THIRD DIAGNOSTIC TEST IN INTEGRATED SCIENCE 10

Directions : Choose the letter of the correct answer. Write your answers on your answer
sheet.

1. One of the following is the main hormone involved in the male reproductive system. Which
hormone is this?
A. follicle – stimulating hormone C. progesterone
B. luteinizing hormone D. testosterone

2. What is the function of testosterone?

A. Testosterone controls cell growth.
B. Testosterone controls the body’s metabolism.
C. Testosterone regulates the function of different glands in the body.
D. Testosterone causes the development of secondary sex characteristics of males.

3. Which hormone/s control/s the function of the ovaries?

A. estrogen C. estrogen and progesterone
B. follicle-stimulating hormone D. FSH and LH

4. Which of the following hormones works in maintaining and nourishing the uterine lining during
pregnancy?
A. estrogen B. FSH C. LH D. progesterone

5. The changes that happen to the uterus are its response to which hormone/s?
A. progesterone C. estrogen and progesterone
B. luteinizing hormone D. FSH and LH

6. When the egg released during ovulation is not fertilized, the old uterine lining is shed in a process
called menstruation. What happens to the level of estrogen and progesterone at this phase?
A. increases C. remains the same
B. decreases D. can’t be determined

7. Arrange the following items according to the events that happen between perceiving and
responding to a stimulus.
I. As the message reaches the brain, it processes the information.
II. The message coming from the brain is sent through the motor neurons.
III. The impulse is sent to the brain by the sensory neurons.
IV. A receptor perceives a stimulus.

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 V. The brain commands an effector such as a muscle or an organ to respond.

A. IV, III, I, II, V B. IV, III, I, V, II C. IV, III, II, I, V D. III, IV, V, I, II

8. Which of the following maintains homeostasis in the internal environment by regulating vital body
processes such as digestion, respiration, blood circulation, excretion, and the secretion of
hormones?
A. Somatic nervous system C. Feedback looping
B. Autonomic nervous system D. None of these

9. The nervous system is the major control system of homeostasis. It provides response, and
regulation of all systems in the human body. For example, when the body temperature of a person
rises, the body receptors perceive this deviation from normal body condition and the brain
commands an effector to respond to this stimulus to maintain homeostasis. In this case, what will be
the body’s response?
A. Blood vessels will constrict so that heat will be conserved.
B. The body will shiver to generate heat that will warm the body.
C. The adrenal gland will secrete a hormone to lower the body temperature.
D. The sweat glands will secrete a fluid and as the fluid evaporates, heat is lost from the
body.

10. Arrange the following according to the sequence of events that take place during DNA
replication.
I. The complementary nucleotides are added to each strand by DNA polymerase to
form new strands.
II. An enzyme called helicase breaks the bond between nitrogenous bases in the two
strands of DNA.
III. The new double-stranded molecules twist up into double helices.
IV. The bases attached to each strand pair up with the free nucleotides found in the
cytoplasm.
A. I, II, III, IV B. II, IV, I, III C. II, IV, III, I D. III, I, IV, II

11. Which of the following describes the process of transcription correctly?

A. The sequence of nucleotides in DNA directs the order of nucleotides in tRNA.
B. The sequence of nucleotides in DNA directs the order of nucleotides in rRNA.
C. The sequence of nucleotides in DNA directs the order of nucleotides in mRNA.
D. The sequence of nucleotides in mRNA directs the order of nucleotides in DNA.

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 12. What process is described in the following sequence of events?
I. A portion of a DNA molecule in the nucleus unwinds and an mRNA molecule is
transcribed from a gene on that chromosome.
II. mRNA leaves the nucleus and enters the cytoplasm where it binds to a ribosome.
III. Previously transcribed tRNA molecules bind to specific amino acids in the
cytoplasm according to their anticodons.
IV. tRNA anticodons base-pair with mRNA codons, causing amino acids to line up in
the order their codons appear on mRNA.
V. The ribosome forms peptide bonds between the amino acids and releases the
completed protein.
A. protein synthesis B. replication C. transcription D. translation

13. What causes mutation?

A. error in the pairing of the nitrogenous bases during replication
B. error in transcribing the information in the DNA into an mRNA
C. error in the pairing of codons in the mRNA and the anticodons in the tRNA
D. all of the above

14. What kind of chromosomal mutation occurs when a piece of chromosome breaks off and
attaches to another chromosome?
A. deletion B. insertion C. inversion D. translocation

15. Which among the following is a possible effect of mutation?

i. genetic disorder
ii. medical problem
iii. problem in growth and development
A. i. only B. i and ii C. i and iii D. i, ii, and iii

16. In what way do organisms with close biochemical similarities show stronger evolutionary
relationship?
A. They have varied ancestry.
B. They have the same structure.
C. They have the same kind of proteins.
D. They have similar appearance during the early stages of development.

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 17. How can fossil records be used as an evidence of evolution?
A. Fossil records allow one to analyze the physical structure of past organisms.
B. Fossil records are used to compare the extinct or the pre-historic species with the present
species.
C. Fossil records of organisms found in rocks show that simple life forms gradually evolved
into more complex ones.
D. All of the above

18. Homologous structures are organs or skeletal elements of animals and organisms that, by virtue
of their similarity, suggest their connection to a common ancestor, and thus, provide evidence for
evolution. Which would be considered homologous structures?
A. wing of a bat and wing of an insect
B. fins of fish and flippers of mammals
C. tongue of a frog and proboscis of a mosquito
D. bones in a bird’s arm and bones in a frog’s arm

19. Which of the following statements does not describe evolution?

A. Evolution is continuous.
B. Evolution refers to change.
C. The earth is stable and unchanging.
D. If there is mutation, there is evolution.

20. What does the Theory of Natural Selection state?

A. Acquired characteristics of parents can be passed on to offspring.
B. Organisms develop desirable structures to survive in a given environment.
C. Organs that are not used may disappear while organs that are constantly used may
develop.
D. Organisms with desirable characteristics have a greater chance of survival than those with
weaker traits.

21. Which of these cases does not show the ability of species to survive in changing environments?
A. migration of animals
B. death of dinosaurs during the Cretaceous period
C. certain group of birds eating different kinds of food.
D. ability of certain animals to blend with the environment.

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 22. Two populations of chimpanzees live in two different areas of a jungle. Population A is located in
an area with higher biodiversity than the jungle area where Population B is located. If the survival
rate of Population A is greater than that of Population B’s, what does this suggest?
A. Biodiversity can disrupt the population growth of chimpanzees.
B. Chimpanzees adapt better in an environment with high level of biodiversity.
C. Chimpanzees have a better chance of survival in an environment with a low level of
biodiversity.
D. The survival rate of chimpanzees is independent of the level of biodiversity in their
environment.

 23. Tropical rainforests have the greatest biodiversity of any type of land ecosystem. How does
biodiversity contribute to the sustainability of an ecosystem?
A. Greater genetic variation within species makes it more likely that some individuals will
survive a disease outbreak.
B. The presence of more species with different adaptations makes it more likely that some
organisms will survive an ecological disaster.
C. The presence of a variety of herbivore species that can feed on a large number of
different producer species helps ensure abundant prey for predators in the ecosystems.
D. All of the above

24. What can cause a population of a species to decline?

A. The birth rate becomes lower than the death rate.
B. The birth rate and the death rate remain the same.
C. The birth rate becomes higher than the death rate.
D. The death rate stays the same, and the birth rate increases.

25. What will happen if a population grows larger than the carrying capacity of the environment?
A. Birth rate may rise.
B. Death rate may rise.
C. The population may grow faster.
D. The carrying capacity may change.

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