MID BLOCK TEST PISTON 11

1. The purpose fuel metering system is to

a. control the correct amount of fuel being delivered to the carburetor
b. control the correct amount of fuel entering the engine cylinder
c. control the correct amount of fuel entering fuel control unit

2. Apart from the answer on question 1 what are the additional function of fuel
metering?
a. Atomized the fuel distributes fuel in manner that promotes complete
combustion and even burning in the cylinder
b. Vaporized the fuel in manner that promotes complete combustion and
even burning in the cylinder
c. Vaporized the fuel in manner that it promotes proper manifold pressure
inside the induction manifold

3. Two types of metering device used on modern reciprocating engine are

a. carburetor and fuel injection unit
b. carburetor and fuel control unit
c. fuel injection unit and fuel control unit

4. Two type of carburetor are

a. float type and pressure injection carburetor
b. float type and pressure differential carburetor
c. float type and fuel continues carburetor

5. A physical principle that is widely used in fuel metering device is the

a. Archimedes principle
b. Bernoulli’s principle
c. New 1st law of motion

6. When air flows through a venturi

a. speed will decrease
b. pressure will decrease
c. temperature will increase

7. The mixture ratio for stoichiometric mixture is

a. 14 : 1
b. 15 : 1
c. 16 : 1

8. Two common term to describe fuel air mixture are

a. rich and poor
b. rich and lean
c. lean and poor

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 9. Idle-cutoff is describes the position of the mixture control which
a. completely cut off fuel flow from the main jet and the fuel will flow through
the idle jet
b. completely cut off fuel flow to the engine and the engine will stop
running
c. completely cut off entering the carburetor and the will stop running
immediately

10. Detonation is a/an

a. uncontrolled ignition due to improper fuel/air mixture
b. uncontrolled explosive ignition in the cylinder
c. ignition that occur before schedule

11. Pre ignition is a/an

a. a uncontrolled ignition due to improper fuel/air mixture
b. uncontrolled explosive ignition in the cylinder
c. ignition that occur before schedule

12. Overheated valve edge and red hot spark plug electrode can cause
a. detonation
b. pre-ignition
c. starvation

13. Updraft or down draft is

a. types of fuel control unit
b. type fuel injection unit
c. types of carburetor

14. What control the volume of air passing the venturi

a. Servo piston
b. Butterfly valve
c. Variable inlet guide vanes

15. ____________control the level of fuel in the float chamber

a. float needle valve
b. float regulating valve
c. float servo valve

16. Air pressure inside the float chamber is always

a. same as venturi pressure
b. same as manifold pressure
c. atmospheric

17. The purpose of main metering system is to meter fuel

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a. all through the engine operation
b. during idle
c. above idle

18. In most cases the float level maintain

a. 1/8 of an inch below opening in discharged nozzle
b. 1/16 of an inch below opening in discharged nozzles
c. 1/32 of an inch below opening in discharged nozzles

19. If the air bleed holes in the main metering system get clogged the mixture
will become excessively

a. lean
b. rich
c. no change

20. Two types of acceleration system are

a. acceleration well and accelerator pump system
b. pressure accelerator and servo accelerator system
c. accelerator pump and servo accelerator system

21. What is the position of the economizer needle valve when the throttle is
wide open?
a. Open
b. Close
c. Economizer needle has no relation with throttle

22. Economizer needle valve is held closed by

a. oil pressure
b. spring
c. fuel pressure

23. Throttle ice is the term used to describes ice which forms on the rear side of
the throttle when it is
a. Fully closed
b. Fully open
c. Partially closed

24. If the engine idle mixture correct, retarding the throttle to idle cut off
a. Engine rpm increase slightly before it drop rapidly
b. Immediate rpm decrease with no momentary increase
c. Engine rpm increase rapidly before it decrease slightly

25. The amount of control travel between the carburetor stop and the float stop
is known as
a. control rate

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b. control lag
c. spring back

26. In a pressure regulator carburetor, venturi pressure is vented to

chamber__________ in the fuel regulator unit
a. A
b. B
c. C

27. The force produced by pressure differential between chamber A and B in

the fuel regulator unit in often referred to as the
a. fuel metering force
b. air metering force
c. fuel/air metering force

28. Main metering jet is situated at

a. Entry port to chamber A
b. entry port to chamber B
c. entry port to chamber C

29. Fuel flow from the flow divider goes to the injector nozzles and to
a. back to inlet of regulator unit
b. pressure gauge in the cockpit
c. fuel tank

30. Steel tubing carrying fuel from flow divider to injector nozzles size is
a. ½
b. ¼
c. 1/8

31. Positive displacement pump means

a. it gives specific quantity per revolution
b. it gives constant amount per revolution
c. the cable is connected in series to the engine

32. Excess fuel from the injector pump is

a. route back to pump inlet
b. drain overboard
c. route into the oil dilution system

33. In the fuel metering unit, when the throttle is fully forward
a. small portion of fuel metering jet is uncovered
b. nearly all the metering jet is exposed
c. both the main and the enrichment jets are exposed

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 34. How many secondary coils are required in low tension ignition system on an
18 cylinder engine
a. 36
b. 18
c. 9

35. A magneto ignition switch is connected

a. in series with the breaker point
b. parallel to the breaker point
c. in series with primary capasitor and parallel with the breaker point

36. The spark is produced in the magneto ignition system when the breaker
point are
a. fully open
b. beginning to open
c. fully closed
37. Shielding is used on spark plug and ignition wires to
a. protect the wire from short circuit as result of chafing and rubbing
b. prevent outside electro magnetic emission from disrupting the operation of
the ignition system
c. prevent interference with radio reception

38. A The purpose of staggered ignition is to compensate for

a. short ignition harness
b. rich fuel/air mixture around exhaust valve
c. diluted fuel/air mixture

39. What test instrument could be used to test an ignition harness for suspect
leakage
a. High tension lead tester
b. High voltage de voltmeter
c. High amperage de ammeter

40. What will the effect if the spark plug are gapped too wide
a. Insulation failure
b. Hard starting
c. Lead damage

41. As engine speed increase, the voltage induced in the primary coil of the
magneto
a. Remain constant
b. Increases
c. Varies with the setting of voltage regulator

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 42. What component make up the magnetic system of magneto?
a. Poles shoe, the pole shoe extension and the primary coil
b. Primary and secondary coil
c. Rotating magnet, the poles shoe, the pole shoe extension, and the
coil core

43. The purpose of safety gap in a magneto is to

a. prevent burning out the primary winding
b. protect the high voltage winding from burning
c. prevent burning of contact point

44. When using electric starter current usage

a. is highest at the start of motor rotation
b. remain relatively constant all through starting cycle
c. is highest before cut off

45. The secondary coil of a magneto is grounded through the

a. ignition switch
b. primary coil
c. grounded side of breaker point

46. What component of a dual magneto is shared by both ignition system

a. High tension coil
b. Rotating magnet
c. Capacitor

47. If the ground wire of a magneto is disconnect at the ignition switch, the
result will be
a. affected magneto is isolated and the engine will run on the opposite
magneto
b. engine will stop running
c. engine will not stop running when the ignition switch is turned off

48. How does high tension ignition shieling tend to reduce radio inteferance
a. Prevent ignition flashover at altitude
b. Reduce voltage drop in the transmission of high tension current
c. Receives and ground high frequency waves coming from magneto
and high tension ignition leads

49. When installing a magneto on an engine, the

a. piston in the no 1 cylinder must be prescribe number of degree
before top center on the compression stroke
b. magneto breaker point must be just closing
c. piston on the number 1 cylinder must be a prescribe number of degree
after top center on the intake stroke

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 50. Ignition check during engine run up indicates a slow drop in rpm. This
usually caused by
a. defective plug
b. a defective high tension lead
c. incorrect ignition timing or valve adjustment

51. In a four stroke cycle aircraft engine when does the event take place
a. Before TDC on compression stroke
b. After piston reach TDC on the power stroke
c. After piston reach TDC on the compression sroke

52. A method commonly used to prevent carburetor icing to

a. preheat the intake air
b. mix alcohol with the fuel
c. electrically heat the venturi
53. Carburetor is most severe at
a. air temperature at 30 to 40 degree F
b. high altitude
c. low engine temperature

54. Carburetor icing on an engine equip with constant speed propeller can be
detected by
a. a decrease in power output with no change in manifold pressure
b. an increase in manifold pressure with constant rpm
c. a decrease in manifold pressure with a constant rpm

55. What part of an aircraft flight will begin to accumalate ice before any other
a. wing leading edge
b. propeller spinner or dome
c. carburetor

56. Carburetor icing may be eleminated by which of the following method

a. alcohol spray and electrically heated induction duct
b. Ethelyne glycol spray and heated induction air
c. Alcohol spray and heated induction air

57. Where would a carburetor air heater be located in a fuel injection system?
a. At the air intake entrance
b. None is required
c. Between the air intake and the venturi

58. An increase in manifold pressure when carburetor heat is applied indicates

a. ice was foaming in the caburetor
b. mixture was too lean
c. overheating of cylinder heat

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59. During full power output of an unsupercharged engine eqipped with a float
type carburetor, in which of the following area will the highest pressure exist
a. Venturi
b. Intake manifold
c. Carburetor air scoop

60. The used of carburetor air heater when it is not needed cause
a. a very lean mixture
b. excessive increase in manifold pressure
c. a decrease in power and possibily detonation

61. As the pressure increase in a reciprocating, the

a. volume of air in the cylinder increase
b. weigh of the air/fuel charge decrease
c. density of air in the cylinder increase

62. Bootstrapping of a turbocharger engine is indicated by

a. a over boost condition of an engine on take off
b. a transient increase in engine power
c. a maximum increase in manifold pressure

63. If the turbocharged waste gate is completely closed,

a. none of the exhaust gas are directed through the turbine
b. the turbocharger is inoff position
c. all exhaust gas are directed through the turbine

64. Boost manifold pressure is generally considerd to be any manifold pressure

above
a. 14.7” Hg
b. 50” Hg
c. 30” Hg

65. The purpose of density controller in a turbocharger system is to

a. limit the maximum manifold pressure that can be produced at

other than full throttle condition
b. limit the maximum manifold pressure that can be produced
by the turbocharger at full throttle condition
c. maintain constant air velocity at the carburetor inlet

66. The purpose of the rate change controller in a turbo charger system is to

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 a. limit maximum magnifold pressure that can be produced by the
turbocharger at full throttle condition
b. control the rate at which the turbocharger discharge pressure
will increase
c. control the position of the waste gate after the aircraft has reach
its critical altitude
67. The turbo charger speed is directly regulate by the
a. Turbine
b. Waste gate
c. Throttle

68. The purpose of turbocharger system for a small reciprocating engine is

a. compress the air to hold cabin pressure constant after the
aircraft has reach its critical altitude
b. maintain constant air velocity in the intake manifold
c. compress air to maintain manifold pressure constant from
sea level to the critical altitude of the engine

69. The differential pressure controller in the turbocharger system

a. reduced bootstrapping during part throttle operation
b. position the waste gate valve for maximum power
c. provide constant fuel to air ratio

70. The supercharger is drive by the

a. exhaust gas
b. gear train from crankshaft
c. belt drive through pulley arrangement

71. When starting an engine equip with carburetor air heater, the position of the
heater should be
a. hot
b. cold
c. nuetral

72. If carburetor or induction system icing is not present when carburetor heat is
applied with no change in throttle setting, the
a. mixture will become richer
b. manifold pressure will increase
c. engine rpm will increase

73. If fire start in the induction system during the engine stsrting procedure,
what should the operator do
a. turn off the fuel switch to stop the fuel
b. continue cranking the engine
c. turn off all the switch

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 74. In an engine equipped with alternate air system, if the mainair duct air filter
become cloog or block,
a. system will automatically allow warm, unfiltered air to be drawn into
the engine
b. flow of air into the engine will be slowed or cut off unless alternate air is
selected
c. system will automatically allow warm, filtered alternate air to be drawn into
the engine

75. What could be a result of undetected exhaust system leaks in a reciprocating

engine powered airplane?
a. Pilot/passenger incapacitation caused by carbon monoxide entering the
cabin.
b. A rough-running engine with increased fuel consumption.
c. Too low exhaust back pressure resulting in the desired power settings not
being attained.
76. How may reciprocating engine exhaust system leaks be detected?
a. An exhaust trail aft of the tailpipe on the airplane exterior.
b. Fluctuating manifold pressure indication.
c. Signs of exhaust soot inside cowling and on adjacent components.
77. Compared to normally aspirated engines, turbocharged engine exhaust
systems operate at
a. similar temperatures and higher pressures.
b. higher temperatures and higher pressures.
c. similar temperatures and pressures.
78. Most exhaust system failures result from thermal fatigue cracking in the areas
of stress concentration. This condition is usually caused by
a. the drastic temperature change which is encountered at altitude.
b. improper welding techniques during manufacture.
c. the high temperatures at which the exhaust system operates.
79. What is the purpose of a slip joint in an exhaust collector ring?
a. to aids in alignment and absorbs expansion
b. It reduces vibration and increases cooling.
c. It permits the collector ring to be installed in one piece.
80. Sodium-filled valves are advantageous to an aviation engine because they
a. are lighter.
b. dampen valve impact shocks.
c. dissipate heat well.
81. Which of the following are recommended markers for reciprocating engine
exhaust systems except
a. India ink.
b. lead pencil.
c. Prussian blue.
82. The area of the augmenter will reduced by______________ if the augmentor vane

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 is fully closed
a. 35 %
b. 40%
c. 45%
83. The end of a collector ring is cut tapered is to
a. reduced noise
b. get free thrust
c. produce extra cooling
84. One way to check exhaust system for leak is through
a. performing compression test
b. pressurizing and apply soap and water
c. soaking the component in water
85. If exhaust gas leak into the induction system the engine will
a. overheat and lost of power
b. pre-ignition will occur
c. engine will dies off immediately
86. The short stack system are normally used on
a. non supercharged and low powered engine
b. supercharged and high powered engine
c. supercharged and low powered engine
87. The disadvantage of the collector system is
a. decrease back pressure of the exhaust system
b. increase back pressure of the exhaust system
c. too little or no back pressure in the exhaust system
88. Positive displacement pump means
a. it gives specific quantity per revolution
b. it gives constant amount per revolution
c. the cable is connected in series to the engine

89. Where is the reservoir situated in a wet sump lubrication system?

a. The lowest part of the engine
b. In the gear box
c. In the rocker cover

90. What is the size of scavenge pump compared to pressure pump?

a. Same
b. Double
c. Triple

91. What type of pump is normally used in modern type aircraft reciprocating
engine?
a. Gear type
b. Gerotor type
c. Piston type

92. Pressure relief valve is to

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a. To relief excess pressure in the system in case of oil filter clog
b. To relief excess pressure in the system which can damage the
engine
c. There is no oil pressure relief in a reciprocating engine. I t is only true to
turbine engine

93. What is the size of oil tank expansion space?

a. 25% of the tank capacity or 5 gallon or whichever greater
b. 10% of the tank capacity or .5 gallon or whichever greater
c. 105 % of the tank capacity or 5 gallon or whichever smaller

94. The purpose of scupper drain is to

a. To keep extra oil for long range flight
b. Used to filled the oil tank in flight
c. To prevent overfilling of the expansion space

95. When the pressure relief valve seat open excess will be drained to
a. oil tank
b. oil pump inlet
c. oil cooler

96. During adjusting the oil pressure adjustment turning the adjustment screw
clockwise will
a. decrease oil pressure
b. increase oil pressure
c. fuel pressure and oil pressure will be the same

97. The purpose of extreme pressure lubricants is

a. provide protection under high loads
b. to provide lubricant at high heat area
c. to provide lubricant where normal lubricant is inaccessible

98. Synthetic oil has high resistance to

a. thermal breakdown and oxidation
b. high loads and neutralization
c. neutralization H2o
d. internal and external breakdown

99. One reason why reciprocating engine used high viscosity oil is
a. it has large operational clearance and high operating temperature
b. it has less ramp air entering the engine and the only way to cool the
engine is by using high viscosity oil
c. it depend entirely on oil to cool the engine

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 100. What does SAE number indicate
a. Oil specific gravity
b. Oil flash point
c. Oil viscosity

101. Most manufacture recommended the used of straight mineral for new or
newly overhaul engine for the first 10-50 hrs or
a. Until first schedule inspection
b. Until oil consumption stabilized
c. Until next filter change

102. What is multi viscosity oil?

a. An oil that flow more quickly in cold weather and keep from thinning
in hot weather
b. It is sometimes called grease
c. this oil can only be used in tropical countries

103. What type of pump is used in pressure type of oil distribution?

a. Centrifugal pump
b. Electrical driven pump
c. Engine driven pump

104. What the sized oil tank if compared to fuel tank?

a. 1: 30 with transfer system
b. 1: 30 without transfer system
c. 1: 40 without transfer system

105. What should be written on oil filler cap?

a. The word “OIL”
b. “FILL HERE”
c. Capacity of the tank

106. In the dry sump system the oil pump is situated ________
a. at the lowest point of the engine
b. at the lowest point of the reservoir
c. depend on manufacturer

107. What is a constant displacement pump?

a. A pump that is driven by an engine
b. A pump that is driven by electrical power
c. A pump that moves a fix volume of fluid per pump revolution

108. What are two types filtration system that may be installed on an aircraft?

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a. Half flow system partial flow system
b. Full flow system and partial flow system
c. Rated flow system and unrated flow system
109. To ensure a full supply of oil to the engine in case of oil filter clogged what
installed to the full system?
a. bypass valve
b. pressure bypass valve
c. auxiliary bypass valve

110. The filter in partial flow bypass system is installed____________

a. in series with the bearing
b. parallel with the bearing
c. both answers are correct

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