bond makes the peptide bond planar. 1. Isoelectric or pI is the pH midway between pKa values on either side of isoelectric A. only the first statement is correct. species where amino acids exits as neutral B. only the second statement is correct. species. Lysine has three pK values. pK1 =2.2, C. Both the first statements is correct. pK2 = 9.2 and pK3 =10.8. What is the pI of D. Both the first statements is incorrect. lysine? A. 5.7 8. Glutamic acid has 3pK values: . pK1 =2.2, pK2 B. 6.5 = 4.3 and pK3 =9.7. Which of the following C. 10 ionic forms of glutamic acid will predominate D. 11.4 at a pH below its isoelectric point of 3.25? E. 9.2 A. COOH COOH B. COO COOH 2. Most amino acids do not absorb visible light C. COO COO and thus are colorless. However, there are D. COO COO some that can absorb light. Which of the E. COO COOH following groupings of amino acids contribute 9. Most _____ amino acids are buried away from to the ability of most proteins to absorb high water solvent that interacts with the surface of wavelength (250-290nm) ultraviolet light? a soluble protein while most ______ side A. Alanine, valine, leucine chains are on the surface of soluble globular B. Tryptophan, tyrosine and phenylalanine proteins. C. Serine, cysteine, and thereonine A. Charged; hydrophobic D. Arginine, lysine and arginine B. Hydrophobic; charged E. Glutamate and aspartate C. Hydrophobic; apolar D. Charged; polar 3. In protein nomenclature, if the name of the E. None of these peptide is phenyllalanyl-aspartyl-lysyl- 10. Which amino acids is antagonized by drugs of aspargine, which residue has its α-carboxyl abuse such as ketamine and phencyclidine group not involved in the peptide bond and is implicated in schizophrenia/ formation? A. Glycine A. Phe B. Aspartate B. Asp C. Tryptophan C. Lys D. Glutamate D. Asn E. Tyrosine E. None 11. Which amino acid is a major neurotransmitter 4. Which of the following pairs of amino acids in the brain? with the indicated side-chain is CORRECT? A. Tyrosine A. Cyteine-sulfhydryl group B. Glutamate B. Valine-methyl group C. Aspartate C. Tryptopan-phenol group D. Serine D. Serine-guanido group E. Tryprophan E. Methionine-hydroxymethyl 12. A 57 year old man with a long history of 5. Which of the following statement/s is/are alcohol abuse comes to the emergency room TRUE about glutamine and asparagine? with symptoms of confusion and I. Their amide chains can be protonated hepatomegaly on examination. The patient II. They are uncharged at physiologic pH. also has a flapping tremor at the wrist III. They are easily differentiated from (asterixis). He is diagnosed with hepatic aspartate and glutamate by chemical encephalopathy, which can be partially procedures since amides closely treated with a diet of branched-chain amino resemble acids in the chemical acids. Which of the following sets of amino properties. acids would you suggest? IV. They are structural analogs of A. Tryptophan, phenylalanine, tyrosine aspartate and glutamate with their B. Aspartate, glutamine, asparagines carboxylic side-chain groups aminated C. Valine, leucine, isoleucine A. I, II, III D. Methionine, proline, cystein B. I & III E. Alanine, glycine C. II & IV 13. Which of the following amino acids is D. I, II, III & IV inhibitory & antagonized by the rodenticide 6. _________ configuration of the peptide bond strychnine, leading to muscle twitching and is more stable than the ________ spasm? configuration. A. Glycine A. Syn; anti B. Asparagines B. Trans; cis C. Lysine C. R; S D. Tyrosine D. D; L E. Tryptophan E. Erythro; threo 14. A man diagnosed of hartnup disease wherein 7. Evaluate the following statements. his urinalysis results showed significant 1. The alpha carbonyl to nitrogen portion of increase in the neutral amino acids. Which of the peptide bond can rotate at physiologic the following amino acids would have been temperatures. found in his urine sample? A. Histidine E. Nucleolus B. Arginine 22. Site of lipid synthesis in cells C. Phenylalanine A. Smooth endopasmic reticulum D. Glutamate B. Rough endoplasmic reticulum E. Lysine C. Golgi apparatus 15. The presence of which characteristic D. Mitochondrion distinguishes a eukaryote from prokaryote E. Lysosomes A. DNA 23. Primary reserve carbohydrate in plants B. Well-defined nucleus A. Chitin C. Cytoplasm B. Glycogen D. Cell membrane C. Starch E. Ribosome D. Chondroitin 16. An organelle is the portion of the cell enclosed E. Heparin by a membrane. Based on this, which of the 24. Water has high ______ hence it is good in following is not strictly an organelle? minimizing temperature fluctuations. A. Mitochondrion A. Polarity specific heat B. Lysosome B. H-bond potential C. Ribosome C. Acidity D. Endoplasmic reticulum D. Nucleophilicity E. None of these 25. Molecules that are part hydrophilic and par 17. Hydrogen bonding plays s role in the behavior hydrophobic. of water as a solvent. It is also a key to the A. Amphipathic specificity f transfer of genetic formation. B. Protophilic Which does not properly illustrate hydrogen C. Nucleophilic bonding? D. Amphiphilic A. O H ---O E. Protogenic 26. When c1 of monosaccharides becomes chiral, H it is now known as a(an): B. C H-----O H A. Epimeric carbon B. Enantiomeric carbon C. Assymetric carbon D. Anomeric carbon C. N----- H N E. Acetalic carbon 27. Two sugars that differ only in the configuration D. N H----- N of ne carbon atom other than the terminal carbon atom the penultimate carbon atom are E. None of the above called____. A. Anomers 18. Which of the fllowing vitamins may cause B. Epimers CNS disturbances, liver and skin damage C. Enantiomers when taken in excess? D. Erythro ismers A. A E. Threo isomers B. B3 28. The glycosidic linkage that binds glucose and C. B6 glucose to form maltose. D. D A. Beta-(1 2) E. E B. Beta-(1 4) 19. Which of the vitamins may cause extensive C. Alpha-(1 4) vasoconstriction and elevated blood pressure D. Alpha-(1 2) and calcinosis of soft tissues when taken in E. Alpha-(4 1) excess? 29. The glycosidic linkage that binds glucose and A. Vitamin A galactose to form lactose. B. Vitamin B3 A. Beta- (1 2) C. Vitamin B6 B. Beta- (1 4) D. Vitamin D C. Alpha-(1 4) E. Vitamin E D. Alpha-(1 2) 20. The organelle-free cell sap where many E. Alpha-(4 1) reactions and metabolic pathways such as 30. The component of starch that reacts with glycolysis, glycogenesis and fatty acid iodine to form a deep-blue colored complex synthesis occur is known as the _______. A. Glycogen A. Mithochondrion B. Achroodextrin B. Cystosol C. Maltotriose C. Nucleus D. Amylose D. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum E. Amylopectin E. Cell membrane 31. A sulfated polysaccharide found in Gelidium 21. Part of the cell that contains the organelles cartilagenium which can be used as culture that carry out functions essential t cell media for growing microorganisms. metabolism. A. Chitin A. Cell membrane B. Agar B. Cytoplasm C. Pectin C. Nucleus D. Hyaluronic acid D. Cytskeletn E. Dextran 32. Amino sugar found in chondroitin D. Aldehydic bonds A. N-acetylfructosamine E. H-bonds B. N-acetylglucosamine 43. Amylose differs from amylopectin in that C. N-acetylgalactsamine amylose contains alpha-1,4 linkages while D. N-acetylmuramic acid amylpectin contains ______ linkage/s: E. N-acetylmannosamine I. Alpha-(1 2) 33. Dextran is primarily used as a(an): II. Alpha-(1 4) A. Suspending agent III. Alpha-(1 6) B. Culture medium C. Glomerular filtration evaluation A. I, II & III D. Plasma expander F. I & II E. Sweetener G. II & III 34. An enzyme considered to be a “spreading” H. II only factor to increase the absorption of solutions I. III only administered by clysis. 44. The alcohol contained by glycosphingolipids A. Sucrase A. Glycerol phingosine B. Amylase B. Glycol C. Hyaluronidase C. Fatty alcohols D. Amylopectase D. Sterols 35. Heparin, a mucopolysaccharide is used as an 45. Phosphatidylcholine is also known as: anticoagulant because: A. Lecithin A. It inhibit platelet aggregation B. Cephalin B. It dissolves blood clots C. Plasmalogen C. It dissolves fibrin D. Cardiolipin D. It activates antithrombin E. Sphingomyelin E. It hydrolyzes prothrombin 46. Phosphatidyletnolamine is also known as: 36. Branching frequency of glycgen’s stucture: A. Lecithin A. Every 4-6 glucose units B. Cephalin B. Every 6-10 glucose units C. Plasmalogen C. Every 12-14 glucose units D. Cardiolipin D. Every 2-6 glucose units E. Sphingomyelin E. Every 25-30 glucose units 47. It is a formula used to describe the behavior of 37. The principal component of exoskeletons of weak acids and buffers in solution: arthropods, lobster & crabs A. Henderson-Haselbalch Equation A. Peptidoglycan B. Vant Hoff Equation B. Cellulose C. Van’t Hoff Equation C. Chondroitin D. Hendersn-Hasselbalch Equation D. Chitin E. Henderson-Hasselbach Equation E. Cell wall 48. Fructose intolerance can lead to: 38. It is the dietary precursor for arachidnic acid. A. Diarrhea A. Oleic acid B. Flatulence B. Timnodonic acid C. Hypoglycemia C. Linoleic acid D. Constipation D. Linolenic acid E. GIT spasm E. Cervonic acid 49. Failure to metabolize galactose cause 39. Glucose and galactose are epimers at carbon galactosemia and further: number: A. Renal failure A. 6 B. Liver failure B. 3 C. Cataracts C. 4 D. Neuropathy D. 5 E. Arthropathy E. 2 50. Eicosapentaenic acid (EPA) found in fish 40. Which carbohydrate would not rotate palne preparations such as Omacor® is commonly polarized light? known as? A. Erythrose A. Palmitoleic acid B. Lycerose B. Timnodonic acid C. Dihydroxyacetone C. Lenoleic acid D. Fructose D. Cervonic acid E. Glucose 51. Docosahexaenoic acid (DHA) found in fish oil 41. Glucose mannose are epimers at carbn preparations such as Omacor® is commonly number: known as? A. 6 A. Palmitoleic acid B. 3 B. Timnodonic acid C. 4 C. Linoleic acid D. 5 D. Linoleic acid E. 2 E. Cervonic acid 42. Bonds that link fatty acids with glycerol in 52. EPAand DHA belongs to what mega triglycerides. superfamily f fatty acids? A. Ester bonds A. Omega-9 B. Amide bonds B. Omega-6 C. Ether bonds C. Omega-3 D. Omega-5 D. Thromboxane E. Omega-7 E. Leukotriene 53. Which of the following monosaccharide is 63. The enzyme that coverts arachidnic acid to found in wod gums and in vivo, in several leucotriene. glycoproteins? A. Prostagalndin A. Arabinose B. Arachidonic acid B. Xylulose C. Prostacyclin C. Xylose D. Thromboxane D. Lyxose E. Leukotriene E. Erythrose 64. It is the major surfactant found in the lungs of 54. A deoxy sugar found in the DNA molecule newborn babies and neonates that prevent A. Fucose the adherence of inner lung surfaces together. B. Deoxygalactose A. Lecithin C. Deoxyribose B. Dipalmitoyl phosphatidylcholine D. Dexyglucose C. Dipalmitoyl phosphatidylethanlamine E. Idose D. Cephalin 55. DNA differs from RNA in that the OH in C2 of E. Phosphatidylinositol the monsaccharide found in the RNA is 65. These are the major liids of the mitochondria. replaced by: A. Cardiolipin A. Amino group B. Cephalin B. Nitrogenous base C. Lecithin C. Carboxyl carbon D. Inositrol D. Hydrogen atom E. Phosphatidylserine E. Carbonyl carbon 66. Secondary messenger that are 56. Monosaccharide found in cases of pentosuria biosynthesized by action of phospolipase C which is usually due to a genetic defiency of include diacylglycerol and: the reductase that reduce the A. Inositol 4,5 biphospate monosaccharide to a non-reducing sugar B. Inositol -1,4,5 triphospate alcohol: C. Inositol 5-phospate A. Arabinose D. Inositol 1,4,5,6 tetraphospate B. Lyxose E. Inositol monophospate C. Xylulose 67. These are molecules that resemblecephalin, D. Xylose and are found in the brain and muscles the nly E. Ribulose differences is that instead of an ester goup on 57. Molisch test is also known as: sn-1, an ether groupis present and the alkyl A. Alpha-naphthol reaction group unsaturated. B. Aminoguanidine reaction A. Sphingomyelin C. Anthrone reaction B. Palsmalogen D. Salkowski test C. Lysophospolipid E. Liberman-buchard test D. Ceramide 58. Taubers test for ketoses is also known as: E. Sphingosine A. Alpha-naphthol reaction 68. It is the basic unit of glycolipids. B. Aminoguanidine reaction A. Glycerol C. Anthrone reaction B. Sphingosine D. Salkowski test C. Ceramide E. Liberman-buchard test D. Fatty acids 59. What is the central nucleus to all sterls? E. Phosphatidate A. Cyclopentanephenantrene 69. It isa the glycolipid found in neutral tissues. B. Cycloperhydrophenanthrene A. Neutamide C. Cyclopentanophenanthrene B. Neurosylceramide D. Cyclopentanoperhydrophenantrene C. Glucosylceramide E. Steroid Ring D. Gluboside 60. The acetic acid-sulfuric acid test for sterls is 70. A sample drug that inhibits cyclooxygenase also known as: A. Zilueton A. Alpha- naphthol reaction B. Montelukast B. Aminoguanidine reaction C. Zafirlukast C. Anthrone reaction D. Aspirin D. Salkowski test E. Salicylic acid E. Liberman-buchard test 71. Pro-vitamin D2 61. The sulfuric acid test for sterols is also known A. Ergosterol as: B. 7-dehydrocholesterol A. Alpha-naphthol reaction C. Sitosterol B. Aminoguanidine reaction D. Coprosterol C. Anthrone reaction E. 5-dehydrocholesterol D. Salkowski test 72. Pro-vitamin D3 E. Liberman-buchard test A. Ergsterol 62. Eicosanoid that is the major mediator of pain, B. 7-dehydrocholesterol inflammation. C. Sitosterol A. Prostaglandin D. Coprosterol B. Arachidonic acid E. 5-dehydrocholesterol C. Prostacyclin 73. Which of the fllowing completely inhibits committed step in the biosynthesis of choleterl absorption? cholesterol? A. Ergosterol A. Rosuvastin B. 7-dehydrocholesterol B. Cilastatin C. Sitosterol C. Nystatin D. Coprosterol D. Clindamycin E. 5-dehydrocholesterol E. Chloramphenicol 74. 5,8,11,14 20:4 corresponds to what fatty acids? 83. These are lipids with glucose or galactose A. Palmitoleic acid combined with ceramide B. Linoleic acid A. Cerebrosides C. Leic B. Gangliosides D. Linoleic acid C. Globosides E. Arachidonic acid D. Cytolipins 75. C11H23COOHcorrespnds to what fatty acid? E. Cardiolipins A. Myristic acid 84. What monosaccharide readily forms B. Stearic acid osazones? C. Lauric acid A. Galactose D. Lauric acid B. Fructose E. Palmitic acid C. Glucose 76. CH3(CH2)4CH=CHCH2=CH(CH2)7COOH D. Mannose correspnds to what fatty acid? E. Ribose A. Palmitoleic acid 85. Which of the following is considered to be the B. Linolenic acid good cholesterol? C. Arachidonic acid A. VLDL-C D. Oleic acid B. LDL-C E. Linoleic acid C. ISL-C 9 77. 16:1 correspond to what fatty acid? D. HDL-C A. Palmitoleic acid E. TAGs B. Linolenic acid 86. Amino acids that cannot be synthesized in the C. Arachidonic acid organism are called_____. D. Oleic acid A. Nutrionally non-essential amino acids E. Linoleic acid B. Nutrionally essential amino acids 78. What is the positive result for Molisch Test? C. Alpha amino acids A. Green color D. Standar amino acids B. Violet ring at the junction two liquids E. Nutrional amino acids C. Black pecipitate 87. When trysinogen is converted into trypsin, the D. Sandy crystals enzyme is called? E. Brick red precipitate A. Pepsin 79. Which of the following is used for B. Zymogen determination or testing for the presence of C. Amylase ketoses? D. Enterokinase I. Nynlander’s test E. Gastrin II. Tauber’s test 88. A malnutrition state that arises from chronic III. Barfoed’s test defieciency of calories even in the presence if IV. Seliwanoff’s test adequate protein intake. A. I, II & III A. Marasmus B. I & III B. Hemochromatosis C. II & IV C. Obesity D. II & III D. Kwashiorkor E. II, III & IV E. Anorexia 80. What is the positive result for the 89. Complementary base pairs in the DNA double aminoguanidine reaction? helix are bonded by A. Red color A. H-bond B. Violet color B. Ester bond C. Black precipitate C. Dipole-dipole forces D. Bright red purple color D. Vander waals forces E. Purple color E. Glycosidic bond 81. To which of the following test(s) will sucrose 90. Which nitrogen base is not found in the DNA? give a negative result? A. Adenine I. Fehling’s test B. Guanine II. Barfoed’s test C. Cytosine III. Molisch test D. Uracil A. I, II & III E. Tymine B. I & II 91. Pepsinogen is an example of: C. II & III A. Co-factor D. I & III B. Co-substrate E. I only C. Zymogen 82. Which of the following is a drug used for D. Holoenzyme hypercholesterolemia, owing to its ability of E. Apoenzyme inhibiting HMG-COA reductase, the first 92. Type of RNA which serves as template for the amino acid sequence being synthesized: A. mRNA biological activity and in other biochemical B. tRNA reaction that require methyl transfer? C. rRNA A. Alalnine D. dRNA B. Cysteine E. None of the above C. Cystine 93. Which of the following is true about uricase? D. Methionine I. Converts uric acid to water-soluble E. Leucine allantoin 101. Which of the following is a purine II. It is found only in higher primates analogue that inhibits xanthine oxidase, and is III. rDNA derived uricase ate now being thereby useful in the management of gouty employed for the management of artritis? gouty arthritis. A. Colchicine A. I only B. Naproxen B. II only C. Febuxostat C. I & II D. Allopurinol D. I, II & III E. Probenecid E. III only 102. Which of the following is not a purine 94. Which of the following is/are rDNA-derived analogue, bur is capable of inhibiting xanthine uricase? oxidase? I. Pegloticase A. Colchicine II. Febuxosat B. Naproxen III. Rasburicase C. Febuxostat A. I & II D. Allopurinol B. II & III E. Probenecid C. I & III 103. The amino acid that is an important D. I, II & III precursor of hemoglobin is E. I only A. Alanine 95. The amino acid groups from amino acids B. Proline obtained by protein metabolism are removed C. Leucine in the form of: D. Glycine A. Urate E. Cysteine B. Urea 104. This test specifically detects the C. Creatinine presence of indole ring: D. Ornithine A. Molisch test E. Ammonia B. Xanthroproteic test 96. Glutamine is represented by what letter in the C. Hopkins-cole test amino acids “alphabet”? D. Buret test A. K E. Na Nitroprusside test B. Q 105. In the secondary structure of RNA C. D A. Adenine will always pair with thymine D. E B. Cytosine will always pair with thymine E. Y C. Cytosine will always pair with uracil 97. Which of the following amino acids are D. Adenosine will always pair with uracil uncharged and polar? E. Guanine will always pair with uracil I. H 106. The type of RNA molecule crings II. N amino acid to the site of protein synthesis is: III. S A. mRNA IV. D B. rRNA A. I & II C. tRNA B. I & III D. dRNA C. I & I V E. hnRNA D. II & III 107. A nucleic acid is made up of: E. II & IV A. sugar, nucleoside and base 98. Which of the following amino acids possese B. proteins, sugar and amino acid an indole-ring? C. nitrogenous base, amino acid and sugar A. D D. nitrogenous base, phosphate and sugar B. Q E. phosphate, proteins and nitrogenous base C. F 108. Serotonin, a neurotransmitter is D. K derived from the amino acid: E. W A. Histidine 99. Which acid that gives a positive result for B. Serine Sakaguchi reaction C. Tryptophan A. Gelatin D. Phenylalanine B. Arginine E. Tyrosine C. Alanine 109. In the pineal gland, serotonin is D. Tyrosine converted to melatonin by: E. Tryptophan I. N-acetylation 100. Which of the following amino acids is II. N-methylation an important component of the activated co- III. Oxidation enzyme involved in the methylating IV. O-methylation catecholamines for termination of their A. I & II B. III & IV I. Cysteine residues are reduce to form C. I & III disulfide bonds D. II & IV II. Disulfide bonds can stabilize tertiary E. I & IV atructure of proteins. 110. A type of antibody that plays an III. Cysteine is a polar, sulfur important role in allergic response which containingamino acid cause anaphylactic shock, hay fever and A. I, II & III asthma. B. II & III A. IgA C. I & III B. IgD D. I only C. IgE E. III only D. IgG 119. Which of the following amino acids E. IgM contain/s basic side chains? 111. Which of the followingantibodies is I. Histidine capable of opsonization? II. Leucine A. IgA III. Argine B. IgD A. I, II & III C. IgE B. II & III D. IgG C. I & III E. IgM D. I only 112. This antibody is capable if crossing E. III only the placenta: 120. Which of the following amino acids A. IgA posess a hydroxyl droup which render/s B. IgD it/them polar? C. IgE I. Serine D. IgG II. Threonine E. IgM III. Tyrosine 113. Lactose: galactose + glucose; A. I, II & III Lactulose galactose + _______. B. II & III A. Galactose C. I & III B. Mannose D. I only C. Ribose E. III only D. Ribulose 121. Which of the following amino acids are E. Fructose condidered to be the smallest and is found in 114. Which of the following sharp protein folds? homotrisaccharide? A. Leucine A. Raffinose B. Isoleucine B. Melitose] C. Valine C. Melitriose D. Alanine D. Gentianose E. Glycine E. Maltotriose 122. Which of the following amino acids 115. Which of the following is a contained ny the peptide, GSH? nucleoside? I. Glycine A. Asenine II. Cysteine B. Cytosine III. Glutamine C. Uridine A. I, II & III D. Thymine B. II & III E. Guanine C. I & III 116. Which of the following base pairs is D. I only bonded by double bond? E. III only A. Adenine & Thymine 123. What stabilizes the primary structure B. Cytosine & Guanine of proteins? C. Adenine & Guanine A. Salt bridges D. Cytosine & Thymine B. Hydrophobic bonds E. Cytosine & Uracil C. Disulfide bonds 117. Which of the following statement is/are D. Peptide bonds true regarding the secondary structure of E. Hydrophobic interactions nucleic acids? 124. Which of the following amino acids I. Guanine forms base pairs with contain a phenolic hydroxyl group? cytosine via hydrogen bonds A. Ser II. The B form of the DNA is the most B. Thr common in biological systems C. Trp III. The breaking of H-bonds caused by D. Tyr high temperature is called melting E. Phe A. I, II & III 125. In twi dimensional electrophoresis, B. I & II proteins are purified by what methologies? C. II & III I. Isoelectric focusing D. I & III II. SDS-PSGE E. II only III. HPLC 118. Which of the following statement/s A. I, II & III is/are true? B. I & II C. I & III 134. This id heneral form for naturally D. II & III occurring proteins that yield only alpha amino E. III only acids or their derivatives on hydrolysis 126. In order to isolate an enzyme or a A. Simple proteins proteinnaceous ligand, the most suitable B. Conjugated proteins chromatographic procedure to be employed C. Primary-derived protein is: D. Secondary-derived proteins A. Partition chromatography E. Peptides B. Absorption chromatography 135. Keratin in hair belongs to what type of C. Ion-exchange chromatography simple proteins? D. Hydrophobic interaction chromatography A. Glutelins E. Affinity chromatography B. Glutenins 127. This method of protein purification is C. Histones based on proteins’ Stokes Radius, if the D. Protamines diameter of sphere in space that they occupy E. Albuminoids when tumble in the solution: 136. Zein in corn is an example of: A. Column chromatography A. Prolamine B. Size exclusion chromatography B. Protamine C. HPLC C. Histone D. SDS-PAGE D. Albuminoid E. Isoelectric focusing E. Globuline 128. Which of the following gives an 137. Casein in milk and ovovitellin in egg accurate estimate of pl? yolk are example of what type of conjugated A. pl= pK1=pk2 proteins? B. pl= (pK1+pk2)/2 A. Phosphoproteins C. pl= (pK1=pk2)x2 B. Nucleoproteins D. pl= pK1>pk2 C. Lipoproteins E. pl= pk2 > pK1 D. Chromoproteins 129. What process is involve in the E. Glycoproteins formation of the peptide bonds? 138. Nucleoproteins, lipoproteins & A. Oxidation glycoproteins belong to what class of protein? B. Reduction A. Simple C. Hydrolysis B. Conjugated D. Dehydration C. Primary derived 130. Which of the following statement/s D. Secondary derived is/are correct? E. Peptides I. The C-N bond in the peptide linkage 139. Arrange the following secondary has a partial double bond derived proteins from highest to lowest characteristic number of molecular weight II. Neither C-O or N-H in the peptide I. Peptides bond can dissociate II. Peptones III. Each amino acid in the peptide bonds III. Proteoses is called a residue. A. I, II, III A. I only B. III, I, II B. I & II C. II, I, III C. III only D. III, II, I D. II & III E. II, III, I E. I, II & III 140. Pauly Diazo test indicates the 131. This refers to partial arrangements of presence of: amino acids close to one another nin the I. Tryptophan linear sequence of polypeptide chains II. Histidine A. Primary structure III. Tyrosine B. Secondary structure A. I, II & III C. Supersecondary structure B. I & II D. Tertiary structure C. II & III E. Quarternary structure D. I & III 132. α-helix and β—pleated sheets belong E. III only to what structure? 141. Which of the following is not true A. Primary structure about protein structure determination? B. Secondary structure A. NMR is the primary means if determining C. Supersecondary structure protein structure D. Tertiary structure B. Proteins are difficult to crystallize, a E. Quarternary structure disadvantage of X-ray crystallography 133. Fibrous & globular proteins belong to C. An advantage to the use of NMR is that what protein structures? proteins analyzed are in their natural state A. Primary structure D. Large & very complex proteins can only B. Secondary structure be analyze by x-ray crystallography C. Supersecondary structure E. None of the above D. Tertiary structure 142. Which of the following is not true E. Quarternary structure regarding the four enzyme complexes if the electron transports chain? A. Complex I is known as NADH-CoQ B. Nucleotides Oxidoreductase C. Purines B. Complex II is known as Succinate-CoQ D. Pyrimidines Oxidoreductase E. This is a misnopmer. Nucleic acids are not C. Complex III is known as cytochrome actually acidic Oxidase 151. Which of the following are purine D. Complex IV is known as cytochrome bases? Oxidase A. Adenine & Thymine E. None of the above B. Guanine & cytosine 143. One important endogenous molecule C. Cytosine & uracil for synthetic biotransformation of xeno biotics D. Adenine & guanine is glucoronic acid. It is actually the most E. Cytosine & thymine dominant conjugative biotransformation 152. Ninhydrin gives a blue coloration with pathway due to the readily available source of I. Tyrosine glucose. It is produced from glucose via: II. Phenylalanine A. Oxidation at C1 III. Hydroxyproline B. Oxidation at C2 IV. Histidine C. Oxidation at C5 A. I & IV D. Oxidation at C6 B. I,II & III E. Oxidation at C1 and C6 C. I,II & IV 144. In an uncompetitive inhibition of D. I & II enzymatic action: E. III & IV A. The inhibitor binds to either the free 153. The DNA structure is a double helix enzyme or the enzyme-substrate complex containing chains which are complementary. B. Lineweaver-Burk Plots of the enzyme Which of the following describes alone (control) & the enzyme + inhibitor complementarily of the two strands of the are parallel to each other DNA molecule? C. The apparent Km is raised A. In the chains, each end of the helix D. The Vmax is unaffected contains the 5’ end of one strand and the E. The Vmax is raised 3’ end of the other 145. Which of the following statement is B. Adenine binds to thymine & cytosine binds correct? to guanine A. Adenine is a nucleoside C. Several codons may code for the same B. Adenosine is a nucleotide amino acid C. Nucleotides are nucleoside phosphates D. The primary structure is right-handed D. Nucleosides are basic units of nucleic double helix acids E. All of the above E. All of the above 154. Which of the following statements 146. Which of the following is a nucleotide? provide the most accurate description of the A. Guanine antiparallel nature of the DNA’s two strands? B. Guanosine A. In the chains, each end of the helix C. Guanosine monophosphate contains the 5’ end of one strand and the D. Any of the above 3’ end of the other E. None of the above B. Adenine binds to thymine & cytosine binds 147. The sugars that occur in the two major to guanine forms of nucleic acid differ in the substituents C. Several codons may code for the same at carbon ____. amino acid A. 1 D. The primary structure is right-handed B. 2 double helix C. 3 E. All of the above D. 4 155. Which of the following provide the E. 5 most accurate description of genetic code 148. The ribose in RNA is converted to degeneracy? deoxyribose in replacing the ____in RNA with A. In the chains, each end of the helix ____. contains the 5’ end of one strand and the A. OH, H 3’ end of the other B. H, OH B. Adenine binds to thymine & cytosine binds C. O2, H to guanine D. OH, O2 C. Several codons may code for the same E. H, O amino acid 149. Which of the following is true D. The primary structure is right-handed regarding nucleic acids? double helix A. DNA has thymine while RNA has uracil E. All of the above B. Adenine & guanine are pyrimidines 156. This is the chemical bond that binds to C. Uracil is a purine carbon 1 of the pentose sugar to the D. Cytosine & thymine are non-standards nitrogenous base in nucleic acids: purines A. H-bond E. All of the above B. Covalent bond 150. What is responsible for the acidic C. Phosphodiester bond character of nucleic acids? D. Glycosidic bond A. Phosphate group E. Ether bond 157. The most common form of DNA I. Electron transport chain A. A-DNA II. B- oxidation of fatty acids B. B-DNA III. Hexose of monophosphate shunt C. Z-DNA A. I,II & III D. C-DNA B. I & II E. D-DNA C. I & III 158. Which of the following can bind D. II & III microtubules & therefore interfere with their E. I only assembly or disassembly? 166. Fatty acid oxidation is increased in I. Colchicine which of the ff. scenarios? II. Vinorelbine I. Poorly managed diabetes mellitus III. Streptomycin II. Starvation A. I,II & III III. Lipid rich diet B. I & II A. I,II & III C. II & III B. I & II D. I &III C. I & III E. III only D. II & III 159. When serum urate levels exceed E. I only solubility limit, crystals of sodium urate 167. Glucose is stored in the liver as: accumulate in soft tissues & joints causing an A. Galactose inflammatory reaction known as: B. Starch A. Osteomalacia C. Lactose B. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Glycogen C. Gouty arthritis E. Inulin D. Osteoarthritis 168. Which of the ff. may cause pellagra, E. Idiophatic arthritis despite of adequate intake of tryphtopan? 160. Which of the ff. is derived from I. Pheochromocytoma tyrosine? II. Hartnup disease I. Thyroid hormones III. Carcinoid syndrome II. Melanin IV. Wernicke-korsakoff syndrome III. Cathecolamines A. I & II A. I,II & III B. I & III B. I & II C. I & IV C. I & III D. II & III D. II & III E. II & IV E. III only 169. The pentose phosphate pathway & 161. What is the positive result for glutathione peroxidase protects erythrocytes Xanthoproteic test for Aromatic Amino Acids? from hemolysis. The former provides NADPH A. Yellow color deeping into orange as reducing equivalents to convert oxidized B. Violet color glutathione back to its reduced form while the C. Bluish green latter converts toxic hydrogen peroxide to D. Blue violet non- toxic water with the aid of reduced E. Old rose glutathione. What amino acid is found in the 162. Which of the ff. are purine & active site of glutathione peroxidases? pyrimidine analogs that are capable of A. Cysteine inhibiting enzymes of nucleic acid synthesis B. Methionine via counterfeit incorporation mechanisms? C. Glutamate I. 5-fluorouracil D. Selenocysteine II. Zidovudine E. Pyrrolysine III. 6-mercaptopurine 170. An example of globular protein: A. I,II & III A. collagen B. I & II B. fibrin C. I & III C. keratin D. II & III D. myoglobin E. II only E. silk 163. Which of the ff. is considered to be 171. which of the ff is a stop codon? simplest monosaccharide? A. AUG A. Glucose B. UAG B. Glycerose C. UGG C. Fructose D. UUA D. Ribose E. AGU E. Erythrose 172. The ff. are phospholipids? 164. The inactive proproteins of enzymes A. Phosphatidylinositol are termed as: B. Lecithin A. Zymogens C. Cephalin B. Apoenzymes D. Choline C. Co-factor E. Phophatidylserine D. Holoenzymes 173. Ascorbic acid, glucuronides and some E. Enzymes drugs act as reducing agents. How would 165. Which of the ff. occurs in the these substances affect benedicts test result? mitochondria? A. They may give false negative results B. They may give false positive results B. operon C. They have no effect on the results C. primer D. They would enhance the sensitivity of the D. okazaki fragments test E. nick E. NOTA 182. increase in optical absorbance of 174. What is wobble? purine & pyrimidine bases during DNA A. The ability of certain anticodons that differ denaturation is known as: at the third base A. hypercoloration effect B. An error in translation induced by B. hyperconjugation effect streptomycin C. hyperillumination effect C. A mechanism that allows for a peptide D. hyperabsorbance effect extension in the 50s subunit of the E. heperchromicity effect ribosome 183. mutations that result from insertion or D. Thermal motions leading to local deletion of nucleosides in DNA that generates denaturation of the DNA double helix altered mRNAs E. NOTA A. frameshift 175. Glutathione is an antioxidant w/c gives B. silent a disulfide bond (GSSG) on oxidation by C. nonsense oxidant chemicals and drugs. It is reduced D. missense back to 2GSH in the presence of NADPH. E. transitional What clinical disorder causes decreased 184. which vitamin can be used to treat NADPH thereby causing impairement in hyperlipidemia? reduction to GSSG to 2GSH and further A. Thiamine causing hemolytic anemia? B. Niacin A. Aldolase deficiency C. Riboflavin B. Transketolase deficiency D. Pantothenic acid C. Alkaline phosphatase deficiency E. Pyridoxine D. Phosphofructokinase deficiency 185. This 3 carbon fatty acid derivatives E. G6PD deficiency arises from the catabolism of odd chained 176. Lipids containing ceramide, glucose or fatty acids: galactose with one or more molecules of A. Acetyl CoA sialic acid specially neuraminic acid. B. Acyl coA A. Cephalin C. Propionyl CoA B. Ganglioside D. Propyl coA C. Cytolipins E. Butyryl CoA D. Globosides 186. Whch of the ff. is an abnormal protein, E. Lecithin found to be elevated in alzheimers diseases? 177. Fatty acids are oxidized to which can This protein is prone to aggregation due to enter the citric acid cycle. conversion from its original soluble double A. Pyruvate helix rich state to beta sheet rich state. B. Acetoacetate A. Alpha amyloid C. Acetyl coa B. Beta amyloid D. Lactate C. Amyloid precursor protein E. Fatty acetyl-CoA D. Amyloid related protein 178. This substance accumulates in the E. Prion related protein muscle as a result of vigorous exercise 187. Which of the ff. are ketone bodies A. Glycogen generated during extensive fatty acid B. Amino acid oxidation? C. Lactic acid I. Acetone D. Glucose II. Gamma amino butyric acid E. pyruvic acid III. Acetoacetic acid 179. this hormone elevates blood sugar IV. Beta hydroxyl butyric acid concentration by repressing glucokinase & A. I,II & III inhibiting glycogen synthase B. I,II,III & IV A. insulin C. I & II B. progesterone D. III & IV C. estrogen E. I, III & IV D. glucagon 188. A common intermediate of metabolism E. glucocorticoids of carbohydrates fatty acids amino acids 180. fruity odor of urine is indicative of A. Glycerol acetone bodies a diagnostic value in case of B. Acetyl coA acidosis in: C. Acetoacetate A. diabetes insipidus D. Oxaloacetate B. porphyria E. Acetylcholine C. cretinism 189. A patient with anti-A and Anti-B D. diabetes mellitus A. Can accept any blood type E. galactosemia B. Can donate to any blood type 181. discontinuos stretches in which the C. Has antigin a and antigen B in his serum lagging strand is initially synthesized during D. Has antigin A and antigen B in his RBC DNA replication E. Universal recipient A. enhancer 190. Which of the ff. amino acids is results to the formation of precipitate. The responsible for disrupting the alpha helix results of the tests confirm the presence of: because of its imino group which is not A. Glucose geometrically compatible with the right B. Fructose handed spiral of the alpha helix? C. Raffinose A. Pro D. Glycogen B. Val E. Starch C. Lle 198. Which of the ff. are ATP consuming D. Leu stage in glycolysis? E. Gly I. Irreversible phosphorylation og 191. Which of the ff. regarding glucose to glucose 6 phosphate carbohydrates? II. Irreversible phosphorylation of A. In fischer projections the sugar structure is fructose 6 phosphate to fructose 1-6 written vertically with the lowest carbon biphosphate being designated as carbon 1 III. Phosphoenolpyruvate to pyruvate B. If an OH projects to the right on the fischer A. I,II,III structure , it will project upward in the B. I,II Haworth projection C. II,III C. The Haworth projection is applicable to all D. I only monosaccharides E. II nly D. D or L designations describes the 199. This enzyme catalyses the conversion positions of the penultimate hydroxyl of fructose 6 phosphate 1,6- biphosphate groups in monosaccharides A. Glucokinase E. AOTA B. Hexokinase 192. The enzymes for glycolysis are C. Pyruvate kinase located at the: D. Phosphofructokinase A. Cytoplasm E. Glyceraldehyde phosphate B. Nucleolus dehygrogenase C. Nucleus 200. Which of the ff. enzymes catalyze D. Mitochondrion irreversible steps in glycolysis? I. Phosphotriose isomerase 193. Fibrin from fibrinogen & myosin are II. Hexokinase examples of what type of primary derived III. Pyruvate kinase proteins? IV. Enolase A. Proteans A. I,II B. Metaproteins B. I,III C. Coagulated proteins C. II,III D. Peptones D. II,IV E. Peptides E. I,IV 194. Some serum enzymes are used in 201. Which of the ff. is/are ATP generating clinical diagnosis.which of the ff,. enzymes stages of glycolysis? may be used to diagnose myocardial I. 1,3-biphosphoglycerate to 3- infarction? phosphoglycerate I.Gamma glutamyl transpeptidase II. 2- phosphoglycerate to II.AST or SGOT phosphoenolpyruvate III.Creatinine phosphokinase III. Phosphoenolpyruvate to pyruvate IV.Lactate dehydrogenase A. I,II A. I, II, III & IV B. I,III B. I,II & III C. II,III C. II,III,& IV D. II,IV D. I,II & IV E. I,IV E. II & III 202. Which of the ff. is the central hub in 195. Cheilosis glossitis seborrhea & the metabolism of carbohydrates, lipids & photophobia are manifestations of what amino acids? deficiency state? A. Glycolysis A. Thiamine B. Pentose phosphate pathway B. Riboflavin C. Beta-oxidation C. Niacin D. Cori cycle D. Pantothenate E. Krebs cycle E. Pyridoxine 203. Which of the ff. is/are the control 196. Racemase and mutase are examples points in the TCA cycle? of what type of enzymes? I. Citrate synthase reaction A. Lyases II. Isocitrate dehydrogenasereaction B. Isomerases III. a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase C. Oxidases reaction D. Reductases A. I,II,III E. Ligases B. I,II 197. A reddish solution results after the C. II,III addition of iodine ts to an unknown solution . D. I,III subsequent addition of ammoniacal basic lead E. III only acetate to a portion of the unknown solution 204. Which of the ff. is an allosteric inhibitor D. K of citrate synthase? E. Fe A. ADP 212. Aside from converting stored energy in B. ATP glucose into ATP, which of the ff. are other C. Acetyl coA key roles of glycolysis? D. NADH I. Produce intermediates for triglyceride E. Phosphatase synthesis 205. Which of the ff. is/are an allosteric II. Produce intermediates for inhibitor(s) of a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase glycogenesis complex? III. Produce pyruvates which can be I. Succinyl coA oxidized further to lactate to produce II. NADH more ATPs via Krebs cycle III. ADP-induced kinase A. I,II,III A. I,II,III B. I,II B. I,II C. II,III C. II,III D. I,III D. I,III E. III only E. III only 213. In which of the ff. metabolic pathways 206. Which of the ff. is/are NADH is G6P an intermediate? generating steps of the krebs cycle? I. Glycogenolysis I. Succinate dehydrogenase II. Gluconeogenesis II. Isocitrate dehydrogenase III. Pentose phosphate pathway III. Malate dehydrogenase A. I,II,III A. I,II,III B. I,II B. I,II C. II,III C. II,III D. I,III D. I,III E. I only E. III only 214. Which of the ff. is the most potent 207. Which of the ff. is an allosteric inhibitor activator of the phosphofructokinase step in of isocitrate dehydrogenase? glycolysis? I. NADH A. Fructose-1,6-bisphosphate II. Acetyl coA B. Glucose-6-phosphate III. ATP C. Glucose-1-phosphate A. I,II,III D. 1,2-bisphosphoglycerate B. I,II E. Fructose-2,6-bisphosphate C. II,III 215. Which of the ff. statements regarding D. I,III pyruvate is/are true? E. III only I. In the presence of oxygen, pyruvate is 208. Which of the ff. is/are FADH2 further oxidized to acetyl coA generating steps of the krebs cycle? II. In the absence of oxygen, pyruvate is I. Succinate dehydrogenase reduced to lactase II. Isocitrate dehydrogenase III. It may also be a precursor to III. Malate dehydrogenase oxaloacetate which can be further A. I,II,III converted back to glucose via krebs B. I,II cycle C. II,III A. I,II,III D. I,III B. I,II E. III only C. II,III 209. Which of the ff. is the only substrate D. I,III level phosphorylation reaction of the krebs E. I only cycle? 216. Glycolysis in erythrocytes always ends A. Citrate synthase in lactate formation both in aerobic & B. Aconithase anaerobic conditions. The primary reason C. Isocitrate dehydrogenase behind this is: D. Succinate thiokinase A. Pyruvate dehydrogenase is not found in E. Fumarase erythrocytes 210. The electron transport chain (ETC) is B. Erythrocytes lack mitochondria and hence the final common pathway by which electron are incapable of further oxidation of derived from the different fuels of the body pyruvate to acetyl coA floew to oxygen. Where does ETC occurs? C. Erythrocytes predominantly express the A. Outer mitochondrial membrane enzyme lactate dehydrogenase instead of B. Cytosol pyruvate dehydrogenase C. Ribosome D. Erythrocytes don’t utilize oxygen for D. Golgi complex oxidative metabolism. They only transport E. Inner mitochondrial membrane it 211. Which of the ff. is an important E. Pyruvate is easily transported out of the inorganic co-factor in all phosphorylation erythrocytes reactions of the glycolytic pqathway? 217. Which of the ff. is a feed-forward A. Mg activator of pyruvate kinase? B. Ca A. 2-phosphoglycerate C. Na B. 3-phosphoglycerate C. 1,3-biphosphoglycerate E. III only D. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate 223. What is the significance of E. Fructose-1,6-biphosphate phosphoglycerate kinase by-pass by 218. Which of the ff. inhibits hexokinase biphosphoglycerate phosphatase? thereby slowing down glycolysis? A. The by-pass produces 3- A. Fructose-6-phosphate phosphoglycerate allowing glycolysis to B. Glucose-6-phosphate proceed C. Fructose-1,6-biphosphate B. The by-pass produces 2- D. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate 3,biphosphoglycerate which can bind to E. 1,3-biphosphoglycerate hemoglobin promoting oxygen release to 219. Which of the ff. statements is/are true cells and tissues during hypoxic states regarding glucagon? C. The by-pass producews 2- I. Glucagon includes cGMP formation phosphoglycerate an essential which in turn activates cGMP intermediate to produce dependent-kinase that may inhibit phosphoenolpyruvate pyruvate kinase, slowing down D. The by-pass directly produces pyruvate glycolysis E. The by-pass directly produces Acetyl coA II. Glucagon inhibits 224. What two enzymes are used to phosphofructokinase-2 thereby bypass thre pyruvate kinase reaction of inhibiting fructose-2,6-biphosphate glycolysis for gluconeogenesis? synthesis, a potent activator of I. Pyruvate carboxylase phosphorfructokinase-1 II. PEP carbokinase III. Glucagon is release from the III. Fructose biphosphate pancreas in response to IV. Glucose 6 phosphatase hypoglycemia, which in return A. I,II,III activates gluconeogenesis & B. I,III glycogenolysis C. I,IV A. I,II,III D. I,II B. I,II E. III,IV C. II,III 225. Which of the ff. statements regarding D. I,III the kreb cycle are true? E. I only I. Pyruvate carboxylase is the major 220. Which of the ff. genetic disorder may anaplerotic replenishing reaction for cause hemolytic anemia owing to a decrease the kreb cycle and it produces production of ATP’s in erythrocytes since catalytic oxaloacetate by carboxylation these cells are largely dependent on of pyruvate glycolysis for their ATP source to maintain II. Acetyl CoA is an allosteric activator of integrity of cellular structure & function? pyruvate carboxylase and an inhibitor I. Aldolase deficiency of pyruvate dehydrogenase II. Pyruvate kinase deficiency III. Lactate can enter the cycle by III. Phosphofructokinase deficiency oxidation to pyruvate by lactate A. I,II,III dehydrogenase which can be further B. I,II carboxylated to catalytic oxaloacetate C. II,III A. I,II,III D. I,III B. I,III E. III only C. I,IV 221. Which of the ff. enzymes is/are found D. I,II to be genetically deficient in the skeletal E. III,IV muscles of patients who experience a 226. Which of the ff. includes the main decrease exercise tolerance specially after a goals of pentose phosphate pathway? carbohydrate rich diet? I. Produce ribose 5 phosphate for I. Aldolase nucleoside synthesis II. Pyruvate kinase II. Produce NADPH and NADP for III. Phosphofructokinase oxidoreductive biochemical synthesis A. I,II,III III. To interconvert pentoses and hexoses B. I,II A. I,II,III C. II,III B. I,II D. I,III C. I,III E. III only D. II,III 222. The ATP producing phosphoglycerate E. III only kinase step of glycolysis converts 1,3- 227. Which f the ff. is possible precursor for biphosphoglycerate to 3-phosphoglycerate. glucose via gluconeogenesis? This may be bypassed by what non-ATP I. Leucine generqating steps? II. Pyruvate I. Biphosphoglycerate mutase III. Glycerol II. 1,3- Biphosphoglycerate mutase A. I,II,III III. 2,3- Biphosphoglycerate mutase B. I,II A. I,II,III C. I,III B. I,II D. II,III C. II,III E. III only D. I,III 228. The state of high serum & urinary 237. which of the ff. phospholipases can levels of aceto acetic acid and B- convert or degrade phospholipids to their hydroxybutyric acid is called: basic unit phosphatidic acid? A. Ketonemia A. PLA2 B. Ketonuria B. PLA1 C. Ketosis C. PLC D. Ketoacidosis D. PLD E. C&D E. PLE 229. The salkowski test for cholesterol 238. Which of the ff. is capable of providing utilizes what strong acid? a valuable information for diabetes A. Nitric acid management since it gives the mean blood B. Sulfuric acid glucose for the past 6-8 week of a particular C. Hydrochloric acid patient? D. Perchloric acid A. HbA1a E. Acetic acid B. HbA2a 230. These are small circular duplex DNA C. HbA1c molecules whose natural function is to confer D. HbA2c antibiotic resistance to the host cell E. Hbs A. Cosmids 239. Which of the ff. is not an B. Bacteriophages endopeptidase? C. Nucleolus A. Pepsin D. Genes B. Aminopeptidase E. Plasmids C. Trypsin 231. Which of the ff. amino acids is D. Chymotrypsin considered to be the smallest? E. Elastase A. L 240. Which of the ff. is secreted by B. A intestinal mucosal cells? C. V A. Carboxypeptidase D. I B. Elastase E. P C. Chymotrypsin 232. Aspartame an artificial sweetener is D. Trypsin contraindicated in phnylketonurics because? E. Aminopeptidase A. It contains phenylalanine 241. What are the components of B. It contains tyrosine endogenous thymidine? C. It Lacks tyrosine A. Methylated deoxyribose and uracil D. It Lacks phenylalanine B. Ribose and thymine E. B & D C. Deoxyribose and thymine 233. Which of the ff. amino acid has the D. Ribose thymine & phosphate tendency to elevate in the blood and urine of E. Deoxyribose thymine phosphate patients with maples syrup urine diseases? 242. Which of the ff. is a nucleotide? A. P A. Adenylate B. W B. Adenosine C. Y C. Adenine D. R D. Cytidine E. L E. Uridine 234. The oxidative stage of the pentose 243. Which of the ff. is not found in the phosphate pathway generates DNA? A. FADH2 A. Deoxyadenylate B. NADPH B. Deoxyguanylate C. ATP C. Deoxycytidylate D. ATP D. Deoxyuridylate E. NADH E. Thymidylate 235. What is the major enzymes that carry 244. The heterocyclic nitrogenous base is out the non oxidative phase of the pentose connected to the pentose sugar in nucleotides phosphate pathway? via what covalent bond? I. Transaminase A. Beta glycosidic bond II. Transketolase B. Alpha glycosidic bond III. Transaldolase C. Ether bond A. I,II,III D. Beta N-glycosidic bond B. I,II E. Alph N-glycosidic bond C. I,II 245. Uracil differs from thymine in that the D. II,III latter possesses a group at position of the E. III only pyrimidine nuclueus 236. Which of the ff. intermediates A. Hydroxyl 5 seldomly accumulates in urea cycle? B. Amino 5 A. Citruline C. Methyl 5 B. Ornithine D. Amino C. argininosuccinate E. Methyl 3 D. arginine 246. Among the major forms of purines E. carbamoyl phosphate found in the DNA which does not possess an oxo/ carbonyl group on the ring? A. Adenine C. 3 to 4 B. Cytosine D. 3 to 5 C. Guanine E. 3 to 1 D. Uracil 255. The DNA strand is always read from E. Thymine the direction? 247. The phosphate group that makes A. 5 to 3 nucleotides acidic generally located at the B. 1 to 3 position of the pentose sugar when forming C. 3 to 4 nucleic acids? D. 3 to 5 A. 1 E. 3 to 1 B. 2 256. Which of the ff. statements regarding C. 3 the central dogma of molecular biology are D. 4 true? E. 5 I. DNA replication occurs in a semi 248. Additional phosphate group are conservative manner attached to monophosphorylated nucleotides II. The amino acid sequence of proteins by what covalent bond? is directly dependent on the A. Phosphoester bond nucleotides sequence of the DNA B. Phosphodiester bond III. Reverse transcription is impossible C. Acid anhydride bond A. I,II,III D. Glycosidic bond B. I,II E. Ether nond C. II,III 249. There are several biochemical catalyst D. I,III found inside and outside the cell. E. I only Biomolecules with catalytic activity include: 257. It refers to the ability of the DNA to A. Enzymes only increase its absorbance of visible light when B. Enzymes and amides acids denatured. C. Enzymes and RNA A. Hyperabsorbance effect D. Enzymes and DNA B. Hyperchromicity effect E. AOTA C. Denaturing effect 250. The DNA strands is read from the 5 D. TmDNA end and to the 3 end. The 5 end possesses E. Color enhancing effect while the 3 end possesses 258. Which of the ff. statements regarding A. Free hydroxyl group , free hydroxyl group DNA denaturation are not true? B. Free phosphate group, free phosphate I. The DNA double helix unwinds group because H- bonds between base pairs C. Free hydroxyl group, free phosphate and base kicking interactions are group interrupted D. Free phosphate group, free hydroxyl II. A-T base pairs are more resistant to group denaturation E. 7-methylguanosine triphosphate cap and III. The nitrogenous bases remains bound polyadenylate tail to the sugar phosphate backbone but 251. In the double stranded DNa the the sugar backbone is hydrolyzed genetic information resides on the strands owing to the hydrolysis of the which the transcribed during nucleic acid phosphodiester bonds. synthesis and the strand is known as: A. I,II,III A. Template strand B. I,II B. Replicating strand C. II,III C. Coding strand D. I,III D. Transcribing strand E. I only E. Synthetic strand 259. DNA mutations are non- enzymatic 252. The opposing complementary DNA transformations within the DNA molecules that strand to the template DNA strand is known causes permanent changes in the genetic as the? information to expressed and one mechanism A. Template strand of mutation is deamination of nitrogenous B. Replicating strand bases. Which of the ff. is therefore subject to C. Coding strand deamination ? D. Transcribing strand I. Adenine E. Synthetic strand II. Guanine 253. Which of the ff. is not a form of DNA III. Thymine within cells? IV. Cytosine A. A-DNA A. I,II B. B-DNA B. III,IV C. D-DNA C. I,II,III D. C-DNA D. I,II,IV E. F-DNA E. I,III 254. The phosphodiester bonds in 260. Which of the ff. regarding DNA nucleotides ran in the direction to form nucleic mutations are true? acids? I. Deamination will automatically remove A. 5 to 3 the bases from the sugar phosphate B. 1 to 3 backbone II. Hydrolysis of glycosidic bonds will A. Cyclic adenosine monophosphate cause destruction of phosphodiester B. Adenosine triphosphate bonds C. S-adenosylmethionine III. Glycosidic bond hydrolysis will cause D. Uridine diphosphoglucuronic acid interruption in H-bonding of base pairs E. Phosphoadenosine phosphosulfate A. I 268. Wernicke-korsakoff syndrome is a B. II deficiency state of: C. III A. Pantothenate D. I,II B. Folate E. II,III C. Riboflavin 261. Which types of RNA is considered to D. Thiamine be the most abundant? E. Biotin A. mRNA 269. Which of the ff. is a functional part of B. tRNA CoA and acyl carrier protein? C. rRNA A. Thiamine D. tRNA & mRNA B. Riboflavin E. rRNA & mRNA C. Niacin 262. in mRNA processing the 5 end is D. Pantothenate attached with what nucleotide that serves as a E. Pyridoxine “cap” to render it stable against 5 270. Which of the ff. is also known as exonucleases and for it to be recognized by vitamin H? the translation machinery of the cell? A. Biotin A. 7-metyladenosine triphosphate B. Cyanocobalamin B. 7-methylguanosine triphosphate C. Pyridoxine C. 7-methylinosine triphosphate D. Folic acid D. 1-methylguanosine triphosphate E. Niacin E. 3-methylguanosine triphosphate 271. Which of the ff. is a more stable 263. The mRNA is not actually directly derivative of tetrahydrofolate making it senthesized from the DNA. The precursor that suitable for pharmaceuticals and is found in is being processed to form mRNA for export to the agent folinic acid? cytoplasm is known as: A. 5,10-methylene THF A. hnRNA B. 5,10- methyl THF B. pRNA C. 5-formimino THF C. preRNA D. 5-formyl THF D. hRNA E. 10-formyl THF E. nRNA 272. Vitamin k acts as co-factor for the 264. which of the ff. is oxidatively gamma carboxylation dependent activation of catabolized to uric acid? clotting factors causing a pro- coagulant A. Cytosine effect. What amino acid residue in clotting B. Inosine factors is gamma carboxylated in the C. Uracil presence of vitamin k? D. Guanine A. Asp E. Thymine B. Lys 265. Vitamins are essential and are C. glu therefore required to be provided by the D. leu diet.which of the ff. is not strictly vitamins E. met since the body can synthesize this vitamins. 273. toxicity due to which of the ff. vitamins I. Niacin are possible? II. Cholecalcifol I. Pyridoxine III. Pantothenate II. Niacin A. I,II,III III. Retinol B. I,II IV. Cholecalciferol C. II,III A. I,II,III,IV D. I,III B. I,II E. I only C. III,IV 266. Which of the ff. statements is true D. I,III regarding co0factors? E. II,IV I. They are required by apoenzymes for 274. It is the step in a reaction mechanism them to be converted to active with the highest energy transition state and is holoenzymes usually subject to regulation and inhibition II. They can be essentials ions and co- A. Intermediate step enzymes B. Rate- limiting step III. Co-enzymes can be co- substrates & C. Pre-transition state prosthetic groups D. Regulatory state A. I,II,III E. Key step B. I,II 275. Which of the ff. statements regarding C. II,III enzymes is/are true? D. I,III I. Enzymes are catalytic proteins that E. I only lower the activation energy 267. Which of the ff. is a metabolite co-enzymes that functions in methyltransfer? II. Enzymes are capable of raising 282. Which of the ff.statements regarding reactants energy by bringing them competitive inhibitors of enzymatic activity close together is/are true? III. Enzyme can also stabilized the I. Such inhibitors are commonly uses as transition states thereby facilitating the drugs ease of product formation II. The effect of inhibiton is irreversible A. I,II,III regardless if the substrate B. I,II concentration is increased C. II,III III. Such inhibitors decreased the number D. I,III of free enzyme that can bind the E. I only substrate 276. Proteases are examples of what A. I,II,III general classifications of enzyme? B. I,II A. Oxidoreductases C. II,III B. Lyases D. I,III C. Ligases E. I only D. Hydrolases 283. In an enzyme kinetics experiment for E. Transferasase determining a drug’s mechanism of inhibition 277. DOPA decarboxylase is a key enzyme of a particular enzyme, the lineweaver-burk in cathecolamine biosynthesis and in the plot was created. Based on this plot which of activation of levodopa to dopamine for the ff. statement is/are true? parkinsons disease. This enzyme is an I. The drug is a competitive inhibitor of example of what general classification of an enzyme & its action is therefore enzyme? reversible by increasing substrate A. Isomerases concentration B. Lyases II. The Vmax is unaffected. Further C. Ligases supporting that the inhibition is D. Hydrolases competitive in nature E. Oxidases III. The Km is decreased. Further 278. Nomenclature of enzyme are based supporting that the inhibition is on the ff. except: competitive in nature A. Nature of the general substrate A. I,II,III B. Name of the specific substrate B. I,II C. Type of reaction C. II,III D. Biosynthetic or catabolic nature D. I,III E. All of the above E. I only 279. In the Michaelis-Menten equation , 284. Given the Lineweaver-burk plot, it can Vo=Vmax[S]/Km+[S] the term Km is be concluded that: essentially becomes equal to [S] if the [S] is A. The mechanism of inhibition is much more greater than the Km. hence: uncompetitive A. Velocity becomes equal to [S] B. The Km is lowered and the Vmax is B. Velocity becomes equal to Km unchanged C. Velocity becomes equal to Vmax x [S] C. The inhibitor can either bind the free D. Velocity becomes equal to Km+[S] enzymeor when the enzyme-substrate E. Velocity becomes equal to V max complex has been formed 280. In the Michaelis-Meten Equation D. The inhibitor can bind the enzyme after Vo=Vmax[S]/Km+[S] if the [S] is equal to Km, the enzyme-substrate complex has been the term Km +[S] becomes 2[S] hence; formed since the inhibitor binds to a site of A. Vo becomes equal to half of V max the enzyme other than the active site B. Vo becomes equal to half of Km 285. Given the Lineweaver-Burk plot C. Vo becomes equal to half of V max x [S] below , it can be concluded that; D. Vo becomes equal to km A. Km is lowered & Vmax is increased. The E. Vo becomes equal to v max inhibition is uncompetitive 281. For the statement of the drugs ability B. Vmax is lowered & Km is increased. The to bind and inhibit a particular enzyme. The inhibition is uncompetitive Michaelis Menten Equation can be rearranged C. Both Vmax & Km is increased, the to:1/Vo=(Km/Vmax)1/[S]+1/Vmax Which of inhibition is uncompetitive the ff. statement regarding this is/are true? D. Both Vmax & Km is lowered, the inhibition I. The equation is known as lineweaver- is uncompetitive burk Equation E. The inhibitor can only bind & inhibit the II. The equation is simply derived by enzyme if it is free of the substrate. The getting the reciprocals of Michaelis inhibition is uncompetitive Menten 286. Which of the ff. serum enzymes for III. The equation allows the mathehatical clinical diagnosis is increased in the case of determination of substrate liver disease? concentration at a given velocity A. LDH1 A. I,II,III B. LDH2 B. I,II C. LDH3 C. II,III D. LDH4 D. I,III E. LDH5 E. I only 287. Which of the ff. serum enzymes for D. II,III clinical diagnosis is increased in the cases of E. III only bone disorder & obstructive liver disease? 294. How many ATP’s are generated by A. Creatinine kinase one molecule of FADH2 via oxidative B. Lactate dehydrogenase phosphorylation? C. Acid phosphatase A. 1 D. Alkaline phosphatase B. 2 E. Amylase C. 3 288. Which of the ff. serum enzymes for D. 4 clinical diagnosis is more specific indicator for E. 5 liver disease when elevated in the serum? 295. How many ATP’s are generated by A. LDH4 one molecule of NADH via oxidative B. LDH5 phosphorylation? C. ASAT A. 1 D. SGOT B. 2 E. SGPT C. 3 289. Synthesis of ATP within the cell is D. 4 primarily by: E. 5 I. Reductive phosphorylation 296. How many ATP’s can one molecule of II. Substrate level phosphorylation palmitic acid generate via beta-oxidation? III. Oxidative phosphorylation A. 133 IV. Hydrolytic phosphorylation B. 132 A. I,II C. 130 B. I,III D. 129 C. I,IV E. 128 D. II,III 297. A given fatty acids is given 27 carbon E. II,IV atoms. How many ATP’s can be produced 290. Which of the ff. enzymes for from this molecules via beta-oxidation alone? gluconeogenesis bypass irreversible stepsof A. 196 glycolysis? B. 197 I. Pyruvate carboxylase C. 198 II. Fructose-1,6-biphosphate D. 199 III. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate E. 200 dehydrogenase 298. Which of the ff. amino acids are both A. I,II,III ketogenic & glucogenic? B. I,II I. Phe C. II,III II. Lie D. I,III III. Thr E. I only IV. Tyr 291. The biochemical cycle is essentially A. I,II,III,IV an interaction of fatty acid oxidation , B. I,II,III gluconeogenesis & glycolysis. C. III,IV A. Cori cycle D. II,III,IV B. Urea cycle E. I,II,IV C. Krebs cycle 299. Which of the ff. codons is not D. Citric acid cycle translation stop signal during translation of E. Ketogenesis mRNA into proteins? 292. Glycogen phosphorylase is a key A. UAG enzyme in which of the ff. biochemical B. UAA pathways? C. UGA A. Glycogenolysis D. UGG B. Glycogenesis E. NOTA C. Glycolysis 300. In the termination of protein synthesis D. Gluconeogenesis or mRNA translation which of the releasing E. Pentose phosphate pathway factor does not recognize the codons for 293. Which of the ff. statement regarding translation stop signal and rather enhance the Beta-oxidation of fatty acids is/are true? activity of other releasing factors with the aid I. Fatty acids are activated first to fatty of GTP? acyl coA via ATP & coA I. RF-1 II. Fatty acid coA is transported via L- II. RF-2 carnitine into the cytosol for the III. RF-3 degradation ia beta-oxidation A. I,II III. The L-carnitine shuttle aids fatty acids B. I,III oxidation by transporting fatty acyl coA C. II,III to its destination in the cell for D. III only degradation which explains why L- E. I only carnitine can increase fatty acids utilation A. I,II,III B. I,II C. I,III