b) (i), (iii) and (iv) are true
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are true.
60. Which of the following persons is known as quality guru?
(i) Dening (ii) Feigenbaum
(iii) Juran (iv) Crosby
Of these
List I List II
A. Poke a yoke 1. A quality control device
B. Andom 2. Fullproofing
C. Quality circle 3. Economic loss suffered by a customer
due to quality defect
D. Quality loss function 4. A warning light
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 2 4 1 3
(d) 4 2 1 3.
62. Consider the following statements about CAD:
(i) It offers easy repetition of drawing details.
(ii) Changes in drawings are easier to incorporate.
(iii) It makes use of computer to construct the drawings.
Of these
(a) (iii) is true (b) (ii) and (iii) are true
63. Personal computer includes
(i) Desk top (ii) Lap top
(iii) Palm top (iv) Note book
Of these
(a) (ii) is true (b) (i) and (iii) are true
(c) (iii) and (iv) are true (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are true.
64. Which of the following personal computers has the smallest size?
(a) Desk top (b) Lap top (c) Palm top (d) Note book.
65. The binary system uses the following base number:
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3.
66. Binary system consists of two numbers. They are

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 0 and 1 (c) 0 and 2 (d) 2 and 3.
67. Machining centre is a numerically controlled machine tool. It can perform the following operations:
(i) Drilling (ii) Boring
(iii) Milling (iv) Tapping
Of these
68. Linear interpolation uses the following codes:

(i) G01 (ii) G02
(iii) G03
Of these
69. Consider the following statements about APT language:
(i) It stands for automatically programmed tools.
(ii) It is a part programming language system for NC machines.
(iii) It consists of letters, numerals and punctuation marks.
Of these
70. The arithmetic operator has the following order in APT system:
(a) ( ), ∗, ∗∗, + (b) ( ), ∗∗, ∗, +
(c) ∗, ( ), ∗∗, + (d) +, ( ), ∗∗, ∗.
71. Words used in APT system can have maximum characters of
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6.
72. Consider the following actuation systems:
(i) Hydraulic (ii) Pneumatic
(iii) Electromechanical
A NC machine uses
(a) (i) (b) (i) and (ii)
(i) It is a computer controlled manufacturing system.
(ii) It uses automated production machines.
(iii) It is flexible enough to make variety of different products.
(iv) It is useful for large production run.
Which of the above statements is true in case of flexible manufacturing system?
74. Computer integrated manufacturing (CIM) includes
(i) CAD (ii) CAM
(iii) MRP
Of these
(c) (iii) is true (d) (ii) and (iii) are true.
75. Materials handling system includes the following:

(i) Automated guided vehicles (AGV)
(ii) Automated storage/retrieval systems (AS/RS)
(iii) Robots
Of these
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) are true (d) (iii) is true.

(i) Master production schedule (ii) Bill of material file
(iii) Inventory record file
Which of the above parameters constitutes the basic unit of an MRP system?
(i) Order release (ii) Order scheduling
(iii) Order progress
A typical shop floor control system consists of
78. A flexible manufacturing system consists of
(i) Automated machine (ii) Automated material handling equipments
(iii) Automated storage and retrieval systems
Of these
79. Higher level language used in part programme of NC machines includes
(i) APT (ii) UNIAPT
(iii) COMPACT
Of these
80. NC tapes are made of

(i) Paper (ii) Mylar
(iii) Mylar-coated aluminium (iv) Plastics
Of these

(i) Customer satisfaction (ii) Employee involvement
(iii) Continuous improvements in quality.
Total Quality Management (TQM) involves
(a) (i) (b) (i) and (ii)
82. Two systems are usually used to control material flow in a manufacturing unit, one of them is
Material Requirements Planning (MRP), and the other is
(a) Manufacturing Resource Planning (MRP II)
(b) Just-in-time (JIT)
(c) Supply Chain Management
(d) Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP).
83. ‘Kaizen’ is related to
(a) Continuous improvement (b) Quality Circle
(c) Housekeeping (d) Poka Yoke.
84. Who is connected to 14-point program of management?
(a) Juran (b) Crosby (c) Deming (d) Taylor.
85. The Deming wheel is an important tool for quality improvement. The four steps in this wheel
are: Do, Check, Plan, Act. Their correct order is
(a) Plan, Check, Act, Do (b) Plan, Do, Check, Act
(c) Check, Plan, Act, Do (d) Act, Do, Check, Plan.
86. The Deming wheel is also called
(a) Shewhart cycle (b) Quality Circle
(c) Housekeeping (d) Kaizen.
(i) Pareto charts (ii) Control charts
(iii) Cause-and-effect diagrams (iv) Scatter diagrams.
Which of the above elements can be used as a tool for improving quality?
88. The cause-and-effect diagram was developed by
(a) Deming (b) Ishikawa (c) Pareto (d) Juran.
89. The cause-and-effect diagram is also known as
(a) Control chart (b) Pareto chart
(c) Scatter diagram (d) Fishbone diagram.
90. “By concentrating on the 20 percent of the factors, 80 percent of the quality problems can be
solved”. This famous statement is attributed to
(a) Deming (b) Pareto (c) Juran (d) Ishikawa.

(i) Computer numerical control (CNC) (ii) Computer-aided design (CAD)
(iii) Computer-aided manufacturing (CAM) (iv) Computer-integrated manufacturing (CIM).
Automation can include
(a) (i) only (b) (i) and (iii)

(i) It integrates various aspects of manufacturing operations.
(ii) It reduces human involvement.
(iii) It improves product quality.
(iv) It improves productivity by reducing manufacturing costs.
Automation includes
(a) (ii) (b) (i) and (iv)
(i) Hard automation lacks flexibility.
(ii) Soft automation uses highly specialized machines.
(iii) Flexible manufacturing system is a good example of soft automation.
(iv) PLC stands for ‘Part Logic Controllers’.
Which of the above statements is true?
(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv).
94. DNC stands for
(i) Digital numerical control (ii) Direct numerical control
(iii) Distributed numerical control (iv) Data numerical control.
Of these
(c) (iv) is true (d) (i) and (iv) are true.
(i) Increased flexibility (ii) Greater accuracy
(iii) More versatility.
The advantages of CNC over conventional NC system include
(a) (i) (b) (i) and (ii)
96. ‘Point-to-point’ control system finds application in

(a) drilling (b) punching
(c) straight milling (d) All of the above.
97. The ‘Contouring’ control system is used on

(a) lathes (b) milling machines
(c) machining centres (d) All of the above.
98. Consider the following types of geometric modeling:
(i) 2–D (ii) 21⁄2–D
(iii) 3–D (iv) 4–D.
CAD uses
(a) (i) only (b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (i), (iii) and (iv).
99. 3–D geometric modeling used in CAD represents
(a) wire-frame model (b) surface model
(c) volume model (d) All of the above.
(i) Design of dies and moulds in casting (ii) Process planning and scheduling
(iii) Plant layout.
The applications of CAD/CAM may include
(a) (i) only (b) (ii) and (iii)
101. CAPP stands for
(a) Computer-aided plant planning (b) Computer-aided process planning
(c) Computer-aided physical planning (d) Computer-assisted process planning.
102. Group Technology uses
(a) Process layout (b) Product layout
(c) Cellular layout (d) Hybrid layout.
(i) Reduced inspection (ii) Reduced inventory carrying costs
(iii) Improved product quality (iv) Reduced lead time.
Just-in-time (JIT) manufacturing may include
(a) (ii) and (iv) (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii) and (iv).
(i) It is a pull system.
(ii) It is a push system.
(iii) It is based on the principle of zero inventory.
(iv) It is a management philosophy.
Which of the above statements is applicable in case of JIT?
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv).
105. Kanban card finds use in

(a) MRP (b) MRP II
(c) JIT (d) ERP.
106. The basic hardware components of a general-purpose computer consist of
(i) Central processing unit (CPU) (ii) Memory
(iii) I/O section.
Of these
107. Consider the following high-level computer programming languages:
(i) FORTRAN (ii) COBOL
(iii) PASCAL (iv) BASIC
Which of the above languages can be used for processing business data?
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) only
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iii).
108. Consider the following computer languages:
(i) FORTRAN stands for FORmula TRANslation.
(ii) COBOL stands for Common Business-Oriented Language.
(iii) BASIC stands for Beginner’s All-purpose Instruction Code.
(iv) RPG stands for Report Program Generator.
Of these
(i) APT is an acronym for Automatically Programmed Tools.
(ii) The CAD/CAM database can be used for manufacturing planning and control, as well as
for design.
(iii) Conventional NC method was developed by John T. Parsons.
(iv) Conventional NC uses punched cards.
(a) (i) and (iv) are true (b) (i), (iii) and (iv) are true
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are true (d) (i), (ii) and (iv) are true.
110. The ‘fixed zero’ position refers to
(a) Southwest corner (b) Northeast corner
(c) Northwest corner (d) Southeast corner.
111. The basic types of NC motion control system include
(a) point-to-point (b) straight cut
(c) contouring (d) All of the above.
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (b)
7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (c) 11. (b) 12. (b)
13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (d) 17. (c) 18. (b)
19. (c) 20. (b) 21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (d) 24. (c)
25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (a)
31. (b) 32. (d) 33. (d) 34. (c) 35. (d) 36. (b)
37. (c) 38. (b) 39. (a) 40. (b) 41. (c) 42. (c)
43. (a) 44. (a) 45. (b) 46. (d) 47. (c) 48. (c)
49. (b) 50. (a) 51. (c) 52. (b) 53. (c) 54. (b)
55. (a) 56. (c) 57. (a) 58. (b) 59. (c) 60. (d)
61. (c) 62. (c) 63. (d) 64. (c) 65. (c) 66. (b)
67. (c) 68. (a) 69. (c) 70. (b) 71. (d) 72. (d)
73. (b) 74. (b) 75. (c) 76. (c) 77. (b) 78. (d)
79. (b) 80. (d) 81. (d) 82. (b) 83. (a) 84. (c)
85. (b) 86. (a) 87. (d) 88. (b) 89. (d) 90. (b)
91. (d) 92. (d) 93. (b) 94. (b) 95. (d) 96. (d)
97. (d) 98. (b) 99. (d) 100. (c) 101. (b) 102. (c)
103. (c) 104. (b) 105. (c) 106. (c) 107. (b) 108. (d)
109. (c) 110. (a) 111. (d).

1. What is capacity requirement planning (CRP)?
Answer It estimates labour and equipment resources according to material requirements.
2. Enlist the advantages of a well-designed MRP system.
Answer
(a) Reduced inventory
(b) Better machine utilisation
(c) Reduced setup and changeover costs
(d) Improved customer satisfaction.
3. How does quality circle work?
Answer Quality circle is an informal way of solving a problem where a small group of people
work together.
4. Enlist the major benefits of TQM.
Answer The major benefits of TQM are the following:
(a) It lowers production costs
(b) It improves productivity
(c) It helps in innovation.
5. What is total quality management (TQM)?

Answer Total quality management (TQM) is an integrative management philosophy based on
the continuous improvements in the quality of products, processes and services; thus ensuring total
customer satisfaction. Kaizen helps to achieve total quality management.
6. What is Malcolm Baldridge National Award?

Answer This award is associated with quality of a product.
7. What is benchmarking?
Answer Benchmarking is a standard reference to compare and judge the quality of other things.
It is an improvement tool for an organisation.
8. Enlist the assumptions made in the derivation of economic order quantity (EOQ).
Answer
(a) Independent demand items are considered.
(b) Demand is constant during the period of consideration.
(c) Production rate is greater than demand rate.
9. Differentiate between dependent and independent demand items.
Answer Dependent demand items are needed to make end products and their requirement depends
on the latter. For example, tyres requirement for automobiles are dependent demand items.
Independent demand items are not related to the demand of other items. End products and spare
parts are independent demand items.
10. What is backorder?
Answer It is an order which is received at a time when there is no inventory in the stock and
that can be fulfilled after the arrival of new stock.
11. Who originated the concept of EOQ?
Answer F.W. Harris in 1915.
12. What are demerits of low inventory?
Answer Low inventory may incur loss of sales thereby decreasing the potential profits. Customer’s
goodwill may also be lost.
13. What is 100% inspection?
Answer A 100% inspection tests each and every item in a production lot and it ensures perfectness
of a product. It is often desirable for critical components such as those used in aircrafts but in
normal conditions it is a highly unrealistic approach.
14. What is sampling inspection?
Answer A sampling inspection takes a random sample of certain items from the entire lot and
tests every items of that sample. Approval or rejection of the sample decides the acceptance or
refusal of the entire lot. It is a statistical method of inspection.
15. What is the difference between deterministic and probabilistic EOQ model?
Answer Deterministic EOQ model assumes constant demand rate and constant lead time. On
the other hand, probabilistic EOQ model considers random demand pattern and random lead time.
16. What is Heuristic approach?

Answer Heuristic approach, also called Hungarian method, is a probabilistic approach used to
find the solution of many business problems. It is useful in the following cases:
(a) When it is difficult to construct a mathematical model.
(b) When the constructed model has no exact solution.
17. What is focused factory?
Answer Focused factory manufactures customised products for particular markets, in contrast
to general ones, to take care of specific requirements of a customer.
18. What is strategic planning?
Answer Strategic planning includes policy formulation, capital investment and physical facilities
generation. It is a long term planning which decides the success or failure of a company.
19. What is meant by operations management?
Answer Operations management is connected with the direction and control of manufacturing
processes that transform raw materials into finished goods.
20. What is an information system?
Answer An information system is a system of information needed to be shared between different
units of an organisation for its successful operation. The elements of an information system include
hardware, software, communication networks such as internet, intranets and extranets and data resources.
21. How does information technology help a business?
Answer Information technology makes a business truly globalised through the use of telecom-
munication networks such as internet, intranets and extranets.
22. What is e-commerce?
Answer Electronic commerce, in short e-commerce makes use of electronic means such as internet,
intranets and extranets to run business activities.
23. What is business process reengineering (BPR)?
Answer Business process reengineering is based on the restructuring of the entire business processes
needed to cut short the prices and meet quality and service requirements.
24. Name the two interpolation methods used in NC machines.
Answer Linear and circular.
25. Differentiate between linear and circular interpolation.
Answer Linear interpolation requires the coordinates of the destination point. Circular interpolation
additionally requires the coordinates of the centre of the arc with respect to the starting point.
26. What is automatic guided vehicle (AGV)?
Answer It is a material handling system used in FMS. It is used to move and transfer materials
on different locations of the manufacturing floor.
27. What is shop floor control?
Answer Shop floor control is connected with operational control of the work flow on the shop
floor. A typical shop floor control system consists of three phases: order release, order scheduling
and order progress.
28. What is a coordinate measuring machine?

Answer A coordinate measuring machine (CMM) is a computer numerical controlled machine
used for the dimensional inspection of parts. Most common is a three dimensional CMM which
can measure dimensions in X, Y and Z directions.
29. What is break-even analysis? What is its significance?
Answer Break-even analysis is a graphical technique used to determine a point where total revenue
equals total cost. It is useful in the analysis of cost-revenue relationship with respect to production
volume to estimate the profitability of company.
The following formula is used to find break even (BE) point:
F
BEP =
S–V
where F = Fixed cost
S = Sale price per unit
V = Variable cost per unit.
1. JIT reduces inventory to its minimum level.
2. JIT is a pull system of management.
3. MRP stands for management resource planning.
4. MRP is a push system of management.
5. Supply chain management does not affect JIT manufacturing.
6. Lead time should be shorter.
7. Quality circle is used to place manufacturing machines in a circle.
8. Kaizen means small improvement in a manufacturing element.
9. The EOQ formula is used to find optimum lot size which can give minimum total cost.
10. The concept of quality loss function was evolved by Deming.
11. The ideal batch size for JIT production is one.
ANSWERS
1. T 2. T 3. F 4. T 5. F 6. T
7. F 8. T 9. T 10. F 11. T.
REVIEW QUESTIONS
1. What is a supply chain?
2. How does a supply chain affect the performance of a company?
3. What is Kaizen? State the advantages of Kaizen.
4. What is JIT manufacturing?

5. How does JIT help to reduce inventory?
6. What are the benefits of JIT philosophy?
7. How does MRP II differ from MRP?
8. What are push and pull systems?
9. What is EOQ? What are the assumptions for EOQ?
10. What is normal distribution curve?
11. What is total quality management (TQM)? How can it be used as a quality control tool?
12. What is total quality control? Is it the ideal hypothesis?
13. What is quality loss function (QLF)? Who evolved this concept?
14. What is a Kanban system? How does it ensure smooth production?
15. What is capacity requirement planning?
16. What is lead time? Why is it desirable to cut short the lead time?
17. What is quality circle?
R E F E R E N C E S
• Alting, Leo. (1982). Manufacturing Engineering Processes. Marcel Dekker, New York.
• Amstead, B.H; et. al. (1987). Manufacturing Processes. John-Wiley and Sons, New York.
• Armarego, E.J.A. and Brown, R.H. (1969), Machining of Metals. Prentice Hall, NJ.
• Ashby, M.F; (1992). Materials Selection in Mechanical Design. Pergamon, New York.
• Avitzur, B. (1983). Handbook of Metal Forming Processes. Wiley-Interscience, New York.
• Black, S.C; Chites, V; and Lissman, A.J. (1966). Principles of Engineering Manufacture, 3rd Edition.
Arnold, London.
• Brown, Steve. (2000). Manufacturing the Future: Strategic Resonance for Enlightened Manufacturing.
Addison-Wesley Longman, Singapore.
• Callister, D.C; Jr. (1991). Materials Science and Engineering. John Wiley and Sons, New York.
• Campbell, J.S. (1999). Principles of Manufacturing Materials and Processes. Tata McGraw-Hill,
New Delhi.
• Cary, H.B. (1989). Modern Welding Technology, 2nd Edition. Prentice Hall, NJ.
• Chapman, W.A.J; and Martin, S.J. (1975). Workshop Technology, Vol. 1, 2 and 3. Arnold Publisher
(India) Pvt. Ltd., New Delhi.
• Charrier, J.M. (1990). Polymeric Materials and Processing. Oxford University Press, New York.
• Clark, D.S; and Varney, W.R. (1962). Physical Metallurgy for Engineers, 2nd Edition. Affiliated
East-West Press, New Delhi.
• Courtney, T.H. (1990). Mechanical Behaviour of Materials. McGraw-Hill, New York.
• Davis, H.E., Troxell G.E and Hauck G.F.W. (1982). The Testing of Engineering Materials.
McGraw-Hill, New York.
• DeGarmo, E.P; et. al. (1997). Materials and Processes in Manufacturing, 8th Edition. Prentice Hall
of India, New Delhi.
• Deiter, G.E. (1976). Mechanical Metallurgy. McGraw-Hill, New York.
• Donaldson, C; et. al. (1976). Tool Design, 3rd Edition. Tata McGraw-Hill, New Delhi.
• Dowling, N.E. (1993). Mechanical Behaviour of Materials: Engineering Methods for Deformation,
Fracture and Fatigue. Prentice Hall, New Jersey.
• Doyle, L.E; et. al. (1985). Manufacturing Processes and Materials for Engineers, 3rd Edition. Prentice
Hall, NJ.
• Everette E. Adam and Ronald J. Ebert. (2001). Production and Operations Management. Prentice
Hall of India, New Delhi.
• Farago, F.T; and Curtis, M.A. (1994). Handbook of Dimensional Measurement, 3rd Edition. Industrial
Press Inc; New York.
• Flinn, R.A; and Trojan, P.K. (1998). Engineering Materials and Their Applications, 2nd Edition.
Jaico Publishing House, Bombay.
R.2 Manufacturing Technology
• Flinn, R.A. (1963). Fundamentals of Metal Casting. Addison-Wesley, Reading, Massachusetts.

• German, R.M. (1994). Powder Metallurgy Science. Metal Powder Industries Federation.
• Ghosh, A; and Mallik, A.K. (1985). Manufacturing Science, 1st Edition. Affiliated East-West Press,
New Delhi.
• Groover, M.P. (1996). Fundamentals of Modern Manufacturing. Prentice Hall, New Jersey.
• Groover, M.P. (1998). Automation, Production Systems and Computer Integrated Manufacturing.
Prentice Hall of India, New Delhi.
• Habicht, F.H. (1963), Modern Machine Tools. D. Van Nostrand Co, Toronto.
• Hall, C. (1989). Polymer Materials, 2nd Edition. John Wiley and Sons, New York.
• Heine, R; and Rosenthal, P. (1955). Principles of Metal Casting, International Student Edition.
McGraw-Hill Book Company, INC, Tokyo.
• Jones, G.R. (2000). Organization Theory: Text and Cases. Addison-Wesley Publishing Company,
Singapore.
• Kalpakjian, S. (1995). Manufacturing Engineering and Technology, 3rd Edition. Addison-Wesley
Publishing Company, INC, India.
• Koenigsberger, F. (1964). Design Principles of Metal Cutting Machine Tools. McMillian Co, New York.
• Koufferos X.A and Vonderembse M.A. (1998). The Impact of Organizational Structure on the Level
of JIT Attainment: Towards Theory Development. I.J.P.R., Vol. 36, No. 10, pp. 2863-2878.
• Krajewski L.J and Ritzman L.P. (1999). Operations Management: Strategy and Analysis. Addison
Wesley Longman, Singapore.
• Lenz, John E. (1989). Flexible Manufacturing. Marcel Dekker, Inc; New York.
• Lincoln, J.F. (1989). Modern Welding Technology, 2nd Edition. Prentice Hall, NJ.
• Lindberg, R.A. (1995). Processes and Materials of Manufacturing, 4th Edition. Prentice Hall of
India, New Delhi.
• Little, R.L. (1973). Welding and Welding Technology. McGraw-Hill, New York.
• Mazda F. (2000). Engineering Management. Addison-Wesley Longman, Singapore.
• McMahon, C. and Browne, Jimmie. (2001). CAD CAM: Principles, Practice and Manufacturing
Management. Addison Wesley Longman, Singapore.
• Niebel, B.W; et. al. (1989). Modern Manufacturing Process Engineering. McGraw-Hill, New York.
• Olive, C.T. (1989). Machine Tool Technology and Manufacturing Processes. Galgotia Publications,
New Delhi.
• Orlicky J. (1975). Material Requirements Planning. McGraw-Hill, New York.
• Ostwald, P.F.; and Jairo. M. (1998). Manufacturing Processes and Systems. John Wiley and Sons,
Singapore.
• Oz Effy. (1999). Management Information Systems. Galgotia Publications, New Delhi.
• O’Brien James A. (2003). Management Information Systems. Galgotia Publications, New Delhi.
• Robbins Stephen P. and Decenzo David A. (2001). Fundamentals of Management. Pearson Education,
Singapore.
• Schey, J.A. (1988). Introduction to Manufacturing Processes. McGraw-Hill, New York.
References R.3
• Singh D.K. et. al. (2001). Quality Control for Engineers and Managers. Galgotia Publications, New
Delhi.
• Singh D.K. (2000). Manufacturing Science and Engineering. Galgotia Publications, New Delhi.
• Springborn, R.K. (1967). Non-traditional Machining Processes. American Society of Tool and
Manufacturing Engineers, Michigan.
• Van Vlack, L.H. (1987). Elements of Materials Science and Engineering, 5th Edition. Addison-Wesley
Publishing Company, USA.
• Welker, E.J. (1984). Non-Traditional Machining Processes. S.M.E.
• Wilson, F.W. (1968). Machining with Carbides and Oxides. McGraw-Hill, New York.
• Yasin M.M and Wafa M.A. (1994). An Empirical Examination of Factors Influencing JIT Success.
I.J.O.P.M., Vol. 16, No. 1, pp. 19-26.
C H A P T E R I N D E X
Chapter 1 Oxygen 1.1
Aluminium 1.1, 1.2 Point imperfections 1.3
Angstrom 1.2 Potassium 1.1
Atomic packing factor (APF) 1.1, 1.2 Primary bond 1.2
bcc structure 1.1 Proton 1.1
Beryllium 1.2 Screw dislocation 1.3
Bond energy 1.2 Secondary bond 1.2
Bragg’s law 1.2 Silicon 1.1
Bravais lattices 1.2 Silver 1.2
Cadmium 1.2 Simple cubic structure 1.2
Calcium 1.2 Sodium 1.1
Carbon 1.1 Substitutional imperfection 1.3
Copper 1.1, 1.2 Sulphur 1.1
Covalent bond 1.2 Surface imperfections 1.3
Diamond 1.3 Tungsten 1.1
Edge dislocation 1.3 Unit cell 1.2
Electron 1.1 Vacancy defects 1.3
f cc structure 1.1 Zinc 1.1, 1.2
Ferrous materials 1.1 α-iron 1.1
Gold 1.2 δ-iron 1.1
hcp structure 1.1 γ-iron 1.2
Hydrogen 1.1, 1.2
Chapter 2
Inorganic materials 1.1
Interstitial imperfection 1.3 Brinell hardness 2.6
Cast iron 2.4, 2.5
Ionic bond 1.2
Iron 1.1 Compression test 2.5
Compressive strength 2.5
Lead 1.1
Line imperfections/dislocations 1.3 Creep 2.7
Density 2.1, 2.2
Magnesium 1.1
Ductility 2.6
Manganese 1.1
Elastic limit 2.4
Metallic bond 1.2
Electrical conductivity 2.1, 2.3
Metalloids 1.1
Electrical discharge machining 2.3
Miller indices 1.2
Electrochemical grinding 2.3
Neutron 1.1
Electrochemical machining 2.3
Nickel 1.1
Nitrogen 1.1 Endurance limit 2.7
Non-ferrous materials 1.1 Engineering strain 2.5
Organic materials 1.1 Engineering stress 2.5
I.2 Manufacturing Technology
Failure point 2.4 Cyaniding 3.4

Fatigue 2.7 Eutectic reaction 3.3
Hardness 2.6 Eutectoid reaction 3.3
Hooke’s law 2.4 Eutectoid steel 3.3
Hot hardness 2.7 f cc structure 3.3
Insulators 2.3 Ferrite (α-iron) 3.2
Limit of proportionality 2.4 Flame hardening 3.4
Mechanical properties 2.4 Haematite 3.1
Melting point 2.1, 2.3 Hardening 3.3
Mild steel 2.4 Heat treatment of ferrous metals 3.3
Percentage elongation 2.6 High alloy steel 3.2
Percentage reduction in area 2.6 High carbon steel 3.1
Physical properties 2.1 High speed steel 3.2
Rockwell hardness 2.6, 2.7 Hyper-eutectoid steel 3.3
Specific gravity 2.1 Hypo-eutectoid steel 3.3
Specific heat 2.1, 2.2 Induction hardening 3.4
Specific heat at constant pressure (CP) 2.1 Iron 3.1
Specific heat at constant volume (CV) 2.1 Low alloy steel 3.2
Stress-strain curve (Engineering) 2.4, 2.5 M-series HSS 3.2
Tensile strength 2.4 Magnetite 3.1
Tension test 2.4 Manganese 3.1, 3.2
Thermal conductivity 2.1, 2.3 Medium carbon steel 3.1
Torsional strength 2.6 Mild steel 3.1
True strain 2.5 Molybdenum 3.1
True stress 2.5 Nickel 3.1, 3.2
True stress-strain curve 2.5 Nitriding 3.4
Ultimate point 2.4 Normalising 3.3
Universal gas constant 2.1 Pearlite 3.3
Vickers hardness 2.6, 2.7 Phase diagram 3.2
Yield point 2.4 Phosphorus 3.1
Pig iron 3.1
Chapter 3 Plain carbon steel 3.1
α-iron 3.2 Pure iron 3.1
δ-iron 3.3 Silicon 3.1, 3.2
γ-iron 3.3 Spheroidising 3.3
Alloy steel 3.2 Stainless steel 3.1, 3.2
Annealing 3.3 Steel 3.1
Austenite 3.3 Sulphur 3.1
bcc structure 3.2 Surface hardening (case hardening) 3.3
Carburising 3.4 T-series HSS 3.2
Cast iron 3.1 Tempering 3.3
Cementite 3.3 Tin 3.2
Chromium 3.1, 3.2 Tin-lead phase diagram 3.2
Cobalt 3.2 Tungsten 3.1, 3.2
Chapter Index I.3
Vanadium 3.1, 3.2 Chromium 5.1

Wrought iron 3.1 Cladding materials 5.5
Coated cemented carbides 5.2
Chapter 4 Coated HSS 5.1
Admiralty brass 4.2 Cobalt 5.1
Age hardening 4.2 Composites 5.2, 5.3
Alclad 4.1 Condensation polymerisation 5.4
Aluminium 4.1 Control rods 5.5 5.6
Bauxite 4.1 Coolants 5.5, 5.6
Brass 4.2 Coronite 5.2
Bronze 4.2 Cubic boron nitride (CBN) 5.2
Calamine 4.2 Cutting tool materials 5.1
Cartridge brass 4.2 Diamond 5.2
Copper 4.1 Electron volt 5.5
Copper pyrite 4.1 Enriched uranium 5.4, 5.5
Duralumin 4.1 Epoxy 5.4
Gun metal 4.2 Fast breeder reactors 5.6
Lead 4.1 Heavy water 5.5, 5.6
Magnesium 4.1 High temperature materials 5.3
Muntz brass 4.2 HSS 5.1
Nickel 4.1 Hydrogen bomb 5.6
Non-ferrous metals 4.1 Inconel 5.3
Tin 4.1 Inserts 5.2
Zinc 4.1 Mass defect 5.6
Zinc blende 4.2 Mass energy relation (E = MC 2) 5.6
Moderators 5.5, 5.6
Chapter 5
Molybdenum 5.1
β and γ radiations 5.6
Monomers 5.4
Addition polymerisation 5.4
Natural uranium 5.4
Artificial diamond 5.2
Nimonic 5.3
Atom bomb 5.6
Nuclear fission 5.6
Atomic mass unit 5.5
Nuclear fusion 5.6
Babbitts 5.3
Nuclear materials 5.4
Bakelite 5.4 Nuclear waste 5.6
Bearing materials 5.3 Physical vapour deposition 5.1
Binding energy 5.5 Plain carbon steels 5.1
Boiling water reactor (BWR) 5.6 Polyester 5.4
Borazon 5.2 Polymerisation 5.4
Bronze 5.4 Polymers 5.4
Candu reactor 5.6 Polyvinyl chloride 5.4
Cemented carbides 5.1 Porous bearings 5.4
Ceramics 5.2 Positron 5.6
Cermets 5.2 Pressurised water reactor (PWR) 5.6
Chemical vapour deposition 5.2 Reflectors 5.5
Refractory materials 5.3 Pattern 6.1

Rene 5.3 Pattern allowance 6.2
Secondary fuels 5.5 Permanent mould 6.1
Shielding materials 5.6 Permeability 6.4
Stellites 5.1 Permeability number 6.5
Superalloys 5.3 Permeability test 6.4
Teflon 5.4 Rapping allowance 6.3
Tungsten 5.1 Refractoriness 6.4
Udimet 5.3 Riser 6.2
Vanadium 5.1 Runner 6.2
Vitallium 5.3 Sand mould 6.1
White metals 5.3 Shell moulding 6.5
Shrinkage allowance 6.3
Chapter 6 Skeleton pattern 6.2
Castability 6.2 Solid pattern 6.2
Casting 6.1 Split pattern 6.2
Chill 6.2 Sprue 6.2
Clay content test 6.4 Synthetic sand 6.4
Cohesiveness 6.4 Vent 6.2
Collapsibility 6.4
Compression test 6.5 Chapter 7
Cope and drag pattern 6.2 Centrifugal casting 7.1
Core 6.2 Centrifuging 7.2
Crucible furnace 6.3 Continuous casting 7.3
Cupola furnace 6.3 Die casting 7.2
Draft allowance 6.3 Full mould casting 7.2
Electric furnace 6.3 Investment casting 7.1
Expendable mould 6.1 Permanent mould casting 7.1
Facing sand 6.4 Plaster-mould casting 7.2
Fineness test 6.5 Semi centrifugal casting 7.2
Gate 6.2 Shell-mould casting 7.1
Gated pattern 6.2 Slush casting 7.3
Gating system 6.2 True centrifugal casting 7.2
Induction furnace 6.3
Loose piece pattern 6.2 Chapter 8
Machining allowance 6.3 Adhesive bonding 8.1
Match plate pattern 6.2 Arc welding 8.2
Melting furnaces 6.3 Atomic hydrogen welding 8.5
Moisture test 6.4 Autogeneous joint 8.1
Mould 6.1 Brazing 8.1
Mould hardness test 6.5 Carbon arc welding 8.3
Moulding 6.2 Carburising flame 8.2
Moulding sand 6.4 Consumable electrode 8.2
Natural moulding sand 6.4 Electrogas welding 8.4
Chapter Index I.5
Electron beam welding 8.6 Radiographic inspection 9.3

Electroslag welding 8.4 Rat tail 9.2
Flux cored arc welding 8.4 Resistivity method 9.3
Fusion welding 8.1 Scab 9.1
Gas metal arc welding 8.4 Scar 9.1
Gas tungsten arc welding 8.5 Shrinkage 9.1
Gas welding 8.2 Spatter 9.3
Heterogeneous joint 8.1 Swell 9.2
Homogeneous joint 8.1 Thermal testing 9.3
Laser welding 8.6 Ultrasonic inspection 9.3
Mechanical fastening 8.1 Undercutting 9.2
Neutral flame 8.2 Wash 9.1
Non-consumable electrode 8.2
Oxidising flame 8.2 Chapter 10
Plastic welding 8.1 Back rake angle 10.2
Resistance welding 8.2, 8.6 Boring 10.5
Shielded metal arc welding 8.4 Burnishing 10.13
Soldering 8.1 Carbide tools 10.3
Stud welding 8.7 Centreless grinding 10.11
Submerged arc welding 8.4 Chamfering 10.5
Thermit welding 8.1, 8.7 Chip braker 10.4
Welding 8.1 Chip reduction coefficient 10.1
Chip thickness ratio 10.1
Chapter 9 Circular pitch 10.12
Acoustic emission monitoring 9.3 Continuous chip 10.3
Blister 9.1 Continuous chip with built-up edge 10.3, 10.4
Blow 9.1 Contour turning 10.4
Cold shut 9.1 Crater wear 10.3
Core shift 9.2 Diametral pitch 10.12
Defects in casting 9.1 Discontinuous chip 10.3, 10.4
Defects in welding 9.2 Dressing 10.10
Distortion 9.2 Drilling 10.4
Drop 9.2 Drilling machine 10.5
Eddy-current inspection 9.3 End cutting edge angle 10.2
Holography 9.3 End milling 10.8
Hot tear 9.2 End relief angle 10.2
Incomplete fusion 9.3 Engine lathe 10.4
Inspection of castings and weldments 9.3 Face milling 10.8
Liquid penetrant inspection 9.3 Feed 10.4
Magnetic particle inspection 9.3 Finishing cut 10.3
Misrun 9.1 Flank wear 10.3
Overlapping 9.2 Friability 10.11
Pin holes 9.2 Gang milling 10.9
Pressure testing 9.3 Gear manufacturing 10.12
Gear manufacturing methods 10.12 Surface contouring 10.8

Gear ratio 10.12 Swing 10.4
Grindability 10.11 Taper turning 10.4
Grinding 10.9 Taylor’s tool life equation 10.3
Grinding ratio 10.10 Thread milling 10.9
Grinding wheel 10.10, 10.11 Threading 10.5
Helical gears 10.13 Tool signature 10.2
Hobbing 10.12, 10.13 Trepanning 10.5
Honing 10.13 Truing 10.10
Jigs and fixtures 10.13 Turning 10.3, 10.4
Knurling 10.5 Turret lathe 10.5
Lapping 10.13 Twist drill 10.5
Lathe 10.4 Up and down milling 10.8, 10.9
Locators 10.13
Machinability 10.4 Chapter 11
Metal removal rate (MRR) 10.2 Abrasive jet machining 11.1, 11.4
Milling 10.8 Abrasive water-jet machining 11.1, 11.4
Module 10.12 Chemical blanking 11.1, 11.2
Nose radius 10.2 Chemical milling 11.1, 11.2
Orthogonal cutting 10.1 Electrical discharge machining 11.1, 11.2
Parting 10.5 Electrochemical grinding 11.1
Peripheral milling 10.8 Electrochemical machining 11.1, 11.2, 11.3
Planer 10.6 Electron beam machining 11.1, 11.3
Pocket milling 10.8 Laser beam machining 11.1, 11.3
Profile milling 10.8 Non-traditional machining methods 11.1
Rack and pinion 10.12 Photochemical blanking 11.1, 11.2
Rake angle 10.1, 10.2 Plasma arc cutting 11.4
Reaming 10.5 Ultrasonic machining 11.1, 11.3
Roughing cut 10.3 Water jet machining 11.1, 11.2
Shaper 10.6 Wire EDM 11.2
Shaving 10.13
Chapter 12
Shear area 10.1
Advantages of powder metallurgy 12.1, 12.2
Shear plane angle 10.1
Atomisation 12.1
Side cutting edge angle 10.2
Cold isostatic compaction 12.1
Side milling 10.8
Compaction 12.1
Side rake angle 10.2
Side relief angle 10.2 Electrolytic deposition method 12.1
Size of a lathe 10.4 Hot isostatic compaction 12.1
Size of a shaper 10.6 Impregnation 12.1
Slab milling 10.8 Infiltration 12.1
Slotting 10.8 Injection moulding 12.1
Soft and hard grinding 10.10 Limitations of powder metallurgy 12.1, 12.2
Spur gear 10.12 Powder metallurgy 12.1
Straddle milling 10.8 P ⁄ M products 12.2
Chapter Index I.7
Reduction method 12.1 Chapter 14

Roll compaction 12.1 Angle gauge 14.2
Sintering 12.1 Autocollimator 14.2
Bevel protractor 14.2
Chapter 13
Clinometer 14.2
Bending 13.1, 13.4
Blanking 13.4 Comparators 14.2
Centre burst 13.3 Dial indicator 14.2
Closed-die forging 13.3 End measurement 14.1
Coining 13.4 Gauge blocks 14.2
Cold working 13.1 Line measurement 14.1
Cup/deep drawing 13.1, 13.4 Mechanical comparators 14.2
Draft 13.1 Metrology 14.1
Drawing 13.2
Micrometer 14.2
Drop forging 13.3
Optical flat 14.2
Embossing 13.4
Pneumatic comparators 14.2
Extrusion 13.1, 13.3
SI units 14.1
Flash 13.3
Sine bar 14.2
Forging 13.2
Spirit level 14.2
Hobbing 13.3
Straight edge 14.1
Hot working 13.1
Surface plate 14.1
Hydrostatic extrusion 13.3
Transducer 14.2
Impact extrusion 13.3
Try square 14.2
Ironing 13.4
Vernier caliper 14.2
Open die forging 13.3
Vernier height 14.2
Press forging 13.3
Punching 13.4 Chapter 15
Recrystallisation temperature 13.1 ABC analysis 15.1
Redrawing 13.4 Cellular manufacturing 15.7
Roll bending 13.4
Computer integrated manufacturing (CIM) 15.6
Roll forging 13.3
Computer numerical control (CNC) 15.6
Roll forming 13.4
Computer-aided design (CAD) 15.6
Rolling 13.1
Computer-aided manufacturing (CAM) 15.6
Shear spinning 13.4
Concurrent engineering 15.7
Shearing 13.4
Economic order quantity (EOQ) 15.2
Smith forging 13.2
Electronic data interchange 15.5
Spinning 13.4
Enterprise resource planning (ERP) 15.2
Strain hardening 13.1
Flexible manufacturing system (FMS) 15.6
Stretch forming 13.4
Group technology 15.7
Swaging 13.3
Inventory 15.1
Thread rolling 13.2
Tube drawing 13.2 Inventory control 15.1
Tube extrusion 13.3 Just-in-time (JIT) 15.3
Tube spinning 13.4 Kaizen 15.4
Upset forging 13.3 Manufacturing resource planning (MRP II) 15.2
Material requirements planning (MRP) 15.2 Setup cost 15.1

Numerical control (NC) 15.6 Statistical quality control (SQC) 15.5
Ordering cost 15.1 Supply chain 15.3
Quality circle 15.4 Supply chain management 15.3
Safety stock 15.1 Total quality control (TQC) 15.4
S U B J E C T I N D E X
A Brazing 8.1
ABC analysis 15.1 Bronze 4.2, 5.4
Abrasive jet machining 11.1, 11.4 Burnishing 10.13
Abrasive water-jet machining 11.1, 11.4
C
Acoustic emission monitoring 9.3
Addition polymerisation 5.4 Carbon arc welding 8.3
Carburising 3.4
Admiralty brass 4.2
Carburising flame 8.2
Advantages of powder metallurgy 12.1, 12.2
Cartridge brass 4.2
Age hardening 4.2
Cast iron 3.1
Alclad 4.1
Castability 6.2
Alloy steel 3.2
Casting 6.1
Aluminium 4.1
Cellular manufacturing 15.7
Angle gauge 14.2 Cementite 3.3
Annealing 3.3 Centreless grinding 10.11
Arc welding 8.2 Centrifugal casting 7.1
Artificial diamond 5.2 Centrifuging 7.2
Atomic hydrogen welding 8.5 Ceramics 5.2
Atomic packing factor (APF) 1.1, 1.2 Cermets 5.2
Atomisation 12.1 Chamfering 10.5
Autocollimator 14.2 Chemical blanking 11.1, 11.2
Autogeneous joint 8.1
Chemical milling 11.1, 11.2
B Chill 6.2
Babbitts 5.4 Chip braker 10.4
Back rake angle 10.2 Chip reduction coefficient 10.1
Bakelite 5.4 Chip thickness ratio 10.1
bcc structure 1.1 Circular pitch 10.12
Bearing materials 5.3 Cladding materials 5.5
Bending 13.4 Clay content test 6.4
Bevel protractor 14.2 Clinometer 14.2
Binding energy 5.5 Closed-die forging 13.3
Blanking 13.4 Coated cemented carbides 5.2
Blister 9.1 Coated HSS 5.1
Blow 9.1 Cohesiveness 6.4
Borazon 5.2 Coining 13.4
Boring 10.5 Cold isostatic compaction 12.1
Bragg’s law 1.2 Cold shut 9.1
Brass 4.2 Cold working 13.1
Collapsibility 6.4 Drop forging 13.3

Compaction 12.1 Duralumin 4.1
Comparators 14.2
Composites 5.2, 5.3 E
Computer integrated manufacturing (CIM) 15.6 Economic order quantity (EOQ) 15.2
Computer numerical control (CNC) 15.6 Eddy-current inspection 9.3
Computer-aided design (CAD) 15.6 Electrical conductivity 2.1, 2.3
Computer-aided manufacturing (CAM) 15.6 Electrical discharge machining 11.1, 11.2
Concurrent engineering 15.7 Electrochemical machining 11.1, 11.2, 11.3
Condensation polymerisation 5.4 Electrogas welding 8.4
Continuous chip with built-up edge 10.3, 10.4 Electrolytic deposition method 12.1
Continuous chip 10.3 Electron beam machining 11.1, 11.3
Continuous casting 7.3 Electron beam welding 8.6
Contour turning 10.4 Electronic data interchange 15.5
Control rods 5.5, 5.6 Electroslag welding 8.4
Coolants 5.5, 5.6 Embossing 13.4
Cope and drag pattern 6.2 End cutting edge angle 10.2
Copper 4.1 End measurement 14.1
Core 6.2 End milling 10.8
Core shift 9.2 End relief angle 10.2
Coronite 5.2 Enriched uranium 5.4, 5.5
Crater wear 10.3 Enterprise resource planning (ERP) 15.2
Cubic boron nitride (CBN) 5.2 Epoxy 5.4
Cupola furnace 6.3 Eutectic reaction 3.3
Cup/deep drawing 13.1, 13.4 Eutectoid reaction 3.3
Cutting tool materials 5.1 Eutectoid steel 3.3
Cyaniding 3.4 Expendable mould 6.1
Extrusion 13.1, 13.3
D
Defects in casting 9.1 F
Defects in welding 9.2 Face milling 10.8
Density 2.1, 2.2 Fast breeder reactors 5.6
Dial indicator 14.2
f cc structure 1.1
Diametral pitch 10.12
Ferrite (α-iron) 3.2
Diamond 5.2
Ferrous materials 1.1
Die casting 7.2
Fineness test 6.5
Discontinuous chip 10.3, 10.4
Flame hardening 3.4
Draft 13.1
Draft allowance 6.3 Flank wear 10.3
Drawing 13.2 Flash 13.3
Dressing 10.10 Flexible manufacturing system (FMS) 15.6
Drilling 10.4 Flux cored arc welding
Drilling machine 10.5 Forging 13.2
Drop 9.2 Friability 10.11
Subject Index I.11
Full mould casting 7.2 Incomplete fusion 9.3

Fusion welding 8.1 Inconel 5.3
Induction hardening 3.4
G
Infiltration 12.1
Gang milling 10.9
Injection moulding 12.1
Gas metal arc welding 8.4
Inserts 5.2
Gas tungsten arc welding 8.5
Inspection of castings and weldments 9.3
Gas welding 8.2
Inventory 15.1
Gate 6.2
Inventory control 15.1
Gated pattern 6.2
Investment casting 7.1
Gating system 6.2
Iron 1.1
Gauge blocks 14.2
Ironing 13.4
Gear manufacturing 10.12
Gear manufacturing methods 10.12 J
Gear ratio 10.12 Jigs and fixtures 10.13
Grindability 10.11 Just-in-time (JIT) 15.3
Grinding 10.9
Grinding ratio 10.10 K
Grinding wheel 10.10, 10.11 Kaizen 15.4
Group technology 15.7 Knurling 10.5
Gun metal 4.2
L
H Lapping 10.13
Hardening 3.3 Laser beam machining 11.1, 11.3
hcp structure 1.1 Laser welding 8.6
Heat treatment of ferrous metals 3.3 Lathe 10.4
High alloy steel 3.2 Lead 4.1
High carbon steel 3.1 Limitations of powder metallurgy 12.1, 12.2
High speed steel 3.2 Line measurement 14.1
High temperature materials 5.3 Liquid penetrant inspection 9.3
Hobbing 10.12, 10.13, 13.3 Loose piece pattern 6.2
Holography 9.3
Homogeneous joint 8.1 M
Honing 10.13 M series HSS 3.2
Hot isostatic compaction 12.1 Machinability 10.4
Hot tear 9.2 Machining allowance 6.3
Hot working 13.1 Magnesium 4.1
Magnetic particle inspection 9.3
HSS 5.1
Manufacturing resource planning (MRP II) 15.2
Hydrostatic extrusion 13.3
Mass defect 5.6
Hyper-eutectoid steel 3.3
Mass energy relation (E = MC 2) 5.6
Hypo-eutectoid steel 3.3
Match plate pattern 6.2
I Material requirements planning (MRP) 15.2
Impact extrusion 13.3 Mechanical comparators 14.2
Impregnation 12.1 Medium carbon steel 3.1
Melting furnaces 6.3 Permeability 6.4

Melting point 2.1, 2.3 Permeability number 6.5
Metal removal rate (MRR) 10.2 Permeability test 6.4
Metalloids 1.1 Phase diagram 3.2
Micrometer 14.2 Photochemical blanking 11.1, 11.2
Mild steel 3.1 Pig iron 3.1
Miller indices 1.2 Pin holes 9.2
Milling 10.8 Plain carbon steels 5.1
Misrun 9.1 Planer 10.6
Moderators 5.5, 5.6 Plasma arc cutting 11.4
Module 10.12 Plaster-mould casting 7.2
Moisture test 6.4 Plastic welding 8.1
Mould 6.1 Pocket milling 10.8
Moulding 6.2 Polymerisation 5.4
Moulding sand 6.4 Polymers 5.4
Muntz brass 4.2 Polyvinyl chloride 5.4
Powder metallurgy 12.1
N Press forging 13.3
Natural uranium 5.4 Pressure testing 9.3
Neutral flame 8.2 Profile milling 10.8
Nimonic 5.3 Punching 13.4
Nitriding 3.4 P ⁄ M products 12.2
Non-ferrous materials 1.1, 4.1
Non-traditional machining methods 11.1 Q
Normalising 3.3 Quality circle 15.4
Nose radius 10.2
Nuclear fission 5.6 R
Nuclear fusion 5.6 Rack and pinion 10.12
Nuclear waste 5.6 Radiographic inspection 9.3
Rake angle 10.1, 10.2
O Rapping allowance 6.3
Open die forging 13.3
Rat tail 9.2
Optical flat 14.2
Reaming 10.5
Ordering cost 15.1
Recrystallisation temperature 13.1
Orthogonal cutting 10.1
Redrawing 13.4
Oxidising flame 8.2
Reduction method 12.1
P Reflectors 5.5
Parting 10.5 Refractoriness 6.4
Pattern 6.1 Refractory materials 5.3
Pattern allowance 6.2 Rene 5.3
Pearlite 3.3 Resistance welding 8.2
Peripheral milling 10.8 Resistivity method 9.3
Permanent mould 6.1 Riser 6.2
Permanent mould casting 7.1 Roll bending 13.4
Subject Index I.13
Roll compaction 12.1 Sprue 6.2

Roll forging 13.3 Stainless steel 3.1, 3.2
Roll forming 13.4 Statistical quality control (SQC) 15.5
Rolling 13.1 Stellites 5.1
Runner 6.2 Straddle milling 10.8
Straight edge 14.1
S Strain hardening 13.1
Safety stock 15.1 Stretch forming 13.4
Scab 9.1 Stud welding 8.7
Scar 9.1 Submerged arc welding 8.4
Semi centrifugal casting 7.2 Superalloys 5.3
Setup cost 15.1 Supply chain 15.3
Shaper 10.6 Supply chain management 15.3
Shaving 10.13 Surface contouring 10.8
Shear spinning 13.4 Surface hardening (case hardening) 3.3
Shearing 13.4 Surface plate 14.1
Shell moulding 6.5 Swaging 13.3
Shell-mould casting 7.1 Swell 9.2
Shielded metal arc welding 8.4 Synthetic sand 6.4
Shielding materials 5.6
Shrinkage 9.1 T
Shrinkage allowance 6.3 T-series HSS 3.2
Side cutting edge angle 10.2 Taper turning 10.4
Side milling 10.8 Taylor’s tool life equation 10.3
Side rake angle 10.2 Teflon 5.4
Side relief angle 10.2
Tempering 3.3
Sine bar 14.2
Thermal conductivity 2.1, 2.3
Sintering 12.1
Thermal testing 9.3
Skeleton pattern 6.2
Thermit welding 8.1, 8.7
Slab milling 10.8
Thread milling 10.9
Slotting 10.8
Thread rolling 13.2
Slush casting 7.3
Threading 10.5
Soft and hard grinding 10.10
Tin 4.1
Soldering 8.1
Tool signature 10.2
Solid pattern 6.2
Total quality control (TQC) 15.4
Spatter 9.3
Transducer 14.2
Specific gravity 2.1
Specific heat 2.1, 2.2 Trepanning 10.5
Specific heat at constant pressure (CP) 2.1 True centrifugal casting 7.2
Truing 10.10
Specific heat at constant volume (CV) 2.1
Spheroidising 3.3 Try square 14.2
Spinning 13.4 Tube drawing 13.2
Spirit level 14.2 Tube extrusion 13.3
Split pattern 6.2 Tube spinning 13.4
Turning 10.3, 10.4 Vernier height 14.2

Turret lathe 10.5 Vitallium 5.3
Twist drill 10.5
W
U Wash 9.1
Water jet machining 11.1, 11.2
Udimet 5.3
White metals 5.3
Ultrasonic inspection 9.3
Wire-EDM 11.2
Ultrasonic machining 11.1, 11.3
Wrought iron 3.1
Up and down milling 10.8, 10.9
Upset forging 13.3 Z
Zinc 4.1
V α-iron 1.2
Vent 6.2 δ-iron 1.1
Vernier caliper 14.2 γ-iron 1.2

Manufacturing by DK Singh

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

You might also like

Manufacturing by DK Singh

Uploaded by

Document Information

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Manufacturing by DK Singh

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Manufacturing Technology

——Theory and Problems ——

1. INTRODUCTION TO ENGINEERING MATERIALS 1.1-1.12

2. PROPERTIES OF MATERIALS 2.1-2.17

3. FERROUS MATERIALS AND THEIR HEAT TREATMENT 3.1-3.19

4. NON-FERROUS MATERIALS AND THEIR HEAT TREATMENT 4.1-4.6

5. OTHER IMPORTANT MATERIALS 5.1-5.32

6. INTRODUCTION TO CASTING 6.1-6.21

7. VARIOUS CASTING PROCESSES 7.1-7.10

8. JOINING PROCESSES 8.1-8.27

9. DEFECTS AND INSPECTION IN CASTING AND WELDING 9.1-9.12

10. METAL CUTTING AND MACHINING PROCESSES 10.1-10.69

11. NON-TRADITIONAL MACHINING PROCESSES 11.1-11.19

12. POWDER METALLURGY 12.1-12.10

13. FORMING PROCESSES 13.1-13.37

14. METROLOGY 14.1-14.9

15. ELEMENTS OF MODERN MANUFACTURING 15.1-15.29

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

3. The absolute mass of an electron is

4. The energy required to remove an electron from an atom is called

8. The magnitude of charge present on an electron or a proton is equal to

10. The energy equivalent to 1 eV/bond is equal to

13. Consider the following statements:

(iii) Bond energy is expressed in kJ/mole.

29. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

C. Nimonic alloy 3. Thermocouple

33. Nucleon consists of

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

16. Why is it difficult to select a particular material?

PHYSICAL PROPERTIES OF MATERIALS

Material Specific heat Specific heat

Table 2.2 Specific heats of some liquid materials

Material Specific heat Specific heat

Density and specific gravity

Table 2.3 Densities of some metals

Material Density (kg/m3)

MECHANICAL PROPERTIES OF MATERIALS

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

3. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

(iii) Creep — Progressive deformation

8. Which of the following materials is highly elastic?

9. Rockwell hardness test uses

20. Which of the following tests is also called ‘Microhardness test’?

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

2. How is true stress different from engineering stress?

3. Differentiate between elastic and plastic zones.

4. What is true strain?

l (l = Instantaneous length at any moment

5. What is true stress?

7. When does neck formation start?

9. Draw the stress-strain curves for the following materials:

10. What is the significance of modulus of elasticity?

13. How is elastic deformation of a material different from plastic deformation?

16. How is toughness of a material different than its hardness?

17. Why do materials having fcc structure offer high formability?

19. What is the importance of recrystallisation temperature?

21. What is viscoelasticity?

9. Poisson’s ratio for cork is zero.

12. Viscoelasticity is the combination of viscosity and elasticity.