ODISHA PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION

Recruitment to the Post of Insurance Medical Officer & Specialist [Advt. No. 02 of 2020-21]
Question Paper & Answer Key of the Computer Based Recruitment Exam held on 20.12.2020
Sr No Question OPTION-A OPTION-B OPTION-C OPTION-D Answer

1 Ulnar nerve has root valve of C4 C5 C6 C7 D

2 Hernia just below pubic tubercle is Direct inguinal hernia Indirect inguinal hernia Femoral hernia Obturator hernia
C
3 Thebesian valve is present with Coronary sinus Inferior vena cava Thebesian vein Superior vena cava A
4 Taste centre is located in Area 03 Area 43 Area 04 Area 44 B

5 Left atrium smooth part develops from Sinus Venosus Bulbus Cordis Truncus arteriosus Pulmonary vein absorption
D
6 The smallest fluid compartment of body is Intracellular Extracellular Transcellular Interstitial C
7 Oncotic pressure is measured in ______units Osmol Mm of Hg Joule Kg/m2 B
8 Transit time is slowest in Stomach Jejunum Colon Ileum C
9 J receptors are located in Myocardium Blood Vessels Alveolar Interstitium Carotid body C

10 Corticospinal tract lesion leads to Spasticity Extensor plantar response Cogwheel rigidity Resting tremors
B
Which complex of respiratory chain is inhibited by
11 Complex I Complex II Complex III Complex IV
Dimercaprol? C
12 Which one is a proton ionophore? Valinomycin 2,4 Dinitrophenol Actractyloside Carbon Monoxide B
Which one of the following enzymes uses molecular Homogentisatedioxygenas
13 Cytochrome C Oxidase Catalase Superoxide dismutase
oxygen as a hydrogen acceptor? e A
14 Which is not a hemoprotein? Catalase Cytochrome C Tryptophan Pyrrolase Homogentisate Oxidase D
Which is the rate of limiting enzyme in porphyrin Hydroxymethylbilane Uroporphyrinogen III
15 ALA synthase ALA dehydratase
biosynthesis? synthase synthase A
One gram haemoglobin yield about what amount of
16 25 mg 35 mg 45 mg 55 mg
bilirubin? B
Identify the metabolite that does not serve as a
17 aKetoglutarate 3 Phosphoglycerate Pyruvate Histamine
precursor of a dietary essential amino acid D
it encodes 22
Encodes 13 protein subunits
18 Which is incorrect for human mitochondrial DNA it is double stranded mitochondrial t RNA it has low mutational rate
of respiratory chain
molecules C
Which type of DNA repair system is defective in
19 Base excision repair Nucleotide excision repair Mismatch repair Homologous repair
Xerodermapigmentosum? B
20 Which one is a potent CDK-cyclin inhibitor? p 21 p 53 p 63 p 73 A
Phenytoin is used in all of the following clinical Digitalis induced
21 Grandmal epilepsy Partial seizures Absence seizures
conditions EXCEPT arrhythmias C
Which ONE of the following opioid analgesics produces
22 Morphine Buprenorphine Pentazocine Dextropropoxyphene
a rise in blood pressure and an increase in heart rate?
C
A patient being treated with standard first-line
antitubercular drugs develops gouty arthritis. Which
23 Pyrazinamide Ethambutol Rifampicin Isoniazid
ONE of the following is more likely to cause the clinical
side effect? A
The antiretroviral drug commonly given to the
24 breastfed infant born to HIV-positive mother for Zalcitabine Lamivudine Abacavir Nevirapine
prevention of transmission of the HIV infection is
D
Adverse effects of prolonged use of combined oral
25 Thromboembolism Hypertension Mental depression Osteoporosis
contraceptives include all of the following EXCEPT
D

Page 1 of 10
 ODISHA PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
Recruitment to the Post of Insurance Medical Officer & Specialist [Advt. No. 02 of 2020-21]
Question Paper & Answer Key of the Computer Based Recruitment Exam held on 20.12.2020
Sr No Question OPTION-A OPTION-B OPTION-C OPTION-D Answer
Which of the following is a β-lactamase resistant
26 Nafcilin Penicillin V Amoxicilin Carbenicillin
penicilin? A
Pioglitazone is an agonist Sulfonylureas cause
Metformin supresses hepatic Voglibose retards
27 Which ONE of the following statements is FALSE? of peroxisome proliferator- hyperpolarization of the
gluconeogenesis carbohydrate absorption
activated receptor ϒ pancreatic β-cell membrane
C
All of the following are effective against Salmonella
28 Cefuroxime Azithromycin Cotrimoxazole Ciprofloxacin
typhi infection EXCEPT A
They produce less
Atypical antipsychotics are superior to typical They cause lower incidence They cause minimal fall in
29 They produce less sedation extrapyramidal side
antipsychotics because of weight gain blood pressure
effects B
Which of the following drugs DOES NOT induce
30 Mifepristone Carboprost Misoprostol Ergometrine
midterm absorption? D
Type of immunologic reaction involved in autoimmune
31 Type I (anaphylactic) Type II (cytotoxic) Type III (immune complex) Type IV (cell mediated)
haemolytic anaemia is B
Group of molecules important for cell adhesion in
32 Selectins Integrins Opsonins Chemokines
acute inflammation is called A or B
Hypercalcemia as a paraneoplastic syndrome is Squamous cell carcinoma
33 Small cell carcinoma lung Renal cell carcinoma Carcinoma breast
observed in the following tumors except lung B
Which of the following is a specific marker of Hairy cell
34 CD23 CD103 CD5 CD8
leukemia is B
5 year male child presented with tumor of testis,
35 raised serum AFP. Mention the characteristics Schiller duval body Call exner body Mallory hyaline bodies Psammoma bodies
histopathological finding? A
Classic α-1 antitrypsin deficiency in emphysema has
36 PiMM PiZZ PiMZ PiMO
the following phenotype of protease inhibitor
B
Tumor marker helpful in confirmation of
37 Vimentin Desmin CD117 CD10
gastrointestinal tumor is C

38 Mallory-denk body is seen in all except Alcoholic hepatitis Hepatocellular carcinoma Wilson's disease Chronic viral hepatitis
B or D
Schistosomiasis in urinary bladder is implicated in the
39 Transitional cell carcinoma Squamous cell carcinoma Adenocarcinoma Stromal sarcoma
pathogenesis of B
Both dystrophic and
40 Medical calcific sclerosisis a type of Dytrophic calcification Metastatic calcification None of the above
metastatic A
41 Heterophilic antibodies are seen in Weli Felix reaction Wassermann test Widal test Rose waaler test A

42 Cell mediated immunity is markedly decreased in Tuberculoid leprosy Lepromatous leprosy Indeterminate leprosy Borderline leprosy
B
Reverse CAMP' test is one of the tests for
43 Streptococcus pneumoniae Clostridium perfringens Steptococcus agalactiae Clostridium botulinum
identification of B
A middle aged alcoholic presents with cough, chest
44 pain, dark red sputum and extreme prostration. Which E. Coli Klebsiella Pneumococcus Serratia
is the likely pathogen B
The fungus which gives black coloured colonies on
45 Candida tropicalis Candida pseudotropicalis Candida albicans Cryptococcus neoformans
Niger seed agar is D
46 The causative agent of Tinea versicolor is Malassezia furfur Piedraia hortae Cladosporium werneckii Trichophyton rubrum A
47 All of the following are DNA viruses except Herpesvirus Poxvirus Hepadnavirus Rhabdovirus D
48 Infectious mononucleosis is caused by CMV EBV HHV 6 HHV 8 B

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 ODISHA PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
Recruitment to the Post of Insurance Medical Officer & Specialist [Advt. No. 02 of 2020-21]
Question Paper & Answer Key of the Computer Based Recruitment Exam held on 20.12.2020
Sr No Question OPTION-A OPTION-B OPTION-C OPTION-D Answer
Acquisition of naked DNA by bacteria from
49 Transformation Transduction Mutation Conjugation
environment and incorporation in its genome is A
50 Disposable plastic syringes are sterilized by Formaldehyde gas Ethylene oxide Halogens Phenolic compounds B
The most useful single indicator of the time of death
51 Rigor mortis Liver mortis Algor mortis Post-mortem decomposition
during the first 24 hours post mortem is C
52 Science of studying fingerprints is Dermatographism Dermatoglyphics Dermatobraftism Dermatistry B
Plasma cholinesterase Measurement of serum
53 Most specific test for organ phosphorous poisoning RBC cholinesterase level RBC uroporphyrin level
level phosphorus A
Under which Section body sample can be collected
54 191 IPC 251 IPC 53 Crpc 54 Crpc
without Consent C
Which should never be used as a preservative for
55 Nacl NaF Potassium oxalate Formalin
Viscera for chemical analysis D
Most reliable identification method used by police to
56 Photography Galton's system Burtilon system Superimposition method
identify criminal is B
In Maceration which of the following statement is not Emits sweetish but Skin assumes greenish
57 A sterile condition Foetus is flaccid
true? disagreeable smell colour D
A method of homicidal smothering and traumatic
58 Choking Gagging Burking Overlying
asphyxia is known as C
Maximum level of HCG in normal pregnancy is seen at 30 days after last menstrual 60 days after last 90 days after last menstrual 120 days after last
59
about period menstrual period period menstrual period B
Any part of a living child Child is completely out of Child is completely born and Child is completely born and
60 Live birth according to Indian law is when
comes out mother's private parts cries shows signs of respiration
A
Which of the following Vaccine is most sensitive to
61 OPV Influenza Vaccine MMR BCG
Heat? A
All of the following are indicators of PQLI (Physical Per Capita Gross National
62 Life expectancy at age one Infant Mortality Literacy
quality of life index), except? income(GNI) D
The new contraceptive added under "Antara OCP containing Emergency Contraceptive
63 Injectable MPA Injectable NET-EN
programme" provides which of the following? centchroman pills(LNG) A
Under RBSK (Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram),
Deficiencies and
64 which of the following is/are screened and managed Defects at birth Childhood Diseases All of the above
Developmental delays
for? D
Web based application NIKSHAY is used for which of Case based Malaria Case based Polio
65 Case based TB surveillance None of the above
the following? Surveillance Surveillance A
A Male aged 28 years, having BMI of 35.50 is classified
66 Pre Obese Obese Class I Obese Class II Obese Class III
as, which of the following? C
Every 7000 in general & Every 5000 in general & Every 5000 in general & Every 7000 in general &
67 One Sub Centre caters a population of ? every 3000 in hilly, tribal and every 3000 in hilly, tribal every 2000 in hilly, tribal every 2000 in hilly, tribal and
backward areas and backward areas and backward areas backward areas
B
According to Bio Medical waste Management Rules, Translucent White Puncture
Yellow coloured non Red coloured non Cardboard boxes with blue
68 2016, Metallic body implants should be discarded proof, leak proof, tamper
chlorinated Plastic Bags chlorinated containers coloured marking
into? proof containers
D
One of the criteria for defining SAM(Severe Acute
69 MUAC < 115mm MUAC < 116 mm MUAC < 120 mm MUAC < 118 mm
Malnutrition) is : A
Under the NPCDCS programme, all of the following are
70 Cancer Diabetes Stroke Deficiency Disorders
covered, except? D

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 ODISHA PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
Recruitment to the Post of Insurance Medical Officer & Specialist [Advt. No. 02 of 2020-21]
Question Paper & Answer Key of the Computer Based Recruitment Exam held on 20.12.2020
Sr No Question OPTION-A OPTION-B OPTION-C OPTION-D Answer
71 Birbek granule is present in Melanocyte Keratinocyte Langerhans cell Fibroblast C
72 Rosacea is a disease of Eccrine gland Apocrine gland Sebasseous gland Hair follicle C
73 Impetigo Herpetiformis is caused by Bacteria Virus Fungus None of the above D
Borderline Tuberculoid
74 Type 1 reaction in Leprosy is seen in Tuberculoid leprosy Lepromatous Leprosy Histoid Leprosy
Leprosy B
The inguinal and anorectal syndromes are associated Lymphogranuloma
75 Syphilis Donovanosis Chancroid
with Venereum B
Signs of raised intracranial tension in a child in a skull X- Silver beaten appearance of
76 Separation of sutures Tense anterior Fontanelle All of the above
Ray the bones D
77 Basal Ganglia calcification is not seen in Wilson's disease Berry aneurysm Cysticercosis Haemangioma A
Commonest cause of intra cranial calcification in adult
78 Pineal Calcification Intracranial Calcification Meningioma Tuberculoma
is Not Valued
79 Suprasellar calcification is seen in Craniopharyngioma Meningioma Pineal Calcification Cysticercosis A or B or D
80 In brain infarct, MRI may be negative up to 2-4 hours post-ictus 8 to 16 hours 16-32 hours up to 72 hours Not Valued
Epithelium entrapment
between embryonic Entrapment of tooth germ Entrapment of papillary cells Entrapment of skeletal cells
81 Developmental cyst is formed by
processes of bone and union in mandible in mass of salivary gland in soft tissues
lines A
Immobilization and Immediate root canal
82 First consideration in a case with root fracture Restoration of the tooth Tooth should be extracted
stabilization therapy A
The first and most important step in management of a Supply large amount of
83 Start intravenous infusion Clearing the airway Call ambulance
case of trauma is oxygen C
Teeth that are least affected by periodontal disease Lower first molar and upper Lower premolars and Lower first molars, upper Lower centrals, laterals and
84
are anteriors upper canine incisors and premolars upper molars
B
Which of the following can be identified by the
85 Acute pulpitis Periapical Granuloma Pulp polyp Mental foramen
radiograph only D
Which of the following findings is diagnostic of iron increased TIBC, decreased Decreased TIBC, increased TIBC, increased Decreased TIBC, increased
86
deficiency anemia serum ferritin decreased serum ferritin serum ferritin serum ferritin
A
Mismatched blood Paroxysmal nocturnal
87 Which condition do not cause intravuscular hemolysis? Snake bite Thalasemia
transfusion haemoglobinuria(PNH) C
Which of the following is NOT a chronic
88 Polycythemia vera Acute myeloid leukemia Essential thrombocytosis Chronic myeloid leukemia
myeloproliferative neoplasm B
Hypocalcemia is characterised by all of the following Numbness and tingling of Shortening of QT interval in
89 Bronchospasm Carpopaedal spasm
except- circum-oral region ECG C
Exertional dyspnoea, angina pectoris and syncope are
90 Mitral Stenosis Aortic stenosis Mitral regurgitation Tricuspid Stenosis
the three cardinal symptoms of B

91 Which of the feature is not seen in cardiac tamponade Raised JVP Kussmaul's sign Rapid y decent in JVP Pulsus paradoxus
C
Which of the following is not included in Jone's major
92 Carditis Chorea Subcutaneous nodules Fever(>38.50C)
criteria for diagnosis of Rheumatic Fever D
Most common heart valve involved in bacterial
93 Mitral valve Aortic valve Pulmonary valve Tricuspid valve
endocarditis in IV drug users is D
Which of the following drug is not used in Bronchial
94 Salbutamol Morphine Theophylline Corticosteroids
Asthma B

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 ODISHA PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
Recruitment to the Post of Insurance Medical Officer & Specialist [Advt. No. 02 of 2020-21]
Question Paper & Answer Key of the Computer Based Recruitment Exam held on 20.12.2020
Sr No Question OPTION-A OPTION-B OPTION-C OPTION-D Answer

Bilateral chest mottling and

All of the following are features of tropical pulmonary Paroxymal cough and
95 Eosinophilia > 3000/cmm Microfilaria in blood increased bronchovascular
Eosinophilia except wheeze
markings
B

96 Rasmussen's aneurysm arises from Bronchial artery Pulmonary artery Vertebral artery Posterior intercostals artery
B
Which of the following condition may have exudative
97 Cirrhosis Nephrotic syndrome Congestive heart failure Bronchogenic carcinoma
pleural effusion D
Presence of RBC casts in urine, the most likely site of
98 Kidney Ureter Bladder Urethra
haematuria is A
99 All are about nephritic syndrome except RBC casts in urine Hypoproteinmia Oedema Hyperlipidemia B or D
Presence of antibodies to
Good Pasture's syndrome is characterized by all of the Diffuse alveolar
100 Glomerulunephritis Leukocytoclastic vasculitis glomerular basement
following except haemorrhage
membrane B
Which of the following is not a feature of Type I renal
101 Nephrolithiasis Normal anion gap Hypokalemia Fanconi syndrome
tubular acidosis D
102 Heller's myotomy surgery done for Achalasia Cardia Pyeloric stenosis Peptic ulcer Carcinoma oesophagus A
Barret's oesophagus is commonly associated with one Gastrointestinal stromal
103 Adenocarcinoma Squamous cell carcinoma Sarcoma
of the following tumor A
Cause of acute loss of vision in a patient of acute Central Retinal Artery
104 Purtscher's retinopathy Sudden alcohol withdrawl Acute congestive glaucoma
alcoholic pancreatitis is Occlusion A
Helicobacter Pylori infection is associated with which Gastric mucosa associated
105 Peptic ulcer Gastric adenocarcinoma All of the above
condition lymphoid tissue (MALT)
D
Gamma glutamyl transferase Alkaline phosphatase is
106 Which is not true about alcoholic hepatitis AST raised > ALT ALT raised > AST
is raised raised C
Spondyloarthritis includes the following averlapping
107 Psoriatic arthritis Ankylosing spondylitis Rheumatoid Arthritis Reactive arthritis
disorders except C
Symptoms of diabetes with 2 hour plasma glucose >=
Fasting plasma glucose
108 All are diagnostic criteria for Diabetes mellitus except Haemoglobin A1c >= 6.5% random blood glucose 180 mg/dl during oral
>=126 mg/dl
>=200 mg/dl glucose tolerance test D
Which of the following is the most common site of
109 Basal ganglia Brain stem Cerebellum Hippocampus
hypertensive intracranial hemorrhage A
Which of the following is the most common brain
110 Meningioma Gliomas Secondaries Vestibular schwannomas
tumor C

111 Most common cause of Congenital Hypothyroidism is Iodine deficiency Thyroid dysgenesis Thyroid agenesis Thyroid dyshormonogenesis
B
A baby presents with tetany. First thing to be done is
112 Diazepam Vitamin D Calcium gluconate Magnesium
administration of C
Wide open anterior fontanel is found in following
113 Rickets Cretinism Osteogenesis imperfecta Craniosynostosis
diseases EXCEPT D
When should folic acid supplementation start, in order As soon as pregnancy is Before beginning of 2nd At least 1 month before At least 1 week before
114
to be effective in preventing neural tube defects? diagnosed triemester conception conception
C
115 Earliest sign of puberty in female is Growth spurt Pubarche Thelarche Menarche C
A child can ride a tricycle, copy a circle and knows
116 30 months 42 months 36 months 48 months
his/her age and sex by the age of C

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 ODISHA PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
Recruitment to the Post of Insurance Medical Officer & Specialist [Advt. No. 02 of 2020-21]
Question Paper & Answer Key of the Computer Based Recruitment Exam held on 20.12.2020
Sr No Question OPTION-A OPTION-B OPTION-C OPTION-D Answer
Which of the following is true about it is due to edema in the
117 Its size is maximum at birth it resolves in 7-10 days It is limited by periosteum
Cephalohematoma? layers of scalp D

118 Compared with cow's milk, mother's milk has more Lactose Vitamin D Proteins Fat
A
119 Best marker for chronic PEM is Weight for age Height for age Weight for height Head circumference B
120 Most common complication of measles is Orchitis Pneumonia Otitis media Seizures C
Which of the following is not a complication of massive
121 Coagulopathy Hypercalcaemia Hyperkalaemia Hypokalaemia
blood transfusions? B
All the following are causes of reduced host resistance
122 Malnutrition Cancer AIDS Systemic sclerosis
to infection except D
By eating infected meat and Through penetration of the
By the faeco-oral route
123 Hydatid disease is transmitted by it therefore affects only non- skin of unshod feet by it may be vector-borne
through ingestion of eggs
vegetarians larvae B
Weight loss, vague A watering-can perineum Characteristically, a non-
All can be the presenting features in a patient suffering A mass in the right iliac
124 abdominal pain and evening with undermined edges and caseating granuloma on
from tuberculosis of the small intestine except fossa
rise of temperature a watery discharge histology
D
Follow usual Advanced Blunt trauma is more
Which of the following statements regarding Usual rules of Consideration must be given
125 Trauma Life Support (ATLS) common than penetrating
paediatric trauma is false? resuscitation apply to nonaccidental injury(NAI)
rules as in an adult trauma A
An early referral may be
Which of the following statements regarding palliative distressing and hence should Spiritual support is outside Palliative care is essentially
126 it may involve surgery
therapy in cancer is true? be delayed as much as its remit pain control
possible B
Plain X-ray of KUB
US and CT can diagnose the Plain X-ray is the first line
All the following statements with regard to imaging of US is a good first-line (Kidney, Ureter, Bladder)
127 cause and site of bowel investigation for suspected
the acute abdomen holds true except investigation is the best imaging for
obstrcution perforation or obstruction.
suspected ureteric colic
B
Which of the following is not a problem associated
128 Clotting disorders Hepatorenal syndrome Poor wound healing Myocardial infarction
with surgery in the jaundiced patient?
D
Pain is a rare feature of Piles which remian
Which of the following statements about Most haemorrhoids are Profuse haemorrhage is
129 uncomplicated grade 1 permanently prolapsed are
haemorrhoids is true? congenital never seen
haemorrhoids called grade 3 haemorrhoids
B
Which of the following is not an immediately life-
130 Tension pneumothorax Cardiac tamponade Massive haemothorax Liver injury
threatening injury? D
features suggestive of Frey's syndrome following Dry mouth due to reduction Development of a sialocele Hyperplasia of the
131 Gustatory sweating
parotidectomy is in salivary flow over the parotid bed contralateral parotid gland
B
The condition with an increaesd risk of development of Atypical ductal or lobular
132 Breast cyst Duct ectasia Fibroadenoma
breast carcinoma is hyperplasia C
Deep vein thrombosis
133 Which of the following is not a cause of gangrene Buerger's disease infection Intra-arterial drug injection
insufficiency D
All the following can be a complication of an inguinal
134 Irreducibility Inflammation Strangulation Bleeding
hernia except D

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 ODISHA PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
Recruitment to the Post of Insurance Medical Officer & Specialist [Advt. No. 02 of 2020-21]
Question Paper & Answer Key of the Computer Based Recruitment Exam held on 20.12.2020
Sr No Question OPTION-A OPTION-B OPTION-C OPTION-D Answer
Transverse incisions are A serosanguinous discharge
Which of the following statement is true regarding Most cases are managed more likely to burst than Catgut is associated with a is the forerunner of
135
'burst abdomen' conservatively midline and vertical lower risk of burst abdomen disruption in half of these
incisions cases D
All the following are precancerous lesions of Pharyngeal (Zenker's)
136 Barrett's oesophagus Corrosive stricture Oesophageal candidiasis
oesophagus except diverticulum D
Which of the following is the protective factor in the Diet rich vegetables and
137 H. pylori infection Previous gastric surgery Pernicious anaemia
causation of gastric cancer? fruits C
Penetrating trauma is
Blunt trauma is often CECT scan must be carried
often associated with
138 The false statement regarding liver trauma is associated with splenic, out in every case of liver Liver injuries are common
pericardial or chest
mesenteric and renal injuries trauma
injuries D
All are the causes for dehydration and electrolytes loss Sequestration in the bowel Defective intestinal
139 Vomiting Diarrhoea
in intestinal obstruction except lumen absorption B
Which of the following is not a sign of acute
140 Obturator sign Psoas sign Murphy's sign Rovsing's sign
appendicitis C
The earliest of the 'classic' clinical feature of a
141 Stretch pain Absence of pulses Paralysis Sensory disturbances
compartment syndrome is : A
Flexion, abduction, external Flexion, abduction, internal
142 The deformities seen in Tuberculosis of hip joint are Flexion, external rotation Flexion, internal rotation
rotation rotation A
The most common organisms causing acute
143 Staphylococcus aureus Pseudomonas Klebsiella Salmonella
osteomyelitis is A
144 The commonest true benign bone tumour is Osteoid osteoma Osteochondroma Hemangioma Enchondroma A
145 Parathyroid hormone directly acts on Osteoclasts Osteoblasts Osteocytes Macrophages B
Deformity seen in malunited supracondylar fracture in
146 Cubitus Valgus Gun stock deformity Garden spade deformity Dinner fork deformity
children is B
147 The Muscle supplied by axillary nerve: Teres major Teres minor Supraspinatus Infraspinatus B
The site of Flexor tendon injury in the hand, once
148 zone-1 zone-2 zone-3 zone-4
referred to as "no man's land" is B
149 Most sensitive tent to diagnose ACL tear : Anterior Drawer Test Lachman test Pivot shift test post drawer test B
150 The most common site for skeletal TB is : Spine Knee Hip Shoulder A
What wil you find in tuningfork test in severe degree of Falase Rinne -ve in affected
151 Rinne +ve in affected Ear Rinne -ve in affected Ear No response
unilateral sensori neural hearing loss? Ear
D
In case of unsafe variety of CSOM which clinical Foul smelling purulent Foul smelling mucopurulent
152 Attic perforation Granulation tissue
feature of not associated? discharge discharge C
In Uniletral foul smelling nasal discharge in a child
153 Allergic Rhinitis Foreign body in nose Atrophic Rhinintis Vasomotor Rhinitis
what will be your most probable diagnosis B
In meneire's disease which of the following is not a
154 Hearing Aid Anxiolytics Vestibular sedatives Salt restricted diet
preferred treatment? A
Prognosis of which squamous cell cancer of laynx is
155 Cancer pyriform Fossa Supraglotic cancer Glottic cancer Subglottic cancer
poor? D
A 40-year old person presents to the eye clinic with
headache. You need to do fundus examination to rule Tropicamide 1% with
156 Phenylephrine 10% Atropine 1% Homatropine
out papilledema. The drug of choice for dilating the phenylephrine 2.5%
pupil is C

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 ODISHA PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
Recruitment to the Post of Insurance Medical Officer & Specialist [Advt. No. 02 of 2020-21]
Question Paper & Answer Key of the Computer Based Recruitment Exam held on 20.12.2020
Sr No Question OPTION-A OPTION-B OPTION-C OPTION-D Answer

What is the most opportune time to record visual As soon as possible after the At the time of admission
157 At the age of 40 years When symptomatic
acuity of a person? age of 3 years to the school
A
Which of the following drugs is LEAST toxic when used Statins (HMG-COA reductase
158 Corticosteroids Chloroquine Ethambutol
over long term inhibitors) D
A patient is diagnosed recently as type 2 diabetes At the current visit even if At the current visits, only if
When the patient has visual 5 Years from the date of
159 mellitus. When is the most appropriate time to do blood sugar levels are he has uncontrolled
symptoms diagnosis
fundus examination normal diabetes B
In gestational diabetes,
If she had macular edema
frequent fundus Non-proliferative diabetic
Pre-existing diabetic during the current
In a preganant woman with diabetes, which of the examination are retinopathy may progress to
160 retinopathy is affected by pregnancy, it may
following statements is NOT true recommended to detect proliferative diabetic
pregnancy occasionally resolve after
diabetic retinopathy at retinopathy
the child birth
the earliest.
B
A patient presents with headache and is noted to have He is likely to have superficial His blood pressure should His blood pressure should be
He may have renal, and
161 blood pressure of 200/120mm of Hg. Which of the retinal haemorrhages and be lowered very lowered in a controlled
cardiac involvement
following statements about him is NOT true cotton wool spots aggressively fashion
D
An old person has healthy All people should wash Cataract does NOT have to
Reading in dim light is
162 Which of the following statements is TRUE eyes if he is able to read their eyes to keep them be ripe before cataract
harmful to the eyes
newspaper without glasses clean surgery can be undertaken
D
Examination of the optic Diagnosis can not be made
Which of the following statements about Open angle Glaucoma incidence There is a racial
163 nerve head is crucial in in the absense of raised
glaucoma is NOT true increases with age predilection
diagnosis intraocular pressure
D
Patients with posterior Compared to posterior
Long term corticosteroid use Patinets with nuclear
Which of the following statements about types of subcapsular cataract have subcapsular cataract, the
164 may lead to posterior sclerosis may show a myopic
cataract is NOT true of the following more rapid decrease in nuclear cataract produces
subcapsular cataract shift in their refractive error
vision more difficulty in near vision
C
Which of the following is most useful in assessing Optical coherence Fundus fluorescein
165 Amsler Grid Direct Ophthalmoscopy
macular function tomography angiography B
Which of the following symptoms in a patient with Red
166 eye does not require an immediate referral to an eye Blurring of vision Color haloes Pain Itching
specialist D
Which of the following signs in a red eye do not
167 Small pupil Irregular pupil Dilated pupil Sluggishly reacting pupil
support the diagnosis of Iritis C
It is a serious infection and
Which of the following statements is NOT true of the Fluorescein staining shows a topical corticosteroids should be treated with
168 referral to a specialist is
herpetic keratitis branching pattern on cornea hasten healing acyclovir ointment
necessary B
Which of the following is likely in an old person who
169 presents with blurring of vision and photophobia and is Old corneal scar Scleritis Corneal ulcer Conjunctivitis
noted to have a white opacity of the cornea
C

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 ODISHA PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
Recruitment to the Post of Insurance Medical Officer & Specialist [Advt. No. 02 of 2020-21]
Question Paper & Answer Key of the Computer Based Recruitment Exam held on 20.12.2020
Sr No Question OPTION-A OPTION-B OPTION-C OPTION-D Answer

An industrial worker reports after splash of some Refer the patient

Patch the eye first and then Instil frequent antibiotic
170 unknown chemical into his eyes. The most approptiate immediately to an Wash the eye with water
refer to an ophthalmologist drops
immediate management strategy is ophthalmologist
B
Increased secretion of
Non Steroidal water soluble Secreted by graffian
171 Following are the features of inhibin except Stimulates FSH secretion inhibin occurs in polycystic
protein follicle
ovarian disease
C
All of the following appear to decrease hot flushes in
172 Androgens Raloxifene Isoflavones Tibolone
menopausal women except B
16 years old girl presents with rapid onset hirsutism
173 Testosterone estimation Dihydroepiandrosterone Adrenocorticoids LH & FSH estimation
and amenorrhea. Best investigation is:
A
A lady presented with creamy white vaginal discharge
174 Doxycycline Ofloxacine Metronidazole Clindamycin
with fishy odor, drug of choice is: C
175 Cervical hostility is tested by following except: Spinbarkeit Post coital test Miller kuzrole test Keller test D
Methods used for laparoscopic sterilization include the
176 Electrocoagulation Falope ring Irving Filchie clip
following except C

177 Red degeneration in uterine fibroid is most common in Second trimester Third trimester Puerperium First trimester
A
In a case of secondary amenorrhea who fails to get
178 withdrawl bleeding after taking E & P, the fault lies at Pituitary Hypothalamus Ovary Endometrium
the level of D
Young lady comes with mild erosion of cervix and pap
179 Antibiotics Colposcopy Cryosurgery Conization
smear shows dysplasia, next step is : B
Post menopausal women has a 4X4 cm ovarian mass.
180 Wait and Watch Surgical exploration Progesterone pills Clomiphene therapy
What is the correct line of management: B
181 Mature graffian follicle preovulatory is less than 12mm 1.4m 18mm 25mm C
First two weeks after 3-8 weeks after 13-20 weeks after
182 Maximum teratogenecity occurs during 8-12 weeks after conception
conception conception conception B
The most common manifestations of puerperal
183 Peritonitis Endometritis Parametritis Salpingitis
infection is: B
The MTP act permits It should be done only in
Which one of the following statements regarding MTP it is governed by the act of it can be performed by
184 termination of pregnancy those places which fulfill the
is incorrect 1971 trained personnel
for medical reasons only criteria laid down in the act
B
in which part of fallopian tube ectopic pregnancy will
185 Isthmus Ampulla Cornua Interstitium
have longest survival D
A 25 years old female wad diagnosed to have Hysterectomy and then
186 Chemotherapy Radiotherapy Hysterectomy
choriocarcinoma, management is: Radiotherapy A
Anti-D prophylaxis should be given in all of the Medical abortion for 63 days Amniocentesis at 16 Intrauterine transfusion at
187 Manual removal of placenta
following conditions except: pregnancy weeks 28 weeks C
Which of the following is seen in the infant of a
188 Hyperkalemia Hypercalcemia Macrocytic anemia Polycythemia
diabetic mother D
Most appropriate time for chorionic villi sampling in
189 16-20 weeks 12-14 weeks 9-11 weeks 8-10 weeks
pregnancy is: D
Moderate anemia at 24-
190 Not an indicator for blood transfusion: Severe anemia at 36 weeks Blood loss anemia Refractory anemia
30 weeks B

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 ODISHA PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
Recruitment to the Post of Insurance Medical Officer & Specialist [Advt. No. 02 of 2020-21]
Question Paper & Answer Key of the Computer Based Recruitment Exam held on 20.12.2020
Sr No Question OPTION-A OPTION-B OPTION-C OPTION-D Answer

A 25 years old male is undergoing incision & drainage

of abscess under general anaesthesia with
191 Mapelson A Mapelson B Mapelson C Mapelson D
spontaneous respiration. The most efficient
anaesthetic circuit which can be used is
A
Minimal alveloar Minimal analgesic Minimal anaesthetic Maximum alveloar
192 MAC stands for
concentration concentration concentration concentration A
Causes raised Intracranial Decreases Intraocular
Which of the following is not true about Short acting depolarizing Myasthenics are resistant to
193 Pressure, Bradycardia, Pressure, and no
suxamethonium/succinylcholine(Sch) muscle relaxant suxamethonium
fasciculation fasciculation
C
Peripheral nerve and nerve
194 Bier's Block is which of the following Subarachnoid block Infiltration & surface block Intravenous block
root block C
Patient is mechanically
During rapid sequence induction of anaesthesia which Sellick's manouvre is not Preoxygenation is Suxamethonium is
195 ventilated before
of the following is true required mandatory contraindicated
endotracheal intubation B
196 Delusion is characterised by Fixed Belief Not shared by other Usually false All of this above D
197 Schizophrenia is primarily a disorder of Thinking Emotion Perception None of this above C
198 Tablet Aripripazole is a Anti-Depressiant Anti-Psychotic Anxiolytic Mood stabilizer B

199 In India, highest incidence of suicide as per ICMR Young Adult Female Male Farmer
A
200 The Core symptoms of depression Lack of sleep Lack of Pleasure Loss of appetite Weight Loss B

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