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Pleas e read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specific ally for this purpose.
You are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall before the end of the test.
INSTRUCTIONS
Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer OMR
sheet before attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.
A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. SECTION–I is Physics, SECTION–II is Chemistry and SECTION–III is Mathematics.
4. Each part is further divided into three parts: Part – A, B & C
REVIEW TEST
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.
B. Filling of OMR Sheet
1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers on
OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with HB pencil for each character of your
Enrolment No. and write in ink your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.
C. Marking Scheme For All Two Parts.
(i) Part–A (01-05) contains 05 Multiple Choice Questions which have Only One Correct answer. Each
question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme.
Full Marks : +3 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
(ii) Part–A (06 – 10) contains 06 multiple choice questions which have one or more than
one correct answer. Each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme.
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and both
of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a correct
option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
(iii) Part–B (01 – 02) contains 02 questions you will be awarded 2 marks for each row corresponding to
the correct answer. Thus, each question in this section carries a maximum of 8 marks. There is no
negative marking for incorrect answer(s) for this section.
(iv) PART–C (13 – 18) contains 06 Numerical based questions, the answer of which maybe positive or
negative numbers or decimals (e.g. 6.25, 7.00, -0.33, -.30, 30.27, -127.30) and each question carries
+4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
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REVIEW TEST-07-PCM-JEE(Advanced)
4
SECTION – I : PHYSICS
PART – A: (Single Correct Answer Type)
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
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5 REVIEW TEST-07-PCM-JEE(Advanced)
A
27
(A) ag (B) 2ag
8
8
(C) 3ag (D) ag
3
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REVIEW TEST-07-PCM-JEE(Advanced)
6
u 2u
(A) (B)
3R 3R
1
(C) e (D) e = 1
2
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7 REVIEW TEST-07-PCM-JEE(Advanced)
qB
(A) Angular speed of the square loop is .
2m
2qB
(B) Angular speed of the square loop is .
m
q2B2r 2
(C) Kinetic energy of square loop will be .
24m
q2B2r 2
(D) Kinetic energy of square loop will be .
48m
9. An electron, initially at rest, is released far away from a proton (fixed in space). The de-broglie
wavelength of the electron when it is at distance r from proton is . The ratio of its Kinetic energy at
this distance with the kinetic energy of the electron in ground state of hydrogen atom (Bohr model)
with the radius of its orbit being r, is k. Pick the correct option(s).
1
(A) r (B)
r
1
(C) k (D) k = 2
2
10. An asteroid orbiting around a planet in circular orbit suddenly explodes into two fragments. Ratio of
masses of the fragments is 1 : 4. If immediately after the explosion, the smaller fragment starts
orbiting the planet in reverse direction in the same orbit, what had happened with the heavier
fragment?
(A) It had fallen on the planet
(B) It had started orbiting the planet in a larger orbit.
(C) It had started orbiting the planet in a smaller orbit
(D) It had escaped from the gravitational interaction with the planet.
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REVIEW TEST-07-PCM-JEE(Advanced)
8
This section contains 2 multiple choice questions. Each question has matching Column(s). The codes for
the Column(s) have choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which only ONE OR MORE is/are correct
11. The physical situation in Column-I with graphs of the variation of total energy (E), potential energy (U)
and kinetic energy (K) with time in Column-II are given. Match the statements from Column-I with
those in Column-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.
Column-I Column-II
(A) A mass attached to an (p)
unstretched ideal spring,
released from position O
in vertical plane from rest K E
until it reaches its
maximum extension. O
Assume that the U
m Natural length
gravitational P.E.
position K
reference is at the
equilibrium position of m.
(B) An object of mass m is A (q)
released from tower AB
undergoes free fall E
H
U
K
B
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9 REVIEW TEST-07-PCM-JEE(Advanced)
12. A thin but very large plank of mass 2m is placed on a horizontal smooth surface. A solid cylinder of
mass m and radius r is given only translation velocity v 0 and gently placed on the plank as shown in
the figure. The coefficient of kinetic friction between the plank and the cylinder is .
m V0
2m
Match the statements from Column-I with those in Column-II and select the correct answer using the
code given below the lists.
Column-I Column-II
(A) Final kinetic energy of the plank (p) 14mv02
98
(B) Final kinetic energy of the cylinder (q) mv 2 0
49
(C) Negative work done by kinetic friction till (r) 24mv 20
the cylinder starts rolling
98
(D) Final kinetic energy of the cylinder with (s) 33
respect to plank. mv 20
98
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REVIEW TEST-07-PCM-JEE(Advanced)
10
h
53
mg
mg
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11 REVIEW TEST-07-PCM-JEE(Advanced)
15. Figure shows three spherical objects which may be considered as ideal black bodies. If TA = TB;
r1 r 48 n
3, 2 , then, TC = nTA in steady state, where n is an integer. Find . (size of B is very
R1 R2 11 10
small)
A C
R1
R2
r1 r2
16. Circuit-1 shows a potentiometer setup with length of potentiometer being 100 cm (given that
potentiometer wire’s resistance is 8 ). Balance points are obtained with switch S opened and then
closed, they are found at 50 cm and 25 cm respectively. Then, the unknown battery from circuit-1 is
used in circuit-2 in order to deliver maximum possible power, to resistor R. The value of this
maximum power will be x watt, find the integer value 10x.
2 10 Volts , r
R
A
G Circuit-2
, r S
2
Circuit-1
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REVIEW TEST-07-PCM-JEE(Advanced)
12
P0 2P0
18. An organ pipe of length L is open at one end and closed at the other end. The air column in the pipe
is vibrating in second overtone. The minimum distance from the open end where the pressure
L
amplitude is half of the maximum value is . Find the value of .
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13 REVIEW TEST-07-PCM-JEE(Advanced)
SECTION – II : CHEMISTRY
PART – A: (Single Correct Answer Type)
This section contains 05 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. The change in enthalpy when one mole of ideal gas is expanded from 4 atm to 1 atm at constant
temperature against a constant external pressure of 1 atm is:
(A) 0.0 Kcal
(B) is equal to the heat absorbed as change in internal energy is zero
(C) is equal to the work done
P
(D) can be calculated as H 2.303 nRT log 1
P2
2. The number of stages of effusions required to be enriched from initial molar ratio of H2 and He
2 : 1 to 32 : 1 by means of diffusion process are
(A) 16 (B) 8
(C) 32 (D) 1
3. SO2Cl2 is added to water to make 25 ml of 0.2 M solution. What volume of 0.2 M Ba(OH)2 is needed
to completely neutralize 25 ml of 0.2 M SO2Cl2 solution?
(A) 25 mL (B) 50 mL
(C) 100 mL (D) 200 mL
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REVIEW TEST-07-PCM-JEE(Advanced)
14
5. O
1. NaOH, H O
2
H3C O A, A is
2. HCl, H2O
H3C OH
O
OH OH OH
(A) (B) HO
OH
OH OH OH
O
H3C HO O OH
H3C O
OH
(C) (D)
H3 C
O OH
OH OH
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15 REVIEW TEST-07-PCM-JEE(Advanced)
This section contains 05 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.
FeBr3
Br2 Na / Ether
A Product P
(A) (B)
P= P=
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REVIEW TEST-07-PCM-JEE(Advanced)
16
8. The properties which are common to both groups 1 and 17 elements in the periodic table are:
(A) Electropositive character increases down the group.
(B) Reactivity decreases from top to bottom in these groups.
(C) Atomic radii increases as the atomic number increases.
(D) Electronegativity decreases on moving down a group.
9. Z LiH
B X Y LiBF 4
Heat
Which of the statement(s) is/are true for the above sequence of reactions?
(A) Z is hydrogen gas (B) X is B2H6
(C) Z and Y are F2 and B2H6 respectively (D) Z is KOH
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17 REVIEW TEST-07-PCM-JEE(Advanced)
This section contains 2 multiple choice questions. Each question has matching Column(s). The codes for
the Column(s) have choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which only ONE OR MORE is/are correct
12. Match the relations of column – I with their names in column – II:
Column – I (Reactions) Column – II (Products)
(A) CaC N Product-1 H3 O
Product-2 (p) NH3
2 2
(B) NaNH2 N2 O H3 O
Product-1 Product-2
(q) N3H
(C)
Na2B 4 O7 NH4 Cl H3 O
Product-1
Product-2 (r) H2O
(D) COCl2 NH3 H3 O
Product-1
Product-2 (s) BN
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REVIEW TEST-07-PCM-JEE(Advanced)
18
SECTION –C
(Numerical Based Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. Numerical based questions, the answer of which maybe positive or
negative numbers or decimals (e.g. 6.25, 7.00, -0.33, -.30, 30.27, -127.30) and each question carries +4
marks for correct answer and there will be no negative marking.
13. A container initially has one mole gas of A2. A2 dissociate at temperature 300 K according to the
following equation:
A2 2A
Total pressure of equilibrium mixture, at T = 300 K is 1 atm pressure.
The equilibrium mixture diffuses 2 times as fast as Cl2 diffuses under the same condition.
Calculate the equilibrium constant (Kp) in atmosphere of reaction at T = 300 K. [Mol. Wt. of A = 15.00
g/mole].
o o
14. Two moles of an ideal gas is expanded from 2 atm at 0 C to 1 atm at 27 C against a constant
pressure of 1 atm. If for the gas Cp = 5 cal mole-1.deg-1, calculate heat change ‘q’ (in joule) for the
process.
15. Find number of species which produce elemental sulphur when treated with H2S:
Fe3 ,Fe2 ,SO2 ,H2 O2 ,O 3 ,HNO 3
16. Out of Be, Mg, Ca, Sr and Ba, total number of metals whose nitrates are decomposed according to
following reaction
2M NO3 2 2MO 4NO2 O2
H /Ni
17. C2FClBrI 2
X excluding stereoisomers
All isomers
H /Ni
C4H8 alkene
2
Y excluding stereoisomers
All isomers
Find the value of X + Y.
18. How many isomers ‘X’ of C8H10 give only aromatic dicarboxylic acid when react with hot alkaline
KMnO4.
How many isomers ‘Y’ of C4H8 give CO2 when reacts with hot alkaline KMnO4. Find the value of
X + Y?
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19 REVIEW TEST-07-PCM-JEE(Advanced)
This section contains 05 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. In ABC, D, E and F are mid-points of BC, AC and AB respectively. If P, Q, R are the points on AD,
AP BQ CR area of PQR
BE and CF such that , and , then is
AG BG CG area of ABC
(where , , (0, 1) and G is centroid of ABC)
(A)
1 1 (B)
– 1
3 3
(C)
(D) none of these
3
1
2. If g(x) is non-negative continuous function such that g(x) + g x 2 , then the value of
2
1
sin 4x g x dx is
0
(A) 0 (B) 1
1
(C) (D) none of these
2
3. Let a, b, c, d be four integers (not necessarily distinct) in set of {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}. The number of
4 3 2
polynomials x + ax + bx + cx + d which is divisible by x + 1 is
(A) between 55 and 65 (B) between 66 and 85
(C) between 85 and 105 (D) more than 105
4. The equation of directrix of the parabola which touches x-axis and y-axis at points (4, 0) and (0, 2)
respectively, is
(A) y + 3x = 0 (B) y + 2x = 0
(C) y + 4x = 0 (D) none of these
2 2 2 3
5. If x sin A + y sin B + z sin C = 0 and x sin 2A + y sin 2B + z sin 2C = 0, then the value of x sin 3A
3 3
+ y sin 3B + z sin 3C is equal to (where x, y, z, A, B, C R and A + B + C = )
(A) 0 (B) depend on A, B, C
(C) depend on x, y, z (D) none of these
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REVIEW TEST-07-PCM-JEE(Advanced)
20
This section contains 05 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.
6.
Let a and b be two non-collinear unit vectors. If a a b b and a b , then is
(A) (B) a
(C) b (D) a b
+ 1 1
7. Let f: R R be a function which satisfy f(x)f(y) = f(xy) + 2 1 for x, y > 0, then value of
x y
1
f is
2
(A) 4 (B) 5
8
(C) (D) –5
3
2 5 1
8. Considering the equation where x, y N the number of solution of the equation, is
x y 6
(A) 6, if both x and y are multiple of 4
(B) 6, if both x and y are of the type 4n + 2, n 0
(C) 0, if x is a multiple of 4, whereas y is of the form 4n + 2, n 0
(D) 0, if x is of the p type 4n + 2, n 0 where y is a multiple of 4
2 1 10 a b
9. Let A be a matrix if A , then
0 3 c d
(A) a + d is a multiple of 13 (B) b is an even integer
(C) number of factors of d – b is 11 (D) number of factors of a + b + c + d is 22
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21 REVIEW TEST-07-PCM-JEE(Advanced)
This section contains 2 multiple choice questions. Each question has matching Column(s). The codes for
the Column(s) have choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which only ONE OR MORE is/are correct
(C) If the maximum area of ellipse with centre (0, 0) and axis parallel to
coordinate axis and tangent to it with slope 2 is normal to the circle x 2 + (r) 8
y2 + 4x + 1 = 0 is k, then the value of k is
(D) If the angle between asymptotes of 5x 2 – 2 7 xy – y2 – 2x + 1 = 0 is , (s)
1
then the value of tan2 is 3
(t) 5
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REVIEW TEST-07-PCM-JEE(Advanced)
22
This section contains 06 Numerical based questions, the answer of which maybe positive or negative
numbers or decimals (e.g. 6.25, 7.00, -0.33, -.30, 30.27, -127.30).
13. Let f be a double differentiable function and satisfy the condition f(0) = 0, f(1) = 0 and
d2
dx 2
e x f x x 2 > 0 x (0, 1). Then the number of values of x such that
2 x
f(x) – 3 = (x – x)e , which belongs to (0, 1) is/are _____
30 30 30 30 30 29
14. If the value of C0 C1 C2 C3 ...... C10 is Ck then the sum of digits of least value of
k is _____
15. There are 4 bowlers, 4 batsmen, 1 all rounder (who is bowler as well as batsman). Randomly a team
of four players consisting of atleast two bowlers and atleast two batsmen is formed. If the probability
4
that all rounder has been selected in the team is , then the value of p is _____
p
6
5
16. The remainder when 20 C2k 1 is divided by 11 is _____
k 1
17. Let G be the centroid of the ABC whose sides are of lengths a, b, c if P be a point in the plane of
a2 b2 c 2
ABC such that PA = 1, PB = 3, PC = 4 and PG = 2, then the value of is _____
6
1
61x 80x2
18.
If f x x xy 2 x2 y f y dy and f x x
, then the value of
17
is equal to _____
0
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23 REVIEW TEST-07-PCM-JEE(Advanced)
ANSWERS
PHYSICS (SECTION –I)
1. D 2. B 3. D 4. C
5. B 6. B, D 7. A, C 8. A, D
9. A, D 10. D
11. (A) (q) (B) (r) (C) (p) (D) (s)
12. (A) (q) (B) (s) (C) (p) (D) (r)
13. 0.05 14. 3.00 15. 0.20 16. 20.00
17. 7.00 18. 15.00
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REVIEW TEST-07-PCM-JEE(Advanced)
24
1. E 4r2 = 4Gmenc
r
aer
= 4G 4r 2
0
r2
dr
4Ga(1 er )
E
r2
At r = 1,
4aG(e 1)
E
e
3 4 3
1
4/3 1
2. 2 3 2
( x) 30 30
1 1 1
x 60 180
x = 45 cm
3. 2x = R cos O
x 1
So, tan
R cos 2 R cos
2R C
h = R cos =
5
A
COM
B
X X
4. v cos ucos v
2v 2 sin cos
a
g u
2 2 2 2
v sin u sin
a
2g 2g A
By equation (1), (2) and (3)
4 2
u sin2 2ag [u2 cos2 ] a2
g2
a2 g2
u4 sin2 cos2 (2agcos2 )u2 0
4
2agcos2 4a2 g2 cos4 a2 g2 sin2 cos2
u2
2sin2 cos2
2 4 tan2
ag
2sin2
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25 REVIEW TEST-07-PCM-JEE(Advanced)
u 3ag
t C
5. q1 C 1 cos 1 /2
LC 2
L
C/3
t 2 t1 C
C
q2 1 cos
6 LC 15
3
Required charge on capacitor (3)
14
q C q2 C
15
8. ar 2 E
a tan
y=
2 d
a y
dy = sec2 d
2 z a
a
z = sec
2
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REVIEW TEST-07-PCM-JEE(Advanced)
26
a
d = dq E sec
2
q dB 4
a2 sec 4 d 4
64 dt
4
qa2 dB ma2 d
6 dt 3 dt
1 qB
2 m
1 ke2
9. mu2 0
2 r
2k
u e
mr
h 1
r
mu u
1 ke2
KE1 = mu2
2 r
1 ke2
For Bohr model, mv 2 KE2
2 2r
KE1
k 2
KE2
11. (P) forces are conservative so E is constant K will increase upto equilibrium and then decreases
(Q) Gravitational force is conservative, so E is constant U decreases and K increases.
1 1 F2 2
(R) U = mgh constant, K mv 2 ma2 t 2 t
2 2 2m
F2 2
E = U + K = mgh + t
2m
(S) U0 =mgH A v0
AB = v0t h
B
h C
sin h = v0 sin t
v0t
U = U0 mg v0 sin t
1
K mv 20
2
1
E = K + U = (U0 + mv 20 ) mgv 0 sin t
2
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27 REVIEW TEST-07-PCM-JEE(Advanced)
15 v
After solving v1 = 5v0/7, v2 = 2v0 - v 0 = 0
7 7
1 5v 0 v 0 4v0
W= =
r 7 7 r
2
1 25v 0 1 mr 2 16v 20
KEcylinder = m
2 49 2 2 49r 2
25mv02 8mv 02 33
mv 20
98 98 98
1 v 2 mv 20
KEplane = 2m 0
2 49 49
1 33mv 20 mv 20 14mv 20
W friction = mv 20 =
2 98 49 98
2 2 2
1 16v 0 1 mv 2 16v0 24mv 0
K.E. of cylinder w.r.t plank = m =
2 49 2 2 49 98
16. = 4 volts, r = 2
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REVIEW TEST-07-PCM-JEE(Advanced)
28
2
Pmax 2W
4r
1 1
17.
2
m(u2 v 2 ) (2p0 p0 ) 8r 2h r 2h 3
3m(u2 v 2 )
p0
14r 2h
14 3
=
3
14 106 10 1
7
p0 7 107 Pa
5 4L 5 L
18. L k .
4 5 2L
Equation of wave from open end:
P0 sin kx cos t
O
5 x
P P0 sin cos t
2L
P 1 5x
At t 0 P 0 sin
2 2 2L
2L L
x
6 5 15
PART – A:
3. SO2Cl2 + 2H2O H2SO4 + 2HCl
25 ml of 0.2 M
moles of SO2Cl2 = 25 0.2 103 = 5 103
moles of H2SO4 produced = 5 103
moles of HCl produced = 10 103
H2SO4 + Ba(OH)2 BaSO4 + 2H2O
2HCl + Ba(OH)2 BaCl2 + H2O
moles of Ba(OH)2 needed to neutralize H2SO4 = 5 103
10 103
moles of Ba(OH)2 needed to neutralize HCl = 5 10 3
2
Total moles = 10 103
103 V 0.02 = 10 103 = 50 ml
4. CH3
Cl OH
Et S
H2O
Et S CH3 Et S CH3
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29 REVIEW TEST-07-PCM-JEE(Advanced)
5.
O OH OH
H3C O NaOH H3C O
HCl
H3C H3C A
O HO O HO
6.
Br
FeBr3
Br2 Na / Ether
Hg2
intermediate OH
(C) Cl
Cl
Cl2 / CCl4
MeCH CHMe MeHC CHMe Me CH CH Me Me CH CH Me
intermediate Cl Cl
Cl
(D) Alc.KOH
Me2 CH CH2Br
E2 mechanism
no intermediate formed
PART – B:
H2 O CO 2 H3 O
12. (A) CaC2 N2 CaCN2 C CO NH2 2 CaCO 3 2NH3 CO 2
H3 O
(B) NaNH2 N2 O
NaN3 H2O N3H
H3 O
(C) Na2B 4 O7 NH4 Cl BN+NaCl+B 2 O3 4H2 O B 2 O3 2NH3
H3 O
(D) COCl2 NH3
NH2 CONH2 2NH3 CO2
SECTION –C
A2 2A
13.
1 2
rmix 71
rCl2 Mmix of A2 &A
71
2
Mmix
Mmix = 17.75
1 MA 2 2MA
Mmix
1 2
1 15 2
=
1
30
17.75
1
0.69
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REVIEW TEST-07-PCM-JEE(Advanced)
30
For Kp
A2 2A
1 0
1 2
1 atm 1 atm
1 1
2
2
1
Kp
1
1
4 2
Kp atm
1 2
4 .4761
atm
0.5239
Kp = 3.6 atm
14. E q - w
nCV T q - Pext (V2 – V1)
nRT2 nRT1
nCV T q - Pext
P2 P1
E= nC V T
= 2 × 3 × 27 × 4.18 J
= 677.16 J
w = Pext (V2 – V1)
2 R 300 2R 273
= 1
1 2
= 2718.6 J
E q w
q = E w
= 677.16 + 2718.6
= 3395.76 J
15. Fe3 H2 S S Fe2
SO2 2H2 S
3S 2H2 O
H2 O2 H2 S 2H2O S
H2 S O3 H2 O S O2
2HNO3 H2S 2NO2 S 2H2 O
16. All nitrates of alkali earth metal decompose like this.
17. Br F Br F
H2 /Ni
C C HC CH
I Cl I Cl
E (or) z give same product.
Cl F Cl F
H /Ni
C C 2
HC CH
I Br I Br
E (or) z give same product.
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31 REVIEW TEST-07-PCM-JEE(Advanced)
Cl F Cl F
H /Ni
C C 2
HC CH
Br I Br I
E (or) z give same product.
So, x = 3
or or H /Ni
2
n butane
H /Ni
2
iso butane C C C
C
Y=2
X Y 5
18. CH3 CH3 CH3
CH3
or or hot alkaline
Aromatic dicarboxylic acid
KMnO 4
CH3
CH3
So X = 3
hot alkaline
C C C C or C C C
KMnO CO 2
4
C
Y=2
X+Y=5
1. A
area of PQR Ar GPR GQR GQP
Ratio of =
area of ABC Ar ABC
2. A
1 1/2 1
1
sin 4x g x dx = sin 4x g x dx + sin 4x g x dx For I2 put x =
2
t
0 0 1/2
(I1) (I2 )
3. B
a+c=b+d+1
The number of polynomial will be 2(1 2 + 3 2 + 4 3 + 5 4)
4. B
1
Slope of axis is and origin lies at directrix
2
5. A
6. A, C
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REVIEW TEST-07-PCM-JEE(Advanced)
32
Let be the angle between a and b
a b = cos
2 2
sin2
and b 0
b
7. A, C
Put x = 1, y = 1
2
f (1) – f(1) – 6 = 0
f(1) = 3 or f(1) = –2
Now, put y = 1
2 2x 1
f x
x f 1 1
2x 1 1
For f(1) = 3, f x ,f 4
x 2
2 2x 1 1 8
For f(1) = –2, f x , f
3x 2 3
8. A, B, C, D
In all the cases x and y both are even, let x = 2p, y = 2q
2 5 1
So, 6q + 15p – pq = 0
p q 3
(p – 6)(q – 15) = 2 32 5
(A) When both p and q are even (p – 6) and (q – 15) are even and odd respectively
So, number of solution 1 3 2 = 6
(B) Number of solution = 6
(C) p = even, q = odd, (p – 6)(q – 15) is a multiple of four which is not true
(D) p = odd, q = even LHS = odd, not true
9. A, C, D
2n 3n 2n
As A n
0 3n
10 10 5 5
Solution a + d = 2 + 3 = 4 + 9 multiple of 13
Also, d – b = 2 , a + b + c + d = 2 310
10
10. B, C, D
x 1 1
(A) 2 3
1 0 < x < 1 a is false
1 x x
1 x2 x2
1
(B) un tan1 2 n = 1, 2, 3, …..
2n
2
= tan1 2
4n 1 1
1 1
= tan1 tan1
2n 1 2n 1
(B) option is true
(C) sin1 x cos1 x tan1 x tan1 x
2
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33 REVIEW TEST-07-PCM-JEE(Advanced)
Since x [0, 1]
4 2
(C) option is true
3 3
(D) sin1 1
cos
2 2 2
(D) option is true
12. (A) (p, r); (B) (p, r); (C) (p, r); (D) (p, s)
f(x) = 5 ln(1 + x2) – 10x tan–1x + 16 sin x
f(x) = 2(8 cos x – 5 tan–1 x)
5
f(x) = 2 8 sin x 0 , x (0, 1)
1 x2
So f(x) is decreasing x (0, 1)
For x < 1, f(x) > f(1)
5 5
2 8 cos1 2 8 cos 0
4 3 4
So, f(x) is increasing for x > 0, f(x) > f(0) = 0
x
So, f t dt is positive and increasing
0
13. 0
f(x) < (x2 – x)ex x (0, 1)
14. 1
Coefficient of x10 in (1 – x)29
15. 7
4
C2 4C1 4 C2 4C1
Probability = 4
C2 4 C1 4C2 4 C1 4 C2 4C2
16. 3
6 6 21 21
20
C1 20
C3 20
C5 ..... 20
C9 2
18
8 32 8 33 1
So, it leaves remainder 3
17. 7
9(PG)2 + (AB)2 + (BC)2 + (CA)2 = 3((PA)2 + (PB)2 + (PC)2)
= 9 22 + (a2 + b2 + c2) = 3(12 + 32 + 42)
a2 + b2 + c2 = 42
a2 b2 c 2
7
6
18. 7
1 1
f x x x y 2 f y dy x 2 y f y dy
0 0
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REVIEW TEST-07-PCM-JEE(Advanced)
34
1 1
2
Let y f y dy A , y f y dy B
0 0
2 1 A B 1 A B
f(x) = x + Ax + Bx A , B
4 4 5 3 3 4
61 80 61x 80 x 2
A , B , f x x
119 119 119
= 119
7
17
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