12~19 생화학 테뱅 정리

Package Title: Pratt & Cornely Test Bank
Course Title: Pratt & Cornely

Chapter Number: 12
Question type: Multiple Choice
1) Plants are considered _____.
A) chemoautotrophs
B) photoautotrophs
C) chemoheterotrophs
D) photoheterotrophs
E) none of the above
Answer: B
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: 12-1
Learning Objective: Summarize the pathways for digesting and mobilizing metabolic fuels
2) Energy is generated during _____, the breakdown of larger molecules into smaller while
energy is consumed during _____, the building of larger molecules from smaller ones.
A) reduction reactions; oxidation reactions

B) autotrophic reactions; heterotrophic reactions
C) catabolic reactions; anabolic reactions
D) hydrolysis reactions; condensation reactions
Answer: C
Difficulty: Easy
3) Digestion of food by mammals converts _____ into _____ which can be absorbed from the
intestines.
A) proteins; dipeptides and tripeptides

B) polysaccharides; monosaccharides and disaccharides
C) cholesterol; acetyl CoA
D) nucleic acids; polynucleotides
E) triacylglycerols; fatty acids
Answer: E
Difficulty: Medium
4) Digestion of food utilizes enzymes that catalyze _____ reactions.
A) hydrolysis
B) reduction
C) condensation
D) oxidative
E) group transfer
Answer: A
Difficulty: Easy
5) Which of the following is used to move lipids around the bloodstream?
A) micelles
B) liposomes
C) liposuctions
D) lipoproteins
E) cholesterol esters
Answer: D
Difficulty: Easy
6) The bulk of triacylglycerols in the human body are stored in _____.
A) liver cells
B) adipocytes
C) muscle cells
D) nerve cells
E) lipoproteins
Answer: B
Difficulty: Easy
7) The _____ stores glucose as glycogen and converts excess glucose to _____.
A) muscle; amino acids

B) adipose tissue; fatty acids
C) liver; fatty acids
D) brain; energy
Answer: C
Difficulty: Medium
8) Amino acids can be converted to _____.
A) carbohydrates
B) fatty acids
C) nucleotides
D) peptides
E) all of the above
Answer: E
Difficulty: Easy
9) Which of the following is mobilized for energy use by a phosphorolysis reaction, not a
hydrolysis?
A) glycogen
B) protein
C) triacylglycerols
D) polynucleotides
E) cholesterol esters
Answer: A
Difficulty: Easy
10) Degradation of proteins within a cell can occur within the _____ or by use of _____.
A) endoplasmic reticulum; protease enzymes chymotrypsin and trypsin

B) Golgi apparatus; protease enzymes chymotrypsin and trypsin
C) endoplasmic reticulum; a proteasome
D) lysosome; a proteasome
E) mitochondria; ubiquitin
Answer: D
Difficulty: Medium
11) The _____-terminus of ubiquitin is linked to a _____ residue of proteins to be degraded.
A) N; Asp
B) N; Glu
C) C; Lys
D) C; Ser
E) C; Tyr
Answer: C
Difficulty: Easy
12) Which of the following molecules is involved with the oxidation of glucose, synthesis of
fatty acids and oxidation of fatty acids?
A) pyruvate
B) acetyl-CoA
C) alanine
D) oxaloacetate
E) glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
Answer: B
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: Recognize the common chemical features of metabolic pathways
13) A reaction that results in the loss of electrons from a molecule is a(n) _____.
A) reduction
B) ligation
C) hydrolysis
D) oxidation
E) phosphorolysis
Answer: D
Difficulty: Easy
14) Which of the following is more highly oxidized than acetaldehyde?
A) ethane
B) ethanol
C) ethylene
D) ethylene glycol
E) acetic acid
Answer: E
Difficulty: Medium
15) The oxidized form of NADH is _____.
A) NADH+
B) NAD+
C) NADH
D) NADH2
Answer: B
Difficulty: Easy
16) Which of the following molecules is in the most reduced state?
A) methane
B) formaldehyde
C) formic acid
D) methanol
E) carbon dioxide
Answer: A
Difficulty: Medium
17) The conversion of a carbohydrate into CO2 is a(n) _____ process; the conversion of CO2 into
a carbohydrate is a(n) _____ process.
A) reductive; oxidative
B) endergonic; exergonic
C) exergonic; endergonic
D) oxidative; exergonic
E) endergonic; reductive
Answer: C
Difficulty: Medium
18) Which of the following is a lipid-soluble electron carrier in its reduced state?
A) NADPH
B) NADH
C) NAD+
D) ubiquinol
E) ubiquinone
Answer: D
Difficulty: Easy
19) Which of the following is correct regarding metabolic pathways?
A) most pathways are isolated from other pathways

B) the activity of most pathways is not regulated
C) all cells within a multi-cellular organism contain the same pathways
D) anabolic pathways never occur at the same time as catabolic pathways
E) none of the above are correct
Answer: E
Difficulty: Hard
20) Which of the following is correctly described?
A) proteome: the complete set of proteins present in a cell at a given time

B) metabolome: the complete set of metabolic enzymes active in a cell at a given time
C) transcriptome: the complete set of proteins being synthesized at a given time
D) genome: the complete set of genes that are expressed at a given time
Answer: A
Difficulty: Hard
21) Which of the following is an essential amino acid?
A) Ala
B) Val
C) Cys
D) Tyr
E) Gly
Answer: B
Difficulty: Easy
22) Which of the following vitamins is correctly paired with its biochemical function?
A) folic acid: carboxylation reactions

B) biotin: decarboxylation reactions
C) riboflavin: acyl transfer reactions
D) pyridoxine: amino-group transfer reactions
E) pantothenic acid: redox reactions
Answer: D
Difficulty: Medium
23) Which of the following vitamins is correctly paired with the disease that is caused by its
deficiency?
A) biotin: scurvy
B) pantothenic acid: beriberi
C) nicotinamide: pellagra
D) thiamine: anemia
E) folic acid: rickets
Answer: C
Difficulty: Medium
24) When a reaction is at equilibrium, the G is equal to _____.
A) 1
B) 0
C) -1
D) ΔG°
Answer: B
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: Analyze the free energy changes that occur during metabolic reactions
25) If the ΔG° is known, how can Keq be calculated?
A) Keq = log e(ΔG°/RT)

B) Keq = e(ΔG°/TS)
C) Keq = RT ln ΔG°
D) Keq = e-(ΔG°/RT)
E) Keq = ln (ΔG°/TS)
Answer: D
Difficulty: Hard
26) For the following reaction, calculate the Keq at 25°C.
succinyl-CoA + acetoacetate acetoacetyl-CoA + succinate ΔG° = -1.25 kJ/mol
A) 0.602
B) 1.00
C) 1.66
D) 3.21
E) 4.22  102
Answer: C
Difficulty: Hard
27) For the following reaction, calculate the ΔG° at 37°C.
glucose-6-phosphate fructose-6-phosphate Keq = 0.517
A) -2.87 kJ/mol
B) -1.70 kJ/mol
C) 0.203 kJ/mol
D) -0.738 kJ/mol
E) 1.70 kJ/mol
Answer: E
Difficulty: Medium
28) For the following reaction, calculate the ΔG at 37°C, given concentrations for glucose-1-
phosphate of 25 mM and glucose-6-phosphate of 1 mM.
glucose-1-phosphate glucose-6-phosphate ΔG° = -7.1 kJ/mol
A) -15.4 kJ/mol
B) -8.1 kJ/mol
C) -6.1 kJ/mol
D) 1.2 kJ/mol
Answer: A
Difficulty: Hard
29) What is the intracellular glucose concentration if the ΔG for the following reaction is
-20.1 kJ/mol at 37°C and concentrations for glucose-6-phosphate and phosphate are both 1 mM?
glucose-6-phosphate glucose + Pi ΔG° = -13.8 kJ/mol
A) 1.9 M
B) 87 M
C) 1.9 mM
D) 27 mM
E) 87 mM
Answer: E
Difficulty: Hard
30) Which of the following describes the bonding of the three phosphates to adenosine in ATP?
How many phosphoanhydride bonds are found in ATP?
A) one phosphoanhydride bond, two low energy phosphate esters

B) two phosphoanhydride bonds, one low energy phosphate ester
C) three phosphoanhydride bonds, one low energy phosphate ester
D) three phosphoanhydride bonds
Answer: B
Difficulty: Medium
31) If the following reactions were coupled, what would be the overall ΔG°?
glucose + Pi glucose-6-phosphate ΔG° = 13.8 kJ/mol

ATP + H2O ADP + Pi ΔG° = -30.5 kJ/mol
A) 44.3 kJ/mol
B) 16.7 kJ/mol
C) 0 kJ/mol
D) -16.7 kJ/mol
E) -44.3 kJ/mol
Answer: D
Difficulty: Medium
32) Generally speaking, ATP is produced by _____ reactions and used by _____ reactions.
A) catabolic; anabolic
B) anabolic; catabolic
C) endergonic; exergonic
D) oxidation; reduction
E) reduction; oxidation
Answer: A
Difficulty: Easy
33) Which of the following factors contributes to the highly exergonic nature of ATP hydrolysis?
A) removal of phosphate from the cytoplasm

B) addition of water to the hydrophilic ATP molecule
C) decrease in negative-ion repulsion in ATP
D) low energy of activation for the hydrolysis
Answer: C
Difficulty: Medium
34) Which of the following has the most spontaneous hydrolysis?
A) 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate
B) phosphocreatine
C) glucose-1-phosphate
D) pyrophosphate
E) phosphoenolpyruvate
Answer: E
Difficulty: Easy
35) In highly active muscle, _____ is used to regenerate ATP.
A) phosphocreatine
B) 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate
C) pyrophosphate
D) phosphoenolpyruvate
E) acetyl-CoA
Answer: A
Difficulty: Easy
36) The ΔG° for the hydrolysis of acetyl CoA is most similar to the ΔG° for the hydrolysis of
_____.
A) 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate
B) ATP
C) glucose-1-phosphate
D) glucose-6-phosphate
E) phosphoenolpyruvate
Answer: B
Difficulty: Easy

Chapter Number: 13
1) The process of _____ converts glucose into _____.
A) electron transport; CO2

B) glycolysis; pyruvate
C) glycogenolysis; glycogen
D) gluconeogenesis; glycogen
E) glycogen synthesis; pyruvate
Answer: B
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: Describe the substrate, product, and chemical reaction for each step of
glycolysis
2) What pathway is used to make glucose from other metabolites such as oxaloacetate?
A) glycogen synthesis
B) glycogen degradation
C) glycolysis
D) pentose phosphate pathway
E) gluconeogenesis
Answer: E
Difficulty: Easy
glycolysis
3) In eukaryotes, glycolysis typically occurs in the _____, gluconeogenesis typically occurs in

the _____.
A) mitochondria; cytosol
B) Golgi apparatus; mitochondria
C) endoplasmic reticulum; mitochondria
D) cytosol; cytosol
E) lysosome; cytosol
Answer: D
Difficulty: Easy
glycolysis
4) The coenzyme _____ is the oxidizing agent in glycolysis.
A) ADP
B) thiamine pyrophosphate
C) NAD+
D) FAD
E) biotin
Answer: C
Difficulty: Easy
glycolysis
5) Which of the following represents the net products of glycolysis from one molecule of
glucose?
A) 2 pyruvate, 2 NADH, 2 ATP

B) 2 pyruvate, 2 NADH, 4 ATP
C) 3 pyruvate, 2 NADH, 4 ATP
D) 6 CO2, 30 ATP
E) 6 CO2, 32 ATP
Answer: A
Difficulty: Medium
glycolysis
6) In glycolysis, the net gain of ATP during the energy investment phase is _____ while the net
gain of ATP during the energy payoff phase is _____.
A) -4; 6
B) -2; 4
C) -2; 2
D) -1; 3
E) 0; 2
Answer: B
Difficulty: Medium
glycolysis
7) Hexokinase is an example of a(n) _____ enzyme
A) ligase
B) hydrolase
C) transferase
D) ligase
E) isomerase
Answer: C
Difficulty: Medium
glycolysis
8) With a G of -16.7 kJ/mol, the reaction catalyzed by hexokinase is considered to be _____.
A) at equilibrium
B) substrate and product concentration dependent
C) freely reversible
D) metabolically irreversible
Answer: D
Difficulty: Medium
glycolysis
9) Phosphoglucose isomerase has a G of 2.2 kJ/mol but a G of -1.4 kJ/mol. Based upon this
difference, which of the following is true?
A) within a cell, concentrations are non-standard

B) within a cell, the concentration of glucose-6-phosphate is higher than fructose-6-phosphate
C) within a cell, concentrations of products are often lowered by their rapid use in other reactions
D) within a cell, the reaction catalyzed by phosphoglucose isomerase would be considered freely
reversible
E) all of the above
Answer: E
Difficulty: Medium
glycolysis
10) Which of the following enzymes requires ATP as a substrate?
A) phosphofructokinase
B) phosphoglucose isomerase
C) aldolase
D) triose phosphate isomerase
E) enolase
Answer: A
Difficulty: Medium
glycolysis
11) What enzyme catalyzes the major regulatory step of glycolysis?
A) hexokinase
B) aldolase
C) glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
D) phosphofructokinase
E) phosphoglucose isomerase
Answer: D
Difficulty: Easy
glycolysis
12) Which of the following is a potent activator of phosphofructokinase in mammals?
A) fructose-6-phosphate
B) glucose-6-phosphate
C) fructose-2,6-bisphosphate
D) fructose-1,6-bisphosphate
Answer: C
Difficulty: Medium
glycolysis
13) In bacterial cells, _____ is an activator of phosphofructokinase while _____ is an inhibitor.
A) glucose-6-phosphate; ATP
B) ADP; phosphoenolpyruvate
C) fructose-2,6-bisphosphate; fructose-6-phosphate
D) AMP; glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
E) citrate; ADP
Answer: B
Difficulty: Hard
glycolysis
14) The enzyme responsible for the synthesis of fructose-2,6-bisphosphate is _____.
A) phosphofructokinase-2
B) hexosephosphatekinase-2
C) aldolase-2
D) phosphofructose isomerase-2
Answer: A
Difficulty: Medium
glycolysis
15) Which enzyme is responsible for splitting a hexose into two trioses?
A) enolase
B) phosphoglycerate mutase
C) phosphofructose isomerase
D) triose phosphate isomerase
E) aldolase
Answer: E
Difficulty: Easy
glycolysis
16) The active site of aldolase contains a Lys residue which forms a(n) _____ and a(n) _____
residue that participates in acid-base reactions.
A) amide; His
B) Schiff base; Asp
C) secondary amine; Glu
D) amide; Cys
E) Schiff base; Tyr
Answer: E
Difficulty: Hard
glycolysis
17) In the reaction catalyzed by aldolase, the bond broken is between carbons 3 and 4 of the
substrate. What functional groups are present on these two carbons (C3 and C4) in the products?
A) C3 becomes an alcohol; C4 becomes a carboxylic acid

B) C3 becomes an aldehyde; C4 becomes a ketone
C) C3 becomes an aldehyde; C4 becomes an alcohol
D) C3 becomes an alcohol; C4 becomes an aldehyde
E) C3 becomes a ketone; C4 becomes an alcohol
Answer: D
Difficulty: Hard
glycolysis
18) Triose phosphate isomerase catalyzes a reaction that is most similar to _____.
A) phosphoglycerate mutase
C) hexokinase
D) aldolase
E) enolase
Answer: B
Difficulty: Medium
glycolysis
19) What is the name for the process that produces ATP from ADP in glycolysis?
A) substrate-level phosphorylation
B) oxidative phosphorylation
C) autophosphorylation
D) glycolytic phosphorylation
E) cytosolic phosphorylation
Answer: A
Difficulty: Easy
glycolysis
20) Experimental evidence indicates that glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase contains a

critical _____ residue in its active site, as shown by its inactivation by iodoacetamide.
A) Lys
B) His
C) Asp
D) Ser
E) Cys
Answer: E
Difficulty: Medium
glycolysis
21) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase oxidizes _____.
A) an alcohol to a ketone
B) a carboxylic acid to CO2
C) an alcohol to an aldehyde
D) an aldehyde to a carboxylic acid
E) an aldehyde to an alcohol
Answer: D
Difficulty: Medium
glycolysis
22) Glyceraldehyde is oxidized to _____ which can transfer a phosphate to _____.
A) phosphoenolpyruvate; ADP
B) phosphoenolpyruvate; AMP
C) 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate; ADP
D) 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate; AMP
E) 3-phosphoglycerate; ADP
Answer: C
Difficulty: Medium
glycolysis
23) Why is phosphoglycerate kinase still considered a kinase even though ADP is converted to
ATP?
A) the enzyme is freely reversible

B) ATP is the ultimate source of the phosphate that is transferred to ADP
C) the phosphate is transferred in conjunction with an oxidation reaction
D) the reaction is metabolically irreversible
Answer: A
Difficulty: Medium
glycolysis
24) What residue of phosphoglycerate mutase undergoes covalent catalysis during the reaction?
A) Asp
B) His
C) Ser
D) Tyr
E) Cys
Answer: B
Difficulty: Medium
glycolysis
25) What type of enzyme is enolase, which catalyzes the conversion of 2-phosphoglycerate to
phosphoenolpyruvate and water?
A) transferase
B) hydrolase
C) ligase
D) lyase
E) oxidoreductase
Answer: D
Difficulty: Medium
glycolysis
26) What is the greatest driving force for the reaction catalyzed by pyruvate kinase?
A) hydrolysis of phosphate from phosphoenolpyruvate

B) transfer of phosphate from phosphoenolpyruvate to ADP
C) release of ATP from active site
D) tautomerization of enolpyruvate to pyruvate
E) release of pyruvate from the active site
Answer: D
Difficulty: Hard
glycolysis
27) What sort of activity does fructose-1,6-bisphosphate have on pyruvate kinase?
A) no effect
B) competitive inhibitor
C) noncompetitive inhibitor
D) allosteric inhibitor
E) feed-forward activator
Answer: E
Difficulty: Easy
glycolysis
28) Which of the following contains a high energy bond that is used for a substrate-level
phosphorylation in glycolysis?
A) fructose-1,6-bisphosphate
B) 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate
C) acetyl phosphate
D) 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate
E) 1-phosphoglycerate
Answer: B
Difficulty: Easy
glycolysis
29) What regulatory enzyme of glycolysis is skipped during fructose metabolism?
A) hexokinase
C) phosphofructokinase
D) pyruvate kinase
E) fructose metabolism does not skip any steps of glycolysis
Answer: C
Difficulty: Medium
glycolysis
30) If a cell were given glucose labeled at carbon-3 with 14C, what carbon(s) of pyruvate would
contain the label?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 1 and 3
E) 2 and 3
Answer: A
Difficulty: Hard
glycolysis
31) Under anaerobic conditions in skeletal muscle, pyruvate is converted into _____.
A) ethanol and CO2

B) propionate
C) acetyl-CoA
D) lactate
E) alanine
Answer: D
Difficulty: Easy
glycolysis
32) Fill in the missing reagents in the following reaction.
A) reactant: NAD+ + H+; product: NADH

B) reactant: NADH + H+; product: NAD+
C) reactant: ATP; product: ADP + Pi
D) reactant: NADH + H+; product: CO2
Answer: B
Difficulty: Medium
glycolysis
33) Under aerobic conditions, pyruvate is converted to _____ by pyruvate dehydrogenase.
A) oxaloacetate
B) ethanol
C) lactate
D) glucose
E) acetyl-CoA
Answer: E
Difficulty: Medium
glycolysis
34) What coenzyme is required for the conversion of pyruvate to oxaloacetate?
A) NADH
B) pyridoxal phosphate
C) biotin
D) thiamine
E) FADH2
Answer: C
Difficulty: Easy
glycolysis
35) Which of the following correctly describes the mechanism of pyruvate carboxylase?
A) ATP and bicarbonate react, carboxyphosphate formed, carboxyl group transferred to biotin,
deprotonated pyruvate attacks carboxyl group
B) ATP and bicarbonate react, carboxyl group transferred to biotin carboxyphosphate formed,
C) ATP and bicarbonate react, carboxyphosphate formed, deprotonated pyruvate attacks
carboxyl group, carboxyl group transferred to biotin
D) carboxyphosphate formed, ATP and bicarbonate react, carboxyl group transferred to biotin,
E) carboxyphosphate formed, deprotonated pyruvate attacks carboxyl group, ATP and
bicarbonate react, carboxyl group transferred to biotin
Answer: A
Difficulty: Hard
glycolysis
36) Which of the following forms a substrate cycle with hexokinase?
A) phosphoglucose isomerase
B) glucose-6-phosphatase
C) phosphofructokinase
D) phosphoglycerate kinase
E) fructose bisphosphatase
Answer: B
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: Describe the substrates, products, enzymes, and regulation of gluconeogenesis
37) Which of the following can serve as a source of carbon for gluconeogenesis?
A) glycerol
B) serine
C) alanine
D) glutamate
E) all of the above
Answer: E
Difficulty: Medium
38) How many equivalents of ATP are required to convert two molecules of pyruvate to
glucose?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
E) 10
Answer: C
Difficulty: Medium
39) What would occur if both phosphofructokinase and fructose bisphosphatase were active
simultaneously?
A) a futile cycle
B) a substrate cycle
C) an inhibitor cycle
D) the alanine cycle
E) the Cori cycle
Answer: A
Difficulty: Easy
40) Gluconeogenesis is most active in the _____.
A) muscles
B) brain
C) heart
D) liver
E) kidneys
Answer: D
Difficulty: Easy
41) Fructose-2,6-bisphosphate is an activator of _____ and an inhibitor of _____.
A) phosphofructokinase; hexokinase
B) fructose bisphosphatase; phosphofructokinase
C) phosphofructokinase; fructose bisphosphatase
D) glucose-6-phosphatase; pyruvate kinase
E) pyruvate kinase; phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase
Answer: C
Difficulty: Medium
42) Muscle cells are not able to supply glucose for other tissues because they do not contain
which of the following enzymes?
A) debranching enzyme
B) pyruvate carboxylase
C) glycogen phosphorylase
D) fructose bisphosphatase
E) glucose-6-phosphatase
Answer: E
Difficulty: Hard
43) Which of the following supplies the energy for glycogen synthesis?
A) ATP
B) GTP
C) CTP
D) UTP
Answer: C
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: Compare the processes of glycogen synthesis and degradation
44) Which of the following correctly relates the order of intermediates during the synthesis of
glycogen?
A) glucose  glucose-1-phosphate  glucose-6-phosphate  UDP-glucose  glycogen

B) glucose  glucose-6-phosphate  glucose-1-phosphate  UDP-glucose  glycogen
C) glucose  glucose-6-phosphate  UDP-glucose  glucose-1-phosphate  glycogen
D) glucose  UDP-glucose  glucose-1-phosphate  glucose-6-phosphate  glycogen
E) glucose  UDP-glucose  glucose-6-phosphate  glucose-1-phosphate  glycogen
Answer: B
Difficulty: Medium
45) Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the conversion of glucose-1-phosphate to glucose-
6-phosphate?
A) phosphoglucomutase
B) glucose phosphatase
C) glycogen phosphorylase
D) phosphoglucose isomerase
E) phosphorylase mutase
Answer: A
Difficulty: Easy
46) In glycogen synthesis, what is the intermediate between glucose-1-phosphate and glycogen?
A) glucose-6-phosphate
B) glucose-1,6-bisphosphate
C) UTP-glucose
D) UDP-glucose
Answer: D
Difficulty: Easy
47) In the muscle, when a residue of glucose is cleaved from glycogen and converted to pyruvate
via glycolysis, what is the net ATP production?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
Answer: C
Difficulty: Medium
48) Glycogen storage occurs in _____ and _____ tissue.
A) muscle; kidney
B) liver; pancreas
C) brain; muscle
D) kidney; pancreas
E) muscle; liver
Answer: E
Difficulty: Easy
49) The main enzyme of glycogen catabolism is _____, which catalyzes a _____ reaction.
A) glycogen hydrolase; hydrolysis

B) glycogen phosphorylase; phosphorolysis
C) glycogen mutase; mutarotation
D) debranching enzyme; hydrolysis
E) glycogen transferase; glucose residue transfer
Answer: B
Difficulty: Medium
50) NADPH used in lipid biosynthesis is produced in _____.
A) the pentose phosphate pathway

B) the citric acid cycle
C) glycolysis
D) gluconeogenesis
Answer: A
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: Describe the enzymes, substrates, and products of the pentose phosphate
pathway
51) For each molecule of glucose-6-phosphate that enters the pentose phosphate pathway, _____
NADPH and _____ CO2 are produced.
A) 1; 0
B) 1; 1
C) 2; 1
D) 2; 2
E) 3; 2
Answer: C
Difficulty: Medium
pathway
52) Which of the following enzymes catalyzes an oxidative decarboxylation reaction?
A) glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
B) glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
C) glycogen dehydrogenase
D) 6-phosphogluconate dehydrogenase
Answer: D
Difficulty: Medium
pathway
53) Which of the following requires large amounts of both ribose-5-phosphate and NADPH?
A) DNA synthesis
B) amino acid synthesis
C) lipid synthesis
D) glycogen synthesis
E) cholesterol synthesis
Answer: A
Difficulty: Easy
pathway
54) In the event that NADPH is needed but ribose is not, which of the following is an end
product of the pentose phosphate pathway?
A) ribulose-5-phosphate
B) dihydroxyacetone phosphate
C) fructose-1,6-bisphosphate
D) 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate
Answer: E
Difficulty: Medium
pathway
55) In the conversion of ribulose-5-phosphate to glycolytic intermediates, which of the following

enzymes is used?
A) phosphoglucomutase
B) transketolase
C) phosphoglycerate mutase
D) phosphofructoisomerase
Answer: B
Difficulty: Medium
pathway

Chapter Number: 14
1) What cellular location contains pyruvate dehydrogenase and most of the citric acid cycle
enzymes?
A) cytosol
B) mitochondrial matrix
C) inner mitochondrial membrane
D) mitochondrial inter-membrane space
E) outer mitochondrial membrane
Answer: B
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: Summarize the reactions carried out by the pyruvate dehydrogenase
complex
2) Which of the following is correct concerning the reaction catalyzed by pyruvate

dehydrogenase?
A) it is an oxidative decarboxylation
B) it is activated by high concentrations of ATP
C) the enzyme contains a pyridoxal phosphate prosthetic group
D) the reaction is an anaplerotic reaction since it can replace citric acid intermediates that are
removed for other pathways
E) the enzyme contains two different types of subunits
Answer: A
Difficulty: Medium
complex
3) Which of the following indicates the correct order of product release by pyruvate
dehydrogenase?
A) acetyl-CoA, CO2, NADH

B) NADH, CO2, acetyl-CoA
C) CO2, NADH, acetyl-CoA
D) CO2, acetyl-CoA, NADH
E) NADH, acetyl-CoA, CO2
Answer: D
Difficulty: Medium
complex
4) Which of the following pyruvate dehydrogenase enzymes is correctly paired with the
coenzyme that is associated with it?
A) E1: coenzyme A
B) E2: thiamine pyrophosphate
C) E3: FAD
D) E2: NAD+
E) E3: lipoamide
Answer: C
Difficulty: Medium
complex
5) Which of the following coenzymes is directly responsible for the oxidation of the
hydroxyethyl group to the acetyl group?
A) coenzyme A
C) FAD
D) NAD+
E) lipoamide
Answer: E
Difficulty: Easy
complex
6) What amino acid is covalently linked to lipoic acid in E2?
A) Lys
B) Ser
C) His
D) Gln
E) Thr
Answer: A
Difficulty: Easy
complex
7) What type of bond forms when the hydroxyethyl group is transferred to lipoamide?
A) ester
B) amide
C) thioester
D) anhydride
Answer: C
Difficulty: Easy
complex
8) Which of the following is an inhibitor of pyruvate dehydrogenase?
A) CoA
B) pyruvate
C) FADH2
D) NADH
E) CO2
Answer: D
Difficulty: Easy
complex
9) In the citric acid cycle, what reduced cofactors are derived from the oxidation of one molecule
of acetyl CoA to two molecules of CO2?
A) 2 NADH and 1 QH2

B) 3 NADH and 1 QH2
C) 2 NADH and 2 QH2
D) 3 NADH and 2 QH2
E) 4 NADH and 2 QH2
Answer: B
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: Describe the substrate, product, chemical reaction, and regulation for each step of
the citric acid cycle
10) What makes the reaction catalyzed by citrate synthase highly exergonic?
A) hydrolysis of ATP
B) hydrolysis of GTP
C) decarboxylation reaction
D) conversion from keto to enol tautomer
E) hydrolysis of thioester
Answer: E
Difficulty: Medium
11) Which of the following explains the proper binding of the two substrates for citrate synthase?
A) the binding is random

B) acetyl-CoA binds, then oxaloacetate
C) oxaloacetate binds, then acetyl-CoA
D) oxaloacetate binds to one subunit, acetyl-CoA binds to the other
E) in one subunit, acetyl-CoA binds, then oxaloacetate; on the other subunit, this is reversed
Answer: C
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: Describe the substrate, product, chemical reaction, and regulation for each
step of the citric acid cycle
12) Which of the following is observed in the mechanism of citrate synthase?
A) a histidine residue acts as a base, deprotonating oxaloacetate

B) an aspartic acid residue acts as a base, deprotonating oxaloacetate
C) a histidine residue hydrogen bonds with the carbonyl oxygen of oxaloacetate to enable a
nucleophilic attack
D) removal of the CoA is accomplished by transfer to a serine residue, then hydrolysis
E) all of the above
Answer: B
Difficulty: Hard
13) Which of the following condenses with oxaloacetate to form citrate?
A) acetyl-CoA
B) cis-aconitate
C) carboxybiotin
D) oxalosuccinate
E) succinyl-phosphate
Answer: A
Difficulty: Easy
14) Which of the following is an intermediate between citrate and isocitrate in the citric acid
cycle?
A) oxalosuccinate
B) succinyl-phosphate
C) cis-aconitate
D) carboxybiotin
E) hydroxyethyl-TPP
Answer: C
Difficulty: Easy
15) Aconitase catalyzes the _____ of citrate to aconitate followed by the _____ of aconitate to
isocitrate.
A) oxidation; reduction
B) reduction; oxidation
C) hydration; dehydration
D) dehydration; hydration
E) isomerization; isomerization
Answer: D
Difficulty: Hard
16) Which of the following describes the isomerization of citrate to isocitrate?
A) a major regulatory step for the citric acid cycle

B) an oxidation reaction
C) the only unnecessary step of the citric acid cycle
D) protects cells from the toxic effects of arsenite ion
E) converts a tertiary alcohol, which cannot easily be oxidized, to a secondary alcohol that can be
oxidized
Answer: E
Difficulty: Medium
17) Given the following structure of isocitrate, the carbon labeled _____ is lost as CO2 by
isocitrate dehydrogenase while the carbon labeled _____ is lost as CO2 by -ketoglutarate
dehydrogenase.
A) 1; 2
B) 2; 1
C) 1; 3
D) 3; 1
E) 2; 3
Answer: E
Difficulty: Hard
18) During the oxidation of isocitrate, the intermediate that is decarboxylated to form α-
ketoglutarate is _____.
A) oxalosuccinate
B) succinyl-phosphate
C) cis-aconitate
D) carboxybiotin
E) hydroxyethyl-TPP
Answer: A
Difficulty: Medium
19) Which enzyme catalyzes a reaction most similar to that catalyzed by -ketoglutarate
dehydrogenase?
A) glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
B) pyruvate dehydrogenase
C) isocitrate dehydrogenase
D) succinate dehydrogenase
E) malate dehydrogenase
Answer: B
Difficulty: Medium
20) Which of the following enzymes catalyzes a substrate-level phosphorylation?
A) malate synthase
B) succinate dehydrogenase
C) -ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
D) succinyl-CoA synthetase
E) fumarase
Answer: D
Difficulty: Easy
21) Which of the following amino acids participates in the transfer of a phosphate group in the
reaction catalyzed by succinyl-CoA synthetase?
A) lysine
B) serine
C) glutamine
D) aspartic acid
E) histidine
Answer: E
Difficulty: Medium
22) Which of the following is an enzyme-associated intermediate that is similar in energy to 1,3-
bisphosphoglycerate?
A) phosphohistidine
B) succinyl phosphate
C) oxalosuccinate
D) carboxybiotin
E) hydroxyethyl-TPP
Answer: B
Difficulty: Hard
23) Which of the following enzymes contains an FAD prosthetic group?
A) pyruvate dehydrogenase
B) isocitrate dehydrogenase
C) succinate dehydrogenase
D) -ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
E) malate dehydrogenase
Answer: C
Difficulty: Easy
24) Where is succinate dehydrogenase located?
A) mitochondrial matrix
B) mitochondrial inner membrane
C) mitochondrial inter-membrane space
D) mitochondrial outer membrane
Answer: B
Difficulty: Easy
25) The oxidation of succinate to fumarate is best characterized as an oxidation of _____.
A) an alkane to an alkene
B) an alcohol to an aldehyde
C) an alcohol to a ketone
D) an aldehyde to a carboxylic acid
E) a -keto acid to CO2 and a carboxylic acid that is one carbon smaller
Answer: A
Difficulty: Medium
26) The reaction catalyzed by fumarase is _____.
A) an isomerization of an alcohol
B) a dehydration of an alcohol
C) a hydroxylation of an alkene
D) a hydration of an alkene
Answer: D
Difficulty: Medium
27) How does the reaction catalyzed by malate dehydrogenase proceed despite a G of 29.7
kJ/mol?
A) an elevated [H+] allows the reaction to proceed

B) high levels of NAD+ allow the reaction to proceed
C) concentrations of oxaloacetate are kept very low by rapid use in the subsequent step
D) the enzyme is unique in its ability only to catalyze the reaction in one direction
E) the enzyme catalyzed reaction under cellular conditions has a much smaller energy of
activation
Answer: C
Difficulty: Hard
28) How many electrons are transferred from one acetyl group when it is converted to two
carbon dioxide molecules in the citric acid cycle?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
E) 10
Answer: D
Difficulty: Easy
29) If acetyl-CoA labeled on the methyl carbon were used as the substrate for the citric acid
cycle, where would the labeled carbon appear in oxaloacetate produced from one round of the
cycle?
A) C1
B) C4
C) C1 or C2
D) C1 or C4
E) C2 or C3
Answer: E
Difficulty: Hard
30) If all reduced electron carriers are reoxidized to run oxidative phosphorylation, how many
ATP can be generated from the oxidation of one acetyl-CoA?
A) 6
B) 10
C) 15
D) 20
E) 32
Answer: B
Difficulty: Easy
31) Which of the following is an equilibrium-controlled step within the mitochondria?
A) malate dehydrogenase
B) isocitrate dehydrogenase
C) citrate synthase
D) pyruvate dehydrogenase
E) -ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
Answer: A
Difficulty: Medium
32) Which of the following is activated by ADP?
B) aconitase
C) isocitrate dehydrogenase
D) citrate synthase
E) succinyl-CoA synthetase
Answer: C
Difficulty: Easy
33) Which of the following can be converted into glutamic acid in a single enzyme-catalyzed
step?
A) isocitrate
B) oxaloacetate
C) malate
D) -ketoglutarate
E) succinyl-CoA
Answer: D
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: List the pathways that consume and generate citric acid cycle intermediates
34) Which of the following can be converted into glucose using parts of the citric acid cycle?
A) malate
B) isocitrate
C) glutamic acid
D) succinate
E) all of the above
Answer: E
Difficulty: Medium
35) What citric acid cycle intermediate is effectively used as a mechanism for the transport of
acetyl-CoA from the mitochondria to the cytosol?
A) citrate
B) isocitrate
C) fumarate
D) malate
E) oxaloacetate
Answer: A
Difficulty: Easy
36) When acetyl-CoA and NADPH are needed for lipid synthesis, which of the following
reactions is used to produce NADPH in the cytosol?
A) reduction of oxaloacetate to malate

B) oxidation of malate to pyruvate
C) reduction of fumarate to succinate
D) oxidation of malate to oxaloacetate
E) oxidation of isocitrate to -ketoglutarate
Answer: B
Difficulty: Medium
37) Which of the following is an anaplerotic reaction that is often used in the cell?
A) conversion of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA

B) conversion of -ketoglutarate to glutamic acid
C) conversion of citrate to oxaloacetate and acetyl-CoA
D) conversion of pyruvate to oxaloacetate
E) conversion of succinyl-CoA to heme
Answer: D
Difficulty: Medium
38) Which of the following terms indicates that the citric acid cycle is both catabolic and
anabolic in nature?
A) cataplerotic
B) amphipathic
C) anaplerotic
D) diabolic
E) amphibolic
Answer: E
Difficulty: Easy
39) Which of the following is activated by high levels of acetyl-CoA?
B) succinyl-CoA synthetase
C) pyruvate carboxylase
E) -ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
Answer: C
Difficulty: Medium
40) Which of the following enzymes allows for a net increase of citric acid cycle metabolites
without expending any energy in the form of ATP or its equivalents?
A) alanine aminotransferase
B) pyruvate dehydrogenase
C) pyruvate carboxylase
D) citrate lyase
Answer: A
Difficulty: Hard
41) Which of the following can cause a large increase in the activity of the citric acid cycle?
A) activation of isocitrate dehydrogenase by ADP

B) activation of -ketoglutarate dehydrogenase by Ca2+
C) increasing concentrations of oxaloacetate by pyruvate carboxylase
D) increasing concentrations of -ketoglutarate by transamination
E) all of the above
Answer: E
Difficulty: Medium
42) The mechanism of malate synthase that catalyzes the conversion of glyoxylate and acetyl-
CoA to malate would be most similar to which citric acid cycle enzyme?
A) fumarase
B) aconitase
C) citrate synthase
D) isocitrate dehydrogenase
E) succinyl-CoA synthetase
Answer: C
Difficulty: Medium
43) Why can germinating plant seeds convert acetyl-CoA from fatty acids into carbohydrates,
while animals are incapable of converting fatty acids into glucose?
A) animals have glycogen and don't need to make glucose from fatty acids
B) plants, not animals, use the glyoxylate cycle to convert acetyl CoA to oxaloacetate
C) plant seeds use photosynthesis to make sugar
D) animals use the citric acid cycle exclusively for energy production, plants only use glycolysis
for energy
Answer: B
Difficulty: Medium
44) What citric acid cycle enzyme is not used in the glyoxylate cycle?
A) isocitrate dehydrogenase
B) fumarase
C) malate dehydrogenase
D) aconitase
E) succinate dehyrogenase
Answer: A
Difficulty: Medium

Chapter Number: 15
1) The oxidation of FADH2 to FAD involves the transfer of _____; the oxidation of NADH to
NAD+ involves the transfer of _____.
A) a hydrogen atom and an H+; a hydride

B) two hydrogen atoms; a hydride
C) a hydride and an H+; a hydrogen atom and an H+
D) a hydride; two hydrogen atoms
E) two hydrides; one hydride
Answer: B
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: Summarize the thermodynamics of oxidation–reduction reactions
2) Which of the following is the correct half reaction for the oxidation of acetaldehyde?
A) acetaldehyde + H2O  acetate- + 3H+ + 2e-

B) acetate- + 3H+ + 2e-  acetaldehyde + H2O
C) acetaldehyde + 2 H+ + 2e-  ethanol
D) ethanol  acetaldehyde + 2 H+ + 2e-
E) acetaldehyde + CO2 + H+ + 2e-  pyruvate-
Answer: A
Difficulty: Medium
3) If the following half-reactions are combined, what is the potential for the spontaneous
reaction?
oxaloacetate- + 2H+ + 2e-  malate-  = -0.166

NAD+ + H+ + 2e-  NADH  = -0.315
A) -0.481 V
B) -0.149 V
C) 0.0523 V
D) 0.149 V
E) .0481 V
Answer: D
Difficulty: Medium
4) If the reduction potential for NAD+ is -0.315 V and the reduction potential for oxygen is 0.815
V, what is the potential for the oxidation of NADH by oxygen?
A) -1.13 V
B) -0.50 V
C) 0.185 V
D) 0.50 V
E) 1.13 V
Answer: E
Difficulty: Medium
5) In a muscle cell at 37C, if the concentrations of pyruvate and lactate are 100 M and 50M
respectively, what is the actual reduction potential if  for pyruvate reduction is -0.185 V?
A) -0.194 V
B) -0.186 V
C) -0.176 V
D) 0.176 V
E) 0.194 V
Answer: C
Difficulty: Hard
6) What is the G for the reduction of pyruvate to lactate by NADH given the following half
reactions?
pyruvate- + 2H+ + 2e-  lactate-  = -0.185

NAD+ + H+ + 2e-  NADH  = -0.315
A) -96.5 kJ/mol
B) -25.1 kJ/mol
C) -12.5 kJ/mol
D) 25.1 kJ/mol
E) 96.5 kJ/mol
Answer: B
Difficulty: Hard
7) What does the reduction potential of 0.815 V for the reduction of water to oxygen indicate?
A) water is a very strong reducing agent

B) water is a very strong reducing agent and oxygen is a very strong oxidizing agent
C) oxygen is a very strong oxidizing agent
D) water will be spontaneously reduced to oxygen
Answer: C
Difficulty: Easy
8) For eukaryotes, where are the Complexes of electron transport located?
A) cytosol
B) outer mitochondrial membrane
C) mitochondrial intermembrane space
D) inner mitochondrial membrane
E) mitochondrial matrix
Answer: D
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: Map the path of electrons through the redox groups of the electron transport
pathway
9) What genes are found in the mitochondrial genome?
A) electron transport proteins

B) citric acid cycle enzymes
C) fatty acid oxidation enzymes
D) outer membrane transport proteins
Answer: A
Difficulty: Medium
pathway
10) What is the terminal electron acceptor in aerobic organisms?
A) NAD+
B) FAD
C) ubiquinone
D) varies from one organism to another
Answer: E
Difficulty: Easy
pathway
11) In the malate-aspartate shuttle, _____ is reduced to _____ in the cytosol.
A) aspartate; oxaloacetate
B) oxaloacetate; malate
C) aspartate; malate
D) malate; aspartate
E) malate; oxaloacetate
Answer: B
Difficulty: Medium
pathway
12) In the malate aspartate shuttle, _____ is transferred into the mitochondria while _____ is
transferred to the cytosol.
A) NADH; NAD+
B) NAD+; NADH
C) malate; oxaloacetate
D) malate; aspartate
E) oxaloacetate; aspartate
Answer: D
Difficulty: Easy
pathway
13) Which of the following transport mechanisms is used in the inner mitochondrial membrane?
IMS = intermembrane space
A) antiport of ATP from IMS to matrix, ADP from matrix to IMS

B) symport of ATP and H+ from matrix to IMS
C) symport of Pi and H+ from IMS to matrix
D) antiport of ADP from IMS to matrix, Pi from matrix to IMS
E) symport of ADP and H+ from IMS to matrix
Answer: C
Difficulty: Hard
pathway
14) The reduction potentials of all prosthetic groups of Complex I have reduction potentials
between _____ and _____.
A) NAD+; ubiquinone
B) NADH; ubiquinol
C) FAD; ubiquinone
D) ubiquinone; oxygen
E) ubiquinone; cytochrome c
Answer: A
Difficulty: Medium
pathway
15) The process of _____ allows electrons to be transferred between redox centers that are up to
1.4 nm apart.
A) reduction
B) swinging arm electron transfer
C) electron shuttling
D) electron teleporting
E) tunneling
Answer: E
Difficulty: Easy
pathway
16) Which of the following represents the correct order of electron flow in Complex I?
A) NADH  ubiquinone  Fe-S clusters  FMN

B) NADH  Fe-S clusters  FMN  ubiquinone
C) NADH  FMN  ubiquinone  Fe-S clusters
D) NADH  FMN  Fe-S clusters  ubiquinone
E) NADH  ubiquinone  FMN  Fe-S clusters
Answer: D
Difficulty: Hard
pathway
17) How many protons are transported from the matrix to the intermembrane space by Complex
I?
A) 0
B) 2
C) 4
D) 6
E) 8
Answer: C
Difficulty: Easy
pathway
18) What shuttle mechanism transfers cytosolic NADH into the mitochondria with a loss of
reductive power, with the electrons entering the electron transport chain as ubiquinol instead of
NADH?
A) glycerol-3-phosphate shuttle
B) alanine aminotransferase shuttle
C) malate-aspartate shuttle
D) adenine nucleotide shuttle
Answer: A
Difficulty: Medium
pathway
19) Which of the following is a source of ubiquinol?
A) Complex I
B) fatty acyl-CoA dehydrogenase
C) succinate dehydrogenase
D) mitochondrial dehydrogenase
E) all of the above
Answer: E
Difficulty: Medium
pathway
20) Complex III accepts electrons from _____ and transfers them to _____.
A) cytochrome c; cytochrome a
B) ubiquinol; cytochrome c
C) ubiquinone; cytochrome c
D) ubiquinol; cytochrome b
E) ubiquinone; cytochrome a
Answer: B
Difficulty: Easy
pathway
21) The cytochromes undergo which of the following oxidation reactions?
A) Fe3+  Fe2+
B) Fe0  Fe2+
C) Fe2+  Fe3+
D) Cu1+  Cu2+
E) Cu2+  Cu1+
Answer: C
Difficulty: Easy
pathway
22) How many protons are moved across the inner mitochondrial membrane at Complex III?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer: D
Difficulty: Easy
pathway
23) Which of the following results from the first round of the Q cycle?
A) two reduced cytochrome c and one ubiquinone

B) one reduced cytochrome c and one ubiquinone
C) one reduced cytochrome c, one reduced cytochrome B and one ubiquinone
D) two reduced cytochrome c and one ubiquinol
E) one reduced cytochrome c and one semiquinone
Answer: E
Difficulty: Medium
pathway
24) Ubiquinone is a _____ molecule that serves as a _____ electron carrier; cytochrome c is a
_____ molecule that serves as a _____ electron carrier.
A) hydrophobic; 2; hydrophilic; 1
B) hydrophobic; 1; hydrophilic; 1
C) hydrophilic; 2; hydrophobic; 2
D) hydrophilic; 2; hydrophobic; 1
E) hydrophobic; 1; hydrophilic; 2
Answer: A
Difficulty: Easy
pathway
25) Complex IV uses _____ and _____ ions to reduce oxygen to water.
A) manganese; iron
B) copper; iron
C) manganese; copper
D) zinc; copper
E) iron; zinc
Answer: B
Difficulty: Medium
pathway
26) How many cytochrome c molecules are oxidized by Complex IV for each molecule of
oxygen that is reduced?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) it depends upon the efficiency of the electron transfer in Complex IV
Answer: D
Difficulty: Easy
pathway
27) What free radical is thought to be commonly produced by the electron transport chain?
A) hydroxyl
B) peroxyl
C) superoxide
D) hydrogen peroxyl
E) all of the above
Answer: C
Difficulty: Easy
pathway
28) For every two electrons transferred from NADH to oxygen, _____ protons are pumped from
the matrix to the intermembrane space.
A) 4
B) 6
C) 8
D) 10
E) 12
Answer: D
Difficulty: Easy
pathway
29) The imbalance of protons across the inner mitochondrial membrane is referred to as _____.
A) the protonmotive force

B) the chemiosmotic force
C) the electron transport force
D) the ATP synthase force
E) the proton gradient force
Answer: A
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: Explain how cells generate and use the proton gradient
30) If the pH of the matrix is 7.7, what is the pH of the intermembrane space if the G for
transport of H+ is 20 kJ/mol at 37C with  = 170 mV?
A) 2.6
B) 7.1
C) 8.3
D) 12.8
E) cannot be determine
Answer: B
Difficulty: Hard
31) If the G for the oxidation of NADH by oxygen is -220 kJ/mol and the G for transport of
H+ across the inner membrane is 20 kJ/mol, what is the efficiency for energy captured in the
proton gradient versus energy evolved from NADH oxidation?
A) 9.1%
B) 36%
C) 45%
D) 73%
E) 91%
Answer: E
Difficulty: Hard
32) How many ATP molecules are synthesized from the oxidation of one NADH molecule?
A) 3
B) 2.5
C) 2
D) 1.5
E) 1
Answer: B
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: Describe how ATP synthase converts the protonmotive force to the
chemical energy of ATP
33) How many ATP can be produced from the complete oxidation of glucose if the malate-
aspartate shuttle is used?
A) 2
B) 19.5
C) 28
D) 30
E) 32
Answer: E
Difficulty: Hard
34) If an ATP synthase has 12 c subunits, how many protons must move through the enzyme to
produce one ATP?
A) 2.5
B) 3
C) 4
D) 10
E) 12
Answer: C
Difficulty: Medium
35) Which subunit of ATP synthase is responsible for the catalysis of ATP formation?
A) a
B) c
C) 
D) 
E) 
Answer: D
Difficulty: Easy
36) Which of the following occurs when the catalytic subunit of ATP synthase is in the loose
state?
A) ADP and Pi bind

B) ADP and Pi are converted to ATP
C) ATP is hydrolyzed
D) ATP is released
Answer: A
Difficulty: Medium
37) What is the P/O ratio for the oxidation of ubiquinone if three protons are required to
synthesize one ATP?
A) 1
B) 1.5
C) 2
D) 3
E) 3.3
Answer: B
Difficulty: Medium
38) Which of the following terms describes the effect of 2,4 dinitrophenol upon electron
transport and ATP synthesis?
A) thermogenerator
B) electron acceptor
C) uncoupler
D) inhibitor
Answer: C
Difficulty: Easy

Chapter Number: 16
1) What were the first organisms that had the ability to oxidize water to oxygen?
A) purple bacteria
B) green sulfur bacteria
C) cyanobacteria
D) ferns
E) green plants
Answer: C
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: 16-introduction
2) What organelle is responsible for photosynthesis?
A) Golgi apparatus
B) chloroplast
C) endoplasmic reticulum
D) peroxisome
E) glyoxysome
Answer: B
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: Describe the structure and purpose of pigment molecules
3) What part of the chloroplast is the site of the energy-transducing reactions of photosynthesis?
A) chloroplast outer membrane

B) chloroplast inner membrane
C) stroma
D) thylakoid lumen
E) thylakoid membrane
Answer: E
Difficulty: Easy
4) How much energy is contained in a mole of photons with a wavelength of 490 nm?
A) 4.1  10-19 J/mol

B) 2.4  10-4 J/mol
C) 127 kJ/mol
D) 244 kJ/mol
E) 2.4  105 kJ/mol
Answer: D
Difficulty: Medium
5) Chlorophylls and carotenoids absorb most light between ______ nm and _____ nm while
reflecting most light between _____ nm.
A) 400-500; 600-700; 500-600

B) 300-400; 600-700; 400-600
C) 400-600; 700-800; 600-700
D) 300-400; 700-800; 400-700
Answer: A
Difficulty: Easy
6) Which of the following can happen when a photosynthetic pigment absorbs light?
A) energy lost as heat

B) energy given off by fluorescence
C) exciton transfer
D) photooxidation
E) all of the above
Answer: E
Difficulty: Easy
7) What is an assembly of antenna pigments?
A) thylakoid
B) granum
C) light-harvesting complex
D) reaction center
E) lamella
Answer: C
Difficulty: Easy
8) Which of the following explains how a reaction center is excited?
A) a reaction center can only be excited by direct absorption of a photon of light

B) excitation can occur by any of the antenna pigments in direct contact with the reaction center
C) excitation occurs when an antenna fluoresces so that the photon of light can be captured by a
reaction center
D) any antenna of the light harvesting complex can transfer an electron to the reaction center by
exciton transfer
E) transfer of heat energy from antenna to reaction center allows for excitation
Answer: D
Difficulty: Medium
9) The P680 of photosystem II is composed of _____.
A) two chlorophylls
B) two carotenoids
C) one chlorophyll and one phycocyanin
D) one chlorophyll and one carotenoid
E) one carotenoid and one phycocyanin
Answer: A
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: Trace the energy transformations of the photosynthesis light reactions
10) Complete the following reaction: P680 + light  _____  _____
A) P680*; P680- + H+
B) P680*; P680+ + e-
C) P680-; P680*
D) P680+; P680*
Answer: B
Difficulty: Medium
11) Electrons are transferred from P680 to _____, then to cytochrome b6f.
A) ubiquinone
B) plastoquinone
C) plastocyanin
D) P700
E) NADP+
Answer: B
Difficulty: Medium
12) How many photons of light must be absorbed by photosystem II to produce one molecule of
oxygen?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
D) 8
E) 16
Answer: C
Difficulty: Medium
13) During the oxidation of water, where do the protons go?
A) thylakoid lumen
B) stroma
C) space between inner and outer chloroplast membrane
D) cytosol
E) protons are not released but transferred to proteins for metabolic use
Answer: A
Difficulty: Easy
14) Since the reduction potential of oxygen is +0.815 V and the reaction catalyzed by P680 is
highly exergonic, which of the following is most likely the reduction potential of P680*?
A) -1.15 V
B) -0.815 V
C) +0.77 V
D) +0.83 V
E) +1.15 V
Answer: E
Difficulty: Medium
15) Cytochrome b6f is most similar to mitochondrial _____ with the exception that electrons are
passed to _____, not to cytochrome c.
A) complex I; plastocyanin
B) complex I; plastoquinone
C) complex III; plastocyanin
D) complex III; plastoquinone
E) none of the mitochondrial complexes are similar to cytochrome b6f
Answer: C
Difficulty: Medium
16) The active group of photosystem I is known as _____.
A) P800
B) P700
C) P660
D) P650
E) P450
Answer: B
Difficulty: Easy
17) Why is photosystem I unable to oxidize water?
A) it cannot transfer protons to the stroma

B) it contains proteins that prevent oxygen from binding to it
C) its reduction potential is exactly equal to that of oxygen
D) it is a very good reducing agent
E) it is not a strong enough oxidizing agent
Answer: E
Difficulty: Medium
18) Which of the following shows the correct movement of electrons in the Z-scheme of
photosynthesis?
A) H2O  P700  plastoquinone  cytochrome b6f  plastocyanin  P680  ferredoxin 

NADP+
B) H2O  P680  plastocyanin  cytochrome b6f  plastoquinone  P700  ferredoxin 
NADP+
C) H2O  P680  plastoquinone  ferredoxin  plastocyanin  P700  cytochrome b6f 
NADP+
D) H2O  P680  plastoquinone  cytochrome b6f  plastocyanin  P700  ferredoxin 
NADP+
E) H2O  P680  ferredoxin  plastoquinone  P700  cytochrome b6f  plastocyanin 
NADP+
Answer: D
Difficulty: Hard
19) Which of the following occurs during cyclic electron flow?
A) photosystem I absorbs light but not photosystem II

B) protons are pumped into the lumen by cytochrome b6f
C) electrons are transferred from photosystem I  ferredoxin cytochrome b6f  plastocyanin,
then back to photosystem I
D) there is no production of NADPH or oxygen
E) all of the above
Answer: E
Difficulty: Hard
20) For each molecule of oxygen generated, _____ photons are absorbed by photosystems I and
II, _____ protons are transferred from stroma to lumen allowing for the production of _____
molecules of ATP.
A) 4; 8; 2
B) 4; 12; 4
C) 8; 8; 4
D) 8; 12; 3
E) 8; 16; 4
Answer: D
Difficulty: Hard
21) Light dependent ATP production is called _____ and occurs in the _____ of chloroplasts.
A) photophosphorylation; thylakoid membrane

B) photophosphorylation; inner membrane
C) non-oxidative phosphorylation; thylakoid membrane
D) non-oxidative phosphorylation; inner membrane
E) chloroplast-associated phosphorylation; thylakoid membrane
Answer: A
Difficulty: Medium
22) The carbon fixing reactions occur in the _____ .
A) thylakoid lumen
B) thylakoid membrane
C) stroma
D) space between inner and outer chloroplast membrane
E) cytosol
Answer: C
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: Describe the steps of carbon fixation by the Calvin cycle
23) In the rubisco mechanism, what performs the nucleophilic attack on carbon dioxide?
A) water
B) enediolate intermediate
C) enol intermediate
D) a carboxylate
Answer: B
Difficulty: Medium
24) Why does rubisco make up about half of the protein content in a typical chloroplast?
A) most of the enzyme is in an oxidized state, waiting for the production of NADPH to reactivate
it
B) it has an extremely high Km for CO2, thus a large number of enzymes increased the chance of
substrate binding
C) since oxygen is also a substrate, those enzymes that bind oxygen are sequestered
D) it is a very inefficient enzyme, catalyzing only three reactions per second
Answer: D
Difficulty: Easy
25) If carbon dioxide is used as a substrate, the major products of rubisco are _____; if oxygen
is used as a substrate, the major products of rubisco are _____.
A) 2 molecules of 3-phosphoglycerate; 2-phosphoglycolate and 3-phosphoglycerate

B) 2 molecules of 3-phosphoglycerate; glyoxylate and 3-phosphoglycerate
C) 3-phosphoglycerate and glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate; 2-phosphoglycolate and 3-
phosphoglycerate
D) 3-phosphoglycerate and glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate; glyoxylate and 3-phosphoglycerate
Answer: A
Difficulty: Medium
26) Which of the following describes photorespiration?
A) consumes ATP
B) consumes NADPH
C) produces CO2
D) consumes oxygen
E) all of the above
Answer: E
Difficulty: Easy
27) In C4 plants, CO2 (as bicarbonate) is condensed with _____ to yield _____ in the mesophyll
cells.
A) pyruvate; oxaloacetate
B) 3-phosphoglycerate; malate
C) lactate; fumarate
D) phosphoenolpyruvate; oxaloacetate
E) oxaloacetate; -ketoglutarate
Answer: D
Difficulty: Medium
28) In C4 plants, _____ is found in the mesophyll cells to capture CO2 while _____ is found in
the bundle sheath cells to release CO2.
A) phosphoenolpyruvate carboxylase; malic enzyme

B) pyruvate carboxylase; malic enzyme
C) pyruvate carboxylase; -ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
D) pyruvate kinase; pyruvate dehydrogenase
Answer: A
Difficulty: Hard
29) The products of the light reactions, ATP and NADPH, are used by ______ and ______,
respectively.
A) rubisco; glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase

B) phosphoglycerate kinase; glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
C) phosphoribulokinase; 3-phosphoglycerate dehydrogenase
D) phosphofructokinase; pyruvate dehydrogenase
E) phosphoglycerate kinase; 3-phosphoglycerate dehydrogenase
Answer: B
Difficulty: Medium
30) The Z-scheme of photosynthesis produces a 3:2 ratio of ATP:NADPH. How does a C4 plant
compensate for the greater ATP requirement created by the C4 pathway?
A) no changes need to be made since there is more ATP available from the light reactions than
actually needed for carbon fixation
B) no cyclic photophosphorylation can occur
C) more cyclic photophosphorylation must occur
D) oxygen production must be increased at photosystem II
E) oxygen production must be decreased at photosystem II
Answer: C
Difficulty: Hard
31) Regeneration of the rubisco substrate, ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate involves which of the

following sugars?
A) a tetrose-phosphate
B) a pentose-phosphate
C) a hexose-phosphate
D) a heptose-phosphate
E) all of the above
Answer: E
Difficulty: Easy
32) The production of one molecule of glucose requires _____.
A) 6 CO2, 9 ATP, 6 NADPH

B) 6 CO2, 18 ATP, 12 NADPH
C) 6 CO2, 6 ATP, 9 NADPH
D) 6 CO2, 12 ATP, 18 NADPH
E) 3 CO2, 9 ATP, 6 NADPH
Answer: B
Difficulty: Medium
33) What causes carboxylation of a critical lysine residue that coordinates Mg2+ in the rubisco
active site to occur?
A) when ATP levels are high due to high activity of the light reactions
B) when NADPH level are high due to high activity of the light reactions
C) when pH is low due to low activity of the light reactions
D) when pH is high due to high activity of the light reactions
E) when reduced ferredoxin is high due to high activity of the light reactions
Answer: D
Difficulty: Medium
34) The Z-scheme of photosynthesis produces a 3:2 ratio of ATP:NADPH. How does a plant
compensate when starch or sucrose is being synthesized?
A) no changes need to be made since there is more ATP available from the light reactions than
actually needed for carbon fixation
B) no cyclic photophosphorylation can occur
C) more cyclic photophosphorylation must occur
D) more NADPH must be made
Answer: C
Difficulty: Hard
35) What two substrates are needed to produce sucrose in plants?
A) UDP-glucose and fructose-6-phosphate

B) UDP-fructose and glucose-6-phosphate
C) glucose and fructose-1,6-bisphosphate
D) UDP-glucose-6-phosphate and fructose
E) UDP-glucose and fructose-1,6-bisphosphate
Answer: A
Difficulty: Medium

Chapter Number: 17
1) Of the major lipoproteins, _____ are highest in cholesterol and cholesterol esters while _____
are highest in triacylglycerols.
A) chylomicrons; HDL
B) VLDL; LDL
C) LDL; VLDL
D) LDL; chylomicrons
E) HDL; VLDL
Answer: D
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: 17-intro
Learning Objective:
2) To oxidize the fatty acids in a triacylglycerol, what must occur first?
A) fatty acid activation

B) lipolysis
C) transport into the mitochondria
D) oxidation of a carbon-carbon single bond to an alkene
Answer: B
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: Summarize the enzymes and chemical reactions involved in oxidizing different
types of fatty acids
3) The hydrolysis of triacylglycerols stored in adipose tissue is catalyzed by the enzyme _____.
A) hormone-sensitive lipase
B) lipoprotein lipase
C) albumin-associated lipase
D) chylomicron lipase
E) adipocyte lipase
Answer: A
Difficulty: Easy
4) What is the product of fatty acid activation?
A) acyladenylate
B) pyrophosphate
C) acyl-CoA
D) acyl ester
E) acyl-carnitine
Answer: C
Difficulty: Easy
5) What transport system moves activated fatty acids from the cytosol to the mitochondrial
matrix?
A) triacylglycerol shuttle
B) glycerol phosphate shuttle
C) acyl adenylate shuttle
D) lipoprotein shuttle
E) carnitine shuttle
Answer: E
Difficulty: Easy
6) Each round of -oxidation of a saturated fatty acyl-CoA produces _____.
A) 1 NADH, 1 QH2, 1 CO2, 1 acetyl-CoA

B) 1 NADH, 1 QH2, 1 acetyl-CoA
C) 1 NADH, 1 QH2, 2 acetyl-CoA
D) 1 NADH, 1 QH2, 1 H2O, 1 acetyl-CoA
E) 2 NADH, 1 QH2, 1 acetyl-CoA
Answer: B
Difficulty: Medium
7) What are the -oxidation products of stearic acid, a saturated fatty acid with 18 carbons?
A) 9 NADH, 9 QH2, 9 acetyl-CoA

B) 9 NADH, 8 QH2, 9 acetyl-CoA
C) 8 NADH, 9 QH2, 9 acetyl-CoA
D) 8 NADH, 8 QH2, 9 acetyl-CoA
E) 8 NADH, 7 QH2, 9 acetyl-CoA
Answer: D
Difficulty: Medium
8) In the -oxidation pathway, the oxidation occurs at carbon _____ with the acetyl group that
becomes acetyl-CoA derived from the _____ end of the fatty acid.
A) 1; carbonyl
B) 1; methyl
C) 2; carbonyl
D) 2; methyl
E) 3; carbonyl
Answer: E
Difficulty: Medium
9) How many ATP can be produced by the complete oxidation of palmitoleic acid, a 16-carbon
monounsaturated fatty acid, considering that the fatty acid must first be activated?
A) 26.5
B) 96.5
C) 104.5
D) 106.5
Answer: C
Difficulty: Hard
10) What coenzyme is required for the complete -oxidation of a polyunsaturated fatty acid?
A) NADPH
B) NADP+
C) NADH
D) FADH2
E) all of the above
Answer: A
Difficulty: Hard
11) During -oxidation of an odd-chain fatty acid, the last three carbon atoms from the oxidized
fatty acid enter the citric acid cycle as _____.
A) propionyl-CoA
B) methylmalonyl-CoA
C) succinyl-CoA
D) succinate
E) fumarate
Answer: C
Difficulty: Medium
12) During -oxidation in the peroxisome, what reoxidizes the enzyme-bound FADH2 during the
first oxidation of the pathway?
A) H2O2
B) O2
C) NAD+
D) FMN
Answer: B
Difficulty: Medium
13) Which of the following types of fatty acids would be oxidized exclusively in the peroxisome
instead of the mitochondria?
A) short-chain saturated fatty acids

B) very long-chain saturated fatty acids
C) monounsaturated fatty acids
D) polyunsaturated fatty acids
E) branched-chain fatty acids
Answer: E
Difficulty: Medium
14) Fatty acid oxidation occurs in the _____; fatty acid synthesis occurs in the _____.
A) mitochondria; cytosol
B) mitochondria; lysosome
C) lysosome; Golgi apparatus
D) cytosol; Golgi apparatus
E) mitochondria; endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: A
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: Summarize the enzymes and chemical reactions of fatty acid and ketone body
synthesis
15) The portion of the acyl carrier protein that activates the growing fatty acid is similar to the
structure of _____.
A) biotin
C) tetrahydrobiopterin
D) coenzyme A
E) folic acid
Answer: D
Difficulty: Easy
synthesis
16) The activation of acetyl-CoA for fatty acid synthesis is achieved by converting the acetyl-
CoA into _____.
A) propionyl-CoA
B) malonyl-CoA
C) acetoacetyl-CoA
D) HMG-CoA
E) -hydroxybutyryl-CoA
Answer: B
Difficulty: Medium
synthesis
17) Acetyl-CoA carboxylase requires the coenzyme _____ and _____ as an energy source.
A) FADH2; acyl-CoA hydrolysis

B) NADPH; GTP
C) biotin; ATP
D) coenzyme A; GTP
E) thiamine pyrophosphate; acyl-CoA hydrolysis
Answer: C
Difficulty: Medium
synthesis
18) What molecule is able to move across the mitochondrial membrane and is thus used to
“transfer” acetyl-CoA from the mitochondria to the cytosol?
A) acetate
B) oxaloacetate
C) -ketoglutarate
D) citrate
E) succinate
Answer: D
Difficulty: Easy
synthesis
19) If a reaction that included all of the enzymes involved in fatty acid synthesis was supplied
with excess ATP, NADPH, acetyl-CoA and 14CO2 (where the carbon was a 14C-label), where
would the labeled carbon appear in the finished fatty acid?
A) odd-numbered carbons
B) even-numbered carbons
C) every third carbon
D) every fifth carbon
E) no carbons would be labeled
Answer: E
Difficulty: Hard
synthesis
20) In fatty acid synthesis, _____ catalyzes the reverse reaction of _____ in -oxidation.
A) 3-ketoacyl-ACP synthase; acyl-CoA dehydrogenase

B) 3-ketoacyl-ACP reductase; 3-hydroxyacyl-CoA dehydrogenase
C) 3-hydroxyacyl-ACP dehydrase; enoyl-CoA hydratase
D) enoyl-ACP reductase; thiolase
E) transacylase; enoyl-CoA hydratase
Answer: C
Difficulty: Hard
synthesis
21) When a growing fatty acid is not attached to the ACP, it is attached to a _____ residue of the
fatty acid synthase complex.
A) Cys
B) Ser
C) Tyr
D) Glu
E) His
Answer: A
Difficulty: Easy
synthesis
22) What are the energy requirements for the synthesis of one molecule of palmitate from eight
molecules of acetyl-CoA in the mitochondria?
A) 16 NADPH, 15 ATP
B) 16 NADPH, 8 ATP
C) 16 NADPH, 7 ATP
D) 14 NADPH, 15 ATP
E) 14 NADPH, 7 ATP
Answer: D
Difficulty: Hard
synthesis
23) What pathway supplies the bulk of the NADPH needed for fatty acid synthesis in mammals?
A) citric acid cycle

B) pentose phosphate pathway
C) glycolysis
D) light reactions of photosynthesis
E) all of the above
Answer: B
Difficulty: Medium
synthesis
24) What enzymes are required to make fatty acids containing 22 or 24 carbons?
A) elongases
B) reductase
C) desaturase
D) hydratase
E) malonyl-CoA ligase
Answer: A
Difficulty: Easy
synthesis
25) Which enzyme is the most important control point for fatty acid synthesis?
A) ATP-citrate lyase
B) transacylase
C) 3-ketoacyl-ACP reductase
D) 3-hydroxyacyl-ACP dehydrase
E) acetyl-CoA carboxylase
Answer: E
Difficulty: Easy
synthesis
26) Ketone bodies are produced in the _____ and used by the _____ only under conditions such
as a prolonged fast.
A) liver; heart
B) liver; brain
C) liver; skeletal muscle
D) kidneys; heart
E) kidneys; brain
Answer: B
Difficulty: Medium
synthesis
27) The conversion of 3-hydroxybutyrate to two molecules of acetyl-CoA produces 1 NADH

and consumes 1 equivalent of ATP. What is the net ATP yield from the complete oxidation of 3-
hydroxybutyrate?
A) 1.5
B) 11.5
C) 13.5
D) 21.5
E) 23.5
Answer: D
Difficulty: Hard
synthesis
28) The synthesis of triacylglycerols involves the addition of acyl groups to glycerol-3-
phosphate. What is the source of the acyl groups?
A) free fatty acid

B) fatty acid attached to the acyl carrier protein
C) fatty acyladenylate
D) acyl-carnitine
E) fatty acyl-CoA
Answer: E
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: Describe the synthesis of triacylglycerols, phospholipids, and cholesterol
29) Which of the following best describes the order for the conversion of glycerol-3-phosphate
into a triacylglycerol?
A) 1 phosphatase reaction then 3 acyltransferase reactions

B) 1 acyltransferase reaction, 1 phosphatase reaction, then 2 more acyltransferase reactions
C) 2 acyltransferase reactions, 1 phosphatase reaction, then 1 acyltransferase reaction
D) 3 acyltransferase reactions then 1 phosphatase reaction
E) 1 acyltransferase reaction, 1 phosphatase reaction, 1 acyltransferase reaction, 1 phosphatase
reaction, then 1 acyltransferase reaction
Answer: C
Difficulty: Hard
30) What is used to activate phosphoethanolamine prior to reaction with a diacylglycerol?
A) ATP
B) CTP
C) GTP
D) TTP
E) UTP
Answer: B
Difficulty: Medium
31) Which of the following best describes the sequence of events for the synthesis of
phosphatidylcholine?
A) phosphocholine condenses with glycerol-3-phosphate, then two fatty acids are added
B) CDP-choline reacts with a monoacylglycerol followed by fatty acid addition
C) a diacylglycerol pyrophosphate reacts with choline
D) CDP-choline reacts with a diacylglycerol
Answer: D
Difficulty: Hard
32) Which of the following explains how phosphatidylserine is synthesized?
A) serine displaces the ethanolamine from a phosphatidylethanolamine

B) serine reacts with a diacylglycerol pyrophosphate
C) CDP-serine reacts with diacylglycerol
D) serine reacts with a CDP-diacylglycerol
E) the ethanolamine group of phosphatidylethanolamine is carboxylated to form serine
Answer: A
Difficulty: Medium
33) What enzyme is the major control point of cholesterol synthesis in humans?
A) HMG-CoA synthase
B) HMG-CoA lyase
C) HMG-CoA reductase
D) thiolase
E) isopentenyl pyrophosphate synthase
Answer: C
Difficulty: 1
34) What mechanism is used to control whether HMG-CoA is used for ketone body synthesis or
for cholesterol synthesis?
A) control of HMG-CoA lyase versus HMG-CoA reductase

B) control of NADPH versus acetyl-CoA levels
C) control of NADPH:NAD+ levels
D) depletion of products influences where HMG-CoA will be shunted
E) ketone bodies are synthesized in the mitochondria; cholesterol is synthesized in the liver
Answer: E
Difficulty: Medium
35) What class of lipid is squalene, the precursor to cholesterol?
A) isoprenoid
B) fatty acid
C) steroid
D) wax
E) triacylglycerol
Answer: A
Difficulty: Easy
36) Which of the following commonly occurs before cholesterol is packaged into a VLDL?
A) oxidation to increase water solubility

B) esterification with a fatty acid
C) phosphorylation by ATP
D) hydration of the alkene
E) all of the above may occur
Answer: B
Difficulty: Medium
37) Cholesterol is converted into _____, a molecule that aids in the absorption of dietary lipids.
A) aldosterone
B) cortisol
C) -estradiol
D) progesterone
E) cholate
Answer: E
Difficulty: Medium
38) Which of the lipoproteins is responsible for removing cholesterol from cells?
A) chylomicron
B) VLDL
C) LDL
D) HDL
E) VHDL
Answer: D
Difficulty: Easy

Chapter Number: 18
1) How many ATP and electrons are required for the reduction of one molecule of nitrogen to
two molecules of ammonia in the reaction catalyzed by nitrogenase?
A) 8 ATP and 8 electrons

B) 16 ATP and 8 electrons
C) 16 ATP and 16 electrons
D) 8 ATP and 16 electrons
E) 16 ATP and 6 electrons
Answer: B
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: Describe the chemical reactions of nitrogen fixation and assimilation
2) Which of the following are required by nitrogenase to carry out the reduction of nitrogen?
A) an iron-molybdenum cofactor
B) iron-sulfur centers
C) a strong reducing agent such as ferredoxin
D) the absence of oxygen
E) all of the above
Answer: E
Difficulty: Medium
3) In the process of nitrification, nitrate reductase converts _____ into _____.
A) nitrate; nitrogen
B) nitrate; ammonia
C) nitrate; nitrite
D) nitrate; nitric oxide
E) nitrogen; nitrate
Answer: C
Difficulty: Medium
4) What enzyme is responsible for the incorporation of ammonia from nitrogen fixation into
organic molecules?
A) glutamine synthetase
B) glutamine synthase
C) glutamate synthetase
D) glutamate synthase
E) transaminase
Answer: A
Difficulty: Easy
5) Given the following reaction, what is the missing product of the net reaction of glutamine
synthetase and glutamate synthase?
-ketoglutarate + NH4+ + NADPH + ATP  NADP+ + ADP + Pi + _____
A) aspartate
B) asparagine
C) glutamate
D) glutamine
Answer: C
Difficulty: Easy
6) What are the products of the following transamination reaction?
-ketoglutarate + alanine _____ + _____
A) aspartate; oxaloacetate
B) glutamate; oxaloacetate
C) aspartate; pyruvate
D) glutamate; pyruvate
Answer: D
Difficulty: Medium
7) What amino acid is attached to the pyridoxal-5-phosphate in a typical transaminase?

A) Ser
B) His
C) Arg
D) Gln
E) Lys
Answer: E
Difficulty: Easy
8) When the transaminase enzyme is in the _____ form, it will only react with _____.
A) pyridoxal; -keto acid

B) pyridoxal; -amino acid
C) pyridoxamine; -amino acid
D) pyridoxal; -keto acid
E) pyridoxamine; -amino acid
Answer: B
Difficulty: Easy
9) Which of the following nonessential amino acids is correctly paired with the essential amino
acid that is required for its synthesis?
A) Phe: Trp
B) Cys: Met
C) Ser: Gly
D) Asp: Glu
E) His: Gln
Answer: B
Difficulty: Hard
Learning Objective: Summarize the pathways for synthesizing the essential and nonessential amino
acids
10) Which of the following citric acid cycle intermediates can be converted to aspartate via
transamination?
A) succinate
B) fumarate
C) -ketoglutarate
D) citrate
E) oxaloacetate
Answer: E
Difficulty: Easy
acids
11) Which of the following glycolytic intermediates is the common precursor to serine, cysteine
and glycine?
A) 3-phosphoglycerate
B) pyruvate
C) fructose-6-phosphate
D) dihydroxyacetone phosphate
Answer: A
Difficulty: Easy
acids
12) Which of the following amino acids is properly paired with the amino acid from which it is
derived?
A) Gln: Asp
B) Pro: Ala
C) Arg: Lys
D) Tyr: Phe
E) Ser: Cys
Answer: D
Difficulty: Medium
acids
13) What coenzyme is required for the conversion of serine to glycine?
A) pyridoxal phosphate
B) lipoic acid
C) tetrahydrofolate
D) biotin
E) cobalamin
Answer: C
Difficulty: Easy
acids
14) What form of the folate coenzyme is required for the conversion of homocysteine to
methionine?
A) methyl-tetrahydrofolate
B) methylene-tetrahydrofolate
C) methenyl-tetrahydrofolate
D) formyl-tetrahydrofolate
E) dihydrofolate
Answer: A
Difficulty: Medium
acids
15) Which of the following amino acids requires chorismate for its synthesis?
A) Met
B) Lys
C) Ile
D) Trp
Answer: D
Difficulty: Medium
acids
16) Which of the following amino acids cannot be produced in a plant that has been treated with
glyphosate?
A) Cys
B) Phe
C) Leu
D) Arg
E) Pro
Answer: B
Difficulty: Medium
acids
17) What enzyme catalyzes the conversion of phenylalanine to tyrosine?
A) phenylalanine hydrolase
B) phenylalanine desaturase
C) phenylalanine oxidase
D) phenylalanine decarboxylase
E) phenylalanine hydroxylase
Answer: E
Difficulty: Easy
acids
18) What amino acid is the precursor for the neurotransmitters epinephrine and norepinephrine?
A) tryptophan
B) serine
C) tyrosine
D) aspartate
E) glutamate
Answer: C
Difficulty: Easy
acids
19) Which of the following neurotransmitters is correctly paired with the amino acid from which
it is synthesized?
A) dopamine: tyrosine
B) -aminobutyric acid: glutamate
C) serotonin: tryptophan
D) epinephrine: tyrosine
E) all of the above
Answer: E
Difficulty: Medium
acids
20) The molecule _____ which is synthesized from _____, stimulate vasodilation.
A) nitric oxide; arginine

B) nitrous oxide; arginine
C) nitric oxide; citrulline
D) nitrous oxide; citrulline
Answer: A
Difficulty: Medium
acids
21) What coenzyme is used when inosine monophosphate is oxidized to xanthosine

monophosphate?
A) NADPH
B) NADP+
C) NADH
D) NAD+
E) FAD
Answer: D
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: Describe the key reactions in the synthesis and degradation of nucleotides and
deoxynucleotides
22) Which of the following amino acids is a source of both carbon and nitrogen for IMP?
A) Glu
B) Gln
C) Gly
D) Asp
E) Asn
Answer: C
Difficulty: Medium
deoxynucleotides
23) The conversion of IMP to AMP requires _____; the conversion of IMP to GMP requires
_____.
A) Gln; Glu
B) Asp; Gln
C) Asn; Asp
D) Glu; Asn
E) Asp; Glu
Answer: B
Difficulty: Medium
deoxynucleotides
24) Which of the following correctly describes the general synthesis of purine nucleotides?
A) The basic ring structure, orotate, is synthesized and then linked to PRPP
B) The basic ring structure, orotate, is synthesized stepwise on PRPP
C) The basic ring structure, inosine, is synthesized and then linked to PRPP
D) The basic ring structure, inosine, is synthesized stepwise on PRPP
Answer: D
Difficulty: Medium
deoxynucleotides
25) The energy for the conversion of IMP to GMP is supplied by _____.
A) ATP
B) CTP
C) GTP
D) TTP
E) UTP
Answer: A
Difficulty: Easy
deoxynucleotides
26) What step controls the activity of both purine and pyrimidine synthesis?
A) conversion of IMP to adenylosuccinate for AMP production

B) conversion of IMP to xanthosine monophosphate for GMP production
C) conversion of ribose-5-phosphate to 5-phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate
D) conversion of UTP to CTP
E) ribonucleotide reductase
Answer: C
Difficulty: Easy
deoxynucleotides
27) Which of the following amino acids is a source of both carbon and nitrogen for UMP?
A) Glu
B) Gln
C) Gly
D) Asp
E) Asn
Answer: D
Difficulty: Easy
deoxynucleotides
28) What enzyme is responsible for the conversion of nucleotides to deoxynucleotides?
A) ribonucleotide deoxidase
B) ribonucleotide dehydratase
C) ribonucleotide dehydrogenase
D) ribonucleotide oxidase
E) ribonucleotide reductase
Answer: E
Difficulty: Easy
deoxynucleotides
29) In the mechanism of ribonucleotide reductase, a _____ is generated at C3 to stabilize the
_____ that is formed at C2.
A) radical; carbocation
B) radical; carbanion
C) carbocation; radical
D) carbanion; radical
E) carbanion; carbocation
Answer: A
Difficulty: Hard
deoxynucleotides
30) What molecule is used to reduce ribonucleotide reductase back to its catalytically active
state?
A) NADH
B) NADPH
C) thioredoxin
D) ferredoxin
E) FADH2
Answer: C
Difficulty: Easy
deoxynucleotides
31) What nucleotide is methylated to produce dTMP?
A) dAMP
B) dCMP
C) dGMP
D) dUMP
E) both dCMP and dUMP can be converted to dTMP
Answer: D
Difficulty: Easy
deoxynucleotides
32) Which of the following organisms excrete uric acid?
A) birds
B) insects
C) reptiles
D) primates
E) all of the above
Answer: E
Difficulty: Easy
deoxynucleotides
33) The disease gout is characterized by high levels of _____, which forms crystal deposits of
_____, resulting in painful joints
A) urea; uric acid

B) uric acid; sodium urate
C) sodium urate; urea
D) uric acid; urea
Answer: B
Difficulty: Easy
deoxynucleotides
34) Which of the following is formed as a result of pyrimidine metabolism?
A) alanine
B) aspartate
C) asparagine
D) glycine
E) -alanine
Answer: E
Difficulty: Easy
deoxynucleotides
35) Which of the following amino acids is exclusively ketogenic?
A) Leu
B) Val
C) Phe
D) Arg
E) Thr
Answer: A
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: Summarize the pathways for degrading amino acids
36) What are the products of the glycine cleavage system?
A) formyl-tetrahydrofolate, ammonia and carbon dioxide

B) methylene-tetrahydrofolate, ammonia and carbon dioxide
C) methyl-tetrahydrofolate, ammonia and carbon dioxide
D) methylene-tetrahydrofolate and carbamoyl phosphate
E) methyl-tetrahydrofolate and carbamoyl phosphate
Answer: B
Difficulty: Medium
37) Threonine is considered both ketogenic and glucogenic because it is converted to _____ and
_____.
A) pyruvate; acetyl-CoA
B) ammonia; acetoacetate
C) carbamoyl phosphate; acetoacetate
D) glycine; acetyl-CoA
E) glycine; glutaryl-CoA
Answer: D
Difficulty: Hard
38) What type of reaction is used to deaminate most amino acids?
A) ATP-dependent ligation
B) transamination
C) oxidation
D) condensation
E) reduction
Answer: B
Difficulty: Easy
39) Degradation to pyruvate makes an amino acid _____; degradation to acetoacetate makes an
amino acid _____.
A) glucogenic; glucogenic
B) glucogenic; glucogenic and ketogenic
C) glucogenic; ketogenic
D) ketogenic; glucogenic
E) ketogenic; ketogenic
Answer: C
Difficulty: Easy
40) What coenzyme is required by phenylalanine hydroxylase?
A) NADPH
B) dihydrofolate
C) ferredoxin
D) FADH2
E) tetrahydrobiopterin
Answer: E
Difficulty: Easy
41) The enzyme _____ is missing in phenylketonuria while _____ is missing in alkaptonuria.
A) tyrosine transaminase; phenylalanine hydroxylase

B) phenylalanine hydroxylase; p-hydroxy-phenylpyruvate dioxygenase
C) phenylalanine hydroxylase; homogentisate oxidase
D) p-hydroxy-phenylpyruvate dioxygenase; homogentisate oxidase
E) homogentisate oxidase; tyrosine transaminase
Answer: C
Difficulty: Hard
42) The amino acids metabolized by the branched chain keto acid dehydrogenase complex are
_____.
A) Val, Leu and Ile

B) Thr, Val and Pro
C) Pro, Leu and Met
D) Ile, Thr and Pro
Answer: A
Difficulty: Easy
43) In high levels, ammonia is toxic to _____ cells.
A) kidney
B) cardiac
C) liver
D) nerve
E) intestinal
Answer: D
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: Describe the chemical reactions of the urea cycle
44) Glutamate undergoes a(n) _____, catalyzed by glutamate dehydrogenase, to yield -

ketoglutarate, NADH and _____.
A) reductive deamination; water

B) oxidative deamination; ammonia
C) reductive amination; water
D) oxidative amination; ammonia
Answer: B
Difficulty: Medium
45) In the mechanism of carbamoyl phosphate synthetase, what undergoes nucleophilic attack by
ammonia?
A) the carbonyl group of carboxyphosphate

B) the terminal phosphate of ATP
C) the middle phosphate of ATP
D) the carbonyl group of carbamate
E) the phosphate of carboxyphosphate
Answer: A
Difficulty: Hard
46) Which of the following contains the correct sequence of reactants for carbamoyl phosphate
synthetase?
A) ATP and ammonia, then bicarbonate, then ATP

B) ATP and ammonia, then ATP, then bicarbonate
C) ATP and bicarbonate, then ammonia, then ATP
D) ATP and bicarbonate, then ATP, then ammonia
E) ammonia and bicarbonate, then two ATP molecules
Answer: C
Difficulty: Hard
47) Which urea cycle intermediate reacts with carbamoyl phosphate?

A) citrulline
B) aspartate
C) argininosuccinate
D) arginine
E) ornithine
Answer: E
Difficulty: Easy
48) Based upon the following, what is the net ATP production for the synthesis of one molecule
of urea in the urea cycle? Consider that one nitrogen atom comes from glutamate dehydrogenase
and the other comes from aspartate.
The conversion of fumarate to oxaloacetate gives 1 NADH (oxaloacetate is transaminated

to aspartate)
Carbamoyl phosphate synthesis requires 2 ATP equivalents
Argininosuccinate synthesis requires 2 ATP equivalents
Glutamate dehydrogenase produces 1 NADH
A) -4 ATP
B) -1.5 ATP
C) -1 ATP
D) +1 ATP
E) +3 ATP
Answer: D
Difficulty: Hard
49) What enzyme associated with the urea cycle enzyme is activated by N-acetylglutamate?
A) carbamoyl phosphate synthetase

B) glutamate dehydrogenase
C) argininosuccinate synthetase
D) arginase
E) ornithine transcarbamoylase
Answer: A
Difficulty: Easy
50) What do birds excrete as nitrogen waste instead of urea?
A) asparagine
B) uric acid
C) carbamoyl phosphate
D) citrulline
E) arginine
Answer: B
Difficulty: Easy

Chapter Number: 19
1) Which of the following metabolic pathways is carried out only in the liver?
A) glycogen storage
B) ketogenesis
C) fatty acid synthesis
D) triacylglycerol synthesis
E) pentose phosphate pathway
Answer: B
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: Summarize the metabolic functions of liver, kidney, muscle, and adipose tissue
2) Which of the following metabolic pathways occurs exclusively in the cytosol?
A) citric acid cycle

B) ketogenesis
C) urea cycle
D) amino acid degradation
E) fatty acid synthesis
Answer: E
Difficulty: Medium
3) Which of the following pathways is active in the muscle only during the well-fed state?
A) glycolysis
B) fatty acid oxidation
C) glycogen storage
D) ketone body synthesis
E) fatty acid synthesis
Answer: C
Difficulty: Easy
4) Adipocytes convert glucose into fatty acids and _____.
A) glycerol
B) cholesterol
C) ketone bodies
D) lactate
E) ribose-5-phosphate
Answer: A
Difficulty: Medium
5) The kidney has a small amount of gluconeogenic activity. Which of the following explains
the source of carbon for gluconeogenesis?
A) conversion of aspartate into oxaloacetate

B) conversion of citrate into acetyl-CoA and oxaloacetate
C) conversion of odd-chain fatty acids into succinyl-CoA
D) conversion of alanine into pyruvate
E) conversion of glutamine into glutamic acid, then to -ketoglutarate
Answer: E
Difficulty: Hard
6) What metabolite is used in unusually high amounts by cancerous tumors and is thus often used
as a means to visualize cancerous tissue?
A) lactate
B) glutamine
C) glucose
D) ketone bodies
E) very long chain fatty acids
Answer: C
Difficulty: Medium
7) In a variation of the Cori cycle, what amino acid is transported from the muscle to the liver?
A) glycine
B) glutamate
C) aspartate
D) alanine
E) glutamine
Answer: D
Difficulty: Easy
8) Under anaerobic conditions, _____ is produced in the muscle and is then used by the liver for
_____.
A) glycerol; triacylglycerol synthesis
B) lactate; gluconeogenesis
C) citrate; fatty acid synthesis
D) oxaloacetate; gluconeogenesis
E) glycogen; glycogenolysis
Answer: B
Difficulty: Easy
9) What type of receptor is the insulin receptor?
A) tyrosine kinase receptor

B) G-protein coupled receptor
C) serine/threonine phosphatase receptor
D) nuclear receptor
E) MAP kinase coupled receptor
Answer: A
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: Describe the effects of insulin, glucagon, and epinephrine on fuel metabolism
10) The  cells of the pancreatic islets secrete _____ in response to _____ glucose levels.
A) insulin; high
B) insulin; low
C) glucagon; high
D) glucagon; low
E) epinephrine; low
Answer: D
Difficulty: Medium
11) How does insulin cause an increase in the rate of glucose transport into cells?
A) binds to the glucose transporter causing a conformational change resulting in greater transport
velocity
B) activates Na/K ATPase to increase glucose active transport
C) recruits glucose transporters from intracellular vesicles to the cell membrane
D) activates an insulin-dependent porin that allows for rapid glucose transport
E) all of the above
Answer: C
Difficulty: Medium
12) Which of the following enzymes is inhibited as a result of glucose binding to its receptor?
A) glycogen synthase
B) pyruvate kinase
C) acetyl-CoA carboxylase
E) fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase
Answer: E
Difficulty: Medium
13) Which of the following is an activator of glycogen synthase?
A) AMP
B) UDP-glucose
C) cAMP-dependent protein kinase
D) glucose-6-phosphate
E) all of the above
Answer: D
Difficulty: Medium
14) Glycogen phosphorylase has its greatest activity when _____; glycogen synthase has its
greatest activity when _____.
A) phosphorylated; not phosphorylated
B) phosphorylated; phosphorylated
C) not phosphorylated; phosphorylated
D) not phosphorylated; not phosphorylated
E) neither enzyme is controlled by phosphorylation
Answer: A
Difficulty: Medium
15) The effect of epinephrine upon the liver is most similar to which of the following hormones?
A) insulin
B) glucagon
C) leptin
D) resistin
E) ghrelin
Answer: B
Difficulty: Easy
16) Which of the following best explains the chain of events that occurs when glucagon binds to
its receptor?
A) activation of protein kinase A, activation of G protein, activation of adenylate cyclase,

production of cAMP
B) activation of adenylate cyclase, production of cAMP, activation of protein kinase A,
activation of G protein
C) production of cAMP, activation of adenylate cyclase, activation of protein kinase A,
activation of G protein
D) activation of G protein, activation of protein kinase A, activation of adenylate cyclase,
production of cAMP
E) activation of G protein, activation of adenylate cyclase, production of cAMP, activation of
protein kinase A
Answer: E
Difficulty: Hard
17) Which of the following is a second messenger?
A) cortisol
B) epinephrine
C) ghrelin
D) cyclic AMP
Answer: D
Difficulty: Easy
18) What hormone that is produced in adipose tissue signals satiety?
A) adiponectin
B) cholecystokinin
C) leptin
D) ghrelin
E) amylin
Answer: C
Difficulty: Easy
19) Where are the receptors for leptin and PYY3-36 located?
A) hypothalamus
B) pancreas
C) liver
D) adipose tissue
E) intestine
Answer: A
Difficulty: Medium
20) In the liver, activation of AMP-dependent protein kinase occurs when levels of _____ are
elevated, resulting in the activation of _____.
A) AMP; acetyl-CoA carboxylase

B) ADP; phosphofructokinase-2
C) ATP; glycogen phosphorylase
D) AMP; fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase
E) ADP; lactate dehydrogenase
Answer: B
Difficulty: Hard
21) After several days of fasting, the liver begins producing relatively large amounts of ketone
bodies. Which type of tissue is highly dependent upon this as its sole source of energy in the
absence of glucose?
A) heart
B) kidney
C) skeletal muscle
D) brain
E) all of the above
Answer: D
Difficulty: Medium
Learning Objective: Compare the metabolic changes that occur in starvation, obesity, and diabetes
22) During a long-term fast, which of the following is a major source of carbon for
gluconeogenesis?
A) lactate
B) acetoacetate
C) 3-hydroxybutyrate
D) acetone
E) glycerol
Answer: E
Difficulty: Easy
23) What hormone is most likely responsible for the body weight set-point?
A) adiponectin
B) cholecystokinin
C) leptin
D) ghrelin
E) all of the above
Answer: C
Difficulty: Easy
24) What organelle is found in much higher amounts in brown adipose tissue than white adipose
tissue?
A) mitochondria
B) lysosome
C) endoplasmic reticulum
D) chloroplast
Answer: A
Difficulty: Easy
25) Which of the following aspects of brown adipose tissue is responsible for its ability to
generate heat?
A) brown adipose tissue contains many small fat droplets instead of one large globule
B) blood flow to brown adipose tissue is larger than to white adipose tissue
C) brown adipose tissue has receptors for norepinephrine
D) the uncoupling protein allows fatty acid oxidation without ATP production
Answer: D
Difficulty: Medium
26) Which of the following is the most common type of diabetes in the US?
A) type 1
B) type 2 resulting from a genetic defect in the insulin receptor
C) type 2 without a genetic defect in the insulin receptor
D) type 3
E) all of the above are about equal in prevalence
Answer: C
Difficulty: Medium
27) In a diabetic liver, which of the following pathways would be constantly active?
A) glycogen synthesis
B) gluconeogenesis
C) fatty acid synthesis
D) ketone body oxidation
E) glycolysis
Answer: B
Difficulty: Medium
28) What happens to excess glucose in the eye that causes diabetics to develop cataracts?
A) oxidized to glucuronic acid causing aggregation of lens proteins

B) reduced to sorbitol causing aggregation of lens proteins
C) non-enzymatic glycosylation of lens proteins
D) oxidized and cyclized to a lactone causing modification of lens proteins
Answer: B
Difficulty: Hard
29) The synthesis of what liver enzyme is inhibited by the drug metformin, an activator of
AMPK?
A) phosphofructokinase
B) glycogen phosphorylase
C) acetyl-CoA carboxylase
D) pyruvate carboxylase
E) glucose-6-phosphatase
Answer: E
Difficulty: Medium
30) What hormone that is commonly produced in typical body fat has very little production in
visceral fat (also known as abdominal fat)?
A) leptin
B) resistin
C) neuropeptide Y
D) ghrelin
E) cholecystokinin
Answer: A
Difficulty: Easy
31) TNF prevents the proper activity of IRS-1 triggering resistance to what hormone?
A) norepinephrine
B) glucagon
C) leptin
D) insulin
E) all of the above
Answer: D
Difficulty: Medium

12~19 생화학 테뱅 정리

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Package Title: Pratt & Cornely Test Bank

Course Title: Pratt & Cornely

Question type: Multiple Choice

1) Plants are considered _____.

A) reduction reactions; oxidation reactions

A) proteins; dipeptides and tripeptides

4) Digestion of food utilizes enzymes that catalyze _____ reactions.

5) Which of the following is used to move lipids around the bloodstream?

6) The bulk of triacylglycerols in the human body are stored in _____.

A) muscle; amino acids

8) Amino acids can be converted to _____.

A) endoplasmic reticulum; protease enzymes chymotrypsin and trypsin

11) The _____-terminus of ubiquitin is linked to a _____ residue of proteins to be degraded.

14) Which of the following is more highly oxidized than acetaldehyde?

15) The oxidized form of NADH is _____.

16) Which of the following molecules is in the most reduced state?

19) Which of the following is correct regarding metabolic pathways?

A) most pathways are isolated from other pathways

20) Which of the following is correctly described?

A) proteome: the complete set of proteins present in a cell at a given time

21) Which of the following is an essential amino acid?

A) folic acid: carboxylation reactions

24) When a reaction is at equilibrium, the G is equal to _____.

25) If the ΔG° is known, how can Keq be calculated?

A) Keq = log e(ΔG°/RT)

26) For the following reaction, calculate the Keq at 25°C.

succinyl-CoA + acetoacetate acetoacetyl-CoA + succinate ΔG° = -1.25 kJ/mol

27) For the following reaction, calculate the ΔG° at 37°C.

glucose-6-phosphate fructose-6-phosphate Keq = 0.517

glucose-1-phosphate glucose-6-phosphate ΔG° = -7.1 kJ/mol

glucose-6-phosphate glucose + Pi ΔG° = -13.8 kJ/mol

A) one phosphoanhydride bond, two low energy phosphate esters

glucose + Pi glucose-6-phosphate ΔG° = 13.8 kJ/mol

A) removal of phosphate from the cytoplasm

34) Which of the following has the most spontaneous hydrolysis?

35) In highly active muscle, _____ is used to regenerate ATP.

Package Title: Pratt & Cornely Test Bank

Question type: Multiple Choice

1) The process of _____ converts glucose into _____.

A) electron transport; CO2

3) In eukaryotes, glycolysis typically occurs in the _____, gluconeogenesis typically occurs in

4) The coenzyme _____ is the oxidizing agent in glycolysis.

A) 2 pyruvate, 2 NADH, 2 ATP

7) Hexokinase is an example of a(n) _____ enzyme

A) within a cell, concentrations are non-standard

10) Which of the following enzymes requires ATP as a substrate?

11) What enzyme catalyzes the major regulatory step of glycolysis?

12) Which of the following is a potent activator of phosphofructokinase in mammals?

13) In bacterial cells, _____ is an activator of phosphofructokinase while _____ is an inhibitor.

14) The enzyme responsible for the synthesis of fructose-2,6-bisphosphate is _____.

A) C3 becomes an alcohol; C4 becomes a carboxylic acid

20) Experimental evidence indicates that glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase contains a

21) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase oxidizes _____.

22) Glyceraldehyde is oxidized to _____ which can transfer a phosphate to _____.

A) the enzyme is freely reversible

A) hydrolysis of phosphate from phosphoenolpyruvate

27) What sort of activity does fructose-1,6-bisphosphate have on pyruvate kinase?

29) What regulatory enzyme of glycolysis is skipped during fructose metabolism?

A) ethanol and CO2

32) Fill in the missing reagents in the following reaction.

A) reactant: NAD+ + H+; product: NADH

33) Under aerobic conditions, pyruvate is converted to _____ by pyruvate dehydrogenase.

34) What coenzyme is required for the conversion of pyruvate to oxaloacetate?

36) Which of the following forms a substrate cycle with hexokinase?

11) The _-terminus of ubiquitin is linked to a _ residue of proteins to be degraded.

1) The process of _ converts glucose into _.

13) In bacterial cells, _ is an activator of phosphofructokinase while _ is an inhibitor.

22) Glyceraldehyde is oxidized to _ which can transfer a phosphate to _.

41) Fructose-2,6-bisphosphate is an activator of _ and an inhibitor of _.

48) Glycogen storage occurs in _ and _ tissue.

11) In the malate-aspartate shuttle, _ is reduced to _ in the cytosol.

10) Complete the following reaction: P680 + light  _  _