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Seat No -
Total number of questions : 60

PWD10543_ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING II
Time : 1hr
Max Marks : 50
N.B

1) All questions are Multiple Choice Questions having single correct option.

2) Attempt any 50 questions out of 60.

3) Use of calculator is allowed.

4) Each question carries 1 Mark.

5) Specially abled students are allowed 20 minutes extra for examination.

6) Do not use pencils to darken answer.

7) Use only black/blue ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

8) No change will be allowed once the answer is marked on OMR Sheet.

9) Rough work shall not be done on OMR sheet or on question paper.

10) Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer.

Q.no 1. The method of disposal for grit separated by grit channel is

A : by dumping in low lying area after washing with clean water

B : by incineration

C : by composting to compost and use as manure for growing crops

D : by open dumping over municipal land

Q.no 2. The pH value of fresh sewage is usually ____.

A : Equal to 7

B : More than 7

C : Less than 7

D : Equal to zero

Q.no 3. What is full form of MBR

A : Member bioreactor
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B : Membrane biosand reactor

C : Membrane bioreactor

D : Membrane reactor

Q.no 4. The detention period of oxidation pond is

A : 12-36 hours

B : 4 hours

C : 10-20 days

D : 30-40 days

Q.no 5. Anaerobic digestion is carried out in ____

A : Presence of oxygen

B : carbon dioxide

C : absence of oxygen

D : absence of carbon dioxide

Q.no 6. Which industrial effluent contains phenol

A : Distillery industry

B : dairy industry

C : Petrochemical industry

D : Pulp and paper industry

Q.no 7. Phytoremediation uses to remove the contaminants

A : Plants

B : Bacteria

C : Algae

D : virus

Q.no 8. Which of the following parameter of waste water required to determine on site

A: BOD

B : COD
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C : DO

D : COLOUR

Q.no 9. The minimum design depth of oxidation pond is

A : 0.3 m

B:1m

C : 0.5 m

D:6m

Q.no 10. The BOD removal in oxidation pond is about

A : 60%

B : 70%

C : 90%

D : 100%

Q.no 11. Type of industrial waste water treatment depends upon

A : BOD/COD ratio.

B : Inorganic solids.

C : Toxicity index.

D : Chemical oxidation

Q.no 12. Which type of sampling done for wastewater collection at different intervals and mix
the same together?

A : Composite sample

B : Grab sample

C : Composite & Grab Sample

D : Ordinary sample

Q.no 13. The spacing between the bars in racks is ____________

A : 30mm

B : 50mm

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C : 70mm

D : 90mm

Q.no 14. The sewer which received discharge from two or more main sewers, is known as
____sewer.

A : Trunk

B : Outfall

C : Main

D : Intercepting

Q.no 15. Aerated lagoon uses which type of aeration

A : natural

B : mechanical

C : surface aeration

D : diffused aeration

Q.no 16. pH of dairy waste water ranges in between

A : 8.6-9.5

B : 3.2-4.5

C : 7.2-8

D : 8.5-10.2

Q.no 17. The area for one unit of oxidation pond is

A : 3 ha

B : 0.5 ha

C : 5 ha

D : 8 ha

Q.no 18. The method used for disposal of screenings removed by coarse screens is

A : by dumping in low lying area

B : by incineration

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C : by open dumping in municipal land

D : by composting to compost and use as manure for crops

Q.no 19. The clear spacing between the bars of coarse screen is

A : 25-75 mm

B : 10-20 mm

C : 10-40 mm

D : 100-150 mm

Q.no 20. What is the colour of septic wastewater?

A : Grey

B : Black

C : Light brown

D: Dark brown

Q.no 21. Coagulation tank are provided in which industrial waste water treatment plant

A : Sugar industry.

B : Dairy industry.

C : Distilery industry.

D : Textile industry.

Q.no 22. To stimulate algae growth, what can be done?

A : adding sodium nitrate

B : adding potassium permanganate

C : adding potassium iodide

D : adding indicator

Q.no 23. Tolerence limit for industrial effluents discharged into inland surface water

A : 200 mg/lit

B : 150 mg/lit.

C : 250 mg/lit.
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D : 300 mg/lit

Q.no 24. As per CPCB norms permissible limit of Total dissolved solids for sugar industry
effluent is

A : 2100

B : 1000

C : 2000

D : 1500

Q.no 25. Imhoff cone is used to measure ____solids.

A : Organic

B : Inorganic

C : settleable

D : suspended

Q.no 26. In case of primary sludge, continuously desludged solids do not generally exceed ----

A : 4- 5%

B : 3-5%

C : 10%

D : 4-10%

Q.no 27. In oxidation ponds, bacteria stabilizes organic matter to produce

A : carbon dioxide

B : methane

C : hydrogen sulphide

D : oxygen

Q.no 28. Treatment of primary sludge is necessary because

A : Primary sludge contains high concentration of organic dissolved solids

B : Primary sludge contains very low BOD

C : Primary sludge contains high concentration of inorganic suspended solids

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D : Primary sludge contains 30-35% BOD and it has high potential for putrefaction

Q.no 29. What is the minimum hydraulic retention time for UASB?

A : 1 hr.

B : 2 hr.

C : 3 hr.

D : 4 hr.

Q.no 30. The design period in years for pumping plants is _____.

A:1

B : 2 to 3

C : 3 to 5

D : 5 to 10

Q.no 31. UASB system was developed by

A : Stoke’s

B : Henrry

C : Lettinga and his workers

D : Chezy

Q.no 32. In facultative pond, aerobic conditions are present in

A : top

B : intermediate

C : bottom

D : near bottom

Q.no 33. Which of the following is the performance of primary sedimentation tank?

A : Removal of 30-35% suspended solids from the sewage

B : Removal of 65-70% suspended solids from sewage

C : Removal of 90-100 % suspended solids from sewage

D : Removal of less than 50 % suspended solids from sewage


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Q.no 34. Which treatment is required if ((BOD/COD)>0.6)

A : Biological treatment without acclimatisation.

B : Biological treatment with acclimatisation.

C : Chemical Treatment

D : Thermal treatment.

Q.no 35. Oxidation pond makes use of

A : algal bacterial symbiosis

B : attached growth system

C : suspended growth system

D : eutrophication

Q.no 36. Find the correct sentence related to anaerobic digestion

A : anaerobic decomposition prodces considerably less biomass than aerobic processes

B : anaerobic decomposition prodces considerably more biomass than aerobic processes

C : anaerobic decomposition prodces equal biomass than aerobic processes

D : non of all

Q.no 37. For dairy waste industry recommended standards fo heavy oil and grease should be

A : 100-200 mg/lit

B : 200-300 mg/lit

C : 300-400 mg/lit

D : 400-500 mg/lit

Q.no 38. High rate of Tricking filters are required in which industrial waste water treatment
plant

A : Sugar industry.

B : Dairy industry.

C : Distilery industry.

D : Textile industry.

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Q.no 39. As per CPCB norms permissible limit of BOD (3 days at 27degree celsius) for disposal
in surface waters for sugar industry effluent is

A : 30

B : 50

C : 100

D : 150

Q.no 40. Which of the following is not correct with respect to the effect of oil on treatment

A : Foam formation

B : Toxic to anaerobic bacteria

C : Interferes with settling

D : Explosive with pure oxygen

Q.no 41. Determine the weir overflow rate for a circular sedimentation tank of diameter 30m if
design flow is12000m3/d,

A : Weir overflow rate=220.80 m3/m/d

B : Weir overflow rate=180.08 m3/m/d

C : Weir overflow rate=200 m3/m/d

D : Weir overflow rate=127.32 m3/m/d

Q.no 42. For efficient working of a sewer, it must be ensured that ____.

A : Minimum velocity of 0.45 m/sec is maintained at its minimum flow

B : A maximum velocity of 0.90 m/sec is maintained at its maximum flow

C : Both (1) and (2)

D : Neither (1) and (2)

Q.no 43. Detremination of sludge volume index is useful for deciding

A : COD/BOD ratio

B : BOD/TOC ratio

C : COD/TOC ratio

D : Recirculation ratio

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Q.no 44. What is the COD loading rate assumed for an Up flow anaerobic sludge blanket
(UASB)?

A : 4-12 Kg COD/m3

B : 12-20 Kg COD/m3

C : 2-4 Kg COD/m3

D : 20-25 Kg COD/m3

Q.no 45. Determine the surface overflow rate for circular sedimentation tank of diameter 24 m
provided for treatment of 12 MLD

A : 40.24 m/d

B : 30.80m/d

C : 26.53 m/d

D : 30.66 m/d

Q.no 46. Equalization and Proportioning are the important components of industrial waste water
treatment

A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 47. Which of the following is not a physical characteristic?

A : Colour

B : pH

C : Odour

D : Temperature

Q.no 48. What is the thickened concentration of anaerobically digested primary sludge from
primary digestor?

A : 1-3%

B : 12%

C : 15%

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D : 5%

Q.no 49. If 2 percent solution of a sewage sample is incubated for 5 days at 20 degree celcius and
depletion of oxygen was found to be 5 ppm, B.O.D. of the sewage is ____ppm.

A : 200

B : 225

C : 250

D : 300

Q.no 50. The gas which may cause explosion in sewers is ____.

A : Carbon dioxide

B : Methane

C : Ammonia

D : Carbon monoxide

Q.no 51. In which industry Crystallizer is used?

A : Dairy

B : Sugar

C : Distillery

D : Fertilizer

Q.no 52. If the depletion of oxygen is found to be 2.5 mg/l after incubating 2.5 ml of sewage
diluted to 250 ml for 5 days at 20 degree celcius, B.O.D. of the sewage is ____mg/l.

A : 50

B : 100

C : 200

D : 250

Q.no 53. Molassess is the waste generated out of

A : Sugar Waste water

B : Dairy waste water.

C : Textile waste water

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D : Tanery waste water.

Q.no 54. Segregation of strong wastewater from weak wastewater may also sometimes help in
reducing problems in industrial waste water treatment

A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 55. The sludge produced in aerated lagoon is

A : less than that in oxidation pond

B : more than that in oxidation pond

C : equal to oxidation pond

D : equal to ASP

Q.no 56. By addition of compressed Co2 to waste water having High pH controls the acidity and
alkalinity

A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 57. Treated effluent obtained from primary clarifier consist of following impurities,

A : fine and colloidal suspended solids, all dissolved solids (organic and inorganic)

B : Only dissolved solids(organic and inorganic)

C : all suspended solids

D : only inorganic suspended solids

Q.no 58. In which industry Casein plant is used?

A : Dairy

B : Sugar

C : Distillery

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D : Fertilizer

Q.no 59. Determine the dimensions primary sedimentation tank(Circular) using flowing data;
Design flow=10000 m3/d, Surface overflow rate=25 m/d, detention time=2 hours

A : Diameter (D) =30m, flow depth (d)=2.5m

B : Diameter (D)=15 m, flow depth(d)=2.5m

C : Diameter (D) =30.6 m, flow depth(d)=2.56m

D : Diameter (D) =22.57m, flow depth (d)=2.08 m

Q.no 60. Determine the number of bars required for bar rack (Screen chamber) provided for
peak sewage flow of 0.75 m3/s. Take clear spacing between the bar=50mm , velocity through the
rack=0.75m/s, flow depth=0.8m.

A : Clear spaces=25 and number of bar=24

B : Clear spaces =25 and number of bars=25

C : Clear spaces =24 and number of bars=23

D : Clear spaces =21 and number of bars=20

Q.no 1. The design velocity of flow of a detritus tank is ____________

A : 1m/Sec

B : 1.2m/Sec

C : 0.9m/Sec

D : 0.5m/Sec

Q.no 2. For balanced growth of microorganisms in a biological treatment should be…....for


anaerobic treatment

A : 4.21186342592593

B : 4.21181712962963

C : 4.21183449074074

D : 100:2.5:0.5

Q.no 3. _______ is the additional flow occurring during rainy season.

A : Gradually varied flow

B : Rapidly varied flow

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C : Dry weather flow

D : Storm water flow

Q.no 4. Low cost treatment is commonly used in

A : urban areas

B : rural areas

C : semi urban areas

D : semi rural areas

Q.no 5. Out of Following which industry has highly acidic effluents

A : Distillery industry

B : Tanary Industry

C : Distillery Industry

D : Pulp and paper

Q.no 6. Which of the following factor does not effect the dry weather flow?

A : Rate of water supply

B : Temperature conditions

C : Population growth

D : Infiltration of ground water

Q.no 7. Aerated lagoon is a type of

A : conventional

B : advanced system

C : low cost treatment system

D : secondary system

Q.no 8. What is the mixture of methane and carbon-dioxide of anaerobic digestion called?

A : Waste gases

B : Poisonous gas

C : Biogas
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D : Carbo-methane

Q.no 9. Oxidation pond is one of the

A : expensive treatment

B : highly intensive treatment

C : low cost treatment

D : high maintenance treatment

Q.no 10. The disadvantage of aerated lagoon is that it

A : requires energy

B : requires high operating cost

C : requires maintenance

D : requires skilled labour

Q.no 11. Inorganic suspended solids (grit) are removed from sewage by which of the following
treatment unit?

A : Screen chamber

B : Grit chamber

C : Primary sedimentation tank

D : Skimming tank

Q.no 12. What is the maximum pH that the bacteria can sustain in terms of alkalinity?

A:7

B : 7.5

C:8

D : 8.5

Q.no 13. In UASB three phase settler separates----

A : Gas

B : liquid

C : Sludge particles

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D : all of above

Q.no 14. The secondary clarifiers are ________

A : Circular

B : Rectangular

C : Square

D : Triangular

Q.no 15. Disposal of sludge can be carried out by using

A : Spreading on land

B : sludge lagooning

C : Dumping

D : all of above

Q.no 16. Characteristics of Industrial waste water varries from process to process even in the
same industry

A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 17. Which of the following device is used for the removal of oil and grease?

A : Skimming tank

B : Grit chambers

C : Tube settlers

D : Flocculator

Q.no 18. The design of oil/water separators is based on ________

A : Stoke’s law

B : Newton’s law

C : Boyle’s law

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D : Charles’s law

Q.no 19. In which of the industrial waste water the proportion of phosphorus and nitrogen is
high

A : Sugar Waste water

B : Dairy waste water.

C : Textile waste water

D : Tanery waste water.

Q.no 20. Which of the following methods are not used for the dispersion of the effluent out of a
septic tank?

A : Wetlands

B : Soak pit

C : Evapo-transpiration mound

D : Leach field

Q.no 21. The main disadvantage of oxidation pond is that

A : large area is required

B : maintenance and operation cost is higher

C : large investment is required

D : small investment is required

Q.no 22. After the treatment, the BOD demand ______

A : Remains constant

B : Decreases

C : Increases

D : Alters

Q.no 23. In oxidation ponds, algae uses carbon dioxide

A : for growth

B : for decomposition

C : for aeration

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D : for survival

Q.no 24. The amount of oxygen consumed by the aerobic bacterias which cause the aerobic
biological decomposition of sewage, is known as _____.

A : BOD

B : DO

C : COD

D : TOC

Q.no 25. The usual detention time for best performance of grit removal is

A : 40-90 seconds

B : 1-2 hours

C : 30-60 minutes

D : 10-15 minutes

Q.no 26. Screens are inclined to the direction of flow to ____________

A : Increase the flow velocity

B : Increase the opening area

C : Decrease the flow velocity

D : Increase the head loss

Q.no 27. Surface overflow rate for a treatment unit like grit chamber or sedimentation tank is
defined as

A : Discharge applied per unit volume of the treatment unit

B : Discharge passing through the unit

C : Discharge applied per unit of surface area of the unit

D : Surface area per unit volume of the unit

Q.no 28. Phytoextraction is absorption of contaminants through roots

A : false

B : true

C : uncertain

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D : neither true nor false

Q.no 29. Why is the sludge aerated?

A : To avoid bacterial growth

B : To increase bacterial growth

C : To maintain pH

D : To maintain temperature

Q.no 30. What is the range of retention time during anaerobic digestion?

A : 10-20 days

B : 20-30 days

C : 40-80 days

D : 40-100 days

Q.no 31. In which type of settling, sedimentation of discrete particles takes place?

A : Zone settling

B : Compression settling

C : Hindered settling

D : Discrete settling

Q.no 32. Process of equalization is applied for following reason

A : To dissolve Organic solids.

B : To increase the rate of digestion.

C : to minimize fluctuations.

D : To apply and prevent shock loading of biological system.

Q.no 33. The most efficient cross-section of sewers in a combined sewerage system is ____.

A : Parabolic

B : Circular

C : Rectangular

D : New egged
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Q.no 34. The portion of oil and grease is more in

A : Sugar industry

B: Pulp and paper industry

C: Dairy industry

D : Tanning industry

Q.no 35. What is the thickened concentration of the primary sludge?

A : 1-2%

B : 2-3%

C : 3-5%

D : 5-10%

Q.no 36. Bio-chemical oxygen demand (BOD) for the first 20 days is generally referred to
_____demand.

A : Initial

B : First stage

C : Carbonaceous

D : All of these

Q.no 37. _________ is the flow through sewers available during non-rainfall period.

A : Gradually varied flow

B : Rapidly varied flow

C : Dry weather flow

D : Storm water flow

Q.no 38. In sewers the velocity of flow should be _____.

A : More than the self-cleansing velocity

B : Less than the self-cleansing velocity

C : <10 m/s

D : >20 m/s

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Q.no 39. Trickling filter is …..method of treatment

A: Chemical

B : Physical

C: Biological

D : Equalization

Q.no 40. Onsite sanitation means

A : The storage of waste within the premises

B : The storage of waste within the premises and it is treated on site

C : The storage of waste within the premises and it is treated and disposed of on site

D : non of all

Q.no 41. If a 2 percent solution of sewage sample is incubated for 5 days at 20 degree celcius and
the dissolved oxygen depletion was found to be 8 mg/l. The BOD of the sewage is ____mg/l.

A : 100

B : 200

C : 300

D : 400

Q.no 42. How much % propionic acid formed in anaerobic digestion process

A : 20%

B : 10%

C : 15%

D : 5%

Q.no 43. The surface area of oxidation pond for 1000 persons, flow rate 200 lpcd, BOD 300 mg/lit
and OLR 310 kg/day/ha is

A : 0.2 ha

B : 1 ha

C : 2 ha

D : 6 ha

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Q.no 44. For paper and pulp industry the ratio of BOD/COD is

A : high

B : low

C : medium

D : extremely low

Q.no 45. The density of population over 40 hectares is 250/hectare. If water supply demand per
day is 200 liters and sewage discharge is 80 percent of water supply, the sewage flow in sewers of
separate system is _____cumec.

A : 05552

B : 05554

C : 05556

D : 0556

Q.no 46. Determine the dimensions (L &B only) of grit chamber consisting two channels using
following data.
Design flow: 0.9 m3/s, Surface overflow rate=0.015m/s, L/B=10

A : L=10m, B-1.0m

B : L=20m, B=2.0m

C : L=17.3m, B=1.73m

D : L=15m, B=1.5m

Q.no 47. As per CPCB, COD norms for discharge in marine water is

A: 250 ppm

B : 350 ppm

C: 500 ppm

D: 100 ppm

Q.no 48. …...is the basis of BOD test

A : COD

B : DO

C : Colour

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D : TSS

Q.no 49. Which Industry contains high Ammonia and Urea

A : Tanary Industry

B : Sugar Industry

C : Fertilizer Industry

D : Textile industry

Q.no 50. Recycling of metals can be done through harvesting plants

A : true

B : false

C : uncertain

D : neither true nor false

Q.no 51. Hydraulic mean radius is ____.

A : Mean radius of sewer.

B : Difference in heads between two points in circular pipes

C : Mean of radii in a pipe line of varying cross-sections

D : Cross-sectional area/wetted perimeter

Q.no 52. Gas production in anaerobic digesters is ---

A : 05.-0.9 m3/kg

B : 05.-2 m3/kg

C : 05.-4 m3/kg

D : 01.-12 m3/kg

Q.no 53. What is the upflow velocity considered for a UASB while treating partially soluble
COD?

A : 1-1.25 m/h

B : 1.5-2 m/h

C : 2-3 m/h

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D : 3-4 m/h

Q.no 54. The sewer that unloads the sewage at the point of treatment is called ____sewer.

A : Main

B : Outfall

C : Branch

D : House

Q.no 55. In which industry Fibrizor unit is used?

A : Dairy

B : Sugar

C : Distillery

D : Fertilizer

Q.no 56. What is the duration of sludge in tanks for mesophilic anaerobic digestion?

A : 10 days

B : 12 days

C : 15 days

D : 30 days

Q.no 57. The correcion to elevation is

A : 1+0.001EL

B : 1+0.003EL

C : 1+0.03EL

D : 1+0.08EL

Q.no 58. Phytovolatilization is the removal of contaminants through exchange of gases

A : True

B : false

C : uncertain

D : neither true nor false


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Q.no 59. The function of algae in oxidation pond is to provide mat over the surface

A : True

B : false

C : uncertain

D : neither true nor false

Q.no 60. Which is the major polluting component of the distilleries?

A : yeast

B : bagasses

C : spent wash

D : mollases

Q.no 1. Which of the following impurities are removed by primary sedimentation tank in a
sewage treatment plant?

A : Heavy organic suspended solids

B : Large floating solids

C : Grit particles

D : Dissolved organic solids

Q.no 2. Strength reduction of industrial effluent is carried out by

A: Process change

B: Segregation of waste

C: Both a) and b)

D: None of above

Q.no 3. What is the colour of septic wastewater?

A : Grey

B : Black

C : Light brown

D: Dark brown

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Q.no 4. What is the full form of UASB

A : Upflow anaerobic Sludge Blanket

B : Upflow aerobic Sludge Blanket

C : Upflow aerobic Sewage Blanket

D : Upflow anaerobic Sewage Blanket

Q.no 5. Phytoremediation can remove the contaminants

A : high concentration

B : low concentration

C : high toxicity

D : high alkalinity

Q.no 6. Type of industrial waste water treatment depends upon

A : BOD/COD ratio.

B : Inorganic solids.

C : Toxicity index.

D : Chemical oxidation

Q.no 7. Which of the following processes is rarely used?

A : Composting

B : aerobic

C : incineration

D : anaerobic

Q.no 8. A method of retaining wastes in a basin until the effluent dischargeed is fairly uniform in
its sanitary characteristics is called

A : Neutralization Method

B : Equalization Method

C : Neutralization & Equalization Method

D : Physical Treatment

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Q.no 9. Which of the following is an advantage of anaerobic digestion?

A : Capital cost

B : Time

C : Space

D : Methane

Q.no 10. Alcohol is recovered from which of the industry

A : Sugar Waste water

B : Dairy waste water.

C : Textile waste water

D : Tanery waste water.

Q.no 11. The characteristics of Sugar industry effluent are

A: High pH

B : Low BOD

C : presence of Fixed Solids

D : Low COD

Q.no 12. The process which affects the high variation in volume of flow of waste water depends
upon

A : Interference.

B : High waste water discharge.

C : The hydraulic load.

D : Refraction of sunlight.

Q.no 13. The sample which are collected from point source is called as

A: Representative sample

B: Composite sample

C: Grab sample

D : Random Sample

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Q.no 14. Effluent can be disposed off --------

A : Subsurface irrigation

B : Surface irrigation

C : Discharging into water course and soil absorption

D : all of above

Q.no 15. For the COD test of sewage, organic matter is oxidised by potassium dichromate in the
presence of ____acid.

A : Sulphuric

B : Hydrocloric

C : Nitric

D : Amino

Q.no 16. The capacity of sewage treatment plant is 15MLD.What is the capacity in m3/d?

A : 150 m3/d

B : 15000 m3/d

C : 1500 m3/d

D : 1500000 m3/d

Q.no 17. What is the minimum percentage of solids in wastewater?

A : 30%

B : 40%

C : 50%

D : 60%

Q.no 18. Salient features of UASB process are

A : low cost

B : low operating power

C : easy operation

D : all of above

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Q.no 19. What types of solids are removed by bar rack and screen chamber?

A : Inorganic suspended solids

B : Oil and grease

C : Large floating and suspended solids

D : Dissolved solids

Q.no 20. The clear spacing between the bars of coarse screen is

A : 25-75 mm

B : 10-20 mm

C : 10-40 mm

D : 100-150 mm

Q.no 21. What is the maximum capacity of medium screen in collecting solids?

A : 30L

B : 40L

C : 50L

D : 90L

Q.no 22. As per CPCB norms permissible limit of oil & grease for sugar industry effluent is

A : 50

B : 100

C : 10

D : 30

Q.no 23. Hydraulic retention time (H.R.T) for a treatment unit is defined as

A : HRT=V/Q

B : HRT=Q/V

C : HRT=QV

D : HRT=V-Q

Q.no 24. The maximum BOD removal efficiency of an oxidation pond is


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A : 90%

B : 68%

C : 70%

D : 95%

Q.no 25. Aerobic complete mix type of lagoon is one of the aerated lagoon

A : false

B : true

C : uncertain

D : neither true nor false

Q.no 26. As the compression increases, the porosity in filter bed _____

A : Increases

B : Decreases

C : None of all

D : Remains constant

Q.no 27. The disadvantage of phytoremediation is treating site

A : low contaminant concentration

B : high contaminant concentration

C : high toxicity

D : high alkalinity

Q.no 28. The temperature affects _____.

A : Biological activity of bacteria in sewage

B : Solubility of gases in sewage

C : Viscosity of sewage

D : All of these

Q.no 29. Which are the three ingredients in activated sludge systems?

A : Cells, sewage and oxygen


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B : Cells, sewage and nitrogen

C : Solids, sewage and oxygen

D : Solids, water and oxygen

Q.no 30. How much % acid formation ocurred in anaerobic digestion process

A : 55.00000000000001%

B : 65%

C : 75%

D : 70%

Q.no 31. Which of the following is an advantage of a separate water carriage system?

A : Get choked easily

B : Difficult to clean the sewer

C : Two sets of sewer are used

D : The more uniform character of sewage

Q.no 32. The ratio of maximum sewage flow to average sewage flow for mains up to 1 m in
diameter is ____.

A : 1.5

B:2

C:3

D:4

Q.no 33. 5 days-biochemical oxygen demand is taken at a temperature of ____degree celcius.

A:0

B : 15

C : 20

D : 25

Q.no 34. As per CPCB norms permissible limit of suspended solids for dairy industry effluent is

A : 200

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B : 150

C : 300

D : 100

Q.no 35. Why lime treatment is require in manufacturing process of sugar industry?

A : to maintain colour

B : to change colour

C : to maintain taste

D : to remove colour

Q.no 36. A well oxidized industrial waste water contains nitrogen mainly as

A : Nitrates

B : Nitrites

C : Free ammonia

D : Nitrogen

Q.no 37. The principle function of anaerobic digestion is -----

A : Convert sludge in to liquid and gas

B : Convert sludge in to liquid

C : Convert sludge in to gas

D : all are correct

Q.no 38. Grit chamber are provided in the sewage treatment plant for

A : Removal of grit particles by sedimentation only

B : Removal of all types of suspended solids from sewage

C : Removal of grit particles by sedimentation and to prevent sedimentation of the organic suspended
solids and to pass forward to the next treatment unit

D : Removal of organic suspended solids only

Q.no 39. As per CPCB norms permissible limit of Total dissolved solids for sugar industry
effluent is

A : 2100

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B : 1000

C : 2000

D : 1500

Q.no 40. As per CPCB norms permissible limit of total suspended solids for disposal in surface
waters for sugar industry effluent is

A : 50

B : 30

C : 100

D : 80

Q.no 41. A clarified effluent is extracted from the ______ of the reactor.

A : Top

B : side

C : bottom

D : central pipe

Q.no 42. By addition of compressed Co2 to waste water having High pH controls the acidity and
alkalinity

A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 43. The aerobic digestion of sewage is utilized in the production of

A : metal articles

B : biofuels

C : biomass

D : synthetic fuels

Q.no 44. For the purpose of oxidation air is injected to the mixed basin for –

A : To Reduce the compounds of chemical oxidation.

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B : To minimize fluctuations.

C : To increase the oxygen content.

D : for mechanical Agitation.

Q.no 45. Determine the surface overflow rate for circular sedimentation tank of diameter 24 m
provided for treatment of 12 MLD

A : 40.24 m/d

B : 30.80m/d

C : 26.53 m/d

D : 30.66 m/d

Q.no 46. In sugar manufacturing process, the wastewater is generated from

A : Mill house

B : Vaccum pan

C : Crystallizer centrifuge

D : Fibrizor

Q.no 47. In dairy indusrty, the wastewater is not generated from

A : Creamery unit

B : Butter plant

C : Cooling tower

D : Casein plant

Q.no 48. The gas which may cause explosion in sewers is ____.

A : Carbon dioxide

B : Methane

C : Ammonia

D : Carbon monoxide

Q.no 49. What is the COD loading rate assumed for an Up flow anaerobic sludge blanket
(UASB)?

A : 4-12 Kg COD/m3

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B : 12-20 Kg COD/m3

C : 2-4 Kg COD/m3

D : 20-25 Kg COD/m3

Q.no 50. The CPCB discharge standard for TSS in public sewer is

A : 250 mg/lit

B : 500 mg/lit

C: 600 mg/lit

D : 1000 mg/lit

Q.no 51. Determine the weir overflow rate for a circular sedimentation tank of diameter 30m if
design flow is12000m3/d,

A : Weir overflow rate=220.80 m3/m/d

B : Weir overflow rate=180.08 m3/m/d

C : Weir overflow rate=200 m3/m/d

D : Weir overflow rate=127.32 m3/m/d

Q.no 52. ________ is treated in activated sludge reactor.

A : Pre-treated sludge

B : Treated sludge

C : Macronutrients

D : Micro-organisms

Q.no 53. Concentration of suspended solids in raw sewage is ----

A : 200- 250 mg/l

B : 110- 250 mg/l

C : 150- 250 mg/l

D : 100- 250 mg/l

Q.no 54. Equalization and Proportioning are the important components of industrial waste water
treatment

A : true

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B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 55. If the depletion of oxygen is found to be 2.5 mg/l after incubating 2.5 ml of sewage
diluted to 250 ml for 5 days at 20 degree celcius, B.O.D. of the sewage is ____mg/l.

A : 50

B : 100

C : 200

D : 250

Q.no 56. Treated effluent obtained from primary clarifier consist of following impurities,

A : fine and colloidal suspended solids, all dissolved solids (organic and inorganic)

B : Only dissolved solids(organic and inorganic)

C : all suspended solids

D : only inorganic suspended solids

Q.no 57. Molassess is the waste generated out of

A : Sugar Waste water

B : Dairy waste water.

C : Textile waste water

D : Tanery waste water.

Q.no 58. The sludge produced in aerated lagoon is

A : less than that in oxidation pond

B : more than that in oxidation pond

C : equal to oxidation pond

D : equal to ASP

Q.no 59. Segregation of strong wastewater from weak wastewater may also sometimes help in
reducing problems in industrial waste water treatment

A : true

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B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 60. What is the thickened concentration of anaerobically digested primary sludge from
primary digestor?

A : 1-3%

B : 12%

C : 15%

D : 5%

Q.no 1. Depth for aerobic pond is kept

A : less

B : more

C : more than anaerobic pond

D : more than ASP

Q.no 2. Self-cleansing velocity is ____.

A : Velocity at dry weather flow

B : Velocity of water at flushing

C : Velocity at which no accumulation remains in the drains

D : Velocity of water in a pressure filter

Q.no 3. Techniques for processing waste sludge's depends on

A : Type of waste

B : size of plant

C : location of wastewater

D : all of above

Q.no 4. How many types of settling are there in the sedimentation tank?

A:3

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B:4

C:5

D:6

Q.no 5. Detention time given to oxidation pond is

A : long

B : short

C : equal to that of ASP

D : lesser to that of ASP

Q.no 6. Aerated lagoon is a type of

A : conventional

B : advanced system

C : low cost treatment system

D : secondary system

Q.no 7. Inorganic suspended solids (grit) are removed from sewage by which of the following
treatment unit?

A : Screen chamber

B : Grit chamber

C : Primary sedimentation tank

D : Skimming tank

Q.no 8. What is full form of MBR

A : Member bioreactor

B : Membrane biosand reactor

C : Membrane bioreactor

D : Membrane reactor

Q.no 9. Characteristics of Industrial waste water varries from process to process even in the
same industry

A : true

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B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 10. Which method is require to minimise excessive acidity or alkalinity of the particular
wastewater as per norms by adding alkali or acid respectively in wastewater?

A : Neutralization Method

B : Equalization Method

C : Neutralization & Equalization Method

D : Chemical Treatment

Q.no 11. pH of dairy waste water ranges in between

A : 8.6-9.5

B : 3.2-4.5

C : 7.2-8

D : 8.5-10.2

Q.no 12. Which type of sampling done for wastewater collection at a same point and same time?

A : Composite sample

B : Grab sample

C : Composite & Grab Sample

D : Ordinary sample

Q.no 13. The maximum spacing between the bars in medium screen is ____________

A : 40mm

B : 50mm

C : 70mm

D : 90mm

Q.no 14. For Sugar industry waste water treatment plant Neutralization tank required

A : true

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B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 15. The minimum spacing between the bars on fine screen is ____________

A : 0.3mm

B : 0.9mm

C : 1.5mm

D : 0.5mm

Q.no 16. The colour of effluent in paper and pulp industry is very dark

A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 17. Which of the following parameter of waste water required to determine on site

A: BOD

B : COD

C : DO

D : COLOUR

Q.no 18. The minimum design depth of oxidation pond is

A : 0.3 m

B:1m

C : 0.5 m

D:6m

Q.no 19. Which of the following factor does not effect the dry weather flow?

A : Rate of water supply

B : Temperature conditions
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C : Population growth

D : Infiltration of ground water

Q.no 20. The commonly used velocity control device provided in grit chamber are

A : Parshall flume and Proportioning flow weir

B : Venturi meter

C : Hydraulic jump

D : V-notch

Q.no 21. Which of the following is incorrect regarding partially combined water carriage system?

A : The sewers are of reasonable size

B : There is choking of sewer

C : The storm water increases load on treatment units

D : The storm water increases the cost of pumping

Q.no 22. In facultative pond,anaerobic conditions are present in

A : top

B : intermediate

C : bottom

D : near bottom

Q.no 23. Tolerence limit for industrial effluents discharged into inland surface water for TSS
(mg/lit) is

A : 150 mg/lit

B : 100 mg/lit.

C : 125 mg/lit.

D : 200 mg/lit.

Q.no 24. Kjeldahl nitrogen is a mixture of ____.

A : Ammonia and nitrogen

B : Nitrogen and organic nitrogen

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C : Organic nitrogen and ammonia

D : All the above

Q.no 25. In areas where light rains are uniformly distributed throughout the year, the type of
sewerage system to be adopted is ____system.

A : Separate

B : Combined

C : Partially separate

D : Partially combined

Q.no 26. Which of the following are different zones of sedimentation tank?

A : Inlet zone and outlet zone

B : Inlet zone and sludge zone

C : Outlet zone, settling zone and sludge zone

D : Inlet zone, outlet zone, settling zone and sludge zone

Q.no 27. Why is the sludge aerated?

A : To avoid bacterial growth

B : To increase bacterial growth

C : To maintain pH

D : To maintain temperature

Q.no 28. How much is the detention time is adopted for designee of skimming tank?

A : 1.0-1.5 hours

B : 2.0-2.5 hours

C : 3.0-4.0 hours

D : 3.0-5.0 minutes

Q.no 29. As per CPCB norms permissible limit of BOD (3 days at 27degree celsius) for dairy
industry effluent is

A : 100

B : 150

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C : 200

D : 300

Q.no 30. In a sludge tank, the gas mainly produced, is

A : Oxygen

B : Methane and carbon-dioxide

C : Carbon dioxide

D : Hydrogen

Q.no 31. Tolerance limit for industrial effluents discharged into inland surface water for Copper
(mg/lit) is

A : 3.0 mg/lit

B : 4.0 mg/lit

C : 7.0 mg/lit

D : 5.0 mg/lit

Q.no 32. What is the product gases released at the end of the UASB process?

A : Methane

B : Methane and carbon-dioxide

C : Oxygen and carbon-dioxide

D : Carbon-dioxide

Q.no 33. The process of controlling flow velocity and flow composition is

A : Flow neutralization

B : Flow equalization

C : sedimentation

D : Filtrtion

Q.no 34. How many steps are present in anaerobic digestion?

A:1

B:2

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C:3

D:4

Q.no 35. How much percentage BOD removal by a primary sedimentation tank?

A : 30-35% of raw sewage BOD

B : 65-70% of raw sewage BOD

C : 80-90% of raw sewage BOD

D : less than 20 % of raw sewage BOD

Q.no 36. Oxygen is provided in oxidation pond by

A : mechanical aeration

B : natural aeration

C : surface aeration

D : diffused aeration

Q.no 37. One of the type of Stabilisation pond is

A : Aerobic lagoons

B : Anaerobic pond

C : Roatating Biological contactor

D : ASP

Q.no 38. Meaning of sludge thickening is -------

A : Used to concentrate solids

B : to reduce the volume

C : both a & b

D : non of all

Q.no 39. For measurement of settable solids, the apparatus used is ____.

A : Jar

B : Beaker

C : Test tube
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D : Imhoff cone

Q.no 40. In case of secondary settling tank solids do not generally exceed ----

A : 0.4- 5%

B : 0.3-5%

C : 0.5-1%

D : 0.4-10%

Q.no 41. Which is the major polluting component of the distilleries?

A : yeast

B : bagasses

C : spent wash

D : mollases

Q.no 42. The function of algae in oxidation pond is to provide mat over the surface

A : True

B : false

C : uncertain

D : neither true nor false

Q.no 43. Phytovolatilization is the removal of contaminants through exchange of gases

A : True

B : false

C : uncertain

D : neither true nor false

Q.no 44. In which industry Crystallizer is used?

A : Dairy

B : Sugar

C : Distillery

D : Fertilizer
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Q.no 45. Determine the dimensions primary sedimentation tank(Circular) using flowing data;
Design flow=10000 m3/d, Surface overflow rate=25 m/d, detention time=2 hours

A : Diameter (D) =30m, flow depth (d)=2.5m

B : Diameter (D)=15 m, flow depth(d)=2.5m

C : Diameter (D) =30.6 m, flow depth(d)=2.56m

D : Diameter (D) =22.57m, flow depth (d)=2.08 m

Q.no 46. Determine the dimensions (L &B only) of grit chamber consisting two channels using
following data.
Design flow: 0.9 m3/s, Surface overflow rate=0.015m/s, L/B=10

A : L=10m, B-1.0m

B : L=20m, B=2.0m

C : L=17.3m, B=1.73m

D : L=15m, B=1.5m

Q.no 47. Hydraulic mean radius is ____.

A : Mean radius of sewer.

B : Difference in heads between two points in circular pipes

C : Mean of radii in a pipe line of varying cross-sections

D : Cross-sectional area/wetted perimeter

Q.no 48. If a 2 percent solution of sewage sample is incubated for 5 days at 20 degree celcius and
the dissolved oxygen depletion was found to be 8 mg/l. The BOD of the sewage is ____mg/l.

A : 100

B : 200

C : 300

D : 400

Q.no 49. How much % propionic acid formed in anaerobic digestion process

A : 20%

B : 10%

C : 15%

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D : 5%

Q.no 50. In which industry Casein plant is used?

A : Dairy

B : Sugar

C : Distillery

D : Fertilizer

Q.no 51. Determine the number of bars required for bar rack (Screen chamber) provided for
peak sewage flow of 0.75 m3/s. Take clear spacing between the bar=50mm , velocity through the
rack=0.75m/s, flow depth=0.8m.

A : Clear spaces=25 and number of bar=24

B : Clear spaces =25 and number of bars=25

C : Clear spaces =24 and number of bars=23

D : Clear spaces =21 and number of bars=20

Q.no 52. In which industry Fibrizor unit is used?

A : Dairy

B : Sugar

C : Distillery

D : Fertilizer

Q.no 53. What is the upflow velocity considered for a UASB while treating partially soluble
COD?

A : 1-1.25 m/h

B : 1.5-2 m/h

C : 2-3 m/h

D : 3-4 m/h

Q.no 54. Which Industry contains high Ammonia and Urea

A : Tanary Industry

B : Sugar Industry

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C : Fertilizer Industry

D : Textile industry

Q.no 55. The surface area of oxidation pond for 1000 persons, flow rate 200 lpcd, BOD 300 mg/lit
and OLR 310 kg/day/ha is

A : 0.2 ha

B : 1 ha

C : 2 ha

D : 6 ha

Q.no 56. Recycling of metals can be done through harvesting plants

A : true

B : false

C : uncertain

D : neither true nor false

Q.no 57. For paper and pulp industry the ratio of BOD/COD is

A : high

B : low

C : medium

D : extremely low

Q.no 58. Which of the following is not a physical characteristic?

A : Colour

B : pH

C : Odour

D : Temperature

Q.no 59. Detremination of sludge volume index is useful for deciding

A : COD/BOD ratio

B : BOD/TOC ratio

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C : COD/TOC ratio

D : Recirculation ratio

Q.no 60. …...is the basis of BOD test

A : COD

B : DO

C : Colour

D : TSS

Q.no 1. The sample which are collected from point source is called as

A: Representative sample

B: Composite sample

C: Grab sample

D : Random Sample

Q.no 2. Aerated lagoon uses which type of aeration

A : natural

B : mechanical

C : surface aeration

D : diffused aeration

Q.no 3. Skimming tanks are provided for removal of which of the following impurities?

A : Organic matter present in the sewage

B : Inorganic matter present in sewage

C : Volatile Solids present in sewage

D : Oil and grease present in sewage

Q.no 4. In which of the following industry lime and sulphides are replaced by amines and
enzymes

A: Tanning industry

B: Sugar industry

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C: Dairy industry

D: Pulp and paper industry

Q.no 5. Anaerobic digestion is carried out in ____

A : Presence of oxygen

B : carbon dioxide

C : absence of oxygen

D : absence of carbon dioxide

Q.no 6. Out of Following which industry has highly acidic effluents

A : Distillery industry

B : Tanary Industry

C : Distillery Industry

D : Pulp and paper

Q.no 7. The design of oil/water separators is based on ________

A : Stoke’s law

B : Newton’s law

C : Boyle’s law

D : Charles’s law

Q.no 8. Which of the following is not a product of anaerobic digestion?

A : Water

B : oxygen

C : Carbon dioxide

D : Methane

Q.no 9. Which type of sampling done for wastewater collection at different intervals and mix the
same together?

A : Composite sample

B : Grab sample

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C : Composite & Grab Sample

D : Ordinary sample

Q.no 10. In UASB three phase settler separates----

A : Gas

B : liquid

C : Sludge particles

D : all of above

Q.no 11. Type of industrial waste water treatment depends upon

A : BOD/COD ratio.

B : Inorganic solids.

C : Toxicity index.

D : Chemical oxidation

Q.no 12. Which of the following is not a volatile organic compound?

A : Hydrochloric acid

B : Acetaldehyde

C : Formaldehyde

D : Dichloromethane

Q.no 13. For balanced growth of microorganisms in a biological treatment should be…....for
anaerobic treatment

A : 4.21186342592593

B : 4.21181712962963

C : 4.21183449074074

D : 100:2.5:0.5

Q.no 14. For balanced growth of microorganisms in a biological treatment should be…....for
aerobic treatment

A : 4.17019675925926

B : 4.170150462962963

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C : 4.170167824074074

D : 100:2.5:0.5

Q.no 15. The detention period of oxidation pond is

A : 12-36 hours

B : 4 hours

C : 10-20 days

D : 30-40 days

Q.no 16. The clear spacing between the bars of coarse screen is

A : 25-75 mm

B : 10-20 mm

C : 10-40 mm

D : 100-150 mm

Q.no 17. Grit in sewage is defined as,

A : Organic particles of size up to 5mm

B : Organic particles of size greater than 5mm

C : Coarse inorganic particles of size greater than 5mm

D : Inorganic particles such as fine sand, glass and metal fragments of size up to 2mm

Q.no 18. Which of the following is a disadvantage of a separate water carriage system?

A : Low installation charge

B : No loads on treatment units

C : Lesser air contact with small sized sewer

D : Provision of the automatic flushing tank is not required

Q.no 19. _______ provides only one sewer to carry both foul sewage and rainwater.

A : Separate water carriage system

B : Combined water carriage system

C : Partially combined water carriage system


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D : Conservancy system

Q.no 20. In which of the industrial waste water the proportion of phosphorus and nitrogen is
high

A : Sugar Waste water

B : Dairy waste water.

C : Textile waste water

D : Tanery waste water.

Q.no 21. In sugar manufacturing process, the partially crystallized syrup from the vaccum pan is
known as

A : Massecuite

B : bagasses

C : mollases

D : sludge

Q.no 22. Detention period for septic tank is

A : 24 hr- 48 hr.

B : 24 hr - 32 hr.

C : 12 hr. - 24 hr.

D : 6 hr. - 12 hr.

Q.no 23. Aerated lagoon can be designed similar to

A : ASP

B : Trickling filter

C : RBC

D : MBR

Q.no 24. The settling velocity of spherical particle is given by ____________

A : Darcy Weisbach equation

B : Hazen and William equation

C : Stokes equation

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D : Bernoulli’s equation

Q.no 25. The organic acids produced in anaerobic ponds are

A : sulphur oxides

B : methane and carbon dioxide

C : methane

D : nitrogen oxides

Q.no 26. Following is not a part of industrial waste water for chemical treatment

A : Chemical oxidation

B : Trickling filter.

C : Adsorption.

D : Thermal reduction

Q.no 27. Screens are inclined to the direction of flow to ____________

A : Increase the flow velocity

B : Increase the opening area

C : Decrease the flow velocity

D : Increase the head loss

Q.no 28. Which treatment is required if ((BOD/COD)>0.3)

A : Biological treatment without acclimatisation.

B : Biological treatment with acclimatisation.

C : Chemical Treatment

D : Thermal treatment.

Q.no 29. The process to balance the excess acidity or alkalinity in water is

A : Neutralization

B : Stabilization

C: Equalization

D : Sedimentation
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Q.no 30. Stone ware pipes are ____.

A : Highly resistant to sulphide corrosion

B : Highly impervious

C : Hydraulically efficient because of their smooth interior surface

D : Especially suited to pressure pipes

Q.no 31. The head loss through the screen is given by HL = k* (V2 – Va2), where V and Va are
velocities through the screen and approach velocity in the screen channel respectively. What is
the value of constant K in above formula?

A : 0055

B : 0729

C : 0.156

D : 047

Q.no 32. In sugar manufacturing process, the fibrous residue of the mill house is called as

A : Massecuite

B : bagasses

C : mollases

D : sludge

Q.no 33. What is the type of filter used in the septic tank when the rate of percolation is 90
minutes?

A : Slow sand filter

B : Rapid sand filter

C : Biological filter

D : Trickling filter

Q.no 34. In oxidation ponds, algae uses carbon dioxide

A : for growth

B : for decomposition

C : for aeration

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D : for survival

Q.no 35. What is the volumetric organic loading in Kg COD/ m3 day for an anaerobic contact
digestion process?

A : 1-8%

B : 8-10%

C : 18-30%

D : 15-30%

Q.no 36. As per CPCB norms permissible limit of oil & grease for sugar industry effluent is

A : 50

B : 100

C : 10

D : 30

Q.no 37. In sewers the highest non-scouring velocity is achieved in _____sewers.

A : Glazed bricks

B : Cast iron

C : Cement concrete

D : Stone ware

Q.no 38. The depth of aerobic ponds is

A : 2 m to 2.5 m

B : 3 m to 3.2 m

C : 1 m to 1.2 m

D : 4 m to 5 m

Q.no 39. For design of sewers, percentage of sewage discharge is assumed to be _____.

A : 65-70

B : 70-75

C : 75-80

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D : 85

Q.no 40. Which bacteria are responcible to break down large organic compounds and converting
them to organic acid

A : Fungi

B : facultative bacteria

C : acidiogenic bacteria

D : non of all

Q.no 41. For efficient working of a sewer, it must be ensured that ____.

A : Minimum velocity of 0.45 m/sec is maintained at its minimum flow

B : A maximum velocity of 0.90 m/sec is maintained at its maximum flow

C : Both (1) and (2)

D : Neither (1) and (2)

Q.no 42. The design solid surface loading in an activated sludge process is ___________

A : 10 kg/m2/day

B : 25 kg/m2/day

C : 15 kg/m2/day

D : 35 kg/m2/day

Q.no 43. The sludge produced in aerated lagoon is

A : less than that in oxidation pond

B : more than that in oxidation pond

C : equal to oxidation pond

D : equal to ASP

Q.no 44. Molassess is the waste generated out of

A : Sugar Waste water

B : Dairy waste water.

C : Textile waste water

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D : Tanery waste water.

Q.no 45. Segregation of strong wastewater from weak wastewater may also sometimes help in
reducing problems in industrial waste water treatment

A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 46. What is the COD loading rate assumed for an Up flow anaerobic sludge blanket
(UASB)?

A : 4-12 Kg COD/m3

B : 12-20 Kg COD/m3

C : 2-4 Kg COD/m3

D : 20-25 Kg COD/m3

Q.no 47. If the depletion of oxygen is found to be 2.5 mg/l after incubating 2.5 ml of sewage
diluted to 250 ml for 5 days at 20 degree celcius, B.O.D. of the sewage is ____mg/l.

A : 50

B : 100

C : 200

D : 250

Q.no 48. The sewer that unloads the sewage at the point of treatment is called ____sewer.

A : Main

B : Outfall

C : Branch

D : House

Q.no 49. By addition of compressed Co2 to waste water having High pH controls the acidity and
alkalinity

A : true

B : false

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C:

D:

Q.no 50. In dairy indusrty, the wastewater is not generated from

A : Creamery unit

B : Butter plant

C : Cooling tower

D : Casein plant

Q.no 51. The gas which may cause explosion in sewers is ____.

A : Carbon dioxide

B : Methane

C : Ammonia

D : Carbon monoxide

Q.no 52. As per CPCB, COD norms for discharge in marine water is

A: 250 ppm

B : 350 ppm

C: 500 ppm

D: 100 ppm

Q.no 53. In sugar manufacturing process, the wastewater is generated from

A : Mill house

B : Vaccum pan

C : Crystallizer centrifuge

D : Fibrizor

Q.no 54. The correcion to elevation is

A : 1+0.001EL

B : 1+0.003EL

C : 1+0.03EL
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D : 1+0.08EL

Q.no 55. What is the solid loading rate in kg/ m2.d considered while designing a thickener to
treat the sludge from air- activated sludge process?

A : 100%

B : 17%

C : 20-40%

D : 10%

Q.no 56. What is the thickened concentration of anaerobically digested primary sludge from
primary digestor?

A : 1-3%

B : 12%

C : 15%

D : 5%

Q.no 57. What is the duration of sludge in tanks for mesophilic anaerobic digestion?

A : 10 days

B : 12 days

C : 15 days

D : 30 days

Q.no 58. For the purpose of oxidation air is injected to the mixed basin for –

A : To Reduce the compounds of chemical oxidation.

B : To minimize fluctuations.

C : To increase the oxygen content.

D : for mechanical Agitation.

Q.no 59. Concentration of suspended solids in raw sewage is ----

A : 200- 250 mg/l

B : 110- 250 mg/l

C : 150- 250 mg/l

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D : 100- 250 mg/l

Q.no 60. Treated effluent obtained from primary clarifier consist of following impurities,

A : fine and colloidal suspended solids, all dissolved solids (organic and inorganic)

B : Only dissolved solids(organic and inorganic)

C : all suspended solids

D : only inorganic suspended solids

Q.no 1. Which of the following parameter of waste water required to determine on site

A: BOD

B : COD

C : DO

D : COLOUR

Q.no 2. The area for one unit of oxidation pond is

A : 3 ha

B : 0.5 ha

C : 5 ha

D : 8 ha

Q.no 3. The choice of combined water carriage system does not depend on ____________

A : Space consideration

B : Even rainfall pattern

C : Steep topography

D : Pumping requirements

Q.no 4. Characteristics of Industrial waste water varries from process to process even in the
same industry

A : true

B : false

C:

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D:

Q.no 5. UASB can be applicable for ------

A : Distillery industry

B : sugar industry

C : pulp and paper

D : all of above

Q.no 6. The principle of working of screen chamber is

A : Removal of heavy particles by sedimentation

B : Removal of large floating solids by size gradation

C : Removal of heavy particles by floatation

D : Removal of fine particles by coagulation

Q.no 7. What is the colour of septic wastewater?

A : Grey

B : Black

C : Light brown

D: Dark brown

Q.no 8. The spacing between the bars in racks is ____________

A : 30mm

B : 50mm

C : 70mm

D : 90mm

Q.no 9. Which of the following is an advantage of the combined water carriage system?

A : There is more air in large sewer

B : There is the inclusion of storm water

C : There is difficulties in ventilation of large sewer

D : Overflowing of sewer
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Q.no 10. Which of the following is not correct with respect to the effects of acids on treatment
systems?

A : Destroy microbes

B : Upset anaerobic digester

C : Corrode structures

D : Interferes with settling

Q.no 11. The pH value of fresh sewage is usually ____.

A : Equal to 7

B : More than 7

C : Less than 7

D : Equal to zero

Q.no 12. For the COD test of sewage, organic matter is oxidised by potassium dichromate in the
presence of ____acid.

A : Sulphuric

B : Hydrocloric

C : Nitric

D : Amino

Q.no 13. The maximum spacing between the bars in medium screen is ____________

A : 40mm

B : 50mm

C : 70mm

D : 90mm

Q.no 14. The design velocity of flow of a detritus tank is ____________

A : 1m/Sec

B : 1.2m/Sec

C : 0.9m/Sec

D : 0.5m/Sec

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Q.no 15. What is the maximum pH that the bacteria can sustain in terms of alkalinity?

A:7

B : 7.5

C:8

D : 8.5

Q.no 16. What is the mixture of methane and carbon-dioxide of anaerobic digestion called?

A : Waste gases

B : Poisonous gas

C : Biogas

D : Carbo-methane

Q.no 17. Low cost treatment is commonly used in

A : urban areas

B : rural areas

C : semi urban areas

D : semi rural areas

Q.no 18. Which of the following methods are not used for the dispersion of the effluent out of a
septic tank?

A : Wetlands

B : Soak pit

C : Evapo-transpiration mound

D : Leach field

Q.no 19. What types of solids are removed by bar rack and screen chamber?

A : Inorganic suspended solids

B : Oil and grease

C : Large floating and suspended solids

D : Dissolved solids

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Q.no 20. The method of disposal for grit separated by grit channel is

A : by dumping in low lying area after washing with clean water

B : by incineration

C : by composting to compost and use as manure for growing crops

D : by open dumping over municipal land

Q.no 21. Tolerence limit for industrial effluents discharged into inland surface water for BOD
(mg/lit) is

A : 30 mg/lit

B : 35 mg/lit.

C : 25 mg/lit.

D : 20 mg/lit

Q.no 22. Facultative zone is present in

A : top

B : intermediate

C : bottom

D : near bottom

Q.no 23. What is the minimum excess amount of chlorine required to corrode equipment?

A : 30mg/L

B : 40mg/L

C : 50mg/L

D : 60mg/L

Q.no 24. In very first stage of decomposition of the organic matter in sewage, ______.

A : Nitrites are formed

B : Nitrates are formed

C : Carbondioxide is formed

D : Ammonia is formed

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Q.no 25. Trickling filter is …..method of treatment

A: Chemical

B : Physical

C: Biological

D : Equalization

Q.no 26. As per CPCB norms permissible limit of suspended solids for dairy industry effluent is

A : 200

B : 150

C : 300

D : 100

Q.no 27. Biological Treatment is suggested for Dairy Industry.

A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 28. Primary sedimentation tanks are designed by using the detention time of

A : 0.50-1.00 hours

B : 2.0-3.0 hours

C : 4.0-6.0 hours

D : 8.0-10.0 hours

Q.no 29. High rate of Tricking filters are required in which industrial waste water treatment
plant

A : Sugar industry.

B : Dairy industry.

C : Distilery industry.

D : Textile industry.

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Q.no 30. In anaerobic ponds, the bacteria produces

A : organic acids

B : inorganic acids

C : solids

D : semi solids

Q.no 31. COD of Distillery waste water can be in the range of

A : 500-1000 mg/lit

B : 1000-1500 mg/lit

C : 1500-2000 mg/lit

D : 50000-100000 mg/lit

Q.no 32. Which of the following method is used for biological treatment

A : Trickling Filter.

B : Reverse Osmosis.

C : Chlorination.

D : Electodylisis

Q.no 33. The temperature affects _____.

A : Biological activity of bacteria in sewage

B : Solubility of gases in sewage

C : Viscosity of sewage

D : All of these

Q.no 34. Which of the following is correct regarding water carriage system?

A : Chances of the epidemic is there

B : Foul smell is produced

C : Does not cause pollution

D : Highly dependent on labours

Q.no 35. In distillery waste water BOD is


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A : Very high.

B : Very low.

C : Medium

D : Moderate

Q.no 36. In areas where light rains are uniformly distributed throughout the year, the type of
sewerage system to be adopted is ____system.

A : Separate

B : Combined

C : Partially separate

D : Partially combined

Q.no 37. In case of secondary settling tank solids do not generally exceed ----

A : 0.4- 5%

B : 0.3-5%

C : 0.5-1%

D : 0.4-10%

Q.no 38. As per CPCB norms permissible limit of oil & grease for dairy industry effluent is

A : 15

B : 35

C : 50

D : 10

Q.no 39. The treatment flow sheet for primary treatment is

A : Primary sedimentation tank-screen chamber-skimming tank –great chamber

B : Grit chamber – skimming tank-primary sedimentation tank-screen chamber

C : Skimming tank-primary sedimentation tank-screen chamber-grit chamber

D : Screen chamber-grit chamber-skimming tank-primary sedimentation tank

Q.no 40. The most efficient cross-section of sewers in a combined sewerage system is ____.

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A : Parabolic

B : Circular

C : Rectangular

D : New egged

Q.no 41. A clarified effluent is extracted from the ______ of the reactor.

A : Top

B : side

C : bottom

D : central pipe

Q.no 42. For paper and pulp industry the ratio of BOD/COD is

A : high

B : low

C : medium

D : extremely low

Q.no 43. The CPCB discharge standard for TSS in public sewer is

A : 250 mg/lit

B : 500 mg/lit

C: 600 mg/lit

D : 1000 mg/lit

Q.no 44. Determine the weir overflow rate for a circular sedimentation tank of diameter 30m if
design flow is12000m3/d,

A : Weir overflow rate=220.80 m3/m/d

B : Weir overflow rate=180.08 m3/m/d

C : Weir overflow rate=200 m3/m/d

D : Weir overflow rate=127.32 m3/m/d

Q.no 45. Which is the major polluting component of the distilleries?

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A : yeast

B : bagasses

C : spent wash

D : mollases

Q.no 46. Gas production in anaerobic digesters is ---

A : 05.-0.9 m3/kg

B : 05.-2 m3/kg

C : 05.-4 m3/kg

D : 01.-12 m3/kg

Q.no 47. Determine the dimensions primary sedimentation tank(Circular) using flowing data;
Design flow=10000 m3/d, Surface overflow rate=25 m/d, detention time=2 hours

A : Diameter (D) =30m, flow depth (d)=2.5m

B : Diameter (D)=15 m, flow depth(d)=2.5m

C : Diameter (D) =30.6 m, flow depth(d)=2.56m

D : Diameter (D) =22.57m, flow depth (d)=2.08 m

Q.no 48. The aerobic digestion of sewage is utilized in the production of

A : metal articles

B : biofuels

C : biomass

D : synthetic fuels

Q.no 49. Phytovolatilization is the removal of contaminants through exchange of gases

A : True

B : false

C : uncertain

D : neither true nor false

Q.no 50. ________ is treated in activated sludge reactor.

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A : Pre-treated sludge

B : Treated sludge

C : Macronutrients

D : Micro-organisms

Q.no 51. What is the upflow velocity considered for a UASB while treating partially soluble
COD?

A : 1-1.25 m/h

B : 1.5-2 m/h

C : 2-3 m/h

D : 3-4 m/h

Q.no 52. The density of population over 40 hectares is 250/hectare. If water supply demand per
day is 200 liters and sewage discharge is 80 percent of water supply, the sewage flow in sewers of
separate system is _____cumec.

A : 05552

B : 05554

C : 05556

D : 0556

Q.no 53. The function of algae in oxidation pond is to provide mat over the surface

A : True

B : false

C : uncertain

D : neither true nor false

Q.no 54. Determine the number of bars required for bar rack (Screen chamber) provided for
peak sewage flow of 0.75 m3/s. Take clear spacing between the bar=50mm , velocity through the
rack=0.75m/s, flow depth=0.8m.

A : Clear spaces=25 and number of bar=24

B : Clear spaces =25 and number of bars=25

C : Clear spaces =24 and number of bars=23

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D : Clear spaces =21 and number of bars=20

Q.no 55. In which industry Fibrizor unit is used?

A : Dairy

B : Sugar

C : Distillery

D : Fertilizer

Q.no 56. Determine the dimensions (L &B only) of grit chamber consisting two channels using
following data.
Design flow: 0.9 m3/s, Surface overflow rate=0.015m/s, L/B=10

A : L=10m, B-1.0m

B : L=20m, B=2.0m

C : L=17.3m, B=1.73m

D : L=15m, B=1.5m

Q.no 57. Equalization and Proportioning are the important components of industrial waste water
treatment

A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 58. If a 2 percent solution of sewage sample is incubated for 5 days at 20 degree celcius and
the dissolved oxygen depletion was found to be 8 mg/l. The BOD of the sewage is ____mg/l.

A : 100

B : 200

C : 300

D : 400

Q.no 59. In which industry Crystallizer is used?

A : Dairy

B : Sugar

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C : Distillery

D : Fertilizer

Q.no 60. If 2 percent solution of a sewage sample is incubated for 5 days at 20 degree celcius and
depletion of oxygen was found to be 5 ppm, B.O.D. of the sewage is ____ppm.

A : 200

B : 225

C : 250

D : 300

Q.no 1. For Fertilizer waste industry recommended standards of Arsenic should be

A : 1.7 mg/lit

B : 1.5 mg/lit

C : 1.9 mg/lit

D : 2.0 mg/lit

Q.no 2. What is full form of MBR

A : Member bioreactor

B : Membrane biosand reactor

C : Membrane bioreactor

D : Membrane reactor

Q.no 3. BOD/COD ratio of Pulp and Paper industry is

A : 09

B : 0.26

C : 0.5

D : 0.7

Q.no 4. Which of the following is an advantage of anaerobic digestion?

A : Capital cost

B : Time

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C : Space

D : Methane

Q.no 5. _______ provides only one sewer to carry both foul sewage and rainwater.

A : Separate water carriage system

B : Combined water carriage system

C : Partially combined water carriage system

D : Conservancy system

Q.no 6. The detention period of oxidation pond is

A : 12-36 hours

B : 4 hours

C : 10-20 days

D : 30-40 days

Q.no 7. The process which affects the high variation in volume of flow of waste water depends
upon

A : Interference.

B : High waste water discharge.

C : The hydraulic load.

D : Refraction of sunlight.

Q.no 8. The secondary clarifiers are ________

A : Circular

B : Rectangular

C : Square

D : Triangular

Q.no 9. _______ is the additional flow occurring during rainy season.

A : Gradually varied flow

B : Rapidly varied flow

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C : Dry weather flow

D : Storm water flow

Q.no 10. Techniques for processing waste sludge's depends on

A : Type of waste

B : size of plant

C : location of wastewater

D : all of above

Q.no 11. The sewer which received discharge from two or more main sewers, is known as
____sewer.

A : Trunk

B : Outfall

C : Main

D : Intercepting

Q.no 12. The BOD removal in oxidation pond is about

A : 60%

B : 70%

C : 90%

D : 100%

Q.no 13. Oxidation pond is one of the

A : expensive treatment

B : highly intensive treatment

C : low cost treatment

D : high maintenance treatment

Q.no 14. Grit in sewage is defined as,

A : Organic particles of size up to 5mm

B : Organic particles of size greater than 5mm

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C : Coarse inorganic particles of size greater than 5mm

D : Inorganic particles such as fine sand, glass and metal fragments of size up to 2mm

Q.no 15. The minimum design depth of oxidation pond is

A : 0.3 m

B:1m

C : 0.5 m

D:6m

Q.no 16. Which type of sampling done for wastewater collection at a same point and same time?

A : Composite sample

B : Grab sample

C : Composite & Grab Sample

D : Ordinary sample

Q.no 17. Which of the following processes is rarely used?

A : Composting

B : aerobic

C : incineration

D : anaerobic

Q.no 18. Which of the following is not a product of anaerobic digestion?

A : Water

B : oxygen

C : Carbon dioxide

D : Methane

Q.no 19. Which of the following is not a volatile organic compound?

A : Hydrochloric acid

B : Acetaldehyde

C : Formaldehyde
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D : Dichloromethane

Q.no 20. Depth for aerobic pond is kept

A : less

B : more

C : more than anaerobic pond

D : more than ASP

Q.no 21. The head loss through the screen is given by HL = k* (V2 – Va2), where V and Va are
velocities through the screen and approach velocity in the screen channel respectively. What is
the value of constant K in above formula?

A : 0055

B : 0729

C : 0.156

D : 047

Q.no 22. If D.O. concentration falls down to zero in any natural drainage, it indicates the zone of
_____.

A : Degradation

B : Active decomposition

C : Recovery

D : Cleaner water

Q.no 23. Bio-chemical oxygen demand (BOD) for the first 20 days is generally referred to
_____demand.

A : Initial

B : First stage

C : Carbonaceous

D : All of these

Q.no 24. Tolerence limit for industrial effluents discharged into inland surface water for TSS
(mg/lit) is

A : 150 mg/lit

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B : 100 mg/lit.

C : 125 mg/lit.

D : 200 mg/lit.

Q.no 25. Eutrophication in water bodies is caused by

A : toxic substances

B : excessive nutrients

C : excessive SS

D : excessive sludge

Q.no 26. Gas produced during anaerobic digestion is ----

A : Methane

B : carbon dioxide

C : methane, carbon dioxide and Hydrogen sulphide

D : Oxygen

Q.no 27. The settling velocity of spherical particle is given by ____________

A : Darcy Weisbach equation

B : Hazen and William equation

C : Stokes equation

D : Bernoulli’s equation

Q.no 28. The design period in years for pumping plants is _____.

A:1

B : 2 to 3

C : 3 to 5

D : 5 to 10

Q.no 29. In a shallow waste stabilization pond, waste is treated by

A : aerobic bacteria

B : algae
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C : aerobic bacteria and algae

D : facultative bacteria

Q.no 30. For design of sewers, percentage of sewage discharge is assumed to be _____.

A : 65-70

B : 70-75

C : 75-80

D : 85

Q.no 31. In which type of settling, sedimentation of discrete particles takes place?

A : Zone settling

B : Compression settling

C : Hindered settling

D : Discrete settling

Q.no 32. Process of equalization is applied for following reason

A : To dissolve Organic solids.

B : To increase the rate of digestion.

C : to minimize fluctuations.

D : To apply and prevent shock loading of biological system.

Q.no 33. Which bacteria are responcible to break down large organic compounds and converting
them to organic acid

A : Fungi

B : facultative bacteria

C : acidiogenic bacteria

D : non of all

Q.no 34. UASB system was developed by

A : Stoke’s

B : Henrry

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C : Lettinga and his workers

D : Chezy

Q.no 35. Sludge contain how much % solids

A : 0.25-10 %

B : 0.25 - 16 %

C : 0.5 -25 %

D : 0.25 - 30 %

Q.no 36. What is the minimum hydraulic retention time for UASB?

A : 1 hr.

B : 2 hr.

C : 3 hr.

D : 4 hr.

Q.no 37. As per CPCB norms permissible limit of total suspended solids for disposal in surface
waters for sugar industry effluent is

A : 50

B : 30

C : 100

D : 80

Q.no 38. What is the maximum capacity of medium screen in collecting solids?

A : 30L

B : 40L

C : 50L

D : 90L

Q.no 39. Tolerence limit for industrial effluents discharged into inland surface water

A : 200 mg/lit

B : 150 mg/lit.

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C : 250 mg/lit.

D : 300 mg/lit

Q.no 40. The process of controlling flow velocity and flow composition is

A : Flow neutralization

B : Flow equalization

C : sedimentation

D : Filtrtion

Q.no 41. Determine the surface overflow rate for circular sedimentation tank of diameter 24 m
provided for treatment of 12 MLD

A : 40.24 m/d

B : 30.80m/d

C : 26.53 m/d

D : 30.66 m/d

Q.no 42. Treated effluent obtained from primary clarifier consist of following impurities,

A : fine and colloidal suspended solids, all dissolved solids (organic and inorganic)

B : Only dissolved solids(organic and inorganic)

C : all suspended solids

D : only inorganic suspended solids

Q.no 43. How much % propionic acid formed in anaerobic digestion process

A : 20%

B : 10%

C : 15%

D : 5%

Q.no 44. Segregation of strong wastewater from weak wastewater may also sometimes help in
reducing problems in industrial waste water treatment

A : true

B : false

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C:

D:

Q.no 45. Which of the following is not a physical characteristic?

A : Colour

B : pH

C : Odour

D : Temperature

Q.no 46. What is the COD loading rate assumed for an Up flow anaerobic sludge blanket
(UASB)?

A : 4-12 Kg COD/m3

B : 12-20 Kg COD/m3

C : 2-4 Kg COD/m3

D : 20-25 Kg COD/m3

Q.no 47. Hydraulic mean radius is ____.

A : Mean radius of sewer.

B : Difference in heads between two points in circular pipes

C : Mean of radii in a pipe line of varying cross-sections

D : Cross-sectional area/wetted perimeter

Q.no 48. Molassess is the waste generated out of

A : Sugar Waste water

B : Dairy waste water.

C : Textile waste water

D : Tanery waste water.

Q.no 49. In dairy indusrty, the wastewater is not generated from

A : Creamery unit

B : Butter plant

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C : Cooling tower

D : Casein plant

Q.no 50. If the depletion of oxygen is found to be 2.5 mg/l after incubating 2.5 ml of sewage
diluted to 250 ml for 5 days at 20 degree celcius, B.O.D. of the sewage is ____mg/l.

A : 50

B : 100

C : 200

D : 250

Q.no 51. The surface area of oxidation pond for 1000 persons, flow rate 200 lpcd, BOD 300 mg/lit
and OLR 310 kg/day/ha is

A : 0.2 ha

B : 1 ha

C : 2 ha

D : 6 ha

Q.no 52. As per CPCB, COD norms for discharge in marine water is

A: 250 ppm

B : 350 ppm

C: 500 ppm

D: 100 ppm

Q.no 53. For efficient working of a sewer, it must be ensured that ____.

A : Minimum velocity of 0.45 m/sec is maintained at its minimum flow

B : A maximum velocity of 0.90 m/sec is maintained at its maximum flow

C : Both (1) and (2)

D : Neither (1) and (2)

Q.no 54. Detremination of sludge volume index is useful for deciding

A : COD/BOD ratio

B : BOD/TOC ratio

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C : COD/TOC ratio

D : Recirculation ratio

Q.no 55. The design solid surface loading in an activated sludge process is ___________

A : 10 kg/m2/day

B : 25 kg/m2/day

C : 15 kg/m2/day

D : 35 kg/m2/day

Q.no 56. Concentration of suspended solids in raw sewage is ----

A : 200- 250 mg/l

B : 110- 250 mg/l

C : 150- 250 mg/l

D : 100- 250 mg/l

Q.no 57. Recycling of metals can be done through harvesting plants

A : true

B : false

C : uncertain

D : neither true nor false

Q.no 58. By addition of compressed Co2 to waste water having High pH controls the acidity and
alkalinity

A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 59. What is the duration of sludge in tanks for mesophilic anaerobic digestion?

A : 10 days

B : 12 days

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C : 15 days

D : 30 days

Q.no 60. Which Industry contains high Ammonia and Urea

A : Tanary Industry

B : Sugar Industry

C : Fertilizer Industry

D : Textile industry

Q.no 1. The principle of working of screen chamber is

A : Removal of heavy particles by sedimentation

B : Removal of large floating solids by size gradation

C : Removal of heavy particles by floatation

D : Removal of fine particles by coagulation

Q.no 2. What is the minimum percentage of solids in wastewater?

A : 30%

B : 40%

C : 50%

D : 60%

Q.no 3. What is the maximum pH that the bacteria can sustain in terms of alkalinity?

A:7

B : 7.5

C:8

D : 8.5

Q.no 4. Phytoremediation can remove the contaminants

A : high concentration

B : low concentration

C : high toxicity
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D : high alkalinity

Q.no 5. The method of disposal for grit separated by grit channel is

A : by dumping in low lying area after washing with clean water

B : by incineration

C : by composting to compost and use as manure for growing crops

D : by open dumping over municipal land

Q.no 6. The disadvantage of aerated lagoon is that it

A : requires energy

B : requires high operating cost

C : requires maintenance

D : requires skilled labour

Q.no 7. For balanced growth of microorganisms in a biological treatment should be…....for


aerobic treatment

A : 4.17019675925926

B : 4.170150462962963

C : 4.170167824074074

D : 100:2.5:0.5

Q.no 8. Disposal of sludge can be carried out by using

A : Spreading on land

B : sludge lagooning

C : Dumping

D : all of above

Q.no 9. A method of retaining wastes in a basin until the effluent dischargeed is fairly uniform in
its sanitary characteristics is called

A : Neutralization Method

B : Equalization Method

C : Neutralization & Equalization Method

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D : Physical Treatment

Q.no 10. Self-cleansing velocity is ____.

A : Velocity at dry weather flow

B : Velocity of water at flushing

C : Velocity at which no accumulation remains in the drains

D : Velocity of water in a pressure filter

Q.no 11. For Sugar industry waste water treatment plant Neutralization tank required

A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 12. The pH value of fresh sewage is usually ____.

A : Equal to 7

B : More than 7

C : Less than 7

D : Equal to zero

Q.no 13. The capacity of sewage treatment plant is 15MLD.What is the capacity in m3/d?

A : 150 m3/d

B : 15000 m3/d

C : 1500 m3/d

D : 1500000 m3/d

Q.no 14. The commonly used velocity control device provided in grit chamber are

A : Parshall flume and Proportioning flow weir

B : Venturi meter

C : Hydraulic jump

D : V-notch
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Q.no 15. Strength reduction of industrial effluent is carried out by

A: Process change

B: Segregation of waste

C: Both a) and b)

D: None of above

Q.no 16. Phytoremediation uses to remove the contaminants

A : Plants

B : Bacteria

C : Algae

D : virus

Q.no 17. In which of the following industry lime and sulphides are replaced by amines and
enzymes

A: Tanning industry

B: Sugar industry

C: Dairy industry

D: Pulp and paper industry

Q.no 18. The method used for disposal of screenings removed by coarse screens is

A : by dumping in low lying area

B : by incineration

C : by open dumping in municipal land

D : by composting to compost and use as manure for crops

Q.no 19. The colour of effluent in paper and pulp industry is very dark

A : true

B : false

C:

D:

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Q.no 20. For the COD test of sewage, organic matter is oxidised by potassium dichromate in the
presence of ____acid.

A : Sulphuric

B : Hydrocloric

C : Nitric

D : Amino

Q.no 21. The treatment flow sheet for primary treatment is

A : Primary sedimentation tank-screen chamber-skimming tank –great chamber

B : Grit chamber – skimming tank-primary sedimentation tank-screen chamber

C : Skimming tank-primary sedimentation tank-screen chamber-grit chamber

D : Screen chamber-grit chamber-skimming tank-primary sedimentation tank

Q.no 22. The organic acids produced in anaerobic ponds are

A : sulphur oxides

B : methane and carbon dioxide

C : methane

D : nitrogen oxides

Q.no 23. The design period of sewage treatment works in normally _____years.

A : 5 to 10

B : 15 to 20

C : 30 to 40

D : 40 to 50

Q.no 24. The process to balance the excess acidity or alkalinity in water is

A : Neutralization

B : Stabilization

C: Equalization

D : Sedimentation

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Q.no 25. In sugar manufacturing process, the fibrous residue of the mill house is called as

A : Massecuite

B : bagasses

C : mollases

D : sludge

Q.no 26. In very first stage of decomposition of the organic matter in sewage, ______.

A : Nitrites are formed

B : Nitrates are formed

C : Carbondioxide is formed

D : Ammonia is formed

Q.no 27. In sugar manufacturing process, the partially crystallized syrup from the vaccum pan is
known as

A : Massecuite

B : bagasses

C : mollases

D : sludge

Q.no 28. The portion of oil and grease is more in

A : Sugar industry

B: Pulp and paper industry

C: Dairy industry

D : Tanning industry

Q.no 29. High rate of Tricking filters are required in which industrial waste water treatment
plant

A : Sugar industry.

B : Dairy industry.

C : Distilery industry.

D : Textile industry.

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Q.no 30. Which treatment is required if ((BOD/COD)>0.6)

A : Biological treatment without acclimatisation.

B : Biological treatment with acclimatisation.

C : Chemical Treatment

D : Thermal treatment.

Q.no 31. In facultative pond, aerobic conditions are present in

A : top

B : intermediate

C : bottom

D : near bottom

Q.no 32. What is the product gases released at the end of the UASB process?

A : Methane

B : Methane and carbon-dioxide

C : Oxygen and carbon-dioxide

D : Carbon-dioxide

Q.no 33. A well oxidized industrial waste water contains nitrogen mainly as

A : Nitrates

B : Nitrites

C : Free ammonia

D : Nitrogen

Q.no 34. Which flow is also called as sanitary sewage?

A : Dry weather flow

B : Storm weather flow

C : Uniform flow

D : Non uniform flow

Q.no 35. What is the function of two tanks provided in septic tank systems?
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A : Divide solids and liquid

B : Divide wastewater and water

C : Divide black and grey water

D : Store large amount of effluent

Q.no 36. Why lime treatment is require in manufacturing process of sugar industry?

A : to maintain colour

B : to change colour

C : to maintain taste

D : to remove colour

Q.no 37. Phytoextraction is absorption of contaminants through roots

A : false

B : true

C : uncertain

D : neither true nor false

Q.no 38. Oxidation pond loading rate is dependent upon the latitude of the area

A : True

B : false

C : uncertain

D : neither true nor false

Q.no 39. Which of the following is the performance of primary sedimentation tank?

A : Removal of 30-35% suspended solids from the sewage

B : Removal of 65-70% suspended solids from sewage

C : Removal of 90-100 % suspended solids from sewage

D : Removal of less than 50 % suspended solids from sewage

Q.no 40. The ratio of maximum sewage flow to average sewage flow for mains up to 1 m in
diameter is ____.

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A : 1.5

B:2

C:3

D:4

Q.no 41. The aerobic digestion of sewage is utilized in the production of

A : metal articles

B : biofuels

C : biomass

D : synthetic fuels

Q.no 42. The function of algae in oxidation pond is to provide mat over the surface

A : True

B : false

C : uncertain

D : neither true nor false

Q.no 43. The sewer that unloads the sewage at the point of treatment is called ____sewer.

A : Main

B : Outfall

C : Branch

D : House

Q.no 44. Gas production in anaerobic digesters is ---

A : 05.-0.9 m3/kg

B : 05.-2 m3/kg

C : 05.-4 m3/kg

D : 01.-12 m3/kg

Q.no 45. Determine the dimensions primary sedimentation tank(Circular) using flowing data;
Design flow=10000 m3/d, Surface overflow rate=25 m/d, detention time=2 hours

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A : Diameter (D) =30m, flow depth (d)=2.5m

B : Diameter (D)=15 m, flow depth(d)=2.5m

C : Diameter (D) =30.6 m, flow depth(d)=2.56m

D : Diameter (D) =22.57m, flow depth (d)=2.08 m

Q.no 46. The gas which may cause explosion in sewers is ____.

A : Carbon dioxide

B : Methane

C : Ammonia

D : Carbon monoxide

Q.no 47. ________ is treated in activated sludge reactor.

A : Pre-treated sludge

B : Treated sludge

C : Macronutrients

D : Micro-organisms

Q.no 48. If a 2 percent solution of sewage sample is incubated for 5 days at 20 degree celcius and
the dissolved oxygen depletion was found to be 8 mg/l. The BOD of the sewage is ____mg/l.

A : 100

B : 200

C : 300

D : 400

Q.no 49. Determine the number of bars required for bar rack (Screen chamber) provided for
peak sewage flow of 0.75 m3/s. Take clear spacing between the bar=50mm , velocity through the
rack=0.75m/s, flow depth=0.8m.

A : Clear spaces=25 and number of bar=24

B : Clear spaces =25 and number of bars=25

C : Clear spaces =24 and number of bars=23

D : Clear spaces =21 and number of bars=20

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Q.no 50. Equalization and Proportioning are the important components of industrial waste water
treatment

A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 51. The sludge produced in aerated lagoon is

A : less than that in oxidation pond

B : more than that in oxidation pond

C : equal to oxidation pond

D : equal to ASP

Q.no 52. In which industry Fibrizor unit is used?

A : Dairy

B : Sugar

C : Distillery

D : Fertilizer

Q.no 53. A clarified effluent is extracted from the ______ of the reactor.

A : Top

B : side

C : bottom

D : central pipe

Q.no 54. The correcion to elevation is

A : 1+0.001EL

B : 1+0.003EL

C : 1+0.03EL

D : 1+0.08EL

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Q.no 55. In which industry Crystallizer is used?

A : Dairy

B : Sugar

C : Distillery

D : Fertilizer

Q.no 56. The density of population over 40 hectares is 250/hectare. If water supply demand per
day is 200 liters and sewage discharge is 80 percent of water supply, the sewage flow in sewers of
separate system is _____cumec.

A : 05552

B : 05554

C : 05556

D : 0556

Q.no 57. What is the upflow velocity considered for a UASB while treating partially soluble
COD?

A : 1-1.25 m/h

B : 1.5-2 m/h

C : 2-3 m/h

D : 3-4 m/h

Q.no 58. In sugar manufacturing process, the wastewater is generated from

A : Mill house

B : Vaccum pan

C : Crystallizer centrifuge

D : Fibrizor

Q.no 59. Determine the dimensions (L &B only) of grit chamber consisting two channels using
following data.
Design flow: 0.9 m3/s, Surface overflow rate=0.015m/s, L/B=10

A : L=10m, B-1.0m

B : L=20m, B=2.0m

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C : L=17.3m, B=1.73m

D : L=15m, B=1.5m

Q.no 60. The CPCB discharge standard for TSS in public sewer is

A : 250 mg/lit

B : 500 mg/lit

C: 600 mg/lit

D : 1000 mg/lit

Q.no 1. Type of industrial waste water treatment depends upon

A : BOD/COD ratio.

B : Inorganic solids.

C : Toxicity index.

D : Chemical oxidation

Q.no 2. Which method is require to minimise excessive acidity or alkalinity of the particular
wastewater as per norms by adding alkali or acid respectively in wastewater?

A : Neutralization Method

B : Equalization Method

C : Neutralization & Equalization Method

D : Chemical Treatment

Q.no 3. The characteristics of Sugar industry effluent are

A: High pH

B : Low BOD

C : presence of Fixed Solids

D : Low COD

Q.no 4. Alcohol is recovered from which of the industry

A : Sugar Waste water

B : Dairy waste water.

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C : Textile waste water

D : Tanery waste water.

Q.no 5. The area for one unit of oxidation pond is

A : 3 ha

B : 0.5 ha

C : 5 ha

D : 8 ha

Q.no 6. Which of the following is a disadvantage of a separate water carriage system?

A : Low installation charge

B : No loads on treatment units

C : Lesser air contact with small sized sewer

D : Provision of the automatic flushing tank is not required

Q.no 7. What is full form of MBR

A : Member bioreactor

B : Membrane biosand reactor

C : Membrane bioreactor

D : Membrane reactor

Q.no 8. What is the mixture of methane and carbon-dioxide of anaerobic digestion called?

A : Waste gases

B : Poisonous gas

C : Biogas

D : Carbo-methane

Q.no 9. What types of solids are removed by bar rack and screen chamber?

A : Inorganic suspended solids

B : Oil and grease

C : Large floating and suspended solids


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D : Dissolved solids

Q.no 10. Which type of sampling done for wastewater collection at different intervals and mix
the same together?

A : Composite sample

B : Grab sample

C : Composite & Grab Sample

D : Ordinary sample

Q.no 11. The minimum spacing between the bars on fine screen is ____________

A : 0.3mm

B : 0.9mm

C : 1.5mm

D : 0.5mm

Q.no 12. The sample which are collected from point source is called as

A: Representative sample

B: Composite sample

C: Grab sample

D : Random Sample

Q.no 13. Inorganic suspended solids (grit) are removed from sewage by which of the following
treatment unit?

A : Screen chamber

B : Grit chamber

C : Primary sedimentation tank

D : Skimming tank

Q.no 14. What is the colour of septic wastewater?

A : Grey

B : Black

C : Light brown

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D: Dark brown

Q.no 15. Depth for aerobic pond is kept

A : less

B : more

C : more than anaerobic pond

D : more than ASP

Q.no 16. _______ provides only one sewer to carry both foul sewage and rainwater.

A : Separate water carriage system

B : Combined water carriage system

C : Partially combined water carriage system

D : Conservancy system

Q.no 17. The design velocity of flow of a detritus tank is ____________

A : 1m/Sec

B : 1.2m/Sec

C : 0.9m/Sec

D : 0.5m/Sec

Q.no 18. What is the full form of UASB

A : Upflow anaerobic Sludge Blanket

B : Upflow aerobic Sludge Blanket

C : Upflow aerobic Sewage Blanket

D : Upflow anaerobic Sewage Blanket

Q.no 19. Which of the following device is used for the removal of oil and grease?

A : Skimming tank

B : Grit chambers

C : Tube settlers

D : Flocculator
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Q.no 20. UASB can be applicable for ------

A : Distillery industry

B : sugar industry

C : pulp and paper

D : all of above

Q.no 21. The depth of aerobic ponds is

A : 2 m to 2.5 m

B : 3 m to 3.2 m

C : 1 m to 1.2 m

D : 4 m to 5 m

Q.no 22. Bio-chemical oxygen demand (BOD) for the first 20 days is generally referred to
_____demand.

A : Initial

B : First stage

C : Carbonaceous

D : All of these

Q.no 23. Coagulation tank are provided in which industrial waste water treatment plant

A : Sugar industry.

B : Dairy industry.

C : Distilery industry.

D : Textile industry.

Q.no 24. In sewers the highest non-scouring velocity is achieved in _____sewers.

A : Glazed bricks

B : Cast iron

C : Cement concrete

D : Stone ware

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Q.no 25. Lignin is present in which one of the industrial waste water

A : Sugar industry

B : Dairy industry

C : Distilery industry.

D : Paper and pulp industry

Q.no 26. In facultative pond,anaerobic conditions are present in

A : top

B : intermediate

C : bottom

D : near bottom

Q.no 27. Which of the following is correct regarding water carriage system?

A : Chances of the epidemic is there

B : Foul smell is produced

C : Does not cause pollution

D : Highly dependent on labours

Q.no 28. As per CPCB norms permissible limit of BOD (3 days at 27degree celsius) for disposal
in surface waters for sugar industry effluent is

A : 30

B : 50

C : 100

D : 150

Q.no 29. Tolerance limit for industrial effluents discharged into inland surface water for Copper
(mg/lit) is

A : 3.0 mg/lit

B : 4.0 mg/lit

C : 7.0 mg/lit

D : 5.0 mg/lit

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Q.no 30. The maximum BOD removal efficiency of an oxidation pond is

A : 90%

B : 68%

C : 70%

D : 95%

Q.no 31. Aerated lagoon can be designed similar to

A : ASP

B : Trickling filter

C : RBC

D : MBR

Q.no 32. What is the type of filter used in the septic tank when the rate of percolation is 90
minutes?

A : Slow sand filter

B : Rapid sand filter

C : Biological filter

D : Trickling filter

Q.no 33. Stabilization is the effective wastewater treatment system for effluent use in agriculture

A : True

B : false

C : Uncertain

D : neither true nor false

Q.no 34. The amount of oxygen consumed by the aerobic bacterias which cause the aerobic
biological decomposition of sewage, is known as _____.

A : BOD

B : DO

C : COD

D : TOC

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Q.no 35. The usual detention time for best performance of grit removal is

A : 40-90 seconds

B : 1-2 hours

C : 30-60 minutes

D : 10-15 minutes

Q.no 36. The mutual relationship between bacteria and algae is called

A : symbiosis

B : eutrophication

C : elutriation

D : conditioning

Q.no 37. What is the minimum excess amount of chlorine required to corrode equipment?

A : 30mg/L

B : 40mg/L

C : 50mg/L

D : 60mg/L

Q.no 38. Why is the sludge aerated?

A : To avoid bacterial growth

B : To increase bacterial growth

C : To maintain pH

D : To maintain temperature

Q.no 39. Hydraulic retention time (H.R.T) for a treatment unit is defined as

A : HRT=V/Q

B : HRT=Q/V

C : HRT=QV

D : HRT=V-Q

Q.no 40. Detention period for septic tank is


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A : 24 hr- 48 hr.

B : 24 hr - 32 hr.

C : 12 hr. - 24 hr.

D : 6 hr. - 12 hr.

Q.no 41. Phytovolatilization is the removal of contaminants through exchange of gases

A : True

B : false

C : uncertain

D : neither true nor false

Q.no 42. What is the solid loading rate in kg/ m2.d considered while designing a thickener to
treat the sludge from air- activated sludge process?

A : 100%

B : 17%

C : 20-40%

D : 10%

Q.no 43. For paper and pulp industry the ratio of BOD/COD is

A : high

B : low

C : medium

D : extremely low

Q.no 44. Determine the weir overflow rate for a circular sedimentation tank of diameter 30m if
design flow is12000m3/d,

A : Weir overflow rate=220.80 m3/m/d

B : Weir overflow rate=180.08 m3/m/d

C : Weir overflow rate=200 m3/m/d

D : Weir overflow rate=127.32 m3/m/d

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Q.no 45. Segregation of strong wastewater from weak wastewater may also sometimes help in
reducing problems in industrial waste water treatment

A : true

B : false

C:

D:

Q.no 46. The design solid surface loading in an activated sludge process is ___________

A : 10 kg/m2/day

B : 25 kg/m2/day

C : 15 kg/m2/day

D : 35 kg/m2/day

Q.no 47. Determine the surface overflow rate for circular sedimentation tank of diameter 24 m
provided for treatment of 12 MLD

A : 40.24 m/d

B : 30.80m/d

C : 26.53 m/d

D : 30.66 m/d

Q.no 48. For the purpose of oxidation air is injected to the mixed basin for –

A : To Reduce the compounds of chemical oxidation.

B : To minimize fluctuations.

C : To increase the oxygen content.

D : for mechanical Agitation.

Q.no 49. If the depletion of oxygen is found to be 2.5 mg/l after incubating 2.5 ml of sewage
diluted to 250 ml for 5 days at 20 degree celcius, B.O.D. of the sewage is ____mg/l.

A : 50

B : 100

C : 200

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D : 250

Q.no 50. Detremination of sludge volume index is useful for deciding

A : COD/BOD ratio

B : BOD/TOC ratio

C : COD/TOC ratio

D : Recirculation ratio

Q.no 51. Molassess is the waste generated out of

A : Sugar Waste water

B : Dairy waste water.

C : Textile waste water

D : Tanery waste water.

Q.no 52. What is the duration of sludge in tanks for mesophilic anaerobic digestion?

A : 10 days

B : 12 days

C : 15 days

D : 30 days

Q.no 53. Which Industry contains high Ammonia and Urea

A : Tanary Industry

B : Sugar Industry

C : Fertilizer Industry

D : Textile industry

Q.no 54. What is the thickened concentration of anaerobically digested primary sludge from
primary digestor?

A : 1-3%

B : 12%

C : 15%

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D : 5%

Q.no 55. Which of the following is not a physical characteristic?

A : Colour

B : pH

C : Odour

D : Temperature

Q.no 56. For efficient working of a sewer, it must be ensured that ____.

A : Minimum velocity of 0.45 m/sec is maintained at its minimum flow

B : A maximum velocity of 0.90 m/sec is maintained at its maximum flow

C : Both (1) and (2)

D : Neither (1) and (2)

Q.no 57. As per CPCB, COD norms for discharge in marine water is

A: 250 ppm

B : 350 ppm

C: 500 ppm

D: 100 ppm

Q.no 58. If 2 percent solution of a sewage sample is incubated for 5 days at 20 degree celcius and
depletion of oxygen was found to be 5 ppm, B.O.D. of the sewage is ____ppm.

A : 200

B : 225

C : 250

D : 300

Q.no 59. In dairy indusrty, the wastewater is not generated from

A : Creamery unit

B : Butter plant

C : Cooling tower

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D : Casein plant

Q.no 60. …...is the basis of BOD test

A : COD

B : DO

C : Colour

D : TSS

Q.no 1. pH of dairy waste water ranges in between

A : 8.6-9.5

B : 3.2-4.5

C : 7.2-8

D : 8.5-10.2

Q.no 2. Low cost treatment is commonly used in

A : urban areas

B : rural areas

C : semi urban areas

D : semi rural areas

Q.no 3. Which industrial effluent contains phenol

A : Distillery industry

B : dairy industry

C : Petrochemical industry

D : Pulp and paper industry

Q.no 4. Disposal of sludge can be carried out by using

A : Spreading on land

B : sludge lagooning

C : Dumping

D : all of above
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Q.no 5. Which of the following is an advantage of anaerobic digestion?

A : Capital cost

B : Time

C : Space

D : Methane

Q.no 6. Grit in sewage is defined as,

A : Organic particles of size up to 5mm

B : Organic particles of size greater than 5mm

C : Coarse inorganic particles of size greater than 5mm

D : Inorganic particles such as fine sand, glass and metal fragments of size up to 2mm

Q.no 7. Salient features of UASB process are

A : low cost

B : low operating power

C : easy operation

D : all of above

Q.no 8. The clear spacing between the bars of coarse screen is

A : 25-75 mm

B : 10-20 mm

C : 10-40 mm

D : 100-150 mm

Q.no 9. Which of the following processes is rarely used?

A : Composting

B : aerobic

C : incineration

D : anaerobic

Q.no 10. Which type of sampling done for wastewater collection at a same point and same time?
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A : Composite sample

B : Grab sample

C : Composite & Grab Sample

D : Ordinary sample

Q.no 11. Which of the following factor does not effect the dry weather flow?

A : Rate of water supply

B : Temperature conditions

C : Population growth

D : Infiltration of ground water

Q.no 12. The capacity of sewage treatment plant is 15MLD.What is the capacity in m3/d?

A : 150 m3/d

B : 15000 m3/d

C : 1500 m3/d

D : 1500000 m3/d

Q.no 13. Phytoremediation uses to remove the contaminants

A : Plants

B : Bacteria

C : Algae

D : virus

Q.no 14. The choice of combined water carriage system does not depend on ____________

A : Space consideration

B : Even rainfall pattern

C : Steep topography

D : Pumping requirements

Q.no 15. Aerated lagoon is a type of

A : conventional
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B : advanced system

C : low cost treatment system

D : secondary system

Q.no 16. The disadvantage of aerated lagoon is that it

A : requires energy

B : requires high operating cost

C : requires maintenance

D : requires skilled labour

Q.no 17. For the COD test of sewage, organic matter is oxidised by potassium dichromate in the
presence of ____acid.

A : Sulphuric

B : Hydrocloric

C : Nitric

D : Amino

Q.no 18. The principle of working of screen chamber is

A : Removal of heavy particles by sedimentation

B : Removal of large floating solids by size gradation

C : Removal of heavy particles by floatation

D : Removal of fine particles by coagulation

Q.no 19. The method used for disposal of screenings removed by coarse screens is

A : by dumping in low lying area

B : by incineration

C : by open dumping in municipal land

D : by composting to compost and use as manure for crops

Q.no 20. Which of the following impurities are removed by primary sedimentation tank in a
sewage treatment plant?

A : Heavy organic suspended solids

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B : Large floating solids

C : Grit particles

D : Dissolved organic solids

Q.no 21. Which flow is also called as sanitary sewage?

A : Dry weather flow

B : Storm weather flow

C : Uniform flow

D : Non uniform flow

Q.no 22. What is the thickened concentration of the primary sludge?

A : 1-2%

B : 2-3%

C : 3-5%

D : 5-10%

Q.no 23. Primary sedimentation tanks are designed by using the detention time of

A : 0.50-1.00 hours

B : 2.0-3.0 hours

C : 4.0-6.0 hours

D : 8.0-10.0 hours

Q.no 24. What is the volumetric organic loading in Kg COD/ m3 day for an anaerobic contact
digestion process?

A : 1-8%

B : 8-10%

C : 18-30%

D : 15-30%

Q.no 25. High rate of Tricking filters are required in which industrial waste water treatment
plant

A : Sugar industry.

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B : Dairy industry.

C : Distilery industry.

D : Textile industry.

Q.no 26. Bacterial algal symbiosis is observed in

A : ASP

B : Trickling filter

C : Oxidation pond

D : RBC

Q.no 27. Screens are inclined to the direction of flow to ____________

A : Increase the flow velocity

B : Increase the opening area

C : Decrease the flow velocity

D : Increase the head loss

Q.no 28. _________ is the flow through sewers available during non-rainfall period.

A : Gradually varied flow

B : Rapidly varied flow

C : Dry weather flow

D : Storm water flow

Q.no 29. For measurement of settable solids, the apparatus used is ____.

A : Jar

B : Beaker

C : Test tube

D : Imhoff cone

Q.no 30. Which are the three ingredients in activated sludge systems?

A : Cells, sewage and oxygen

B : Cells, sewage and nitrogen


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C : Solids, sewage and oxygen

D : Solids, water and oxygen

Q.no 31. If D.O. concentration falls down to zero in any natural drainage, it indicates the zone of
_____.

A : Degradation

B : Active decomposition

C : Recovery

D : Cleaner water

Q.no 32. TSS recommended for the industrial effluents discharged into inland surface water
body

A : 100 mg/lit

B : 200 mg/lit

C : 300 mg/lit

D : 400 mg/lit

Q.no 33. For dairy waste industry recommended standards fo heavy oil and grease should be

A : 100-200 mg/lit

B : 200-300 mg/lit

C : 300-400 mg/lit

D : 400-500 mg/lit

Q.no 34. What is the range of retention time during anaerobic digestion?

A : 10-20 days

B : 20-30 days

C : 40-80 days

D : 40-100 days

Q.no 35. In distillery waste water BOD is

A : Very high.

B : Very low.

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C : Medium

D : Moderate

Q.no 36. How many steps are present in anaerobic digestion?

A:1

B:2

C:3

D:4

Q.no 37. The minimum depth of water to be kept in oxidation pond

A : 0.3 m

B : 0.5 m

C:1m

D : 4 m to 5 m

Q.no 38. Find the correct sentence related to anaerobic digestion

A : anaerobic decomposition prodces considerably less biomass than aerobic processes

B : anaerobic decomposition prodces considerably more biomass than aerobic processes

C : anaerobic decomposition prodces equal biomass than aerobic processes

D : non of all

Q.no 39. Which of the following method is used for biological treatment

A : Trickling Filter.

B : Reverse Osmosis.

C : Chlorination.

D : Electodylisis

Q.no 40. What is the maximum capacity of medium screen in collecting solids?

A : 30L

B : 40L

C : 50L
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D : 90L

Q.no 41. What is the COD loading rate assumed for an Up flow anaerobic sludge blanket
(UASB)?

A : 4-12 Kg COD/m3

B : 12-20 Kg COD/m3

C : 2-4 Kg COD/m3

D : 20-25 Kg COD/m3

Q.no 42. Recycling of metals can be done through harvesting plants

A : true

B : false

C : uncertain

D : neither true nor false

Q.no 43. Determine the number of bars required for bar rack (Screen chamber) provided for
peak sewage flow of 0.75 m3/s. Take clear spacing between the bar=50mm , velocity through the
rack=0.75m/s, flow depth=0.8m.

A : Clear spaces=25 and number of bar=24

B : Clear spaces =25 and number of bars=25

C : Clear spaces =24 and number of bars=23

D : Clear spaces =21 and number of bars=20

Q.no 44. The sludge produced in aerated lagoon is

A : less than that in oxidation pond

B : more than that in oxidation pond

C : equal to oxidation pond

D : equal to ASP

Q.no 45. Determine the dimensions primary sedimentation tank(Circular) using flowing data;
Design flow=10000 m3/d, Surface overflow rate=25 m/d, detention time=2 hours

A : Diameter (D) =30m, flow depth (d)=2.5m

B : Diameter (D)=15 m, flow depth(d)=2.5m

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C : Diameter (D) =30.6 m, flow depth(d)=2.56m

D : Diameter (D) =22.57m, flow depth (d)=2.08 m

Q.no 46. The function of algae in oxidation pond is to provide mat over the surface

A : True

B : false

C : uncertain

D : neither true nor false

Q.no 47. Gas production in anaerobic digesters is ---

A : 05.-0.9 m3/kg

B : 05.-2 m3/kg

C : 05.-4 m3/kg

D : 01.-12 m3/kg

Q.no 48. Which is the major polluting component of the distilleries?

A : yeast

B : bagasses

C : spent wash

D : mollases

Q.no 49. If a 2 percent solution of sewage sample is incubated for 5 days at 20 degree celcius and
the dissolved oxygen depletion was found to be 8 mg/l. The BOD of the sewage is ____mg/l.

A : 100

B : 200

C : 300

D : 400

Q.no 50. What is the upflow velocity considered for a UASB while treating partially soluble
COD?

A : 1-1.25 m/h

B : 1.5-2 m/h

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C : 2-3 m/h

D : 3-4 m/h

Q.no 51. In which industry Casein plant is used?

A : Dairy

B : Sugar

C : Distillery

D : Fertilizer

Q.no 52. The density of population over 40 hectares is 250/hectare. If water supply demand per
day is 200 liters and sewage discharge is 80 percent of water supply, the sewage flow in sewers of
separate system is _____cumec.

A : 05552

B : 05554

C : 05556

D : 0556

Q.no 53. In sugar manufacturing process, the wastewater is generated from

A : Mill house

B : Vaccum pan

C : Crystallizer centrifuge

D : Fibrizor

Q.no 54. Concentration of suspended solids in raw sewage is ----

A : 200- 250 mg/l

B : 110- 250 mg/l

C : 150- 250 mg/l

D : 100- 250 mg/l

Q.no 55. The sewer that unloads the sewage at the point of treatment is called ____sewer.

A : Main

B : Outfall

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C : Branch

D : House

Q.no 56. Hydraulic mean radius is ____.

A : Mean radius of sewer.

B : Difference in heads between two points in circular pipes

C : Mean of radii in a pipe line of varying cross-sections

D : Cross-sectional area/wetted perimeter

Q.no 57. How much % propionic acid formed in anaerobic digestion process

A : 20%

B : 10%

C : 15%

D : 5%

Q.no 58. The gas which may cause explosion in sewers is ____.

A : Carbon dioxide

B : Methane

C : Ammonia

D : Carbon monoxide

Q.no 59. A clarified effluent is extracted from the ______ of the reactor.

A : Top

B : side

C : bottom

D : central pipe

Q.no 60. In which industry Crystallizer is used?

A : Dairy

B : Sugar

C : Distillery
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D : Fertilizer

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Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is c

Answer for Question No 4. is c

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is a

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is b

Answer for Question No 10. is c

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is b

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Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is c

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is c

Answer for Question No 26. is a

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is d

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is d

Answer for Question No 31. is c

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is b


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Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is d

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is d

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is d

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is b

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is c

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Answer for Question No 50. is b

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is d

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is a

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is d

Answer for Question No 60. is a

Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is d

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is b


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Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is d

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is d

Answer for Question No 16. is a

Answer for Question No 17. is a

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is b

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Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is b

Answer for Question No 25. is a

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is b

Answer for Question No 30. is d

Answer for Question No 31. is d

Answer for Question No 32. is d

Answer for Question No 33. is b

Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is d

Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is c


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Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is d

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is c

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is d

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is b

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Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is b

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is c

Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is b

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is d

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is b


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Answer for Question No 13. is c

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is a

Answer for Question No 16. is b

Answer for Question No 17. is b

Answer for Question No 18. is d

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is b

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is d

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Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is b

Answer for Question No 31. is d

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is c

Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is d

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is c


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Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is c

Answer for Question No 51. is d

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is d

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is b

Answer for Question No 1. is a

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Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is b

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is a

Answer for Question No 17. is c

Answer for Question No 18. is b


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Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is c

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is d

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is b

Answer for Question No 28. is d

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is c

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is b

Answer for Question No 34. is c

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Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is d

Answer for Question No 40. is c

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is b

Answer for Question No 45. is d

Answer for Question No 46. is c

Answer for Question No 47. is d

Answer for Question No 48. is d

Answer for Question No 49. is c

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is a


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Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is c

Answer for Question No 55. is c

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is b

Answer for Question No 59. is d

Answer for Question No 60. is b

Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is a

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Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is d

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is d

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is a

Answer for Question No 17. is d

Answer for Question No 18. is c

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is b

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is a

Answer for Question No 23. is a

Answer for Question No 24. is c


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Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is b

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is d

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is c

Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is a

Answer for Question No 38. is c

Answer for Question No 39. is c

Answer for Question No 40. is b

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Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is b

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is d

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is b

Answer for Question No 52. is a

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is c

Answer for Question No 56. is b

Answer for Question No 57. is b


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Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is a

Answer for Question No 1. is c

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is c

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is d

Answer for Question No 6. is b

Answer for Question No 7. is b

Answer for Question No 8. is b

Answer for Question No 9. is a

Answer for Question No 10. is d

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is a

Answer for Question No 13. is a

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Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is d

Answer for Question No 16. is c

Answer for Question No 17. is a

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is c

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is a

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is d

Answer for Question No 25. is c

Answer for Question No 26. is b

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is b

Answer for Question No 29. is d

Answer for Question No 30. is a


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Answer for Question No 31. is d

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is d

Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is b

Answer for Question No 37. is c

Answer for Question No 38. is d

Answer for Question No 39. is d

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is d

Answer for Question No 45. is c

Answer for Question No 46. is a

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Answer for Question No 47. is d

Answer for Question No 48. is b

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is b

Answer for Question No 54. is a

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is d

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is c

Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is c

Answer for Question No 3. is b


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Answer for Question No 4. is d

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is b

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is d

Answer for Question No 10. is d

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is c

Answer for Question No 14. is d

Answer for Question No 15. is b

Answer for Question No 16. is b

Answer for Question No 17. is c

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is a

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Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is b

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is d

Answer for Question No 24. is b

Answer for Question No 25. is b

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is d

Answer for Question No 29. is c

Answer for Question No 30. is c

Answer for Question No 31. is d

Answer for Question No 32. is d

Answer for Question No 33. is b

Answer for Question No 34. is c

Answer for Question No 35. is b

Answer for Question No 36. is b


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Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is d

Answer for Question No 39. is c

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is c

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is c

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is b

Answer for Question No 46. is a

Answer for Question No 47. is d

Answer for Question No 48. is a

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is d

Answer for Question No 51. is c

Answer for Question No 52. is a

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Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is d

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is a

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is a

Answer for Question No 59. is b

Answer for Question No 60. is c

Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is b

Answer for Question No 3. is d

Answer for Question No 4. is b

Answer for Question No 5. is a

Answer for Question No 6. is a

Answer for Question No 7. is b

Answer for Question No 8. is d

Answer for Question No 9. is b


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Answer for Question No 10. is c

Answer for Question No 11. is a

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is a

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is a

Answer for Question No 17. is a

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is d

Answer for Question No 22. is b

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is b

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Answer for Question No 26. is d

Answer for Question No 27. is a

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is d

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is a

Answer for Question No 32. is b

Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is a

Answer for Question No 35. is c

Answer for Question No 36. is d

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is b

Answer for Question No 40. is b

Answer for Question No 41. is b

Answer for Question No 42. is b


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Answer for Question No 43. is b

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is d

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is d

Answer for Question No 49. is a

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is a

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Answer for Question No 59. is c

Answer for Question No 60. is c

Answer for Question No 1. is a

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is a

Answer for Question No 4. is a

Answer for Question No 5. is b

Answer for Question No 6. is c

Answer for Question No 7. is c

Answer for Question No 8. is c

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is a

Answer for Question No 11. is c

Answer for Question No 12. is c

Answer for Question No 13. is b

Answer for Question No 14. is b

Answer for Question No 15. is a


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Answer for Question No 16. is b

Answer for Question No 17. is c

Answer for Question No 18. is a

Answer for Question No 19. is a

Answer for Question No 20. is d

Answer for Question No 21. is c

Answer for Question No 22. is d

Answer for Question No 23. is d

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is d

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is a

Answer for Question No 29. is a

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is a

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Answer for Question No 32. is c

Answer for Question No 33. is a

Answer for Question No 34. is b

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is a

Answer for Question No 37. is b

Answer for Question No 38. is b

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is a

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is c

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is d

Answer for Question No 45. is a

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is c

Answer for Question No 48. is a


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Answer for Question No 49. is d

Answer for Question No 50. is d

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is b

Answer for Question No 53. is c

Answer for Question No 54. is b

Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is c

Answer for Question No 57. is a

Answer for Question No 58. is c

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is b

Answer for Question No 1. is b

Answer for Question No 2. is a

Answer for Question No 3. is c

Answer for Question No 4. is d

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Answer for Question No 5. is d

Answer for Question No 6. is d

Answer for Question No 7. is d

Answer for Question No 8. is a

Answer for Question No 9. is c

Answer for Question No 10. is b

Answer for Question No 11. is b

Answer for Question No 12. is b

Answer for Question No 13. is a

Answer for Question No 14. is c

Answer for Question No 15. is c

Answer for Question No 16. is a

Answer for Question No 17. is a

Answer for Question No 18. is b

Answer for Question No 19. is b

Answer for Question No 20. is a

Answer for Question No 21. is a


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Answer for Question No 22. is d

Answer for Question No 23. is b

Answer for Question No 24. is a

Answer for Question No 25. is d

Answer for Question No 26. is c

Answer for Question No 27. is c

Answer for Question No 28. is c

Answer for Question No 29. is d

Answer for Question No 30. is a

Answer for Question No 31. is b

Answer for Question No 32. is a

Answer for Question No 33. is b

Answer for Question No 34. is d

Answer for Question No 35. is a

Answer for Question No 36. is c

Answer for Question No 37. is a

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Answer for Question No 38. is a

Answer for Question No 39. is a

Answer for Question No 40. is d

Answer for Question No 41. is a

Answer for Question No 42. is a

Answer for Question No 43. is a

Answer for Question No 44. is a

Answer for Question No 45. is d

Answer for Question No 46. is b

Answer for Question No 47. is a

Answer for Question No 48. is c

Answer for Question No 49. is d

Answer for Question No 50. is a

Answer for Question No 51. is a

Answer for Question No 52. is c

Answer for Question No 53. is a

Answer for Question No 54. is a


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Answer for Question No 55. is b

Answer for Question No 56. is d

Answer for Question No 57. is c

Answer for Question No 58. is b

Answer for Question No 59. is a

Answer for Question No 60. is b

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JSPM’s

Imperial College of Engineering and Research, Wagholi, Pune.


(Approved by AICTE, Delhi & Govt. of Maharashtra, affiliated to SPPU, Pune)
Gat.No.720, Pune-Nagar road, Wagholi, Pune,412207.
Department of Civil Engineering
NAAC Accredited with “A” grade

[Total No. of Questions: -100]


B. E. (Civil) [First Semester]
Question Bank for In- Sem Exam A.Y. 2020-21
Subject-Environmental Engineering-II
(2015 Pattern)

A. Multiple Choice Questions


1.Point out the wrong statement in the following assumptions generally made in
the design of moderate-sized Sewers
A. Average daily flow =annual average daily flow
B. Maximum daily flow=2/3 average daily flow
C. Minimum hourly flow=1/3 average daily flow
D. None of them
answer D

2.The minimum and the maximum diameter of sewers generally adopted in the
design may be
A.15 cm & 100 cm
B.15 cm & 300 cm
c.25 cm & 450 cm
D.60 cm & 300 cm
Answer B

3. The rational formula for evaluating peak drainage discharge can be safely
applied to catchments up to
A.25Hecteres
B.500 Hectares
C.2000 Hectares
D.Up to any limits
Answer-B

4.Two sewer sections laid at the same grade will be hydraulically equivalent, if
A. Theirs Discharging capacity when running full are equal
B. Their flow velocities when running full are equal
C. Their Flow areas when running full are equal
D. All the above factor are equal.
Answer-A

5. Sewers are generally laid starting from their:


A. Off take point
B. Outfall point
C. Mid-Point
D. Any point along alignment
Answer B

6. The appropriate percentage of water in sewage is


A.90%
B.99%
C.99.9%
D.99.99%
Answer-C
7. Methemoglobinemia disease caused in children
A. Conversion of Nitrites to Nitrates
B. Conversion of nitrates to nitrites
C. reaction between haemoglobin & carbon dioxide
D. Both due to A & C
Answer B

8. Pathogenic bacteria enters waste water primarily from :


A. Industrial
B. Domestic
C. Both Domestic & industrial
D. Infiltration in sewers from surrounding
Answer C

9. Soluble Organics in domestic wastewater include


A. Carbohydrates
B. Proteins
C. Lipids
D. All of the above
Answer D
10. Minimum dissolved oxygen prescribed for a river stream to avoid fish kills
is
A. 2 PPM
B.4 PPM
C.8 PPM
D.10 PPM
Answer-B

11. Between BOD and COD the greater of the two is


A. BOD
B. COD
C. Both are equal
D. Depends on sewage characteristics
Answer -B

12. Standard 5 day BOD at 20 0c when compared to ultimate BOD is about


A.58%
B.68%
C.98%
D. None of these
Answer-B

13.Soluble Organics in domestic wastewater includes:


A. Carbohydrates
B. Proteins
C. Lipids
D. All of the above
Answer D

14. DO concentration may fall to Zero causing an aerobic condition in river


reach called
A. Zone of Degradation
B. Zone of Active decomposition
C. Zone of recovery
D. None of this
Answer-B

15. Sewage disposal by dilution is most preferred where


A. The sewage arriving at outfall point is fresh and non septic
B. There are strong forward currents
C. Discharge in water body is not low
D. All of the above
Answer-D

16. As compared to fresh river water sea water contains:


A.10% more oxygen
B.20% more oxygen
C.10% less oxygen
D.20% less oxygen
Answer-D

17. Surface loading for a rectangular sedimentation tank of length L, width B


and height H is given by
A.Q/B.H
B.Q/B.L
C.BLH/Q
D. None of them
Answer-B

18. The detention period adopted for grit chamber is of the order of
A.1 minute
B.5 minutes
C.2 to 4 hours
D.12 hours
Answer-A

19. The settling velocity of spherical body still water is given by


A. Lacay's formula
B. Darcy's law
C. Hazen Williams formula
D. Stokes Law
Answer- D

20.The short circuiting occurring in a sedimentation tank is represented by:


A. Surface loading
B. Displacement efficiency
C. Circulation Ratio
D. Detention time

21. The anaerobic secondary treatment of sewage is essentially a process of


A. Dehydration
B. Reduction
C. Oxidation
D. None of these
Answer-D

22. Quantity of remove by screening depends on the


A. Length of vertical bars
B. Thickness of vertical bars
C. Screen opening size
D. None of these
Answer C

23. Activated sludge is the


A. Aerated sludge in the aeration unit
B. The sludge settled in the to humus tank
C. Sludge in the secondary tank after aeration and rich in microbial mass
D. Sludge in the secondary tank after aeration and rich in nutrients.
Answer C

24. High COD to BOD ratio of an organic pollutant represents


A. High biodegradability of the pollutant
B. Lo biodegradability of the pollutant
C. Presence of free oxygen for aerobic decomposition
D. Presence of toxic material in the pollutants
Answer B

25. Lower F/M value in a conventional activated treatment plant will mean:
A. Lower BOD removal
B. Higher BOD removal
C. No effect on BOD removal
Answer B
26. The sewer which received discharge from two or more main sewers, is
known as

A.A trunk sewer


B. An outfall sewer
C. A main sewer
D. An intercepting sewer
ANS-A.

27. For treating the sewage of a large city, you will recommend
A. A sedimentation tank and an activated sludge treatment plant
B. A plant consisting of Imhoff tanks with low-rate trickling filters
C. Sedimentation tanks with high-rate trickling filters
D. None of these
ANS- A
28. For the COD test of sewage, organic matter is oxidised by K2Cr207 in the
presence of
A. H2SO4
B. HNO3
C. HCl
D. None of these
ANS-A.

29. The formula which accepts the value of rugosity coefficient n = 0.012 to be
used in Manning's formula, is given by
A. Bazins

B. Crimp and Burges

C. William-Hazen

D. Kutter

ANS-B
30. The most Suitable section of sewers in a combined sewerage system is
A. Parabolic

B. Circular

C. Rectangular

D. New egg Shaped


ANS- D

31. An egg-shaped sewer when compared to circular sewer is


A. economical
B. More suitable
C. Easier to construct
D. Provide better self-cleansing velocity at low discharges
ANS-D
32. The flow velocity in a sewer does not depend on
A. Its Grade
B. Its Length
C. Not to cause any effect
D. None
Answer- B
33. Unit operations are the ______ operations to remove the impurities.
A Physical
B Chemical
C Biological
D Biochemical
Answer-A
34. What did the structures use to prevent floating matter that enters into
pumps and pumping systems?
A. Aeration units
B. Screens
C. Grit chamber
D. Bioreactor
35. Crown corrosion in a reinforced concrete sewer is caused by:
A. H2S
B. CO2
C. CH4
D. NH3

36. For a circular sewer of diameter ‘D’ running partially full with central
angle ‘α’,
A) d/D = ½ (1 - cosα/2)
B) a/A = [(π/360°) - (sinα/2π)]

C) r/R = [1 - 360° sinα/2πα)]

D)All of the Above

Answer-D

37. What does the bacterium use to grow?


A. Oxygen
B. Organic pollutants
C. Water
D. Carbon-dioxide
Answer: B
38. The function of Trickling Filter is
A. Solid liquid separation
B. Removal of settleable solids
C. Sloughing of biomass
D. Symbiotic relation
Answer: C

39. Dried sewage often treatment is used as


A. Fertilizer
B. Building material
C. Chemical for lowering B.O.D.
D. Base material for paints.
Answer-A
40. The ratio of volume of recirculated sewage to volume of the raw seawge
is called
A. Recirculation ratio
B. Recirculation factor
C. Recirculation coefficient
D. None of the above
Answer-A
41. The pumping of sewage is necessary from
A. Low lying areas of a city
B. Basements
C. Flat areas
D. All of the above
Answer-D
42. The spacing of bars of perforation of fine screen used for the treatment
sewage, is
A. 2 to 3 mm
B. 3 to 5 mm
C. 5 to 8 mm
D. 8 to 10 mm
Answer-A
43. The sewer pipe which carries sewage from a building for immediate
disposal is
A. House sewer
B. Lateral sewer
C. Intercepting sewer
D. Main sewer
Answer-A
44. The pH value of sewage is determined with the help of
A. Imhoff cone
B. Turbidimeter
C. Potentiometer
D. None of these
Answer-C
45. The conventional activated sludge process
A. Is a physical/chemical process
B. Requires little or no oxygen
C. Utilizes a living community of microorganisms
D. None of these
Answer- C
46. Calculate the BOD load for the following data.
[1] Flow: 800 m3/d [2] BOD load: 1000 mg/L
A. 1000 kg/d
B.800 kg/d
C.500 kg/d
D. 1500 kg/d
Answer- B
47. What does the bacterium use to grow?
A. Oxygen
B. Organic pollutants
C. Water
D. Carbon-dioxide
Answer-B.
48. In the activated sludge process
A. Aeration is continued till stability
B. Aeration is done with an admixture of previously aerated sludge
C. Sludge is activated by constant stirring
D. Water is removed by centrifugal action
Answer- B
49. The head lost by water flowing in a channel as a result of turbulence
caused by the velocity of the flowing water is called ________
A. Putrefaction
B. Buffer
C. Head
D. Head loss
Answer-D
50. Comminutors are usually installed in which size of water treatment
plants?
A. 0.2m3/sec
B. <0.2m3/sec
C. 0.5 m3/sec
D. 1 m3/sec
Answer-B

B. FILL IN THE BLANKS

51. The BOD5 of a waste has been measured as 600 mg/lit if k is 0.23/day
(base e) …………….is the ultimate BODu of the waste.
ANS-877.5
52.For volatile solids determination the dried sample is fired at temperature of
550 + 50 0C in a...............
Answer- muffle furnace
53.Organic nitrogen and Ammonia nitrogen determined together is usually
known as............... Nitrogen
Answer -Kjedahl
54. The amount of oxygen consumed by sewage from potassium dichromate is
termed as.....................
Answer -COD
55. In stabilization pond the strength of sewage is reduced by the principles of
.....................
Answer -algal bacterial Symbiosis
56. Recirculation in................ Is done to supply seed materials to the aeration
tank
Answer-Activated sludge process
57. The bacteria which bring about sludge digestion in biogas plant
are.................in nature.
Answer - anaerobic
58. The leakage of sewage from sewers into surrounding is known as.................
Answer -infiltration
59. Sewage is known to contain a very good amount of water lead metal
only.........%
Answer 0.1%
60. The sewer appurtenances provided to drop the elevation of the invert of
sewer is................
Answer manhole
61. Eutrophic conditions in lakes are due to .....................
Answer- Excess Algae
62. Velocity at which no accumulation remains in the drains is ……………
ANS-Self-cleansing velocity
63. The discharge per unit plan area of a sedimentation tank, is generally
called…………. Loading
ANS- Surface Loading
64. The sewer which received discharge from two or more main sewers, is
known as………………..
ANS- A trunk sewer
65. For evaporation and measurement of settable solids, the apparatus used,
is………Cone
ANS- Imhoff cone
66. The settling velocity of a spherical particle of diameter less than 0.1 mm as
per Stock's law, is ………………
ANS- Vs = 418 (Gs - Gw) d² [(3T + 70)/100]
67. The dominating microorganisms in an activated sludge process reactor are
………..
ANS- Aerobic heterotrophs
68. A waste water stream (flow = 2 m3/s, ultimate BOD = 90 mg/l) is joining a
small river (flow = 12 m3/s, ultimate BOD = 5 mg/l). Both water streams get
mixed up instantaneously. Cross-sectional area of the river is 50 m2. Assuming
the de-oxygenation rate constant, k' = 0.25/day, the BOD (in mg/l) of the river
water, 10 km downstream of the mixing point is…………
ANS- 15.46 Mg/Lit
69. _______ provides the dual purpose of providing DO and mixing of the
mixed liquor and wastewater.
Answer-Aeration
70. Grit chambers are constructed to prevent their accumulation in _______
Answer- Sludge digesters

C. TRUE OR FALSE
71. Biochemical oxygen demand of safe drinking water if Zero.
Answer. True
72. 70 to 90% of suspended solids are removed in plain sedimentation of
sewage
Answer - false
73. Strength of waste spelling water is measured by pH
Answer-False
74. The DO content in self-purification of stream is nearly to its saturation value
in the zone of clearer water.
Answer - True
75. The fish Killing In a river sometimes found due to depletion of oxygen
Answer-True
76. The most critical characteristic of sewage in biochemical oxygen demand
when it is disposed of in river
Answer-True
77. The concentration of 5 days BOD of an industrial waste with high
concentration of cyanide is zero.
Answer-False
78. Trickling Filters are an example of suspended growth aerobic biological
treatment.
Answer- False
79. Activated sludge process is used to remove soluble organic matter.
Answer -True
80.The maximum runoff will be obtained from the rain having duration equal to
the time of concentration it is called rainfall duration.
Answer-True
81. In sewage treatment plant screens are to use to remove the inorganic
particles like sand, gravels, greet etc..
Answer-False
82. The important point in the design of grit basin is that flow velocity should
neither be too low as to cause settling of lighter organic matter nor should it be
so high to cause settlement of entire silt grit present in sewage.
Answer- True.
83. The sedimentation tanks are designed to remove a part of organic matter
from sewage effluent coming out from grit chamber.
Answer-True
84. In Sedimentation tank Properly designed inlets and outlets near the entrance
and exit may not reduce the short-circuiting tendencies and not helps to
distribute flow more evenly.
Answer - False
85. In Trickling filter under trains are provided for satisfactory ventilation.
Answer- True.
86. The use of coarse screens for the disposal of sewage, may be dispensed
with by Shredder.

D. SHORT QUESTIONS
87. Find out length of a grit chamber for a Maximum wastewater flow of 8000
m3lday, to remove particles up to of 0.2 mm dia. having specific gravity of
2.65. The settling velocities of these particles is 0.022 m/sec. Maintain a
constant flow through velocity of 0.3 m/sec through the provision of a
proportional flow’ weir. Assume a settling velocity vs = 0.02 m/sec, Provide a
width of 0.35 m
Answer-L=15M
88. Write the ultimate BOD for a wastewater having 5 day BOD at 20oC as 160
mg/L. Assume reaction rate constant as 0.2 per day (base 10).
Answer- 231.7 mg/L
89. The head loss through the cleaned or partially clogged flat bar screen
calculated using formula:
Answer- h = 0.0729 (V2 – v2)
Where, h = loss of head, m
V = velocity through the screen, m/sec
v = velocity before the screen, m/sec
90. A 350 mm diameter sewer is to flow at 0.35 depth on grade ensuring degree
self-cleansing equivalent to that obtained at full depth at a velocity of 0.8 m/sec
what is the required grade. At 0.35 depth d/D= 0.35, a/A=0.315 p/P=0.472,
r/R=0.7705
Answer-3.234x10-3
91. A 25 cm diameter with an invert slope of 1 in 400 is running full. What is
the Velocity in the sewer. Take n=0.015
Answer-0.525m/Sec
92. Determine head loss of a bar screen considering it is cleaned bars for a peak
average flow of 40 million litres per day. keep the bars at an inclination of 45°
with vertical. use bars of size 9 mm x50 mm, with 9 mm dimension facing the
flow. Let us keep a clear spacing of 36 mm between the bars. Assume a desired
velocity through the screen as 0.8 m/s at peak flow.
Answer- 0.017 m.=1.7cm
93. State the value of diameter of a circular settling tank unit for a primary
treatment of sewage at 12 million litres per day. Assuming the normal detention
period for this case as 2 hr, and surface loading as 40,000
litres/sq.m/day;(presuming that trickling filters are to follow the sedimentation
tank).
Answer-19.6 M
94.State Factors Affecting Self Purification
95.What is Oxygen Deficit
Answer-Oxygen deficit, D = Saturation DO – Actual DO
96.The sewage is flowing 4.5 million litres per day from a primary clarifier to
standard rate tickling filter. The 5 days BOD of influent is 160 mg/lit the value
of adopted organic loading is to be 160 gram per metre cube per day and surface
loading 2000 lit/ metre square per day determine volume of filter
Answer 4500 M3
97.With the above same data determine efficiency of the filter unit
Answer- 85.03%
98. Determine the efficiency of high rate trickling filter for following data:
i) sewage flow 4.5 MLD
ii) Recirculation Ratio-1.5
iii) BOD of raw sewage = 250Mg/lit
iv) BOD of removal in primary tank= 30%
v) Final effluent BOD desired= 30 milligram per litre
Answer 82.85%
99. Determine efficiency of conventional activated sludge plant to treat
domestic sewage with diffused aeation system for following data-
i)Population 35000
ii) Average sewage flow 180 lpcd
iii) BOD removal in Primary Tank=30%
iv) Overall BOD reduction desired =85%
Answer-79%
100.Enlist Modified aeration processes in Modified Activated Sludge Process
(Enlist Any five)

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