Sample Paper 5

Time : 90 Minutes Max. Marks : 50

General Instructions
1. The Question Paper contains three sections.
2. Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
3. Section B has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
4. Section C has 12 questions. Attempt any 10 questions.
5. All questions carry equal marks.
6. There is no negative marking

SECTION-A

DIRECTION: This section consists of 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions from this section. The first attempted 20 questions
would be evaluated.
1. How many meiotic division are required for the formation of 100 functional megaspores?
(a) 100 (b) 50 (c) 75 (d) 25
2. The given figure represent the L.S of a flower showing growth of pollen tube. Few structures are marked as A, B, C, D & E.
Identify A, B, C, D and E respectively.

D
Pollen tube
E A
B
Egg cell
Synergid

(a) Antipodal cells, Polar nuclei, Stigma, Style, Chalaza

(b) Antipodal cells, Polar nuclei, Style, Stigma, Chalaza
(c) Antipodal cells, Polar nuclei, Stigma, Chalaza, Style
(d) Antipodal cells, Polar nuclei, Chalaza, Stigma, Style
3. ______ of the pollen grain divides to form two male gametes.
(a) Vegetative cell (b) Generative cell
(c) Microspore mother cell (d) None of these
4. By the end of how many weeks, major organ system are formed during the embryonic development?
(a) 4 weeks (b) 8 weeks
(c) 12 weeks (d) 24 weeks
 EBD_7332
SP-42 Biology

5. Identify P - V in the given figure and select the correct option.

Q
T

stamen
U R

pistil
V S

(a) P-Petal, Q-sepal, R-Filament, S-Anther, T-Style, U-Stigma, V-Ovary

(b) P-Petal, Q-Sepal, R-Anther, S-Filament, T-Stigma, U-Style, V-Ovary
(c) P-Sepal, Q-Petal, R-Anther, S-Filament, T-Stigma, U-Style, V-Ovary
(d) P-Ovary, Q-Petal, R-Anther, S-Filament, T-Stigma; U-Style, V-Sepal
6. The given diagram shows two plants of the same species. Identify the type of pollination indicated as P1, P2 and P3.

P3
P1

P2

P1 P2 P3
(a) Allogamy Chasmogamy Cleistogamy
(b) Autogamy Xenogamy Geitonogamy
(c) Autogamy Geitonogamy Xenogamy
(d) Geitonogamy Allogamy Autogamy
7. The following graph represents the relative concentrations of the four hormones (A, B, C and D) present in the blood plasma of a
woman during her menstrual cycle. Identify the hormones.
increasing concentration

C D
of hormone

B
A

day

A B C D
(a) FSH Progesterone LH Oestrogen
(b) LH Progesterone FSH Oestrogen
(c) FSH Oestrogen LH Progesterone
(d) LH Oestrogen FSH Progesterone
8. In human females, meiosis-II is not complete until?
(a) fertilization (b) uterine implantation (c) birth (d) puberty
9. The vas deferens receives duct from the seminal vesicle and opens into urethra as
(a) epididymis (b) ejaculatory duct (c) efferent ductule (d) ureter
 Sample Paper-5 SP-43

10. The given figure shows the L.S. of a monocot embryo. Choose the correct labelling for A, B, C and D marked in the figure from
the options given below.

B
Shoot apex
C

Radicle
Root cap
D

(a) A – Coleoptile; B – Scutellum; C – Epiblast; D – Coleorhiza

(b) A – Scutellum; B – Coleoptile; C – Coleorhiza; D – Epiblast
(c) A – Scutellum; B – Epiblast; C – Coleoptile; D – Coleorhiza
(d) A – Scutellum; B – Coleoptile; C – Epiblast; D – Coleorhiza
11. The total number of nuclei involved in double fertilization in angiosperms are
(a) two (b) three (c) four (d) five
12. Mutations can be induced with
(a) infrared radiations (b) I AA (c) ethylene (d) gamma radiations
13. Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) r-RNA provides the template for synthesis of proteins.
(ii) t-RNA brings amino acids and reads the genetic code.
(iii) RNA polymerase binds to promoter and initiates transcription.
(iv) A segment of DNA coding for polypeptide is called intron.
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) and (ii) (c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iii)
14. Which one of the following group of codons is called as degenerate codons?
(a) UAA, UAG and UGA
(b) GUA, GUG, GCA, GCG and GAA
(c) UUC, UUG, CCU, CAA and CUG
(d) UUA, UUG, CUU, CUC, CUA and CUG
15. Which step of translation does not consume high energy phosphate bond?
(a) Translocation
(b) Peptidyl transferase reaction
(c) Amino acid activation
(d) Aminoacyl tRNA binding to A-site
16. In Escherichia coli, lac operon is induced by
(a) lactose (b) promotor gene (c) -galactosidase (d) I-gene
17. In sickle cell anaemia glutamic acid is replaced by valine. Which one of the following triplet codes for valine?
...GTG...
Sickle-cell Hb(s) gene ...CAC...

mRNA ...GUG...

Val His Leu Thr Pro Glu

1 2 3 4 5 6 7
HbS peptide
(a) GG G (b) AA G (c) G AA (d) GU G
 EBD_7332
SP-44 Biology

18. The Mirabilis jalapa when two F1 pink flowered plants were crossed with each other, the F2 generation produced 40 red, 80
pink and 40 white flowering plants. This is a case of
(a) duplicate genes (b) lethal genes (c) incomplete dominance (d) epistasis
19. Mental retardation in man associated with sex chromosomal abnormality is usually due to
(a) increase in size of X-chromosome. (b) increase in size of Y-chromosome.
(c) increase in number of Y-chromosome. (d) increase in number of X-chromosome.
20. The given figure represents the inheritance pattern of a certain type of traits in humans.

FEMALE MALE
(Mother) (Father)

Daughter Son

Which one of the following conditions could be an example of this pattern?

(a) Thalassemia (b) Haemophilia (c) Phenylketonuria (d) Sickle cell anaemia
21. Which one of the following correctly represents the nature of blood in the ABO system of blood groups pertaining to the
presence of antigens and antibodies?
(a) Blood group A –Antibody A and antigen B
(b) Blood group B–Antigen B and antibody A
(c) Blood group AB–Both antibodies A and B
(d) Blood group O–No antigens and no antibodies
22. Crossing over in diploid organisms is responsible for
(a) dominance of genes (b) linkage between genes
(c) recombination of linked genes (d) segregation of alleles
23. In a certain taxon of insects some have 17 chromosomes and the others have 18 chromosomes. The 17 and 18 chromosome-
bearing organisms are
(a) males and females respectively (b) females and males, respectively
(c) all males (d) all females
24. A tobacco plant heterozygous for albinism (a recessive character) is self-pollinated and 1200 seeds are subsequently germinated.
How many seedings would have the parental genotype?
(a) 1250 (b) 600 (c) 300 (d) 2250
SECTION-B

DIRECTION: This section consists of 24 questions (Sl. No.25 to 48). Attempt any 20 questions from this section. The first attempted 20
questions would be evaluated.
Question No. 25 to 28: Consist of two statements Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions selecting the appropriate
option given below:
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are True and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is True but Reason is False.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are False.
25. Assertion: India was amongst the first countries in the world to initiate action plants and programmes at a national level to
attain total reproductive health as a social goal.
Reason: The family planing programmes were initiated in 1991.
26. Assertion: Saheli is a new oral contraceptive for the females contains a non-steroidal preparation.
Reason: Saheli is a daily pill with many side effects and low contraceptive value.
27. Assertion: Deletion and insertion of base pairs of DNA, cause frame-shift mutation.
Reason: Sickle cell anaemia is a classic example of frame-shift mutations.
28. Assetion: Implantation occurs on 7th day after the fertilisation.
Reason: Fertilisation guarantees the establishment of pregnancy.
 Sample Paper-5 SP-45

29. The given figure shows the human foetus within the uterus with few structures marked as A, B, C and D.
B

Cavity of uterus
A C
Embryo

Which of the following options shows the correct labeling?

(a) A Umbilical cord with its veins, B Chorionic villi, C Antrum, D Plug of mucus in cervix
(b) A Umbilical cord with its vessels, B Fimbriae, C Oocyte, D Plug of mucus in vagina
(c) A Umbilical cord with its vessels, B Placental villi, C Yolk sac, D Plug of mucus in cervix
(d) A Umbilical cord with its veins, B Placental villi, C Trophoblast, D Plug of mucus in vagina
30. Pollen grains are preserved as fossils because of the
(a) Presence of cellulose & pectin (b) Presence of sporopollenin
(c) Presence of lignin (d) Presence of cellulose
31. For artificial hybridization experiment in bisexual flower, which of the following sequences is correct?
(a) Bagging Emasculation Cross-pollination Rebagging
(b) Emasculation Bagging Cross-pollination Rebagging
(c) Cross-pollination Bagging Emasculation Rebagging
(d) Self-pollination Bagging Emasculation Rebagging
32. If for some reason, the vasa efferentia in the human reproductive system get blocked, the gametes will not be transported from
(a) testes to epididymis (b) epididymis to vas deferens
(c) ovary to uterus (d) vagina to uterus
33. Which of the following STDs are not completely curable?
(a) Chlamydiasis, gonorrhoea, trichomoniasis (b) Chancroid, syphilis, genital warts
(c) AIDS, syphilis, hepatitis B (d) AIDS, genital herpes, hepatitis B
34. Which of the following is traditional method of contraception?
(a) Implantation (b) Lactational amenorrhoea
(c) Condoms (d) Sterilization
35. Three children in a family have blood types O, AB and B respectively. What are the genotypes of their parents?
(a) IA i and IBi (b) IAIB and i i (c) IBIB and IAIA (d) IAIA and IBi
36. What proportion of the offsprings obtained from cross AABBCC × AaBbCc will be completely heterozygous for all genes
segregated independently?
(a) 1/8 (b) 1/4 (c) 1/2 (d) 1/16
37. Both sickle cell anaemia and Huntington’s chorea are
(a) congenital disorders (b) pollulant-induced disorders
(c) virus-related diseases (d) bacteria - related diseases
38. Given below is a pedigree chart showing the inheritance of a certain sex-linked trait in humans.
Generation 1

Generation 2

Generation 3
Key :

Unaffected male Unaffected female

Affected male Affected female

The trait traced in the above pedigree chart is:

(a) Dominant X-linked (b) Recessive X-linked
(c) Dominant Y-linked (d) Recessive Y-linked
 EBD_7332
SP-46 Biology

39. Person having genotype IA IB would show the blood group as AB. This is because of
(a) Pleiotropy (b) Codominance (c) segregation (d) incomplete dominance
40. ZZ/ZW type of sex determination is seen in
(a) Platypus (b) Snails (c) Cockroach (d) Peacock
41. Clover leaf secondary structure of tRNA has a loop for
(a) three nucleotides of a codon. (b) three nucleotides of an anticodon.
(c) no nucleotides. (d) both (a) and (b)
42. Which step of translation does not consume a high energy phosphate bond?
(a) Translocation (b) Amino acid activation
(c) Peptidyl-transferase reaction (d) Aminoacyl tRNA binding to active ribosomal site
43. Given figure represent the DNA double helix model, proposed by Watson and Crick (1953). Select the option that shows
correct measurement of A, B and C marked in the figure.

A
B

C
(a) A – 3.4 nm, B – 0.34 nm, C – 2 nm (b) A – 34 nm, B – 3.4 nm, C – 20 nm
(c) A – 3.4 Å, B – 0.34 Å, C – 20 Å (d) A – 34 Å, B – 3.4 Å, C – 2 Å
44. Who proved that DNA is basic genetic material?
(a) Griffith (b) Watson (c) Boveri and Sutton (d) Hershey and Chase
45. Information flow or central dogma of modern biology is
(a) RNA Proteins DNA (b) DNA RNA RNA
(c) RNA DNA Proteins (d) DNA RNA Proteins
46. Process used for amplication or multiplication of DNA for finger printing is
(a) polymerse chain reaction (b) nesslerisation
(c) southern blotting (d) northern blotting
47. The given figure represents the double stranded poly-nucteotide chain. Some parts are labelled as A, B, C, D and E. Identify
the correct labelling of A, B, C, D & E.

(a) A–Hydrogen bonds, B–Pyrimidine, C–Hexose (deoxyribose) sugar, D–5' end, E–Purine base
(b) A–Hydrogen bonds, B–Purine base, C–Hexose (deoxyribose) sugar, D–5' end, E–Pyrimidine
(c) A–Hydrogen bonds, B–Pyrimidine, C–Pentose (deoxyribose) sugar, D–5' end, E–Purine base
(d) A–Hydrogen bonds, B–Purine base, C–Pentose (deoxyribose) sugar, D– 5' end, E– Pyrimidine
48. In lac operon, structural gene ‘Z’ synthesises
(a) -galactosidase (b) galactosidase permease
(c) galactosidase transacetylase (d) None of the above
 Sample Paper-5 SP-47

SECTION-C
DIRECTION: This section consists of one case followed by 6 questions linked to this case (Q.No.49 to 54). Besides this, 6 more
questions are given. Attempt any 10 questions in this section. The first attempted 10 questions would be evaluated.
Spermatogenesis is the production of sperms from male germ cells (spermatogonia) inside the testes (semniferous tubule). This
process begin at puberty.
Spermatogonia

Mitosis and differentiation

Primary spermatocyte

1st meiotic division

Secondary spermatocyte

2nd meiotic division

Spermatids

Differentiation

Spermatozoa
49. This happens during spermatogenesis
(a) Meiosis (b) Mitosis (c) Meiosis and mitosis (d) None of these
50. The process of spermatogenesis is induced by
(a) TSH (b) FSH (c) MSH (d) ACTH
51. The number of spermatozoa, a single primary spermatocyte finally produced in spermatogenesis is
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8
52. In spermatogenesis, the phases of maturation involve
(a) formation of spermatids from primary spermatocyte through meiosis
(b) growth of spermatogonia into primary spermatocytes
(c) formation of spermatogonia from gonocytes through mitosis
(d) formation of oogonia from spermatocyte through meiosis
53. The correct sequence of cell stage in spermatogenesis is
(a) spermatocyte spermatids spermatogonia spermatozoa
(b) spermatogonia spermatids spermatocyte spermatozoa
(c) spermatocytes spermatogonia spermatid spermatozoa
(d) spermatogonia spermatocytes spermatids spermatozoa
54. Which of the following contains a fluid filled cavity called antrum?
(a) Primary spermatocyte (b) Primary follicle of ovary
(c) Tertiary follicle of ovary (d) Secondary spermatocyte
55. The regulation of tryptophan synthesis in E. coli is an example of affecting gene expression through
(a) translational control (b) transcriptional control
(c) homeotic gene control (d) breaking down mRNA molecules
56. The given diagram represents the chemical structure of
H H
5' P C H H
P C
H P C C 3'
H P OH
H H
A T
G C

hydrogen
T A bonds
C G
H
H
HO C H
P C H
3' P C P
H H C P 5'
H
H
(a) Protein (b) Lipid (c) DNA (d) All of them
 EBD_7332
SP-48 Biology

57. The experiment shown in the given figure has been carried out by Morgan to show the phenomenon of linkage and
recombination. If in cross I, genes are tightly linked and in cross II, genes are loosely linked then what will be the percentage
of recombinants produced in cross I and cross II respectively?

Cross I Cross II

Parents

Yellow White Wild type White Miniature Wild type

body eyes body wings

F1 generation

Wild type Yellow White Wild type White Miniature

body eyes body wings

(a) 98.7% and 62.8% (b) 1.3% and 37.2% (c) 37.2 and 1.3% (d) 62.8% and 98.7%
58. What is the error in above diagram?
5'

3'
3'
5'

5'
3'
(a) Arrows are wrongly depicted (b) Polarity is incorrect
(c) Both arrows and polarity are incorrect (d) None of these
59. Which of the above figure shows the elongation process?
3' 3'
5'
I
5'
Promoter DNA helix
RNA polymerase Sigma factor
Initiation
3' 5'
II
5' 3'
Terminator
RNA
Elongation
3' 5'
III
5' 3'
RNA
Termination Polymerase
RNA
Rho factor

(a) Figure I (b) Figure II (c) Figure III (d) None of them
60. Percentage of (G + C) is
G C 100
(a) 100 (b) G C
A G T C A T

G C G C A T
(c) (d)
A T G C 100
 EBD_7332
Sample Paper 5
ANSWER KEYS
1 (a) 7 (c) 13 (d) 19 (d) 25 (c) 31 (b) 37 (a) 43 (a) 49 (c) 55 (b)
2 (a) 8 (a) 14 (d) 20 (b) 26 (c) 32 (a) 38 (b) 44 (d) 50 (b) 56 (c)
3 (b) 9 (b) 15 (b) 21 (b) 27 (c) 33 (d) 39 (b) 45 (d) 51 (b) 57 (b)
4 (c) 10 (d) 16 (a) 22 (c) 28 (c) 34 (b) 40 (d) 46 (d) 52 (a) 58 (b)
5 (c) 11 (d) 17 (d) 23 (a) 29 (c) 35 (a) 41 (b) 47 (d) 53 (d) 59 (b)
6 (c) 12 (d) 18 (c) 24 (b) 30 (b) 36 (a) 42 (d) 48 (a) 54 (c) 60 (a)

1. (a) Megaspore mother cell (MMC) undergoes meiosis
to form four haploid cells (called megaspores) and the
process of formation is known as megasporogenesis. The
MMC undergoes meiotic division results in the production
of four megaspores 100 functional megaspores are
produced by 100 MMC, since three out of four megaspores
degenerate in each case.
2. (a) In the given figure of LS of flower, the structure marked
as A, B, C, D and E are respectively antipodal cells, polar
nuclei, stigma, style and chalaza.
3. (b) The development of the male gametophyte in
angiosperms is called as microgametogenesis. Pollen grain
is the first cell of a male gametophyte. This cell undergoes
only two divisions, with the result of first division two
cells are formed – a large vegetative cell and a small
generative cell. The second division is concerned with
generative cell only. This division may take place either in
pollen grain or in the pollen tube and gives rise to two male
gametes.
4. (c) By the end of 12 weeks (first trimester), most of the
major organ systems are formed, for example, the limbs
and external genital organs are well-developed.
5. (c)
6. (c) P1-Autogamy; P2-Geitnogamy; P3-Xenogamy. If the
pollen grains are transferred from an anther to the stigma
of the same flower, or different flowers of the same plant is
called self-pollination or autogamy.
When the pollen grains are transferred to the stigma of
other flower of the same species is called cross- pollination
or allogamy. It takes place in between two different flowers.
Cross-pollination is of two types – Geitonogamy and
Xenogamy.
Geitonogamy : When pollination takes place in between
the two flowers of the same plant then it is called
geitonogamy.
When the pollination takes place in between the two
different flowers of two different plants of the same species
then it is called xenogamy.
7. (c)
8. (a) Meiosis-II does not complete until fertilization occurs
in females (in human being).
9. (b) The vas deferens is a continuation of the cauda
epididymis. It is about 40 cm long and enters the abdominal
cavity through the inguinal canal.
Then, it passes over the urinary bladder, curves round the
ureter and joins a duct from seminal vesicle and opens into
urethra as the ejaculatory duct. These ducts store and
transport the sperms from the testis to the outside through
urethra.
10. (d) In the given figure of monocot embryo, the structure
marked as A, B, C and D are respectively scutellum,
coleoptile, epiblast and coleorhiza.
Scutellum is the large shield like cotyledon of the embryo
of certain monocots. It is specialized for the absorption of
food from the endosperm. Coleoptile is the first leaf above
the ground, forming a protective sheath around the stem
tip. It surrounds the plumule. Epiblast is the outermost
layer of an embryo before it differentiates into ectoderm
and mesoderm. Coleorhiza is the sheath that envelops the
radicle in certain plants (grass or cereal grain) and that is
penetrated by the root in germination.
11. (d) In the cytoplasm of the synergid, pollen tube releases
the two male gametes. One of two male gametes fuses
with egg to form diploid zygote (2n) while the other uses
with two polar nucles of the central cell to produce triploid
primary endosperm nucleus (3n).
12. (d) Mutation is the process by which genetic variations
are created through changes in the base sequence within
genes. It is possible to induce mutations artificially through
use of chemicals or radiations (like gamma radiations).
 Solutions
13. (d) mRNA provides the template for synthesis of proteins.
A segment of DNA coding for polypeptide is called exon.
14. (d) When one amino acid is coded by more than one
codons, then such type of codons are called as degenerate
codons.
15. (b)
16. (a) The inducer for Lac operon of Escherichia coli is
lactose (actually allolactose or metabolite of Lactose). This
lac operon normally remains inactive. When lac operon
contacts with lactose, the lactose acts as an inducer and
combines with the repressor, and the repressor is detached
from operator gene. Thus RNA polymerase enzyme gets
its passage and reaches to the structural genes and starts
the transcription.
17. (d)
18. (c) In incomple dominace, F1 hybrids are not related to
either of the parents but exhibited a blending of characters
of two parents. E.g. 4’o clock plant (Mirabilis jalapa), and
dog flower (Antirrhinum majus).
19. (d)
20. (b) The inheritance pattern of a particular trait shown in
the given picture results in haemophilia. Haemophilia is a
group of inherited blood disorders in which the blood does
not clot properly. It is caused by a fault in one of the genes
that determine how the body makes blood clotting factor
VIII or IX. These genes are located on the X-chromosome.
Haemophilia appears only in human male which can be
transferred to their grandson through their carrier daughter
(Criss-cross inheritance).
21. (b) ABO system is one of the most important human
“blood group systems”. The system is based on the
presence or absence of antigens A and B on the surface of
red blood cells and antibodies against these in blood serum.
A person whose blood contains either or both of these
antibodies cannot receive a transfussion of blood
containing the corresponding antigens as this would cause
the red blood cells to clump.
22. (c)
23. (a) In certain insects, such as cockroach, and some
roundworms, the Y-chromosome is missing so that the male
has only one sex chromosome, i.e. ‘X’ condition in the
male is XO (O means absence of one sex chromosome) and
in the female it is XX., thus males showing 17 chromosome
while females show 18 chromosome.
24. (b)
25. (c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
Family planning was initiated in India in 1951. It increased
awareness regarding prevention of unwanted pregnancies
by adopting safe methods.
26. (c) Assertion is true but Reason is incorrect.
Saheli is a non-steroidal contraceptive pill that is taken
once a week. It has high contraceptive value and is well
accepted as it has very few side effects.
S- 11
27. (c) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
Sickle cell anaemia is a classic example of mis-dense point
mutation.
28. (c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
Fertilisation does not guarantee the establishment of
pregnancy. But pregnancy is guaranteed by implantation.
29. (c) A–Umbilical cord with its vessels, B–Placental villi,
C–Yolk sac, D–Plug of mucus in cervix
30. (b)
31. (b) Artificial hybridization is one of the major approaches
of crop improvement programme. The correct sequence in
artificial hybridization experiment in bisexual flower is:
Emasculation Bagging Cross-pollination
Rebagging
Emasculation is the removal of the anthers of a flower in
order to prevent self-pollination or the undesirable
pollination of neighbouring plants. After that emasculated
male and female plants are kept in isolation by enclosing
them in a bag in a process called bagging. When the stigma
of bagged flowers attains receptivity, mature pollen grains
collected from anthers of the male parent are dusted on the
stigma, and the flowers are rebagged and the fruits allowed
develop.
32. (a) Vasa efferentia are fine ciliated ductules that arise
from the seminiferous tubules of testis (where sperms are
formed) and Open into epididymis which in a man of long
narrow closely coiled tubule lying along the inner side of
testis. Epididymis stores the sperms. Then, if vasa
efferentia get blocked, sperms will not be from perted from
tenter to epididymis.
33. (d) AIDS, genital herpes and hepatitis B are sexually
transmitted diseases which are not completely curable.
34. (b) Lactational amenorrh oea is the absence of
menstruation. It is the breast sucking of mother by her
child for a long time which is considered to contribute a
gap for pregnancy. It is based on the fact that ovulation
and the menses do not occur during the period of intense
lactation following parturition.
35. (a) Parents having genotype IAi and IBi have children of
the following blood group type – O, AB, and B.
36. (a)
37. (a) Sickle cell anaemia is a biochemical disorder in which
shape of RBCs become sickle-shaped due to the defective
haemoglobin. Haemoglobin becomes useless for oxygen
transport.
Huntington Chorea is a disease in which atrophy of brain
occurs resulting to respiratory irregulations, articulation
of speech and irregular limbs movements take place. They
both are genetic disease present in any person since birth
hence congenital diseases.
38. (b) The genes for such traits are recessive and located
on the X chromosome. The character appears more often
in males in hemizygous condition, but also in females in
homozygous condition. Affected males receive their
defective gene from carrier mothers who may have affected
father. These exhibit criss-cross inheritance.
 EBD_7332
S- 12 Biology

39. (b) The example of codominance is ABO blood grouping Replication

in humans. ABO blood groups are controlled by gene I. Transcription
Gene I consists three alleles IA, IB and IA and IB are the Translation
DNA RNA Protein
dominant alleles. When IA and IB are present together, both Reverse
express equally and produce the surface antigens A and B, Transcription
whereas i is the recessive allele and does not produce any 46. (d) The first effect of any signal molecule must involve
antigen. the binding of the molecule to a receptor.
The genetic effect of a single gene on multiple phenotypic 47. (d) 48. (a) 49. (c) 50. (b) 51. (b)
traits is pleiotropy. Incomplete dominance a genetic term 52. (a) 53. (d)
in which does not completely dominate another allele. 54. (c) In biology, antrum is a general term for a cavity or
The separation of allele during the process of chamber, which may have specific meaning in reference to
gametogenesis is known as Segregation. This is the basis certain organs or sites in the body.Tertiary follicle of ovary
of reappearance of recessive character in F2-generation. contains a fluid filled cavity called antrum and a secondary
40. (d) In ZZ/ZW case, the female has heteromorphic (ZW) oocyte ready for ovulation.
sex chromosomes. Thus peacock shows ZZ/ZW sex 55. (b) The presence or absence of tryptophan determines
determination type. whether the genes that code the necessary enzymes in
41. (b) Clover leaf secondary structure of tRNA has a loop tryptophan synthesis will even be transcribed.
for three unpaired bases (triplet of base) whose sequence 56. (c)
is complementary with a codon in mRNA. 57. (b) The percentage of recombinants produced in cross I
42. (d) During the activation of amino acids, in the presence and cross II are respectively 1.3% and 37.2%.
of Mg2+ and ATP an amino acid gets attached to a specific 58. (b) The figure below is the replicating fork of DNA. The
enzyme aminoacyl t-RNA synthetase. Pyrophosphate is DNA replication takes place in 5' 3' direction always. On
released which breaks up to release energy. During the leading strand, DNA replication is continuous while
translocation, in the presence of the enzyme translocase on lagging strand, DNA replication is discontinuous. The
and energy from GTP the ribosome moves in such a way polarity of lagging strand is incorrect in the given figure.
that the peptidyl bearing t-RNA of A - site comes to lie on The correct figure should be:
the P-site, exposing a new codon at A - site. In the peptidyl
transferase reaction energy is provided by GTP. nd
43. (a) A, B and C represent the pitch (a complete turn) of g stra 5'
n
helix, distance between a base pair in a helix and distance ggi 3'
La
between two strand of DNA molecule respectively.
44. (d) Hershey & Chase (1962) discovered that DNA is the 3' 5'
genetic material of bacteriophage. They experimented with 3'
5'
T2 phage which attacks the bacterium E. coli. Some virus
made to grow on culture containing radioactive sulphur Leading
and some on radioactive phosphorus. Findings indicated strand 5'
that protein did not enter the bacteria from the viruses but 3'
DNA from the virus particle enters bacteria as genetic
Both the strands are antiparallel. In one strand, carbon of
material.
sugar are in 3' 5' direction and in other, the carbon of
45. (d) Central dogma term was proposed by Crick (1958). It
sugar are in 5' 3' direction.
proposes unidirectional or one way flow of information
59. (b)
from DNA to RNA and then to protein (polypeptide).
60. (a) GC content is usually calculated as a percentage value
and sometimes called G + C ratio or GC ratio. It is calculated
as G + C/count (A + T + G + C) × 100%.