Assessment Manual Exam

ISO/TS16949 Assessment Manual Training
Effectiveness Evaluation Examination
1. Which of these types of organisations are NOT eligible for ISO/TS16949:2002

certification?
a) Vehicle assembly plants
b) Heat Treatment organisations
c) Distributors
d) Aftermarket part manufacturers
e) A and C
f) C and D
g) All of the above are eligible for certification if they have an automotive customer
2. Organisations who are not currently in the automotive supply chain can achieve TS16949
certification if they have strategic plans to break into the chain :
a) True
b) False
3. What is the MAXIMUM reduction allowable against audit days quoted in TS scheme
rules, Annex 3 ?
a) 45% (15% non design and 30% QS)
b) 65% (15% non-design, 30% QS and 20% Corporate)
c) Only 15% non-design reduction can be applied
d) No reductions are possible on initial audit days
e) 50%, irrespective of possible discounts applicable
4. Reduction in audit days based on existing certification cannot be applied if :

a) Scope is changed
b) Certification Body is changed
c) Client Manager is changed
d) All of the above
e) A and B only
5. Audit days for a centralised design centre, supporting several manufacturing sites should
be calculated by :
a) Relating employees at design centre to TS scheme rules audit day table
b) Adding employees at design centre to one of the sites, and relating total to TS
scheme rules audit day table
c) Apportioning employees at design centre against all sites, and relating totals to
scheme rules audit day table, then allocating days as appropriate to design centre
d) Remote design centres cannot achieve independent certification, so it is not
necessary to visit them as part of site assessments
6. The results of any audit day calculation must be rounded up to the nearest half day :
a) True
b) False
7. Relating to Pre-Assessment, which of these conditions are correctly defined ?

a) Multiple pre-assessments on any one site are not allowed
b) Time dedicated to the pre-assessment can be used to reduce initial assessment
duration
c) Assessor must be PTS16949E2 qualified on Pt Global profile
d) Pre-assessment duration is limited to 50% of initial assessment time
e) All of the above
f) A and D only
g) A, B and C only
Paper 1 Issue 1.1, October 2005

Page 1 of 19
8. Where a single pre-assessment is performed to an organisation, the time allocated for

the pre-assessment can be split over a number of visits :
a) True
b) False
9. Once Stage 1 audit has been successfully completed, it is prohibited to perform a

pre-assessment visit :
a) True
b) False
10. The auditor performing the pre-assessment should ideally be the auditor who will be
Team Leader for the Stage 1 and Stage 2 audits :
a) True
b) False
11. TS16949 initial assessment is now a 2 stage process, as defined in ISO/IEC DIS
17021 :
a) True
b) False incorrect
12. When should the audit team be selected ?

a) After pre-assessment has been performed
b) After Stage 1 Audit has been performed
c) Within 10 days of commencement of Stage 2 Audit
d) At the commencement of the assessment process
e) When the client advises which auditors he wants to perform the assessment
13. Which of these requirements relate to TS16949 audit teams ?

a) All members must be IATF qualified auditors
b) All members must hold full BSI ISO/TS16949 auditor status
c) At least one member holds the relevant T-code(s) for the client operations
d) A team of 2 auditors minimum is required for assessments of 5 or more mandays
e) All of the above
f) A and C only
g) A, C and D only
14. The Stage 1 audit should be conducted by the Stage 2 audit team leader :
a) True
b) False
15. Where the services of an interpreter are required due to the language skills of the
audit team, the audit time spent using the interpreter must be increased by 50% :
a) True
b) False
16. Sales activity related to a specific organisation would be considered as a conflict of

interest and would effectively prevent any auditor who had also provided such
services from performing TS assessment activity to the same organisation :
a) True
b) False
17. There is no difference in the BSI requirements for audit teams for initial or
surveillance audits :
a) True

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b) False

Page 3 of 19
18. An external technical expert can be used on any TS audit, to cover instances where
the team members do not hold the T-code for the organisation being assessed :
a) True
b) False
19. Where an external technical expert is used, their time must be additional to the
audit day requirements of TS rules Annex 3 :
a) True
b) False
20. Which of the following contains guidance for audit plans ?

a) ISO/IEC DIS 17021
b) ISO9000:2000
c) ISO19011
d) TS16949 Scheme Rules, Annex 5
21. The Stage 2 audit should gather evidence to determine whether the organisation’s
management system :
a) Conforms to TS16949 and other certification requirements
b) Is effectively implemented
c) Is understood throughout the organisation
d) All of the above
e) B and C only
22. Where Opportunities for Improvement are identified by the audit team, specific
solutions should also be given, to assist the organisation in improving their
operations :
a) True
b) False
23. Which of the following should be covered as part of the Stage 2 audit ?
a) Performance monitoring, measuring, reporting and reviewing against key
performance objectives and targets
b) Links between policy, performance objectives and targets
c) The system organisation and performance as regards legal compliance
d) All of the above
e) A and B only
24. Which of the following contains guidance for audit report content ?
a) ISO/IEC DIS 17025
b) ISO9004:2000
c) ISO19011
d) TS16949 Scheme Rules, Annex 3
25. Which products must be included into the scope of assessment/registration, at

minimum?
a) All products manufactured by the company
b) All automotive products manufactured by the company
c) Only those products determined by the company
d) All products meeting the applicability of ISO/TS 16949:2002 supplied to those
customers subscribing to ISO/TS 16949:2002
e) Only products supplied to Big 3 customers

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26. Which customer specific requirements must a company capture into their system, at
minimum ?
a) All requirements from all customers
b) All requirements from their ISO/TS16949 subscribing customers
c) No need to capture any customer specifics
27. Which of these can be considered as Permitted Exclusions for ISO/TS16949:2002 ?

a) Any clause not considered necessary by the organisation
b) Any clauses within section 7
c) Design and Servicing clauses
d) Product Design and Development
e) No clauses can be excluded for ISO/TS16949:2002
28. What is the requirement for audit day duration for Stage 2 audit ?
a) Up to 7 hours
b) A full normal working day of 8 hours
c) Audit day should match organisation’s operating hours
d) There is no defined requirements for length of audit day
29. What is the requirement for shift coverage at Stage 2 audit ?

a) All shift patterns must be covered
b) All shift patterns (except rotating weekend shifts) must be covered
c) Only day shifts need to be covered, night shift should be covered at least once in the
following period
d) There is no specific requirement for shift coverage at initial assessments
30. Where the organisation operates shifts and the normal working day is extended to
cover these shifts, the additional time worked can be deducted from subsequent
audit days :
a) True
b) False
31. Calendar days for a Stage 2 audit can be reduced by programming longer days and
accumulating hours to give the required audit duration :
a) True
b) False
32. No nonconformity raised by the audit team during the Stage 2 audit can be closed
by the organisation during the audit :
a) True
b) False
33. No certification to ISO/TS16949 can be issued while open nonconformities exist

a) True
b) False
34. Which of the following documents must be completed by each auditor as part of the
key records of Stage 2 audit ?
a) A7 Assessment Detail Sheet
b) Process Audit Preparation form (A7 Turtle)
c) TS16949 Quality Systems Assessment Checklist
d) All of the above
e) A and B only

Page 5 of 19
35. Areas Assessed Matrix (form A556) is not required if the organisation has already
completed and supplied a copy of the Requirements to Management System matrix
(form A755) :
a) True
b) False
36. Identification of Major nonconformities may be a reason to terminate the Stage 2

audit. The formal decision on whether to terminate or not is the ultimate
responsibility of :
a) The organisation
b) The audit team
c) The relevant BSI TS16949 Hub Technical Representative
d) The audit team leader
37. Where termination of the Stage 2 audit occurs, there is no requirement to complete
an audit report – the minimum requirement is that the termination is advised
verbally to the organisation :
a) True
b) False
38. Termination of Stage 2 audit requires re-commencement of activities from :

a) The start of the process
b) The start of Stage 2 audit, if still within 90 days of original Stage 1 audit
c) A limited re-assessment, commencing from the point at which original Stage 2 audit
was terminated
39. The time spent on completion of the Stage 2 audit report should be :
a) At least 2 hours per auditor
b) A maximum of 4 hours across the team
c) No more than 10% of total audit duration
d) There is no rule covering time for completion of audit reports
40. Surveillance audit frequency for any site can be :

a) 6-monthly
b) 9-monthly
c) 12-monthly
d) Any of the above
e) A or C only
41. First surveillance audit is scheduled from :

a) The end of the Stage 2 audit
b) The end of the nonconformity follow-up visit after the Stage 2 audit
c) The date of Veto Review PASS verdict
d) The date of certificate issue
42. Surveillance audit durations are calculated from the total initial audit duration
requirements for the size of the organisation as shown in Annex 3 of TS rules :
a) True
b) False
43. It is permissible, where surveillance audits have half day durations, to alternate visit
durations to achieve full audit days, eg. 6-monthly visits of 1.5 days duration could
be completed as one visit of 1 days and one visit of 2 days :
a) True

Page 6 of 19
b) False

Page 7 of 19
44. Surveillance audits must be performed in planned month, to meet TS scheme

requirements :
a) True
b) False
45. The three year plan, contained in the Stage 2 audit report (or third year
recertification audit report), should :
a) Be based on the processes of the organisation
b) Take into consideration the results of the Stage 2 audit to prioritise areas of lower
achievement
c) Focus on achieved performance as reflected by customer satisfaction metrics
d) All of the above
e) A and B only
46. It is permissible to sample customer specific requirements at each surveillance

audit in a cycle so that all requirements are covered in the certification period :
a) True
b) False
47. Plan for first surveillance audit should be completed into the Stage 2 audit report:
a) True
b) False
48. Which of the following must be covered at each surveillance audit ?

a) Internal Audits and Management Review
b) Customer Complaints
c) Section 4 of TS16949
d) All of the above
e) A and B only
49. What is the requirement for shift coverage at surveillance audits ?

a) All shift patterns must be covered
b) All shift patterns (except rotating weekend shifts) must be covered
c) Only day shifts need to be covered, night shift should be covered at least once in the
following period
d) There is no specific requirement for shift coverage at initial assessments
50. All manufacturing sites within any certification must be visited :

a) Every 6 months
b) At minimum annually
c) At least once in each certification cycle
d) In line with an agreed sampling plan
51. Any remote design centre within any certification must be visited :
a) Every 6 months
52. Any on-site design function within any certification must be visited :
a) Every 6 months

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53. All remote support locations (except design centres) within any certification must be
visited :
a) Every 6 months
54. Scheduling of third year recertification audit is taken from :

a) The end of the Stage 2 audit
b) The end of the nonconformity follow-up visit after the Stage 2 audit
c) The date of certificate issue
d) The date of certificate expiry
55. Third year recertification audit can be performed within minus 3 months, plus one
month of the planned date :
a) True
b) False
56. If the third year recertification audit is not performed within the 3 year period as
specified in the TS rules, a full initial assessment would be required :
a) True
b) False
57. What are the possible outcomes of a Stage 2 audit ?

a) Pass, Open, Fail
b) Recommended, Open Fail
c) Recommended, Open, Not Recommended
d) Recommended and Open only – Not Recommended is not used for third party
assessments
58. If a major nonconformity is identified during Stage 2 audit, a follow-up visit should
be used to review the resolution of the nonconformities rather than a corrective
action pack :
a) True
b) False
59. What is the maximum timescale allowed for closure of nonconformities raised at
Stage 2 audit ?
a) 60 days from end of Stage 2 audit
b) 75 days from end of Stage 2 audit
c) 90 days from end of Stage 2 audit
d) 120 days from end of Stage 2 audit
60. What actions must be completed within this maximum timescale ?

a) Client must supply corrective action plan to team leader for review
b) Client must supply corrective action pack to team leader for review
c) Team leader must accept client’s corrective action plan, and have booked the first
surveillance audit
d) Team leader must confirm resolution of all nonconformities raised at the Stage 2 audit

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61. When would an OPEN verdict be given at Stage 2 audit ?

a) Where only minor nonconformities have been identified
b) Where one major and a number of minor nonconformities have been identified
c) Where the team leader considers corrective action can be taken on the
nonconformities identified within the 90 day timescale
d) Where nonconformities raised have been closed during the assessment
62. Under what circumstances would an OPEN verdict be downgraded to NOT

RECOMMENDED ?
a) Client corrective action pack not received within 60 days of completion of Stage 2
audit
b) Follow-up visit not conducted within 75 days of completion of Stage 2 audit
c) Failure of Team Leader to confirm 100% resolution of all nonconformities raised
within 90 days of completion of Stage 2 audit
63. If a NOT RECOMMENDED verdict is given at Stage 2 audit, what would be the next
step for the client ?
a) Re-commence from start of process (ie. from Stage 1 audit)
b) Re-commence from start of Stage 2 audit
c) Request a limited re-assessment
d) Change certification bodies
64. Clients can use the IATF logo on :

a) Company letterhead paper, in conjunction with BSI logo and certificate number
b) Any paperwork independent of BSI logo
c) Electronic media and internet
d) B and C
e) Client cannot use IATF logo in any situation
65. Clients can use the UKAS/RvA/RAB logos on :

a) Company letterhead paper, in conjunction with BSI logo and certificate number
b) Any paperwork independent of BSI logo
c) Electronic media and internet
d) B and C
e) Client cannot use accreditation body logos in conjunction with ISO/TS16949
certification
66. Which of the following is the correct requirement applied to surveillance audits ?
a) All assessors from Stage 2 audit must participate in the first surveillance audit
b) At least one assessor from the Stage 2 audit should participate in all audits of the 3-
year audit cycle
c) Surveillance audits should be allocated to the closest qualified auditor
d) Allocation of surveillance audits should be performed to balance workloads between
auditors
67. Which Stage 2 audit team qualification requirement(s) can be waived for
surveillance audits ?
a) All members must be IATF qualified auditors
b) At least one member holds full BSI ISO/TS16949 auditor status
c) At least one member holds the relevant T-code(s) for the client operations
d) A team of 2 auditors minimum is required for assessments of 5 or more days
e) B and C
f) None of the above – all of the same rules apply to surveillance audits

Page 10 of 19
68. Nonconformities from Stage 2 audit do not need to be reviewed at first surveillance
audit if they have previously been closed via a client corrective action pack :
a) True
b) False
69. Any time spent at surveillance audit to review previous audit corrective actions is
incorporated into the audit days as shown in the table in TS Annex 3:
a) False
b) True
70. What action should be taken if any minor nonconformities from previous audit are
found to be still open at the next audit ?
a) Terminate assessment immediately and recommend certificate withdrawal
b) Re-raise nonconformity as MAJOR
c) Re-raise nonconformity as MINOR
d) Re-raise as Observation
e) Note requirement to follow-up next time into Assessment Detail reports
71. Where new customer specific requirements are highlighted, these must be audited
at or before the next scheduled surveillance audit :
a) True
b) False
72. The review of additional customer requirements may require extra time in addition
to the surveillance audit duration :
a) True
b) False
73. Any extension to scope activities performed at the time of a normal surveillance
audit should be reported in the normal surveillance audit template format :
a) True
b) False
74. Areas Assessed Matrix (form A556) must be completed for each surveillance audit,
but a single matrix can be used to cover the complete certification cycle instead of a
separate matrix for each surveillance audit :
a) True
b) False
75. If all planned activities are not covered in any surveillance audit, the following
action(s) should be taken :
a) Identify shortfall in audit report
b) Update 3-year plan to include processes not addressed into a subsequent audit in the
certification cycle
c) Extend certification cycle with an additional surveillance audit to accommodate
additional time requirements
d) All of the above
e) A and B only
76. Root cause analysis is not required for nonconformities raised at surveillance audits
– this is only required for Stage 2 and Recertification audits :
a) True
b) False

Page 11 of 19
77. Where at surveillance audit it is determined that the organisation has not supplied
products to the automotive supply chain for a period of 12 months, the following
action should be taken by the Team Leader :
a) Recommend certificate suspension
b) Recommend certificate cancellation
c) Recommend change from certificate to letter of conformance
d) Record in audit report and follow-up at next surveillance audit
78. What action is required to verify actions against a MAJOR nonconformity raised at a
surveillance audit ?
a) Review of corrective action plan
b) Review of corrective action pack
c) On-site verification of actions
79. What is the timescale for full closure of any MAJOR nonconformities raised at
surveillance audit ?
a) Within 60 days of completion of surveillance audit
b) Within 90 days of completion of surveillance audit
c) Within 120 days of completion of surveillance audit
d) Before next scheduled surveillance audit
80. What is the required action if any major nonconformities are not fully closed within
the stipulated timescale ?
a) Re-raise nonconformities as MAJOR and allow a further 120 days for closure
b) Re-raise nonconformities as Observations and follow up at next surveillance audit
c) Organisation certification placed onto suspension and allow a further 120 days for
resolution
d) Recommend certification withdrawal
81. What is the timescale for BSI verification of full closure of any MINOR
nonconformities raised at surveillance audit ?
a) Within 60 days of completion of surveillance audit
b) Within 90 days of completion of surveillance audit
c) Within 120 days of completion of surveillance audit
d) Review at next scheduled surveillance audit
82. Where changes to certification are recommended during a surveillance audit, full
closure of any nonconformities raised will be required prior to processing of the
change :
a) True
b) False
83. What is the required minimum duration of an audit to transfer TS certification from
another Certification Body ?
a) Initial audit days as shown in audit day table in Annex 3 of TS scheme rules
b) Recertification audit days as shown in audit day table in Annex 3 of TS scheme rules
c) Surveillance audit days as shown in audit day table in Annex 3 of TS scheme rules
d) No transfer audit is required – review of documentation is sufficient
84. Which of the following must be reviewed for transfer of ISO/TS16949 certification to
BSI?
a) Validity of existing certification
b) Previous audit report from existing certification body
c) Main customers and their specific requirements

Page 12 of 19
d) All of the above

e) A and B only

Page 13 of 19
85. A basic document review must be performed as part of the transfer of certification
process, including a review of key indicators of management system performance :
a) True
b) False
86. The transfer audit must satisfy the requirements of the TS scheme rules for an initial
Stage 2 audit :
a) True
b) False
87. Any nonconformities raised as a result of an audit to transfer TS certification from

another Certification Body must be actioned in the same way as nonconformities
raised at a Stage 2 audit :
a) True
b) False
88. Validity of the BSI certificate issues following an audit to transfer TS certification
from another Certification Body will be :
a) The remaining validity of the original certificate from the other Certification Body
b) 3 years from the date of the transfer assessment
c) A new complete certification cycle (ie. 3 years maximum)
89. What are the possible outcomes of the Recertification audit ?

a) Pass, Open, Fail
b) Recommended, Open Fail
c) Recommended, Open, Not Recommended
d) Recommended and Open only – Not Recommended is not used for recertification
audits
90. Recertification audits should be reported in the same way as a surveillance audit ?
a) True
b) False
91. Re-issue of certification to ISO/TS16949 after Recertification audit can be

progressed while open nonconformities exist :
a) True
b) False
92. Recertification audit teams should include the auditor from the previous surveillance
audits, to maintain consistency :
a) True
b) False
93. Audit teams for recertification audits must comply with the same requirements as
Stage 2 audit teams :
a) True
b) False
94. Recertification audit days, as shown in Annex 3 of TS scheme rules, can be

reduced for :
a) Non-design responsibility
b) Corporate certification scheme
c) Existing ISO9001:2000 certification
d) All of the above

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e) A and B only

Page 15 of 19
95. BSI clients certified to TS16949 are obliged to advise BSI within 10 business days if
they are placed under any business restriction/sanction by any of their customers :
a) True
b) False
96. The requirement to notify BSI of placement on any customer sanction only applies
to those sanctions imposed by Ford, General Motors or DaimlerChrysler :
a) True
b) False
97. If any notification of imposing of sanctions is received from an organisation, which

of the following actions are require to be taken ?
a) Send letter to organisation confirming their certification status
b) Request Corrective Action plan within 20 days
c) Place organisation’s certification onto Probation
d) All of the above
e) A and B only
98. If the organisation affected by the customer sanction is part of a Corporate scheme
certification, then all sites of the certification will be affected :
a) True
b) False
99. Which of the following instances could lead to a decision to suspend a TS certificate
?
a) Customer Claim
b) Postponed surveillance audit
c) Minor nonconformity raised at surveillance audit
d) Organisation request
e) All of the above
f) A and C only
100. What is the action required where a TS certified organisation is placed on

DaimlerChrysler “Needs Improvement” status ?
a) Raise minor nonconformity and request corrective action plan
b) Raise major nonconformity and follow up in 90 days
c) Place certification onto suspension
d) Withdraw certification immediately
e) Action required would be as agreed with BSI Contracted Office Nominated
Representative

General Motors “Controlled Shipping Level 2” status ?
Representative

Page 16 of 19
102. IF BSI only discover that the organisation is on CSL2 when performing a
surveillance audit, what additional actions should be taken ?
a) Raise major nonconformity against non-notification of customer sanction
b) Identify situation in Assessment Commentary section of audit report for future
reference
c) Action required would be as agreed with BSI Contracted Office Nominated
Representative
d) No additional action required – action against CSL2 status is sufficient

General Motors “Controlled Shipping Level 1” status ?
Representative
104. What is the maximum timescale for actions associated with a Suspension
status placed on an organisation’s TS certificate ?
a) 60 days
b) 90 days
c) 120 days
d) Until next schedule surveillance visit
105. Where suspension is invoked as a result of an organisation being placed onto

“Q1 Revocation” status, what is the start date of the Suspension period ?
a) Date of notification of status to organisation by Ford
b) Date of notification of status to BSI by organisation
c) Date of letter from BSI to organisation confirming suspension of their certificate
d) Date of corrective action plan from organisation to BSI
106. Suspension status can only be removed following a successful on-site visit :
a) True
b) False
107. Once a successful on-site visit is performed, suspension status invoked as a

result of a customer sanction can immediately be lifted :
a) True
b) False
108. The BSI internal auditor qualification process assumes any proposed delegate
for IATF training already holds BSI Lead Auditor status :
a) True
b) False
109. On successful completion of the IATF training for TS, the auditor then requires
to complete which of the following training modules ?
a) Stage 1 Audit
b) Root Cause Analysis and Corrective Action
c) Process for Assessing Customer Specifics
d) All of the above
e) A and B only

Page 17 of 19
110. The code PTS16949E2T is allocated to the auditor once they complete the
specified training modules :
a) True
b) False
111. Witness audit for initial qualification of an auditor can be performed on a

surveillance audit :
a) True
b) False
112. Where the witness audit of an auditor is performed on a Stage 2 audit, this
must be a minimum observed duration of 1 day :
a) True
b) False
113. Review of an auditor’s TS reports following successful witness audit is

performed to :
a) Review Assessment Detail Sheets (A7s) for completeness
b) Determine need for additional guidance for the auditor
c) Progress status towards “fully qualified” status
d) All of the above
e) A and B only
114. TS scheme rules require annual witness audit for all qualified TS auditors :
a) True
b) False
115. Where the annual performance appraisal for a TS auditor is found to be not
acceptable, the following action would be taken :
a) Auditor status downgraded and internal training process conducted in full again
b) Auditor removed from TS scheme, requiring to re-attend IATF course and exam
c) Perform unscheduled witness audit to re-evaluate auditor
d) Advise auditor of issues, note issues in training file and review again in 12 months
116. Where nonconformities are raised against the auditor during witness audit, the
auditor cannot act as a team leader for any assessment involving other auditors,
until the nonconformities are closed :
a) True
b) False
117. The specific timescale for follow-up of nonconformities raised against an

auditor at witness audit is :
a) 1 month
b) 3 months
c) 6 months
d) 12 months
e) No timescale is specified for follow-up
118. Veto Review is required for any certification change request :

a) True
b) False

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119. Veto Review is a 2 stage process – Stage 1 of Veto Review considers the
information from the Stage 1 audit and Stage 2 considers information from Stage 2
audit :
a) True
b) False
120. Certification can only be issued following successful Veto Review :

a) True
b) False

Page 19 of 19

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ISO/TS16949 Assessment Manual Training

Effectiveness Evaluation Examination

1. Which of these types of organisations are NOT eligible for ISO/TS16949:2002

4. Reduction in audit days based on existing certification cannot be applied if :

7. Relating to Pre-Assessment, which of these conditions are correctly defined ?

Paper 1 Issue 1.1, October 2005

8. Where a single pre-assessment is performed to an organisation, the time allocated for

9. Once Stage 1 audit has been successfully completed, it is prohibited to perform a

12. When should the audit team be selected ?

13. Which of these requirements relate to TS16949 audit teams ?

16. Sales activity related to a specific organisation would be considered as a conflict of

Paper 1 Issue 1.1, October 2005

Paper 1 Issue 1.1, October 2005

20. Which of the following contains guidance for audit plans ?

25. Which products must be included into the scope of assessment/registration, at

Paper 1 Issue 1.1, October 2005

27. Which of these can be considered as Permitted Exclusions for ISO/TS16949:2002 ?

29. What is the requirement for shift coverage at Stage 2 audit ?

33. No certification to ISO/TS16949 can be issued while open nonconformities exist

Paper 1 Issue 1.1, October 2005

36. Identification of Major nonconformities may be a reason to terminate the Stage 2

38. Termination of Stage 2 audit requires re-commencement of activities from :

40. Surveillance audit frequency for any site can be :

41. First surveillance audit is scheduled from :

Paper 1 Issue 1.1, October 2005

Paper 1 Issue 1.1, October 2005

44. Surveillance audits must be performed in planned month, to meet TS scheme

46. It is permissible to sample customer specific requirements at each surveillance

48. Which of the following must be covered at each surveillance audit ?

49. What is the requirement for shift coverage at surveillance audits ?

50. All manufacturing sites within any certification must be visited :

Paper 1 Issue 1.1, October 2005

54. Scheduling of third year recertification audit is taken from :

57. What are the possible outcomes of a Stage 2 audit ?

60. What actions must be completed within this maximum timescale ?

Paper 1 Issue 1.1, October 2005

61. When would an OPEN verdict be given at Stage 2 audit ?

62. Under what circumstances would an OPEN verdict be downgraded to NOT

64. Clients can use the IATF logo on :

65. Clients can use the UKAS/RvA/RAB logos on :

Paper 1 Issue 1.1, October 2005

Paper 1 Issue 1.1, October 2005

Paper 1 Issue 1.1, October 2005

d) All of the above

Paper 1 Issue 1.1, October 2005

87. Any nonconformities raised as a result of an audit to transfer TS certification from

89. What are the possible outcomes of the Recertification audit ?

91. Re-issue of certification to ISO/TS16949 after Recertification audit can be

94. Recertification audit days, as shown in Annex 3 of TS scheme rules, can be

Paper 1 Issue 1.1, October 2005

Paper 1 Issue 1.1, October 2005

97. If any notification of imposing of sanctions is received from an organisation, which

100. What is the action required where a TS certified organisation is placed on

101. What is the action required where a TS certified organisation is placed on

Paper 1 Issue 1.1, October 2005

103. What is the action required where a TS certified organisation is placed on

105. Where suspension is invoked as a result of an organisation being placed onto

107. Once a successful on-site visit is performed, suspension status invoked as a

Paper 1 Issue 1.1, October 2005

111. Witness audit for initial qualification of an auditor can be performed on a

113. Review of an auditor’s TS reports following successful witness audit is

117. The specific timescale for follow-up of nonconformities raised against an

118. Veto Review is required for any certification change request :