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Answer key
1. The following statement is/are true regarding the relationship of bond length and bond polarity
except:
2. The following statement/s is/are true regarding the relationship of hybridization of orbitals and
bond length:
3. Bond strength or bond energy is the energy necessary to break the only bond in a diatomic
molecule or to dissociate the bonded atoms to their bond state. Which of the following
statements is/are true regarding its relationship with orbital hybridization, bond length and bond
poarity?
a. When the s character of the bonding orbitals increases, the bond energy also increases
b. When the polarity of the bond increases, the bond energy also increases
c. Bond energy and bond length has inverse relationship.
d. All of the choices
e. A and B only
a. 4 methyl hexane
b. Isohexane
c. 3-methyl hexane
d. 2-ethyl pentane
e. 2-propyl butane
7. The following structure is the side chain of amino acid tryptophan. What is the name of the
following structure?
a. Purine
b. Pyrimidine
c. Indole
d. Quinolene
e. Pyridine
8. The structure of nucleic acid base cytosine, uracil and thymine is based on following N-ring.
What is the name of the following structure?
a. Pyridine
b. Piperidine
c. Pyrazine
d. Piperazine
e. Pyrimidine
9. Organic pharmaceuticals are often complex molecules which have a variety of acidic and basic
functional groups. The behaviour of these groups in an aqueous environment will influence the
activity of the drug and its absorption in the different compartments of the body. Which of the
following statement is/are true regarding the pH of the medium and the acidic/basic property of
the drug?
a. The pKa is a property of the drug molecule, while pH is the property of the medium
b. Acidic drugs will most likely be dissociated in a basic medium
c. Basic drugs will most likely be dissociated in an acidic medium
d. The sum of the negative logarithm of dissociation constant of the acid and its conjugate base
is always equal to 14
e. All of the above
10. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding drug distribution and pKa?
a. Indomethacin (pKa=4.5) will be absorb from the stomach rather than intestinal mucosa
b. Ephedrine (pKa=9.6) will be absorb from the intestinal mucosa rather than the stomach
c. Both indomethacin and ephedrine will be absorbed from the stomach rather than the
intestinal mucosa
d. Both indomethacin and ephedrine will be absorbed from the intestinal mucosa rather than
the stomach
e. A and B only
11. These lipid soluble compounds are also paraffin or saturated hydrocarbons. They commonly
undergo halogination and combustion reaction and, in vivo, terminal carbon or side chain
hydroxylation may occur.
a. Alkanes
b. Alkenes
c. Aromatic hydrocarbon
d. Alkynes
e. Alkyl halides
12. These lipid soluble compounds are also known as olefins and unsaturated hydrocarbons. Their
common reactions are the addition of hydrogen or halogenation, hydration (to form glycols), and
oxidation (to form peroxides).
a. Alkanes
b. Alkenes
c. Aromatic hydrocarbon
d. Alkynes
e. Alkyl halides
13. The structure of these compounds is based on benzene. These molecules exhibit multicenter
bonding, which confers unique chemical properties.
a. Alkanes
b. Alkenes
c. Aromatic hydrocarbon
d. Alkynes
e. Alkyl halides
14. Which of the following alcohols is the most water soluble?
a. Methanol
b. Ethanol
c. Propanol
d. Butanol
e. Phentanol
15. Which of the following statement is /are true regarding oxidation of alcohols?
16. Which of the following compounds has a general formula of R-O-R with an oxygen bonded to 2
carbon atoms?
a. Aldehydes
b. Ether
c. Phenols
d. Ketones
e. Esters
17. These compounds have a general formula of R-CHO and contain a carbon group (C=O). The
common reactions of these compounds are oxidation and hemiacetal and acetal formation.
a. Aldehydes
b. Ether
c. Phenols
d. Ketones
e. Esters
18. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the water solubility of amines?
19. These compounds have a general formula of RCOOR and commonly undergo hydrolysis to form
carboxylic acid and alcohol.
a. Ketones
b. Ether
c. Esters
d. Amides
e. Carboxylic acid
20. These compounds have a general formula of RCOOH and commonly undergo salt formation
with bases, esterification and decaroxylation.
a. Ketones
b. Ether
c. Esters
d. Amides
e. Carboxylic acid
21. Which of the following classes of organic compounds reacts to form salts with hydrochloric acid?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
22. Which of the following terms best describes the following reaction:
a. Acetylation
b. Reductive cleavage
c. Oxidative deamination
d. Decarboxylation
e. N-dealkylation
23. Which of the following functional group when added to a benzene nucleus, decreases the lipid
solubility of the benzene
a. I only is correct
b. III only is correct
c. I, II, III are correct
d. II and III are correct
e. I and III are correct
a. I only is correct
b. III only is correct
c. I, II, III are correct
d. II and III are correct
e. I and III are correct
25. Decomposition the drug molecule at room temperature most likely would occur by
26. Reactions that will be possible metabolic pathways for the drug molecule include
I. Ring hydroxylation
II. Glucuronide formation
III. Enzymatic hydrolysis
a. I only is correct
b. III only is correct
c. I, II, III are correct
d. II and III are correct
e. I and III are correct
27. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding drugs?
a. Drug are compounds that interact with a biological system to produce a biological
response
b. No drug is totally safe
c. Poisons a t low doses can be used a s drugs
d. Drugs used in high dosed can be considered as poisons
e. All of the above
28. Most drugs bind to their targets by means of intermolecular bonds. Which of the following
statements is/are true regarding these forces?
a. An ionic or electrostatic bond is the strongest of the intermolecular bonds and takes
place between groups having opposite charges
b. Hydrogen bonds are very weak interactions that involve interaction between hydrophobic
regions of different molecules
c. Van der Waals forces of interaction are cost by transient dipole-dipole interaction
d. A and B only
e. A and C only
29. A range of the following compounds in increasing strength of carbonyl oxygen as a hydrogen
bond acceptor:
30. This is the type of enzyme inhibition where the drug react with the enzyme and forms a covalent
bond.
a. Reversible inhibition
b. Irreversible inhibition
c. Competitive inhibition
d. Uncompetitive inhibition
e. Non-competitive inhibition
31. These type of inhibitor binds to the enzyme substrate complex in which its effect cannot be
overcome by increasing the substrate concentration
a. Reversible inhibitor
b. Irreversible inhibitor
c. Competitive inhibitor
d. Uncompetitive inhibitor
e. Allosteric inhibitor
32. Which of the following drugs is incorrectly match with its target enzyme?
33. This type of inhibitor binds to a binding site different from the active site. They alter the shape of
the enzyme such that the active site is no longer recognizable.
a. Reversible inhibitor
b. Irreversible inhibitor
c. Competitive inhibitor
d. Uncompetitive inhibitor
e. Allosteric inhibitor
34. Evaluate the following statements: Antagonists can mimic the natural messengers and activate
receptors. Antagonist can bind to the receptor but they do not activate it.
36. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding structurally-specific and structurally non
specific drugs?
I. The biologic effect of structurally non specific drugs is more closely correlated with the
physical properties of the molecules than with the chemical structure.
II. Examples of structurally non specific drugs are 6-mercaptopurine, phenothiazines,
pyrimethamine, and primaquine.
III. The biologic effect of structurally specific drugs, although not completely independent of the
physical properties, depends on certain chemical structure on drug molecule. Chemical
reactivity of the drug plays an important role as reflected in bonding propensities and
exactness of fit on the receptors.
IV. General anesthetics, hypnotics and volatile insecticides are typical examples of structurally
specific drugs.
a. I only is correct
b. III only is correct
c. I, II, III, and IV is correct
d. II and IV is correct
e. I and III is correct
I. Penicillins – transpeptidase
II. Cephalosphorins – transpeptidase
III. Pyrimethamine – Dihydrofolate reductase
IV. Epinephrine – Adenylyl cyclise
a. I only is correct
b. III only is correct
c. I, III, and IV are correct
d. I, II, and IV are correct
e. I, II, III, and IV are correct
38. It is generally conceived that an exact fit of the drug molecule and receptor is necessary to evoke
maximal biologic response that is imperative to consider the stereochemical makeup of drugs.
Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the biologic activity of some
stereochemical isomers?
a. I only is correct
b. III only is correct
c. I,III, and IV are correct
d. I, II, and IV are correct
e. I, II, III, and IV are correct
39. What is the rate-limiting step in drug absorption of orally administered solid dosage forms?
a. Dissolution rate
b. Metabolism rate
c. Elimination rate
d. A and B only
e. B and C only
40. Which of the following factors can influence the dissolution rate of drugs from solid dosage forms
and hence, the therapeutic activity?
I. Solubility, particle size, crystalline form and salt form of the drug
II. Rate of disintegration in the gastrointestinal lumen
III. Gastric pH, motility and presence of food at the absorption site
a. I only is correct
b. III only is correct
c. I, II, and III are correct
d. II and III are correct
e. I and III are correct
41. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding renal excretion of drugs?
I. Renal excretion involves three processes: glomerular filtration, secretion and tubular
reabsorption.
II. Both the free drug and the drug bond to plasma proteins are filtered by the kidneys.
III. Drugs with high lipid/water partition coefficients are reabsorbed readily while those with
low lipid/water partition coefficients are unable to diffuse back across the tubular membrane
and are excreted in the urine unless reabsorbed by an active carrier system.
IV. Altering the pH of urine can result to termination of biologic activity of weakly acidic and
basic drugs.
a. I only is correct
b. III only is correct
c. I, III, and IV are correct
d. I, II, and IV are correct
e. I, II, III, and IV are correct
42. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding Phase I and Phase II Metabolic
reactions?
a. I only is correct
b. III only is correct
c. I, III, and IV are correct
d. I, II, and IV are correct
e. I, II, III, and IV are correct
43. Which of the following statements regarding NADPH-Dependent Oxidative Reactions in Liver
Microsomes is/are correct?
a. II only is correct
b. III only is correct
c. I and IV are correct
d. II and III are correct
e. I, II, III and IV are correct
44. Phase I metabolic transformation introduce new and polar functional groups into the molecule,
which may produce one or more of the following changes, except:
45. Which of the following Phase II pathway is correctly paired with their activated conjugating
immediate?
a. II only is correct
b. III only is correct
c. I and IV are correct
d. II and III are correct
e. I, II, III, and IV are correct
46.
Sulfonamides can undergo which metabolic pathway?
a. II only is correct
b. III only is correct
c. I and IV are correct
d. II and III are correct
e. I, II, III, and IV are correct
47. The first purely synthetic antimicrobial drug which was developed by Paul Erlich. This drug was
used in the treatment of tryponosomiasis and syphilis.
a. Prontosil
b. Salvarsan
c. Phenol
d. Streptomycin
e. Penicillin
48. Which of the following antibacterial agents acts by inhibiting the metabolism of microbial
organism but not of the host?
a. Sulfonamides
b. Polymyxins
c. Penicillins
d. Rifamycin
e. Nalidixic acid
49. Which of the following antibacterial agents inhibit s bacterial cell wall synthesis?
a. Sulfonamides
b. Polymyxins
c. Penicillins
d. Rifamycin
e. Nalidixic acid
50. Which of the following antibacterial agent can interact with the plasma membrane of bacterial
cells to affect membrane permeability?
a. Sulfonamides
b. Polymyxins
c. Penicillins
d. Rifamycin
e. Nalidixic acid
51. Which of the following antibacterial agents can disrupt the synthesis of essential proteins and
enzyme required for the cell’s survival?
a. Sulfonamides
b. Polymyxins
c. Penicillins
d. Rifamycin
e. Nalidixic acid
52. This antibacterial agent can inhibit the nucleic acid transcription and replication which prevents
cell division and.or protein synthesis.
a. Sulfonamides
b. Polymyxins
c. Penicillins
d. Rifamycin
e. Nalidixic acid
53. For questions 53-55, refer to the general structure of sulphonamides below:
Which part of the drug’s structure is essential for drug activity?
a. Aromatic ring
b. Sulphonamide group
c. P-amino group
d. A and B only
e. All of the above
54. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the structure-activity relationship of
sulphonamides?
I. The p-amino group must be unsubstituted unless it is a prodrug or when the body can further
metabolize it to generate the active compound.
II. Extra substitution of the aromatic ring increases activity.
III. The sulphonamide nitrogen must be primary or secondary.
a. I and II only
b. I and III only
c. I only
d. II only
e. All of the above
55. Which part of the drug molecule can only be varied to retain the antibacterial activity?
a. Aromatic ring
b. p-amino group
c. R2
d. A and B
e. None of the choices
a. Sulfadiazine
b. Sulfathiazole
c. Sulfadoxine
d. Sulfamethoxazole
e. Sulfones
57. It is an orally active dyaminopyridine structure which has proved to be highly selective
antibacterial and antimalarial agent often given in conjunction with sulfamethoxazole. It inhibits the
enzyme dihydrofolate reductase leading to the inhibition of DNA synthesis and cell growth.
a. Pyrimethamine
b. Trimethoprim
c. Pralidoxime
d. Cotrimoxazole
e. Fansidar
58. Successfully isolated penicillin using processes such as freeze-drying and chromatography.
a. Alexander Flemming
b. Florey and Chain
c. Dorothy Hodgkins
d. Beechams
e. None of the above
59. Below is the general structure of penicillins. Which part of its structure is not essential for
activity?
60. Addition of electron-withdrawing group into the acyl side chain of penicillin structure will render
the drug
62. This drug is a penicillin analogue with isoxazolyl incorporated in the acyl side chain making it
useful against Staphylococcus aureus infections and acid resistant.
a. Flucloxacillin
b. Ampicillin
c. Carbenicillin
d. Piperacillin
e. Tazobactam
63. Which of the following broad-spectrum penicillin analogues do not have a urea functional group
at the alpha-position?
a. Azlocillin
b. Mezlocillin
c. Ticarcillin
d. Piperacillin
e. None of the choices
64. Which of the following broad spectrum penicillin analogues has carboxylic acid group in the acyl
side chain?
a. Azlocillin
b. Mezlocillin
c. Ticarcillin
d. Piperacillin
e. None of the choices
65. Which of the following amino acids are the biosynthetic precursors of penicillin?
a. Alanine
b. Cysteine
c. Valine
d. A and B only
e. B and C only
66. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the chemical structure of
cephalosporins?
67. Which of the following statements correctly describe/s the structure of carbapenems such as
imipenem and meropenem?
68. Clavulanic acid is a beta-lactamase inhibitor used in combination with amoxicillin and other B-
lactamase antibiotics. Which of the following statements correctly describe clavulanic acid?
a. Clavulanic acid has a strained lactam ring in its structure.
b. It has no amino acyl side chain compared to other B-lactam antibiotics
c. Sulfur atom is essential for its activity against lactamases
d. A and B only
e. All of the above
69. Clavulanic acid, Sulbactam and tazobactam are B-lactamase inhibitors that act as suicide
substrates are administered with B-lactam antibiotics to prevent their degradation. Which of the
following combinations are correctly matched to their brand names?
70. This antibiotic was isolated from Streptomyces garyphalus and inhibits bacterial cell wall
synthesis by mimicking the structure of D-Alanine and inhibiting the enzymes L-Alanine racemase
and D-Ala-D-Ala ligase.
a. Bacitracin
b. Vancomycin
c. D-cycloserine
d. Aztreonam
e. Teicoplanin
71. A polypeptide complex produced from Bacillus subtilis that binds and inhibits the carrier lipid
responsible for carrying the cell wall components across the cell membrane.
a. Bacitracin
b. Vancomycin
c. D-cycloserine
d. Aztreonam
e. Teicoplanin
a. Bacitracin
b. Vancomycin
c. D-cycloserine
d. Valinomycin
e. Teicoplanin
a. Bacitracin
b. Vancomycin
c. D-cycloserine
d. Aztreonam
e. Teicoplanin
74. An antibiotic composed of 16 amino acids that is described as a ‘tunnelling’ molecule that act on
the plasma membrane and result in the uncontrolled movement of ions across cell membrane
leading to cell death.
a. Daptomycin
b. Gramicidin A
c. Valinomycin
d. Polymyxin B
e. All of the above
75. An ionophore antibiotic with a cyclic structure obtained from Streptomyces fermentation that acts
on the plasma membrane structure by allowing the uncontrolled movement of ions across the cell
membrane. This ionophore is specific for potassium ions over sodium ions.
a. Daptomycin
b. Gramicidin A
c. Valinomycin
d. Polymyxin B
e. All of the above
76. A polypeptide antibiotic derived from Bacillus polymyxa which can cause leakage of small
molecules such as nucleosides from the cell resulting to cell death.
a. Daptomycin
b. Gramicidin A
c. Valinomycin
d. Polymyxin B
e. All of the above
77. A cyclic lipopeptide derived from a bacterial strain of Streptomyces roseosporus and works by
disrupting multiple functions of bacterial cell membrane.
a. Daptomycin
b. Gramicidin A
c. Valinomycin
d. Polymyxin B
e. All of the above
78. A bactericidal protein synthesis inhibitor that was isolated from Streptomyces griseus. This
antibiotic contains a carbohydrate and basic amine groups in its structure.
a. Chlortetracycline
b. Streptomycin
c. Chloramphenicol
d. Lincomycin
e. Erythromycin
79. A bacteriostatic antibiotic which inhibits protein synthesis by binding to the 30s subunit of
ribosomes and preventing aminoacyl tRNA from binding. This drug was isolated from Streptomyces
aureofasciens.
a. Chlortetracycline
b. Streptomycin
c. Chloramphenicol
d. Lincomycin
e. Erythromycin
80. Which of the following antibiotics has a large lactone ring, a ketone group and a glycosidically
linked amino sugar in its structure?
a. Chlortetracycline
b. Streptomycin
c. Chloramphenicol
d. Lincomycin
e. Erythromycin
81. Clindamycin, a sulphur containing antibiotic, must not be given with which of the following drugs
because of having the same binding site at the ribosomes?
a. Chlortetracycline
b. Chloramphenicol
c. Erythromycin
d. A and B only
e. B and C only
a. Streptomyces griseus
b. Streptomyces pristinaespiralis
c. Acremonium chrysogenu
d. Streptomyces nodosus
e. Streptomyces erythreus
83. Which of the following drug is an oxazolidinone that can prevent the formation of 70s ribosome
by binding to the 50s subunit?
a. Quinupristin
b. Linezolid
c. Ofloxacin
d. Metronidazole
e. Proflavine
84. Nalidixic acid was the first therapeutically agent in the class of compounds that inhibits
topoisomerase enzymes, resulting in inhibition of replication and transcription. Which of the following
is related to nalidixic acid?
a. Quinupristin
b. Linezolid
c. Ofloxacin
d. Metronidazole
e. Proflavine
85. An aminoacridine agent used topically to treat deep surface wounds. It can interact directly with
bacterial DNA by intercalation.
a. Quinupristin
b. Linezolid
c. Ofloxacin
d. Metronidazole
e. Proflavine
86. The antibiotic isolated from Streptomyces mediterranei which inhibits Gram positive bacteria and
works by binding noncovalently to DNA-dependent RNA polymerase and inhibiting the start of RNA
synthesis. The flat naphthalene ring and several of the hydroxyl groups in its structure are essential
for activity, and the drug exists in as zwitterions giving it good solubility in both aqueous acid and
lipids.
a. Rifamycin B
b. Methenamine
c. Metronidazole
d. Isoniazid
e. Nitrofurantoin
87. A nitroimidazole structure introduced as an anti-protozoal agent and later became anti bacterial
agent. Its mechanism of action involves the drug entering the bacterial cell wall where the nitro group
is reduced and free radicals are formed and act on DNA.
a. Rifamycin B
b. Methenamine
c. Metronidazole
d. Isoniazid
e. Nitrofurantoin
88. A drug used to treat urinary tract infections where it degrades in acid conditions to give
formaldehyde as the active agent.
a. Rifamycin B
b. Methenamine
c. Metronidazole
d. Isoniazid
e. Nitrofurantoin
89. An antiviral drug that has a nucleoside-like structure and contains the same nucleic acid base as
deoxyguanosine, but lacks the complete sugar ring. It specifically inhibits viral DNA polymerase and
used in the treatment of infections due to herpes simplex 1 and 2 as well as varicella-zoster viruses.
a. Acyclovir
b. Idoxuridine
c. Podophyllotoxin
d. Fomivirsen
e. Imiquimod
90. Which of the following is the valine ester prodrug of acyclovir useful in the treatment of varicella-
zoster virus infections?
a. Cidofovir
b. Penciclovir
c. Valaciclovir
d. Famciclovir
e. Ganciclovir
91. Which of the following antiviral drug is an analogue of deoxythymidine used in the treatment of
herpes keratitis? The triphosphate form of this drug inhibits viral DNA polymerase as well as
thymidylate synthetase.
a. Acyclovir
b. Idoxuridine
c. Podophyllotoxin
d. Fomivirsen
e. Imiquimod
92. A plant product used in the treatment of genital warts caused by DNA virus papilloma virus.
a. Acyclovir
b. Idoxuridine
c. Podophyllotoxin
d. Fomivirsen
e. Imiquimod
93. This drug consists of 21 nucleotides and phosphothionate backbone. It is a DNA antisense
molecule that blocks the translation of viral RNA and is used against retinal inflammation caused by
CMV in AIDS patients.
a. Acyclovir
b. Idoxuridine
c. Podophyllotoxin
d. Fomivirsen
e. Imiquimod
94. A nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor which is an analogue of deoxythymidine where the
3’hydroxyl group is replaced by an azido group.
a. Zidovudine
b. Didanosine
c. Lamivudine
d. Abacavir
e. Efavirenz
95. The anti-HIV drug contains inosine as the nucleic acid base and is converted through a series of
enzyme reaction to 2’,3’-dideoxyadenosine triphosphate which is the active drug.
a. Zidovudine
b. Didanosine
c. Lamivudine
d. Abacavir
e. Efavirenz
96. Which of the following anti-HIV drug is an analogue of deoxycytidine where the 3’ carbon has
been replaced by sulphur?
a. Zidovudine
b. Didanosine
c. Lamivudine
d. Abacavir
e. Efavirenz
97. The only guanosine analogue that is used against HIV infections and Hepatitis B.
a. Zidovudine
b. Didanosine
c. Lamivudine
d. Abacavir
e. Efavirenz
98. A second generation non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor that has a benzoxaxinone
structure.
a. Zidovudine
b. Didanosine
c. Lamivudine
d. Abacavir
e. Efavirenz
99. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding anti-HIV drugs?
a. NRTIs are prodrugs that are converted by cellular enzymes to active triphosphates which
act as enzyme inhibitors and chain terminators.
b. NNRTIs act as enzyme inhibitors by binding to an allosteric binding site.
c. PIs are designed to act as transition state inhibitors
d. A and B only
e. All of the above
100. Below is the structure of chloramphenicol, a bacteriostatic agent that binds to the 50s subunit of
ribosome. Which part of its structure is essential for drug activity?
a. The nitro group
b. The 2 alcohol groups
c. The dichloroacetamide group
d. A and B only
e. All of the above
a. I, II, III, IV
b. I, III, IV
c. I, II, IV
d. II, III
e. III, IV
103. Amantadine is one of the earliest antiviral drugs used clinically against flu. Which of
the following statements is correct regarding amantadine?
104. Which among the given structures can be intercalating agent which can slide between the base
pairs of the DNA double helix and thereby can inhibit the enzymes involved in the replication and
transcription processes?
a. Structure I
b. Structure II
c. Structure III
d. Structure IV
e. II and III
105. Which among the given structures is an antimetabolite that can inhibit the enzymes involved in
the synthesis of DNA or its nucleotide building blocks?
a. Structure I
b. Structure II
c. Structure III
d. Structure IV
e. II and III
106. Which of the given structures can form strong covalent bonds with the nucleophilic groups on
DNA which can eventually result to cross-linking of strands?
a. Structure I
b. Structure II
c. Structure III
d. Structure IV
e. II and III
107. Which of the given structures can be classified as an alkylating agent?
a. Structure I
b. Structure II
c. Structure III
d. Structure IV
e. II and III
a. Oblimersen
b. Calicheamicin
c. Carboplatin
d. Irinotecan
e. Cyclophosphamide
109. An antisense drug designed to inhibit the mRNA molecules that code for proteins which
suppress apoptosis.
a. Oblimersen
b. Calicheamicin
c. Carboplatin
d. Irinotecan
e. Cyclophosphamide
110. A natural product that reacts with nucleophiles to produce diradical species. Its reaction with
DNA ultimately leads to cutting of the DNA chains.
a. Oblimersen
b. Calicheamicin
c. Carboplatin
d. Irinotecan
e. Cyclophosphamide
111. It is the most commonly used alkylating agent in cancer chemotherapy, the metabolism of
which produces arcolein which is toxic to the bladder and kidneys.
a. Oblimersen
b. Calicheamicin
c. Carboplatin
d. Irinotecan
e. Cyclophosphamide
112. An alkylating agent that can cause intrastrand cross-linking preferref over cisplatin for the
intravenous treatment of advanced ovarian tumors because of its less severe side effects.
a. Oblimersen
b. Calicheamicin
c. Carboplatin
d. Irinotecan
e. Cyclophosphamide
113. Which of the following drugs is not an alkylating agent used in cancer chemotherapy?
a. Carmustine
b. Busulfan
c. Procarbazine
d. Mitomycin C
e. None of the choices
114. A thiopurine prodrug which is converted to its corresponding monophosphate that inhibits
purine synthesis.
a. Methotrexate
b. 5-fluorouracil
c. 6-mercaptopurine
d. Pentostatin
e. Cytarabine
115. An antimetabolite that is very similar in structure to the natural folates differing only in additional
amino and methyl groups. It inhibits the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase which is responsible in
maintaining levels of the enzyme cofactor tetrahydrofolate.
a. Methotrexate
b. 5-fluorouracil
c. 6-mercaptopurine
d. Pentostatin
e. Cytarabine
116. This drug acts as a prodrug for a suicide inhibitor. It is converted in the body to the fluorinated
analogue of 2’deoxyuridylic acid monophosphate which then combines with the enzyme thymidylate
synthase and the cofactor.
a. Methotrexate
b. 5-fluorouracil
c. 6-mercaptopurine
d. Pentostatin
e. Cytarabine
117. An anti-leukemia drug isolated from Streptomyces antibioticus and is a powerful inhibitor of
Adenosine deaminase.
a. Methotrexate
b. 5-fluorouracil
c. 6-mercaptopurine
d. Pentostatin
e. Cytarabine
118. A prodrug analogue of 2’deoxycytidine which inhibits DNA polymerases.
a. Methotrexate
b. 5-fluorouracil
c. 6-mercaptopurine
d. Pentostatin
e. Cytarabine
a. I, II, III, IV
b. I, II
c. III, IV
d. I, III
e. II, IV
120. A decapeptide analogue of the luteinizing hormone – releasing hormone designed to be more
resistant to peptidase degradation.
a. Goserelin
b. Raloxifene
c. Cyproterone acetate
d. Anastrazole
e. 4-hydroxyandrostenedione
121. A reversible competitive inhibitor of the enzyme aromatase , the design of which is based on
structure of amino gluthetimide.
a. Goserelin
b. Raloxifene
c. Cyproterone acetate
d. Anastrazole
e. 4-hydroxyandrostenedione
122. This mode of therapy involves an antibody which has catalytic activity designed to activate a
prodrug.
124. This involves irradiation of tumors containing porphyrin photosensitizers resulting to the
production of reactive oxygen species which are fatal to the cell.
125. This therapy involves an antibody-enzyme conjugate that is targeted to specific cancer cells.
Once the antibody has become attached to the outer surface of cancer cells, a prodrug is
administered which is activated by the enzyme at the tumor site.
I. It is very useful in treating such conditions that requires it because it can be readily
synthesized in the laboratory.
II. It is easily hydrolyzed in the stomach by acid catalysis and cannot be given orally.
III. It is administered intravenously as it is stable in blood because of the absence of enzymes
such as esterases.
IV. There is no selectivity of action upon administration of acetylcholine.
a. I, II, III, IV
b. I, II
c. III, IV
d. I, III
e. II, IV
129. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the structure-activity relationship of
acetylcholine?
a. Replacing the nitrogen atom with a neutral carbon atom increases the activity
b. The overall size of the molecule cannot be altered greatly.
c. There must be two methyl groups on the nitrogen.
d. A and B
e. B and C
a. Addition of steric shield in the ethylene bridge renders resistance to chemical and enzymatic
hydrolysis
b. Changing the ester to a carbamate increases resistance to hydrolysis
c. Changing the ester to a carbamate makes it selective to muscarinic receptor
d. A and B
e. B and C
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. I & II
e. All of the above
132. Which of the given structures is more selective to muscarinic receptor than nicotinic receptor?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. I & II
e. All of the above
133. Given below is the general structure of muscarinic antagonists which was mostly based on the
structure of atropine. Which of the following statements is true regarding the structural features of
muscarinic antagonists?
a. Carbamate group
b. Benzene ring
c. Pyrrolidine ring
d. A and C only
e. All of the above
135. Which part of the catecholamine is not important in the binding site interactions?
136. Which part of the catecholamine structure is involved in Van der Waals interactions?
137. Which part of the catecholamine structure is involved in ionic binding to the receptor site?
138. Which part of the catecholamine structure is involved in H-bonding to the receptor binding site?
139. Which of the following modifications to the catecholamine structure can increase alpha-2
receptor activity?
140. Which of the following modifications to the catecholamine structure can increase the selectivity
for beta receptors?
141. Which of the following modifications to the catecholamine structure can result to a significant
drop in activity for the beta receptor?
142. Which of the following statements is true about the SAR of aryloxypropranolamines?
a. Asthma
b. Hypertension
c. For cardiogenic shock
d. Obesity
e. All of the above
145. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the structural features
required for the hypnotic activity of barbiturates? (refer to the structure of
barbituric acid)
a. II only is correct
b. III only is correct
c. I and IV is correct
d. II and III are correct
e. I, II, III, and IV are correct
146. Which of the following statements describe the ideal antiepileptic drug?
a. I only is correct
b. III only is correct
c. II, III, and IV are correct
d. I, II, and IV are correct
e. I, II, III, and IV are correct
147. Which of the following correctly describes the barbiturate 5-ethyl-5-phenylbarbituric acid?
150. Which of the following statements correctly describe the structure-activity relationship of tricyclic
psychotropic drugs?
a. I only is correct
b. III only is correct
c. II, III, and IV are correct
d. I, II, and IV are correct
e. I, II, III, and IV are correct.
I. Antipsychotic effect
I. thioridazine
II. Fluphenazine
III. Droperidol
IV. Haloperidol
Which of the following statement is/are true regarding modifications at the phenolic function at
position 3?
C. Maximal analgesic effects are observed with the free phenolic group at the 3 position.
D. A and B only
E. B and C only
154. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding modifications of the alcoholic function at
position 3?
A. Masking the hydroxyl group at position 6 increases all morphine type effects.
D. A and B only
E. B and C only
155. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the 7-8 double bond?
B. Dihydromorphine and dihydrocodeine is more potent than the parent compound morphine.
D. A and B only
E. B and C only
156. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the tertiary nitrogen?
B. Increasing the chain length to propyl on the nitrogen results in a compound that has
antagonistic properties to morphine effects.
C. Increasing the chain length to propyl on the nitrogen results in a compound that has
increased morphine type effects.
D. A and B
E. B and C
157. Which of the following statements correctly describe the cardiac glycosides digoxin and
digitoxin?
A. Digoxin is more toxic than digitoxin because of its additional hydroxyl group that makes it
more lipophilic.
B. Digoxin is less toxic than digitoxin because of its additional hydroxyl grouo that makes it
more hydrophilic.
D. A and B
E. B and C
158. What is the probable mechanism of action of cardiac agent with the following structure?
O₂NO CH ₂
CH ONO ₂
O ₂ NO CH ₂
A. It is an inotropic agent
159. A drug used in the treatment in myocardial insufficiency that is structurally similar to adenosine,
a natural vasodilatory substance released by the myocardium during hypoxic episodes.
A. Cyclandelate D. Diltiazem
B. Dypirydamole E. Nifedipine
C. Papaverine
160. An antiarrythmic drug composed of a quinoline ring and a bicyclic quinuclidine ring system
connected by a hydroxymethylene bridge that is a member of a family of alkaloids found in cinchona
bark.
A. Disopyridamole D. Tocainide
B. Flecainide E. Procainamide
C. Quinidine
A. Disopyramide D. Tocainide
B. Flecainide E. Procainamide
C. quinidine
162. What is the use the mechanism of action of this antiplatelet drug with the following structure:
D. A and C only
163. Which of the following statement is true regarding agonist at the H1 and H2 receptor antagonist
of histamine?
A. H1 antagonist are hydrophobic molecules thus they are more likely to produce cns side
effects
B. H2 antagonist are hydrophobic molecules thus they are less likely to produce cns side
effects
D. A and B only
E. B and C only
164. Which of the following statements correctly describes the ideal anesthetic agent?
I. Along with toxicity, increasing the chain length of ethers increases the anesthetic activity.
II. Along with toxicity, increasing the chain length of ethers decreases the anesthetic activity.
III. Introduction of unsaturation into an aliphatic ether increases potency and shortens
induction and emergence
IV. Introduction of unsaturation into an aliphatic ether decreases potency and shortens
induction and emergence
C. II,III only
166. Which of the following statements is true regarding halogenated anesthetic agents?
IV. Addition of halogen atoms to ethers or hydrocarbons often decreases anesthetic potency.
B. I & IV only
167. Which of the following metabolic transformation of barbiturates can lead to loss of depressant
activity?
A. Oxidation of substituents
B. Desulfuration of 2-thiobarbiturates
A. Propionic acid
B. Chaulmoogric acid
C. Mandelic acid
D. Salicylic acid
E. Amino acid
A. Benzyl alcohol
B. 2-propanol
C. Ethanol
D. 2-pyridinemethanol
E. choline
A. Dimethisoquin
B. Benzidioxanes
C. Clomiphene
D. Phenoxybenzamine
E. Methoxyphenamine
A. Ethyl chloride
B. Carbon tetrachloride
C. Chloral
D. Hexachlorophene
E. Chloroform
For nos 172-175, refer to the structure of cetirizine and clemastine as shown below:
Cetirizine Clemastine
172. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the structural features of cetirizine and
clemastine?
A. Cetirizine and clemastine can cross the blood brain barrier because of the hydrophobic
aromatic rings and aliphatic hydrocarbon chains
D. A and B only
E. A and C only
173. Which of the following functional groups can decrease the absorption of cetirizine and
clemastine through the blood brain barrier?
A. Aromatic hydrocarbon
B. Tertiary amines
C. Ether
D. A and B
E. B and C
174. Which of the following functional groups can increase the absorption of cetirizine and
clemastine through the blood brain barrier?
A. Aromatic hydrocarbon
B. Tertiary amines
C. Ether
D. A and B
E. B and C
175. If a truck driver asks you to recommend an antihistamine drug for his seasonal allergies, which
of the two drugs will you recommend?
A. Clemastine
B. Cetirizine
176. A 35 year old woman comes to the pharmacy and asks you to recommend an antifungal cream
rather than a spray or powder. You recommended terbinafine, an effective topical antifungal agent
that is sold over the counter. What are the structural features/functional groups present in terbinafine
that makes it an agent that can be used topically?
C. AlkyneAll
177. Which among the following amino acids is likely to be present in the active site of the target
enzyme of terbinafine and form an ionic interaction with the tertiary amine group?
A. Valine
B. Isoleucine
C. Alanine
D. Glutamic acid
E. Serine
178. . Which among the following amino acids is likely to be present in the active site of the target
enzyme of terbinafine and form an hydrophobic interaction with the aromatic hydrocarbons?
A. Phenylalanine
B. Serine
C. Threonine
D. Glutamic acid
E. Arginine
A. Tripelennamine
B. Diphenhydramine
C. Promethazine
D. Astemizole
A. Tripelennamine
B. Diphenhydramine
C. Promethazine
D. Astemizole
A. Tripelennamine
B. Diphenhydramine
C. Promethazine
D. Astemizole
A. Tripelennamine
B. Diphenhydramine
C. Promethazine
D. Astemizole
183. According to this drug receptor theory, the number of drug receptor interactions per unit time
determines the intensity of the biological response
A. Rate theory
B. Occupational theory
184. This drug receptor theory suggest that the biological response is directly related to the number
of receptors bound by an agonist.
A. Rate theory
B. Occupational theory
185. This drug receptor theory suggest that the drug approaches the receptor, a conformational
change occurs in the receptor to allow effective binding.
A. Rate theory
B. Occupational theory
186. According to this theory, receptors are always in dynamic equilibrium between active and
inactive states. Agonist function by shifting the equilibrium toward the activated state, whereas
antagonist prevent the activated state.
A. Rate theory
B. Occupational theory
187. This drug receptor theory suggest that two types of conformational changes exist and the rate
of their existence determines the observed biological response.
A. Rate theory
B. Occupational theory
A. these are compounds that mimics the natural ligand for receptor
C. They can bind to regions of the receptor that are not involved in binding the natural ligand
D. A and B
E. B and C
A. these are compounds that mimics the natural ligand for receptor
C. They can bind to regions of the receptor that are not involved in binding the natural ligand
D. A and B
E. B and C
190. These are exogenous chemical messengers that act as antagonist, but also eliminate any
resting acivity associated with a receptor.
A. Partial agonist
B. Inverse agonist
C. Hormones
D. Neurotransmitters
E. None of the choices
191. This condition may occur when an agonist is bound to its receptor for a long period of time.
A. Sensitization
B. Desensitization
C. Tolerance
D. Dependence
192. This condition may occur when an antagonist is bound to a receptor for a long period of time.
The cell synthesize more receptor to counter the antagonist effect.
A. Sensitization
B. Desensitization
C. Tolerance
D. Dependence
193. This is a situation where increases doses of a drug over time to achieve same effect.
A. Sensitization
B. Desensitization
C. Tolerance
D. Dependence
194. This is related to the body’s ability to adapt to the presence of a drug. On stopping the drug,
withdrawal symptoms occur as a result of abnormal levels of target receptor.
A. Sensitization
B. Desensitization
C. Tolerance
D. Dependence
A. Potency
B. Affinity
C. Efficacy
196. This is determined by measuring the maximum possible effects resulting from receptor-ligand
binding
A. Potency
B. Affinity
C. Efficacy
197. This relates how effective a drug is in producing a cellular effect. It can be determined by
measuring the concentration of drug required to produce 50% of the maximum possible effect.
A. Potency
B. Affinity
C. Efficacy
198. These are molecules that act as substrates for a target enzyme, but which are converted into a
highly reactive species as a result of the enzyme catalyzed reaction mechanism. The species
formed then reacts with amino acid residues present in the active site to form covalents bonds, and
act as irreversible inhibitors.
B. Suicide substrates
C. Allosteric inhibitors
D. Competitive inhibitor
199. This type of inhibition binds to a different site other than the active site and can alter the shape
of the enzyme such that the active site is no longer recognizable.
B. Suicide substrates
C. Allosteric inhibitors
D. Competitive inhibitor
E. All of the above
200. These are enzyme inducers that are designed to mimic the transition state of an enzyme-
catalyze reaction mechanism. They bind more strongly than either the substrate or product.
B. Suicide substrates
C. Allosteric inhibitors
D. Competitive inhibitor
201. The type of inhibitors that bind to the active site and compete with either substrate or cofactor.
B. Suicide substrates
C. Allosteric inhibitors
D. Competitive inhibitor
A. Adenosine deaminase
B. Arabinosyl transferase
C. Acetylcholinesterase
E. Aldehyde dehydrogenase
203. sildenafil, a drug for erectile dysfunction, inhibit which of the following enzyme?
A. Adenosine deaminase
B. Arabinosyl transferase
C. Acetylcholinesterase
E. Aldehyde dehydrogenase
204. ethambutol, a drug for tuberculosis, inhibit which of the following enzyme?
A. Adenosine deaminase
B. Arabinosyl transferase
C. Acetylcholinesterase
D. 3’,5’-cyclic GMP phosphodiesterase
E. Aldehyde dehydrogenase
205.Which of the following drugs for diabetes inhibits the enzyme a-glucosidase?
A. Acarbose
B. Miglitol
C. Glimepiride
D. Metformin
E. Rosiglitazone
206. Which of the following drugs for diabetes inhibits the enzyme a-amylase?
A. Acarbose
B. Miglitol
C. Glimepiride
D. Metformin
E. Rosiglitazone
207. Which of the following drug (inhibitor)-enzyme inhibited pairs is incorrectly matched?
208. Which of the following drug (inhibitor)-enzyme inhibited pairs is incorrectly matched?
209. Which of the following drug (inhibitor)-enzyme inhibited pairs is correctly matched?
A. captopril: peptidyl-dipeptidase A
E. B and C only
210. Which of the following drugs (inhibitor) enzyme inhibited pairs is correctly matched?
A. Amiodaquine
B. Guaiacol
C. Hydroxymorphinans
D. Diethylstilbestrol
E. Hexylresorcinol
212. Which of the following dyes is available as vaginal suppository for the treatment of yeast
infection and has also been used orally as a anthelmintic for strongyloidiasis and oxyurias?
A. Methylene blue
B. Phenolpthalein
C. Basic fuchsin
D. Methylrosaniline chloride
213. Which of the following dyes is a mixture of the chlorides of rosaniline and p-rosaniline? It is an
ingredient of castellanis paint which is used topically in the treatment of fungal infection, such as
ringworm and athletes foot?
C. Basic fuchsin
214. It is a non classical folate antagonist that is structurally similar to methotrexate. It inhibits the
enzyme dihydrofolate reductase and has been approved for the treatment of pneumocystis carinii in
patients with aids.
A. Nitoxadine B. Metronidazole
C. Trimetexrate E. Suramin
D. Diloxanide furoate
215. Which of the following anti-inflammatory analgesic is an arylacetic derivative that is comparable
to aspirin in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis, with a lower incidence of side effects? It has also
been approved for used in primary dysmenorrhea.
C. Ibuprofen
216. Which of the following anti-inflammatory agents is an arylanthranilic acid derivative that has
lower incidence of gastrointestinal bleeding than aspirin, and has been approved for use in the
management of primary dysmenorrhea?
C. Ibuprofen
217. Which of the following drugs is a derivative of aniline and has an analgesic and antipyretic
properties? The FDA requires a warning label that read as follows: Warning: Do not give to children
under 3 years of age or use for more than 10 days unless directed by a physician.
C. Ibuprofen
C. Benzestrol
219. Which of the following estrogens is an estradiol metabolite originally obtained from the urine of
horses especially pregnant mares?
C. Estriol
C. Medroxyprogesterone
222. Which of the following prodrugs was designed to improve the membrane permeability of its
active metabolite?
C. Pivampicillin
223. Which of the following prodrugs was designed to prolong the drug activity of its active
metabolite?
B. Azathioprine E. Hetacillin
C. Chloramphenicol palmitate
224. Which of the following prodrugs was designed to lower water solubility of the active metabolite?
B. Azathioprine E. Hetacillin
C. Chloramphenicol palmitate
225. Which of the following prodrugs was designed to mask the toxic side effects of its active
metabolite?
B. Azathioprine E. Hetacillin
C. Chloramphenicol palmitate
226. Which of the following prodrugs was designed to increase the water solubility of the active
metabolite?
B. Azathioprine E. Hetacillin
C. Chloramphenicol palmitate
227. Which of the following prodrug was designed to increase the chemical stability of the active
metabolite?
A. Cyclophosphamide B. Azathioprine
C. Chloramphenicol palmitate E. Hetacillin
D. Chloramphenicol succinate
228. These are isomer that contain at least one assymetric, or chiral, carbon atom. Each asymmetric
carbon atom can exist in one of two non-superimposable isomeric forms.
C. Conformational isomer
229. This type of isomer occurs as a result of restricted rotation about a chemical bond, owing to
double bond or rigid ring system in the molecule.
C. Conformational isomer
230. Also known as rotamers, these are non-superimposable orientation of a molecule which result
from the rotation of atoms about single bonds.
C. Conformational isomer
231. Which of the following statements is true regarding ester-type local anesthetics?
A. They are generally long acting and are metabolized in the liver
B. They are generally short acting due to rapid hydrolysis in the plasma
D. A and B only
E. A and C only
232. Which of the following statements is true regarding amide-type local anesthetics?
A. They are generally long acting and are metabolized in the liver
B. They are generally short acting due to rapid hydrolysis in the plasma
D. A and B only
E. A and C only
233. Which of the following statements is true regarding the antipsychotic agents in the
phenothiazine class?
A. Phenothiazine must have a nitrogen containing side chain substituent on the ring nitrogen
for antipsychotic activity.
B. Phenothiazine in which the rings and side chain nitrogen are separated by a two carbn
chain have only antihistaminic activity.
C. Piperidine derivative confer the greatest potency and the highest pharmacologic
selectivity.
D. A and B only
E. B and C only
A. butyrophenone, haloperidol
B. Phenothiazine, chlorprothixene
C. Thioxanthenes, thioridazine
D. A and B only
235. Which of the following pairs of newer class of antipsychotic is correctly matched?
A. dihydroinolones, molindone
B. Dibenzoxazepines, loxapine
C. Dibenzodiazepines, clozapine
D. A and C only
C. TCA appear to produce their antidepressant effects by blocking the intraneuronal oxidative
deamination of brain biogenic amines.
D. A and B only
237. Which of the following statements correctly describe the structure and mechanism of action of
mao inhibitors?
D. A and B only
For nos. 238-240, select the most appropriate pharmacologic category for the following structures:
C. Antidepressant
C. Antidepressant
C. Antidepressant
C. Antidepressant
242. Give the amino acid of the autacoids with the following structure.
A. tyrosine D. Histidine
B. Phenylalanine E. Serine
C. Tryptophan
243. Give the amino acid of the autacoids with the following structure.
A. tyrosine D. Histidine
B. Phenylalanine E. Serine
C. Tryptophan
244. Certain metabolites retain the pharmacologic activity of their of their parent compounds to a
greater or lesser degree. Which of the following drugs produce such metabolites?
A. I, IV D. II only
B. II,III E. I only
C. III, IV
245. Which of the following biotransformation produces a metabolite with an activity different from
that of their parent compound?
A. I, IV D. II only
B. II,III E. I only
C. III, IV
A. I, IV D. II only
B. II,III E. I only
C. III, IV
III. The vast majority of oxidation is catalyze by a group or mixed function oxidases
known as CYP450.
IV. The increased polarity of the oxidized product (metabolites) enhances their water
solubility and increases their tubular reabsorption to some extent, thus favoring their
excretion in the urine
C. III, IV only
I. It has same goal as oxidation reaction to create polar functional groups that can be easily
excreted.
II. Bacteria resident in the GI tract are also responsible for reductions of azo and nitro
groups
C.I, II only
A. Acetaminophen D. Theophyliine
C. Imipramide
A. prostaglandin
B. Carbamazepine
C. Dapsone
D. Hydrocortisone
l.These are reactions in which the functional groups of the original drug(or metabolite)are masked by conjugation
reaction
lll.High-energy molecules consist of a coenzyme bound to the endogenous substrate,the parent drug,or the
drug’s phase l metabolite.
lV.Most conjugates are highly polar and unable to cross cell membranes,making them almost almost always
pharmacology inactive and of little or no toxicity.
l.It is the most common conjugation pathway because of readiy available supply of glucuronic acid as well
as a large variety of functional groups,which can enzymatically react with this sugar derivative.
ll.The high energy form of glucuronic acid is Uridine monophosphate glucuronic acid and the enzyme
involve in these reaction is glucuronyl transferase.
lll.Druds that posses hydroxyl or carboxyl functional groups readily undergo glucurinidation to form esters
and ethers,respectively.
lV.The addition of the glucuronide moiety greatly increases the hydrophilicity of the molecule which makes
it highly reabsorbed by the renal tubes.
253. Which of the following conjugation reactions requires 2’-phosphoadenosine-5’- phosphosulfate molecule?
C) Methylation
254.Which of the following conjugation reactions require the formation of the high-energy molecule AcetylCoA
C) Methylation
255. Which of the following conditions can greatly affect the metabolism of a certain drug?
C) Deficiency of vitamins
256. Which of the following drug administration route bypasses first-pass effect
A) Oral administration
B) Intravenous administration
C) Sublingual administration
D) A and B
E) B and C
257.Which of the following metabolites would be the least likely urinary excretion product of acetaminophen?
A) Ether glucuronide
B) Sulfate conjugate
C) N-acetyl-p-benziminoqiunoneimine
D) Unchange drug
258. Which of te following statements correctly describes the first and second generation Sulfonylureas? (See
structure below)
ll.First generation Sulfonylureas have relatively simple aromatic substituents such as methyl,amino,acetyl,chloro
A)l,ll,lll,lV
B)l,ll,lll only
E)lV only
A) Glyburide
B) Glipizide
C) Glimperide
A) Glyburide
B) glipizide
C) Glimperide
261. This drug has been highly effective against Schistoma mansoni.It is activated via esterification to a biological
ester that spontaneously dissociates to an electrophlie,which alkylates the helminth DNA,leading to irreversible
inhibition of nucleic acid metabolism.
A) Praziquantel
B) Oxaminiquine
C) Ivermectin
D) Pyrantel
E) Mebendazole
262.This drug acts as a depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent that acts as a depolarizing neuromuscular
blocking agent that activates nicotinic receptors and inhibits cholinesters,ultimately leading to worm paralysis.It is
used as apamoate salt,which is quite insoluble and,as a result,is not readiy absorbed improving the usefulness of
the drug for the treatment of intestinal helminthes.
A) Praziquantel
B) Oxaminiquine
C) Ivermectin
D) Pyrantel
E) Mebendazole
263. A drug that belongs to a class of 16-membered macrocyclic lactones extracted from Streptomyces avermitilis
used in the treatment of various nematode infections.It acts either as a GABA agonist or as an inducer of chloride
ion influx,leading to hyperpolarization and muscle paralysis.
A)Praziquantel
B)Oxaminiquine
C)Ivermectin
D)Pyrantel
E)Mebendazole
264. It is an isoquinoline derivative with most of the biological activity found in the levo enantiomer.The compound
has no activity against nematodes,but is highly effective against cestodes abd trematodes.Its mechanism of action
appers to involve calcium ion redistribution either directly or indirectly and inhibition of phosphoinositide metabolism
A) Praziquantel
B) Oxaminiquine
C) Ivermectin
D) Pyrantel
E) Mebendazole
265. Buspirone,a long chain arylpiperazine derivative,is an anxiolytic agent that is a partial agonist to
A)5HT1A receptor
B)5HT4 receptor
C)5HT3 receptor
D)5HT2A
E)5HT1D
266. Sumatriptan and other indeleaklylamine derivatives used in the treatment of migraine is an agonist at which of
the following receptors.
A) 5HT1A receptor
B) 5HT4 receptor
C) 5HT3 receptor
D) 5HT2A
E) 5HT1D
For nos. 267-268, refer to the following reaction pathway
A)l,ll,lll,lV
B)l,ll only
C)lll,lV only
D)l,lll
E)ll,lV
A)l,ll,lll,lV
B)l,ll only
C)lll,lV only
D)l,lll
E)ll,lV
A)Chloramphenicol
B)Procaine
C)Lidocaine
D)Sulfasalazine
A)Chloramphenicol
B)Procaine
C)Lidocaine
D)Sulfasalazine
271.Which of the following drugs would most likely undergo ester hydrolysis
A)Chloramphenicol
B)Procaine
C)Lidocaine
D)Sulfasalazine
A)Chloramphenicol
B)Procaine
C)Lidocaine
D)Sulfasalazine
273.This conjugation pathway is extremely important in preveting toxicity from a variety of electrophilic agents.It
produces a mercaptopuric acid derivative upon reaction with an electrophile
A)Glutathione conjugation
B)Acetylation
C)Methylation
D)Sulfate conjugation
A)Glutathione conjugation
B)Acetylation
C)Methylation
D)Sulfate conjugation
III. N-oxidation
IV. N-dealkylation
A. I,II,III,IV
B. I,II,III
C. I,II
D. I,III
E. II,IV
276. Which of the following selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs) and antiestrogens has a
triphenylethylene structure used to treat early and advanced breast carcinoma in post menopausal women?
A. raloxifene
B. Fulvestrant
C. Tamoxifen
D. Clomiphene
277. Which of the following SERMs and antiestrogen is a benzothiophene derivative that has been approved for the
prevention and treatment of osteoporosis in menopausal women? It has antagonist properties on the endometrium
and breast tissue and agonist properties on bone and cardiovascular system?
A. raloxifene
B. Fulvestrant
C. Tamoxifen
D. Clomiphene
278. Which of the following SERMs and antiestrogen is an antagonist structurally on the estradiol structure which is
used in the treatment of women who have had disease progression after prior antiestrogen property?
A. raloxifene
B. Fulvestrant
C. Tamoxifen
D. Clomiphene
A. Letrozole
B. Aminoglutethimide
C. Exemestane
D. A and B only
E. B and C only
A. Letrozole
B. Aminoglutethimide
C. Exemestane
D. A and B only
E. B and C only
A. Letrozole
B. Aminoglutethimide
C. Exemestane
D. A and B only
E. B and C only
282. What is the probable mechanism of action of diuretic drug with the following structure?
A. It increases intraluminal osmotic pressure, causing water to pass from the body into the tubules.
B. It can induce dieresis by inhibiting the formation of carbonic acid within the proximal and tubular cells to limit the
number of hydrogen ions available to promote sodium reabsortion
D. It inhibits Na+/K=/Cl- transport system in the thick ascending limb loop of henle
283. What is the probable mechanism of action of a diuretic drug with the following structure?
A. It increases intraluminal osmotic pressure, causing water to pass from the body into the tubules.
B. It can induce dieresis by inhibiting the formation of carbonic acid within the proximal and tubular cells to limit the
number of hydrogen ions available to promote sodium reabsortion
D. It inhibits Na+/K=/Cl- transport system in the thick ascending limb loop of henle
284. What is the probable mechanism of action of a diuretic drug with the following structure?
A. It increases intraluminal osmotic pressure, causing water to pass from the body into the tubules.
B. It can induce dieresis by inhibiting the formation of carbonic acid within the proximal and tubular cells to limit the
number of hydrogen ions available to promote sodium reabsortion
D. It inhibits Na+/K=/Cl- transport system in the thick ascending limb loop of henle
E. It inhibits sodium and water reabsorption by competitive inhibition of aldosterone
285. What is the probable mechanism of action of a diuretic drug with the following structure?
A. It increases intraluminal osmotic pressure, causing water to pass from the body into the tubules.
B. It can induce dieresis by inhibiting the formation of carbonic acid within the proximal and tubular cells to limit the
number of hydrogen ions available to promote sodium reabsortion
D. It inhibits Na+/K=/Cl- transport system in the thick ascending limb loop of henle
286. Which of the following analgesic agent is 2 to 3 times more potent than morphine as analgesic and also known
as heroin?
A. Tramadol hydrochloride
B. Normorphine
C. Diphenoxylate
D. Nalbuphine
E. Diacetylmorphine Hydrochloride
287. Which of the following drugs represent a fragment of codeine’s structure, consisting of the phenyl and
cyclohexane rings? This drug possesses opioid activity but has other analgesic activity that is not reversed by
naloxone.
A. Tramadol hydrochloride
B. Normorphine
C. Diphenoxylate
D. Nalbuphine
E. Diacetylmorphine Hydrochloride
288. This drug prepared by N-demethylation of morphine and has about one-fourth as active as morphine in
producing analgesia but has a much lower physical dependence capacity
A. Tramadol hydrochloride
B. Normorphine
C. Diphenoxylate
D. Nalbuphine
E. Diacetylmorphine Hydrochloride
289. Also known as N-cyclobutylmethylnoroxymorphone hydrochloride, this drug is analgesia of the agonist-
antagonist type with little or no abuse liability.
A. Tramadol hydrochloride
B. Normorphine
C. Diphenoxylate
D. Nalbuphine
E. Diacetylmorphine Hydrochloride
290. This drug has a strong structural relationship to the meperidine type analgesics and has the ability to inhibit
excessive gastrointestinal motility.
A. Tramadol hydrochloride
B. Normorphine
C. Diphenoxylate
D. Nalbuphine
E. Diacetylmorphine Hydrochloride
291. Which of the following modifications can affect the onset , degree and duration of insulin activity?
A. Rearrangement of amino acid residues at the N- and C- terminus at the B chain of insulin
292. This is the only insulin analogue with a C14 fatty acid attached to an amino residue in the B chain of insulin
A. Lispro
B. Aspart
C. Glulisine
D. Glargine
E. Detemir
293. A highly purified protein containing 165 amino acids manufactured from a strain of E. coli bearing a genetically
engineered plasmid containing an interferon alfa 2a gene from leucocytes. This drug is used in patients 18 years or
older for treatment of hairy cell leukemia and chronic myelogenous leukemia.
A. Roferon-A
B. Interon
C. Aldesleukin
D. Rituximab
E. Gemtuzumab Ozogamicin
294. A highly purified protein produced by E.coli containing a plasmid with alfa 2b gene. This product is indicated
for hairy cell leukemia and also useful in treating malignant melanoma.
A. Roferon-A
B. Interon
C. Aldesleukin
D. Rituximab
E. Gemtuzumab Ozogamicin
295. It is also known as interleukin 2 or T-cell growth factor. This product when administered stimulates T-cell
growth and regulation, proliferation and immunoglobulin production in B lymphocytes macrophage activity
enhancement
A. Roferon-A
B. Interon
C. Aldesleukin
D. Rituximab
E. Trastuzumab
296. A monoclonal antibody approved for breast cancer which selectively binds with high affinity to the extracellular
domain of human epidermal growth factor 2 protein
A. Roferon-A
B. Interon
C. Aldesleukin
D. Rituximab
E. Gemtuzumab Ozogamicin
297. A genetically engineered chimeric monoclonal antibody directed against CD20 antigen on malignant B
lymphocytes
A. Roferon-A
B. Interon
C. Aldesleukin
D. Rituximab
E. Gemtuzumab Ozogamicin
298. A type of immunobiological that contains a solution of antibodies derived from the serum of animals immunized
with specific antigens.
A. Toxoid
B. vaccine
C. Anti toxin
E. Immune globulin
299. A product derived from blood plasma of a donor pool similar to the IG pool but prepared so it is suitable for IV
use. It is primarily use for replacement therapy in primary Ab deficiency disorders and for the treatment of
kawasaki’s disease.
A. Toxoid
B. vaccine
C. Anti toxin
E. Immune globulin
300. A modified bacterial toxin that has been made non toxic but remains the ability to stimulate the formation of
antitoxin.
A. Toxoid
B. vaccine
C. Anti toxin
E. Immune globulin