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B737 400 Smart Cockpit Quizs
B737 400 Smart Cockpit Quizs
Multiple-choice exercise
1 The maximum T/O and landing tailwind component on a dry or wet runway
(non contaminated) is ?
10 kts (or 15kts as certified) not including gusts.
10 kts (or 15kts as certified) including gusts.
15 kts (not including gusts).
15 kts (including gusts).
2 The maximum speed with the MACH TRIM system inoperative is?
Classics:0.65M, NG's 250/0.74M
Classics:0.70M, NG's 280/0.80M
Classics:0.73M, NG's 280/0.81M
Classics:0.74M, NG's 280/0.82M
3 The recommended turbulent penetration airspeed is
Classics: 280Kts/0.70M, NG's: 280Kts/0.72M
Classics: 280Kts/0.73M, NG's: 280Kts/0.76M
Classics: 280Kts/0.74M, NG's: 280Kts/0.78M
4 The maximum landing weight of the B737-300 is
51,709 Kg
53,070 Kg
55,865 Kg
5 The maximum time limit for take-off thrust is
5 minutes.
10 minutes.
No Limit
6 The maximum speed for landing gear extension is
260 kt. or .80M
265 kt. or .82M
270 kt. or .82M
7 The maximum speed for landing gear retraction is
235 Kts
250 Kts
255 Kts
8 The maximum speed for landing gear extended is
300 kt. or .80M
320 kt. or .82M
320 kt. or .80M
9 The T.R. voltage range is
22 - 28 volts.
24 - 30 volts.
24 - 32 volts.
10 The maximum wind speed for airstair operation is
40 Kts
60 Kts
65 Kts
11 The runway slope limits are
+/- 2 %
+/- 4 %
+/- 5 %
12 The maximum differential pressure is
Classics: 7.45 psi, NG: 7.8 psi
Classics: 7.8 psi, NG: 8.35 psi
Classics: 8.65 psi, NG: 9.1 psi
13 The maximum cabin differential pressure for take-off and landing is
.125 psi
-0.125 psi
0.25 psi
14 The operating differential pressure (FLT ALT set at 27,000 feet) is
7.45 psi
7.8 psi
8.65 psi
15 The APU maximum EGT is
710C
710C Garrett Only
760C Garrett Only
16 The maximum APU operating continuous EGT is
710C Garrett only
725C Sundstrand only
760C Garrett Only
17 The maximum aircraft altitude for both APU bleed and electrical load is
10,000 feet.
17,000 feet.
35,000 feet.
160 degrees C
165 degrees C
157 degrees C
34 The minimum operating brake pressure indication is
1000 psi
2800 psi
3000 psi
35 The minimum start pressure at 2000 feet above sea level (prior to starter
engagement) is
28 psi
29 psi
39 psi
36 The recommended refuelling nozzle pressure is
30 psi
50 psi
60 psi
37 Do not operate engine or wing anti-ice when the temperature is above
10 degrees C OAT.
10 degrees C SAT
10 degrees C TAT
38 The manoeuvre speed with flap 5 (gross weight of 52,000 kgs) is
190 Kts
180 Kts
170 Kts
39 Starter assist (inflight engine start) should be used when N2 is below
15%
20%
25%
40 For all revenue flights, the escape slide retention bar must be installed during
Taxy, take-off and landing.
At any time the aircraft is in motion.
At all times.
41 The maximum operating altitude of the B737 is
Classics: 35,000ft, NG's: 41,000ft
Classics: 37,000ft, NG's: 41,000ft
Classics: 37,000ft, NG's: 43,000ft
42 The maximum altitude for take-off and landing is
7,800 feet
8,400 feet
9,800 feet
43 The flight operating latitude limits of the B737-3/4/500 are
75 degrees North and 60 degrees South
73 degrees North and 60 degrees South
78 degrees North and 60 degrees South
44 The maximum wind allowable for airstairs to remain extended is
45 kts
60 kts
65 kts
45 When engine bleeds are ON, both air conditioning packs must be set to
AUTO or OFF for approach and landing only.
AUTO or OFF for take-off, approach or landing.
AUTO or OFF for take off only.
46 The APU bleed valve must be closed whenever the
Ground air connected and isolation valve closed.
L.H engine bleed valve open (L.H. engine running above idle power)
Isolation and R.H. engine bleed valves closed (with the R.H. engine running
above idle power).
Ground air connected and isolation valve open only.
Ground air connected and isolation valve open. L.H. engine bleed valve
open (L.H. engine running above idle power) Isolation and R.H. engine
bleed valves open (with the R.H. engine running above idle power).
47 Except for ER operation, one air-cond pack may be inoperative provided
altitude is limited to
FL 180.
FL 250.
FL 350.
48 Speedbrake should not be deployed in flight at radio altitudes less than
500 feet
800 feet
1000 feet
49 The duty cycle of the Alternate flap system is
Flaps 0-15; 2 minutes off.
Flaps greater than 15; 20 minutes off.
Flaps 0-15; 5 minutes off.
Flaps greater than 15; 25 minutes off.
Flaps 0-15; 5 minutes off.
Flaps greater than 15; 30 minutes off.
50 The autopilot must not be engaged on take-off below
Classics: 1000ftAGL - NG's: 400 feet AGL
Classics: 1000ftAGL - NG's: 1000 feet AGL
Classics: 400ftAGL - NG's: 400 feet AGL
51 For single channel operation, the autopilot shall not be engaged below
140 feet AGL
400 feet AGL
1000 feet AGL
52 During VOR approaches what must one pilot have displayed
One pilot must have raw data, from the VOR associated with the approach,
displayed in the HSI VOR/ILS mode not later than the final approach fix.
One pilot must have MAP mode selected.
One pilot must have raw data, from the VOR associated with the approach,
displayed in the HSI VOR/ILS mode before he intercepts the inbound
course.
53 The maximum fuel tank quantities (Classics) are
4,600 kgs in each wing tank, 7,000 kgs in the centre tank
4,828 kgs in each wing tank, 7449 kgs in the centre tank
4,728 kgs in each wing tank, 7249 kgs in the centre tank
54 The maximum lateral fuel imbalance between wing tanks 1 and 2 must be
scheduled to be zero and, for all phases of flight, must not exceed
453 kgs.
500 kgs.
710 kgs.
55 The wing fuel tanks must be full if the centre tank contains more than
453 kgs.
500 kgs.
710 kgs.
56 The engine Thermal Anti Ice must be on when icing conditions exist or are
anticipated, except during climb or cruise when the temperature is below
-40 degrees C OAT.
-40 degrees C SAT.
-40 degrees C TAT.
57 Do not operate weather radar
During fuelling, near fuel spills or people.
On the ground.
During fuelling, near other aircraft, fuel spills or people.
58 Engine ignition must be on for
Take-off.
Approach and landing.
Take-off and landing.
59 The maximum continuous engine EGT is
895 degrees C
930 degrees C
725 degrees C
60 The maximum allowable engine oil temperature is
157 degrees C
160 degrees C
165 degrees C
61 The engine start duty cycle (normal start) is
First attempt: 2 minutes on, 20 seconds off
Second and subsequent attempts: 2 minutes on, 3 minutes off
First attempt: 2 minutes on, 20 seconds off
Second and subsequent attempts: 2 minutes on, 5 minutes off
First attempt: 2 minutes on, 20 seconds off
Second and subsequent attempts: 2 minutes on, 30 minutes off
62 Both PMCs must be
Servicable for take off.
On or Off for take-off.
On for take-off.
63 What are the max differential restrictions when ANY window in the cockpit
has a cracked outer pane
No restrictions.
5psi diff / 26,000ft
2psi diff / 15,000ft
64 What is the minimum engine oil quantity (per engine) for despatch for an
aircraft with EIS
66% Full
75% Full
88% Full
65 For an automatic landing the head and crosswind limits are
Headwind limit is 25 kts and the crosswind limit is 15 kts.
Headwind limit is 20 kts and the crosswind limit is 15 kts.
Headwind limit is 25 kts and the crosswind limit is 10 kts.
66 The maximum tailwind for T/O and landing on a contaminated runway is
0 kts.
10 kts.
5 kts.
67 The maximum windspeed for taxying is
45 kts.
60 kts.
65 kts.
68 The maximum depth of Dry Snow (runway contaminant) for take-off based on
maximum figures available for calculation of performance is
13 mm.
15 mm.
60 mm.
69 The maximum depth of Wet Snow (runway contaminant) for take-off based
on maximum figures available for calculation of performance is
13 mm.
15 mm.
60 mm.
70 The maxImum depth of Compacted Snow/Slush (runway contaminant) for
take-off based on max figures available for calculation of performance is
13 mm.
15 mm.
60 mm.
71 The maximum depth of Standing Water (runway contaminant) for take-off
based on maximum figures available for calculation of performance is
13 mm.
15 mm.
60 mm.
72 The maximum crosswind component (including gusts) for taking-off and
landing on a runway where braking action is reported as GOOD is
15 kts.
25 kts.
35 kts.
73 The maximum crosswind component (including gusts) for taking-off and
landing on a runway where braking action is reported as MEDIUM is
15 kts.
25 kts.
35 kts.
74 The maximum crosswind component (including gusts) for taking-off and
landing on a runway where braking action is reported as MEDIUM/POOR is
10 kts.
15 kts.
20 kts.
75 What is the category of the B737 brakes
A
B
C
AIRCRAFT GENERAL
Multiple-choice exercise
Grasp the cockpit door emergency exit handle on the lower part of the door
and rotate clockwise.
Grasp the cockpit door emergency exit handle on the lower part of the door
and push.
Grasp the cockpit door emergency exit handle on the upper part of the
door and pull forward.
4 When turning the B737-300 on the ground
The landing gear geometry and sweep back of the wings result in the tail
arc being less than the wing tip arc.
The landing gear geometry and sweep back of the wings result in the tail
arc being greater than the wing tip arc.
The landing gear geometry and sweep back of the wings result in the tail
arc being the same as the wing tip arc.
5 When turning the B737-300 on the ground
The landing gear geometry and sweep back of the wings result in an
inward motion of the wing tips and tail.
The landing gear geometry and sweep back of the wings result in an
inward motion of the tail only
The landing gear geometry and sweep back of the wings result in an
outward motion of the wing tips and tail.
6 When turning the B737-300 on the ground the minimum pavement width for an
180 degree turn is
Two water tanks located either side of the aft cargo compartment.
A single water tank located behind the aft cargo compartment.
One main water tank with separate tanks for the toilets.
10 Water tank pressurisation is supplied from
100 litres.
30 U.S. gallons.
30 Imp gallons.
12 The potable water quantity indicator is located
Extinguish when the flaps are extended and the landing gear is up.
Illuminate when the auto-pilot is not engaged.
Illuminate when landing gear or flaps are extended.
18 With Ground Power plugged in and the battery switch OFF, the Dim Entry
Lights are powered
The NO SMOKING signs will illuminate any time the flaps are extended.
The NO SMOKING signs will illuminate any time the gear is extended.
The NO SMOKING signs will illuminate only when gear and flaps are
extended.
22 Failure of the A.C. transfer bus NO.2 will
The Dim Entry lights, Dome lights, and Integral instrument lights.
White Dome lights, Standby Compass light.
The Dim Entry lights and Instrument Floods.
25 When operating the airstair from the interior control panel
Three automatic slides and one manual slide at the aft galley service door.
Three manually operated slides and one automatic slide at the forward
entry door.
Automatic slides.
29 Portable EXIT lights are
Pushing in the exterior panel at the top, then pushing inward and lifting it
up.
Pulling out and rotating the recessed handle.
They cannot be removed from outside the aircraft.
31 Escape lines (ropes/straps) are fitted
14,000 Feet.
10,000 Feet.
9,500 Feet.
34 The oxygen system on board the aircraft has
Two separate systems, one for the flight deck and one for the cabin.
One single system for all oxygen requirements
Three separate systems, one for the flight deck, one for the cabin and one
for the aft galley cabin attendants.
35 During a decompression, the passenger oxygen will automatically drop from its
stowage compartment. Oxygen will flow to all masks
Immediately.
Only when any one of the masks of an oxygen generator unit is pulled
down.
When the passenger breathes, - the system is on demand.
36 In each lavatory there is
Turn the yellow knob in an anticlockwise direction and plug the bottle into
the overhead connection.
Turn the yellow knob in a counterclockwise direction and plug the mask
into the desired bottle outlet.
Plug the mask into the desired outlet only.
38 The pre-flight inspection check of the escape slide units is
The retainer (girt) bars are fastened to the floor before passenger
boarding.
The pressure indicator reads not less than 2800 P.S.I. and not more than
3200 P.S.I.
The pressure indicator is in the green band.
39 To operate a BCF extinguisher
Hold the extinguisher upright, remove the ringed safety pin, aim the
extinguisher at the base of the flames from a distance of 6 feet and press
the top lever.
Twist the yellow knob in an anti-clockwise direction and depress the trigger
releasing CO2 onto the fire.
Hold the extinguisher upright, remove the ringed safety pin, twist the yellow
knob in a clockwise direction, aim the extinguisher at the base of the
flames from a distance of 3 feet and press the top lever.
40 Loud-hailers are located
200 degrees F.
180 degrees F.
250 degrees F.
45 To check that a lavatory fire extinguisher has not discharged
Check the nozzle tips (aluminium colour after discharge) and heat sensitive
discs which discolour from the heat of the fire.
Check the Extinguisher pressure gauge.
Check the Extinguisher contents indicator
46 Each passenger oxygen unit in the cabin
Can be shut off once the flow of oxygen has started - by cabin staff action
only.
Cannot be shut off once the flow of oxygen has started.
Can be shut off by pulling any mask down a second time.
47 The B737-300 aircraft cabin equipment includes
Is supplied from the passenger oxygen bottle located in the forward cargo
compartment.
Is supplied by individual chemical oxygen generators, one for each
passenger.
Is supplied by individual chemical oxygen generators located at each
Passenger Service Unit.
49 Each passenger oxygen generator when activated
Will produce oxygen for approximately 12 minutes.
Will produce oxygen for approximately 7 minutes.
Will only produce oxygen on demand for approximately 20 minutes.
50 Passenger oxygen flowing to a mask is visually confirmed by
An amber in-line flow indicator.
A green in-line flow indicator.
A white in-line flow indicator
51 Normal pressure of the flight crew oxygen system is
1850 P.S.I.
2000 P.S.I.
1500 P.S.I.
52 Pressing the RESET/TEST slide lever at a crew member station will
Squeeze the red RELEASE levers with the thumb and forefinger and
remove from stowage.
Push the red RELEASE levers with the thumb and forefinger and unlatch
the retaining clip.
Push the EMERGENCY/TEST selector with the thumb and remove from
stowage.
58 If the crew oxygen mask is not stowed, then by
Opening both stowage box doors and pressing the RESET/TEST slide
lever, 100% oxygen under pressure is supplied to the mask.
Opening both stowage box doors and pressing the RESET/TEST slide
lever, the oxygen supply at the individual crew member station is shut off.
Closing both stowage box doors and pressing the RESET/TEST slide
lever, the oxygen supply at the individual crew member station is shut off.
59 As the crew oxygen harness inflates
The flow indicator will continuously show a yellow cross anytime the mask
is removed from the stowage box.
The flow indicator will remain black.
The flow indicator will momentarily show a yellow cross.
60 To check the crew oxygen
The pneumatic pressure would be indicated by both the left and right pointers
on the pneumatic duct pressure indicator.
The pneumatic pressure would be indicated by the left hand pointer on the
pneumatic duct pressure indicator.
The pneumatic pressure would be indicated by the right hand pointer on the
pneumatic duct pressure indicator.
8 The sources of engine bleed are
Will open if the 5th stage air is insufficient in maintaining proper pressure.
Will open if the APU is insufficient in maintaining proper pressure.
Is open at all times irrespective of 5th stage air pressure output.
10 The engine bleed valves are
Close the isolation valve and switch off the associated engine bleed.
Close the isolation valve and switch off the associated air-conditioning pack.
Switch off the associated engine bleed.
17 The DUAL BLEED light is illuminated. Engine thrust
1 To use the APU for air conditioning, on the ground/engines shut down, -
3/4/500 series aircraft, you should select?
When on the ground, during slow flight with the flaps not fully
retracted or anytime the landing gear is retracted.
Only during slow flight with the flaps not fully retracted.
When on the ground or during slow flight with the flaps not fully
retracted.
6 The RAM DOOR FULL OPEN lights are normally extinguished
During the cruise.
During the takeoff and climb.
Just before landing.
7 The E & E compartment is cooled by?
Exhaust air from the main cabin and electrical equipment bay and
forward outflow valve collected in a shroud located above the aft
cargo compartment.
Exhaust air from the main cabin and electrical equipment bay
collected in a shroud located above the aft cargo compartment.
Exhaust air from the main cabin and electrical equipment bay
collected in a shroud located above the forward cargo compartment.
9 The Re-circulating Fan air shroud is located
When both packs are on and one or both pack switches are selected
to HIGH
When one pack is off.
When both pack switches are selected to AUTO.
11 The air conditioning pack switch positions are?
Only when the main outflow valve is in the fully open position.
At any time when more than .125 P.S.I. differential exists.
In-flight when more than 2.5 P.S.I. differential exists.
16 The Re-circulation Fan is
D.C. powered.
A.C. powered.
Pneumatically powered from APU or engine bleed air.
17 When using the Pneumatic Air Cart, the Battery switch
7.80psi
8.65psi
8.45psi
19 If the amber AUTO FAIL light illuminates on CPCS aircraft.
To keep the cabin unpressurised by driving the main outflow valve full
open when the switch is in the FLT position.
To keep the cabin pressurised by driving the main outflow valve
towards closed with the switch in the GRD position.
To keep the cabin depressurised by driving the main outflow valve full
open when the switch is in the GRD position.
21 The cabin Altitude Warning horn will
Sounds (steady horn) when the cabin altitude reaches 10,000 feet
altitude.
Sound (intermittent horn) when cabin altitude reaches 14,000 feet
altitude.
Sound (intermittent horn) when cabin altitude reaches 10,000 feet
altitude.
22 On CPCS aircraft, the Cabin Rate selector DECR and INCR positions
give a cabin altitude rate of change of:
0.10psi
0.25psi
0.125psi
24 The OFF SCHED DESCENT light illuminates if
The aircraft has temporarily levelled off before reaching the selected
flight altitude (as set in the FLT ALT window)
The aircraft has descended before reaching the selected flight
altitude (as set in the FLT ALT window).
The aircraft has climbed above the selected flight altitude (as set in
the FLT ALT indicator ).
25 On CPCS aircraft in STBY mode, the FLT/GRD switch when set to GRD
causes
7.65psid
7.45psid
7.90psid
30 On CPCS aircraft, the rate of operation of the main outflow valve in MAN
DC mode is?
Increase
Remain the same.
Decrease
34 On CPCS aircraft, if the pressure controller is selected to Standby Mode
after takeoff and the Cabin Altitude is set at 8000 feet. The aircraft is
directed to stop the climb at FL140. The cabin altitude will?
Level off.
Continue to climb.
Level off for five minutes, then climb at 200 fpm to max diff.
37 With a single pack operating and selected to AUTO.
Turn window heat off, limit IAS to 250kts below 10,000 ft.
Cabin differential pressure must be reduced to a maximum of 5 PSI
Cabin differential pressure must be reduced to a maximum of 2 PSI
5 If a window overheat light illuminates this indicates that
The associated window has reached an overheat condition and it must be selected
OFF manually to remove power before any damage takes place.
The power has been automatically removed from the associated window system and
will be re-introduced automatically when the window has cooled.
The power has been automatically removed from the associated window system.
6 With all window heaters selected ON and OVHT selected on the window heat test
switch
The ON lights will not be affected but observe a rise in on the AC ammeters.
All OVERHEAT lights illuminate and the ON lights will extinguish immediately.
All OVERHEAT lights illuminate and the ON lights may extinguish immediately, or
remain illuminated for as long as 70 seconds.
7 The window heat switches must be
The window heat switches must be momentarily positioned to OFF to reset the
system.
No action is required as the resetting of the system is automatic.
The window heat switches must be momentarily positioned to RESET to reset the
system.
10 During a flight in icing conditions with wing anti-icing selected to ON
The system will automatically select the wing anti-ice valves to closed if the
temperature in the leading edge is too high.
The associated wing anti-ice valve will automatically close if the pressure in the wing
leading edge is too high.
There is no direct control over the amount of heat supplied other than variation of
engine power.
11 With the Wing Anti-ice switch selected to ON and either VALVE OPEN light is
illuminated bright blue
The valve is partially open and flight may be continued normally in icing conditions.
Avoid icing conditions.
Select both engine start switches to FLT.
12 Thermal air for wing anti-icing is obtained from
Will be extinguished.
Will be illuminated bright blue.
Will illuminate dim blue after 5 - 7 seconds.
15 The total air temperature probe
Is electrically heated.
Does not require heating.
Is not heated while on the ground.
16 Rain repellant is actuated
Automatically and momentarily when the windscreen wipers are selected ON.
By pressing one of two rain repellent buttons located on the overhead panel
By pressing the single rain repellent button located on the overhead panel.
17 Heat is applied to the alpha vanes
Close when the temperature in the anti-ice ducting reaches a preset limit on the
ground only.
Close when the temperature in the anti-ice ducting reaches a preset limit on the
ground or in flight.
Close when the pressure in the anti-ice ducting reaches a preset limit on the ground
only.
19 The wing anti-ice control valves
Is not effective with the trailing edge flaps beyond the flaps 15 degree position.
Is effective with the slats in any position and does include the leading edge flaps.
Is effective with the slats in any position but does not include the leading edge flaps.
21 The thermal protection of the wing anti-ice ducting is
Blue in colour and when illuminated indicates the engine cowl anti-ice valve is in
disagreement with the engine anti-ice switch.
Amber in colour, indicating over-temperature or over-pressure.
Amber in colour, indicating over-temperature only.
25 The COWL ANTI-ICE light when illuminated
Illuminated when heat is being supplied to the respective pitot, static and probe
heaters.
Not connected to the Master Caution system.
Amber in colour, and connected to the Master Caution system.
27 Both windshield wipers are controlled by
Electrically heated.
Is fully anti-fogged from the air conditioning system.
Not electrically heated.
29 The Window Heat ON light (green) illuminates to indicate
An autothrottle airspeed error if speed is not held within +15 or -15 knots of commanded
speed when in flight, flaps up and autothrottle engaged in MCP SPD or FMC SPD mode.
The light test switch is being held in position 2.
An autothrottle airspeed error if speed is not held within +10 or -5 knots of commanded
speed when in flight, flaps not up and autothrottle engaged in MCP SPD or FMC SPD
mode.
4. VNAV mode is terminated by
Continue the climb to the next 1000 feet level and level off.
Stop the climb and level off.
Continue the climb to the preset altitude selected, as the altitude acquire mode is now
armed.
6. With autopilot A engaged, the altitude selected on the MCP is referenced to
Become blank.
Display the Vref speed used during the final approach.
Display the flap manoeuvring speed.
14. Flight Director roll commands, from take-off mode engagement through to the take-off
climbout, are
The wing flaps are extended past 25 or while the glideslope is captured.
The wing flaps are extended past 15 or while the glideslope is captured.
The glideslope is captured.
18. If an engine fails while the autothrottle is in N1 mode, the thrust lever of the failed
engine
Remains stationary.
Advances a few degrees and returns to or below the other thrust lever position.
Retracts a few degrees and returns to or above the other thrust lever position.
19. During a dual channel approach the autothrottle
A warning will be given in the form of intermittent altitude alert tone, flashing altitude alert
lights and the MCP displays 50,000 feet.
No warnings are given.
A warning will be given in the form of the aircraft climbing or descending to the new
altitude.
21. The underspeed symbol in the MCP Speed window is a
Flashing "8".
Flashing "A".
Steady "A".
22. During a dual channel autopilot approach, the Autopilot Disengage light illuminates
steady red when below 800 feet. This indicates
A normal condition.
Both autopilots have reverted to CWS mode.
The stabilizer is out of trim.
23. During an autopilot go-around, the Autopilot Disengage light illuminates steady red.
This indicates
The autothrottle disengages.The A/T disengage lightsflash and the A/T ARM switch trips
OFF. A second press and the A/T disengage lights extinguish.
The autothrottle disengages.The A/T disengage lightsflash, the A/T disengage warning
tone sounds and the A/T ARM switch trips OFF. A second press and the A/T disengage
lights extinguish and the warning tone.
The autothrottle disengages provided the button is held formore than two seconds. The
A/T disengage lights flash and the A/T ARM switch trips OFF. A second press and the
A/T disengage lights extinguish.
25. What is the minimum Mach number that can be selected in the IAS/MACH display of
the MCP panel
0.60 M
0.50 M
0.40 M
26. The IAS/MACH display change over switch on the MCP panel will change the display
between IAS and MACH when pressed. An automatic change over
The mode can not be deactivated by pressing the mode switch a second time.
The mode can be deactivated by pressing the mode switch a second time.
The mode can be deactivated by selecting either F/D switch to OFF.
29. If the MCP selected Altitude is changed during ALT ACQ mode
Then V/S mode is automatically activated.
The initial selected altitude is held.
The pitch mode prior to ALT ACQ is automatically re-engaged.
30. LNAV mode terminates whenever
A mode change occurs from active to armed, and the rectangle remains for 10 seconds.
A mode change has occurred and the rectangle remains for 1 second.
A mode change has occurred and the rectangle remains for 10 seconds.
32 An A/T LIM light when illuminated, or an A/T LIM annunciation (as installed) indicates
The autothrottle computer is calculating an FMC N1 limit for the affected engine or
engines.
The autothrottles are positioned at their normal operating limit as calculated by the FMC.
The autothrottle computer is calculating a degraded N1 limit for the affected engine or
engines.
33. All AFDS modes can be disengaged by selecting another command mode or
No force is applied to the control wheel or column, the Stabiliser Trim Auto Pilot Cut-Out
Switch is at NORMAL and the autothrottle must be engaged.
No force is applied to the control wheel or column and the Stabiliser Trim Auto Pilot Cut-
Out Switch is at NORMAL.
The Stabiliser Trim Auto Pilot Cut-Out Switch is at NORMAL only.
35. If the autopilot is engaged and either pilot's control wheel Trim Switch is activated
The stabiliser will move at a slow rate with the autopilot remains engaged.
The autopilot will disengage.
The stabiliser will not move and the autopilot remains engaged.
36. When approaching a selected altitude in CWS P (pitch) with the autopilot engage
paddle in CMD
The CWS P annunciation changes to ALT ACQ and when at the selected altitude, ALT
HOLD engages.
The CWS P annunciation is unaffected.
The autopilot paddle automatically moves to the CWS position on reaching the selected
altitude.
37. The autopilot is engaged in ALT HOLD mode. The controlcolumn is then pushed,
causing the autopilot to engage in CWS P mode. After the aircraft has descended 150
feet from the initial altitude the force applied to the control column is released and
CWS P remains engaged and the aircraft will maintain a constant pitch angle in the
descent.
CWS P mode changes to ALT ACQ mode and the A/P returns to the initial altitude and
ALT HOLD engages.
CWS P mode changes to ALT ACQ mode and the A/P remains atthe an altitude of 150
feet lower than the initial altitude and ALT HOLD engages.
38. During a VNAV PATH descent, VNAV remains engaged until
Approach mode is armed, or Another pitch mode is selected, or Flaps are extended
beyond 25, or LNAV is disengaged without localiser capture.
Glideslope capture, or Another pitch mode is selected, or Flaps are extended beyond 15,
or LNAV is disengaged without localiser capture.
Glideslope capture, or Another pitch mode is selected, or Flaps are extended beyond 25,
or LNAV is disengaged without localiser capture.
39. If VOR/LOC mode is fully engaged during an ILS approach and then the master VHF
NAV receiver is placed in the AUTO tuning mode
May be manually disengaged after touchdown. The landing roll-out can be executed
automatically.
Must be manually disengaged after touchdown. The landing roll-out is executed manually
after disengaging the A/P.
Must not be disengaged after touchdown until the airspeed is less than 60 knots.
45. The A/P go-around mode requires dual A/P operation and becomes armed when
The F/D command bars remain in view until after touchdown, giving full landing flare
capability.
The F/D command bars retract from view at approximately 200 feet RA.
The F/D command bars retract from view at approximately 50 feet RA.
48. Both MA lights on the MCP panel are illuminated during an approach indicating
Approaching 900 feet of the selected altitude and the lights will extinguish at 300 feet
from the selected altitude.
Approaching 750 feet of the selected altitude and the lights will extinguish at 100 feet
from the selected altitude.
Approaching 500 feet of the selected altitude and the lights will extinguish at 250 feet
from the selected altitude.
51. Autothrottle takeoffs
VREF + 10 knots.
VREF + increments due to wind or gusty conditions.
VREF + 5 knots.
53. The Automatic Flight System (AFS) provides speed, pitch and thrust commands to
avoid exceeding the following limit speeds
The Captain's.
Both the Captain's and the First Officer's.
The First Officer's.
55. Dual channel Autopilot operation is possible
200 feet.
100 feet.
500 feet.
61. The aircraft is climbing with the autopilot in CMD and the pilot pushes the control
column forward. The autopilot will
Totally disengage.
Revert to CWS P and CWS R.
Revert to CWS P and the Roll axis remains in CMD.
62. During a single engine F/D go-around
Flight interphone system, or the Service Interphone system provided the Service
Interphone switch is ON.
Flight interphone system only.
The Service interphone system irrespective of the position of the Service Interphone
switch.
5 The GRD CALL switch on the Fwd Overhead panel when pressed
Sounds a horn in the nose wheel and main wheel wells until released.
Sounds a horn in the nose wheel well until released.
Sounds a horn in the nose wheel and main wheel wells until the ground crew select
the GRD CALL CANCEL switch on the External Power receptacle panel.
6 The Cockpit CALL (blue) light will illuminate along with an associated chime whenever
the cockpit is being called
25 hour single cassette tape which is replaced during every daily maintenance check.
30 minute continuous loop tape.
60 minute continuous loop tape.
10 Audio warnings for Altitude Alert, The GPWS and Windshear Warnings are heard
through
The VHF-1 and VHF-2 radios only are available for transmission and reception from
the Captain's station.
Only the VHF-2 radio is available for transmission and reception from the Captain's
station.
Only the VHF-1 radio is available for transmission and reception from the Captain's
station.
12 With the Alternate-Normal switch on the F/O's Audio Selector Panel selected to ALT
Only the VHF-2 radio is available for transmission and reception from the F/O's
station.
Only the VHF-1 radio is available for transmission and reception from the Captain's
station.
Only the VHF-1 radio is available for transmission and reception from the F/O's
station.
13 When using the Passenger address system, the priority of announcements are
Plug a headset into the jack socket in the CVR panel and press the Erase switch.
Press the test CVR test switch and after a slight delay observe the Monitor Indicator
rise into the red band.
Press the test CVR test switch and after a slight delay observe the Monitor Indicator
rise into the green band.
17 To erase the tape of the Cockpit Voice Recorder
Press the Erase button for 1 second only when the aircraft is on the ground and the
Parking Brake is set.
Press the Erase button for 9 seconds at any time.
Press the Erase button for 14 seconds only when the aircraft is on the ground and the
Parking Brake is set.
18 The pilot control wheel push to talk switch selected to INT allows
Direct transmission from the associated boom microphone only over the flight
interphone, bypassing the Audio Selector Panel transmitter Selector.
Direct transmission from the associated oxygen or boom microphone over the flight
interphone, provided the Audio Selector Panel Transmitter Selector is selected to FT
INT.
Direct transmission from the associated oxygen or boom microphone over the flight
interphone, bypassing the Audio Selector Panel transmitter selector.
ELECTRICS (737-3/4/500 Only)
Multiple-choice exercise
Disconnects the Generator Drive from the engine in the event of a Generator Drive
malfunction.
Disconnects the Generator Drive from the generator in the event of a Generator Drive
malfunction.
Disconnects the Generator Drive from the engine in the event of a Generator Drive
malfunction, only if the engine has been shut down first.
3 Recoupling of the Generator Drive drive shaft to the engine may be accomplished
Immediately extinguish as the power to the light comes from the Generator Drive
Disconnect Switch.
Flash repeatedly indicating successful Generator Drive uncoupling.
Remain on, until the Generator Drive oil has cooled.
5 The Generator Drive LOW OIL PRESSURE lights are
Amber lights on the forward overhead panel which will illuminate when Generator
Drive oil pressure is below minimum operating limits.
Red lights on the forward overhead panel which will illuminate when Generator Drive
oil pressure is below minimum operating limits.
Amber lights on the forward overhead panel which will flash repeatedly when
Generator Drive oil pressure is below minimum operating limits.
6 One of the basic principles of the electrical system is
External power must be selected OFF before the engine generators are brought on-
line.
External power will automatically disconnect when both engine generators are
brought on line.
External power will automatically disconnect when either engine generator is brought
on-line.
11 When the Generator Drive Temperature switch is selected to RISE, a higher than
normal generator drive oil temperature indicates
30 minutes.
45 minutes.
20 minutes.
16 The Switched Hot Battery Bus is powered from
26 - 35 volts.
28 - 30 volts.
24 - 30 volts.
19 The battery voltage range is
26 - 28 volts.
24 - 28 volts.
22 - 30 volts.
20 The maximum Generator Drive oil temperature / temperature rise is
157C / 20C
157C / 30C
215C / 11C
21 The Transfer Buses supply
That either Generator Bus is powered by the ground power supply. Light remains
illuminated as long as ground power is connected.
That both Generator Busses are powered by the ground power supply. Light remains
illuminated as long as ground power is connected.
That the External Power Bus is powered by the ground power supply. Light remains
illuminated as long as ground power is connected.
25 Under normal conditions the Standby AC bus is energised from the
Is not possible.
Is possible on the ground only.
Is possible in flight only.
32 With an engine Generator switch selected OFF and the associated engine is running,
the voltage of that generator will read
115 volts.
Residual volts when the residual volts switch is pressed.
Approximately 3 volts.
33 To connect the External Ground power to the aircraft's Generator busses
Isolates the transfer busses by preventing operation of the bus transfer relay and
opens the TR 3 disconnect relay only.
Isolates the transfer busses by preventing operation of the bus transfer relay, opens
the TR 3 disconnect relay and prevents connection of the battery charger to its
alternate power source ( Main Bus 2 ).
Isolates the transfer busses by preventing operation of the bus transfer relay, opens
the TR 1 and 2 disconnect relays and prevents connection of the battery to the Static
Invertor.
37 Which of the following statements is correct
TR 3 backs up TR 2 only.
TR 3 normally backs up TR 1 and TR 2 provided that the BUS TRANS switch is in
OFF.
TR 3 normally backs up TR 1 and TR 2 provided that the BUS TRANS switch is in
AUTO.
38 Standby A.C. power is available on touch down after a total electrical failure providing
A Generator drive unit which will disconnect when the APU Generator drive
disconnect switch is activated from the flight deck.
No Generator drive unit since the APU itself is governed and will maintain a constant
generator speed.
A Generator drive unit which will automatically disconnect when its oil temperature is
high.
40 If ground power is available and the Ground Service switch on the forward attendant's
panel is switched on, then power is supplied to
The Ground Service bus for utility outlets, cabin lighting and battery charger.
All the aircraft electrical busses.
The Ground Service bus for utility outlets and cabin lighting only.
41 An engine electrical generator is rated at
45 KVA
55 KVA
35 KVA
42 The T/R No. 3 disconnect relay automatically opens at glideslope capture to
Prevent a single bus failure from affecting both the navigation receivers and flight
control computers.
Provide backup power to the Standby DC bus.
Off-load the battery charger from the 115V AC GND SERVICE Bus.
43 After disconnecting a Generator Drive, its associated oil temperature indicator
A high bypass ratio turbo fan engine rated at 20,000 pounds of take-off thrust.
A high bypass ratio turbo fan engine rated at 22,000 pounds of take-off thrust.
A low bypass ratio turbo fan engine rated at 20,000 pounds of take-off thrust.
2 The CFM56-3 N1 rotor section consists of
9 stages.
3 stages.
4 stages.
4 The CFM56-3 N2 rotor section consists of
When pulled out disables the FMC input signal to the N1 indicator.
When pushed in allows manual setting of the N1 indicator cursor.
When pulled out enables the FMC input signal to the N1 indicator
6 The Red warning lights on the EIS or conventional Engine
instruments will
Flash repeatedly until the associated engine parameter is reduced below the
limit for that parameter.
Remain illuminated until the associated engine parameter is reduced below the
limit for that parameter.
When illuminated, will also illuminate the Master Caution ENG annunciator,
until the associated engine parameter is reduced below the limit for that
parameter.
7 The N1 RPM indicator indicates
The engine compressor speed in percent of RPM and is used as the primary
thrust setting reference.
The fan speed in percent of RPM and is used as the primary thrust setting
reference.
The engine turbine speed in percent of RPM and is used as the primary thrust
setting reference.
8 Rotating the N1 Manual Set knob (when pulled) will
Set the desired N1 in the upper digital display of the N1 RPM indicator ( EIS ).
Set the desired N1 RPM in the N1 Manual Set Indicator (EIS).
Set the desired N1 in the upper digital display of the N1 RPM indicator ( EIS )
with the N1 Manual Set Indicator blank.
9 Illuminating of the Red warning light above an EGT gauge indicates
The engine starter valve is open irrespective of air being supplied to the air
driven starter.
The Engine Start switch is in GRD.
The engine starter valve is open and air is being supplied to the air driven
starter.
13 The minimum engine oil pressure is
20psi
13psi
25psi
14 Illumination of the OIL FILTER BYPASS light
Show the engine vibration level throughout all sections of the engine.
Show the engine vibration level in the turbine section of the engine.
Show the engine vibration level in the fan section of the engine.
17 During an engine shutdown, the start switch holding solenoid is held in the cutout
position until
Opens the starter valve, closes the engine bleed air valve and the Right (
Standby AC Bus ) igniter is energised immediately when the Engine Start
Lever is placed to IDLE.
Opens the starter valve, closes the engine bleed air valve and the selected
igniter(s) are energised when the Engine Start Lever is placed to IDLE.
Opens the starter valve, closes the engine bleed air valve and the selected
igniter(s) are energised immediately.
20 Placing the Engine Start Switch to the CONT position
Provides high energy ignition to the Left igniter when the Engine Start Lever is
in the IDLE position.
Provides high energy ignition to the selected igniter(s) when the Engine Start
Lever is in the IDLE position.
Provides high energy ignition to the selected igniter(s) when the Engine Start
Lever is in the IDLE or CUTOFF positions.
21 Placing the Engine Start switch to the FLT position
Provides high energy ignition to both igniters when the Engine Start Lever is
positioned to IDLE.
Opens the starter valve and provides high energy ignition to both igniters when
the Engine Start Lever is positioned to IDLE.
Provides high energy ignition to the selected igniter(s) when the Engine Start
Lever is positioned to IDLE.
22 With the Ignition Select switch in the IGN R position
Energizes the ignition system, electrically opens the engine fuel shutoff valve in
the wing leading edge, and mechanically opens the MEC shutoff valve.
Energizes the ignition system, mechanically opens the engine fuel shutoff
valve in the wing leading edge, and electrically opens the MEC shutoff valve.
Energizes the ignition system, electrically opens the engine fuel and MEC
shutoff valves in the wing leading edge.
24 The PMC INOP indication is suppressed
Indicates the PMC is inoperative when engine speed is above 46% N2 only.
Indicates the PMC is inoperative when engine speed is above 46% N2 or the
PMC is selected OFF.
Indicates the PMC is selected OFF only.
26 The PMC is
A constant thrust climb feature once the thrust lever is set at the beginning of
the climb.
A constant EGT and Fuel Flow feature once the thrust lever is set at the
beginning of the climb.
A variable thrust climb feature once the thrust lever is set at the beginning of
the climb.
28 For detectable failure conditions, the PMC
Illuminates the PMC INOP, Master Caution and ENG annunciator lights only.
Schedules a slow N1 drift over approximately 30 seconds and illuminates the
PMC INOP light only.
Schedules a slow N1 drift over approximately 30 seconds and illuminates the
PMC INOP, Master Caution and ENG annunciator lights.
29 Illumination of the LOW IDLE light indicates
When on the ground, except for the first 4 seconds after touchdown.
At all stages of flight or on the ground.
When on the ground, except for the first 30 seconds after touchdown.
31 The High Idle RPM in flight is approximately
45% N1
32% N1
22% N1
32 The Fuel Flow Transmitter is located
1 The APU may be operated with APU bleed only up to a maximum altitude of
35,000ft
17,000ft
10,000ft
2 Maximum continuous EGT for Garrett APU operation is?
760 degrees C
710 degrees C
725 degrees C
3 The APU LOW OIL PRESSURE light is
The APU overspeed reset switch in the E & E compartment must be reset.
No further attempts should be made to start the APU.
Will extinguish when the APU switch is placed to START again.
6 Should the APU switch fail to shut-off the APU
The APU Overspeed Reset switch in the E & E compartment has been tripped
and must be reset.
Trip the APU fuel valve CB.
Pull up the APU Fire Warning Switch.
7 If the APU runs down due to fuel starvation, the Master Caution annunciation
system will show
The amber LOW OIL PRESSURE light is lluminated until the APU oil pressure
is normal (approx. 35% RPM).
The starter motor is engaged as soon as the master switch is released from
START to ON.
The blue APU GEN OFF BUS bus light goes out at 95% RPM.
10 The APU fuel heater
The APU can be used to power a generator bus above 37,000 feet altitude.
The APU can power Generator Bus 1 with ground power connected to
Generator Bus 2.
The APU can electrically power both Generator Buses in the air and on the
ground.
15 Maximum start EGT for Garrett APU operation is?
760 degrees C
710 degrees C
725 degrees C
16 The maximum aircraft altitude for both APU bleed and electrical load is?
10,000ft
17,000ft
35,000ft
17 The maximum aircraft altitude for APU electrical load is?
But 3 minutes cooling is required between the second and third attempt and a
wait of 30 minutes is required after the third start attempt.
But 3 minutes cooling is required between subsequent attempts.
But 5 minutes cooling is required between the second and third attempt and a
wait of one hour is required after the third start attempt.
21 If the APU generator is providing electrical power to the aircraft while on the
ground,
Two overheat/fire detection loops, each consisting of four detector elements, installed
in each engine nacelle.
Two dual element overheat/fire detection loops installed in each engine nacelle.
Four single element overheat/fire detection loops installed in each engine nacelle.
2 An overheat or fire alert will be given with the OVHT DET switch in NORMAL and both
loops serviceable when
If both loops sense a fault with the OVHT DET switch in the NORMAL position.
The other two answers are correct.
If the OVHT DET switch is to 'A' or 'B' and the selected loop senses a fault.
4 With the OVHT DET switch in the B position
Will illuminate the Master Caution, OVHT/DET annunciator, FAULT, WHEEL WELL
and APU DET INOP lights.
Will illuminate the Master Caution, OVHT/DET annunciator, FAULT and APU DET
INOP lights.
Will illuminate the Master Caution, FAULT annunciator and APU DET INOP light.
7 Holding the TEST switch to the OVHT/FIRE position with AC on the busses will
illuminate the
Master FIRE WARNING lights. Master Caution lights and OVHT/DET annunciator.
ENG 1, ENG 2 and APU Fire Warning lights. ENG 1 and ENG 2 OVERHEAT lights.
WHEEL WELL light. APU DET INOP light
Master FIRE WARNING lights. Master Caution lights and OVHT/DET annunciator.
ENG 1, ENG 2 and APU Fire Warning lights. ENG 1 and ENG 2 OVERHEAT lights.
WHEEL WELL light.
Master FIRE WARNING lights. Master Caution lights and OVHT/DET annunciator.
ENG 1, ENG 2 and APU Fire Warning lights. ENG 1 and ENG 2 OVERHEAT lights.
8 The Engine Fire Extinguisher system contains
Two freon bottles in the main wheel well with individual plumbing to their respective
engine and the APU.
One freon bottle in each engine nacelle with plumbing to either engine and APU.
Two freon bottles in the main wheel well with their associated plumbing to both
engines.
9 The Engine Fire Extinguisher system contains
Illumination of the master FIRE WARNING lights, associated engine fire switch light
and the sound of the fire horn.
Illumination of the master FIRE WARNING lights, associated engine fire switch light
and the sound of the alarm bell.
Illumination of the master FIRE WARNING lights, the associated engine fire switch
light, both bottle discharge lights flash indicating they are primed and the sound of the
alarm bell.
12 In the event of an engine fire warning, the bell may be silenced and the master FIRE
WARNING lights extinguished by
Pressing either master FIRE WARNING light or either bell cutout switch on the main
instrument panel.
Pressing either Master Caution light or the bell cutout switch on the fire panel.
Pressing either master FIRE WARNING light or the bell cutout switch on the fire
panel.
13 During the Engine Fire drill, the pneumatic ISOLATION VALVE switch should be
selected to
CLOSE.
AUTO.
OPEN.
14 Pulling an Engine Fire switch will
Close the fuel, hydraulic fluid shutoff and engine bleed air valves.
Silence the fire bell
Disable the thrust reverser.
Trip the generator control relay and breaker.
Extinguish both master FIRE WARN lights
Discharge the related fire bottle.
Deactivate the engine driven hydraulic pump LOW PRESSURE light.
Arm one discharge squib on each engine fire extinguisher.
Allow the engine fire warning switch to be rotated for discharge.
15 The power source for the Engine Overheat and Fire Detection is?
An amber BOTTLE DISCHARGE light (on the fire panel) illuminating a few seconds
after fire warning switch rotation.
An amber BOTTLE DISCHARGE light (on the fire panel) illuminating immediately on
fire warning switch rotation.
An red BOTTLE DISCHARGE light (on the fire panel) illuminating a few seconds after
fire warning switch rotation.
17 The APU Horn Cutout switch in the main wheel well
Will silence the fire alarm bell and the APU fire warning horn, and cause the APU fire
warning light (main wheel well) to stop flashing but remain illuminated.
Will silence the APU fire warning horn only, and cause the APU fire warning light
(main wheel well) to stop flashing but remain illuminated.
Will silence the fire alarm bell and the APU fire warning horn, and has no effect on the
APU fire warning light (main wheel well).
18 Pulling the APU Fire Control Handle in the main wheel well will
Close the APU fuel shutoff, bleed air valve and APU inlet door.
Cancels the APU fire warning horn.
Cause the APU fire warning light to stop flashing but remain illuminated.
Arm the APU bottle discharge switch on the APU ground control panel
Trip the generator control relay and generator breaker.
Discharges APU extinguisher.
The associated bottle discharge circuits for all engine extinguisher bottles are being
tested only.
The quantities of all extinguisher bottles are being tested.
The associated bottle discharge circuits for all 3 extinguisher bottles are being tested.
FLIGHT CONTROLS
2 Illumination of the Speed Trim Fail light (Master Caution Annunciator recall
is not activated)
3 Illumination of the Speed Trim Fail light when Master Caution recall is
activated
4 Illumination of the Auto Slat Fail light when Master Caution recall is
activated
5 Illumination of the Auto Slat Fail light (Master Caution Annunciator recall is
not activated)
Indicates failure of a single FCC channel.
Does not cause yaw damper disengagement but will illuminate the
amber YAW DAMPER light.
Is not indicated.
19 If the speed brake lever is not ARMED prior to landing. All the spoiler
panels will
Remain retracted after landing even when thrust levers are positioned
for reverse thrust.
20 If the speed brake lever is used in-flight (ie ARMED) and then returned to
DOWN prior to landing (SPEED BRAKE ARMED light extinguished). All the
spoiler panels will
Remain retracted after landing when thrust levers are positioned for
reverse thrust.
21 The Speed Brake Test switches (if installed)
Leading edge slats from the RETRACT to the EXTEND position and
back to the RETRACT position again.
Leading edge slats from the EXTEND to the FULL EXTEND position
and back to the EXTEND position again.
Classics: 4 - NG: 4
Classics: 6 - NG: 6
Classics: 6 - NG: 4
System A hydraulics.
System B hydraulics.
30 The Flap Load Limiter (B737-300) will retract the trailing edge flaps from
the 40 position to the 30 position if the airspeed exceeds
153 knots.
155 knots.
158 knots.
Cuts power to all electric trim motors and engages the trim clutch
allowing manual trimming of the stabiliser.
20,000 Feet.
15,000 Feet.
10,000 Feet.
36 The Speed Brake should not be deployed in flight at radio altitudes of less
than
2500 Feet.
1500 Feet.
1000 Feet.
37 The maximum speed for lowering the flaps using the alternate system is
230 knots.
210 knots.
220 knots.
38 If the MACH TRIM FAIL light is illuminated, limit mach number to
Activate the standby pump which will supply hydraulic pressure to the
ailerons, elevator and rudder.
43 The Alternate Flaps Position switch when selected to the UP position will
44 The elevator Feel Differential Pressure light illuminated indicates that there
is
Each pilot's control wheel with alternate trim switches on the centre
pedestal.
Each pilot's control wheel with alternate trim levers on the centre
pedestal.
47 The range of stabilizer movement using the main electric trim switches is
48 The range of stabilizer movement using the main electric trim switches is
When illuminated indicates that the landing gear is not down with the
Speed Brake in the ARMED position.
54 In the event of total hydraulic power failure, rotation of the pilots' control
wheels mechanically positions the
Ailerons
Flight Spoilers.
Aileron tabs.
They cause such a demand on the hydraulic system that the Autopilot
may trip off.
57 If the SPEED BRAKE DO NOT ARM light illuminates when the speed
brake lever is selected to the ARMED position
Then ensure the landing gear lever is selected DOWN before arming
the speed brake again.
Then the speed brake lever must be restricted to the DOWN position
and not used on touchdown.
58 If an asymmetric condition develops between the right and left wing trailing
edge flaps
The electric power is automatically removed from the flap drive unit
provided the normal flap drive system is in use.
The electrical power is automatically removed from the flap drive unit
provided the alternate flap drive system is in use.
The hydraulic power is automatically removed from the flap drive unit
provided the normal flap drive system is in use.
Is installed in the leading edge flap drive system and retracts the flaps
to flaps 30 (flap lever in the 40 position) when the airspeed is in
excess of 153 knots.
Is installed in the trailing edge flap drive system and retracts the flaps
to flaps 25 (flap lever in the 40 position) when the airspeed is in
excess of 158 knots.
Is installed in the trailing edge flap drive system and retracts the flaps
to flaps 30 (flap lever in the 40 position) when the airspeed is in
excess of 158 knots
System B and standby pump for the main rudder PCU and system A
for the standby rudder PCU.
System A and system B for the main rudder PCU and standby pump
for the standby rudder PCU.
System A and standby pump for the main rudder PCU and system B
for the standby rudder PCU.
63 When the Trailing Edge Flaps are selected from UP to the Flap 1 position
The Leading Edge Flaps drive to their fully extended position and the
Leading Edge Slats drive to the EXTEND position.
The Leading Edge Flaps drive to their fully extended position and the
Leading Edge Slats drive to the FULL EXTEND position.
A and B
10 degrees of flap.
1 degree of flap.
67 The Takeoff Configuration Warning system receives signals from
FMC
No. 2 ILS receiver.
No. 1 ILS receiver.
6 The Flight Recorder will operate on the ground
The aircraft's Mach number, from .25 to .99 Mach, in digital form
The aircraft's Mach number, from .50 to .99 Mach, in digital form and is
masked below .50 Mach.
The aircraft's Mach number, from .40 to .99 Mach, in digital form and is
masked below .40 Mach.
15 The Mach/Airspeed indicator's MACH warning flag will be in view when
ADC No. 1.
ADC No. 2.
Standby ADC.
22 How many Air Data Computers are fitted to the B737
Retracts the ILS pointers and ILS failure flags from view.
Retracts the ILS pointers only from view.
Retracts the ILS failure flags from view only.
NAVIGATION
Multiple-choice exercise
1 The No 1. VHF NAV is agility tuning. The DME-1 indications on each RDMI
160 Nm.
80 Nm.
40 Nm.
6 A WXR DSPY warning on an EHSI indicates
On the ground or in flight provided one IRS is fully aligned for cross-reference
purposes.
Any time the air/ground sensor is in ground mode.
On the ground and stationary only.
11 During auto tuning the No. 1 VHF NAV radio is providing unreliable data for position
updating to the FMC. The VHF NAV control panel automatic frequency window will
Unlimited waypoints.
25 waypoints.
20 waypoints.
14 During Alternate Nav System operation an IRS fails. The IRS Transfer switch
Can transfer navigation inputs from the No. 2 IRS to the Captains AN/CDU only.
Can transfer navigation inputs from the other IRS.
Cannot transfer navigation inputs from the other IRS.
15 To define the origin airport on the FMC Route page
At any time.
On the ground only.
In flight only.
18 The REF NAV DATA pages allow the crew to inhibit
One VOR or DME from being used for FMC position updating.
Up to 2 VORs or DMEs from being used for FMC position updating.
Up to 5 VORs or DMEs from being used for FMC position updating.
19 All waypoints in the AN/CDU flight plan
The IRS self test determines the data to be of an unreasonable value and the entry is
not accepted by the IRS.
The Centre, Left and Right (CLR) function of the IRS is fully operational.
The IRS self test determines the data to be of an unreasonable value but the entry is
accepted by the IRS.
23 The IRS store magnetic variation data between the
73 degrees North and 60 degrees South latitudes.
73 degrees North and 73 degrees South latitudes.
60 degrees North and 73 degrees South latitudes.
24 The left IRS requires a full alignment so it is selected OFF. All electrical power is
TK/GS position.
HDG/STS position.
PPOS position.
26 The IRS provides.
The CDU setting up must be performed from the Left (Captain's) position and not the
Right (F/O's) position.
The difference between the entered IRS Present Position and the origin airport is
greater than 10 NM.
The difference between the entered IRS Present Position and the origin airport is
greater than 4 NM.
28 The FMC CRZ page displays a TURB N1 value which is a reference display of the
N1% for turbulance penetration and it
The airspeed is 15 knots or more above FMC target speed or within 15 Knots of
Vmo/Vmmo.
The airspeed is 10 knots or more above FMC target speed or within 5 Knots of
Vmo/Vmmo.
The airspeed is 20 knots or more above FMC target speed or within 5 Knots of
Vmo/Vmmo.
HYDRAULICS
Multiple-choice exercise
The pump will be automatically switched off and the OVERHEAT LIGHT
extinguished.
Turn the associated system electric and engine hydraulic pumps OFF.
Turn the associated system electric hydraulic pump OFF.
3 A leak in the hydraulic system B engine driven pump or its associated lines
would be indicated by
Only when the standby pump operation has been selected or automatic
standby function is activated.
At all times.
Only when the standby pump operation has been selected or either Spoiler
switch has been selected to OFF.
5 The standby hydraulic pump only supplies pressure to the
The standby pump will be activated and the standby hydraulic LOW
QUANTITY light will be armed.
The standby pump will be de-activated allowing system A pressure to power
the rudder and the standby hydraulic LOW PRESSURE light will be armed.
The standby pump will be activated and the standby hydraulic LOW
PRESSURE light will be armed.
7 Low fluid quantity in the A system reservoir can be indicated by one of the
following
None.
Aileron and elevator.
Rudder only.
9 The A and B hydraulic reservoirs are pressurised by
3000 : 3500psi
2500 : 3200psi
3000 : 3750psi
12 The Standby hydraulic reservoir is kept topped up from
One engine driven pump (ENG 1) and one electrical motor pump (ELECT
1).
One engine driven pump (ENG 1) and one electrical motor pump (ELECT
2).
One engine driven pump (ENG 1), one electrical motor pump (ELECT 1)
and one standby electric pump.
14 Illumination of a Hydraulic Electric Pump OVERHEAT light indicates
3000psi
3250psi
3500psi
17 Loss of the A hydraulic system will result in the complete loss of the following
During the take-off or landing with a wheel speed greater than 60 Kts and
the wing flaps extended.
During the take-off or landing with a wheel speed greater than 90 Kts and
wing flaps extended.
During the take-off or landing with a wheel speed greater than 60 Kts
irrespective of the wing flaps position.
20 The indications of a leak in the standby reservoir are
One standpipe.
Two standpipes.
One standpipe used for reservoir pressurisation of the standby reservoir.
23 Placing the A Flt Control switch to STBY RUD position will
Start the standby pump, arm the standby hydraulic LOW PRESSURE light,
close the A system Flight Control Shutoff valve and the A system Flt Control
LOW PRESSURE light is de-activated when the standby rudder shutoff
valve opens.
Start the standby pump, arm the standby hydraulic LOW PRESSURE light,
close the A and B system Flight Control Shutoff valves and the A system
Flt
Control LOW PRESSURE light is de-activated when the standby rudder
shutoff valve opens.
Start the standby pump, close the A system Flight Control Shutoff valve and
the A system Flt Control LOW PRESSURE light is de-activated when the
standby rudder shutoff valve opens.
24 Using the Standby Hydraulic power for thrust reverser deployment will cause
Stop the fluid to the No.1 Engine Driven and electric hydraulic pump by
closing the Hydraulic Shutoff valve and de-activate the associated low
pressure light.
Stop the fluid to the No. 1 Engine Driven hydraulic pump by closing the
Hydraulic Shutoff valve and de-activate the associated low pressure light.
Only stop the fluid to the No. 1 Engine Driven Hydraulic pump by closing the
Hydraulic Shutoff valve.
28 The engine driven hydraulic pump switch
In the OFF position will de-activate the hydraulic LOW PRESS light.
Is left in the ON position on shutdown to prolong the life of the blocking
valve solenoid.
Should be switched OFF in the event of the electric hydraulic pump
OVERHEAT light illuminating.
FUEL
Multiple-choice exercise
1 Classics only: When both Centre Tank Fuel pump switches are turned OFF, the fuel
scavenge shut-off valve
Opens allowing pressure from the No. 1 tank forward pump to operate the Centre
Tank Scavenge Jet pump, which transfers the remaining centre tank fuel to the No. 2
tank.
Closes for 20 minutes allowing fuel pressure from the No. 2 tank forward pump to
operate the Centre Tank Scavenge Jet pump, which transfers the remaining centre
tank fuel to the No. 2 tank.
Opens for 20 minutes allowing fuel pressure from the No. 1 tank forward pump to
operate the Centre Tank Scavenge Jet pump, which transfers the remaining centre
tank fuel to the No. 1 tank.
2 A shut-off system is used during refuelling to
Automatically close the fuelling valve in each fuel tank when the tank is full.
Prevent refuelling pressures in excess of 50 psi.
Automatically close the Manual Defuelling Valve when the wing tanks are full.
3 Fuel Quantity indicators will display
Select the No. 1 Main tank fuel pumps ON, the crossfeed valve CLOSED and the
Manual Defuelling valve OPEN.
Select the No. 1 Main tank fuel pumps ON, the Crossfeed valve OPEN and the
Manual Defuelling valve OPEN.
Select the No. 1 and No. 2 Main tank fuel pumps ON, the Crossfeed valve OPEN and
the Manual Defuelling valve OPEN.
5 The Fuel Temperature Indicator reads the temperature of the fuel in
Select the No. 2 Main tank fuel pumps ON, the crossfeed valve OPEN and the
Manual Defueling valve OPEN.
Select the No. 2 Main tank fuel pumps ON and the Manual Defuelling valve OPEN.
Select the No. 1 and No. 2 Main tank fuel pumps ON, the Crossfeed valve OPEN and
the Manual Defueling valve OPEN.
11 Fuel for the APU is
Will be fed to the main tanks by the centre tank scavenge jet pump.
Can be used by switching off all wing tank pumps and opening the crossfeed valve.
Cannot be used.
15 With no pressure refuelling system available, the aircraft (737 - 1-500 only) can be
refuelled by
Using standard overwing fuelling receptacles for gravity fuelling of the No. 1 tank only.
The No.2 tank can then be filled using the fuel transfer pumps.
Using standard overwing fuelling receptacles for gravity fuelling of the No. 1 and No.
2 and centre tanks.
Using standard overwing fuelling receptacles for gravity fuelling of the No. 1 and No.
2 tanks only.
16 The maximum allowable lateral fuel imbalance between No. 1 and No. 2 tanks is
Switch on all main tank fuel pumps and close the crossfeed valve.
Switch off the associated fuel pump if both pump LOW
Switch on all main tank fuel pumps and open the crossfeed valve.
18 The Crossfeed Selector in the OPEN position
Connects the engine No 1 and No. 2 fuel feed lines by opening the fuel crossfeed
valve.
Extinguishes the blue VALVE OPEN light.
Connects the engine No 1 and No. 2 fuel feed lines by opening the fuel crossfeed and
fuel shut-off valves.
19 The Centre Tank Fuelling Valve Position light on the External Fuelling Panel is
Blue and is extinguished when the centre tank fuelling valve is closed.
Blue and is illuminated when the centre tank fuelling valve is closed.
Red and is extinguished when the centre tank fuelling valve is closed.
20 The External Fuelling Panel is located
1 AC powered fuel pumps which is fuel cooled and lubricated, and 1 DC fuel pump.
2 AC powered fuel pumps which are fuel cooled and lubricated.
2 DC powered fuel pumps.
22 Which valve connects the fuel (engine) manifold to the fuelling manifold
Amount of fuel (usuable and unusable) in the related tank, to an accuracy of 2.5% of
full scale reading.
Amount of usable fuel in the related tank, to an accuracy of 2.5% of actual reading.
Amount of usable fuel in the related tank, to an accuracy of 2.5% of full scale reading.
25 A digital fuel quantity indicator has an accuracy of
Standby DC power.
Standby AC power.
Switched Hot battery Bus power.
27 If the centre tank is scheduled to contain more than 453 Kgs then
Classics: The centre tank pumps must remain OFF and the No1 tank FWD pump
must be ON.
NG's: The No1 tank must be about half full and the No1 tank FWD pump must be ON.
Classics: The centre tank pumps must be turned OFF and the No1 tank FWD pump
must be ON.
NG's: The No1 tank must be about half full and the No1 tank FWD pump must be ON.
Classics: The centre tank pumps must be cycled OFF then ON and the No1 tank
FWD pump must be ON.
NG's: The No1 tank must be about half full and the No1 tank FWD pump must be ON.
29 The Engine Fuel Shut Off valves
Are AC operated to OPEN, and mechanically closed by the engine start lever or fire
switch.
Are cable operated to CLOSE or OPEN.
Are Hot Battery Bus powered and may be closed by the engine start lever or the
respective engine fire switch.
LANDING GEAR
Multiple-choice exercise
One alternate brake metering valve connected to all alternate antiskid valves.
Two anti-skid valves.
Four anti-skid valves.
2 The accumulator isolation valve is closed by
By system B hydraulic power but has a manual extension facility and system A
hydraulic power as back-ups.
By system B hydraulic power but has a manual extension facility as a back-up.
By system A hydraulic power but has a manual extension facility as a back-up.
5 When using manual extension to extend the landing gear
Pull the middle handle approximately 12 inches to unlock the nose gear and pull the
other handles approximately 10 inches to unlock each main gear.
Pull the middle handle approximately 18 inches to unlock the nose gear and pull the
other handles approximately 8 inches to unlock each main gear.
Pull the middle handle approximately 8 inches to unlock the nose gear and pull the
other handles approximately 18 inches to unlock each main gear.
6 While the landing gear is being extended manually, the landing gear lever must be
selected to
A steady horn will sound which cannot be silenced (reset) with the Horn Cut-out
switch.
A steady horn will sound which cannot be silenced (reset) with the Horn Cut-out
switch, but can be silenced if either thrust lever is in a high forward thrust position.
A steady horn will sound which can be silenced (reset) with the Horn Cut-out switch.
9 Classics only - With either or both thrust levers retarded to idle, the landing gear not
down and locked and the flaps are up
Red warning lights will illuminate and intermittent horn will sound.
Red warning lights will illuminate.
Red warning lights will illuminate and a steady horn will sound.
10 Classics only - The main gear viewer is (normally) located
Opposite the 2nd window behind the aft overwing exit and in the centre of the aisle.
Opposite the 3rd window behind the aft overwing exit and one foot left (port) of
centre.
Opposite the 3rd window behind the aft overwing exit and one foot right (starboard) of
centre.
11 If the nose gear lockout pin is not installed
Active at all times irrespective of the gear position, as it can only demand +/- 7
degrees of nose wheel movement.
Deactivated as the nose gear strut extends after takeoff.
Deactivated whenever the gear is up and locked.
13 Rudder pedal steering
Select the Autobrake Select switch to OFF and brake with caution.
Select the Antiskid control switch to OFF.
No action is required.
16 During landing with the autobrake system armed the brakes will be automatically
applied
When the aircraft is on the ground, the anti-skid control switch is ON and the
autobrake select switch is in the 1,-2, 3 or MAX positions.
When the main wheels spin up on landing.
When the aircraft is in flight, the anti-skid control switch is ON and the autobrake
select switch is in the 1,2, 3 or MAX positions.
19 After manual extension of the landing gear, the indication on the flight deck that the
correct procedure has been carried out is
3 red lights.
3 green lights.
3 green lights and 3 red lights.
20 The alternate brake system is powered by
Accumulator pressure.
System A hydraulics.
System B hydraulics.
21 The nose wheel steering lockout pin
3000psi
1500psi
1000psi
24 The 737 brake system has
The autobrake select switch will remain in the RTO position after take-off until placed
in the OFF position.
The autobrake DISARM light will illuminate after take-off until the autobrake select
switch is placed to the OFF position.
The autobrake select switch will automatically return to the OFF position after take-
off.
28 When the autobrake RTO mode is selected on the ground
The AUTOBRAKE DISARM light should not illuminate. After 2 seconds the light will
extinguish.
The AUTOBRAKE DISARM light will illuminate for approximately 2 seconds to
indicate self test initiation. After 2 seconds the light will extinguish.
The speedbrake lever must be armed to initiate the automatic self test.
29 On an aborted take-off with autobrake RTO mode selected
Braking, equivalent to full manual braking, will be applied if the groundspeed is more
than 90 knots.
Braking, equivalent to full manual braking, will be appliedif the groundspeed is less
than 90 knots but greater than 60 knots.
Braking, equivalent to the MAX autobrake setting, will be applied if the groundspeed
is more than 90 knots.
30 If a landing is made with RTO left selected
Full automatic RTO braking occurs and the AUTOBRAKE DISARM light would not
illuminate.
No automatic braking action occurs and the AUTOBRAKE DISARM light will
illuminate 2 seconds after landing.
No automatic braking action occurs and the AUTOBRAKE DISARM light will
illuminate two minutes after landing.
31 Selecting Nose Wheel Steering switch on the Captain's Instrument panel to ALT
provides the
The nitrogen precharge in the brake accumulator has leaked out, normal braking is
not available but alternate braking is unaffected.
The nitrogen precharge in the brake accumulator has leaked out, accumulator braking
is not available but normal braking is unaffected.
The nitrogen precharge in the brake accumulator has leaked out and alternate brakes
will not be available in the event of system B failure.
33 Classics only - With Flap 5 selected and the gear not down and locked, both Forward
Thrust Levers are retarded to below approximately 10 degrees thrust lever angle. The
gear warning horn sounds and
Can not be cancelled by the Landing Gear Horn Cut-Out switch. (Thrust levers
remaining at idle).
Can not be cancelled even by moving one of the Thrust levers forward to
approximately the 30 degrees thrust lever angle.
Can be cancelled by the Landing Gear Horn Cut-Out switch. (Thrust levers remaining
at idle).
35 With Flap 25 selected and the gear not down and locked, both Thrust Levers are
retarded to below approximately 10 degrees thrust lever angle. The gear warning horn
sounds and
Can not be cancelled by the Landing Gear Horn Cut-Out switch or by any position of
the Thrust levers.
Can be cancelled by the Landing Gear Horn Cut-Out switch.
Can be cancelled by moving one of the Thrust levers forward to approximately the 30
degrees thrust lever angle.
36 The normal pressure for the Hydraulic Brake pressure indicator is
1000psi
2800psi
3000psi
WARNING SYSTEMS
Multiple-choice exercise
1 NGs only: With flap 15 selected and landing gear UP, the landing gear warning horn
cannot be silenced with the HORN CUTOUT switch if
Stab trim is NOT in the green band range, or the trailing edge flaps are NOT in the
Flaps 1 through 15 take-off range, or the leading edge FLAPS are NOT in the correct
position for take-off or the speed brake is NOT in the DOWN position or the Parking
Brake is set.
Stab trim is NOT in the green band range, or the trailing edge flaps are NOT in the
Flaps 1 through 15 take-off range, or the Parking Brake is NOT set.
Stab trim is in the green band range, or the trailing edge flaps are in the Flaps 1
through 15 take-off range, or the leading edge SLATS are not in the correct position for
take-off or the speed brake is NOT in the DOWN position or the Parking Brake is set.
3 Classics: The landing gear warning horn will sound if either or both thrust levers are
approximately in the idle position and the flaps are in the
In the 15 position.
Greater than the 15 position.
In the 15 position or greater than the 15 position.
5 The Mach/Airspeed Aural Warning will sound when the Mach number or IAS exceeds