10.

The trunion is coupled with-------- to make the gear

MODULE 11A pivoted while retracting and extending
SESSION 2 JUNE OF 2019 A. Bolt
B. Bearing
C. Spring
1. IMA ADVANTAGES
A. weight and volume 11. A hollow tube running through the control surfaces
B. Sharing PSU to all to dampen torsion and twisting loads is called
C. Making of equipment is more furnished Q. A torque tube
D. All the above. B. A control tube
C. None of the above
2.Type of oxygen system used by crew and passengers
A. Continuous 12. The deflection of hinge is proportional to
B. Demand type A. To the product of the force and amount of deflection
C. Both demand and continous B. Subtraction of amount of deviation from the total force
developed by the control
3. Some question C. Addition of both force and leading edge deflection.
A. Agonic lines
B. Isogoniclines 13. The moment of leading flap depends on
C. Magnetic variation. A. The amount of force it produced
B. As in (a) and moment arm.
4. Essential lighting C. Amount of pressure applied on the control surface.
A. Escape system lighting
B. Passenger lighting 14. A Jack screw which is controlled from cockpit on
C. Flight deck horizontal stabilizer moves the stabilizer is located
A. About the front spar
5. Correct sequence to be followed with TWO HALF B. Along front spar
DOORS. C.About the rear spar.
A. Open upper door and lock, now open lower half
B. Open bottom half lock it and now open upper door 15. Anti control tab related
C. Open bottom door first and then upper door and
support it on the bottom door. 16. Regarding positive dynamic stability
D. Open upper loosely and bottom door with some A.motion of Amplitude decreases with time
support. B. Continues in the same direction disturbance
C. Amplitude motion increases with time
6. Manufacturing of doors
A. Casting and machining 17. Imp equipment to be furnished within the reach of
B. Forging and machining one arm distance should positioned
C. Hyd press, .....press or drop hammer A. Flight crew
B. Passenger compartment
7. MTCS C. Cabin crew compartment
A. Door size should be bigger than opening D. Galley
B. As in (a) and it should prevent the cabin from
depressurise 18. Primary purpose of pneumatic pressure
C.... A. Start the engine
D. All the above B. Air conditioning and aircraft pressurisation
C. For anti icing and dicing
8. Strut is also called as D......
A. Outer cylinder
B. Shock absorber 19. High pressure pneumatic used some times for
C...... A. Engine starting.
B. Engine starting and water ejection pump
9. MTCS C. Brakes, LG , doors
A. Marking on strut to be type of hyd oil to be used. D. Engine starting, emergency brakes and LG operation,
water ejection pump, doors
20. Source of pneumatic supply
A. From engine and onboard pressure pumps
B. On ground, cart
C. On ground pneumatic pressure and high pressure
nitrogen.
21.MTCS
A. Emergency equipment should be place at designated
places
B. As in (a) and should be serviceable
C. Servicibility check not required since they are used in
only emergency.
22. MTCS
A. Emergency equipment contains oxygen, life rafts,
B. As in (a) and also first aid kit and medical kit
C. First aid kit and medical kit are not kept onboard. The
are only available on ground.
23. Emergency equipment like oxygen system are to
be checked
A. Before each flight
B. Once in a week
C. Pressure check not required since they are not used
each time.
24. Some valve is used in oxygen system
A. To maintain high pressure oxygen to low pressure
B. High pressure to a constant pressure
C.....
25. Filling point of oxygen lies
A. Just on the cylinder
B. Away from the cylinder under access panel
C. Under access panel near oxygen cylinder
26. High pressure pneumatic cylinders are marked.
A. With safety pressure value
B. As in (a) and date of manufacture
C. As in (b) and date of hydrostatic test carried out.
27. Mark the incorrect
A. Jigs are used to assemble components after fuselage
completion
B. Fixtures are used for precision alignment of sub
assemblies to fit on aircraft
C. Fixtures are used for proper alignment of sub
assembled parts.
28. The best way to avoid damage in strong wind and
storm
A. Fly the aircraft to some other place where it is
unaffected by storm if time is available.
B. Secure inside storm and strong wind proof hangars.
C. Tie down with ropes
29. Vertical stabilizer can be
A. A part of fuselage or made independent
B. It is built independently no relation with fuselage
C. ..
30. The no of major stresses work on aircraft
A. Three
B. Four
C. Five
31.horizontal stabilizer has construction similar to
A. Wing
B. Fuselage
C. Wing and fuselage.
32. The stringers purpose
A. They take load of formers and bulk heads
B. They join structural assemblies with gusset plates
C. ....
33. Wing ribs , spars and ...form a wing
34. In a horizontal stabilizer
A. Front spar is heavier than rear spar
B. Rear spar is lighter than front spar
C. Both spars are equal in weight.
35. Wings are made of
A. Aluminium and magnesium alloy
B. Aluminium alloy and magnesium alloy
C. Aluminium and stainless steel
D. Aluminium alloy and stainless steel.
36. Current limiters are
A. Limit current upto a certain amperage
B. They melt at temperatures( low or high not remembering
exactly)
C. Cant protect at high voltages.
37. MTCS
A. Communication includes VHF omnirange, VHF, HF
B. Now a days most frequently used communication is HF
38. Spot beam in communication meaning
A. One frequency is maintained to contact one place at a
time
B. Several frequencies used for single point of contact
C. One frequency several contact points
39. Regarding space waves.
40. 3rd generation IMA uses
A. Alms
B. Add
C. ...
41. The increased temperature is controlled in 52. MTCS
combustion chamber heating is done by A. The waste is collected and kept stored to drain on ground
A. Heater fuel shut off valve closing B. The waste collection is combined with solvents
B. Bypass valve electrically and mechanically to through outside
C. Refrigeration bypass valve C. Is used with fine acid droplets.....
D.....
53. Stall transmitter anti icing
42. In a large transport aircraft run by reciprocating A. Pneumatically
engine....... B. Electrically
C. Thermally
43. Taxi light is shown by white light
54. After installing access panels
44. Which lighting system is not to be checked by A. Air test is rqd to assess condition of stall limiting .
ohmmeter B. Mild detergent and water is prohibited to clean panels
A. Incandescent C. Polishing the panels with shining material is not
B. Fluorescent permitted.
C. Xenon
S.tungsten 55.engine loads transferred to wing
A. Engine mounts
45. Which light are not to be touched by bare hands B. Reinforced wing structure
A. Flouroscent C. Both a&b.
B. Xenon
C. Strobe light 56. Which portable fire extinguisher is not to be used in
cabin or cockpit
46. A reservoir which does not require pressuri
surizzation A. Halon
A. Upto 15000 feet height B. Water type
B. Some hydraulic system which operate LG and other C. Co2
systems
C. Fluid to be pulled from some fluid system 57. Co2 is most common type of fire extinguisher
because
47. Iridium related A. It is not combustible
A. Any where in the world. B. It does not react with any component
C. ...
48. Control tab for hands free operation
A. By spring 58. The water in toilets is supplied by
B. Jack screw A. Onboard potable water tanks.
C. ....
59. AIDS purpose
49. MTCS A. Supply data to cockpit to monitor flight operations
A. Demand type oxygen masks used by flight crew B. Indicate faults on display
B. Used by cabin crew C.....
C. Used by both flight crew and cabin crew but
independent control. 60. Electric lines and electro magnetic lines
A. 180 degree
50. Regarding mach stress reading B. Right angle to each other
A. When speed is increasing above mach value and stab C. 90 degree out of phase.
trim activation
B. Speed is decreasing below mach speed and elevator 61. Pneumatic wind shielding
trim activated. A. Will not allow rain droplets to strike on wind shield.
C...
62. Electrostatic induction takes place
51. Toilet tank flushing system consists of A. While passing the aircraft in air, accumulation of rain, ice,
A. Flushing handle, pipes, waste collection tank, pump, dust..
switch every thing under the flush B. Induced current while passing through clouds, electrical
B. As in ( a) cover on flush charge develops.
C. Pump, pipes, every thing under flush but flushing
switch is remotely located.
63. Bonding purpose 75. Failure of which software is dangerous and
A. To produce low resistance catastrophic results occur
B. ... A. Class A
B. Class B
64. Fuel tanks to take loads C. Class C
A. Tank loads
B. Tank loads, ...., ...., inertia 76. Failure of software does not effect
A. Class E
65. A collection of sump in a tank must be B. Class b
A. 0.25 percent of total tank capacity C. Class c
B. 0.5 percent
C. 1 percent 77. Zinc chromate primer is
A. Type 1
66. Moisture collection requires B. Type 2
A. A sump C. Type 3
B. Drain and check valve
C. Pressure switch 78. Which primer is mixed with petroleum solvent
D. All the above. A. Zinc chromate
B....
67. Fuel system with venting from the fuel tank C....
requires
A. Not less than 2 percent of space required. 79. Light aircraft hydraulic use
B. No space require A. Vegetable base oil
C. Not less than 5 percent space is required. B. Synthetic base oil
C. Mineral base oil
68. Location of speakers of PA system
A. Wherever suitable place is available. 80. MIL-83232 oil nomenclature.
B. In cockpit, attendant station, passenger compartment,
toilets 81. DFDR comes into operation
C. Cabin crew station, passenger compartment, galley, A.aircraft in flight
rear B. Engine running on ground
C. Both a& b
69. Wing surface milling uses
A. Removal of extra material on wing quickly. 82. Rate of temperature rise fire detection system
B. Smooth finishing of wing A. Thermal switch
C. To make grooves on wing. B. Thermo couple

70. Structural strength increased by 83. Material of nascelle

A. Corrugated plates installation. A. Aluminium and composite
B. Aluminium or composite
71. Air conditioning and ram air control in cockpit C. Aluminium and/or composite.
A. Single position switch
B. Two position switch with off and normal 84. Related water line or buttock line
C. 3 position switch with off, norm, ram
85. Dis advantage of mono coque design.
monocoque
72. Temperature control in cockpit done
A. Through a temperature control knob in single position 86. ZAP flap
B. Two position control knob, temperature control A. Combination of split flap and Fowler flap
unit....bla....bla B. ...
Not remembering exactly.
87. Purpose of leading edge of a flap
73. Dry type extinguisher not used in cabin due to A. To produce lift increments
A. Cleaning required B. To produce drag at proper incidents of angle.
B. It may damage electrical systems
88. Lift is dependent on
74. Fly by wire use and purpose related. A. Density and velocity of air
B.
89. Wing sweep back 102. If the speed of aircraft increases pitot pressure
A. High aspect ratio hence induced drag is less A. Increase
B. Low aspect ration , more induced drag. B. Decrease
C. Remain constant
90. Purpose of air filter
A. Can be cleaned and re used. 103.some question
A. Pneumatically activated pneumatically operated
91. Air conditioning, air cycle machine related. B. Electrically activated electrically operated.
C. Pneumatically activated electrically operated.
92.equipment furnishing certification. D. Electrically activated pneumatically operated.
A. CS 12
B. CS 20 104. What happens when left aileron up?? Position of
V. CS 25 lift which side?

93. Question related 105. Related side stick stability.

TSO 20 and CS 12.
106. Which valve separates cabin pressure from atm
94. IFE pressure.
A. I dependent power source A. Outflow valve
B. Common source B. Negative pressure valve.
C....
95. Relay test switch/ button/circuit purpose
A. To check servicbility of indication light only. 107. Torque link used for
B. All fire detection electrical continuity. A. To align the strut laterally.
B. To align the strut longitudinally.
96. In fibre optics communication network formed by
A. Y junction 108. ACARS VHF range
B. T junction A. 129- 137mhz.
C. Topologies
D. Both a & c. 1099. In horizontal stabilizer rear spar is _____than front
10
spar
97. MTCS regarding side tone A.lighter
B.much heavier
98. C.much lighter
A. Loss of concentration and sight
B. Color blindness 1100. Design of horizontal stab is similar to
11
C. Low threshold of hearing A.wing
D. All B.Fuselage
C.wing & Fuselage
99. Max deviation in magnetic direction meridian
A . 10deg 1111. Member giving shape to skin ...(something like that)
11
B. 5 degree A. Stinger
C. 6 deg B. Former
C.
100. Cabin pressure differential in a light aircraft
A. 5.5 psi 112. Two pairs door....?
B. 9psi
C. 3 to 5psi 113. Thermal switch Fire detection system....?
D. 8.5psi.
114. Petrol thiner used to thin... Like this not exactly..
101. In a propeller aircraft location of passenger door A. enamel
should be away of B. Laquer
A. 10 deg C. redirox
B. 15 deg
C. 5deg.
115. Positive dynamic stability

116. Cargo loading .....??

117. lav water heating

118. Pneumatic rain replaint ....??

119. Primary Use of pneumatic system

a- engine starring
b air-conditioning
c anti ice
d all

120. CO2 Use exterior of Aircraft.

A. Non combustible
B. b. Non tractable
C. c all

121. Strut also called.

A. Outer cylinder
B. shock absorber
C. truck.

122. stic fixed static for.

A. aileron
b. elevator

123. bonding in Aircraft...

a. provide low resistance path
b.

124. What type of loads stringers will bear in aircraft

124.What
structures...?

---------------------------------END----------------------------
DGCA MODULE 11 Q9. Satellite Communication uses LEO satellites to
(Aircraft Electrical and Electronic Systems-mike
(QREF-1120) tooley,pg-245)
a) Provide greater Coverage
DATE : 27-JUN-2019 b) Maintain a geostationary position
c) Minimize Voice Delay
Q1. IMA 3rd generation uses (CIVIL AVIONICS
SYSTEM pg.336) Q10. What Type of Modulation can be used in VHF
a) ELMS range and above (ESMIN pg-278)
b) AFDX a) Frequency
c) AIRNIC 629 b) Amplitude
c) Both
Q.2 Which light should not be touch with bare hand?
(Aircraft Electrical and Electronic Systems-MIKE Q11. HF frequency is (Aircraft Communications and
TOOLEY Navigation Systems – mike tooley chapter-5 para 5.1)
pg.226) a) 3-30 Mhz
a) Xenon b) 30-300 Mhz
b) Fluorescent c) 300-3000 Mhz
c) Electro-lumniscent
Q12. DFDR “EVENTEVENT”” button is for (Aircraft Electrical
Q3. Above 30MHZ propagation is by (ESMIN pg-279) and Electronic Systems-mike tooley,pg-329)
a) Space wave a) a discrete signal on the recording to highlight the timing
b) Sky wave of the event
c) Ground wave b) a digital signal on the recording to highlight the timing of
the event
Q4. Lift depends on c)
a) Angle of attack
b) Shape of aerofoil Q13. Current limiter (Aircraft Electrical and Electronic
c) velocity and density of air Systems-mike tooley,pg-143)
d) All a) Designed to limit current at a predetermined amperage
b) Has low melting point.
Q5. Fiber optics communication network uses c) Cannot be used in heavy power circuit
a) T junction d) All
b) Y junction
c) Ring topology Q.14 Which light cannot be tested with an ohmmeter
d) Both b & c a) Incandescent
b) Xenon
Q6. AIDS purpose (Aircraft Digital Electronic and c) Halogen
Computer Systems pg-83) d) ALL
a) Recording & performance monitoring
b) indicate fault on display Q15. Type of software failure categorise hazardous
c) supply data to computer to monitor flight operation (Aircraft Digital Electronic and Computer Systems –mike
tooley pg-154)
Q7. Maximum deviation in DR compass a) Level A
a) 5o b) Level B
b) 100 c) Level C
c) 15o d) Level D

Q8. DFDR is automatically turned on when (Aircraft Q16. The Iridium network allows voice and data
Digital Electronic and Computer Systems –mike tooley messages to be routed (Aircraft Electrical and Electronic
pg-179) Systemsmike
a) aircraft powered up tooley, pg-245,255)
b) aircraft in flight a) anywhere in the world
c) engine is running b) between the flight crew and cabin crew
d) both b & c c) via a fibre optic network.
Q17. ACARS is a digital data link system uses VHF Q27.oxygen refilling valve (AMR pg-594)
range (Aircraft Digital Electronic and Computer a) Valve is attached on the cylinder neck
Systems pg-175) b) Valve is away from cylinder on panel
a) 129-137MHz c) located under an access panel on the outside of the
b) 108-118MHz fuselage and near the oxygen cylinder.
c) 140-153 MHz
Q28. Fire extinguisher usable in flight (EASA techbook
Q18. Lines are drawn on the charts, and those which pg. 8.22)
join places having equal variation are called (EASA a) Co2
techbook pg. 5.46) b) Halon
a) isogonal lines c) Dry chemical
b) Agonal line
c) Angle of dip Q29. Fire extinguisher unusable in flight (EASA
techbook pg. 8.23)
Q19.Nacelle strut transfer load to wing through a) Halon
(AMR pg-60) b) Co2
a) Mount c) Water
b) Reinforced skin
c) Both Q30. Nacelle made up of (AMR pg-60)
a) Sheet metal 0r composite
Antenna’’s signals
Q20. Antenna b) Sheet metal & composite
a) 90 Degree out of phase c) Sheet metal &/or composite
b) Right angle to each other and to the direction of
propagation of the wave. Q31. Fatigue will cause
c) 180 degree out of phase a) Less concentration and awareness
b) colorblind
Q21. Anti-servo tab is linked to main surface by c) low threshold of hearing
a) With spring d) all
b) To the bearing
c) Jack screw Q32. Toilet flush system consist of
a) flushing handle,fluid line,Motor,flush ,pump & fluid line
Q22. If a fuel tank vented discharge clear of the b) A + also consist of bowl cover
aeroplane expansion space of reuired is (EASA c) Remote indicating, flush and motor and pipeline on the
10.4))
techbook pg. 10.4 tank
a) 5%
b) 2% Q33. Mostly used for pilot & pax
c) not required a) Diluter demand
b) Continuous flow
Q23. Source of high pressure pneumatic air (EASA c) Combination of diluter demand & continuous flow
techbook pg. 16.3)
a) Engine & other onboard compressor Q34. AOA sensor probe anti-ice method (AMR pg-678)
b) Ground cart & ground nitrogen source a) Pneumatic
c) Both b) Chemical
c) Electrical
Q24. Constant displacement type pump is (AMR-393)
a) gear Q35. Avionics system having descrete input and output is
b) vane type a) Type 1
c) both b) Type 2
c) Type 3
Q25.Airstairs (AMR pg-42) d) Type 4
a) Open in 2 parts upper locked and down opened as stair
b) Open in 2 parts upper removed and joined with lower Q36. Electrostatic build of aircraft
a) Caused due friction with rainfall, snow,dust.
Q26. Door frames are formed by (AMR pg-40) b) Caused when aircraft fly in charged cloud
a) Forging & machining c)
b) Casting & machining
c) Hydropress or stamp press or drop hammer
Q37. ZAP flap Q47. Primary load carrying load member of wing
a) Combination of plain & fowler a) Stringer & spar
b) Combination of split & fowler b) Former and stringer
c) Combination of plain & split c) Former & rib

Q38. MTCS Q48. Wing made up of

a) For communication VHF VOR,HF & VHF used a) Aluminium & magnesium
b) Hf mostly used for communication b) Aluminium & titanium
c) c)

Q39. When pilot move the control column Q49.MTCS taxi light (Aircraft Maintenance Technician
a) Control column move toward left cause left aileron to handbook-general pg-11-21)
ascend & right aileron to decend a) Flashing green –clear to taxi
b) A + it caused lift on right wind & aircraft bank toward b) Flashing red – clear to taxi
left c) Flashing white-clear to taxi
c) Control column move toward left cause left aileron to
decend & right aileron to ascend Q50. Flashing light
a) Anti collision light
Q40. Lavatory line heated (AMR pg-683) b) Wing
a) Pneumatically c) Stabilizer
b) Heated inside protable water tank d) All
c) Electrically heated below lavatory bowl
Q51.MTCS (Aircraft Maintenance Technician
Q41. Thermocouple (EASA techbook pg-8.4) handbook-general pg-11-20)
a) Heat sensitive a) When towing the aircraft, the towing vehicle speed must
b) Rate of rise temperature be reasonable speed
c) b) When the aircraft is stopped, do not rely upon the brakes
of the towing vehicle alone to stop the aircraft.
Q42. MTCS (EASA techbook pg-8.4) c) The person in the cockpit should coordinate the use of the
a) Thermistor is connected in parallel to each other & aircraft brakes with those of
series with indicator light the towing vehicle
b) Thermistor is connected in series to each other & d) All
parallel with indicator light
c) Q52. Zincromate used on (EASA techbook pg. 2.18)
a) Alumium & alluminum alloy
Q43. Elevator pitch trim b) Magnesium
a) Elevator control spring c) Both
b) Elevator down spring
c) Q53. Isolation valve used in
a) Cross bleed
Q44. Jettison system (EASA techbook pg. 10.13) b) Left bleed
a) Jettision system used in modern aircraft c) Right bleed
b) Jettision system used on large aircraft
c) Required on aircraft having landing weight less than Q54. Forced applied by pilot on control column
take off weight a) Is sum of force on surface & distance away from hinge
line
Q45.Strut attached to structure also called b) Is production of force on surface & distance away from
(AMR pg-449) hinge line
a) Shock absorbing c) Is diffence of force on surface & distance away from
b) Piston hinge line
c) Outer cylinder
Q55. Coalegent bag in water separator indicate when
Q46. Temperature of combustion heater controlled by a) Waste tank is full
(AMR pg-557) b) Water is full in bag
a) stop the fuel flow c) Bag is dirty
b) Thermostats valve
c) both
Q56. MTCS Q65.MACTRIM used when
a) Plug is male connector socket attached to female a) Aircraft is above sonic speed & centre of pressure is
receptacle moves rearward
b) – b) Aircraft is below sonic speed & centre of pressure is
moves rearward
Q57. Drainable sump with an effective capacity, in c)
the normal ground and flight attitudes is
(EASA techbook pg-10.4) Q66. MTCS Spoiler (AMR pg-348)
c) 1% a) One side Use in conjunction with aileron with up going
d) 2% aileron
e) 0.25% b) Also used as speed brakes when operated simultaneously
c) both
Q58. Major stress on aircraft are
(EASA techbook pg-2.7) Q67. With the increase in speed of aircraft
a) Three a) Pitot pressure increases
b) Four b) Pitot pressure decreases
c) Five c) Remain unchanged

Q59. MTCS (Aircraft Maintenance Technician Q68. Refrigation bypass valve

handbook-general pg-11-9)
a) If possible pilot should avoid flying in storm
b) secured inside inside storm and strong wind proof
hangar
c) Aircraft tied down with rope & headed in wind
direction
d) All
Q60. MTCS (EASA techbook pg-7.1)
a) emergency equipment are fire extinguishers, life rafts,
escape slide
b) a + also include first aid kit
c) emergency equipment doesnot include first aid kit
Q61. MTCS high pressure system (EASA techbook
pg-16.7)
a) Consist of 1000-3000psi & used to operate Brakes
Opening and closing doors ,driving hydraulic pumps,
alternators.
b) A + as well for starters, water injection pumps
c) high pressure system used for engine starts, engine
de-icing
Q62. MTCS (AMR PG-350)
a) A torque tube is a hollow shaft by which the linear
motion of a cable or push-pull tube is changed to
rotary motion
b)
Q63.Trunion supported by (EASA techbook pg-13.8)
a) Bearing
b) –
c)
a) Electrically controlled & pneumatically operated
b) Pneumatically controlled & Electrically operated
c) Pneumatically controlled & Pneumatically operated
d) Electrically controlled & Electrically operated
Q69. Torque link (AMR pg-453)
a) Used for longitudional stability
b) Restrict piston movement during retraction
c) To keep boogie straight
Q70. Where stiffening demands become extreme, the
skin may be reinforced by (AMR pg-47)
a) Increasing skin thickness
b) corrugated panel
Q71. Canti-liver wing (AMR pg-47)
a) No external bracing required
b) external bracing required
Q72.MTCS
a) When jacking aircraft each person should positioned at
jack
b) Each point should raised simultaneously
c)
d) All
Q73. MTCS Rigging of fuselage (AMR pg-329)
a) The fuselage is aligned at the time of manufacture in the
assembly jigs
b) Fixture is used for precision alignment of fuselage part
c) fuselage large structures are aligned and assembled in jigs
and fixtures
d) ALL

Q64. Instruction plate on air oleo strut Q74. Screen mesh air filter
a) Type of fluid a) Cleaned & reused
b) – b) Replaced periodically
c) c)
Q75. CO2 fire extinguisher
a) Preferable as it is not combustible
b) Don’t react mostly with substance
c) Both
Q76. Wing Machine milling of surface for
a) Quality finish
b) to make grove in wing
c) removal of extraa material from wing
Q77. Current limiter (Aircraft Electrical and Electronic
Systems-mike tooley,pg-143)
a) Design to limit the current at predetermine amperage
b) Slow-Blow Fuse
c) Short delay before metal link melts & disconnect the
circuit
Q78. Cabin emergency equipment
(EASA techbook pg-7.2)
a) Should be in proper designated location & checked
before each flight
b) As in (a) it should be in proper condition as per CS-25
c) Cabin should perform inspection & certify it
Q79. Wing Fuel tank should take
(EASA techbook pg-10.3)
a) Vibration and compression load
b) Vibration, fuel load, compression
c) Vibration , fuel load, compression, inertia
Q80. Requirements for equipment location on the
flight deck are (EASA techbook pg-7.5)
a) Within reach of pilot
b) Within reach of pax from seat
c) Within reach of cabin crew
Q81. Oxygen refilling valve
a) On cylinder neck
b) Located remotely away from cyclinder
c)
Q82. Oxygen cylinder (EASA techbook pg-15.5)
a) The manufactured date and certification number is
stamped on each cylinder near the neck.
b) A + hydrostatic test dates are also stamped
c) A+ hydrostatic test dates are not stamped
Q83. As FAA in FAR Parts 23 and 25 passenger door
may be located in the plane of rotation of an inboard
propeller or within (AMR pg-39)
a) 5°
b) 15°
c) 10°
Q84. Plug type door (AMR pg-43)
a) the door must be larger than its opening and must be
inside the airplane with pressure pushing outward
b) A + it provide rapid decompression
c) –
d) All
Q85. MTCS cargo compartment (AMR pg-45)
a) Suitable means must be provided to prevent the contents
of baggage and cargo compartments from
shifting
b) A + large transpot aircraft have containerised that fit
contour shape of fuselage
c) Baggage are not containerized in many cases.
Q86. MTCS vertical stabilizer (AMR pg-55)
a) Stabilizer can be integral part of fuselage or separately
attached
b) Horizontal & vertical stabilizer are seperate unit attach by
bolt
c) Stabilizer is not a part of fuselage
Q87. Construction of stabilizer is similar to (AMR pg-55)
a) Wing
b) Fuselage
c) Wing & fuselage
Q88. Conventional landing-gear configuration consists
of (AMR pg-57)
a) two main landing gears located ahead of the aircraft
center of gravity and a tailwheel located near the tail
of the aircraft
b) two main landing gears located aft of the aircraft center
of gravity and a tailwheel located near the tail of
the aircraft
c) two main landing gears located ahead of the aircraft
center of gravity and a tailwheel located near the
nose of the aircraft
Q89. Zincromate used on
a) Aluminium
b) Aluminium alloy
c) Magnesium
Q90. pneumatic rain removal system (AMR pg-682)
a) spread with help of the windshield wiper
b) bleed air high temperature and pressure use to prevent air
from striking windscreen surface
c)
Q91. Fire detection system (EASA-TECHBOOK pg-8.3)
a) sense the overheat
b) sense the fire
c) extinguish fire
d) both A & b
Q92. Regulator used to control the cain pressure Q103. butt line (EASA-TECHBOOK pg-2.4)
(EASA-TECHBOOK pg-4.34) a) vertical reference plane down the center of the aircraft
a) outflow valve & safety valve from which measurements left or right can be
b) negative pressure relief valve made
c) dump valve b) vertical reference plane down the center of the aircraft
below the bottom of fuselage
Q.94. MTCS c) measurement of height in inches perpendicular from a
a) Supercharger supply constant volume at all altitude horizontal plane usually located
and are limted to design limit
b) Supercharger supply constant volume at all altitude Q104. Light aircraft uses (AMR pg-386)
c) - a) vegetable based fluid
b) mineral based fluid
Q95. Light aircraft are design to operate at max c) synthetic based
cabin differential pressure of about (AMR pg-572)
a) 9 PSI Q105. Mineral based fluid MIL-0-83282. (AMR pg-386)
b) 3 to 5 PSI a) it can be used in systems having the same types of seals,
c) 9 PSI gaskets rubber seal used
b) rubber seal used
Q96. MTCS regarding Sidetone ( Aircraft Electrical c) teflon seal used
and Electronic Systems – mike tooley, pg-241)
a) The PA amplifier provides a level of sidetone to crews Q106. FBW
handset. a) -
b) It is a technique of feeding back a small amount of b) -
sound from mouthpiece to earpiece. c) -
c) It confirms the handset is functional.
d) All the above. Q107. distributor panel
a) -
Q97. MTCS IFE ( Aircraft Electrical and Electronic b) -
Systems – mike tooley, pg-243) c) -
a) uses aircraft main electrical supply
b) have independent power supply Q108. Resorvior which donot require pressurisation
c) Have self generating system (AMR pg-387)
a) below 15000 ft
Q98. Relay test purpose b) fluid need to pull the system
a) to check serviceability of light only c)
b) to check serviceability of light & wire
c) Q109. In large reciprocating engine conventional type
gyro uses (EASA-TECHBOOK pg-2.4)
Q99. Specifications for emergency equipment a) electrical
requirements (EASA-TECHBOOK pg-7.2) b) vaccum system
a) CS-25 c) both
b) CL-20
c) CF-20 Q110. Stringer purpose
a) take load from former & bulk head
Q100. Wing sweepback b) provide attachment for skin and give shape to fuselage
a) high aspect ratio & induce drag is less c)
b) low aspect ration & induced drag more
c) not applicable for transport category aircraft Q111. THS
a) pivot about rear spar
Q101. Purpose of L.E flap b) pivot along rear spar
a) to produce lift increment c)
b) to produce drag at proper angle of incidence
Q112. Positive dynamic stability
Q102.monocouque design disadvantage a) motion of amplitude decrease with time
a) - b) motion of amplitude remain same w.r.t to position
b) - c) motion of amplitude increase with time
c) -
Q113. Moments of leading edge flap depends on Q122. Temperature control from cockpit
a) amount of force produced a) through temperature control switch single position
b) a + moment of arm b) two position switch normal & off
c) sum of force applied on control surface c)

Q114. Essential lights are (ESMIN pg-255) Q123. Dry powder mostly not used for other than metal
a) escape slide light because (EASA-TECHBOOK pg-8.12)
b) passenger lighting a) it leaves residue & hard to remove
c) flight deck b) can damage electronic & equipement
c) both
Q115. IMA advantage (Civil Avionics Systems- sea
bridge pg-329) Q124. Air-conditioning and ram control switch in
a) wieght & volume cockpit
b) sharing PSU to all a) single position switch
c) equipment more furnished b) two position switch off & normal
d) all c) three postion switch off ,normal & ram

Q116. ZINC chromate (AMR pg-113) Q125. Moisture seperator/collection in pnuematic system
a) lacquer a) resorvoir
b) enamel b) drain & check valve
c) wash primer c) pressure switch
d) all
Q117.MTCS (EASA-TECHBOOK pg-9.2)
a) secondary flight controls to augment the performance Q126. Purpose of bonding in aircraft (ESMIN pg-77)
of the aircraft during takeoff and landing and a) provide low ressistance path
b) A + to supplement the controllability of the airplane b) –
throughout the various flight parameter c)
c) secondary control surface used for landing only
d) all Q127. MTCS
a) waste stored in tank & empty at next flight station
Q118. Zinc chromate b) waste in tank mixed with liquid
a) type 1
b) type 2 Q128. Insulation material for wire
c) type 3 a) Provide protection to wire from contamination such as
d) type 4 fuel,oil, hydraulic fluid
b) -
Q119. Location of speaker of passenger addressing c) -
system (Aircraft Electrical and Electronic Systems – d) all
mike tooley, pg-241)
a) wherever suitable place available Q129. Active load control (EASA-TECHBOOK pg-9.4)
b) at cabin attendant pannel, cockpit,pax a) Used during roll maneuver
compatrtment,toilet b) A + during roll reduce stress on wing while g load
c) at cabin attendant panel, pax compartment, toilet, increases
galley . c) A + during roll reduce stress on wing while g load
d) at cabin attendant panel, pax compartment, toilet. decreases

Q120.primer mixed with petroleum solvent MTCS(CIVIL AVIONICS SYSTEM pg.30)

Q130. MTCS
a) - a) LRM is more reliable than LRU
b) - b) LRU is more reliable than LRM
c) - c)

Q121. Type of failure of having no effect (Aircraft Q131. Valve which regulate the bleed air from to
Digital Electronic and Computer Systems pg-154) pneumatic manifold into aircycle air-conditioning
a) level A (EASATECHBOOK pg-4.6)
b) level B a) Pack valve
c) level D b) Check valve
d) level E c) outflow valve
Q132. MTCS (ESMIN pg-256)
a) Turn-off light used to provide illumination of the area
to the immediate left and right of the aircraft
b) Take off light mounted at particular angle facing down
side
c) Two light used to illumination logo are mounted at
bottom of horizontal stabilizer

Q133. MTCS
a) Navigation light on ground help ATC to determine the
position of aircraft
b) Wing illumination light is fixed on the trailing edge of
the aircraft to illuminate nacelle area
c) Light on wing illuminate horizontally

Q134. BITE
a) -
b) -

-----------------END-------------
 CAT B1.1 Module 11A 40 10. Mark the correct statement about exterior lights
MARKS QUESTION SESSEION a) Runway takeoff light illuminates both side of the aircraft
2 OF 2019 BOMBAY b) Fuselage light has white colour and position lights have
red colour covering.
1. Radio Communication antenna output is measured c) 2 Logo lights are installed on each horizontal stabilizer to
by light vertical stabilizers
a) SWR Meter
11. ASCB-D is -----------
b) LC Circuit
c) Power Amplifier
12. Airspeed corrected to a non-standard temperature
pressure & temperature
2. In a 6 pole d.c machine, 90 mechanical degrees a) True airspeed
correspond to_________ electrical degrees b) Indicated airspeed
a) 30 b)180
c) 45 )270
d)270 13. Purpose of AIDS
a) Recording & performance monitoring.
3. In relation to transformer, the ratio 20:1 indicates b)
that c)
a) there are 20 turns on primary one turn on secondary
b) secondary voltage is 1/20th of primary voltage
c)primary current is 20 times greater than the secondary 14. ACARS is a digital data link system uses vhf range
current a) 129-137mhz
d) for every 20 turns on primary, there is one turn on b)108-118mhz
secondary. c) 140-153 mhz

4. with the increase in aircraft speed, pitot pressure 15. ACARS is a digital data link system transmitted in
a) Increases the:
b) Decreases a) VHF range
b) LF range
c) Is not affected
c) UHF range
5. In fibre optics junction, communication network
formed by 16. Essential lights are
a) y-junction b) ring topologies a) Escape slide lights
c) T-junction d) Both a & b b) Service lights
6. Which light cannot be tested with an ohmmeter c) Passenger compartment lights
a) halogen b) Xenon c) d) Flight compartment lights
Incandescent d) All the above e) ALL

7. Which lamp can be damaged if touched with bare

17. Gyro instrument that gives rate of rotation about
hand
vertical axis
a) Xenon b) Incandescent c) Florescent
a) Turn & Slip Indicator
8. The__________ mode is used for digital data b) Attitude Indicator
linked to the equipment outside hf radio system c) Heading Indicator
a) am b) Data
c) Cw
18. Electromagnetic and electric field produced by radio
9. The satellite communication of iridium network transmitter antenna are at
allows voice and data messages to be routed: a) 180 degree out of phase
(a) anywhere in the world b) Right angle to each other
(b) between the flight crew and cabin crew c) 90 degree out of phase
(c) via a fibre optic network.
19. 3rd generation IMA data base is 26. DFDR is turned ON automatically--
a) A629 a) Aircraft is in flight
b) A429 b) On ground when engine is running
c) ASCB c) On ground when aircraft is powered up
d) AFDX d) Both in (a) & (b)

19. Spot-beam means ---------------------------option 27. Above 30 Mhz which waves are utilized:
some different plz check A)Radio Waves
B) Sky Waves
a) Enable the reuse of the same frequency in 2
C) Space Waves
separate areas at the same frequency
28. Satellite Communication uses LEO satellites to:
20. EVENT button on DFDR A) Provide greater Coverage
a) Momentary switch to catch digital data B) Maintain a geostationary position
b) Momentary switch to catch discrete data C) Minimize Voice Delay

29. MTCS regarding IMA :

21. _________ modulation in VHF range and above a) LRU is better than LRM
a) Frequency b) LRM is better than LRU
b) Amplitude c) IMA uses LRU and used in rack
c) Both AM & FM 30. MTCS for BITE :
A)Self-test feature built into airborne equipment as an
22. In flight fault to ground maintenance station by integral fault indicator
a) AIDS B) a signal flow type test.
C) assist the avionics engineer with troubleshooting
b) ACARS
D) ATA
c) TCAS 2
d) GPS ---------------------------------END---------------------------------

23. Current limiters

a) Are designed to limit the current to some
pre-determined amperage
b) Are not thermal devices
c) Have low melting points
d) Can’t protect heavy load power distribution circuit

24. In DR Compass maximum deviation error is not

more than
a) 10 deg
b) 5 deg
c) 7 deg

25. Insulation material used for wires & cables must

conform to-
a) Toughness & flexibility over a fairly wide temp. range
b) Resistance to fuel, lubricants & hydraulic fluids
c) Ease of stripping for terminating, non-flammability &
min. weight
d) All of the above
 34. Load factor for utility aircraft
MODULE 11A Session 1 of 35. SATCOM in polar region
2019 April 36. Fuel sump capacity of drain
37. EAS-CAS
38. Control cable designated by
1. Spoiler 39. Combustion heat temperature controlled by for anti
A. One side Use in conjunction with aileron with up Icing system
going aileron 40. Rigid vertical member in truss strut
B. Also used as speed brakes when operated 41. Dorsal fin- Ventral fin
simultaneous 42. In-board & out board aileron
C. both 43. Medium pressure pneumatic system
44. Alternate red & green light taxi
2. In gas turbine engine pneumatic syatem used for
45. Pole DC 270
3. Aneriod in oxygen system regulator
46. LRU & LRM
4. Skydrol LD-4 is a density & colour
47. Reservoir stand pipe
5. Movable horizontal stabilizer used for
48. Ball mat in cargo compartment
6. Insulation material ATA
49. Purpose of engine nacelle
7. Runway light
50. Positive displacement pump is vane type & gear type
8. Degree of pressurization is limited by
51. Smoke detector instrument classified by method of
9. WOW- pressurizzation safety valve
detection
10. Oleo shock use in aircraft
52. Pylon
11. Role of stinger in semi monocoque construction
53. Torque link purpose restrict during retraction
12. Speed increases pitot pressure increase
54. Test relay in Fire detection system
13. Agonic lines
55. Example of IMA
14. Orange peel cowling
56. Digital transmission uses ARINC 429 629
15. Cabin differential pressure allowed for light
57. Toilet flush system MTCS
aircraft
58. Drain valve
16. Strain---- stress
59. Type 1 avoinics system
17. Tab used through hinge to transmit tab load
60. Cabin temperature control is maintained by
18. B777 integrated system uses ARINC 429
28000’’
61. Aneroid switch in oxygen 28000
19. During flight load on wing is taken by spars
62. Cabin layout consists of cs-25
20. Rockwell colling
63. IPA anti ice fluid
21. Refrigeration bypass valve
64. Wing main spar are connected through pin or bolt
22. Leading edge flap pump --droop snoot
65. Cable & Push pull rod which take compression &
23. Electrical leakage
tension load
24. Bite purpose
66. Frequency Modulation in VHF
25. Strobe lights are
67. Aircraft Skin reinforcement is done through
26. EAS -CAS
corrugated sheet
27. CS-25
68. Hot water in aircraft lavatory is provided by
28. VHF HF MTCS
69. Type of FLS
29. Horizontal stabilizer rear spar size is same used
70. Water waste drainage most heated at
for
71. Temperature control system consists of
30. Open architecture 3rd generation IMA
72. Pressurization modes
31. Readable Rx depends on
73. DCP class d application
32. Stick fixed static stability
74. Cabin wifi system
33. Bleed priority for engine starting
75. Electroluminious panels are 106. Water & waste system consists of
76. Pneumatic system interface other system 107. Co2 type FE used for
77. Scissors are torque links 108. Not a component of fuel distribution system
78. For proper wing installation angle of attack 109. Instruction plate on air oleo strut
incidence & wing dihedral has to be checked 110. Trunion is supported by
79. High pressure air metal bottle 111. Space wave
80. ATSU uses ARINC 429 112. CS spar location on front is same as rear
81. Speed brakes & Dive brake s 113. Zap flap
82. Load factor 114. Over balance
83. In large aircraft tank ventilation & structural 115. Pneumatic system PRV
load 116. Jack position
84. Cantilever Wing 117. AC generator connected in
85. TSI rate gyro 118. Main rotor blade anti ICE system used
86. In gravity feed both tanks have ventilated each 119. Air stair used for
other to provide same pressure when one tank is 120. MTCS Aircraft seat installation
feeding /same pressure when both tank are feeding 121. Rigid frame network
87. Reservoir connected in double acting piston 122. Qualities of technician Ethics & professionalism
88. Stalling angle 123. Radome Anti-icing system used
89. Life raft , Oxygen bottle FE pressure test 124. Halon 1211 widely used in general aviation
90. Warren truss 125. Spoiler use in associate with aileron
91. Pressurized aircraft diluter demand and pressure 126. Electric field perpendicular magnetic field
regulator installed at 127. Computation method of balancing control surface
92. All equipment location pilot arm reach 128. Active clearance control system
93. Iridium low earth 129. Check data files and executable code data error
94. Modern aircraft stall warning system 130. CO2 cause of most effective due to not combustible
95. Thermocopule type Fw system by sensitive relay 131. Data mode of HF radio
96. Ice inspection light 132. Fly by wire
97. Mach trim system 133. Pratt truss wire tension
98. SID issued for 134. ACM heat exchanger by pass valve
99. Dimming circuit 135. Chemical milling of wing skin
100. DFDR on ATA 136. Air inlet plenum chamber
101. Function of Dorsal fin 137. Cabin altitude auto ADC FMS
102. Torque tube purpose 138. Screen mesh air filter reuse
103. ACM & VCM 139. Low pressure oxygen cylinders are made of SS alloy
104. Boeing 777 Data send through steel
105. Engine mount attached to 140. Thermal Switch connection in fire detection system

---------------------------------END-----------------------------
MOD 11 B1.1 08 APR 2019
1. IN A 6 POLE D.C MACHINE, 90
MECHANICAL DEG CORRESPONDS
TO_____ ELECTRICAL DEGREES.
A 30
B 180
C 45
D 270
2. ELECTRIC FIELD AND
ELECTROMAGNETIC FIELD
PRODUCED BY RADIO ANTENNA
A. 180 DEG OUT OF PHASE
B. RIGHT ANGLE TO EACH OTHER
C. 90 DEG OUT OF PHASE
3. OPEN ARCHITECTURE FOR IMA
IMPLEMENTATION ON-
A. 1ST GEN
B. 2ND GEN
C. 3RD GEN
4. ADVANTAGE OF 2ND GEN IMA
A. PARTIAL OPEN
B. CLOSED ARCHITECTURE
5. MTCS FOR EXTERNAL LIGHTS
A. RUNWAY TURN OFF LIGHTS ARE
MOUNTED ON NLG FOR
IMMEDIATE RIGHT AND LEFT OF
A/C.
6. MTCS FOR COCKPIT LIGHTS-
A. WHITE LIGHT
B. REDUCES POWER AND HEAT
C. IMPROVES CONTRAST ON
INSTRUMENT
D. REDUES EYE FATIGUE
E. ALL
7. ATSU USES-
A. ARINC 429
B. ARINC 629
C. ARINC 612
8. NSS (NETWORK SERVER SYSTEM)
ALLOWS-
A. PAX DATA COMMUNICATION WITH
CABIN CREW
B. FLIGHT CREW DATA
COMMUNICATION WITH
MAINTENANCE PERSONAL
C. BOTH A & B
9. MTCS
A. A DIODE IS REQUIRED IN WARNING
CIRCUIT TO ENSURE ONLY
RELEVANT LIGHT ILLUMINATES
10. WHICH IS USED TO TEST ANTENNA-
A. SWR
B. SPECIAL MULTI METER
C. COUPLER UNIT
11. LIFT GENERATED DEPENDS ON-
A. SIZE AND SHAPE OF AEROFOIL
B. AOA
C. AIR DENSITY AND VELOCITY
D. ALL THE ABOVE
12. PURPOSE OF AIDS
A. RECORDING AND PERFORMANCE
MONITORING
13. ATC COMMUNICATION IS LARGELY
ESTABLISHED BY-
A. HF
B. VHF
C. VHF AND HF
14. SATCOM USES-
A. GEOSTATIONARY SATELLITE
B. GPS SATELLITE
C. LOW ORBIT
15. THE PA AMPLIFIER PROVIDES A
CREW’’S
LEVEL OF SIDETONE TO THE CREW
HANDSET OR HEADSETS DURING
VOICE ANNOUNCEMENTS-
A. TO CONFIMR THAT THE HANDSET OR
HEADSETS ARE FUNCTIONAL.
16. LINES ARE DRWANS ON CHARTS,
AND THOSE WHICH JOINS PLACES
HAVING NO DIFFERENCE IN
VARIATION-
A. ISOGONIC
B. AGONIC
17. ENGINE EXHAUST TEMP SENSOR-
A. THERMOCOUPLE
18. AFDX ARCHITECTURE-
A. 3RD GENERATION
19. TO REDUCE EMI IN STROBE LIGHT-
A. CABLE IS HIELDED BW POWER
SOURCE AND STROBE LIGHT
20. PLUG AND SOCKET –
A. HAVE MALE AND FEMALE
RECEPTACLE
21. ___ WAVES ABOVE 30MHZ
A. SKY
B. SPACE
22. MTCS-
A. WATER CAN BE USED ON CLASS A
FIRE
B. WATER CAN NOT BE USED ON
CLASS D
C. WATER CAN NOT BE USED ON
CLASS B
23. ASCB-D IS-
A. 10 TIMES FASTER THAN ARINC 429
B. 1000 TIMES FASTER THAN ARINC
429
C. DUAL DATA BUS
D. TRIPLE DATA BUS
24. MTCS REGARDING IMA-
A. STANDARD INTERFACE
SPECIFICATION USE OF MODULAR
SYSTEM WHERE INDIVIDUAL
MODULES MAY BE UPDATED
WHEN TECHNOLOGY IMPROVES.
25. ROCKWELL COLLINS-
A. WEATHER RADAR RELATED INFO
26. BITE-
A. REAL TIME MONITORING
B. GO-NO GO STATUS OF PARTICULAR
UNIT
C. PROVIDE INDICATION OF FAULT
D. ALL
27. ESSENTIAL LIGHTS ARE-
A. FLIGHT COMPARTMENT LIGHTS
B. CABIN LIGHT
C. ESCAPE SLIDE LIGHT
28. MTCS
a) Discharged battery is tested
b) Deep cycling procedure is same for all
types of batteries
c) Electrical leakage is caused due to excess
liquid in the cells
d) Tools used on lead-acid battery may be used
on Ni-Cd batteries
29. MTCS FOR 3RD GEN-
A. OPEN ARCHITECTURE
30. DC Generators are called two windings or
series winding generators
a) Gen emf is equal to induced emf in all
parallel paths
31. Insulation material used for wires & cables
must conform to-
a) Toughness & flexibility over a fairly wide
temp. range
b) Resistance to fuel, lubricants & hydraulic
fluids
c) Ease of stripping for terminating,
non-flammability & min. weight
d) All of the above
32. Centralised warning lights are called
a) Attention getter
b) Master warning & caution lights
c) Both (a) & (b)
33. Gyro instrument that gives rate of rotation
about vertical axis
a) Turn & Slip Indicator
b) Attitude Indicator
c) Heading Indicator
34. ZERO POWER FACTOR
A. VOLTAGE REGULATION

35. SPINE IN IFE

A. FAX/EMAIL INTERNET

36. FLAG VISIBLE IN INSTRUMENT-

A. INOPERAVTIVE

37. ACARS-
A. DATA RATE LOW AND ALPHANUMERIC
CHARACTER
B. DATA RATE HIGH AND ALPHANUMERIC
CHARACTER

38. GYROS ARE USED IN-

A. ---------
B. ATTITUDE INDICATOR, DIRECTIONAL
GYRO
C. POINTER NEEDLE OF TURN AND BANK
INDICATOR
D. AS IN B AND C

39. MTCS
A. MULTIPLE RACK ARCHITECTURE IF ONE
PSU FAILS OTHER PSU WILL BE USED
WITHOUT PROBLEM.

40.

----END---
Category B1
Module Questions Q8. Current limiter
1)Designed to limit current at a predetermined
(Total 125 questions) amperage
2) Has low melting point.
3)Cannot be used in heavy power circuit
Q1. The r.m.s value of half-wave rectifier is 10A, its
4)All
value for full wave rectifier would be______ amperes
(BLT VOL 1 PG 464)
Q9. The dual secondary windings are wound in TRU
1)20
1.Star & Delta
2) 14.14
2.Star
3)20/π
3.Delta
4)40/π
10.. Rectifier
Q10 —AC TO DC
Rectifier—
Q2. The capacity of a cell is measured in
1) watt-hours
11.. Voltage ratings determined in rectifier
Q11
2) watts
1.Allow reverse voltage without excess (REVERSE
3) amperes
CURRENT) forward voltage.
4) ampere-hours
12.. Electric field & electromagnetic field produced by
Q12
Q3. Lap & wave winding are used in drum type dc
generator. radio antenna
1. 180deg out of phase
Lap winding has high current & low voltage whereas
2.Right angle to each other.
wave winding has low current & high voltage.
3.90deg out of phase.
Q4. In a 6 pole d.c machine, 90 mechanical degrees
13.. Attenuation in an optical fibre is due to:
Q13
correspond to_________ electrical degrees
(a) Absorption
1)30
(b) scattering
2)180
(c)radiation
3)45
d) All
4)270
14.. In an optical fibre, the refractive index of the core
Q14
Q5. The main disadvantage of using short pitch
is:
winding in alternators is that it
(a) the same as the cladding
1)reduces harmonics in the generated voltage
(b) larger than the cladding or Ref. index of cladding is
2)reduces total voltage around the armature coils
lower than the core.
3) produces asymmetry in the three phase windings
(c) smaller than the cladding.
4) increases Cu of end resistance
15.. Advantages of Optical fibres is
Q15
Q6. Zero power factor method of an alternator is
1) Electrical isolation and freedom from earth/ground loops
used to find its
2)Exceptionally wide bandwidth and very high data rates
1)efficiency
voltage regulation can be supported
2)voltage
3) Relative freedom from electromagnetic interference
3)armature reaction
4)Al the above
4) synchronous impedance

Q7 In relation to transformer, the ratio 20:1 indicates 16.. In fibre optics Junction, communication network
Q16
formed by
that
1) Y-Junction
1) there are 20 turns on primary one turn on secondary
2) Ring topologies
2) secondary voltage is 1/20th of primary voltage
3) T-Junction
3)primary current is 20 times greater than the secondary
4) Bot 1 & 2
current
4) for every 20 turns on primary, there is one turn on
17.. Fibre optic connectors
Q17
secondary.
1) alignment keys on the plug
2) matching alignment grooves on the receptacle
3) Both 1 & 2
 18.. 3rd Generation IMA uses
Q18 30.. Pax. Signs ,value position, instrument dials
Q30
1)ARINC 429 indicated by which light---
light---Electroluminescent.
2)ASCB
3) AFDX 31.. Which light cannot be tested with an ohmmeter
Q31
1.Halogen
19.. Open architecture for IMA implementations on
Q19 2.Xenon
1) 1st Generation 3.Incandescent
2) 2nd Generation 4. Florescent
3) 3rd Generation
32.. Which light can be checked by ammeter
Q32
20.. MTCS.
Q20 1.Halogen
1.LRMs are more reliable than LRU 2.Xenon
2. LRUs are more reliable than LRM 3.Incandescent
3. Both reduce weight 4. Florescent
4.Both 1 & 3
33.. Which lamp can be damaged if touched with bare
Q33
21.. IMA system used in electrical load monitoring
Q21 hand
& load shedding 1. Xenon
1) B777 ELMS 2. Incandescent
2) B777 AIMS 3. Florescent
3) Honeywell EMC
34.. Ice inspection lights
Q34
Q2222.. Integrated Modular Avionics use: 1. are the sealed beam type
a. ARINC 429 2. Has 50–250 watts’ lamps.
b. ARINC 563 3. Both 1 & 2
c. ARINC 653
35.. MTCS
Q35
Q23 .IMA---LRU 1/3rd
23.IMA---LRU cost is a/c’’s logo light are located under the
1.In some a/c
1.PSU horizontal stabilizer & directed to logo.
2. EMI case filters
3.Both 1 & 2 Q36
36.. Landing light
600––1000 W fi lament
1. Are sealed beam type with 600
24.. IMA 2nd Gen what is incorrect----open
Q24 lamps; a parabolic reflector
architecture concentrates light into a directional beam.

25.. IMA 2nd Gen what is correct----Partial open.

Q25 37.. Navigation light cover
Q37
1.Heat resistant
26.. IMA 3rd Gen what is incorrect---- Partial open.
Q26 2.Heat resistant & flexible
3. Heat resistant & opaque
Q. 27 IMA 1st
Q.27 Gen disadvantage----separate supply
is required. 38.. MTCS about strobe lights
Q38
1.Depending on size of aircraft & located at wing tip & as a
28.. Advantages of IMA are:
Q28 supplement to position light.
a. Reduced Hardware, Reduced Size 2.It can be used solely as beacon
b. Reduced Weight, Reduced Power (Energy 3. 90 flashes per minute
Consumption) 4.All the above
c. Reduced Cost
d. All above are correct. 39.. Flashing of strobe light
Q39
1. 70 flashes per minute
29.. DFDR event button (push-button) SWITCH-
Q29
1. momentary switch - digital signal for recording 40.. Taxi light angle-
Q40 angle-50
2. momentary switch - discrete signal for recording
2.ON/OFF switch used to record event & time. Q41.NAV light supply-
41.NAV supply----28 V ac & 28 V dc

42.. Supply to strobe lights

Q42 lights—AC or DC Both
 43.. cockpit dome light are powered by
Q43 55.. The satellite communication of Iridium network
Q55
1. battery or ground services bus. allows voice and data messages to be routed:
(a) anywhere in the world
44.. The rotating beacon
Q44 (b) between the flight crew and cabin crew
1.Have a filament lamp, reflector, motor and drive (c) via a fibre optic network.
mech ,flashes 40–50 times per second
56.. “Spot beam
Q56 beam”” in terms of SATCOM terminology
45.. Emergency lights used in cabin is supplied by
Q45 1.It provides cover over most of the land mass residing
1.Emergency power pack & direct from battery under each satellite. Also cover lower capability systems
2.Emergency power pack & emergency bus bar. that do not require oceanic coverage
coverage.
3.Both 1 & 2
57.. Air traffic service units
Q57 units’’ interface with airplane
Q46 .A lightening system used to provide illuminate
46.A avionics system by
for individual instruments & controls on various 1) ARINC 429
cockpit panels. 2) ARINC 629
----Pillar & bridge light. 3) ARINC 612

47.. MTCS (LIGHTS)

Q47 Q58 .NSS (Network server system) allows
58.NSS
---Runway turn-off lights are mounted on NLG for 1.Passenger data communication with cabin crew
immediate right & left of a/c. 2.Flight crew data communication with maintenance
personnel.
48.. Light dimming option is not available for
Q48 3.Both 1& 2
1.Fire/overheat or emergency lights to avoid chances of
missing in case of bright ambient conditions. 59.. Airspeed corrected to a non-standard temperature
Q59
pressure & temperature
49.. Taxi & landing light switched on by relay or
Q49 True airspeed
1.T
solenoid because 2. Indicated airspeed
-----It has wattage.
Q60 .IFE power source
60.IFE
50.. which light provides a general illumination of
Q50 1.same & taken from same power source
instruments, panels, pedestals etc. 2.different from main power source
-----Flood lighting.
61.. MTCS
Q61
51.. MTCS for cockpit lights
Q51 1.a diode is required in warning circuit to ensure only
1.White light relevant light illuminates.
2.Reduces power & heat.
3.Improves contrast on instrument Q62
62.. Which is used to test antenna
4.Reduces eye fatigue. SWR
1.SWR
2.Special multi meter
52.. Level A software failure is
Q52 3. coupler unit.
-----Catastrophic
Q63 Lift generated depends on
53.. The__________ mode is used for digital data
Q53 1.Size & shape of aerofoil
outside HF system 2.Angle of attack
1.AM 3.Air density &velocity
2.Data 4. All the above.
3. CW
Q64 .VHF Modulation
64.VHF
54.. Satellite communication systems use a low earth
Q54 1.Frequency modulation.
orbit to: 2.Amplititude modulation
(a) provide greater coverage 3. Both 1 & 2
(b) maintain a geostationary position
(c) minimize voice delays. 65.. In ACARS
Q65
1.High speed data transmission is possible only in alpha
numeric system.
 66.. Messages that send from ground stations to a/c
Q66 79.. Chimes when the flight crew needs to gain the
Q79
through ACARS messages; attention of the cabin crew
1.downlink 1. single low chime
uplink
2.uplink 2. a single high/low chime
3. crosslink 3. three high/low chimes

67.. HF frequency
Q67 Q80. Audio-video on demand (AVOD) entertainment
1. 3-30 MHz enables passengers to:
(a) pause, rewind, fast-forward or stop a programme
68.. Purpose of AIDS
Q68 (b) make phone calls via satellite communication
1. Recording & Performance monitoring
monitoring. (c) ignore PA system voice announcements and chime
signals.
69.. In addition to magnetic heading, deviation
Q69
shows in EHSI from 81.. The PA system located in the
Q81
1.ILS receiver 1.passenger service units (PSUs)
2.VOR radial 2.Galleys
3. ADF 3.Washrooms/cabin crew areas.
4. All the above
Q70
70.. ACARS is a digital data link system uses VHF
range 82.. The passenger address (PA) system is primarily a
Q82
1.129-137MHz safety system that provides passengers with:
2.108-118MHz (a) in-flight entertainment
3. 140-153 MHz (b) reduced amount of IFE wiring to a seat position
(c) voice announcements and chime signals.
Q71
71.. ACARS is a digital data link system transmitted
in the: 83.. The PA amplifier provides a level of sidetone to the
Q83
(a) VHF range crew’’s handset or headsets during voice announcements
crew
(b) LF range --- to confirm that the handset or headsets are functional
(c) UHF range.
84.. A typical PA system is controlled by a selector panel
Q84
Q72 .ATC communication is established by
72.ATC located at cabin crew stations
----located
1.HF
2.VHF 85.. No smoking & fasten seat belt lights
Q85
3. HF & VHF --Single low chime

73.. Frequency mostly used in TCAS

Q73 86.. Cabin management includes
Q86
1.HF 1.Announcement
VHF
2.VHF 2.Entertainment
3.LHF 3.chimes
4.All the above.
74.. Modulation used in VHF & above-
Q74 above---FM
Q87.IFE power source –AC
87.IFE
75.. TCAS warning come in
Q75
ND
1.ND 88.. Angle of indicator is *****
Q88
2.PFD
89.. Reset button in cockpit when pressed
Q89
76.. which has a higher level warning in TCAS
Q76 1.Flash & warning stopped
1. RA 2.Flash stopped only
2. TA 3. Flash & warning stopped works normally

77.. Length of radio waves depends on

Q77 90.. Warning illuminate with
Q90
1.Frequency 2. wavelength 1.Message & Aural warning
2.Only Aural
Q7878.. SATCOM use 3. Only message
1.Geostationary satellite
2.
2.GPS satellite
3. Low orbit
 91.. MTCS regarding software
Q91 106.. Rigidity of gyroscope--
Q106
1.Updation of software will not affect the part number of i) the mass of the rotor,
the components. (ii) the speed of rotation, and
2.Initially approved by the designer later does not (iii) the distance at which the mass acts from the centre,
require the approval of designer i.e.the radius of gyration.
4.All the above
92.. Water type fire extinguisher contains
Q92
1.water & anti-freezer 107.. The pressure sensing element used in
Q107
altimeter---Evacuated metal capsule.
altimeter-
93.. Lindbergh fire detection system
Q93
1.Gas filled with helium at ambient pressure & pressure 108.. The max. deviation (during level flight) permitted
Q108
changes due temperature changes. in a compensated magnetic direction indicator installed
10 deg
on a/c is -----10 deg.
Q9494.. Lindbergh fire detection system
1.Gas filled tube with titanium tube in the centre. 109.. what defines Temporary heading deviation.
Q109
2.Type of continuous loop system & sensor is active due ----Direction indicator.
to high pressure
3. 110.. The horizontal angle contained between the true
Q110
4.None of the above. and magnetic meridian at any place) is known as the-----
magnetic variation or declination.
95.. Refuel cap must be
Q95
Tight fit & prevent leakage
1.Tight 111.. short-term heading changes during turns given by
Q111
2.To prevent contamination horizont
--- Direction indicator (horizont al-axis gyroscope, and,
horizontal-axis
3. Provide vent passage being non-magnetic, is used in conjunction)
with the magnetic compass
96.. Fuel tanks are pressurised to prevent
Q96 prevent---Vapour
lock. 112.. long-term heading reference as in sustained
Q112
straight and level flight given by
97.. Fuel should not have _____when operating at 40
Q97 ---Magnetic compass
deg at critical condition
Vapour lock
----Vapour Q113
113.. Lines are drawn on the charts, and those which
join places having equal variation are called -----isogonal
98.. Basic T is replaced by-
Q98 by---EFIS lines.

Q99.FMC update
99.FMC update—Every 28 days 114.. The angle at which the line of force makes with
Q114
earth’’s surface at any given place
the earth
Q100 .SCR
100.SCR
.SCR----Thyristor ------Angle of dip or magnetic inclination.

101.. Wavelength depends on ---Frequency

Q101 115.. Alternating-Current Synchronous Systems-
Q115 Systems-.
Autosy n, Selsyn
102.. EGT, fuel flow & RPM is displayed
Q102
on------Upper EICAS
on-- 116.. MTCS regarding compass
Q116
1. Provided with temperature expansion & precision
103.. Movable maps in IFE
Q103 compensation
---Obtain real time flight information on a video channel 2.Bowl filled with silicon fluid make compass predesia.
& interface with aircrafts navigational system. 3.Both 1 & 2

104.. In a voltage transformer

Q104 117.. The primary reason for filling compass bowls with
Q117
-----primary winding is parallel with supply voltage. silicon fluid is
1. to make the compass aperiodic.
105.. In a rotary inverter
Q105 2. reducing the weight on the pivot
----A.c motor drives d.c generator. 3.Both 1 & 2
Q118 .QFE---
.QFE---Altimeter setting reads zero at airport
118.QFE---

119.. Which bus bar equipment and instruments

Q119
required for the continued safe operation of the
aircraft.
1. Main bus
2. Essential bus
3. Battery bus.

120.. Above 30Mhz which waves are utilised

Q120
----Space waves

121.. Autopilot fault tolerance is

Q121
-ALL (SENSOR, ACTUATOR, COMMAND)

122.. In modern aircraft display unit

Q122 unit---
Duplicated for FO & Capt.

Q123
123.. Navigation data is uploaded with the help
of –Floppy disk

124.. QNH---
Q124

-----------END---------------
 19) WATER LINE
HA 108 QUESTION 20) FIN AHEAD OF VERTICAL STABILIZER

1) COMPRESSION LOAD AFTER LANDING TAKEN 21) FLAP

BY A INCREASE CAMBER
B INCREASE LIFT
2) EMERGENCY LEVER FOR LANDING GEAR C DECREASE STALLING ANGLE
WHAT IT DO D A& B

3) ZONE 300 22) LEADING EDGE FLAP& SLAT

A INCREASE LIFT
4) LOAD TAKEN BY TOW BAR B RECIRCULATE THE AIR
C A& B
5) IF TYRE IS ORN OUT FROM CENTRE
23) SERVO TAB
6) PURPOSE OF MAN IN COCKPIT DURING PUSH
BACK 24) HF RANGE

7) TENSILE LOAD RGRESSTED BY 25) GROUND WAVE / SKY WAVE

a) LONGITUDNAL LIMIT
b) LOADING LIMIT 26) MICROPHONE
c) ELASTIC LIMIT A ACOUSTIC SOUND
B SOUND OF ELECTRIC
8) PURPOSE OF TRIM TAB
27) ACARS
9) PURPOSE OF BALANCE TAB A UPLINK B DOWNLINK C CROSS LINK

10) USE OF SPOILER 28) MOVING MAP ON PAX SCREEN

11) FALSE SPAR 29) DISADVANTAGES OF IMA

a) IN A LONGITUDINAL MEMBER
b) RUMS FULL LENGTH FROM TIP TO ROOT 30) VACUM GENERATOR USED IN GYRO
c) USED TO ATTACH CENTREL SURFACE
d) ALL 31) PHASE ROTATION IN MAGNETIC
A 180 OUT OF PHASE
12) RIBS B OUT OF PHASE
a) MAD EOF OOD ONLY
b) GIVES SHAPE TO WING & STRENGTH IT 32) DIFFERENCE B/W MAG POLE & GEOGRAPHIC
c) GIVES WING SHAPE POLE
A. MAGNETIC DIP
13) DUE TO SHOCK WAVE FORMATION B. MAGANETIC VARIATION
A DRAG INCREASE C. MAGNETIC DIFFERENCE
B LIFT DECREASE
C DRAG & LIF INCREASE 33) PNEUMATIC BOTTLES
D DRAG LIFT DECREASE A 45 TO 50 PSI FOR LP
B 3000 - 4000 HP
14) SHOCK STALL OCURS AT C 500-1500 FOR HP
A TRANSONIC
B SUERSONIC 34)) ON LANDING COMPRESSION LOAD IS TAKEN BY
34
D SUB SONIC A FLUID B WHEEL C AIR

15) FUEL TANK SHOULD BE ABLE TO SUPPLY - 35) UN RESTRICTED FLOW IS USED
15% FUEL IN EMERGENCY A FOR RETRACT
B FOR EXTENSION
16) FUEL TANK ARE MADE TO SUSTAIN A LOAD OF C FOR DOOR OPS
A 140% B 130% C 120%
36) ENGINE RPM, FUEL FLOW & EGT
17) NEGATIVE STATIC STABILITY A EFCIS 1
B EFCIS 2
18) BUTTOCK LINE
37)FIRE WILL GIVE A 51) DISADVANTAGE OF SUPERCHARGE IS
A RED AURAL WARNING CKPT A CONTAMINATING AIR
B RED WARNING B DECREASED EFFICIENCY AT HIGH SPEED
C DECREASED EFFICIENCY AT INCREASE ALTITUDE
38) SQUIB IS USED TO
A. DISCHARGE THEFIRE EXIT 52) PURPOSE OF INWARD FLOW V/V
B TO COVER THE OXYGEN TO ALLOW THE PRESSURE TO BE STRERD IN CASE OF
C TO FLAME OUT ATMOSPHERIC PRESSURE IS MORE THAN CABIN

39) EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT ARE KEP 53) WHICH TYPE OF OXYGEN NOT ALLOWED AN
A IN PARTICULAR LOCATION & SHOUL INCLUDE FAK BOARD
UPK A LIQUID
B GASEOUS
40) DURING INSTALLATION OF DOOR SLIDE RAFT C I BOTTLE
A CARE MUST BE GIVEN TO AVOID INFLATION &
INJURY TO PERSON 54) IN PRESSURE WHICH LAW IS CONSIDERED
A BOYLE LAW
41) WHEN CABIN CREW WNTS TO CALL CREW B PASCAL LAW
A SINGLE HIGH/LOW CHIME C OHMS LAW
D NEWTON LAW
42) NO SMOKING
A SINGLE LOW CHIME 55) ALTIMETERS WORKING PRINCIPLE
A BELLOWS
43) MICS B EVACUATED CAPSULE
A WATER IS LOW HEATER IS CONTROLLED C BOUDAN TUBE
THERMOSTATICALLY
B WATER FOR FLUSH DRAIN IS TAKEN FROM MAIN 56) WHICH FIRE EXTINGUSHER IS TO BE USED ON
PORTABLE TANK CLASS A
A WATER
44) DRAIN LINES ARE HEATED B FREON
A ELECTRICALLY C BOTH
B PNEUMATICALLY
C A&B 57) WATER CAN BE USED ON
A CLASS B
45) LINDBERG FIRE EXTINGUSHER B CLASS D
A HAS TWO RODS C CLASS A
B HAS ONE ROD SURROUNDED BY HELIUM GAS D ALL

46) IN CASE OF OXYGEN DISCHARGE BY HIGH 58) WNG TIP LIGHT USE
PRESSURE A 28V DC
A RED DISC B 115V AC
B YELLOW C 28V AC & 28V DC
C GREEN DISC
59)) LANDING & TAXYING LIGHT USE TOGGLE
59
47) AONTINUOUS FLOW REGULATION SWITCH BECAUSE OF
A SUPPLIES OXYGEN CONTINUOUSLY A CARREYING HEAVY CURRENT
B ITS TO BE TUNNED ON BY USER B TO BE USED ON SOMETIMES
C BOTH
48) MAIN CONTROLLING COMPONENT IS PACK
A OUTFLOW V/V 60) PNEUMATIC PRESS SOURCE
B DUMP V/V A ENGINE BLEED AIR
C OUTFLOW & NEGATIVE V/V B N2 BOTTLE
C GROUND SUPPLY
49)) IS BOOTSTRAP
49 D ALL
A TURBINE IS ON SEPARATE SHAFT
B TURBINE IMPELLER ARE ON SAME SHAFT 61) PNEUMATIC SUPPLY IS USED TO
A OPEN CLOSE L/G DOORS
50) IN BOOTSTRAP SOURCE OF CONDITIONING IS B A+ EMERGENCY SERVICES
A RAM AIR C B+ HYD PRESSURISATION
B ENGINE COMPRESSOR BLEED AIR
62) HYD UNIT ON WHICH PRESSURE IS APPLIED 77) MAIN COMPONENT OF STRUCTURE
ONE SIDE & UNIT IS MOVED TO OTHER SIDE A FORMER, FRAME & BULKHEAD
A SINGLE ACTING ACTUATOR B SKIN
B TWO WAY ACTUATOR C LONGERONS & STRINGER

63) WING WHICH DOES NOT NEED EXTERNAL 78)) ADVANTAGE OF WING MOUNTED ENGINE
78
SUPPORT A RELIEVE FROM WING BENDING

64) VERTICAL LINE IS USED TO MEASURE 79)) IN ORDER TO MOVE NOSE UP

79
A HORIZONTAL STABLIZER A ELEVATOR MOVED UP
B VERTICAL STABILIZER B ELEVATOR MOVED DOWN
C LANDING GEAR C RUDDER IS MOVED
D B+C
80) TAXI LOADS AARE TAKEN BY
65) BUTTOCK LINE A AIR
A PARALLEL TO CENTRE LINE B OIL
B PARALLLEL TO WATER LINE C SHOCK STRUTS

66) DISTANCE ON WING & HS ARE MEASURED BY 81) ICE DETECTION DETECTOR THE ICE
A AT L/G & CTL SURFACE
67) FIN B AT LE & ENGINE INTAKE
A IS SIMILAR TO HS & ATTACHED TO FUSELAGE C AT FIN & STABILIZER
B HAS HINGES FOR RUDDER
C ALL 82) ENGINE COWLING
A CAN NOT BE OPENED FOR MAINT.
68) AOA B HAS AUXILLIARY DOOR WHICH OPEM AT SLOW
SPEED & LOW ALT.
69)) PRESSURE IN RELATION TO TEMP & DENSITY
69
83) PNEUMATICALLY INFLATED & DEFLATED TO
70) SOFTWARE ON AIRCRAFT REMOVE ICE
A IS PART OF A/C & NEED ONLY TO BE UPDATED A BOOTS
B HAS DIFFERENT PART NO & IS NOT A PART OF A/C B SHOES
C BOOTS & SHOES
71) ALTITUDE ADJUSTED FOR AERODROME
HEIGHT 84) TYPES OF ICE
A QNH A TWO
B QFE B THREE
C QNE C FOUR

72) HEAVEY A/C IS MOORED BY 85) INEGRAL FUEL TANK ARE MADE OF
A CABLE A ALUMINIUMA ALLOY
B ROPE B STAINLEESS STEEL
C CHAIN + CABLE C FUEL RESISTANT RUBBER

73) WHICH STRUCTURE ISUSED IN MODERN 86) ENGINE MOUNT

AIRCRAFT A ARE DESIRED TO BE FITTED WITH A TYPE OF
A SEMIMONOCOCQE ENGINE LOACTION & SIZE
B DESIRED TO ATTACHED THE ENIGNE
74) FBW
A MECH INPUT 87) ENGINE FIRE WALL
B ELECTRONIC INPUT A IS OF Ti
C BOTH B AS IN ALSO STAINLESS STEEL
C Mg
75) IN FBW
A ACTUATOR IS USED 88)) FUEL SHOULD BE SUPLED TO ENGINE SO THERE
88
B ACTUATOR CTL UNIT & HYD SYS SHOULD NOT BE ……… IN ENGINE
A FLAME OUT
76) PURPOSE OF FUEL DRAIN V/V B ELECTRICAL CURRENT MORE THAN 20 MINUTES
A TO DRAIN MOISTURE C MORE THAN 30 MINUTS
B TO DRAIN FUEL
C TO DRAIN WATER ------------------------END--------------------------------
 9. MTCS Regarding Strobe Light:
Important Questions 11A a) Depending on Size of A/C, strobe light may be
installed on wing tip to supplement navigation
light.
1. A Lighting System used to provide b) Can be used to supplement conventional Red
illumination for Individual instruments and Beacon & can be function solely as beacon
Controls on Various cockpit panels: c) Frequency is 70 Cycle per min.
a) Flood Light d) ATA
b) Integral Light
c) Pillar & Bridge Light 10. Input Supply for Strobe Light is :
a) AC
2. The Pressure sensing element used in b) DC
Altimeter Instrument is: c) AC or DC
a) Bourdon Tube
b) Evacuated Metal Capsule 11. Lightening used for general illumination,
c) U- Shaped Bracket instruments, control panels, pedestals side
console and Area of Cockpit floors:
3. Rigidity of Gyroscope depends on: a) Electroluminescent Lighting
a) Mass and Speed of Rotation b) Flood Lighting
b) Angular Change in direction of plane of c) Pillar & Bridge Lighting
Rotation
c) Moment of Inertia 12. Above 30 Mhz which waves are utilized:
a) Radio Waves
4. The Horizontal angle contained between the b) Sky Waves
true and Magnetic Meridian is known as: c) Space Waves
a) Angle of Dip
b) Angle of Meridian 13. Which Bus bar will include instrument
c) Angle of Declination (Magnetic equipment required for continued Safe
Variation) operation of A/C in case of emergency?
a) Essential Bus
5. The angle the Line of Force makes with the b) Non-Essential Bus
Earth’’s Surface:
Earth c) Safety Bus
a) Angle of Dip
b) Angle of Meridian 14. MTCS regarding PA SystemSystem:
c) Angle of Dip (Magnetic Inclination
Inclination) a) PA voice announcement are integrated with
passenger entertainment system so that
6. Rectification is the process of Converting: safety announcement can be over & above
a) A high value of AC in Lower Value entertainment channel.
b) AC to DC b) It is not integrated with passenger
c) DC to AC entertainment system.
7. In a Voltage Transformer: 15. PA System is controlled by a selector panel
a) Primary Winding in Series with Supply located in :
Voltage a) Instrument Panel
b) Primary Winding in Parallel with Supply b) Cabin Crew station
Voltage c) Overhead Panel
c) Several Connections
Smoking’’ and ‘Fasten Seat Belt
16. ‘No Smoking Belt’’ lights up
8. In a Rotary Inverter: when switched ON are Identified by :
a) DC Motor drives a AC Generator a) Single High Chime
b) DC Generator drives AC Motor b) Single Low Chime
c) AC Generator drives AC Motor c) Single High/Low Chime
17. Satellite Communication uses LEO satellites
to:
a) Provide greater Coverage
b) Maintain a geostationary position
c) Minimize Voice Delay
24. The starboard wing tip navigation light has the
following color and divergence:
(a) red and 110 degrees
(b) green and 110 degrees
(c) white and +_ 70 degrees.

18. What Type of Modulation can be used in 25. Master caution and warning lights are located
VHF range and above : on the:
a) Frequency (a) lower instrument panel
b) Amplitude b) upper instrument panel
(b)
c) Both (c) overhead panel.

19. The antenna output can be measured by : 26. MTCS regarding Lights :
a) SWR meter a) A White steady light is required of at least 3
b) LC Circuit Candelas
c) Power Amplifier b) The Arc of Landing Light is 11 deg
deg.
c) Angle of Runway Turn Off is 50 degdeg.
20. Nav Light Supply: d) Visible angle of White Tails Lights is 140
a) 28V DC Deg & Wing Nav Lights is 110 DegDeg.
b) 28V AC e) ATA
c) 115V AC
d) Both a) and b) 27. MTCS for Warning and Indicatory Lights:
a) To alert the flight crew to conditions
21. MTCS for Nav Lights : affecting the operation of a/c systems
a) Nav Lights are based on regulations that b) Warning lights alert the flight crew of
define the color, Location and Beam unsafe conditions. Red
Divergence c) Caution Lights indicate abnormal but not
b) Legal Requirement for Night Flying Amber
necessarily dangerous conditions .Amber
c) Are Based on Filament Lamps, d) Indicating or Advisory Lights indicates that
providing steady illumination. a system is operable or a Safe Condition.
d) Wing lamps are 20 W fi lament lamps, Blue /Green
the tail lamp is 10 W. e) All of the above
e) Coloured filters produce the specific
colors and these filters must not shrink, 28. Lights dimming is done by 2 Ways :
fade or become opaque. a) Dimming resistor included in Lt. Circuit
f) ATA
ATA. b) Lens Cap may incorporate IRIS type
Diaphragm which can be opened /closed by
22. MTCS : rotating the Cap.
a) Do not handle strobe tubes with bare c) Lts used for warning don’t include dimming
hands; facility because of Danger of escaping
b) Moisture causes local hot-spots that can notice.
lead to premature failure. d) Power supplies for Warning & Indicator Lts
c) ATA are derived from the DC distribution
system.
23. Color of flight compartment lights is e) ATA
normally white:
a) Reduces the power and heat. Better
Illumination
b) improves contrast on the instruments
c) reduces eye fatigue
d) ATA
29. MTCS about Ice Insp. Or Wing Scan 36. MTCS about Compass:
Lights : a) Mag. Sys. Housed in a bowl, Liquid
a) Recessed into Sides of the fuselage Damping, Liquid expansion compensation
preset to direct lt. beam at required & deviation Compensation
angles. b) Comprised of Annular Cobalt-Steel Magnet
b) Check Ice formation on wing leading attached to light alloy Card(increments of
edges and Eng. Intake 10o
c) Sealed Beam type with Filament Lamps c) Pendulously suspended by an Iridium
of 50-250 Watts. AC/DC type Tipped Pivot resting in a Sapphire Cup
d) Rear Mounted Eng. Lamps recessed into d) Pivot pt. is above Center of Gravity
the trailing edge sections of Wings balanced in such a way as to minimize the
e) ATA effects of Angle of Dip over wide range of
Latitudes (N or S)
30. Short Term Turn indication during turn is e) The Safe distance is measured from the
given by: Centre of a compass to the nearest pt. on the
a) Horizontal Gyro surface of equipment
b) Compass f) ATA
c) Directional Gyro
37. MTCS Compass fluid used :
31. Fuel System operating at 430 should not a) Silicon Fluid to make the compass
have: Aperiodic
a) Contamination b) It also provides Buoyancy, diminishing the
b) Vapour Lock effect of friction and wear.
c) Changes in Volume due temp. are
32. MTCS about Lindbergh Fire Detection compensated by bellows type expansion
system: device, secured to the rear of the bowl.
a) 2 Conductors placed between thermostat d) ATA
b) Gas filled tube with Titanium sending
element 38. Altimeter setting to read Zero at airport :
c) Gas filled tube ambient pressure change a) QFE
due to Temp. Change. b) QNH
c) QNE
33. HF frequency is :
a) 3-30 Mhz 39. TCAS which advisory is crucial:
b) 30-300 Mhz a) TA
c) 300-3000 Mhz b) RA
c) Audio warning saying “ TRAFFIC
34. MTCS about 1 & 3 generation IMA: TRAFFIC ”
a) 1st Gen are CLOSED and 3rd Gen are
OPEN type 40. MTCS for TCAS :
a) TA comes on EHSI
35. SCR are also known as : b) RA comes on EASI
a) Thermistor c) ATA
b) Thyristor
c) Transistor 41. The passenger address (PA) system is
primarily a safety system that provides passengers
with:
(a) In-flight entertainment
(b) Reduced amount of IFE wiring to a seat
position
(c) Voice announcements and chime signals
signals.
42. Audio-video on demand (AVOD)
entertainment enables passengers to: 50. MTCS for ACARS :
(a)) pause, rewind, fast-forward or stop a a) Downlink messages that originate from the
programme aircraft
(b) make phone calls via satellite b) Uplink messages that originate from ground
communication stations
(c) ignore PA system voice announcements c) The ACARS Command, Control and
and chime signals. Management Subsystem consists of the
ground based airline operations
43. Radio waves tend to propagate mainly as d) data rate is low
line of sight (Space Wave) signals in the: e) messages comprise plain alphanumeric
(a) MF band characters
(b) HF band f) ATA
(c) VHF band
band.
51. A method used in modern aircraft for
44. In the HF band radio waves tend to reporting in-flight faults to an engineering
propagate over long distances as: (Ref : A/C and monitoring ground station is:
Comm/ Nav- Tooley) (a) TCAS II
(a) ground waves (b) ACARS
(b) space waves (c) GPS.
(c) ionospheric waves.
52.Light used for separate instrument illumination:
45. Wavelength depends upon : a) Integral
a) Frequency b) Pillar or bridge light
b) Frequency band
53. Eng. RPM, Fuel flow indication shown on :
46. The function of the squelch stage in an a) Primary EICAS
aircraft VHF radio is: b) Secondary EICAS
(a) to eliminate noise when no signal is c) PFD
received
(b) to increase the sensitivity of the receiver 54. Moving MAP shown on IFE:
for weak signals a) Takes from a/c Nav sys
(c) to remove unwanted adjacent channel b) Separate sensor avlb.
interference. c) Does not interfere with a/c Nav.

47. The disadvantage of narrow channel spacing is: 55. IFE power supply comes from:
(a) the need for increased receiver sensitivity a) Must be independent from a/c main
(b) the possibility of adjacent channel power
interference
(c) large amounts of wasted space between 56. MTCS for BITE :
channels. a) Self-test feature built into airborne
equipment as an integral fault indicator
48. The standard for ACARS is defined in: b) a signal flow type test.
(a) ARINC 429 c) assist the avionics engineer with
(b) ARINC 573 troubleshooting
(c) ARINC 724 prev. 597 d) ATA

49. ACARS is a digital data link system 57. Covering of a Position lights should be:
transmitted in the: a) Heat Resistant
(a) VHF range (129-137 Mhz) b) Opaque & HR
(b) LF range c) Transparent & HR
(c) UHF range.
58. MTCS for Angle of attack : 66. IMA in A380 uses which ARNIC :
a) Indicators are connected to alpha sensors a) 629
of a stall warning system b) 429
b) Located adjacent to that indicating c) AFDX
Vertical speed on the EADI
c) Pointer referenced against horizontal 67. SATCOM uses :
Yellow, Green and Red bands, signifying a) Geostationary Satellites
the angle at which stick pusher operates. b) VHF
d) ATA c) HF

59. MTCS for TCAS : 68. MTCS

a) TCAS is an airborne system based on a) Water can be used on class A fires
secondary radar b) Water can be used on class D fires
b) White Diamond, Red Square, Amber
Circle 69. Landing Lights are:
c) ATA a) Sealed beam devices
b) 600-1000W filament Lamps
c) Parabolic Reflector concentrates Light in a
60. TCAS II requires which type of ATC Directional Beam
transponder: d) Located on the wing tips or on the front of
(a) Mode S the fuselage
(b) Mode A e) ATA
(c) Mode C
70. Do not Touch with Bare hands, will lead to
61. TCAS interrogation codes are transmitted premature failure of which type of light :
and received on: a) Xenon
a) 1030 MHz and 1090 MHz carrier b) Fluorescent
waves (UHF Band) c) Incandescence
b) 1090 MHz and 1030 MHz carrier waves
71. MTCS regarding Magnetic Lines:
62. What colour and shape of symbol is used a) Isogonic Lines: places having equal
for proximity traffic: variation
(a) Solid red square b) Agonic Lines: places where the variation is
(b) Solid cyan diamond zero
(c) Solid orange circle. d) Isoclinals Lines :Same dip angle are joined
by lines
63. Alternator Zero Factor is used to measure: e) Aclinic line (Magnetic Equator) : the angle
a) Efficency is zero are joined by a line
b) Load f) ATA

64. IMA for Electrical Load and Distributions: 72. Lift depends upon :
a) ELMS a) Angle of attack
b) AIMS b) Wing Shape
c) Card System c) ATA

65. IMA in 777 uses which ARNIC : 73. Fibre optics communication network uses:
a) 629 a) T Junction
b) 429 b) Y Junction
c) AFDX c) Ring Topology
d) Both B & C
74.Modulation which works with HF & VHF: 84. MTCS about Turn Coordinator:
a) AM a) It senses rotation about the Roll & Yaw
b) FM axis
c) Both b) It senses rotation about the Roll & Pitch
axis
75. Flight Management System with Engine c) It senses rotation about the Pitch & Yaw
Thrust: axis

85. Rho-theta navigation is the basis of

76. EVENT”” button is for:
DFDR “EVENT
a) a discrete signal on the recording to
highlight the timing of the event
77. The DFDR requires an electronic process
such that:
(a) Digitally coded data can be converted
back(decoded) into its analogue form
(b) Digitally coded data can be converted
back(encoded) into its analogue form
(c)) Analogue data can be converted
back(decoded) into its digital form
form.
78. AIDS purpose:
a) Recording & performance monitoring
(a) VOR/DME
VOR/DME, (b) Omega, (c) ADF.
86. To avoid earth loops in audio systems cable
screens should be :
(a) earthed at both ends
(b) not earthed at either end
(c) earthed at one end only
87. If the variable phase leads the reference
phase by 30" the magnetic bearing to the
VOR station will be :
a) 30o b) 210o c) 150o
88. The frequency range of a VOR receiver is
(a) 108 to 117.95 MHz
(b) 108 to 1 1 1.95 MHz
(c) I l8 to 135.95 MHz.

79. The ______ mode used for digital data 89. TACAN beacons transmit in the range:
outside HF system: (a)) 962 to 1213 MHz
a) AM (b) 1030 to 1090 MHz
b) Data (c) 978 to 1213 Mhz
c) CWI
90. DME gives
80. Equivalent Airspeed: (a) range,
a) CAS (b) slant range
range,
b) TAS (c) ground
c) IAS
91. If a DME is in track subsequent loss of signal
81. Max. Deviation of magnetic Compass: will cause the equipment to
a) 2o b) 5o (a) Search
(b) automatically standby
82. A loop antenna is used for: (c) go into memory
(a) VOR and ADF,
(b) ADF and Omega 92. FMS outputs data to :
(c) Omega and VOR. a) EFIS Displays
b) Communication Management Units
83. Above 30 MHz propagation is by: c) Autopilot and Auto throttle
(a) space wave d) ATA
(b) sky wave
(c) ground wave. 93. The essential crew to to FMS is achieved
thru:
a) CDU b) EFIS c) CMS
94. CDU provides a very powerful interface 102. The disadvantage of Short Pitch Field
tool using: wound generator:
a) Mode and Function Keys a) Reduces harmonics in the output voltage
b) Soft Keys b) Reduces armature output Voltage
c) Alpha Numeric Keys Note : Advantages of Short Pitch Coil:
d) ATA • Short Pitching reduces the amount of
copper needed for End Connection
95. In SATCOM what is Spot Beam : when compared with Full Pitched
a) Enable the reuse of the same frequency Coil as can be observed from the
in 2 separate areas at the same frequency figure above.
• They improve the waveform of
96. In SATCOM owing to LOW GRAZING generated EMF i.e. generated EMF
ANGLES coverage begins to downgrade can be made to approximate to a
beyond : sine wave more easily and the
a) Downgrade beyond 800 North& South distorting harmonics can be reduced
Latitude and fades completely beyond 850 or totally eliminated
• They save Copper of end connections
97. NSS (Network Server System ) is for : • They improve the wave form of the
a) Flight crew generated emf
b) Cabin Crew • The distorting harmonics can be
c) Passenger reduced or totally eliminated
d) ATA • Due to Elimination of high frequency
harmonics, eddy current &
98. MTCS regarding IMA : hysteresis losses
a) LRU is better than LRM • are reduced thereby increasing the
b) LRM is better than LRU efficiency
c) IMA uses LRU and used in rack The disadvantages of using short-pitch
winding are that:
99. Servo System :
• the total voltage around the coils
a) Follows the Input Command
is somewhat reduced
b) Correct itself by giving feedback
• Voltage induced in the 2 sides of
the short pitched coil are slightly
100. MTCS for Current Limiter :
out of phase,
a) Slow-Blow Fuse
b) Short delay before metal link melts & • their resultant vectorial sum is
disconnect the circuit less than their arithmetical sum.
c) Made of Copper with higher melting Winding employing Short pitched coils
melting pt. than other fuses. is called Chorded Winding
d) Carry more than its rated Capacity &
carry a heavy overlaod for a short time 103. Lap and wave winding of DC generator:
e) ATA Note : Lap windings is suitable for
comparatively low voltage but high current Generators
101. RMS value of a half wave rectifier is Wave Windings is
10A.Find the RMS value of Full wave used for high voltage low current machines
rectification:
a) 20 A 104.Which light cannot be tested by Ohmmeter?
b) 14.14A a) Halogen
c) 20/^ b) Xenon lamp
d) 40/^ c) Incandescent
d) Fluorescent
105. Cladding material in fibre optics has :
a) Lower refractive index than the core
b) Higher refractive index than the core
c) Same refractive index than the core
113. Three Basic kind of Instruments:
113.Three
a) Flight, Engine & Navigation
114. What is absolute Pressure?
a) When a force is compared to Total Vacuum

106. Advantages of fibre optics :

a) Relative freedom from electromagnetic
interference
b) Electrical isolation and freedom from
earth/ground loops.
c) wide bandwidth and very high data rates
can be supported
d) reduced noise and cross-talk compared
with conventional copper cables
e) ATA
107. Attenuation in an optical fibre is due to:
(a) absorption, dispersion, and radiation
(b) absorption, scattering, and radiation
(c) absorption, cross-talk, and noise
108. In addition to magnetic heading
deviation shows in EHSI from :
a) ILS receiver
b) VOR Radial
c) ADF
115. Altimeter that measure altitude by measuring
115.Altimeter
the atmospheric pressure is known as :
a) Radio Altimeter
b) Pressure Altimeter
Short Notes
Notes:
Rigidity Factors:
(1). The mass of the rotor
(2). The speed of rotation
(3). Distance at which the mass acts from the
center (the radius of gyration)
Rate of Precession depends upon :
(1). the strength and direction of the applied
force
(2). the moment of inertia of the rotor
(3). the angular velocity of the rotor

109. Synchro mechanism used are :

a) Autosyn & Selyn --------------------END----------------------
b) Micro desyn & desynn
c) Magnysn
d) Both A & B

110. In a 6 pole DC gen, 90o mechanical turn

equal to _____ no. elec Deg.:
a) 30
b) 270
c) 45

111. What type of Modulation can be used in

VHF range and above:
a) AM
b) FM
c) Both
PREPARED BY-

112. Taxi & Landing Lts. Switched on by relay PATELIO

or Soleniod because:
A High Wattage