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CHEMISTRY (THEORY)
MIDTERM EXAMINATION 2021-2022
Class: XII
Time allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 70
General Instructions:
Read the following instructions very carefully and strictly follow them:
(i) This question paper comprises two parts – I and II. Each part consists of
three sections.

(ii) Part I – Consists of three sections A, B and C with all Multiple-choice type
questions. Section A contains total 18 questions (Questions no 1 to 18),
attempt any 15 questions. Section B contains total 18 questions
(Questions no 19 to 36), attempt any 15 questions. Section C contains
total 6 questions (Questions no 37 to 42), attempt any 5 questions.
(iii) There is no negative marking.

(iv) Part II - Consists of three sections D, E and F. Section D contains total 5


questions (Questions no 43 to 47), are short answer type questions,
carrying 2 marks each. Section E contains total 5 questions (Questions
no 48 to 52), are short answer type -II questions, carrying 3 marks each.
Section F contains total 2 questions (Questions no 53 and 54), are long
answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each.
(v) In Part II, there is no overall choice. However, internal choices are provided
in some questions. Attempt only one of the choices in such questions.
(vi) Use of calculator and log tables are not permitted.
PART – I
SECTION – A
This section consists of 18 multiple choice questions with overall choice to
attempt any 15 questions. In case more than desirable number of questions
are attempted, ONLY first 15 will be considered for evaluation. All questions
carry equal marks.
[15 × 1]
1. The red blood cells are isotonic with 0.9 % (mass/volume) NaCl solution.
If the red blood cells are placed in 0.4% (mass/volume) NaCl solution,
then (a) solvent will flow inside the cell due to endosmosis
(b) solvent will flow outside the cell due to exosmosis.
(c) solvent will come out of the cell to the NaCl solution due to
endosmosis (d) solvent will come out of the cell to the NaCl solution due
to exosmosis
2. Which of the following is not a property of crystalline solids?
(a) sharp melting point
(b) definite geometry
(c) isotropy
(d) high intermolecular forces between the particles in the solids
3. Which of the following halides is the most reactive towards nucleophilic
substitution reaction?
(a) Ethyl fluoride
(b) Ethyl chloride
(c) Ethyl bromide
(d) Ethyl iodide
4. How many alcohol(s) with molecular formula C4H10O is/are chiral in
nature?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

5. Phenol undergoes coupling reaction with benzene diazonium salts. The pH


of the medium, the colour of the dye and the carbon atom with respect
to -OH group of the benzene ring where the coupling occurs are
respectively,
(a) basic, yellow and para
(b) basic, orange and para
(c) acidic, orange, para
(d) basic, orange, meta
6. An element (At. Mass = 100u) having bcc structure has unit cell edge
length of 400 pm. The density of the element is:
(a) 10.376 g/cc
(b) 7.289 g/cc
(c) 5.188 g/cc
(d) 2.144 g/cc
7. A 5 % solution of cane sugar is isotonic with 1% solution of unknown
solute. The molar mass of unknown solute is: [MW of cane sugar = 342 g]
(a) 34.2 g
(b) 68.4 g
(c) 171.2 g
(d) 136.2 g
8. Which is the correct IUPAC name for CH3-CH(C2H5)-CH2-Br,
(a) 1-Bromo-2-ethyl-2-methylethane
(b) 1-Bromo-2-ethylpropane
(c) 1-Bromo-2-methylbutane
(d) 2-Methyl-1-bromobutane
9. Synthesis of alkyl fluorides is best accomplished by:
(a) Free radical fluorination
(b) Sandmeyer’s reaction
(c) Finkelstein reaction
(d) Swarts reaction
10. CsCl crystallizes in body centered cubic lattice. If ‘a’ is its edge length,
then which of the following expressions is correct?
(a) rCs+ + rCl- = 3a
(b) rCs+ + rCl- = 3a/2
(c) rCs+ + rCl- = a(√3/2)
(d) rCs+ + rCl- = a√3
11. When vapours of secondary and tertiary alcohols are separately passed
over Cu at 573K, the products formed are respectively,
(a) an aldehyde and a ketone
(b) an aldehyde and an alkene
(c) a ketone and an alkene
(d) alkenes in both cases
12. When 2-ethoxy-2-methyl propane is reacted with cold and concentrated
HI, the products formed are,
(a) 2-methylpropan-2-ol and ethyl iodide
(b) 2-iodo-2-methylpropane and ethanol
(c) 2-iodobutane and ethanol
(d) Isobutyl alcohol and ethyl iodide
13. What is the mole fraction of benzene in solution containing 30% (by mass)
in Carbon tetrachloride? [H = 1, C =12, Cl = 35.5]
(a) 0.92
(b) 0.46
(c) 0.23
(d) 0.06
14. Lucas test can be used to distinguish between which of the following pairs
of compounds?
(a) Phenol and p-cresol
(b) Propanl and ethanol
(c) Butanol and 2-methylpropan-2-ol
(d) Ethanol and glycol
15. Some derivatives of phenol are listed below,
I. Phenol
II. p-Cresol
III. 2, 4-Dinitrophenol
IV. 4-Nitrophenol
The decreasing order of strength of acidic character is:
(a) II > I > III > IV
(b) III > IV > I > II
(c) I > IV > III > II
(d) III > IV > II > I
16. The appearance of colour in solid alkali metal halides is generally due to
(a) Interstitial positions in the lattice
(b) F-centres formed in metal excess defect
(c) Schottky defect
(d) Frenkel Defect
17. Which of the following is the cause of low concentration of oxygen in blood
and tissues of people living at high altitude?
(a) high atmospheric pressure
(b) low atmospheric pressure
(c) low temperature
(d) both low temperature and high atmospheric pressure
18. In Zwitterionic form, amino acids show:
(a) acidic behaviour
(b) basic behaviour
(c) amphoteric behaviour
(d) none of these
SECTION – B
This section consists of 18 multiple choice questions with overall choice to
attempt any 15 questions. In case more than desirable number of questions
are attempted, ONLY first 15 will be considered for evaluation. All questions
carry equal marks. [15 × 1]
19. A solid compound contains X, Y and Z atoms in a cubic lattice with X
atoms occupying the corners, Y atoms at the body centered position and Z
atoms at the centres of faces of unit cell. What is the empirical formula of
the compound?
(a) XY2Z3
(b) XYZ3
(c) X2Y2Z3
(d) XYZ

20. Which compound is oxidized to produce ethyl methyl ketone?


(a) isopropyl alcohol
(b) sec-Butyl alcohol
(c) n-Butyl alcohol
(d) tert-Butyl alcohol
21. At 100oC, the vapour pressure of a solution of 6.5 g of a solute in 100 g
water is 732 mm Hg. If Kb = 0.52 K kg mol-1, the boiling point of this
solution will be, [Vapour pressure of pure water = 760 mm Hg] (a) 103oC
(b) 101oC
(c) 100oC
(d) 102oC
22. Nucleotide units in a nucleic acid are linked together through
(a) glycosidic linkage
(b) phosphodiester linkage
(c) ester linkage
(d) amide linkage

23. Arrange the following halides in the decreasing order of SN1 reactivity:
I. C6H5-CH2-Cl
II. CH2=CH-CH(Cl)-CH3
III. CH3-CH2-CH(Cl)-CH3
(a) I > II > III
(b) II > I > III
(c) I > III > II
(d) III > II > I
24. The major product of the following reaction is

25. The KH values for Ar(g), CO2(g), HCHO (g) and CH4 (g) are 40.39, 1.67,
1.83× 10-5 and 0.413 in water respectively at 300 K.
What is the order of their increasing solubility in water at 300 K?
(a) HCHO < CH4 < CO2 < Ar
(b) HCHO < CO2 < CH4 < Ar
(c) Ar < CO2 < CH4 < HCHO
(d) Ar < CH4 < CO2 < HCHO
26. The product ‘C’ in the following reaction series is;

(a) benzoic acid


(b) 2-Phenylethanoic acid
(c) 2-Hydroxymethyl benzoic acid
(d) 4-Hydroxymethyl benzoic acid
27. In a compound, ‘B’ forms ccp structure and ‘A’ occupies half of the
octahedral voids, while oxygen atoms occupy all the tetrahedral voids.
The formula of the compound is,
(a) A2BO4
(b) AB2O4
(c) A2B2O
(d) A4B2O
28. The vapour pressures of pure benzene and toluene are 160 torr and 60
torr respectively. The mole fraction of toluene in vapour phase in contact
with equimolar solution of benzene and toluene is,
(a) 0.50
(b) 0.16
(c) 0.27
(d) 0.73
29. Which one of the following will not form a yellow precipitate on heating
with iodine in alkaline medium?
(a) CH3CH(OH)CH3
(b) CH3CH2CH(OH)CH3
(c) CH3OH
(d) CH3CH2OH
30. Consider the following alkyl bromides.
The correct order of reactivity towards SN2 is:
(a) P > Q > R > S
(b) S > P > R > Q
(c) P > R > S > Q
(d) R > P > S > Q

31. The compound obtained by the reaction of propene with diborane


followed by hydrolysis with alkaline hydrogen peroxide gives;
(a) Prop-2-enol
(b) Propan-2-ol
(c) Propanol
(d) Propanal
32. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
Assertion: FeO is mostly found with a range of composition from Fe0.93O
to Fe0.96O.
Reason: In FeO, the missing Fe2+ cations are made up by the presence of
required number of Fe3+.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (b)
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false and R is true
33. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
Assertion: Azeotropic mixture are formed only by non-ideal solutions
and they may have boiling points either greater than both the
components or lesser than both the components in pure state.
Reason: The composition of the vapour phase is same as that of the liquid
phase of an azeotropic mixture.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (b)
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false and R is true
34. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
Assertion: The polypeptides are the polymers of amino acids connected
by amide linkage.
Reason: The elimination of water molecule takes place while formation of
amide linkage between -COOH and -NH2 group.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (b)
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false and R is true
35. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
Assertion: Phenol is more reactive than benzene towards electrophilic
substitution reaction.
Reason: In phenoxide ion the O- activates the benzene ring more than
that of -OH group in phenol.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (b)
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false and R is true
36. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
Assertion: The order of reactivity of different alkyl halides towards
bimolecular elimination is 1o > 2o > 3o.
Reason: 3o alkyl halides yield more substituted alkene, which is more
stable in nature.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (b)
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false and R is true
SECTION – C
This section consists of 6 multiple choice questions with overall choice to
attempt any 5 questions. In case more than desirable number of questions
are attempted, ONLY first 5 will be considered for evaluation. All questions
carry equal marks
[5 × 1]
37. Match the following:
Column-I Column-II
1. Glucose + phenyl hydrazine (excess) (i) Glucose monoxime
2. Glucose + NH2OH (ii) Gluconic acid
3. Glucose + conc. nitric acid (iii) Osazone
4. Glucose + bromine water (iv) Glucaric acid

Which of the following is the best matched options?


(a) 1-(ii), 2-(iii), 3-(ii), 4-(i)
(b) 1-(iii), 2-(i), 3-(ii), 4-(iii)
(c) 1-(iii), 2-(i), 3-(iv), 4-(ii)
(d) 1-(iv), 2-(ii), 3-(i), 4-(iii)
38. Which of the following statements is correct regarding defects in
crystalline solids?
(a) Frenkel defects decrease the density of crystalline solids.
(b) Frenkel defect is dislocation defect.
(c) Frenkel defect is found in halides of alkaline metals
(d) Schottky defects have no effect on the density of crystalline solids.
39. Which of the following is a correct statement for C2H5Br?
(a) It reacts with metallic Na to give ethane
(b) It gives nitroethane on heating with aqueous ethanolic solution of
AgNO2
(c) It gives ethanol on boiling with alcoholic potash.
(d) It forms diethyl thioether with alcoholic KSH.

CASE: Read the passage given below and answer the following questions
40-42
In Fractional distillation the possibility of separating the two liquids depends
on the effect each component has on the vapour pressure at the other.
Pressure of the two pure components in an ideal solution where the relation
of vapour pressure and composition is given by Raoult’s law. For a solution
of components, A and B, the total vapour pressure of the system is equal to
pA + pB. The binary mixtures, that follow Raoult’s law are those where the
interaction between A and B are same as those for pure components. When
the interaction of A and B molecules is not same as those for pure
components the mixture becomes non-ideal. Non-ideal solutions show
positive or negative deviations from Raoult’s law. If the A-B interactions are
weaker than the A-A and B-B interactions, the solution shows positive
deviation and for negative deviation, the A-B interactions are stronger than
the A-A and B-B interactions.

40. Ideal solutions of A and B obey Raoult’s law at constant temperature


when:
(a) concentration of A is low and B is high
(b) concentration of A is high and B is low
(c) any concentration of A and B
(d) both the concentrations of A and B must be high
41. Considering the formation, breaking and strength of hydrogen bond,
predict which of the following mixtures will show positive deviation from
Raoult’s law?
(a) Methanol and acetone
(b) Chloroform and acetone
(c) Nitric acid and water
(d) Phenol and aniline
42. When two liquids A and B are mixed, their boiling points become lower
than both of them. The mixture is:
(a) Ideal solution
(b) Non-ideal solution with positive deviation from Raoult’s law
(c) Non-ideal solution with negative deviation from Raoult’s law
(d) Normal solution
PART – II
SECTION – D
The following questions, (Q. No. 43-47) are short answer type - I questions
and carry 2 marks each.
43. The rate of a first order reaction is 0.04 mol L-1 s-1 at 10 mins and 0.03
mol L-1 s-1 at 20 minutes after initiation. Find the half-life of the reaction. [2]

44. Write the IUPAC names of the following compounds:


(a) [Co(NH3)4(H2O)Cl]Cl2 [1] (b) [CrCl2(en)2]Cl [1]
45. Define the following:
(a) Denticity of a ligand [1] (b) Order of reaction [1]

46. [NiCl4]2-is paramagnetic, but [Ni(CN)4]2-is diamagnetic. Explain. [2]


OR
[Fe(CN)6]4- and [Fe(H2O)6]2+ are of different colours in dilute solutions.
Explain. [2]
47. How would you distinguish chemically between:
(a) Acetic acid and ethyl acetate [1] (b) Ethanal and propanal [1]

SECTION – E
The following questions, (Q. No. 48-52) are short answer type - II questions
and carry 3 marks each.
48. Write short notes on:
(a) Esterification Reaction [1] (b) Wolff-Kishner reduction [1] (c)
Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky reaction [1]
49. (a) Show that in the case of a first-order reaction, the time required for
99.9 % of the reaction to take place is almost about 10 times that
required for half completion of the reaction. [2]
(b) Mention the factors that affect the rate of a chemical reaction. [1]
50. Convert the following:
(a) Benzene to m-nitroacetophenone [1] (b) Ethanol to butane-1,3-diol [1]
(c) Acetic acid to 2-hydroxy propanoic acid [1]
14
nuclei in carbon content.
51. A living plant acquires a definite fraction of 6C
If a freshly cut piece of wood gives 16.1 counts minute-1 g-1 and an old
wooden bowl gives 9.6 counts minute-1 g-1 of carbon, calculate the age of the
14
is 5770 years. [3]
wooden bowl. The half-life of 6C
52. Account for the following:
(a) Cyclohexanone forms cyanohydrin in good yield but 2, 2, 6-trimethyl
cyclohexanone does not. [1] (b) Although phenoxide ion has more number
of resonating structures than carboxylate ion, carboxylic acid is a
stronger acid than phenol. [1] (c) During the preparation of ammonia
derivatives from aldehydes or ketones, pH of the reaction is carefully
controlled. [1]
OR
(a) CH3CHO is more reactive than CH3COCH3 towards nucleophilic
addition reaction. [1] (b) Chloroacetic acid is more stronger acid than
acetic acid. [1] (c) Benzoic acid is less reactive than o-methyl benzoic
acid. [1]

SECTION – F
The following questions, (Q. No. 53 and 54) are long answer type questions
and carry 5 marks each.

53. (a) For a reaction at 800oC, 2NO (g) +2H2 (g) → N2 (g) + 2H2O(l), the
following data were obtained:

[NO] × 10-4 mol L-1 [H2] × 10-3 mol d[NO]/dt × 10-4 mol L-1
L-1 min-1
1.5 4.0 4.4
1.5 2.0 2.2
0.5 2.0 0.24

(i) Determine the order with respect to each of the reactants. [2] (ii)
Calculate the value of rate constant of the reaction. [1]

(b) Using valance bond theory, explain, geometry and magnetic behaviour of
[Cr(NH3)6]3+ [2]
OR
(a) The following results have been obtained during kinetic studies of the
reaction:
2A + B → C
Exp. [A] [B] Initial rate of formation of C
No.
1 0.1 M 0.1 M 6.0 × 10-3 M min-1
2 0.3 M 0.2 M 7.2 × 10-3 M min-1
3 0.3 M 0.4 M 2.88 × 10-2 M min-1
4 0.4 M 0.1 M 2.40 10-2 M min-1

(i) Determine the order with respect to each of the reactants. [2] (ii)
Calculate the value of rate constant of the reaction. [1]
(b) Using valance bond theory, explain, geometry and magnetic behaviour of
[Ni(CO)4] [2]

54. An organic compound [A] on treatment with acetic acid in the presence of
H2SO4 produces [B]. On mild oxidation [A] gives [C]. [C] with 50% KOH
followed by acidification with dil. HCl generates [A] and [D]. [D] with PCl5
followed by reaction with NH3 gives [E]. On dehydration [E] produces
hydrocyanic acid. Identify [A], [B], [C], [D] and [E] with all relevant equations.
[5]
OR
(a) Predict the products in the following reactions:
[1]

[1]

[1]

(b) Predict the products A-B in the following reaction series: [1+1]

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