Ans&Sol Neet 2021 (Code m5)

DATE : 12/09/2021 Test Booklet Code
M5
Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Ph.: 011-47623456
Time : 3 hrs.
Answers & Solutions Max. Marks : 720
for
NEET (UG) - 2021
Important Instructions :
1. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 200 multiple choice questions (Four options
with a single correct answer). There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You
have to attempt all 35 questions from Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(Candidates are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section-B before they start
attempting the question paper. In the event of a candidate attempting more than ten questions, the first
ten questions answered by the candidate shall be evaluated.)
2. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For every
wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score. Unanswered / unattempted questions
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NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-M5)
PHYSICS
Answer (2)
SECTION - A
Sol. Equation of displacement of particle executing
1. An infinitely long straight conductor carries a current SHM is given by x = Asin(t + ) ...(I)
of 5 A as shown. An electron is moving with a speed
of 10 5 m/s parallel to the conductor. The Potential energy of particle executing SHM is given
perpendicular distance between the electron and the by
conductor is 20 cm at an instant. Calculate the 1 2
magnitude of the force experienced by the electron U kx
2
at that instant.
1 2
5
Electron v = 10 m/s  kA sin2  t    ...(II)
2
From I and II, it is clear that
20 cm Time period of x = Asin(t + ) is
2 
P 5A Q T1   frequency n1 
 2
(1) 4 × 10–20 N (2) 8 × 10–20 N
while time period of x2 = A2sin2(t + ) is
(3) 4 × 10–20 N (4) 8 × 10–20 N
Answer (4)  
T2   frequency n2 
 
Sol. Magnetic field produced due to current carrying wire
at point 'A' Hence n2 = 2n1
e A
ZX
5
A v = 10 m/s 3. A radioactive nucleus undergoes spontaneous
decay in the sequence
r = 20 cm A
Z X Z 1 B Z 3 C Z 2 D , where Z is the atomic
number of element X. The possible decay particles
P 5A Q in the sequence are
0 2I (1) , –, + (2) , +, –
B
4 r (3) +, , – (4) –, , +
7
10 25 1 Answer (3)
B   10 5 (Tesla), upward to the
20  10 2 2
Sol. On + decay atomic number decreases by 1
plane of paper
On –1 decay atomic number increases by 1
Now, force acting on electron due to this field
On  decay atomic number decreases by 2
F  q v  B 
 
A  decay  decay  decay
1 Z X   Z 1 B   Z 3 C   D
F  1.6  1019  105   10 5 Z 2
2
Hence correct order of decay are +, , –
= 0.8 × 10–19 N
4. The escape velocity from the Earth's surface is v.
F  8  10 20 N The escape velocity from the surface of another
2. A body is executing simple harmonic motion with planet having a radius, four times that of Earth and
frequency 'n', the frequency of its potential energy is same mass density is
(1) n (2) 2n (1) v (2) 2v
(3) 3n (4) 4n (3) 3v (4) 4v
2
Answer (4)
Sol. Escape velocity from the Earth's surface
2GM Sol.
ve 
R
A d B fB
4 fA
2G R 3
 3 Parallel beam of light after refraction from convex lens
R converge at the focus of convex lens. In question it
is given light after refraction pass through concave
8G 2
 R lens becomes parallel. Therefore light refracted from
3 convex lens virtually meet at focus of concave lens.
ve  R (For same density) According to above ray diagram d = fA – fB
= 20 – 5 = 15 cm
v R
 7. A capacitor of capacitance 'C', is connected across
v1 4R
an ac source of voltage V, given by
v1 = 4v V = V0sint
5. The half-life of a radioactive nuclide is 100 hours. The The displacement current between the plates of the
fraction of original activity that will remain after 150 capacitor, would then be given by
hours would be
(1) Id = V0Ccost
1 1
(1) (2) V0
2 2 2 (2) Id  cos t
C
2 2
(3) (4) V0
3 3 2 (3) Id  sin t
C
Answer (2)
Sol. The activity of a radioactive substance is given as (4) Id = V0Csint
t Answer (1)
 1 T
A  A0   1/2 Sol. Given V = V0sint (1)
2
t Now displacement current Id is given by
A  1 T1/2
Now,   dV
A0  2  Id  C
dt
150
A  1 100 d
   C (V0 sin t ) (using equation 1)
A0  2  dt
3
= C(V0)cost
A  1 2 Id = V0Ccost
  
A0  2 
8. A small block slides down on a smooth inclined
A 1 plane, starting from rest at time t = 0. Let Sn be the
 
A0 2 2 distance travelled by the block in the interval
6. A convex lens 'A' of focal length 20 cm and a Sn
t = n – 1 to t = n. Then, the ratio is
concave lens 'B' of focal length 5 cm are kept along Sn 1
the same axis with a distance 'd' between them. If
a parallel beam of light falling on 'A' leaves 'B' as a 2n  1 2n  1
(1) (2)
parallel beam, then the distance 'd' in cm will be 2n 2n  1
(1) 25 (2) 15 2n  1 2n
(3) (4)
(3) 50 (4) 30 2n  1 2n  1
Answer (2) Answer (2)
3
Sol. Suppose  is inclination of inclined plane 1

acceleration along inclined plane a = gsin  m  2g (S  y )  3  mgy (using (1))
2
Sn = distance travelled by object during nth second. S – y = 3y
Initial speed u = 0 S
 y ...(2)
By equation of uniformly accelerated motion 4
a  S 3gS
Sn  u  (2n  1)  v  2  g S    ...(3)
2  4 2
g sin  g sin  10. In a potentiometer circuit a cell of EMF 1.5 V gives
Sn  0  (2n  1)  (2n  1) ...(i)
2 2 balance point at 36 cm length of wire. If another cell
Distance travelled during (n + 1)th second. of EMF 2.5 V replaces the first cell, then at what
length of the wire, the balance point occurs?
g sin  g sin 
Sn 1  0  [2(n  1)  1]  (2n  1) ...(ii) (1) 60 cm (2) 21.6 cm
2 2
Dividing equations (i) and (ii) (3) 64 cm (4) 62 cm
Sn (2n  1) Answer (1)


Sn 1 (2n  1) Sol. From the application of potentiometer to compare two
cells of emfs E1 and E2 by balancing lengths 1 and
9. A particle is released from height S from the surface
2
of the Earth. At a certain height its kinetic energy is
three times its potential energy. The height from the E1 1

surface of earth and the speed of the particle at that E2 2
instant are respectively
 E2   2.5 V 
S 3gS  2  1  E   (36 cm)  1.5 V 
S 3gS  1  
(1) , (2) ,
4 2 4 2 = 60 cm
S 3gS S 3gS 11. For a plane electromagnetic wave propagating in
(3) , (4) ,
2 2 4 2 x-direction, which one of the following combination
Answer (4) gives the correct possible directions for electric field
(E) and magnetic field (B) respectively?
Sol. Let required height of body is y.
When body from rest falls through height (S – y) (1) j  k, j  k (2)  j  k ,  j  k
Then under constant acceleration
(3) j  k,  j  k (4)  j  k,  j  k
Answer (2)
v S Sol. Direction of propagation of electromagnetic waves

y
is along E  B
EARTH
Given that direction of propagation is along x-axis
v2 = 02 + 2g(S – y)
v  2g (S  y ) ...(1)
(1)  j  k    j  k   0
When body is at height y above ground. Potential (2)   j  k     j  k   2i
energy of body of mass m
U = mgy (3)  j  k     j  k   0
  j  k     j  k   0
As per given condition kinetic energy, K = 3U
(4)
1
m(v )2  3  mg ( y )
2  Option (2) is correct.
4
12. Polar molecules are the molecules 14. Match Column - I and Column - II and choose the
(1) Having zero dipole moment correct match from the given choices.
(2) Acquire a dipole moment only in the presence of Column - I Column - II
electric field due to displacement of charges
1
(A) Root mean square (P) nmv 2
(3) Acquire a dipole moment only when magnetic 3
field is absent speed of gas
(4) Having a permanent electric dipole moment molecules
Answer (4) 3 RT
(B) Pressure exerted (Q)
Sol. In polar molecules, the centre of positive charges M
does not coincide with the centre of negative by ideal gas
charges.
5
(C) Average kinetic (R) RT
Hence, these molecules have a permanent electric 2
dipole moment of their own. energy of a
13. The velocity of a small ball of mass M and density molecule
d, when dropped in a container filled with glycerine 3
becomes constant after some time. If the density of (D) Total internal (S) kBT
2
d energy of 1 mole
glycerine is , then the viscous force acting on the of a diatomic gas
2
ball will be (1) (A) - (R), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) - (Q)
Mg (2) (A) - (Q), (B) - (R), (C) - (S), (D) - (P)
(1) (2) Mg
2
(3) (A) - (Q), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) - (R)
3
(3) Mg (4) 2Mg (4) (A) - (R), (B) - (Q), (C) - (P), (D) - (S)
2
Answer (3)
Answer (1)
Sol. Root mean square speed of gas molecule
Sol. Let Fv be the viscous force and FB be the Bouyant
force acting on the ball.
3 RT
FB

Fv M
v = constant 1
Pressure exerted by ideal gas  nmv 2
3
Mg
3
Then, when body moves with constant velocity Average kinetic energy of a molecule  kBT
2
Mg = FB + Fv [a = 0]
Fv = Mg – FB 1
Total internal energy of a gas is (U )  nfRT
2
d
 dVg   Vg (M = dVg) V = volume of ball.
2 Here, n = 1
f=5
d
 Vg
2 5
U RT
2
M
Fv  g
2 Hence, (A) - (Q), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) - (R)
5
15. Water falls from a height of 60 m at the rate of 17. The electron concentration in an n-type
15 kg/s to operate a turbine. The losses due to semiconductor is the same as hole concentration in
frictional force are 10% of the input energy. How a p-type semiconductor. An external field (electric) is
much power is generated by the turbine? applied across each of them. Compare the currents
(g = 10 m/s2) in them.
(1) 10.2 kW (1) Current in n-type = current in p-type
(2) 8.1 kW (2) Current in p-type > current in n-type

(3) 12.3 kW (3) Current in n-type > current in p-type
(4) 7.0 kW (4) No current will flow in p-type, current will only
Answer (2) flow in n-type
Answer (3)
d  mgh 
Sol. Incident power on turbine = Sol. The current through a semiconductor is
dt
I = neAvd
dm I = neAE
 gh
dt In ne eAe E

= 10 × 60 × 15 Ip nheA h E
= 9000 W In e

Now, losses are 10% Ip h
∵ e   h
 10 
 power generated =  1    9000
 100   In > Ip
= 8100 W 18. A nucleus with mass number 240 breaks into two
= 8.1 kW fragments each of mass number 120, the binding
energy per nucleon of unfragmented nuclei is 7.6
16. A lens of large focal length and large aperture is best MeV while that of fragments is 8.5 MeV. The total
suited as an objective of an astronomical telescope gain in the Binding Energy in the process is
since
(1) 0.9 MeV
(1) A large aperture contributes to the quality and
visibility of the images. (2) 9.4 MeV
(2) A large area of the objective ensures better light (3) 804 MeV
gathering power. (4) 216 MeV
(3) A large aperture provides a better resolution. Answer (4)
(4) All of the above
Sol. Mass number of reactant = 240
Answer (4)
BE per nucleon = 7.6 MeV
Sol. With larger aperture of objective lens, the light
Mass number of products = 120
gathering power in telescope is high.
BE per nucleon of product = 8.5 MeV
Also, the resolving power or the ability to observe two
objects distinctly also depends on the diameter of Total gain in BE = (BE) of products – (BE) of
the objective. Thus objective of large diameter is
reactants.
preferred.
= [120 + 120] × 8.5 – [240] × 7.6
Also, with large diameters fainter objects can be
observed. Hence it also contributes to the better = (240) × 8.5 – 240 × 7.6
quality and visibility of images. = (2040 – 1824) MeV
Hence, all options are correct. Gain in BE = 216 MeV
6
19. A thick current carrying cable of radius 'R' carries So, V1 = V2

current 'I' uniformly distributed across its cross-
1 Q1 1 Q2
section. The variation of magnetic field B(r) due to  
the cable with the distance 'r' from the axis of the 40 R1 40 R2
cable is represented by
1 Q1 R1 1 Q2 R2
   
40 R1 R1 40 R2 R2
(1) B (2) B Q1R1 Q2 R2

 
4R12 0 4R22 0
r r
1R1 2R2
 
0 0
(3) B (4) B 1 R2
 
2 R1
r r
21. If E and G respectively denote energy and
Answer (3)
Sol. From Ampere's circuital law E
gravitational constant, then has the dimensions
G
0I
B r if r < R  Binside  r of
2R 2
(1) [M2] [L–1] [T0]
 I 1
B 0 if r  R  Boutside 
2r r (2) [M] [L–1] [T–1]
Hence the correct plot of magnetic field B with (3) [M] [L0] [T0]
distance r from axis of cable is given as (4) [M2] [L–2] [T–1]
B Answer (1)
e
li n Sol. Dimensional formula of energy
ht
tr a ig
S [E] = [M1 L2 T–2] ...(I)
Hyperbola
Dimensional formula of gravitational constant
O R r [G] = [M–1 L3 T–2] ...(II)
20. Two charged spherical conductors of radius R1 and From (I) & (II)
R2 are connected by a wire. Then the ratio of surface
charge densities of the spheres (1/2) is [E ] [M1 L2 T 2 ]

R1 R2 [G ] [M1 L3 T 2 ]
(1) R (2) R
2 1
= [M2 L–1 T0]
 R1  R12
R  E 
(3)
 2
(4)
R22 Hence, dimensions of    [M2 L–1 T 0 ]
G 
Answer (2)
So, correct option is (1)
Conducting 22. A spring is stretched by 5 cm by a force 10 N. The
wire
Sol. time period of the oscillations when a mass of 2 kg
R1 R2 is suspended by it is
(1) 0.0628 s (2) 6.28 s
When two conductors are connected by a conducting
(3) 3.14 s (4) 0.628 s
wire, then the two conductors should have same
potential. Answer (4)
7
Sol. For a spring, kx = F 24. A dipole is placed in an electric field as shown. In

given x = 5 cm, F = 10 N which direction will it move?
 k(5 × 10–2) = 10
1000
k   200 N/m
5
Now, for spring-mass system undergoing SHM
E
m +q –q
T  2
k
given, m = 2 kg
2 2
 T  2   0.628 s
200 10
(1) Towards the left as its potential energy will
23. Column-I gives certain physical terms associated increase.
with flow of current through a metallic conductor.
(2) Towards the right as its potential energy will
Column-II gives some mathematical relations decrease.
involving electrical quantities. Match Column-I and
Column-II with appropriate relations. (3) Towards the left as its potential energy will
decrease.
Column-I Column-II
(4) Towards the right as its potential energy will
m increase.
(A) Drift Velocity (P)
ne 2 
Answer (2)
(B) Electrical Resistivity (Q) nevd
Sol. Potential energy of electric dipole in external electric
eE
(C) Relaxation Period (R)  field U  P  E
m
E
(D) Current Density (S)
J
(1) (A) - (R), (B) - (S), (C) - (P), (D) - (Q)
(2) (A) - (R), (B) - (S), (C) - (Q), (D) - (P) P

E
+q –q
(3) (A) - (R), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) - (Q)
(4) (A) - (R), (B) - (Q), (C) - (S), (D) - (P)
Answer (1)
eE 
Sol. Drift velocity, v d  Angle between electric field and electric dipole is
m
180°
1 E
Electrical resistivity,    U = –PEcos
 J
U = –PEcos180°
m U = +PE
Relaxation period,  
ne 2 On moving towards right electric field strength
I decrease therefore potential energy decrease.
Current density, J   nev d
A Net force on electric dipole is towards right and net
(A) - (R), (B) - (S), (C) - (P), (D) - (Q) torque acting on it is zero.
So, it will more towards right.
8
25. Consider the following statements (A) and (B) and 27. An inductor of inductance L, a capacitor of
identify the correct answer. capacitance C and a resistor of resistance 'R' are
connected in series to an ac source of potential
(A) A zener diode is connected in reverse bias, when difference 'V' volts as shown in figure.
used as a voltage regulator.
Potential difference across L, C and R is 40 V, 10
(B) The potential barrier of p-n junction lies between V and 40 V, respectively. The amplitude of current
0.1 V to 0.3 V. flowing through LCR series circuit is 10 2 A . The
(1) (A) and (B) both are correct. impedance of the circuit is
(2) (A) and (B) both are incorrect
(3) (A) is correct and (B) is incorrect.
(4) (A) is incorrect but (B) is correct. 40 V 10 V 40 V
Answer (3)
~
Sol. • In reverse biased, after breakdown, voltage across V
the zener diode becomes constant. Therefore
zener diode is connected in reverse biased when 5
(1) 4 2  (2) 
used as voltage regulator. 2
• Potential barrier of silicon diode is nearly 0.7 V (3) 4  (4) 5 
statement A is correct and statement B is
Answer (4)
incorrect.
Sol. VL = 40 volt
26. A screw gauge gives the following readings when
VR = 40 volt
used to measure the diameter of a wire
VC = 10 volt
Main scale reading : 0 mm
Now, VRMS  VR2  VL  VC 
2
Circular scale reading : 52 divisions
Given that 1 mm on main scale corresponds to 100
divisions on the circular scale. The diameter of the  (40)2  (40  10)2  50 V
wire from the above data is
(1) 0.52 cm I0 10 2
IRMS    10 A
2 2
(2) 0.026 cm
(3) 0.26 cm Θ VRMS  IRMS  Z
(4) 0.052 cm
VRMS 50
 Z  5
Answer (4) IRMS 10
Sol. Here, pitch of the screw gauge, P = 1 mm
28. A parallel plate capacitor has a uniform electric field
Number of circular division, n = 100
' E ' in the space between the plates. If the distance
P 1 between the plates is 'd' and the area of each plate
Thus least count LC    0.01 mm is 'A', the energy stored in the capacitor is
n 100
(0 = permittivity of free space)
= 0.001 cm
1
So, diameter of the wire = MSR + (CSR × LC) (1) 0 E 2 (2) 0EAd
2
= 0 + (52 × 0.001 cm) E 2 Ad
1
(3) 0 E 2 Ad (4)
= 0.052 cm 2 0
9
Answer (3) Now De-broglie wavelength,
Sol. h h
d  
P 2mhc 
2 mc
   d
E d
h
 2mc  2
  d
Plate Area = A  h 
Energy density associated with electric field is given 30. Find the value of the angle of emergence from the
by prism. Refractive index of the glass is 3.
dU 1
u  0 E 2
dV 2
1
 dU  0 E 2dV
2
Total energy stored in the space between the
capacitor will be
1 2 60°
U   dU   2 0 E dV
1
 0 E 2  dV [E is constant] (1) 60°
2
(2) 30°
1 1
  0 E 2V   0 E 2 Ad [V  Ad ] (3) 45°
2 2
29. An electromagnetic wave of wavelength '' is incident (4) 90°
on a photosensitive surface of negligible work Answer (1)
function. If 'm' mass is of photoelectron emitted from Sol. From the ray diagram shown in the figure.
the surface has de-Broglie wavelength d , then
At point P, from Snell's law
 2m  2  2mc  2
(1)     d (2) d    nt
 hc   h  ci de
I n
r ay
30°
 2mc  2  2h  2
(3)     d (4)     d
 h   mc  P 30°
e
Answer (3)
Sol. As per Einstein's photoelectric equation
y nt
ra rge
60°
e
hc
m
 0  k
E

sin i 
 air
0: work function sin r Prism
k = maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons sin30 1
  (r = e emergent angle)
As per question,   0 sin e 3
1
hc P2 2mhc  sin e  3 
 k  P  2
 2m   e = 60°
10
31. The equivalent capacitance of the combination shown 33. A cup of coffee cools from 90°C to 80°C in t minutes,
in the figure is when the room temperature is 20°C. The time taken
by a similar cup of coffee to cool from 80°C to 60°C
C
at a room temperature same at 20°C is
C 13 13
(1) t (2) t
10 5
C
(1) 3C (2) 2C
10 5
(3) t (4) t
C 3C 13 13
(3) (4)
2 2
Answer (2)
Answer (2)
Sol. From Average form of Newton's law of cooling
Sol. Given circuit is
C  T  T2  T  T2
1  1  Ts  K  1
 2  t
C
A 2 B T1 and T2 are initial and final temperature and Ts is
surrounding temperature.
C 3
Points 1, 2, 3 are at same potential (as they are   90  80   90  80
 K   20  
connected by conducting wire)
 2  t
So the capacitor is short circuited. It does not store
10
any charge.  K  65  
t
The circuit can be redrawn as
C 2
 K 
13 t
A 1, 2, 3 B In second case,
C
 80  60   80  60 
CAB = C + C = 2C (Parallel combination) K   20  
 2  t1
32. If force [F], acceleration [A] and time [T] are chosen
as the fundamental physical quantities. Find the 20
dimensions of energy.  K  50  
t1
(1) [F][A][T]
2 20
(2) [F][A][T2]   50  
13t t1
(3) [F][A][T–1]
(4) [F][A–1][T] 13t
 t1 
5
Answer (2)
34. The effective resistance of a parallel connection that
Sol. Energy, EFaAbTc
consists of four wires of equal length, equal area of
[E] = [Fa][Ab][Tc] cross-section and same material is 0.25 . What
 [ML2T–2] = [MLT–2]a [LT–2]b [T]c will be the effective resistance if they are connected
in series?
[ML2T–2] = [MaLa + b T–2a – 2b + c]
(1) 0.25 
Comparing dimensions on both sides.
(2) 0.5 
 a = 1; a + b = 2 and –2 = – 2a – 2b + c
(3) 1 
b=1  –2 = – 2 – 2 + c
(4) 4 
c=2
Answer (4)
[E] = [FAT2]
11
Sol. All the wires are identical and of same material so
SECTION - B
they will have same value of resistance. Let it be R.
When these are (four) connected in parallel.
36. Three resistors having resistances r1, r2 and r3 are
connected as shown in the given circuit. The ratio
R i3
R i1 of currents in terms of resistances used in the
A B circuit is
R
i 2 r2
R
r1
A i1 B
R  1 1 1 1 1 
RP  R  R  R  R  R 
4 i3 r3
 P 1 2 3 4 
r1 r2
Given RP = 0.25  (1) r  r (2) r  r
2 3 2 3
R
 0.25  r1 r2
4 (3) r  r (4) r  r
1 2 1 3
 R=1
Answer (2)
Now these four resistances are arranged in series
i2 r2
R R R R r1
A B Sol.
i1
RS = R + R + R + R = 4R
i3 r3
 RS = 4 × 1 = 4 
In parallel combination of resistances r2 and r3,
35. The number of photons per second on an average potential difference will be equal across both
emitted by the source of monochromatic light of resistance.
wavelength 600 nm, when it delivers the power of
3.3 × 10–3 watt will be (h = 6.6 × 10–34 J s) i3 r3
So, i 2 r2  i3 r3  i 2  ...(1)
(1) 1018 r2
(2) 1017 As per Kirchhoff's first law
(3) 1016  i1 = i2 + i3
(4) 1015
r 
Answer (3)  i1   3  1 i3 (from equation 1)
r 
 2 
Sol. The power of a source is given as
i3 r2
E n  hc   
P    i1 r2  r3
t t  
37. A point object is placed at a distance of 60 cm from
a convex lens of focal length 30 cm. If a plane mirror
n P were put perpendicular to the principal axis of the
 
t  hc  lens and at a distance of 40 cm from it, the final
 
   image would be formed at a distance of
n
(Here is number of photons emitted per second)
t
n 3.3  103  6  107

 
t 6.6  1034  3  108
= 1016 photons per second
60 cm 40 cm
12
(1) 20 cm from the lens, it would be a real image A
(2) 30 cm from the lens, it would be a real image

(3) 30 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a virtual
image
B
(4) 20 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a virtual y
image
Answer (4)
C
Sol. Using lens formula for first refraction from convex
lens
t1 t2 t3 t4 t5 t6
y
1 1 1 (1)
  0V
v1 u f
5V
v1 = ?, u = –60 cm, f = 30 cm (2)
0V
1 1 1 (3) 5V
    v1  60 cm
v1 60 30 5V
(4)
0V
40 cm 20 cm
Answer (3)
Sol. Output of combination of logic gates is given as
I1 y  A  B  B C
60 cm 60 cm Input Output
Signals Signal
I1 here is first image by lens Time A B C AB B. C y = A . B + B .C
The plane mirror will produce an image at distance duration
20 cm to left of it. 0 - t1 0 0 1 0 1 1
For second refraction from convex lens, t1 - t2 1 0 1 0 1 1
u = –20 cm, v = ? , f = 30 cm t2 - t3 0 1 0 0 1 1
1 1 1 1 1 1 t3 - t4 1 1 0 1 1 1
    
v u f v 20 30 t4 - t5 0 0 1 0 1 1
1 1 1 t5 - t6 1 0 1 0 1 1
  –  v  60 cm
v 30 20 t6 - t7 0 0 1 0 1 1
Thus the final image is virtual and at a distance,
So the output y is high (1) that is v0 = 5 V
60 – 40 = 20 cm from plane mirror.
39. A step down transformer connected to an ac mains
38. For the given circuit, the input digital signals are
supply of 220 V is made to operate at 11 V, 44 W
applied at the terminals A, B and C. What would be
lamp. Ignoring power losses in the transformer, what
the output at the terminal y?
is the current in the primary circuit?
t1 t2 t3 t4 t5 t6 (1) 0.2 A (2) 0.4 A
5
A (3) 2 A (4) 4 A
0
Answer (1)
5 Sol. In ideal transformer:
B
0
Input power = Output power
 VPIP = VSIS = Given power
5
C
 220 × IP = 44
0
 IP = 0.2 A
13
40. A uniform conducting wire of length 12a and Thus, calculating values of RHS,
resistance 'R' is wound up as a current carrying coil
iˆ jˆ kˆ
in the shape of,
2 4 6
(i) an equilateral triangle of side 'a'.
B B B0
(ii) a square of side 'a'.
 i (4B0  6B ) – j (2B 0 – 6B )  kˆ(2B – 4B )
The magnetic dipole moments of the coil in each
case respectively are Comparing L.H.S and R.H.S,
(1) 3 Ia2 and 3 Ia2 (2) 3 Ia2 and Ia2 4B0 – 6B = 4  2B0 –3B = 2 ...(1)
–(2B0 – 6B)= –20 B0 – 3B = 10 ...(2)
(3) 3 Ia2 and 4 Ia2 (4) 4 Ia2 and 3 Ia2
2B – 4B = 12 B = –6 ...(3)
Answer (1)
From (2) and (3)
V
Sol. Current in the loop will be  I which is same for B = –6 and B0 = –8
R

both loops. Hence, B  –6iˆ  6 jˆ  8kˆ
Now magnetic moment of Triangle loop = NIA 42. A particle moving in a circle of radius R with a
 12a  3 2 uniform speed takes a time T to complete one
M1    I  4 a = 3Ia2 revolution. If this particle were projected with the
 3a 
same speed at an angle '' to the horizontal, the
and magnetic moment of square loop = NIA
maximum height attained by it equals 4R. The angle
 12a  2
of projection, , is then given by :
  I a
 4a  1 1
 gT 2  2 2 R 
1 
2
(1)   cos1  2  (2)   cos  2 
M2  3Ia2  R  gT 
1 1
41. In the product 2 R 
1 
2
2gT 2 
1 
2
(3)   sin  2  (4)   sin  2 
 gT 
F  q v B   Answer (4)
  R 


 qv  Biˆ  Bjˆ  B0 kˆ  Sol. To complete a circular path of radius R, time period
is T.

For q  1 and v  2iˆ  4 ˆj  6kˆ and 2R
so speed of particle (U) = ......(1)
T
F  4iˆ – 20 jˆ  12kˆ
Now the particle is projected with same speed at
angle to horizontal.
What will be the complete expression for B ?
U 2 sin2 
(1) –8iˆ – 8 jˆ  6kˆ (2) –6iˆ – 6 jˆ  8kˆ So Maximum Height  H  
2g
(3) 8iˆ  8 ˆj  6kˆ (4) 6iˆ  6 ˆj  8kˆ Given that : H = 4R
Answer (2) U 2 sin2 

  4R
2g
Sol. F  q(v  B )
8gR
 sin2  

 qv  Biˆ  Bjˆ  B0 kˆ  U2
...(2)
8gRT 2 2gT 2
Given, q  1 v  2iˆ  4 jˆ  6kˆ and  sin2    2 (using equation 1)
4 2 R 2 R
F  4iˆ – 20 jˆ  12kˆ 1
2gT 2 
1 
2
     
 4iˆ – 20 jˆ  12kˆ  1  2iˆ  4 jˆ  6kˆ  Biˆ  Bjˆ  B0 kˆ 
 
   sin  2 
  R 
14
43. A series LCR circuit containing 5.0 H inductor, 80

F capacitor and 40  resistor is connected to 230
O O
V variable frequency ac source. The angular 
frequencies of the source at which power transferred 90°
to the circuit is half the power at the resonant
angular frequency are likely to be 3M
Mass of remaining portion =
(1) 25 rad/s and 75 rad/s 4
2
(2) 50 rad/s and 25 rad/s Moment of inertia of remaining part   dmr
(3) 46 rad/s and 54 rad/s 2
 I  R  dm (∵ r  R )
(4) 42 rad/s and 58 rad/s
Answer (3) 3MR 2 3
 I . So the value of K is
4 4
Sol. The resonance frequency of LCR series circuit is
45. A uniform rod of length 200 cm and mass 500 g is
1 1 balanced on a wedge placed at 40 cm mark. A mass
given as 0   = 50 rad/s
LC 5  80  10 –6 of 2 kg is suspended from the rod at 20 cm and
another unknown mass 'm' is suspended from the
Now half power frequencies are given as
rod at 160 cm mark as shown in the figure. Find the
R value of 'm' such that the rod is in equilibrium. (g =
  0  10 m/s2)
2L
40 0 20 cm 40 cm 160 cm
i.e. L  50   46 rad/s
25
40
H  50   54 rad/s
25
44. From a circular ring of mass 'M' and radius 'R' an arc 2 kg m
corresponding to a 90° sector is removed. The 1 1
moment of inertia of the remaining part of the ring (1) kg (2) kg
2 3
about an axis passing through the centre of the ring 1 1
and perpendicular to the plane of the ring is 'K' times (3) kg (4) kg
6 12
'MR2'. Then the value of 'K' is Answer (4)
3 Sol. Given that
(1)
4 Mass of rod = 500 g; Length of rod = 200 cm
7
(2) 0 20 40 100 160 cm
8
1
(3) CM
4
O
1
(4) 2 kg m
8
Answer (1) Rod will be in equilibrium, when net torque about
point O will be zero.
Sol. Given that,
Torque at point O due to 2 kg mass
Mass of Ring = M; Radius of Ring = R

Now 90° arc is removed from circular ring, then   r  F  rF sin   nˆ 
M
mass removed =
4 
1  20  20  102  sin90º kˆ  4 N m kˆ 
15
Torque due to mass of rod : 47. A car starts from rest and accelerates at 5 m/s2. At
t = 4 s, a ball is dropped out of a window by a
   
2  5  60  102  sin90º –kˆ  3 N m kˆ person sitting in the car. What is the velocity and
acceleration of the ball at t = 6 s?
Torque due to mass m
(Take g = 10 m/s2)
   
3  mg  120  102  sin90º – kˆ  12m N m – kˆ (1) 20 m/s, 5 m/s2
(2) 20 m/s, 0
Net torque about point O will be zero
(3) 20 2 m/s, 0
So 1  2  3  0
4 – 3 – 12m = 0 (4) 20 2 m/s, 10 m/s2
12m = 1 Answer (4)

Sol. Initial velocity of car = 0
1
m kg Acceleration of car = 5 m/s2
12
Velocity of car at t = 4 s; v = u + at
46. Twenty seven drops of same size are charged at
200 V each. They combine to form a bigger drop.  v = 0 + 5 × 4 = 20 ms–1
Calculate the potential of the bigger drop. At t = 4 s, A ball is dropped out of a window so
(1) 660 V velocity of ball at this instant is 20 ms –1 along
horizontal.
(2) 1320 V
After 2 seconds of motion :
(3) 1520 V
Horizontal velocity of ball = 20 ms–1 (∵ ax = 0)
(4) 1980 V
Vertical velocity of ball (vy) = uy + ayt
Answer (4)
vy = 0 + 10 × 2 = 20 ms–1 (∵ ay = g = 10 m/s2)
kQ So magnitude of velocity of ball
Sol. Electric potential due to a charged sphere 
R
k = 9 × 109 N–m2/C2 (v) = v x2  v y2  20 2 m/s
Q : charge on sphere
Acceleration of ball at t = 6 s is g = 10 m/s2
R : Radius of sphere
As ball is under free fall.
Let charge and radius of smaller drop is q and r
48. A particle of mass 'm' is projected with a velocity
respectively
v = kVe (k < 1) from the surface of the earth.
kq (Ve = escape velocity)
For smaller drop, V   220 V
r The maximum height above the surface reached by
Let R be radius of bigger drop, the particle is
As volume remains the same 2

(1) R  k 
 1 k 
4 3 4 3  
 3 r   27  3 R
  2
 k 
(2) R  
 R  3 27 r  3r  1 k 
Now, using charge conservation,

R 2k
 Q = 27q (3)
1 k
kQ k (27q )  kq 
Vbig drop    9  Rk 2
R 3r  r  (4)
1 k 2
= 9 × 220 = 1980 V
16

  
Answer (4)
I  0.15  10 2  ˆj  0.15  10 2 ˆj
Sol. given v = kVe

where, k < 1
 
I  2  0.15  10 2  ˆj  4.2  ˆj  
Thus, v < Ve
 magnitude of impulse = 4.2 kg m/s
From conservation of mechanical energy,
50. Two conducting circular loops of radii R1 and R2 are
1 GmM GmM placed in the same plane with their centres
mv 2 – 
2 R (R  h ) coinciding. If R1 > > R2, the mutual inductance M
between them will be directly proportional to
v 2 GM (GM ) h
    GM R1 R2
2 R (R  h ) R (R  h ) (1) R (2) R
2 1
1 2 2 GMh
 k Ve 
2 R (R  h ) R12 R22
(3) (4)
R2 R1
2GM
We know, Ve  Answer (4)
R
Sol. Two concentric coils are of radius R1 and R2 as
shown
1 2  2GM  GMh
 k   
2  R  R (R  h )
h
k2  R1
(R  h )
O
R2
Rk2 + hk2 =h
Rk2 = h(1 – k2) i
Rk 2
 h
(1  k 2 ) Let current in outer loop be i
49. A ball of mass 0.15 kg is dropped from a height 10 m, 0 i

strikes the ground and rebounds to the same height. Magnetic field at centre  B 
2R1
The magnitude of impulse imparted to the ball is
(g = 10 m/s2) nearly
Magnetic flux through inner coil  B  R22
(1) 0 kg m/s (2) 4.2 kg m/s
(3) 2.1 kg m/s (4) 1.4 kg m/s 0 i
  R22
Answer (2) 2R1
Sol. Given that :

0 i R22
Mass of ball = 0.15 kg  
2 R1
Height from which ball is dropped = 10 m
as per definition,  = Mi

Impulse, I = Change in linear momentum = P
2
 R
 Pf  Pi  M  0  2
 2  R1
Velocity of ball at ground v   2gh

R22
M
 2  10  10  10 2 m/s R1
17
CHEMISTRY
SECTION - A
51. Right option for the number of tetrahedral and
octahedral voids in hexagonal primitive unit cell are :
(1) 8, 4 (2) 6, 12 (3)
(3) 2, 1 (4) 12, 6
Answer (4)
Sol. z Number of octahedral and tetrahedral voids
formed by N closed packed atoms are N and
2N respectively.
B
z Each hexagonal unit cell contains 6 atoms PE A
(4)
therefore, number of tetrahedral and octahedral
voids are 12 and 6 respectively.
Reaction Progress
52. Zr (Z = 40) and Hf (Z = 72) have similar atomic and
ionic radii because of : Answer (2)
(1) Belonging to same group Sol. z Hrxn = (Ea)f – (Ea)b
(2) Diagonal relationship –4.2 = (Ea)f – (Ea)b
(3) Lanthanoid contraction –4.2 = 9.6 – (Ea)b
(4) Having similar chemical properties (Ea)b = 9.6 + 4.2 = 13.8 kJ mol–1
z Since reaction is exothermic, so possible graph
Answer (3)
is (3) only.
Sol. z The cumulative effect of the contraction of the
z Also (Ea)f < (Ea)b, so answer is option (3).
lanthanoid series, known as lanthanoid
contraction, causes the radii of the members of 54. Tritium, a radioactive isotope of hydrogen, emits
the third transition series to be very similar to which of the following particles?
those of the corresponding members of the (1) Beta (–) (2) Alpha ()
second series.
(3) Gamma () (4) Neutron (n)
z The almost identical radii of Zr (160 pm) and
Answer (1)
Hf (159 pm) is a consequence of the lanthanoid
1
1H
contraction. Sol. Hydrogen has three isotopes : protium,
53. For a reaction A  B, enthalpy of reaction is deuterium, 12 H or D and tritium 13 H or T . Of these
–4.2 kJ mol –1 and enthalpy of activation is isotopes, only tritium is radioactive and emits low
9.6 kJ mol–1. The correct potential energy profile for energy – particles (t1/2, 12.33 years).
the reaction is shown in option.
55. The RBC deficiency is deficiency disease of :
(1) Vitamin B12 (2) Vitamin B6
(3) Vitamin B1 (4) Vitamin B2
Answer (1)
(1) PE B
A Sol. z Deficiency of vitamin B2 (Riboflavin) causes
cheilosis, digestive disorders and burning
Reaction Progress
sensation of the skin.
z Deficiency of vitamin B12 causes Pernicious
anaemia which is RBC deficiency in
haemoglobin.
z Deficiency of vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine) causes
PE A
(2) Convulsions.
B
z Deficiency of vitamin B 1 (Thiamine) causes
Reaction Progress
Beri-Beri (loss of appetite and retarded growth).
18
56. The molar conductance of NaCl, HCl and CH3COONa 59. Identify the compound that will react with Hinsberg's
at infinite dilution are 126.45, 426.16 and reagent to give a solid which dissolves in alkali.
91.0 S cm 2 mol –1 respectively. The molar
CH 2
conductance of CH3COOH at infinite dilution is. (1) CH
3
NO2
Choose the right option for your answer.
(1) 201.28 S cm2 mol–1 CH 2
CH3
(2) CH3 NH
(2) 390.71 S cm2 mol–1
CH2
(3) 698.28 S cm2 mol–1
(3) CH3 NH2
(4) 540.48 S cm2 mol–1
CH 2 CH 2
Answer (2) N
CH3 CH 3
Sol. According to Kohlrausch law of independent (4)
CH3
migration of ions.
o Answer (3)
m (CH3 COOH)
Sol. z Benzenesulphonyl chloride (C6H5SO2Cl) is also
o o o
= m (CH3 COONa)  m (HCl)  m (NaCl) known as Hinsberg's reagent.
= 91.0 S cm2 mol–1 + 426.16 S cm2 mol–1 z The reaction of Hinsberg's reagent (C6H5SO2Cl)
– 126.45 S cm2 mol–1 with primary amine (CH 3 CH 2 NH 2 ) yields
N-ethylbenzene sulphonamide.
= 390.71 S cm2 mol–1
O
57. The correct structure of 2, 6-Dimethyl-dec-4-ene is
S – Cl + H – N – C 2H 5
O H
O
S – N – C2H5 + HCl
(1) (2) O H
N-Ethylbenzene sulphonamide
(Soluble in alkali)
z The reaction of Hinsberg's reagent (C6H5SO2Cl)

with secondary amine (C 2H 5NHCH 3) gives,
N-Ethyl-N-Methyl benzene sulphonamide
(3) (4) O
S – Cl + H – N – CH 3
O C2H5
Answer (1) O CH3
S – N – CH
2 5
+ HCl
Sol. 4 O
5 2 1 Insoluble in alkali due to
3 absence of H-atom
6 10
8 z 3° amine do not react with Hinsberg reagent
7 9
60. The following solutions were prepared by dissolving
2, 6-Dimethyldec-4-ene
10 g of glucose (C6H12O6) in 250 ml of water (P1),
10 g of urea (CH4N2O) in 250 ml of water (P2) and
58. The maximum temperature that can be achieved in
10 g of sucrose (C12H22O11) in 250 ml of water (P3).
blast furnace is :
The right option for the decreasing order of osmotic
(1) Upto 1200 K (2) Upto 2200 K pressure of these solutions is :
(3) Upto 1900 K (4) Upto 5000 K (1) P2 > P1 > P3
Answer (2) (2) P1 > P2 > P3
Sol. Maximum temperature that can be achieved in blast (3) P2 > P3 > P1
furnace is upto 2200 K.
(4) P3 > P1 > P2
(As per NCERT text: 2170 K maximum temperature
is given in the figure of blast furnace) Answer (1)
19
Sol. z Osmotic pressure () = iCRT CH3
•
where C is molar concentration of the solution (iv) CH CH CH2 Br + H Br
CH3 Homolysis
z With increase in molar concentration of solution
osmotic pressure increases. CH3
CH CH2 CH2 Br
z Since, weight of all solutes and its solution CH3
volume are equal, so higher will be the molar
Major product
mass of solute, smaller will be molar
concentration and smaller will be the osmotic 62. Given below are two statements :
pressure.
Statement I :
z Order of molar mass of solute decreases as
Aspirin and Paracetamol belong to the class of
Sucrose > Glucose > Urea narcotic analgesics.
z So, correct order of osmotic pressure of solution
Statement II :
is P3 < P1 < P2
61. The major product of the following chemical reaction Morphine and Heroin are non-narcotic analgesics. In
is : the light of the above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below.
CH3 (C 6 H 5CO) 2O2
CH CH CH2 + HBr ? (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
CH3
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
CH3
(1) CH CH2 CH2 Br (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
CH3
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
true.
(2)
Answer (2)
CH 3 Sol. z Aspirin and paracetamol belong to the class of
CH CH CH 3 non-narcotic analgesics
(3) CH
3
Br z Morphine and Heroin are Narcotic analgesics
CH3
 Both statement I and statement II are false
(4) CBr CH2 – CH3
CH3 63. The correct sequence of bond enthalpy of 'C—X' bond
Answer (1) is :
CH 3 (1) CH3 – F < CH3 – Cl < CH3 – Br < CH3 –I
Sol. CH CH CH 2 + HBr
CH 3 (C 6H 5 CO)2O 2
(2) CH3 – F > CH3 – Cl  CH3 – Br > CH3 – I
CH 3
CH CH2 – CH2 Br (3) CH3 – F < CH3 – Cl  CH3 – Br > CH3 – I
CH 3
(4) CH3 – Cl > CH3 – F > CH3 – Br > CH3 –I
Mechanism : Peroxide effect proceeds via free
radical chain mechanism. Answer (2)
O O O Sol. The size of halogen atom increases from F to I
Homolysis
C O O C C 6H5
•
(i) C6H 5 2C 6H 5 C O hence bond length from C – F to C – I increases

••
••
 Bond enthalpy from CH 3 – F to CH 3 – I
decreases
•
2C 6H 5 + CO 2
Homolysis
C – X Bond Bond dissociation
•
(ii) C6H5 + H Br C6H6 + Br –1

enthalpies/kJ mol
CH 3
CH3 — F 452
•
(iii) CH CH CH 2 + Br
CH 3
CH3 — Cl 351
CH 3
CH3 — Br 293
•
CH CH CH 2 Br
CH 3
More Stable secondary CH3 — I 234
free radical
20
64. BF3 is planar and electron deficient compound. Answer (3)
Hybridization and number of electrons around the
central atom, respectively are : Sol. Element Mass percentage No. of mole Mole ratio
78 6.5
(1) sp3 and 4 (2) sp3 and 6 C 78%  6.5 1
12 6.5
(3) sp2 and 6 (4) sp2 and 8 22 22
H 22%  22  3.38 3
Answer (3) 1 6.5
Sol. F Based on above calculation, possible empirical

B
formula is CH3.
F F 68. The major product formed in dehydrohalogenation
z Number of electrons around boron atom is 6. reaction of 2-Bromo pentane is Pent-2-ene. This
product formation is based on?
z Hybridization of B is sp2.
(1) Saytzeff's Rule (2) Hund's Rule
z Shape is trigonal planar. (3) Hofmann Rule (4) Huckel's Rule
65. Which one among the following is the correct option Answer (1)
for right relationship between CP and CV for one mole
Sol. Major product formed in dehydrohalogenation reaction
of ideal gas?
of 2-bromopentane is pent-2-ene because according
(1) CP + CV = R (2) CP – CV = R to Saytzeff's rule, in dehydrohalogenation reactions,
(3) CP = RCV (4) CV = RCP the preferred product is that alkene which has greater
number of alkyl group(s) attached to the doubly
Answer (2) bonded carbon atoms.
Sol. At constant volume, qV = CVT = U
Br
At constant pressure, qP = CPT = H CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH – CH 3
OH–
For a mole of an ideal gas,

CH 3 – CH2 – CH = CH – CH3
H = U + (PV) Pent-2-ene (81%)
= U + (RT) +
CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH = CH2
= U + RT Pent-1-ene (19%)
On putting the values of H and U, we have

CPT = CVT + RT 69. What is the IUPAC name of the organic compound
formed in the following chemical reaction?
CP = CV + R
(i) C H MgBr, dry Ether
CP – CV = R Acetone 
2 5
  Product
(ii) H2O, H
66. Among the following alkaline earth metal halides, one
(1) 2-methylpropan-2-ol
which is covalent and soluble in organic solvents
is : (2) pentan-2-ol
(1) Calcium chloride (2) Strontium chloride (3) pentan-3-ol
(4) 2-methylbutan-2-ol
(3) Magnesium chloride (4) Beryllium chloride
Answer (4)
Answer (4)
Sol. z Except for beryllium chloride all other chloride of
–
alkaline earth metals are ionic in nature. O OMgBr
(i) C2H5 MgBr
z Due to small size of Be, Beryllium chloride is Sol. CH3 –+C – CH 3 Dry ether
CH3 – C – CH 3
essentially covalent and soluble in organic C2H5
solvents.
(i) H2O/H+
67. An organic compound contains 78% (by wt.) carbon
and remaining percentage of hydrogen. The right OH
option for the empirical formula of this compound CH3 – C – CH 2 – CH 3
is : [Atomic wt. of C is 12, H is 1]
CH3
(1) CH (2) CH2 Product
(3) CH3 (4) CH4 (2-methylbutan-2-ol)
21
70. Noble gases are named because of their inertness (1) Both statement I and Statement II are true
towards reactivity. Identify an incorrect statement (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
about them. (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is false
(1) Noble gases are sparingly soluble in water (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
(2) Noble gases have very high melting and boiling Answer (1)
points Sol. In the modern periodic table, moving down the group
as the size of halogen atom increases, the H – X
(3) Noble gases have weak dispersion forces bond length also increases as a result the bond
(4) Noble gases have large positive values of enthalpy decreases. Hence, The acidic strength also
electron gain enthalpy increases.
So, the correct order of acidic strength is
Answer (2)
HI > HBr > HCl > HF
Sol. Noble gases have weak dispersion forces hence 74. Ethylene diaminetetraacetate (EDTA) ion is :
they have low melting and boiling points. (1) Hexadentate ligand with four "O" and two "N"
71. The pKb of dimethylamine and pKa of acetic acid are donor atoms
3.27 and 4.77 respectively at T (K). The correct (2) Unidentate ligand
option for the pH of dimethylammonium acetate (3) Bidentate ligand with two "N" donor atoms
solution is : (4) Tridentate ligand with three "N" donor atoms
(1) 8.50 (2) 5.50 Answer (1)
(3) 7.75 (4) 6.25 Sol. Ethylene diaminetetraacetate (EDTA) ion is a
hexadented ligand having four donor oxygen atoms
Answer (3) and two donor nitrogen atoms
Sol. Dimethylammonium acetate is a salt of weak acid O
–
– – O
–
O O
and weak base whose pH can be calculated as
O=C M C= O C= O
1 O=C
pH = 7 +  pK a – pK b  CH 2 CH2
2
CH 2 – N N CH2
1 CH 2 – CH2
7  4.77 – 3.27 
2 75. Choose the correct option for graphical representation
of Boyle's law, which shows a graph of pressure vs.
= 7.75
volume of a gas at different temperatures :
72. The right option for the statement "Tyndall effect is
exhibited by", is :
(1) NaCl solution (2) Glucose solution
Pressure (P)
(3) Starch solution (4) Urea solution

(bar)
Answer (3) (1) 200 K

Sol. z Tyndall effect is exhibited by colloidal solution 400 K
only. 600 K
z Among the given options, Urea, NaCl and
Glucose solutions are true solutions, so cannot Volume (V)
3
show Tyndall effect. (dm )
z Starch solution is a colloidal solution therefore
can show Tyndall effect.
73. Statement I : Acid strength increases in the order
Pressure (P)
given as HF << HCl << HBr << HI. (200 K, 400 K, 600 K)
(bar)
Statement II : As the size of the elements F, Cl, Br,

I increases down the group, the bond strength of HF, (2)
HCl, HBr and HI decreases and so the acid strength
increases.
In the light of the above statements, choose the Volume (V)
3
correct answer from the options given below. (dm )
22
77. Which one of the following methods can be used to
K
obtain highly pure metal which is liquid at room
0
K
20
0 temperature?
40
Pressure (P) 0K (1) Electrolysis (2) Chromatography
60
(bar) (3) Distillation (4) Zone refining
(3) Answer (3)
Sol. Distillation method is generally used for the
purification of metals having low boiling point such
Volume (V) as Hg, Zn etc.
3
(dm ) 78. The compound which shows metamerism is :
(1) C5H12 (2) C3H8O
(3) C3H6O (4) C4H10O
Answer (4)
Pressure (P)
Sol. Compounds with formula C4H10O can be ethers

(bar)
which may exhibit metamerism. For example

600 K
(4)
400 K CH3 – CH 2 O CH2 CH3 , CH 3 O CH CH3
200 K CH 3
Volume (V) and CH3—O—CH2—CH2—CH3 are metamers as

3 structure of alkyl chains are different around the
(dm )
functional group.
Answer (4) 79. The correct option for the number of body centred
unit cells in all 14 types of Bravais lattice unit cells
Sol. According to Boyle's law is :
1 k (1) 7 (2) 5
P  P  PV  k
V V (3) 2 (4) 3
where k is proportionality constant and equal to nRT. Answer (4)
 Graph between P vs. V should be rectangular Sol. z In 14 types of Bravais lattices, body centred
hyperbola and product of PV increases with unit cell is present in cubic, tetragonal and
increase in temperature. orthorhombic crystal systems.
z Hence, body centred possible variation is present
76. The structures of beryllium chloride in solid state and
in three crystal systems.
vapour phase, are :
80. Which one of the following polymers is prepared by
(1) Chain and dimer, respectively addition polymerisation?
(2) Linear in both (1) Teflon (2) Nylon-66
(3) Dimer and Linear, respectively (3) Novolac (4) Dacron
(4) Chain in both Answer (1)

Sol. Dacron, Nylon-66 and Novolac are prepared by
Answer (1) condensation polymerisation.
Sol. Beryllium chloride has a chain structure in the solid Teflon is an addition polymer. Monomer of teflon is
state as shown below tetrafluoroethene.
Cl Cl Cl Catalyst [CF2 – CF 2] n
nCF2 = CF 2
High pressure Teflon
Be Be Be
Tetrafluoroethene
Cl Cl Cl
81. A particular station of All India Radio, New Delhi
In vapour phase Beryllium chloride tends to form a broadcasts on a frequency of 1,368 kHz (kilohertz).
chloro-bridged dimer. The wavelength of the electromagnetic radiation
emitted by the transmitter is : [speed of light
Cl c = 3.0 × 108 ms–1]
Cl Be Be Cl (1) 219.3 m (2) 219.2 m
Cl (3) 2192 m (4) 21.92 cm
23
Sol. Energy of electromagnetic radiation (E) Sol. Ethane has two conformers (i) Eclipsed
(ii) Staggered
hc
=  h
 Eclipsed conformer is least stable while staggered
conformer is most stable. In eclipsed conformer the
c c dihedral angle is 0°
So,   
 
3  108
=  219.3 m
1368  103
82. Which of the following reactions is the metal

displacement reaction? Choose the right option.

(1) 2KClO3   2KCl + 3O2

(2) Cr2O3 + 2Al   Al2O3 + 2Cr 85. Match List-I with List-II.
(3) Fe + 2HCl  FeCl2 + H2 List-I List-II
(4) 2Pb(NO3)2  2PbO + 4NO2 + O2 (a) PCl5 (i) Square pyramidal
Answer (2) (b) SF6 (ii) Trigonal planar
Sol. z Both reactions (1) and (2) are examples of (c) BrF5 (iii) Octahedral
decomposition reactions.
(d) BF3 (iv) Trigonal bipyramidal
z Reactions (3) and (4), both are examples of
Choose the correct answer from the options given
displacement reactions, while reaction (3) is an below.
example of metal displacement reaction.
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
83. The incorrect statement among the following is :
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(1) Actinoid contraction is greater for element to
element than lanthanoid contraction (3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(2) Most of the trivalent Lanthanoid ions are (4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
colorless in the solid state Answer (1)
(3) Lanthanoids are good conductors of heat and Sol.
electricity Cl
Cl
(4) Actinoids are highly reactive metals, especially
(a) Cl P sp3d hybridised and
when finely divided.
Cl trigonal bipyramidal in
Answer (2) Cl shape
Sol. z Actinoids are highly reactive metals, especially F
when finely divided F F
z Actinoid contraction is greater from element to (b) S sp3d2 hybridised and
element than lanthanoid contraction resulting F F octahedral in shape
from poor shielding by 5f electrons F
z Many trivalent lanthanoids ions are coloured both F F

in the solid state and in aqueous solutions.
(c) Br sp3d2 hybridised and
z Lanthanoids have typical metallic structure and F F square pyramidal in shape
are good conductors of heat and electricity F
84. Dihedral angle of least stable conformer of ethane F
is :
(d) F B sp2 hybridised and trigonal
(1) 120° (2) 180° F planar in shape
(3) 60° (4) 0°
24
(c) CaCO3+ H2SO4  (iii) Ozone
SECTION - B
NaOH, +?
CaSO4 + H2O+CO2 depletion
86. CH3CH2COO– Na+ Heat
CH3CH3 + Na2CO3.
(d) NO2 (g) 
h
 (iv) Tropospheric
Consider the above reaction and identify the missing
NO(g) + O(g) pollution
reagent/chemical.
(1) B2H6
below.
(2) Red Phosphorus
(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(3) CaO (2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(4) DIBAL-H (3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
Answer (3) (4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
Sol. Alkane is produced by heating sodium salt of Answer (3)
carboxylic acid with sodalime (NaOH and CaO in the
ratio of 3 : 1) Sol. z Tropospheric pollution: In the presence of
pollutant, SO2 cunverts into SO3.
NaOHCaO
CH3CH2COO Na  
Heat  CH3CH3  Na 2CO3 2SO2  O2  2SO3
87. The intermediate compound 'X' in the following z In spring season, sunlight breaks HOCl and Cl2
chemical reaction is: to give chlorine radicals.
O  
h
HOCl   OH g  Cl  g
CH3 C
CS2 H 3O
+
H These chlorine radicals deplete ozone layer
+ CrO 2Cl2 X
z High level of sulphur causes acid rain which
CH(OCrOHCl 2)2 reacts with marble and causes discolouring and
(1) disfiguring
CH(OCOCH 3 )2 CaCO3  H2SO4  CaSO4  H2O  CO2

(2)
z A chain reaction occurs from interaction of NO
with sunlight in which NO is converted to NO2
Cl
CH which absorb energy from sunlight and breaks
Cl into NO and O, which causes photochemical
(3)
smong.
Cl
CH NO2  g  
h
 NO  g   O  g 
H
(4) 89. Match List-I with List-II
List-I List-II
Answer (1)
CO, HCI
Sol. Etard's reaction (a) (i) Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky
Anhyd. AlCl3/
O CuCl reaction
(OCrOHCl 2)
CH 3 HC C—H O
(OCrOHCl 2)
CS2 H 3O
+ (b) R — C — CH 3 + (ii) Gattermann-Koch
+ CrO 2Cl2 reaction
NaOX
(X) (c) R — CH2 — OH (iii) Haloform reaction
88. Match List-I with List-II. +R COOH
Conc. H2SO 4
List-I List-II
(a) 2SO2(g) + O2(g)  (i) Acid rain (d) R — CH 2COOH (iv) Esterification
2SO3(g) (I ) X2/Red P
I
(ii) H 2O
(b) HOCl(g) 
h
 (ii) Smog
  Choose the correct answer from the options given
OH + Cl below.
25
(1) (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii) 91. The reagent 'R' in the given sequence of chemical
reaction is:
(2) (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv) –
NH2 N2 Cl –
–
(3) (a) - (i), (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii) Br Br Br
Br Br Br
NaNO2, HCl R
(4) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i) 0.5°C
Answer (4)
Br Br Br
Sol.  Gattermann-Koch reaction:
(1) H2O (2) CH3CH2OH
CHO (3) HI (4) CuCN/KCN
CO, HCl
Answer (2)
Anhyd. AlCl 3/CuCl –
NH 2 N2 Cl–
–
Br Br Br Br Br Br
 Haloform reaction: Sol. NaNO2, HCl CH 3CH 2OH
0 - 5°C
Br Br Br
Reagent R is C2H5OH with diazonium salt.

 Esterification: 92. The product formed in the following chemical
O O reaction is:
Conc.
R CH2 OH + R C OH H2SO4
R C OCH2 R O
O
NaBH4
 Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky reaction: CH2–C–OCH3 C2H5OH
?
X
(i) X2/Red P CH3
R CH2COOH R CH COOH
(ii) H2O
90. Match List-I with List-II. OH H
List-I List-II CH 2 –C–OCH3
(1)
(a) [Fe(CN)6]3– (i) 5.92 BM OH
CH 3
(b) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ (ii) 0 BM
(c) [Fe(CN)6]4– (iii) 4.90 BM O
CH 2 –CH 2–OH
(d) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ (iv) 1.73 BM
(2)
Choose the correct answer from the options given CH 3
below.
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) OH H
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i) CH 2 –C–CH3
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) (3) OH
CH 3
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
Answer (4) OH O
CH 2 –C–OCH3
Sol. Magnetic moment,   n(n  2) BM (where
(4)
n = number of unpaired electrons) CH 3
Complex No. of unpaired (BM)
Answer (4)
electron(s) Sol. NaBH4 is a reducing agent. If reduces carbonyl
(a) [Fe(CN)6]3– 1 1.73 group into alcohols but does not reduce esters.
O
(b) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ 5 5.92 O O
OH
CH2 OCH3
(c) [Fe(CN)6]4– 0 0 CH2 OCH3
NaBH4
CH3 C2H5OH
(d) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ 4 4.90 CH3
26
93. From the following pairs of ions which one is not an
1
iso-electronic pair?  7  10 3   10 2
4
(1) O2–, F–
(2) Na+, Mg2+  1.75  105 mol L1
(3) Mn2+, Fe3+ 95. Choose the correct option for the total pressure (in
(4) Fe2+, Mn2+ atm.) in a mixture of 4 g O2 and 2 g H2 confined in
a total volume of one litre at 0°C is :
Answer (4)
[Given R = 0.082 L atm mol–1K–1, T = 273 K]
Sol.  Isoelectronic species have some number
ofelectrons. (1) 2.518 (2) 2.602
(3) 25.18 (4) 26.02
Answer (3)
 Species Number of electrons
4 1
Sol. nO2  
Fe 2+
26 – 2 = 24 32 8
Mn2+ 25 – 2 = 23 2
nH2  1
2
O2– 8 + 2 = 10
1 9
F– 9 + 1 = 10 nt  1
8 8
Na+ 11 – 1 = 10
Pt V  nt RT
2+
Mg 12 – 2 = 10
9
 0.082  273
Pt  8
3+
Fe 26 – 3 = 23  25.18 atm
1
94. The molar conductivity of 0.007 M acetic acid is 20 96. The correct option for the value of vapour pressure of
S cm2 mol–1. What is the dissociation constant of a solution at 45°C with benzene to octane in molar
acetic acid? Choose the correct option. ratio 3 : 2 is :
[At 45°C vapour pressure of benzene is 280 mm Hg
   +  350 S cm2 mol1  and that of octane is 420 mm Hg. Assume Ideal gas]
 H 
   50 S cm
2
mol 1  (1) 160 mm of Hg
 CH3COO 
(2) 168 mm of Hg
(1) 1.75  104 mol L1 (2) 2.50  104 mol L1 (3) 336 mm of Hg
(4) 350 mm of Hg
(3) 1.75  105 mol L1 (4) 2.50  105 mol L1
Answer (3)
Answer (3)
Sol. Given : nC6H6 : nC8H18  3 : 2
Sol. m  20 S cm2 mol1
3 2
o
m o o
CH3COOH   CH COO  m So,  C6H6  ,  C8H18 
3 H 5 5
 50  350  400 S cm2 mol1 p s  p oC 6H6  C 6H6  p oC8H18  C8H18
m 20 1 3 2
 o
   280   420 
m 400 20 5 5
2  168  168
C 2  1 
Ka  C2  7  103   
1   20  = 336 mm of Hg
27
97. For irreversible expansion of an ideal gas under (3) NH3 < PH3 : Increasing
isothermal condition, the correct option is:
< AsH3 < SbH3 acidic character
(1) U = 0, Stotal = 0
(4) CO2 < SiO2 : Increasing
(2) U  0, Stotal  0
< SnO2 < PbO2 oxidizing power
(3) U = 0, Stotal  0
Answer (2)
(4) U  0, Stotal = 0
Sol. Stronger is the acid, lower is the value of pKa. On
Answer (3) moving down the group, bond dissociation enthalpy
Sol. z For a spontaneous process, Stotal > 0 and since of hydrides of group 16 elements decreases hence
irreversible process is always spontaneous acidity increases and pKa value decreases. Correct
therefore Stotal > 0. order of pKa value will be
z Since U = nCVT and T = 0 for isothermal H2O > H2S > H2Se > H2Te
process therefore U = 0.
 1
98. Which of the following molecules is non-polar in 100. The slope of Arrhenius plot  ln k v/s  of first
 T
nature?
order reaction is –5 × 103K. The value of Ea of the
(1) POCl3
reaction is. Choose for your answer.
(2) CH2O
[Given R = 8.314 JK–1mol–1]
(3) SbCl5
(1) 41.5 kJ mol–1
(4) NO2
(2) 83.0 kJ mol–1
Answer (3)
(3) 166 kJ mol–1
Cl (4) –83 kJ mol–1

Cl Answer (1)
Sol. SbCl5 : Cl Sb
Cl Sol. Arrhenius equation
Cl
k  Ae–Ea /RT
Net vector summation of bond moments will be zero
ln k  ln A  ln e –Ea /RT
so SbCl5 is a non-polar molecule.
E  1
 NO
O lnk  ln A – a    1
2
: N  polar molecule. R T
O
O
 POCl 3 : P
Cl  polar molecule. 1
Cl Slope of ln k vs curve,
Cl T
O
 CH O :
2
H
C
H
 polar molecule. Ea
m–
99. In which one of the following arrangements the R
given sequence is not strictly according to the
Ea
properties indicated against it? –5  103  –
R
(1) HF < HCl : Increasing acidic
< HBr < HI strength Ea = 5 × 103 × 8.314 J/mol
(2) H2O < H2S : Increasing pKa = 41.57 × 103 J/mol
< H2Se < H2Te values 41.5 kJ/mol
28
BOTANY
(c) Vascular tissues are complex permanent tissues

SECTION - A
hence they have different types of cells.
101. Mutations in plant cells can be induced by:
(d) Sclereids are sclerenchymatous cells which are
(1) Kinetin dead with highly thickened walls and narrow
lumen.
(2) Infrared rays
(3) Gamma rays 103. Which of the following is a correct sequence of
steps in a PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)?
(4) Zeatin
(1) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
Answer (3)
(2) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
Sol. • Several kinds of radiation like gamma rays, X-
rays, UV-rays cause mutation. (3) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
• These are physical mutagens. (4) Annealing, Denaturation, Extension

• Such induced mutation in plants is done to Answer (1)
develop improved varieties. The first natural
Sol. The first step in the polymerase chain reaction is
cytokinin was isolated from unripe maize grain
denaturation during which strands of dsDNA
known as zeatin. The cytokinin that was
separate. This requires temperature around 94°C.
obtained from degraded product of autoclaved
herring sperm DNA was kinetin (N 6-furfuryl This is followed by annealing in which primers anneal
aminopurine). Infrared rays cause heating effect. to 3' end of template DNA strand.
102. Match List-I with List-II. Annealing is followed by extension in which Taq
polymerase adds nucleotides to 3'OH end of
primers.
104. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II
(a) Lenticels (i) Phellogen
(b) Cork cambium (ii) Suberin deposition
Select the correct answer from the options given (c) Secondary cortex (iii) Exchange of gases
below.
(d) Cork (iv) Phelloderm
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) Choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) (1) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
Answer (1) (2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
Sol. (a) Meristematic tissues are those tissues which (3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
have cells with active cell division capacity.
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(b) Simple tissues are those tissues which have all
the cells similar in structure and function. Answer (2)
29
Sol. • Lenticels are meant for exchange of gases. Sol. • Xenogamy refers to the transfer to pollen grains
from anthers of one plant to stigma of a different
• Phellogen is also known as cork cambium.
plant which during pollination, brings genetically
• Phelloderm is also called secondary cortex different types of pollen grains to stigma.
because it is the cortex that develops during • Cleistogamy is a condition is which flower does
secondary growth. not open.
• Cork has deposition of suberin in their cell walls • Geitonogamy refers to the transfer of pollen grain
when they get mature. from anther to stigma of another flower of the
same plant.
105. Complete the flow chart on central dogma.
• Chasmogamy is a condition in which flowers
remain open.
107. DNA strands on a gel stained with ethidium bromide
(1) (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription; when viewed under UV radiation, appear as
(c)-Transduction; (d)-Protein (1) Yellow bands (2) Bright orange bands
(2) (a)-Translation; (b)-Replication; (3) Dark red bands (4) Bright blue bands
(c)-Transcription;(d)-Transduction Answer (2)

Sol. After the bands are stained, they are viewed in UV
(3) (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription; (c)-Translation;
light. The bands appear bright orange in colour.
(d)-Protein
Ethidium bromide is the intercalating agent that
(4) (a)-Transduction; (b)-Translation; (c)-Replication; stacks in between the nitrogenous bases.
(d)-Protein
108. Which of the following is an incorrect statement?
Answer (3) (1) Mature sieve tube elements possess a
Sol. • Formation of DNA from DNA is replication. conspicuous nucleus and usual cytoplasmic
organelles
• Formation of mRNA from DNA is called
Transcription. (2) Microbodies are present both in plant and animal
cells
• Formation of protein from mRNA is called
(3) The perinuclear space forms a barrier between
Translation.
the materials present inside the nucleus and that
• So, (a) is Replication of the cytoplasm
(b) is Transcription (4) Nuclear pores act as passages for proteins and
RNA molecules in both directions between
(c) is Translation
nucleus and cytoplasm
(d) is Protein
Answer (1)
• Transduction is transfer of genetic material from Sol. A mature sieve tube elements possess a peripheral
one bacterium to another with the help of virus cytoplasm and a large central vacuole but lacks a
or a bacteriophage. nucleus.
106. The term used for transfer of pollen grains from Rest of other statements are correct.
anthers of one plant to stigma of a different plant
which, during pollination, brings genetically different 109. Inspite of interspecific competition in nature, which
types of pollen grains to stigma, is : mechanism the competing species might have
evolved for their survival?
(1) Xenogamy
(1) Resource partitioning
(2) Geitonogamy
(2) Competitive release
(3) Chasmogamy
(3) Mutualism
(4) Cleistogamy (4) Predation
30
Sol. • Inspite of interspecific competition the competing Sol. • Pomato is obtained as a result of protoplast
species may co-exist by doing resource fusion.
partitioning.
• Totipotency is a property of explant to develop
• In mutualism two organisms are equally into whole plant body during plant tissue culture.
benefitted.
• Virus free plants can be obtained through
• In predation one organism (Predator) eats the meristem culture.
another one (Prey). • Somaclones are obtained by the process of
• In competition release there occurs dramatical micropropagation.
increase in population of a less distributed 112. The production of gametes by the parents, formation
species when its superior competitor is of zygotes, the F1 and F2 plants, can be understood
removed. from a diagram called :
110. Gemmae are present in (1) Bullet square (2) Punch square
(1) Mosses (3) Punnett square (4) Net square
(2) Pteridophytes Answer (3)
(3) Some Gymnosperms Sol. The production of gametes (n) by the parents (2n),
the formation of the zygote (2n), the F1 and F2 plants
(4) Some Liverworts
can be understood from a diagram called Punnett
Answer (4) square.
Sol. • Gemmae are green, multicellular asexual buds 113. Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produce two
that are produced by some liverworts like kinds of spores. Such plants are known as:
Marchantia.
(1) Homosorus
• Mosses reproduce vegetatively by fragmentation
(2) Heterosorus
and budding of protonema.
(3) Homosporous
• Pteridophytes and Gymnosperms normally do
not reproduce asexually (4) Heterosporous
111. Match List-I with List-II Answer (4)

Sol. Plants like Selaginella and Salvinia produce two
List-I List-II
kinds of spore i.e., microspores and macrospores.
(a) Protoplast fusion (i) Totipotency They are known as heterosporous.
(b) Plant tissue culture (ii) Pomato Most of the pteridophytes produce single type of
spores and are called homosporous
(c) Meristem culture (iii) Somaclones
Sorus are brownish or yellowish cluster of spore-
(d) Micropropagation (iv) Virus free plants producing structures located on the lower surface of
fern leaves.
below. 114. The amount of nutrients, such as carbon, nitrogen,
phosphorus and calcium present in the soil at any
(a) (b) (c) (d) given time, is referred as :
(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (1) Climax
(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) (2) Climax community
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (3) Standing state
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (4) Standing crop
31
Sol. • Amount of all the inorganic substances or Sol. (a) Cohesion is mutual attraction among water
nutrients, such as carbon, nitrogen, phosphorus molecules.
and calcium present in soil at any given time, is
(b) Adhesion is attraction towards polar surfaces.
referred as standing state.
(c) Surface tension explains water molecules are
• Amount of living material present in different
more attracted in liquid phase than gaseous
trophic levels at a given time, is referred as
phase.
standing crop.
(d) Guttation is loss of water is liquid form from the
• Climax community is the last community in
leaf margins.
biotic succession which is relatively stable and
is in near equilibrium with the environment of 117. Which of the following is not an application of PCR
that area. (Polymerase Chain Reaction)?
115. Amensalism can be represented as: (1) Molecular diagnosis
(1) Species A (–); Species B (0) (2) Gene amplification
(2) Species A (+); Species B (+) (3) Purification of isolated protein
(3) Species A (–); Species B (–) (4) Detection of gene mutation
(4) Species A (+); Species B (0) Answer (3)
Answer (1) Sol. PCR is Polymerase Chain Reaction.
Sol. • Amensalism is an interaction between two It is used for making multiple copies of the gene.
organisms of different species in which one
Hence PCR is used for
species inhibits the growth of other species by
secreting certain chemicals. The first species is • Gene amplification.
neither get benefited nor harmed. • PCR-based assays have been developed that
• (+) : (0) interaction is observed in commensalism detect the presence of gene sequences of the
infectious agents.
• (+) : (+) interaction is observed in mutualism.
• It is also used in detecting mutations.
• (–) : (–) interaction is seen in competition
• Protein is not the target of PCR. Hence, plays
no role in its purification.
118. During the purification process for recombinant DNA
technology, addition of chilled ethanol precipitates
out :
(1) RNA
(2) DNA
(3) Histones
Choose the correct answer from the options given (4) Polysaccharides
below.
Answer (2)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Sol. Various enzymes like protease, RNase, etc. are
(1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) added to break down substances like proteins, RNA,
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) etc. Once all these substances are broken down,
DNA is left which is precipitated out by adding
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
chilled ethanol.
(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
Histones are basic proteins that help condense DNA
Answer (1) in a cell.
32
119. In the equation GPP – R = NPP 122. Which of the following statements is not correct?
R represents : (1) Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally inverted.
(1) Radiant energy
(2) Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally upright.
(2) Retardation factor
(3) Pyramid of energy is always upright.
(3) Environmental factor
(4) Respiration losses (4) Pyramid of numbers in a grassland ecosystem
is upright.
Answer (4)
Sol. In the equation, Answer (2)
GPP – R = NPP Sol. Pyramid of biomass in sea is inverted. For example,

biomass of zooplanktons is higher than that of
R refers to respiratory loss
phytoplanktons as life span of former is longer and
GPP is gross primary productivity the latter multiply much faster though having shorter
NPP is net primary productivity life span.
120. The first stable product of CO2 fixation in Sorghum is
(1) Pyruvic acid PC 21
(2) Oxaloacetic acid PP 04
(3) Succinic acid

Small standing crop of phytoplanktons supports
(4) Phosphoglyceric acid
large standing crop of zooplankton
Answer (2)
Sol. • Sorghum is a C4 plant. The first stable product
of CO2 fixation in Sorghum is oxaloacetic acid.
• The first stable product in C 3 cycle is
3-phosphoglyceric acid.
• Pyruvic acid is the end product of glycolysis.
• Succinic acid is an intermediate product in krebs
cycle.
121. Which of the following algae produce Carrageen?
(1) Green algae
(2) Brown algae
(3) Red algae Choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
(4) Blue-green algae
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Answer (3)
Sol. • The cell wall of red algae is composed of agar, (1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
carrageen and funori along with cellulose. (2) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
• In brown algae cell wall contains algin while in
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
green algae it is composed of cellulose and
pectin. (4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
• In blue green algae cell wall is composed of
Answer (3)
mucopeptides.
33
Sol. • The inner membrane of mitochondria forms 126. A typical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is:
infoldings called cristae.
(1) 8-nucleate and 7-celled
• Thylakoids are flattened membranous sacs in (2) 7-nucleate and 8-celled
stroma of plastids.
• Cisternae are disc shaped sacs in Golgi
apparatus.
Answer (1)
• Primary constriction in chromosome that holds
two chromatids together is called centromere. Sol. A typical angiospermic embryo sac has seven cells
that are three antipodals, one central cell, one egg
Hence correct option is (3)- a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) cell and two synergids.
124. Which of the following are not secondary The central cell has two polar nuclei, hence the
metabolites in plants? embryo sac is eight nucleated.
(1) Morphine, codeine 127. Diadelphous stamens are found in
(2) Amino acids, glucose (1) China rose
(3) Vinblastin, curcumin (2) Citrus

(3) Pea
(4) Rubber, gums
(4) China rose and citrus
Answer (2)
Answer (3)
Sol. The correct option is (2)
Sol. • Stamens are said to be diadelphous when these
• Amino acids and glucose are included under the are united in two bundles e.g. Pea.
category of primary metabolites as they have
• China rose has monoadelphous stamens while,
identifiable functions and play known roles in
Citrus has polyadelphous stamens.
normal physiological processes.
Monoadelphous stamens are grouped in single
• Rubber, gums, morphine, codeine, vinblastin and bundle whereas polyadelphous stamens occur in
curcumin are included under the category of more than two bundles.
secondary metabolites as their role or functions 128. When gene targetting involving gene amplification is
in host organisms is not known yet. However, attempted in an individual's tissue to treat disease,
many of them are useful to human welfare. it is known as :
125. Which of the following algae contains mannitol as (1) Biopiracy
reserve food material? (2) Gene therapy
(1) Ectocarpus (3) Molecular diagnosis
(2) Gracilaria (4) Safety testing

Answer (2)
(3) Volvox
(4) Ulothrix
• Gene therapy is a collection of methods that
Answer (1) allows correction of a gene defect that has been
diagnosed in a child/embryo.
Sol. Ectocarpus is a brown alga belongs to the class
• Biopiracy is the term used to refer to the use of
Phaeophyceae. Members of this class have mannitol
bio-resources by multinational companies and
and laminarin as stored food material.
other organisations without proper authorisation
Ulothrix and Volvox belong to Chlorophyceae (green from the countries and people concerned without
algae). Members of this class have starch as reserve compensatory payment.
food material. Gracilaria is a member of red algae • Molecular diagnosis refers to the act or process
(Rhodophyceae). This class is characterised by of determining the nature and cause of a
having floridean starch as stored food material. disease.
34
129. Which of the following stages of meiosis involves Sol. When the centromere is situated in the middle of two
division of centromere? equal arms of chromosomes, the chromosome is
(1) Metaphase I (2) Metaphase II referred as Metacentric.
(3) Anaphase II (4) Telophase II When the centromere is present slightly away from
the middle, it is called sub-metacentric
Answer (3) chromosome.
Sol. • Division of centromere occurs in anaphase II. When the centromere is present very close to one
• Telophase II is the last stage of meiosis II. end of the chromosome, it is called acrocentric
During this phase, the chromatids reach the chromosome.
poles and start uncoiling.
When the centromere is present at terminal position,
• Chromosomes form two parallel plates in the chromosome is called telocentric.
metaphase I and one plate in metaphase II.
133. The site of perception of light in plants during
130. Plants follow different pathways in response to photoperiodism is
environment or phases of life to form different kinds
(1) Shoot apex
of structures. This ability is called
(2) Stem
(1) Elasticity (2) Flexibility
(3) Axillary bud
(3) Plasticity (4) Maturity
(4) Leaf
Answer (3)
Answer (4)
Sol. Plants show plasticity which means the ability of
plant to follow different pathways and produce Sol. • The site of perception of light in plants during
different structures in response to environment. photoperiodism is leaf.
131. Which of the following plants is monoecious? • The site of perception of low temperature
stimulus during vernalisation is shoot apex and
(1) Carica papaya embryo.
(2) Chara • Axillary bud are not sites of perception of
(3) Marchantia polymorpha photoperiod.
(4) Cycas circinalis 134. The factor that leads to Founder effect in a
population is :
Answer (2)
(1) Natural selection
Sol. • When male and female sex organs are present
(2) Genetic recombination
on same plant body, such plants are said to be
monoecious. (3) Mutation
(4) Genetic drift
• Most of the species of Chara are monoecious.
Answer (4)
• Cycas circinalis, Carica papaya and Marchantia
polymorpha are dioecious. Sol. • Change in gene frequency in a small population
by chance is known as genetic drift. Genetic
132. When the centromere is situated in the middle of two drift has two ramifications, one is bottle neck
equal arms of chromosomes, the chromosome is effect and another is founder's effect.
referred as :
• When accidentally a few individuals are
(1) Metacentric dispersed and act as founders of a new isolated
(2) Telocentric population, founder's effect is said to be
observed.
(3) Sub-metacentric
• Crossing over which occurs during gamete
(4) Acrocentric formation results in genetic recombination.
Answer (1) • Mutations are random and directionless.
35
135. The plant hormone used to destroy weeds in a field 137. Select the correct pair.
(1) IAA (1) Large colorless empty - Subsidiary cells
(2) NAA cells in the epidermis
of grass leaves
(3) 2, 4-D
(2) In dicot leaves, vascular - Conjunctive
(4) IBA
bundles are surrounded tissue
Answer (3) by large thick-walled cells
Sol. Some synthetic auxins are used as weedicides.
(3) Cells of medullary rays - Interfascicular
2,4-D is widely used to remove broad leaved weeds
that form part of cambium
or dicotyledonous weeds in cereal crops or
cambial ring
monocotyledonous plants.
(4) Loose parenchyma cells - Spongy
IAA and IBA are natural auxins.
rupturing the epidermis parenchyma
NAA is a synthetic auxin.
and forming a lens shaped
opening in bark
SECTION - B
Answer (3)
136. Match Column-I with Column-II.
Sol. • When the cells of medullary rays differentiated,
Column-I Column-II
they give rise to the new cambium called
interfascicular cambium.
(a) Nitrococcus (i) Denitrification
• Loose parenchyma cells rupturing the epidermis
(b) Rhizobium (ii) Conversion of ammonia
to nitrite and forming a lens-shaped opening in bark are
(c) Thiobacillus (iii) Conversion of nitrite to nitrate
called complementary cells.
• Large colourless empty cells in the epidermis of
(d) Nitrobacter (iv) Conversion of atmospheric
nitrogen to ammonia grass leaves are called bulliform cells.
• In dicot leave, vascular bundles are surrounded
Choose the correct answer from options given
below. by large thick walled cells called bundle sheath
cells.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
138. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(1) Fusion of two cells is called Karyogamy
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) Fusion of protoplasms between two motile on
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) non-motile gametes is called plasmogamy
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (3) Organisms that depend on living plants are
Answer (1) called saprophytes
Sol. • Nitrogen fixation is conversion of atmospheric (4) Some of the organisms can fix atmospheric
N2 to NH3 (ammonia). It is carried out by N2 nitrogen in specialized cells called sheath cells
fixers such as Rhizobium. Answer (2)
• NH3 is converted to NO-2 (nitrite) by nitrifying Sol. • In some blue-green algae specialised cells
called heterocyst fixes atmospheric nitrogen into
bacteria such as Nitrococcus. ammonia.
• Then NO-2 is converted to NO3− (nitrate) by • Fusion of two nuclei is called Karyogamy.
nitrfying bacteria called Nitrobacter. • Organisms that depend on living plants are
parasites, saprophytes grow on dead material.
• Thiobacillus carries out denitrification, a process
• Fusion of protoplasts of two cells is called
where NO2− / NO3− is converted to N2. plasmogamy.
36
139. Identify the correct statement. Sol. • During respiration, process of ATP synthesis is
(1) In capping, methyl guanosine triphosphate is explained by chemiosmotic model. It says that
added to the 3' end of hnRNA a proton gradient is required for ATP synthesis
that is established by oxidation-reduction
(2) RNA polymerase binds with Rho factor to
reactions.
terminate the process of transcription in bacteria
(3) The coding strand in a transcription unit is • In ETC, one NADH + H+ produces 3 ATP while
copied to an mRNA one FADH2 produces 2 ATP molecules.
(4) Split gene arrangement is characteristic of • ATP is synthesised via complex V.

prokaryotes
• In ETS, oxygen acts as terminal electron
Answer (2)
acceptor.
Sol. • Split gene arrangement is characterstic of
eukaryotes. 142. What is the role of RNA polymerase III in the
process of transcription in eukaryotes?
• In capping 5-methyl guanosine triphosphate is
added at 5′ end of hnRNA. (1) Transcribes rRNAs (28S, 18S and 5.8S)
• At 3′ end poly-A tail is added.
(2) Transcribes tRNA, 5s rRNA and snRNA
• The non coding or template strand is copied to
an mRNA. RNA polymerase accociate with ρ (3) Transcribes precursor of mRNA
factor (Rho factor) and it alters the specificity of
the RNA polymerase to terminate the processes. (4) Transcribes only snRNAs
140. In the exponential growth equation Nt = N0ert, e Answer (2)

represents
Sol. • RNA polymerase III transcribes tRNA, ScRNA,
(1) The base of number logarithms
5S rRNA and SnRNA.
(2) The base of exponential logarithms
• RNA polymerase I transcribes 5.8S, 18S and
(3) The base of natural logarithms
28S rRNA.
(4) The base of geometric logarithms
• RNA polymerase II transcribes hnRNA which is
Answer (3)
precursor of mRNA
Sol. In the exponential growth equation Nt = N0ert,
143. In some members of which of the following pairs of
e represents the base of natural logarithms
families, pollen grains retain their viability for months
Nt = Population density after time t after release?
N0 = Population density at time zero
(1) Poaceae ; Rosaceae
r = Intrinsic rate of natural increase called biotic
potential. (2) Poaceae ; Leguminosae
141. Which of the following statements is incorrect? (3) Poaceae ; Solanaceae
(1) During aerobic respiration, role of oxygen is
(4) Rosaceae ; Leguminosae
limited to the terminal stage
(2) In ETC (Electron Transport Chain), one molecule Answer (4)
of NADH + H+ gives rise to 2 ATP molecules, Sol. • In members of some plant families like
and one FADH2 gives rise to 3 ATP molecules Solanaceae, Rosaceae and Leguminosae the
(3) ATP is synthesized through complex V pollen grains retain their viability for several
months.
(4) Oxidation-reducation reactions produce proton
gradient in respiration • In cereals (Poaceae) pollen grains retain viability
Answer (2) for around 30 minutes.
37
144. Match List-I with List-II. Sol. Autoradiography allows the detection/localisation of
radioactive isotope within a biological sample.
List-I List-II
(a) S phase (i) Proteins are Probe is a radiolabelled ss DNA or ss RNA
synthesized
(b) G2 phase (ii) Inactive phase depending on the technique. To identify the mutated
(c) Quiescent (iii) Interval between mitosis gene probe is allowed to hybridise to its
stage and initiation of complementary DNA in a clone of cells followed by
DNA replication
(d) G1 phase (iv) DNA replication detection using autoradiography. The mutated gene
will not appear on the photographic film, because the
Choose the correct answer from the options given probe does not have complementarity with the
below. mutated gene.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
146. Plasmid pBR322 has Pstl restriction enzyme site
(1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) within gene ampR that confers ampicillin resistance.
(2) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) If this enzyme is used for inserting a gene for
β-galactoside production and the recombinant
(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) plasmid is inserted in an E.coli strain
(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(1) It will not be able to confer ampicillin resistance
Answer (3) to the host cell
Sol. • In S phase DNA replication takes place. (2) The transformed cells will have the ability to
• In G2 phase there is synthesis of proteins, RNA resist ampicillin as well as produce
etc. β-galactoside
• Quiescent stage is inactive stage of cell cycle (3) It will lead to lysis of host cell
but cells remain metabolically active in this
stage. (4) It will be able to produce a novel protein with
dual ability
• G1 phase is the interval between mitosis and
initiation of DNA replication.
Answer (1)
145. Now a days it is possible to detect the mutated gene
Sol. pBR322 is a commonly used cloning vector. When
causing cancer by allowing radioactive probe to
hybridise its complimentary DNA in a clone of cells, the gene for β-galactoside is inserted in the
followed by its detection using autoradiography ampicillin resistance gene by using Pst I, the
because : recombinant E.coli will lose ampicillin resistance due
to insertional inactivation of the antibiotic resistance
(1) Mutated gene partially appears on a
gene.
photographic film
(2) Mutated gene completely and clearly appears on The host (recombinant) cell will produce
a photographic film β-galactoside which is not a novel protein nor does
it have dual ability.
(3) Mutated gene does not appear on a
photographic film as the probe has no The transformed cells cannot resist ampicillin as they
complementarity with it
have lost ampicillin resistance.
(4) Mutated gene does not appear on photographic
A recombinant E. coli is produced and the host cell
film as the probe has complementarity with it
will not undergo lysis due to insertion of
Answer (3) β-galactoside gene.
38
147. Match Column-I with Column-II 149. Match List-I with List-II.
Column-I Column-II List-I List-II
(a) % K(5) C1 + 2 + (2) A (9) + 1 G1 (i) Brassicaceae (a) Protein (i) C = C double bonds
(b) Unsaturated (ii) Phosphodiester
fatty acid bonds
(b) K (5) C(5)A5 G(2) (ii) Liliaceae
(c) Nucleic acid (iii) Glycosidic bonds
(d) Polysaccharide (iv) Peptide bonds
(c) P(3 + 3) A3 + 3 G(3) (iii) Fabaceae
(d) K2 + 2 C4 A2 – 4 G (2) (iv) Solanaceae below.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Select the correct answer from the options given
below. (1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(a) (b) (c) (d) (2) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
Answer (1)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
Sol. • In a polypeptide or a protein, amino acids are
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
linked by a peptide bond which is formed when
Answer (1) the carboxyl (–COOH) group of one amino acid
Sol. The floral formula of reacts with amino (–NH2) group of the next amino
acid with the elimination of a water moiety.
Brassicaceae family – K2 + 2 C4 A2+ 4 G (2) • Unsaturated fatty acids are with one or more
C = C double bonds.
Solanacae family – K(5) C(5) A5 G (2)
• In nucleic acids, a phosphate moiety links the
3′-carbon of one sugar of one nucleotide to the
Fabaceae family –% K(5) C1 + 2 + (2) A (9) +1 G1
5′-carbon of the sugar of the succeeding
nucleotide. The bond between the phosphate
Liliaceae family – P(3 + 3) A3 + 3 G (3)
and hydroxyl group is an ester bond. As there is
So a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) is correct matching. one such ester bond on either side, it is called
phosphodiester bond.
148. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
• In a polysaccharide, the individual
(1) Both ATP and NADPH + H+ are synthesized monosaccharides are linked by a glycosidic bond.
during non-cyclic photophosphorylation
150. DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in
(2) Stroma lamellae have PS I only and lack NADP some specific regions in DNA sequence, called as
reductase
(1) Satellite DNA (2) Repetitive DNA
(3) Grana lamellae have both PS I and PS II
(3) Single nucleotides (4) Polymorphic DNA
(4) Cyclic photophosphorylation involves both PS I Answer (2)
and PS II
Sol. • DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences
Answer (4) in some specific regions in DNA sequence
Sol. • Cyclic photophosphorylation involves only PS I. called as repetitive DNA.
Both PS I and PS II are involved in non-cyclic • The basis of DNA fingerprinting is VNTR (a
photophosphorylation where both ATP and satellite DNA as probe that show very high
NADPH + H+ are synthesized. degree of polymorphism)
• Both PS I and PS II are found on grana • Polymorphism is the variation at genetic level.
lamellae whereas stroma lamellae have PS I Allelic sequence variation has traditionally been
only and lack NADP reductase. described as a DNA polymorphism.
39
ZOOLOGY

SECTION - A
below
151. Which of the following statements wrongly (1) (b) and (d) only
represents the nature of smooth muscle?
(2) (b) and (c) only
(1) These muscle have no striations
(2) They are involuntary muscles (3) (a), (c) and (d) only
(3) Communication among the cells is performed by (4) (a) and (d) only
intercalated discs
Answer (3)
(4) These muscles are present in the wall of blood
vessels Sol.  Insulin is synthesized as a pro-hormone which
contains A-chain, B-chain and an extra stretch
Answer (3)
called the C-peptide.
Sol.  Option (3) is incorrect because intercalated discs
are found only in cardiac muscle tissue.  C-peptide is not present in mature insulin called
humulin.
 Smooth muscle fibres are non-striated and
involuntary in nature and are present in the wall  Chains A and B are connected by interchain
of blood vessels, uterus, gall bladder, alimentary disulphide bridges.
canal etc.
154. Veneral diseases can spread through :
152. The organelles that are included in the
endomembrane system are (a) Using sterile needles
(1) Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria, (b) Transfusion of blood from infected person
Ribosomes and Lysosomes
(c) Infected mother to foetus
(2) Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex,
Lysosomes and Vacuoles (d) Kissing
(3) Golgi complex, Mitochondria, Ribosomes and (e) Inheritance
Lysosomes
(4) Golgi complex, Endoplasmic reticulum,
below
Mitochondria and Lysosomes
Answer (2) (1) (a), (b) and (c) only
Sol.  Endomembrane system consist of endoplasmic (2) (b), (c) and (d) only
reticulum, Golgi complex, vacuoles and
lysosomes. (3) (b) and (c) only
 Mitochondria is semi-autonomous cell organelle. (4) (a) and (c) only

 Ribosome is non-membranous cell organelle. Answer (3)
153. With regard to insulin choose correct options.
Sol.  Venereal diseases or sexually transmitted
(a) C-peptide is not present in mature insulin. diseases or infections are transmitted by sharing
(b) The insulin produced by rDNA technology has C- of infected needles, surgical instruments with
peptide. infected person, transfusion of blood or from an
infected mother to foetus.
(c) The pro-insulin has C-peptide
(d) A-peptide and B-peptide of insulin are  Venereal diseases are not transmitted through
interconnected by disulphide bridges. kissing or inheritance.
40
155. Select the favourable conditions required for the 157. In a cross between a male and female, both
formation of oxyhaemoglobin at the alveoli. heterozygous for sickle cell anaemia gene, what
(1) High pO2, low pCO2, less H+, lower temperature percentage of the progeny will be diseased?
(2) Low pO 2 , high pCO 2 , more H + , higher (1) 50%

temperature (2) 75%
(3) High pO 2 , high pCO 2 , less H +, higher (3) 25%
temperature
(4) 100%
(4) Low pO2, low pCO2, more H+, higher temperature
Answer (3)
Answer (1)
Sol. According to given question;
Sol.  The factors favourable for the formation of
A S A S
oxyhaemoglobin at the alveolar level are; high Hb Hb × Hb Hb Parents
pO2, low pCO2, less H+ concentration and lower
temperature.
Hb Hb , Hb Hb
S S A S
, HbAHbS, HbAHbA Progenies
 The conditions favourable for the dissociation of
oxygen from oxyhaemoglobin at the tissue level Total number of affected progenies = 1
are; low pO2, high pCO2, high H+ concentration
 Percentage of diseased/affected progenies
and high temperature.
156. Match the following: 1

  100 = 25%
4
List-I List-II
(a) Physalia (i ) Pearl oyster 158. Match List-I with List-II
Limulus Portuguese Man of List-I List-II

(b) (ii)
War
Aspergillus
(a) niger (i ) Acetic Acid
(c) Ancylostoma (iii) Living fossil
Acetobacter Lactic Acid
(b) (ii)
(d) Pinctada (iv) Hookworm aceti
(c) Clostridium (iii) Citric Acid
Choose the correct answer from the options given butylicum
below. (d) Lactobacillus (iv) Butyric A cid
(a) (b) (c) (d) Choose the correct answer from the options given
(1) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) below
(2) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(4) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii) (2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Answer (3) (3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
Sol.  Option (3) is correct because Physalia is (4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
commonly known as Portuguese man of war. Answer (1)
 Limulus is considered as a living fossil and Sol. Aspergilus niger is involved in production of citric
commonly known as king crab. acid. Acetobacter aceti is involved in production of
 Ancylostoma is a roundworm and commonly acetic acid. Clostridium butylicum is involved in
known as hookworm. production of butyric acid whereas Lactobacillus is
involved in the production of lactic acid.
 Pinctada is commonly known known as pearl
oyster, included in phylum Mollusca. So a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) is correct matching.
41
159. Sphincter of oddi is present at: 162. Which one of the following organisms bears hollow
(1) Ileo-caecal junction and pneumatic long bones?
(2) Junction of hepato-pancreatic duct and (1) Neophron

duodenum (2) Hemidactylus
(3) Gastro-oesophageal junction (3) Macropus
(4) Junction of jejunum and duodenum (4) Ornithorhynchus
Sol.  The bile duct and the pancreatic duct open Sol.  Hollow and pneumatic long bones are present in
together into the duodenum as the common animals that belong to class Aves e.g.,
hepato-pancreatic duct which is guarded by a Neophron (vulture).
sphincter called the sphincter of Oddi.
 Ornithorhynchus (Platypus) and Macropus
 Ileo-caecal valve is present at the junction of (Kangaroo) belong to class Mammalia.
ileum and caecum to prevent the backflow of
 Hemidactylus (Wall lizard) is a member of class
faecal matter into the ileum in humans.
Reptilia.
 Gastro-oesphageal sphincter regulates the
163. The centriole undergoes duplication during:
opening of oesophagus into stomach.
(1) S-phase
160. Which of the following is not an objective of
Biofortification in crops? (2) Prophase
(1) Improve protein content (3) Metaphase
(2) Improve resistance to diseases (4) G2 phase
(3) Improve vitamin content Answer (1)
(4) Improve micronutrient and mineral content Sol. During S phase of cell cycle replication of DNA takes
Answer (2) place. In animal cells during S phase, centriole
duplicates in the cytoplasm.
Sol. Biofortification improves vitamin content, protein
content and micronutrient and mineral content. In G2 phase there is duplication of mitochondria,
chloroplast and Golgi bodies. Tubulin portein is also
It does not create resistance in plants against
synthesized during this phase.
diseases.
During prophase, condensation of chromatin starts.
161. Erythropoietin hormone which stimulates R.B.C.
formation is produced by: During metaphase, chromosomes get aligned at
equator to form metaphasic plate.
(1) Alpha cells of pancreas
164. Dobson units are used to measure thickness of:
(2) The cells of rostral adenohypophysis
(1) CFCs
(3) The cells of bone marrow
(2) Stratosphere
(4) Juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney
Answer (4) (3) Ozone
Sol.  Option (4) is correct because Juxtaglomerular (4) Troposphere

cells of kidney secrete erythropoietin hormone Answer (3)
which stimulates RBC formation. Sol. The thickness of the ozone in a column of air from
 Alpha cells of pancreas produce hormone the ground to the top of atmosphere is measured in
glucagon. term of Dobson unit (1 DU = 1ppb).
 The cells of rostral adenohypophysis The lowermost layer of atmosphere is called
synthesizes hormones of anterior lobe of troposphere.
pituitary. CFCs are ozone depleting substances. Ozone found
 The cells of bone marrow are responsible for in upper part of atmosphere (the stratosphere) is
formation of formed elements. called good ozone.
42
165. Which one of the following belongs to the family 167. For effective treatment of the disease, early diagnosis
Muscidae? and understanding its pathophysiology is very
(1) Fire fly important. Which of the following molecular diagnostic
techniques is very useful for early detection?
(2) Grasshopper
(3) Cockroach (1) Western Blotting Technique
(4) House fly (2) Southern Blotting Technique
Answer (4)
(3) ELISA Technique
Sol.  Option (4) is correct because housefly belongs
to the family Muscidae, class Insecta and (4) Hybridization Technique
phylum Arthropoda.
Answer (2/3*)
 Fire flies are placed in family Lampyridae of
class insecta. Sol.  ELISA can be used for early detection of an
 Grasshopper is also an insect placed in family infection either by detecting the presence of
Acrididae. pathogenic antigen or by detecting the antibodies
synthesized against the pathogen.
 Cockroach is also an insect placed in family
Blattidae.  Option (2) Southern blotting is used to detect a
166. Read the following statements specific DNA sequence in the given sample and
can be detected prior to antibody formation. One
(a) Metagenesis is observed in Helminths.
can detect presence of pathogenic DNA/RNA.
(b) Echinoderms are triploblastic and coelomate
animals.  In hybridization technique a ssDNA/ssRNA
(c) Round worms have organ-system level of body tagged with a radioactive molecule (probe) is
organization. allowed to hybridize its complementary DNA in
a clone of cells followed by detection using
(d) Comb plates present in ctenophores help in
autoradiography. It is used to find a mutated
digestion.
gene.
(e) Water vascular system is characteristic of
Echinoderms.  Western blotting technique is used to detect a
Choose the correct answer from the options given specific protein molecule among a mixture of
below. proteins.
(1) (c), (d) and (e) are correct 168. Receptors for sperm binding in mammals are present
(2) (a), (b) and (c) are correct on :
(3) (a), (d) and (e) are correct (1) Corona radiata
(4) (b), (c) and (e) are correct
(2) Vitelline membrane
Answer (4)
Sol.  Metagenesis (alternation of generation) is (3) Perivitelline space
observed in members of phylum Coelenterata (4) Zona pellucida
(Cnidaria).
Answer (4)
 Echinoderms are triploblastic and coelomate
animals as true coelom is observed in them. Sol.  Option (4) is correct because zona pellucida has
 Roundworms (Aschelminths) have organ system receptors for sperm binding (ZP3 receptors) in
level of organization. mammals.
 Comb plates present in ctenophores help in  Corona radiata is a layer of radially arranged
locomotion. cells of membrana granulosa.
 Water vascular system is seen in echinoderms,
which helps in locomotion, capture and transport  Perivitelline space is present in between vitelline
of food and respiration. membrane and zona pellucida.
43
169. Chronic auto immune disorder affecting neuro Choose the correct answer from the options given
muscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening and below
paralysis of skeletal muscle is called as:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) Arthritis
(1) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(2) Muscular dystrophy
(3) Myasthenia gravis (2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(4) Gout (3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
Answer (3) (4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

Sol.  Option (3) is correct because myasthenia gravis Answer (2)
is a chronic auto immune disorder affecting
neuromuscular junction leading to fatigue, Sol.  Diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults are barrier
weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle. methods of contraception for female which works
by blocking the entry of sperms through the
 Gout is caused due to deposition of uric acid cervix.
crystals in joints leading to its inflammation.
 IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms within the
 Inflammation of joints is commonly known as
uterus.
arthritis.
 Muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder which  Vasectomy is a surgical method of contraception
results in progressive degeneration of skeletal in males in which a small part of the vas
muscle. deferens is removed or tied up through a small
incision on the scrotum.
170. Which one of the following is an example of
Hormone releasing IUD?  Tubectomy is a surgical method of contraception
in females where a small part of the fallopian
(1) CuT
tube is removed or tied up through a small
(2) LNG 20 incision in the abdomen or through vagina.
(3) Cu 7 172. Match List - I with List - II
(4) Multiload 375
Answer (2)
Sol.  LNG-20 is a hormone releasing IUD which
makes the uterus unsuitable for implantation and
the cervix hostile to sperms.
 Multiload 375, CuT and Cu7 are copper
releasing IUDs which suppress sperm motility
and the fertilizing capacity of sperms.
171. Match List-I with List-II. Choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
List-I List-II
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) Vaults (i) Entry of sperm through
Cervix is blocked (1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(b) IUDs (ii) Removal of Vas (2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
deferens
(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(c) Vasectomy (iii) Phagocytosis of
sperms within the Uterus (4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(d) Tubectomy (iv) Removal of fallopian tube Answer (3)
44
Sol. Metamerism is commonly seen in the members of 175. If Adenine makes 30% of the DNA molecule, what
phylum Annelida where the body is externally and will be the percentage of Thymine, Guanine and
internally divided into segments with a serial Cytosine in it?
repetition of atleast some organs.
(1) T : 20 ; G : 30 ; C : 20
Water canal system is present in the members of
phylum Porifera. (2) T : 20 ; G : 20 ; C : 30
The body of ctenophores bears 8 external rows of (3) T : 30 ; G : 20 ; C : 20

ciliated comb plates which help in locomotion. (4) T : 20 ; G : 25 ; C : 25
Cnidoblasts or cnidocytes are characteristic feature
Answer (3)
of cnidarians (coelentrata).
173. The fruit fly has 8 chromosomes (2n) in each cell. Sol. According to Chargaff's rule, for a double stranded
During interphase of Mitosis if the number of DNA,
chromosomes at G1 phase is 8, what would be the  A    T ,
number of chromosomes after S phase?
∵  A   30%,   T   30%
(1) 8
(2) 16 Since C  G
(3) 4  100   A  T 
(4) 32  100  30  30
Answer (1)  100  60  40%
Sol. In S phase there is duplication of DNA. So amount and C= G = 20% each
of DNA increases but not the chromosome number.
  A   30%
So, if the number of chromosomes at G1 phase is
8 in fruit fly then the number of chromosomes will be
T   30%
same in S phase that is 8 only. G  20%
174. During the process of gene amplification using PCR, C  20%
if very high temperature is not maintained in the 176. Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of
beginning, then which of the following steps of PCR inactive fibrinogens to fibrins?
will be affected first?
(1) Thrombin
(1) Annealing
(2) Renin
(2) Extension
(3) Denaturation (3) Epinephrine
(4) Ligation (4) Thrombokinase

Sol.  Option (3) is correct. High temperature about
Sol. During coagulation of blood, an enzyme complex
94°C is required for the process of denaturation
thrombokinase helps in the conversion of
whic is the first step of PCR.
prothrombin (present in plasma) into thrombin.
 Ligation of DNA fragments is performed with the
Thrombin further helps in the conversion of inactive
help of an enzyme called DNA ligase.
fibrinogens into fibrins which form network of threads.
 Annealing is performed at 50°-60°C which is the
second step that can get affected. Renin is secreted by JG cells in response to fall in
glomerular blood flow, which converts
 Addition of nucleotides to the primer,
angiotensinogen in blood to angiotensin-I
synthesizing a new DNA strand using only the
template sequences with the help of enzyme Epinephrine or adrenaline is secreted by adrenal
DNA polymerase is called primer extension/ medulla in response to stress of any kind and
polymerisation. during emergency.
45
177. Succus entericus is referred to as: 180. Persons with 'AB' blood group are called as
"Universal recipients". This is due to :
(1) Pancreatic juice (2) Intestinal juice
(3) Gastric juice (4) Chyme (1) Absence of antigens A and B on the surface of
RBCs
Answer (2)
(2) Absence of antigens A and B in plasma
Sol.  Option (2) is correct because succus entericus
is referred to as intestinal juice. (3) Presence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, on
 Chyme is name given to acidic food present in RBCs
stomach.
(4) Absence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, in
 Exocrine secretion of pancreatic acini is called plasma
pancreatic juice.
Answer (4)
 Secretion of gastric glands present in stomach
is called gastric juice. Sol. Option (4) is correct because persons with 'AB'
blood group contain antigens 'A' and 'B' but lack
178. Identify the incorrect pair
antibodies anti-A and anti-B in plasma. So, persons
(1) Alkaloids – Codeine with 'AB' blood group can accept blood from persons
with AB as well as the other groups of blood due to
(2) Toxin – Abrin
lack of antibodies in their blood. Therefore, such
(3) Lectins – Concanavalin A persons are called "Universal recipients".
(4) Drugs – Ricin 181. A specific recognition sequence identified by

Answer (4) endonucleases to make cuts at specific positions
within the DNA is:
Sol.  Option (4) is incorrect because ricin is a toxin
obtained from Ricinus plant. Vinblastin and (1) Degenerate primer sequence
curcumin are drugs.
(2) Okazaki sequences
 Morphine and codeine are alkaloids.
(3) Palindromic Nucleotide sequences
 Abrin is also a toxin obtained by plant Abrus.
(4) Poly(A) tail sequences
 Concanavalin A is a lectin.
179. Which stage of meiotic prophase shows Answer (3)

terminalisation of chiasmata as its distinctive feature?
Sol.  Each restriction endonuclease recognizes a
(1) Leptotene specific palondromic nucleotide sequence in the
DNA. Once it finds its specific recognition
(2) Zygotene
sequence it bind to DNA and cuts each of the
(3) Diakinesis two strands of DNA.
(4) Pachytene  During post transcriptional modification in
Answer (3) eukaryotes, poly(A) tail (200–300 adenylate
residues) are added at 3' end of hnRNA.
Sol.  In meiosis I, chiasmata (X shaped structure) is
formed in diplotene stage while it terminalise in  During DNA replication Okazaki fragments are
diakinesis stage. synthesized discontinuously and joined by DNA
ligase.
 Bivalents are formed in zygotene stage and
crossing over takes place in pachytene stage.  A PCR primer sequence is termed degenerate if
 Compaction of chromosomal material occurs in some of its position have several possible
leptotene stage. bases.
46
182. Which of the following characteristics is incorrect Answer (2)

with respect to cockroach?
Sol. In prokaryotes, the DNA dependent RNA
(1) A ring of gastric caeca is present at the junction
polymerase is a holoenzyme that is made of
of midgut and hind gut
polypeptides (2') . It is responsible for
(2) Hypopharynx lies within the cavity enclosed by initiation, elongation and termination during
the mouth parts transcription.
(3) In females, 7th-9th sterna together form a genital
pouch DNase degrades DNA.
(4) 10th abdominal segment in both sexes, bears a DNA dependent DNA polymerase is involved in
pair of anal cerci replication of DNA.
Answer (1)
DNA ligase joins the discontinuously sysnthesised
Sol.  Option (1) is incorrect because a ring of gastric fragments of DNA.
caecae is present at the junction of foregut and
midgut. At the junction of midgut and hindgut, 185. The partial pressures (in mm Hg) of oxygen (O2) and
malpighian tubules are present. carbon dioxide (CO2) at alveoli (the site of diffusion)
 Hypopharynx lies within the cavity enclosed by are:
mouthparts.
(1) pO2 = 104 and pCO2 = 40
 In female cockroach, the 7th sternum is boat
shaped and together with the 8th and 9th sterna (2) pO2 = 40 and pCO2 = 45
forms a genital pouch.
(3) pO2 = 95 and pCO2 = 40
 10th abdominal segment in both sexes, bears a
pair of anal cerci and 9th sternum only in male (4) pO2 = 159 and pCO2 = 0.3
cockroach, bears a pair of chitinous anal style.
Answer (1)
183. Which of the following RNAs is not required for the
synthesis of protein? Sol.  Option (1) is correct because pO2 in alveoli is
(1) mRNA 104 mm Hg and pCO2 in alveoli is 40 mmHg.
(2) tRNA
 In atmosphere, pO2 is 159 mm Hg and pCO2 is
(3) rRNA 0.3 mm Hg.
(4) siRNA
 In deoxygenated blood, pO2 is 40 mmHg and
Answer (4)
pCO2 is 45 mmHg.
Sol. siRNA are small interfering RNA also called silencing
RNA. It is a class of double-stranded RNA,  In oxygenated blood, pO2 is 95 mmHg and pCO2
non-coding RNA molecules. is 40 mmHg.
mRNA is messenger RNA that carries genetic
information provided by DNA. SECTION - B
tRNA carries amino acids to the mRNA during 186. Which of the following is not a step in Multiple
translation. Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology (MOET)?
rRNA is structural RNA that forms ribosomes which (1) Cow is administered hormone having LH like
are involved in translation. activity for super ovulation
184. Which is the "Only enzyme" that has "Capability" to
catalyse Initiation, Elongation and Termination in the (2) Cow yields about 6-8 eggs at a time
process of transcription in prokaryotes?
(3) Cow is fertilized by artificial insemination
(1) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
(4) Fertilized eggs are transferred to surrogate
(2) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
mothers at 8-32 cell stage
(3) DNA Ligase
Answer (1)
(4) DNase
47
Sol. Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology is Sol. The correct option is (1) because the length of
used for herd improvement in short time. A-band is retained. During muscle contraction, the
following events occur:
 Cows are administered hormones, with FSH-like
activity for superovulation. (1) The globular head of myosin acts as ATPase
and hydrolyses ATP molecule and eventually
 8-32 celled embryos are transferred to surrogate
leads to the formation of cross bridge.
mothers.
(2) This pulls the actin filament towards the centre
 6-8 eggs are produced per cycle. of 'A-band'.
 Cows can be fertilised by artificial insemination. (3) The Z-line attached to these actins are also
pulled inwards thereby causing a shortening of
187. Which of the following secretes the hormone,
the sarcomere.
relaxin, during the later phase of pregnancy?
(4) The thin myofilaments move past the thick
(1) Graafian follicle myofilaments due to which the H-zone narrows.
(2) Corpus luteum This reduces the length of I-band but retains the
length of A-band.
(3) Foetus
(5) The myosin then releases ADP+Pi, and goes
(4) Uterus back to its relaxed state.
Answer (2) 189. Following are the statements with reference to

'lipids'.
Sol. The hormone relaxin is produced in the later phase
(a) Lipids having only single bonds are called
of pregnancy. It is produced by the ovary.
unsaturated fatty acids
 Graafian follicle is not formed when the woman
(b) Lecithin is a phospholipid.
is pregnant.
(c) Trihydroxy propane is glycerol.
 Uterus and foetus do not produce relaxin.
(d) Palmitic acid has 20 carbon atoms including
 Relaxin is produced by the corpus luteum carboxyl carbon.
present in the ovary. Ruptured Graafian follicle is
(e) Arachidonic acid has 16 carbon atoms.
called corpus luteum, which has endocrine
function. Choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
188. During muscular contraction which of the following
(1) (a) and (b) only
events occur?
(2) (c) and (d) only
(a) 'H' zone disappears
(3) (b) and (c) only
(b) 'A' band widens
(4) (b) and (e) only
(c) 'I' band reduces in width Answer (3)
(d) Myosine hydrolyzes ATP, releasing the ADP and Sol.  The correct option is (3) because lipids having
Pi. only single bonds are called saturated fatty acids
(e) Z-lines attached to actins are pulled inwards. and lipids having one or more C = C double
bonds are called unsaturated fatty acids.
 Palmitic acid has 16 carbon atoms including
below:
carboxyl carbon.
(1) (a), (c), (d), (e) only
 Arachidonic acid has 20 carbon atoms including
(2) (a), (b), (c), (d) only the carboxyl carbon.
(3) (b), (c), (d), (e) only  Lecithin is a phospholipid found in cell
membrane.
(4) (b), (d), (e), (a) only
 Glycerol has 3 carbons, each bearing a hydroxyl
Answer (1) (–OH) group.
48
190. Which one of the following statements about  Homologous organs which are anatomically
Histones is wrong? similar structures but perform different functions
(1) Histones are organized to form a unit of 8 according to their needs, are a result of divergent
molecules evolution, for example : Bones of forelimbs in
man and whale.
(2) The pH of histones is slightly acidic
 Evolution by anthropogenic action means
(3) Histones are rich in amino acids - Lysine and Arginine
evolution due to human interference, for example:
(4) Histones carry positive charge in the side chain Antibiotic resistant microbes, herbicides
Answer (2) resistant varieties and pesticide resistant
Sol.  Histones are rich in basic amino acids residue varieties.
lysine and arginine with charged side chain. 192. Identify the types of cell junctions that help to stop
 There are five types of histone proteins i.e., H1, the leakage of the substances across a tissue and
H2A, H2B, H3 and H4. Four of them occur in facilitation of communication with neighbouring cells
pairs to produce a unit of 8 molecules (histone via rapid transfer of ions and molecules.
octamer)
(1) Gap junctions and Adhering junctions,
 The pH of histones is basic. respectively
191. Match List - I with List - II (2) Tight junctions and Gap junctions, respectively
List - I List - II (3) Adhering junctions and Tight junctions,
(a) Adaptive (i) Selection of respectively.
radiation resistant varieties (4) Adhering junctions and Gap junctions,
due to excessive respectively
use of herbicides
and pesticides Answer (2)
(b) Convergent (ii) Bones of forelimbs Sol. Three types of junctions are found in tissues
evolution in Man and Whale  Tight junctions stop leakage of substances from
(c) Divergent (iii) Wings of Butterfly leaking across a tissue.
evolution and Bird
 Adhering junctions cement and keep
(d) Evolution by (iv) Darwin Finches
anthropogenic
neighbouring cells together.
action  Gap junctions or communication junctions
Choose the correct answer from the options given facilitate communication between cells by
below. connecting the cytoplasm of adjoining cells.
(a) (b) (c) (d) 193. Following are the statements about prostomium of
earthworm.
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (a) It serves as a covering for mouth.
(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) (b) It helps to open cracks in the soil into which it
can crawl.
(4) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(c) It is one of the sensory structures.
Answer (1)
(d) It is the first body segment.
 Adaptive radiation is the process of evolution of
below.
different species in a given geographical area
starting from a point and literally radiating to other (1) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
areas of geography, for example : Darwin's finches. (2) (a), (b) and (d) are correct
 Analogous organs which are not anatomically (3) (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct
similar structures though they perform similar
(4) (b) and (c) are correct
functions, are a result of convergent evolution,
for example: Wings of butterfly and of birds. Answer (1)
49
Sol.  The anterior end of the earthworm has mouth 196. Assertion (A): A person goes to high altitude and
which has covering called prostomium. experiences 'altitude sickness' with symptoms like
breathing difficulty and heart palpitations.
 Prostomium acts as a wedge to force open
cracks in the soil. Reason (R): Due to low atmospheric pressure at
high altitude, the body does not get sufficient
 Prostomium has receptors, so it is sensory in oxygen.
function.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
 The first body segment of earthworm is the correct answer from the options given below
peristomium
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
194. The Adenosine deaminase deficiency results into explanation of (A)
(1) Dysfunction of Immune system
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
(2) Parkinson's disease correct explanation of (A)
(3) Digestive disorder (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Addison's disease
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
Answer (1)
Answer (1)
Sol. Adenosine deaminase (ADA) enzyme is crucial for
the immune system to function. Hence, its Sol. Altitude sickness can be experienced at high altitude
deficiency results in the dysfunction of immune where body does not get enough oxygen due to low
system. atmospheric pressure and causes nausea, fatigue
 Hyposecretion of hormones of the adrenal cortex and heart palpitations.
causes Addison's disease.
Hence correct option is (1) as [R] is correct
 Parkinson's disease is a long-term degenerative explanation of [A].
disorder of the central nervous system.
197. Match List-I with List - II
 Disorders which affect GIT & associated glands
are called digestive disorders.
List - I List - II
195. Statement I: The codon 'AUG' codes for
(a) Allen’s Rule (i) Kangaroo rat
methionine and phenylalanine.
(b) Physiological (ii) Desert lizard
Statement II: 'AAA' and 'AAG' both codons code adaptation
for the amino acid lysine. (c) Behavioural (iii) Marine fish
adaptation at depth
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below. (d) Biochemical (iv) Polar seal
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true adaptation
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false Choose the correct answer from the options given
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is below.
false
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
true (1) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
Answer (4) (2) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)

Sol.  AUG has dual functions, it codes for (3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
methionine. It also acts as initiator codon.
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
 AUG does not code for phenylalanine.
 Statement II is true. Answer (3)
50
Sol.  Polar seal generally has shorter ears and limbs Sol.  At the end of gestation, the completely
(extremities) to minimise heat loss. This is with developed foetus is expelled out. This process is
reference to Allen's rule. called parturition.
 Kangaroo rat exhibits physiological adaptation.  Parturition is controlled by a complex
neuroendocrine mechanism.
 Desert lizard shows behavioural adaptation.
They lack the physiological ability to cope-up  Estrogen and progesterone ratio increases as
estrogen levels rise significantly.
with extreme temperature but manage the body
temperature by behavioural means.  Prostaglandins, which stimulate uterine
contractions are also produced that act on
 Marine fishes at depth are adapted biochemically
myometrium.
to survive in great depths in ocean.
 Oxytocin, the main hormone, also called as birth
198. Match List-I with List-II
hormone is released by maternal pituitary, which
List -I List -II brings about strong uterine contractions.
Haemophilus  Prolactin is a lactation hormone that has no role
(a) Filariasis (i)
influenzae in initiation of parturition.
(b) (ii) 200. Match List-I with List-II

Amoebiasis Trichophyton
Wuchereria List -I List -II
(c) Pneumonia (iii)
bancrofti Cartilaginous
Entamoeba (a) Scapula (i)
(d) Ringworm (iv) joints
histolytica
(b) Cranium (ii) Flat bone
below (c) Sternum (iii) Fibrous joints
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Vertebral Triangular flat
(1) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) (d) (iv)
column bone
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) Choose the correct answer from the options given
(3) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) below
(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) (a) (b) (c) (d)
Answer (2)
(1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
Sol. The correct option is (2).
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
 Filariasis is the disease caused by Wuchereria
(3) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
bancrofti, filarial worm.
 Amoebiasis/Amoebic dysentery is caused by a (4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
protozoan parasite Entamoeba histolytica in the Answer (4)
large intestine of human. Sol. The correct option is (4).
 Pneumonia is caused by bacteria like  Scapula is a large triangular flat bone situated in
Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus the dorsal part of the thorax between the second
influenzae. and the seventh ribs.
 Ringworm is caused by fungi belonging to genera  Fibrous joint is shown by the flat skull bones
Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton. which fuse end-to-end with the help of dense
199. Which of these is not an important component of fibrous connective tissues in the form of sutures,
initiation of parturition in humans ? to form the cranium.
(1) Increase in estrogen and progesterone ratio  Sternum is a flat bone on the ventral midline of
(2) Synthesis of prostaglandins thorax.
(3) Release of Oxytocin  Cartilaginous joints between the adjacent
(4) Release of Prolactin vertebrae in the vertebral column permits limited
Answer (4) movements.

51

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DATE : 12/09/2021 Test Booklet Code

Sol. Suppose  is inclination of inclined plane 1

Sn (2n  1) Answer (1)

v S Sol. Direction of propagation of electromagnetic waves

(1) 10.2 kW (1) Current in n-type = current in p-type

(2) 8.1 kW (2) Current in p-type > current in n-type

19. A thick current carrying cable of radius 'R' carries So, V1 = V2

(1) B (2) B Q1R1 Q2 R2

Sol. For a spring, kx = F 24. A dipole is placed in an electric field as shown. In

(2) (A) - (R), (B) - (S), (C) - (Q), (D) - (P) P

(4) (A) - (R), (B) - (Q), (C) - (S), (D) - (P)

(2) (A) and (B) both are incorrect

(3) (A) is correct and (B) is incorrect.

(4) (A) is incorrect but (B) is correct. 40 V 10 V 40 V

Answer (3) Now De-broglie wavelength,

n 3.3  103  6  107

(2) 30 cm from the lens, it would be a real image

For second refraction from convex lens, t1 - t2 1 0 1 0 1 1

Answer (2) U 2 sin2 

43. A series LCR circuit containing 5.0 H inductor, 80

4 – 3 – 12m = 0 (4) 20 2 m/s, 10 m/s2

12m = 1 Answer (4)

As volume remains the same 2

Now, using charge conservation,

49. A ball of mass 0.15 kg is dropped from a height 10 m, 0 i

Sol. Given that :

Velocity of ball at ground v   2gh

z The reaction of Hinsberg's reagent (C6H5SO2Cl)

(i) C6H 5 2C 6H 5 C O hence bond length from C – F to C – I increases

(ii) C6H5 + H Br C6H6 + Br –1

Sol. F Based on above calculation, possible empirical

For a mole of an ideal gas,

On putting the values of H and U, we have

(3) Starch solution (4) Urea solution

Answer (3) (1) 200 K

Statement II : As the size of the elements F, Cl, Br,

Sol. Compounds with formula C4H10O can be ethers

which may exhibit metamerism. For example

Volume (V) and CH3—O—CH2—CH2—CH3 are metamers as

(4) Chain in both Answer (1)

82. Which of the following reactions is the metal

z Many trivalent lanthanoids ions are coloured both F F

CH(OCOCH 3 )2 CaCO3  H2SO4  CaSO4  H2O  CO2

Reagent R is C2H5OH with diazonium salt.

 50  350  400 S cm2 mol1 p s  p oC 6H6  C 6H6  p oC8H18  C8H18

Cl (4) –83 kJ mol–1

(2) H2O < H2S : Increasing pKa = 41.57 × 103 J/mol

< H2Se < H2Te values 41.5 kJ/mol

(c) Vascular tissues are complex permanent tissues

• These are physical mutagens. (4) Annealing, Denaturation, Extension

104. Match List-I with List-II.

(a) Lenticels (i) Phellogen

(b) Cork cambium (ii) Suberin deposition

Answer (1) (2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

(c)-Transcription;(d)-Transduction Answer (2)

111. Match List-I with List-II Answer (4)

GPP – R = NPP Sol. Pyramid of biomass in sea is inverted. For example,

120. The first stable product of CO2 fixation in Sorghum is

(1) Pyruvic acid PC 21

(2) Oxaloacetic acid PP 04

(3) Succinic acid

(3) Vinblastin, curcumin (2) Citrus

(2) Gracilaria (4) Safety testing

Ans&Sol Neet 2021 (Code m5)

Ans&Sol Neet 2021 (Code m5)