C 1. Sumatriptan is contrindicated in which subset of patients? b.

Hirudin
a. Patients with broncospastic disease c. Lepirudin
b. Patients with acute attacks of migraine d. Heparin
c. Patients with ischemic heart disease e. Dalteparin
d. Patients with hypertension
e. Patients with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome D 8. What is the primary indication of the anticoagulant derived from
medicinal leeches or its recombinant form?
D 2. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Arachidonic a. Anticoagulation when necessary during pregnancy
acid? b. When initiatin anticoagulation therapy in patient requiring chronic
I. It is 20-carbon known as eicosapentaenoic acid anticoagulation
II. It is mobilized from phospholipids by the enzyme phospholipase A2 c. Treatment of and prophylaxis against pulmonary
III. It is released from phospholipids by the action of the enzymes thromboembolism
phopholipase C and Diglyceride lipase d. Management of thrombosis associated with heparin-induced
a. I only thrombocytopenia
b. II only e. In patients with AMI or unstable angina pectoris
c. I and III
d. II and III A 9. What is the mechanism of action of regular heparin?
e. I, II, and III a. Activates antithrombin III which in turn inactivates a number of
activated clotting factors
E 3. Which of the following eicosanoids is a product of the metabolism of
Arachidonic acid by the cyclooxygenase enzyme? b. Activation of plasminogen to plasmin leading to destruction of
a. Leukotrienes fibrin and fibrinogen
b. Isoprostanes c. Inhibits the reductive activation of vitamin K epoxide to the
c. Epoxides hydroquinone form
d. Lipoxins d. Inhibits activvation of prothrombin to thrombin
e. Prostaglandins e. Mimics the action of epsilon-aminocaproic acid

C 4. Which of the following correctly differentiate/s COX-1 from COX-2

D 10. The activity of regular heparin when given intravenously is best
isozymes?
monitored atleast every 6 hours for the first 24 hours of therapy using
I. COX-1 is widely distributed and constitutively expressed
what parameter?
II. COX-1 is expressed upon stimulation by sytokines and growth
a. Protime
factors
b. Platelet count
III. COX-2 is expressed by inflammatory and immune cells
c. Clot reaction time
a. I only
d. Activated partial thromboplastin time
b. II only
e. Bleeding time
c. I and III
d. II and III
A 11. When regular heparin is used subcutaneously, which of the followinh
e. I, II, and III
statements is correct?
a. There is no need to monitor activity in most cases
B 5. Which of the following effects is caused by Prostacylin?
b. Monitoring of activity must be done on a weekly instead of daily
a. Bronchoconstriction
basis
b. Vasoldilation of the blood vessels
c. Monitoring must be done using aPTT
c. Inhibition of gastric acid secretion
d. Monitoring of activity must be done regularly using the PT value
d. Contraction of the uterus
e. Monitoring of activity must be done using the platelet count
e. Inhibition of renin secretion
A 11. Which of the following agents must be classified as a low molecular
B 6. Which of the following statement/s is correctly describe/s the
weight heparin?
pharmacokinetics of Aspirin?
a. Enoxaparin
I. Aspirin can be absorbed in the stomach and the small intestines in the
b. Regular heparin
hydrolyzed form
c. Warfarin
II. Elimination of aspirin can be best described as following a
d. Hirudin
Michaelis-Menten kinetics
e. Phenindione
III. Acidification of the urine facilitates renal elimination of Salicylates
a. I only
C 12. Which of the following parameters must be measured when a patient on
b. II only
low molecular weight heparin develops bleeding that may be associated
c. I and III
with therapy?
d. II and III
a. aPTT
e. I, II, and III
b. Prothrombin time
c. Factor X assay
B 7. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the
d. Factor IX assay
anti-platelet aggregation effect of Aspirin?
e. Bleeding time
I. Discontinuation of Aspirin immediate restores platelet aggregation in
matter of 1-2 days
D 13. Bleeding associated with the use of regular heparin is best managed
II. The mechanism involves irreversible acetylation of the
with which of the following interventions?
cyclooxygenase enzyme in platelets
a. Immediate stopping of therapy
III. The effect is clinically significant in all dose ranges for Aspirin
b. Administration of Tranexamic acid
a. I only
c. Administration of vitamin K
b. II only
d. Administration of protamine sulfate and stopping therapy
c. I and III
e. Lowering of the current dose without stopping therapy
d. II and III
e. I, II, and III
B 14. What is the primary drawback with phenprocoumon that limit its
C 6. Which of the following anticoagulant is produced by recombinant DNA clinical use in the management of thrombosis?
technology from the gene that encodes the natural anticoagulant derived from a. Ist metabolism to a hepatotoxic metabolite
medicinal leeches? b. Ita long half-life
a. Dicumarol c. Its prominent gastrointestinal side effects
 d. Its high degree of protein binding e. Activate the endogenous anti coagulants protein C and protein S
e. The long delay in its onset of action
A 22. Which of the following is classified as a thrombolytic agent?
C 15. Warfarin exerts its effect primarily by inhibiting the a. Reteplase
gamma-carboxylation of the glutamate residues of which of the b. Warfarin
following clotting factors? c. Argatroban
a. IXa,Xa, XIa, XIIIa d. Bivalirudin
b. IIa, VIIa, IXa, Xa e. Lepirudin
c. II, VII, IX, X
d. IX, X, XI, XIII D 23. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the use of
e. I, II, V, VII thrombolytic agents in myocardial infarction?
I. Best response is seen if the drug is given within 24 hours from onset
A 16. When warfarin is used as anticoagulant, the achievement of a maximal of symptoms
hypothrombinemic effect is expected to be delayed. What is the II. Generally given to patients with ST segment elevation
primary reason for this delay in warfarin effect? III. Absolute contraindication is a history of stroke of less than 1 year
a. The presence of preformed clotting factors in the plasma which a. I only d. II and III
have biiologic half-lives 6 to 60 hours b. II only e. I, II and III
b. The high degree of protein binding which dela entry of the drug c. I and III
into its biologic site of action
c. The delay of activation of precursor clotting factors due to high B 24. Which of the following agents is associated with formation of antibodies
levels of activation-inhibitors that can cause development of allergic reaction with subsequent
d. The ability of warfarin to induce its own metabolism which exposure to the drug?
delays achievement of therapeutic levels by days a. Urokinase d. Tissue plasminogen Activator
e. The ability of warfarin to interfere with the assay done to measure b. Streptokinase e. Tenecteplase
its activity c. Alteplase
B 25. Which of the following mechanisms may lead to inhibition of platelet
B 17. Cutaneous necrosis which can develop during the frist few weeks of aggregation?
therapy is expected with warfarin due to which of the following I. Activation of antithrombin III
mechanisms? II. Thromboxane synthesis inhibition
a. Idiosyncratic and paradoxical increase in the rate of synthesis of a III. Guanylyl cyclase inhibition
number of clotting factors A. I only d. II and III
b. Earlier decline in the circulating levels of natural anticoagulants B. II only e. I, II and III
causing predominance of procoagulant clotting factors C. I and II
c. Intrinsic thrombogenic property of warfarin molecules C 26. Which of the following mechanisms correctly describes the mechanism
d. Direct reduction in tissue perfusion as a consequence of the of action of aspirin as an inhibitor of platelet aggregation?
allergic property of warfarin A. Irreversible inhibition of platelet and endothelial cell
e. Hypotensive effective of warfarin which reditributes blood flow to cyclooxygenase
critical sites in the body B. Irreversible inhibition of endothelial cell cyclooxygenase
C. Irreversible inhibition of platelet cyclooxygenase
B 18. A patient on warfarin for the last 4 weeks for DVT has a PT INR of 4 D. Reversible inhibition of platelet and endothelial cell
but without evidence of bleeding. What is the most appropriate cyclooxygenase
intervention? E. Reversible inhibition of endothelial cell cyclooxygenase
a. No intervention as within target INR range E 27. Which of the following agents requires weekly WBC monitoring within
b. Reduction of the dose by atleast half the first 3 months of treatment due to a risk of causing leukopenia?
c. Adimintration of vitamin K A. Cilostazol C. abciximab
d. Adminitration of protamine sulfate B. Dipyridamole D. Clopidogrel
e. Administration of tranexamic acid E.Ticlodipine
B 28. Which of the following agents is associated with development of
thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura?
A 19 . Which of the following drugs or conditions can increase the activity of
A. Aspirin D. Eptifibatide
warfarin by affecting the drug’s absorption, distribution, and B. Ticlodipine E. Cilostazol
elimination? C. Tirobifan
a. Cimetidine C 29. Which of the following agents is classified as an inhibitor of
b. Rifampicin change to vegetarian diet glycoprotein IIb/IIIa and is useful in patients with acute coronary
c. The presence of hepatic disease syndrome and those undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention?
d. Concurrent use of heparin A. Clopidogrel D. Cilostazol
B. Ticlodipine E. Urokinase
D 20. What interaction is present with concominant use of warfarin and the C. Abciximab
pyrazolone NSAIDs? C 30. What is the most important adverse effect of Dipyridamole when given
I. Inhibition of urinary excretion of warfarin to patients with ischemic heart disease?
II. Inhibition of the oxidative metabolism of S-Warfarin A. Significant thrombocytopenia D. Severe diarrhea
III. Displacement of Warfarin from its protein binding B. Vasospasm of coronary vessels E. intermittent claudication
a. I only C. Coronary steal phenomenon
b. II only C 31. What is the mechanism of action of the drug Tranexamic acid?
c. I and III A. ADP inhibition
d. II and III B. Serine protease inhibition
e. I, II, and III C. Inhibits plasminogen activation
D. Inhibits reductase hydrolysis of Vitamin K epoxide
C 21. Which of the following correctly describes the mechanism of action of E. Increase factor VIII activity
fibrinolytic agents? B 32. What is the primary use of the drug Desmopressin?
a. Directly catalyze the proteolysis of fobrin and fibrinogen I. Management of nephrogenic Diabetes insipidus
b. Inhibit the action of thrombin by preventing its binding to fibrin II. Management of Central Diabetes Insipidus
and fibrinogen III. Control of gastrointestinal bleeding
c. Activate plasminogen to plasmin, a serine protease that catalyzes A. I only
breakdown of fibrin and fibrinogen B. II only
d. Inhibit activation of fibrinogen by proteolysis of thrombin C. I and III
 D. II and III E. I, II and III
E. I, II and III
A 33. Which of the following statements correctly describes the thyroid B 40. Which of the following cautions must be observed when iodides are
hormones? given to treat hypothyroidism?
I. T3 is better absorbed after oral administration than T4 I. Iodides must be initiated before thionamide therapy
II. Peripheral deiodination of T3 converts it to more active T4 II.Iodides must be avoided if treatment with radioactive iodine is likely
III. Hypothyroidism increases the clearance of both hormones leading III. Iodides are the preffered drugs for chronic therapy during pregnancy
to a decrease in their half-lives A. I only
A. I only B. II only
B. II only C. I and III
C. I and III D. II and III
D. II and III E. I, II and III
E. I, II and III
E 34. Which of the following agents may interfere with the absorption of D 41. What is the role of beta-blockers in the management of thyrotoxicosis?
levothyroxine that patient must be advised on the proper interval of I. beta-blockers can inhibit the peroxidase-catalyzed reaction in the
intake with this/these agents? synthesis of thyroid hormones
I. Sucralfate II. Beta-blockers control the sympathetic symptoms of hyperthyroidism
II. Ferrous sulfate III. Beta-blockers may inhibit the peripheral conversion of T4 to T3
III. Aluminum hydroxide A. I only
A. I only B. II only
B. II only C. I and III
C. I and III D. II and III
D. II and III E. I, II and III
E. I, II and III
E 41. Which of the following statements correctly describes the thyroid
D 35. A 43 year old female who works in a hospital was admitted for hormone replacement therapy?
tachycardia, palpitations and weight loss. Her T4 was elevated with I. Infants and children with congenital hypothyroidism require higher
suppresses TSH but her thyroid scan showed a normal-sized gland with dose per kilogram body weight than adults
normal iodine uptake. Which of the following should be suspected? II. Steady state levels of thyroxine takes about 6-8 weeks to achieve
A. Presence of Grave’s disease after initiating therapy
B. Presence of solitary toxic nodule III. Older adults and those with long-standing disease must be started
C. Iodine deficiency goiter on lower than usual dose of levothyroxine
D. Illicit intake of Levothyroxine A. I only
E. Hypothyroidism B. II only
C. I and III
B 36. A patient is receiving 50mg of Propylthiouracil three times a day. If the
D. II and III
plan is to shift her medication to methimazole, what dose of
E. I, II and III
methimazole should you recommended?
A. 5 mg once daily
A 42. What is the Primary role if Zinc in commercial insulin preparations?
B. 15 mg once daily
A. Improve stability and shelf-life of insulin
C. 30 mg once daily
B. Improve solubility of insulin
D. 45 mg once daily
C. Enhance the activity of insulin in receptors
E. 60 mg once daily
D. Facilitate absorption of insulin from subcutaneous tissue
E. Enhance the activity of suspending agent
A 37. In monitoring response to therapy with methimazole, which of the
following findings taken 3 months after initiating therapy best indicates
D 43. The transport of glucose that is facilitated by insulin is mediated by
good response to therapy?
which of the following transporters?
A. a normal TSH
A. GLUT1
B. a normal T4
B. GLUT2
C. a lower than normal T4
C. GLUT3
D. a lower than normal TSH
D. GLUT4
E. a higher than normal TSH
E. GLUT 5
D 38. Which of the following describes the mechanism of action of the
E 44. What is the primary advantage of Insulin Lispro compared to regular
thioamides for the management of hyperthyroidism?
Insulin?
I. Block uptake of iodine by the follicular cells
A. Longer duration of action reaching up to 6 hours
II. Block the peroxidase-catalyzed reactios
B. No associated peak levels
III. Block coupling of iodotyrosines
C. It is less immunogenic
A. I only
D. Less likelihood to cause hypoglycemic episodes
B. II only
E. Rapid onset of action in 5 to 15 minutes
C. I and III
D. II and III A 45. Which of the following new insulin preparations has a characteristics
E. I, II and III release pattern that shows no peak and a plateau serum insulin level
that is maintained for about 24 hours?
A 39. Which of the following interventions may be appropriate to monitor or A. Insulin Glargine
treat thionamide-associated agranulocytosis? B. Insulin Lispro
I. Discontinuing the offending drug usually reverses the side-effect C. insulin Aspart
II. Monitoring the WBC is necessary for the first three months of D. Ultralente Insulin
therapy E. NPH Insulin
III. Switching of therapy from one thionamide to another may reverse
the effect C 46. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Lente
A. I only Insulin?
B. II only I. It is a mixture of 30% semilente and 70% ultralente Insulin
C. I and III II. It is also known as NPH
D. II and III III. It is an intermediate-acting Insulin preparation
 A. I only B. Repaglinitide
B. II only C. Acarbose
C. I and III D. Tolazamide
D. II and III E. Rosiglitazone
E. I, II and III
A 55. Which of the following drugs may be given to type 1 DM patients as a
D 47. Immune insulin resistance is said to be due to production of low levels combination therapy with Insulin?
of what type of insulin antibodies? A. Voglibose
A. IgA B. Repaglinide
B. IgD C. Nateglinide
C. IgE D. Chlorpropamide
D. IgG E. Glyburide
E. IgM
D 56. Which of the following are clinical use of Glucagon?
C 48. Which of the following oral anti-diabetic drugs is/are known to induce I. Reverse the physical deformity associated with acromegaly
hypoglycemia among diabetic and euglycemic individuals? II. Management of severe hypoglycemia
I. Sulfonylureas III. Reverse the cardiac effects of beta blockers overdose
II. Biguanides A. I only
III. Meglitinides B. II only
A. I only C. I and III
B. II only D. II and III
C. I and III E. I, II and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III B 57. Which of the following is the common complication associated with the
alpha-glucosidase inhibitors?
A 49. Which of the following antidiabetic drugs produced control of blood A. Cardiac arrhythmia
sugar by promoting directly or indirectly the release of insulin by the B. Flatulence
remaining functional beta cells of the pancreas? C. Congestive heart failure
I. Meglitinides D. Hepatotoxicity
II. Biguanides E 58. What is the mechanism of action of Glucagon that makes the drug useful
III. Thiazolidinediones derivatives for the management of overdoses or poisoning with drugs that directly
A. I only inhibit myocardial contractility?
B. II only A. glucagon directly stimulates calcium release from the
sarcoplasmic reticulum
C. I and III
B. Glucagon directly binds to beta adrenergic receptors leading to an
D. II and III
increase cAMP
E. I, II and III C. Glucagon binds to glucagons receptors that stimulates production
of IP3 and cause an increase in intracellular calcium
A 50. Which of the following antidiabetic drugs has the longest half-life? D. Glucagon binds to glucagons receptors leading to generation of
A. Chlorpropramide cAMP
B. Tolazamide E. Glucagon increases cAMP levels by inhibiting the enzyme
C. Tolbutamide phosphodiesterase
D. Glyburide
E. Glimepiride C 59. A 501 year old, female patient arrives to the Emergency Department due
to the severe chest pain. Electrocardiogram revealed that she has an
C 51. What is the recommended clinical use of Repaglinide in the acute myocardial infarction. The medical resident-on-duty gave
management of Diabetes mellitus? Streptokinase as her first dose. What is the mechanism of action of
A. Primarily given to control fasting blood glucose levels Streptokinase?
B. Improves tissue response to insulin A. It inhibits the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin
C. Control post-prandial hyperglycemia
B. It promotes the conversion of fibrin to fibrin-split products
D. Control overnight blood sugar
C. It inactivates the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin
E. Prevent absorption of carbohydrates
D. It inhibits the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
D 52. Which of the following drugs is a Biguanide? B 60. A 56 year old male patient, with hypertension and DM type 2. He
A. Acetohexamide managed his diabetes by insulin. What antihypertensive drug should not
B. Rosiglitazone be used on his case?
C. Nateglinide A. Metoprolol
D. Metformin
B. Propranolol
E. Acarbose
C. Methyldopa
C 53. In which individuals should Biguanides be avoided as part of therapy D. Hydralazine
for DM because of increased risk of lactic acidosis?
I. Chronic alcoholics A 61. What is the coagulation factor released by Desmopressin?
II. Coronary Artery disease A. Factor VIII
III. Chronic hepatits B. Factor IX
A. I only C. Factor X
B. II only D. Factor X
C. I and III C 62. The mechanisms of action of clopidogrel include which of the ff?
D. II and III I. Irreversibly blocks the P2Y12 component of ADP receptors on the
platelet surface
E. I, II and III
II. Prevents activation of the GPIIb/IIIa receptor complex
III. Increase platelet aggregation
E 54. Which of the following drugs is involved in regulating the genes
A. I only
involved in lipid and glucose metabolism and adiposite differentiation
B. II only
by acting as ligand of the PPAR-gamma, thus useful for the managing
C. I and II only
Insulin resistance?
D. II and III only
A. Metformin
 E. I, II and III A 72. This hormone modulates appetite, gastric emptying time and glucagon
and insulin secretion.
E 63. The mechanisms of action of Imdur include which of the ff? A. Islet amyloid polypeptide
I. Decrease preload as measured by pulmonary capillary wedge B. Somatostatin
pressure and left ventricular end diastolic volume and pressure C. Pancreatic peptide
II. Average reduction in left ventricular end diastolic volume is 25% at D. None of the above
rest A 73. This is a soluble "peakless" ultra long acting insulin analog
III. Increase in ejection fractions of 50% to 60% A. Insulin glargine
A. I only B. Insulin detemir
B. II only C. NPH
C. I and II only D. None of the above
D. II and III only B 74. Which is/are not true about thioamides
E. I, II and III I. Methimazole and propylthiouracil are major drugs for treatment of
thyrotoxicosis
B 64. Which among the ff. insulin is the most recently developed long acting II. Methimazole is less potent than propylthiouracil
insulin analog that has a dose-dependent onset of action of 1-2 hours and III. Carbimazole is converted to methimazole in the body
duration of action of more than 24 hours. A. I only
A. NPH insulin B. II only
B. Insulin glargine C. I and II only
C. Insulin detemir D. II and III only
D. None of the above E. I, II and III
B 75. It is the end state of untreated hypothyroidism which is associated with
A 65. The ff. is/are true about Type 4 Diabetes Mellitus progressive weakness, stupor, hypothermia, hypoventilation,
I. It is defined as any abnormality in glucose levels noted for the first hypoglycemia and death.
time during pregnancy. A. Hashimoto's thyroiditis
II. The designation refers to multiple other specific causes of an Elevated B. Grave's Disease
blood glucose: nonpancreatic diseases and drug therapy etc. C. Myexedema coma
III. It is characterized by tissue resistance to the action of insulin D. None of the above
combined with a relative deficiency in insulin secretion. C 76. It is the sudden acute exacerbation of all the symptoms of
A. I only thyrotoxicosis, presenting as a life-threatening syndrome.
B. II only A. Grave's syndrome
C. I and II only B. Opthalmopathy
D. II and III only C. Thyroid storm
E. I, II and III D. Dermopathy
D 66. Which among the ff. sulfonylureas achieves blood glucose lowering at D 77. Which oh the ff. is not a sign nor symptom of Grave's Disease
the lowest dose I. Plummer's nail
A. Tolbutamide II. Endophthalmos
B. Glyburide III. Decreased sweating
C. Glipizide A. I only
D. Glimepiride B. II only
C. I and II only
A 67. These are drugs which are ligand of peroxisome proliferator-activated D. II and III only
receptor-gamma (PPAR-gamma) E. I, II and III
A. Thiazolidinediones
B. Meglitinides A 78. It is a syndrome of thyroid enlargement without excessive thyroid
C. Sulfonylurea hormone production.
D. None of the above A. Nontoxic goiter
B. Hashimoto's Disease
E 68. Which among the ff. is/are the cause/s of hypoglycemia with patients C. Thyroid storm
under tight glycemic control? D. None of the above
I. delay in taking meal D 79. Which among the ff. pair/s of "etiology/pathogenesis" of
II. inadequate carbohydrate consumed hypothyroidism is/are correct?
III. unusual physical exertion I. Cretinism/blocked hormone formation
A. I only II. Hashimoto's thyroiditis/autoimmune destruction of thyroid
B. II only III. Dyshormogenesis/impaired synthesis of T4 due to enzyme
C. I and II only deficiency
D. II and III only A. I only
E. I, II and III B. II only
C. I and II only
C 69. What is the first incretin therapy to become available in the treatment of D. II and III only
diabetes. E. I, II, and III
A. Sitagliptin
B. Pramlintide C 80. Which among the ff. is/are not a physiologic effect of insulin?
C. Exenatide I. Inhibits glycogenesis
D. Rosiglitazone II. Increase glucose transport
A 70. It is a 69-amino acid peptide which contains the glucagon sequence III. Promotes intracellular lipase
interposed between peptide extensions A. I only
A. Glicentin B. II only
B. Pepsin C. I and II only
C. Glucagon-like peptides D. II and III only
D. Phosphodiesterases E. I, II, and III
C 71. Which among the ff. is available in inhaled form of rapid acting insulin
A. insulin aspart A 81. This drug inhibits dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4)
B. Insulin lispro A. Sitagliptin
C. Human insulin recombinant B. Pramlintide
D. Insuline glulisine
 C. Exenatide A. Glipizide
D. Acarbose B. Lispro insulin
C. Proglitazone
E 82. Which among the ff. is/are the physiologic effect/s of amylin: D. Replaganide
I. modulate insulin release by acting as a negative feedback ion insulin E. Acarbose
secretion
II. reduces glucagon secretion C 92. Statement 1: Warfarin therapy is monitored by INR. Statement 2: It is
III. slows gastric emptying by vagally medicated mechanism important to maintain the INR between 2 to 3.
A. I only A. If Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is incorrect
B. II only B. If Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1 is incorrect
C. I and II only C. If both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
D. II and III only D. If Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
E. I, II, and III E. None of the above
D 93. The following statements about alteplase are true except:
A 83. Marie is pregnant and was diagnosed with thyrotoxicosis. Which of the A. It is produce by recombinant DNA technology
following thioamides should be given to her? B. It is a tissue plasminogen activator
A. PTU C. It is administered parenterally
B. Methimazole D. It stimulate RBC production
C. Carbimazide E. NOTA
D. Mebendazole
E. All of the above A 94. It is the antidote for warfarin toxicity.
A. Vitamin K
A 84. Soluble “peakles”, ultra long acting analog B. Vitamin C
A. Glargine C. Vitamin E
B. NPH D. Pyridoxime
C. Insulin lispro E. Thiamine
D. All of the above
A 95. Laboratory test used to monitor therapy with unfractionated heparin.
A 85. Safest sulfonylurea for the elderly diabetics A. aPTT
A. Tolbutamide B. Creatine kinase
B. Chlorpropamide C. AST
C. Tolazamide D. PT
D. Nateglinide E. ALT
E. None of the above
D 96. Laboratory test used to monitor therapy with warfarin.
B 86. Synthetic analog of amylin that modulate postprandial glucose levels A. Aptt
and is approved for preprandial use in individuals with type I and type B. Creatine kinase
II DM C. AST
A. Sitagliptin D. PT
B. Pramlintide E. ALT
C. Exenatide
D. All of the above A 97. The following are clotting factors inhibited by warfarin and its analogs
E. None of the above EXCEPT
D 87. Useful for reversing the cardiac effects of an overdose of B-blocking A. III E. II
agents because ability to increase cAMP production in the heart B. X
A. Amylin C. IX
B. Exenatide D. VII
C. Sitagliptin C 98. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of Lepidoptera
D. Glucagon envenomation?
E. All of the above A. Decreased plasminogen levels
B. Increased risk of haemorrhaging
C 88. Activation of plasminogen to plasmin C. Decreased partial thromboplastin time
A. Is brought about by heparin D. Increased in prothrombin time
B. Is brought about by warfarin E. Decreased fibrinogen levels
C. Is brought about by anistreplase
D. Is used preoperatively and during surgery in patients at risk of B 99. It is rapidly acting antidote used for reversing the anticoagulant effects
deep vein thromboses of unfractionated heparin and for some of the effects of LMWH.
E. Can be reversed by administration of Vitamin K1 oxide A. Vitamin K
B. Protamine
D 89. Aspirin should be used cautiously in a patient receiving heparin because C. Hirudin
aspirin D. Tissue plasminogen activator
A. Inhibits Vitamin K absorption E. None of the above
B. Has antithrombin activity
C. Inhibits heparin metabolism A 100. It is polypeptide produced by the salivary glands of the medicinal
D. Inhibits platelet aggregation leech, hirudo medicinalis that reversibly blocks thrombin without the need for
E. All of the above antithrombin III.
A. Hirudin
E 90. Xalatan® can best be described as a(n) B. Heparin
A. Cholinesterase inhibitor C. Protamine
B. Osmotic diuretic D. Warfarin
C. Beta-adrenergic blocking agent E. None of the above
D. Prodrug
E. Prostaglandin agonist

E 91. Which hypoglycemic agent is most similar in pharmacological action in

miglitol?