Elegant MCQs

CHEMISTRY MCQS CLASS : XI
Course Incharge : M.FAHAD KHAN

Master of Philosophy Chemistry
CHAPTER # 01
Multiple Choice Questions:
1. The basic unit of length in SI system is
(i) Foot (ii) Inch (ii) Mile (iv) None of these
2. Which property indicates the ability of a substance to undergo chemical changes?
(i) Physical property (ii) Chemical
(iii) Additive property (iv) None of these
3. The property of a substance which does not deal with its ability to undergo chemical
change is known as.
(i) Colligate property (ii) Additive property
(iii) Physical property (iv) Chemical property
4. The atoms consist of still smaller particles the most important of which are
(i) Neutrons (ii) Protons (iii) Electrons (iv) All of the above.
5. According to modern concept all ordinary matter is composed of extremely tiny entries
called
(i) Molecules (ii) Compounds (iii) Atoms (iv) Elements
6. The basic unit of mass in SI system is
(i) Kilogram (ii) Pound (iii) Gram (iv) Milligram
7. The SI unit volume is
(i) m3 (ii) ml (iii) cm 3 (iv) dm 3
8. A decimeter is equal to
(i) 104 m (ii) 102 m (iii) 10– 1 m (iv) None of these
9. The volume occupied by 1Kg by mass of pure water at 3.98 0C is called
(i) One Kg (ii) One Litre (iii) One ml (iv) One cm
10. The atomic mass unit is defined as
(i) 1/12 the mass of C12 (ii) 1/10 the mass of C12
(iii) 1/12 the mass of C13 (iv) None of these
11. 1 a. m. u. is equal to
(i) 1.6x 10-24g (ii) 1.6x 10- 20g (iii) 1.6x 10-30g (iv) 1.0x 10- 24 kg
12. The energy expanded when a force of one Newton moves an object one metre in the
direction in which the force is applied is called.
(i) Calorie (ii) B.T.U (iii) Joule (iv) None of these
13. While multiplying the exponentially expressed numbers, their exponents are
(i) Subtracted (ii) Multiplied (iii) Added (iv) None of these
CHEMISTRY NOTES CLASS : XI
14. Vary small and vary large quantities are expressed in terms of
(i) Significant Figures (ii) Exponential notation
(iii) Logarithm (iv) None of these
15. 80635 is also written in exponential forms as
(i) 80.635x 104 (ii) 0.80635x102 (iii) 8. 0635 x104 (iv) 8.0635x 10-4
16. 49. 85 can be round off as
(i) 49.8 (ii) 49.5 (iii) 49.84 (iv) 49.9
17. 870.0 have
(i) Two significant figures (ii) Three significant figures
18. The numbers that indicate confidence in measurement is called
(i) Precision (ii) Accuracy (iii) significant figures (iv) None of these
19. The simplest whole number ratio of atoms in the compound called
(i) Structural Formula (ii) Molecular Formula
(iii) Empirical Formula (iv) Dash Formula
20. A combination of two or more atoms that can exist independently as a separate
distinguishable unit is called.
(i) Atom (ii) Molecule (iii) Ion (iv) None of these
21. A chemical formula based on an actual molecules is called
(i) Structural Formula (ii) Empirical Formula
(iii) Molecular Formula (iv) None of these
22. The empirical formula of glucose is
(i) C6 H 12 O6 (ii) CH2 O (iii) C12 H 12 O11 (iv) None of these
23. 1 Mole of H2 SO4 is
(i) 49.0 g (ii) 98.02 g (iii) 100g (iv) 50 g
24. 1 mole of 6C12 consists of 6.022 x 1023 atom of carbons and weights
(i) 14.00 g (ii) 13.00 g (iii) 12.00 g (iv) 11.00 g
25. The branch of chemistry which deals with the study of relationship between the
quantities of reactants and products in a chemical reaction is called
(i) Stereochemistry (ii) Thermo chemistry
(ii) Stoichiometery (iv) Photochemistry
26. The actual yield is less than the theoretical yield because of
(i) Side reactions (ii) Mechanical loss
(iii) Reversible nature of the reaction (iv) All of these factors
27. 0.00034 has
(i) Five Signification figures (ii) Four Signification figures
(iii) Three Signification figures (iv) Two Signification figures
28. Mass of one atom of carbon is

(i) 2x 1023g (ii) 1.99x 10-23 g (iii) 1.60 x10-4 g (iv) 1.60x 1024g
29. An organic compound has molecular weight 180 and empirical formula CH2 O.
its molecular formula may be
(i) C2 H2 O 4 (ii) C2 H6 O12 (iii) C4 H12 O 4 (iv) C6 H12 O6
30. One mole each of sodium and potassium contains
(i) Equal atoms (ii) Equal volumes (iii) Equal masses (iv) None of these
31. The value of Avogadro's number is
(i) 6.022 x 1023 (ii) 6.01x 10 24 (iii) 6.022x 1024 (iv) 6. 01 x 10 24
32. One joule is equal to
(i) 1 Nm (ii) 1 Nm – 1 (iii) Nm – 1 (iv) 1 N m -1
33. The relation between oC and oF scales is
(i) oC = 5/9 (oF -32) (ii) o C = 9/5 (o F -32 )
(iii) oC =9/5 (oF+ 32) (iv) oC =4/9 (oF + 32)
34. What is the mass of 1.5 mole of oxygen molecules?
(i) 16 g (ii) 48 g (iii) 32 g (iv) 8g
35. The branch of chemistry which deals with the study of nucleus structure and properties
is known.
(i) Physical Chemistry (ii) Inorganic Chemistry
(iii) Radiation Chemistry (iv) Nuclear Chemistry
36. Atoms that have the same atomic number but different mass number are called
(i) Isotones (ii) Isobars (iii) Isotopes (iv) Isomers
37. Atoms that have the same mass number but different atomic numbers are called
38. Atoms that have same number of neutrons are called
39. Dissociation of NH3 is a process called:
(i) Reversible (ii) Irreversible (iii) One of these (iv) Both A & B
40. Which one of the following compounds contains the highest percentages by mass of
nitrogen?
(i) NH3 (ii) N2 H4 (iii) NO (iv) NH4
41. Mass of one mole of chlorine gas is:
(i) 35.5 g (ii) 71 g (iii) 23 g (iv) 20 g
42. A compound contains 87.5% Si and 12.5% H .What is the empirical formula of
compound (Relative atomic masses H= 1 and Si = 28)
(i) Si H2 (ii) Si H3 (iii) Si H4 (iv) Si 2 H 6
43. The equation of burning of hydrogen in oxygen is:
2H 2 (g) + O 2 (g) 2 H2 O (g)

This equation indicates that:
(i) 2 atoms of hydrogen combine with 2 atoms of oxygen
(ii) 2 moles of steam can be produced from 0.5 mole of oxygen
(iii) 2 mole of steam can be produced from 1 mole of oxygen
(iv) None of these
44. Formula mass of Ca(NO3)2 is:
(i) 70 (ii) 82 (iii) 164 (iv) 150
45. Number of atoms, molecules, ions in one mole of a substance is called:
(i) Atomic Mass (ii) Avogadro's number
(iii) Mole fraction (iv) None of these
46. 6 g of H2 gas is:
(i) 1 mole (ii) 2 mole (iii) 3 mole (iv) 4 mole
47. The difference of measured value and actual value is:
(i) Precision (ii) Accuracy (iii) Error (iv) None of these
48. A compound has empirical formula C3H3O and molecular mass110 g mol.
The actual molecular formula of compound is:
(i) C3 H3 O (ii) C6 H6O2 (iii) C2H2 O (iv) C3 H3O3
49. The reactant that consumed earlier and give least quantity of the product is called:
(i) Limiting reactant (ii) Reactant
(iii) Stoichiometry (iv) None of these
CHAPTER # 02
1. Which is the coloured gas?
(i) H2 (ii) O2 (iii) NO2 (iv) He
2. Atmosphere pressure is measured by
(i) Nanometer (ii) Barometer (iii) Thermometer (iv) Ammeter
3 One atmosphere is equal to
(i) 76 torr (ii) 760 torr (iii) 7.6 torr (iv) 7600 torr
4 At constant temperature volume of given mass of a gas in inversely proportional to
pressure on it. This is a statement of
(i) Charle's law (ii) Boyle's law (iii) Hooks law (iv) Graham's law
5 The plot V versus 1 / P results in a
(i) Parabota (ii) Hyperboia (iii) Straight line (iv) Curve
6 The volume of a fixed mass of a gas directly proportional to the absolute
temperature at constant pressure . this is statement of
(i) Boyle's law (ii) Charle's law (iii) Avogadro's law (iv) Dalton's law
7 According to charle's law the volume of a given mass of gas should be zero at
(i) 25o C (ii) 1000C (iii) 2370 C (iv) -273 o C
8 Which variable are interrelated in ideal gas equation ?
(i) Volume (ii) Temperature (iii) Pressure (iv) All of the above
9 Under standard condition of temperature and pressure, one mole of a gas
occupies volume equal to.
(i) 2.24 dm3 (ii) 224 dm3 (iii) 22.4 dm3 (iv) 22.4 cm3
10. In SI units the numerical value of R is equal to
(i) 8.314 JK – 1 mol – 1 (ii) 8.314 Cals K – 1 mol – 1
(iii) 8.314 JK mol – 1 (iv) None of these
11. The escape of gas molecules one by one without collisions through a hole of
molecular dimensions is called.
(i) Effusion (ii) Diffusion (iii) Osmosis (iv) None of these
12. The rate of diffusion of two gases are inversely proportional to the square roots
of their densities or molecular weights is a statement of
(i) Charle's law (ii) Boyle's law (iii) Graham's law (iv) Dalton's law
13. The pressure of each gas in a mixture is called
(i) Total pressure (ii) Vapor pressure
(iii) Equilibrium pressure (iv) Partial pressure
14. The total pressure exerted by a mixture of gases is the sum of the partial pressure of all
the gases present is a statement of
(i) Charle's law (ii) Boyle's law (iii) Dalton's law (iv) Graham's law
15. Real gases deviate from ideal behavior at.
(i) Low pressure (ii) High pressure
(iii) High Temperature (iv) Low temperature and high pressure
16. At the same temperature the molecules of every gas have the same average.
(i) Potential energy (ii) Rotational energy
(iii) Vibrational energy (iv) Kinetic energy
17. Which gas diffuses more rapidly?
(i) O2 (ii) SO3 (iii) NH3 (iv) H2
18. The ratio of diffusion of the H2 and O 2 is
(i) 1: 4 (ii) 4: 1 (iii) 1:8 (iv) 1 : 16
19. STP means
(i) 128 K and 1 atm ( ii) 25o C and 1 atm
(iii) 0oC and 1 atm (iv) 25o C and 25 atm
20. Gas molecules exert pressure on the walls of container because of
(i) Attraction (ii) Repulsion (iii) Cohesion (iv) Collision
21. The air contains CO2 upto
(i) 78% (ii) 21% (iii) 1% (iv) Less than 1%
22 In Symbol General gas equation is written as
(i) PV= n RT (ii) PR = n VT (iii) n RT (iv) None of these
23 Which of the following exists in gaseous form?
(i) O3 (ii) HF (iii) Ne (iv) All of the above
24 Which of the following is used in Barometer?
(i) Liquid NH3 (ii) Cl2 gas (iii) Mercury (iv) Water
25 373.15 K temperature is equal to
(i) 0o C (ii) 200o C (iii) 1o C (iv) 100o C
26. The average kinetic energy of a molecule is given by
(i) 1/2 mv 2 (ii) 3/2 mv 2 (iii) 5/2 mv2 ( iv) 1/2 m2v2
27. The average distance travelled by a molecule between two successive collision is called
(i) Collision diameter (ii) Collision frequency
(iii) Mean free path (iv) Free path
28. The intermolecular attractive forces operative over very short distances in gases are
(i) H- bonding (ii) Ionic bonding
(iii) Van der wall's forces (iv) None of these
29. All the gases can be converted into liquids and solid by
(i) Cooling (ii) Compression
(iii) Evaporation (iv) Cooling and compression
30. During which process the particles come so close to each other that the empty spaces
between them are reduced to minimum
(i ) Evaporation (ii) Condensation
(iii) Sublimation (iv) Ionization
31. What factors affect the vapour pressure?
(i) Temperature (ii) Nature of liquid
(iii) Inter molecular forces (iv) All of the above
32. The vapour pressure of a liquid is independent of
(i) Temperature (ii) Pressure
(iii) Inter molecular forces (iv) Amount of a liquid
33. The temperature at which the vapour pressure of a liquid becomes equal to the
atmospheric pressure is called.
(i) Freezing point (ii) Boiling point
(iii) Mixing point (iv) Critical temperature
34. Latent heat of vaporization of water is
(i) 30 JK mol1 (ii) 40 JK mol – 1 (iii) 40. 7 JK mol – 1 (iv) 30.7 JK mol – 1
35. The amount of energy required to expand the surface of a liquid by a unit area is called.
(i) Viscosity (ii) Free energy
(iii) Surface tension (iv) None of these
36. Surface tension s measured in the units of
(i) Nm (ii) N-1 m-1 (iii) Nm-1 (iv) Nm2
37. Which of the following reduce the surface tension?
(i) Catalysis (ii) Wetting agents (iii) Inhibitors (iv) Initiator
38. Which liquid does not wet glass?
(i) A water (ii) Mercury (iii) Alcohol (iv) Ether
39. Capillary action is due to
(i) Cohesion (ii) Adhesion
(iii) Both cohesion and adhesion (iv) None of these
40. The resistance of liquid to its flow is called
(i) Surface tension (ii) Viscosity
(iii) Refraction (iv) None of these
41. Which substance has high viscosity?

(i) Water (ii) Ether (iii) Benzene (iv) Honey
42. Viscosity of liquid depends on
(i) Molecular size (ii) Molecular shape
(iii) H- bonding (iv) All of the above
43. A substance showing variable intensity of a property in different direction is called
(i) Allotropy (ii) Anisotropy (iii) Cleavage (iv) None of these
44. The solid in which the particles have no regular arrangement and are randomly
placed are called.
(i) Crystalline solids (ii) Amorphous solids
(iii) Vitreous solids (iv) None of these
45. Two substance that have the same crystal structure are said to be
(i) Isomorphous (ii) Anisotropic (iii) Isotropic (iv) Polymorphous
46. A single substance that crystallizes in two or more different forms under different
conditions is said to be
(i) Isomorphous (ii) Polymorphous (iii) Isotropic (iv) None of these
47. The system in which all the three axes are of equal length and at right angle to each
other is called.
(i) Hexagonal (ii) Trigonal (iii) Cubic (iv) Rectangular
48. The system in which all the three axes are unequal ad are at right angle to each other is
called.
(i) Cubic (ii) Hexagonal (iii) Orthorhombic (iv) Tetragonal
49 The system in which all the three axes and angles are unequal is called.
(i) Hexagonal (ii) Monoclinic (iii) Trigonal (iv) Triclinic
50. The system in which two out of three axes are of equal and three angles are equal.
(i) Cubic system (ii) Hexagonal system
(iii) Trigonal system (iv) Tetragonal system
51. The crystals which are formed by interaction between positively and negatively
charged ions are known as
(i) Metallic crystals (ii) Covalent crystal
(iii) Ionic crystals (iv) None of these
52. The amount of energy released when gaseous ions of opposite charges combine to
give one mole of a crystalline ionic compound is called.
(i) Bond energy (ii) Heat of formation
(iii) Lattice energy (iv) Ionization energy
53. The shape of the common salt is
(i) Monolic (ii) Triclinic (iii) Hexagonal (iv) Cubic
54. Evaporation causes
(i) Freeezing (ii) Cooling (iii) Heating (iv) Sublimation
55 Which liquid is more volatile?
(i) Water (ii) Mercury (iii) Benzene (iv) Honey
56. A drop of water spreads on a blotting paper. This is due to
(i) Surface tension (ii) Capillary action (iii) Viscosity (iv) Cohesion
57. Which of the following molecules are symmetrical?
(i) CH4 (ii) SO3 (iii) C12 (iv) All of these above
58. Which of the following liquid has higher boiling point?
(i) HC1 (ii) HBr (iii) H2 O (iv) Br2
59. Surface tension is measured by
(i) The torsion method (ii) The capillary method
(iii) The drop weight method (iv) All of the above
60. Graphite belongs to which system?
(i) Hexagonal (ii) Cubic (iii) Monoclinic (iv) Tetragonal
61. The ______________ gas diffuses more rapidy:
(i) Lighter (ii) Heavier (iii) Massive (iv) None of these
62. 6. 02 x 10 23 is called
(i) Boltzman constant (ii) Gas constant
(iii) Avagardo's number (iv) None of these
63. A set of postulates which explains the behavior of ideal gas is called:
(i) Bohr's theory (ii) Boyle's theory
(iii) Kinetic molecular theory of gases (iv) None of these
64. Solid _____________ is called dry ice
(i) SO2 (ii) CO2 (iii) O2 (iv) None of these
65. At S.T.P 44.8 litre of any gas has moles:
(i) 3 mole (ii) 2 mole (iii) 1 mole (iv) 4 mole
66. The process in which a gas is liquefied directly on cooling is called:
(i) Condensation (ii) Sublimation
(iii) Freezing (iv) Melting
67. The atoms, molecules or ions in solids have ____________- motion
(i) Translational (ii) Rotational
(iii) Vibrational (iv) None of these
68. Diffusion in liquids is:
(i) Faster than gases (ii) Slower than gases
(iii) Equal to gases (iv) None of these
69. Property in which recovery of shapes take place when deforming force is removed is
called:
(i) Hardness (ii) Elasticity (iii) Cleavage (iv) None of these
70. Kinetic theory based on the:
(i) Structure of the particle of matter (ii) Bonding of the particle of matter
(iii) Motion of the particle of matter (iv) Size of the particle of matter
71 The volume occupied one mole of any gas at S.T.P is called
(i) Normal Volume (ii) Molar volume
(iii) Solid volume (iv) Avogadro's volume
72. Sample of a gas contains 300 ml volume at 27 o Cand 1 atm pressure. Calculate the
volume of the gas occupy at 32o C temp and 5 atm pressure
(i) 110 ml (ii) 50 ml (iii) 61 ml (iv) 65 ml
73. T2 is the temperature which represents:
(i) Solid melts T3 ………………………………………………
(ii) Liquid boils T2 ……………………
(iii) Liquid condense T1 ……..
(iv) Solid sublimes

Time
74. The viscosity of a liquid increase when:
(i) Molecular size increases (ii) Molecular size decrease
(iii) Viscosity does not depend on molecular size
(iv) Some time increase and some time decrease
75. Viscosity of a liquid is higher when:
(i) Intermolecular forces between molecules are weak
(ii) Intermolecular forces between molecules are strong.
(iii) Size of the molecules are smaller
(iv) All of these
76. Which one of the following liquid has strong adhesive forces
A. B.
C. D. All of these have same adhesive forces
77. By the applying pressure on the crystal, solid crystal break into small crystals
resembling the larger crystal along the plane this process is called as:
(i) Breaking (ii) Polymorphism (iii) Isomorphism (iv) Cleavage
78. Which one of the following is Isomorphic Substance?
(i) Diamond Graphite (ii) Ca CO3, Na NO 3
(iii) Ca CO 3 , Ni SO4 (iv) All of these
79. The diamond is:
(i) Metallic crystal (ii) Molecular crystal
(iii) Covalent crystals (iv) None of these
80. A small building block which brings whole information about crystal structure is called:
(i) Unit cell (ii) Crystal lattice
(iii) Crystal unit (iv) None of the above
81 Trigonal and orthorhombic crystal of CaCO3 is known as:
(i) Isomers (ii) Isomorphous (iii) Isotopes (iv) Polymorphous
82. When any solid is changed to gas without melting the process is called:
(i) Diffusion (ii) Boiling (iii) Sublimation (iv) Distillation
83. The process in which a solid is directly converted into gaseous state is called
(i) Evaporation (ii) Melting (iii) Sublimation (iv) Distillation
CHAPTER # 03
1. Which of the experiments convinces about the divisibility of atoms?
(i) Radioactivity (ii) X-rays
(iii) Spectroscopic studies iv) All of the above
2. Which light is emitted by a fluorescent material?
(i) UV (ii) Visible (iii) IR (iv) X- Rays
3. Cathode rays emitted from cathode are
(i) Cananl rays (ii) Protons (iii) Electrons (iv) Positrons
4. Charge to muss ratio (e/ m) of the electron is determined by
(i) R .A. Millikan (ii) J.J Thomson
(iii) G.J.Stoney (iv) None of these
5. Alpha particles are
(i) Neutrons (ii) Protons (iii) Electrons (iv) Helium nuclei
6. The beam attracted towards the negatively charged plate are
(i) Alpha particles (ii) Neutrons
(iii) Beta particles (iv) Gamma particles
7. Which rays are not deflected by electric and magnetic field?
(i) Alpha (ii) Beta (iii) Gamma (iv) None of these
8. Which rays carry no charged and non- material in nature?
(i) Alpha (ii) Beta (iii) Gamma (iv) None of these
9. Neutron was discovered by
(i) Moseley (ii) Milliken (iii) Chadwick (iv) Rutherford
10. The phenomena of the emission of radiation from nuclei of lighter atoms due to
bombardment of moving particles is known as
(i) Fission (ii) Fusion (iii) Artificial radioactivity (iv) None of these
11. When high energy electrons collide with the anode, a very penetrating kind of
radiation is produced roentgen called them
(i) Alpha – rays (ii) Beta – rays (iii) Gamma- rays (iv) X- rays
12. Neutron possesses
(i) Positive charge (ii) Negative charge
(iii) No charge (iv) None of these
13. Rutherford bombarded by a number of electrons equal to the number of
(i) Beta particles (ii) Neutron (iii) Alpha particles (iv) Electron
14. The nucleus is surrounded by a number of electrons equal to the number of
(i) Neutron (ii) Proton (iii) Negatron (iv) Positron
15. According to rutherford's model, the nucleus is surrounded by
(i) Proton (ii) Neutron (iii) Positron ( iv) Electron
16. Nucleus was discovered by
(i) Schrodinger (ii) Chadwick (iii) Bohr ( iv) Rutherford
17. The spectrum of incandescent gas is
(i) Absorption (ii) Emission (iii) Line (iv) Continuous
18. The number of waves passing through a point in one second is called
(i) Wave number (ii) Velocity (iii) Frequency (Iv) Wavelength
19. The distance between two successive crests in one or through is called
(i) Velocity (ii) Frequency (iii) Wavelength (iv) Intensity
20. When a substance that has absorbed energy emits it in the form of radiation.
The spectrum is
(i) Absorption spectrum (ii) Emission spectrum
(iii) Line spectrum (iv) Continuous spectrum
21. The energy difference between two level is given by
(i) ∆ E = hc (ii) ∆ E = h (iii) ∆ E = hk (iv) None of these
22. The angular momentum of the electron is given by
(i) nh/4 λ (ii) nh / 3 λ (iii) nh / 2 λ (iv) h/2λ
23. The centrifugal force is equal to
(i) mv2r (ii)
mv (iii) m2 vr (iv) mv2
r r
24. The quantum number which describes the shape of the orbital is
(i) Principle quantum number (ii) Spin quantum number
(iii) Azimuthal quantum number (iv) Magentic quantum number
25. The quantum number which describe the orientation of the orbital is
(i) Spin quantum number (ii) Principle quantum number
(iii) Azimuthal quantum number (iv) Magentic quantum number
26. The orbital which has spherical shape is called
(i) s- orbital (ii) p- orbital (iii) d- orbital (iv) f- orbital
27. When the electron jumps from third, fourth, fifth, orbits to the second orbit,
the transitions are known as
(i) Paschen (ii) P fund (iii) Balmer (iv) Brackett series
28. When the electron jumps from second ,third , fourth, orbits to the first orbit,
the transitions are known as
(i) Balmer series (ii) Lyman series (iii) Pfund series (iv) Brackett series
29. Paschen, Pfund and bracket series are found in
(i) UV region (ii) Visible region (iii) IR region (iv) None of these
30. Bohr’s theory satisfactorily explains
(i) Stability of atom (ii) Ionization energy
(iii) Spectra of hydrogen (iv) All of the above
31. The first important discovery about the nature of cathode rays made by
(i) J. Perrin (ii) De- Broglic (iii) Crooks (iv) Hittorf
32. Cathode rays possess
(i) -ve charge (ii) +ve charge (iii) Neutral (iv) None of these
33. Canal rays are
(i) -ve charge (ii) +ve charge (iii) Neutral (iv) None of these
34. The wavelength of green light in the range of
(i) 510-580 nm (ii) 400-450 nm (iii) 300-400 nm (iv) 600-700 nm
35. Hydrogen atomic spectra are obtained by :
(i) De- excitation of a higher energy state
(ii) Emission of a gamma ray from the nucleus
(iii) Absorption of energy by ground state
(iv) Absorption of a an electron by the nucleus
36. Quantum mechanical model of atom develop on the basis of Schrödinger equation
helps to calculate
(i) Bond energy (ii) Bond length
(iii) Shapes of molecules (iv) All of the above
37. if the value of l=o. the orbital is
(i) s (ii) p (iii) d (iv) f
38. The maximum number of electrons in d- orbital is
(i) 6 (ii) 8 (iii) 12 (iv) 10
39. The electrons are put in energy sub- levels in the order of increasing energy values.
This is a statement of
(i) Hund's rule (ii) Aufbau’s Principle
(iii) Pauli exclusion principle (iv) Phase rule
40. Which of the following has highest electronegativity ?
(i) CI (ii) N (iii) F (iv) O
41. The measure of the ability of an atom to attract an electron pair to it self in a chemical
bond is called
(i) Ionization energy (ii) Electron affinity
(iii) Electro negativity (iv) None of these
42. When the orbitals of same energy are available to electrons, they will live
in the separate orbitals . this is a statement of
(i) Hund's rule (ii) Aufbau principle
(iii) Pauli exclusion principle (iv) Phase rule
43. The maximum number of electrons in orbital is
(i) 2 (ii) 4 (iii) 6 (iv) 8
44. The value of spin quantum number is
(i) + 1/ 2 (ii) - 1/ 2 (iii) + 1/ 2 or – 1/2 ` (iv) +2
45. Electron behaves like
(i) Waves (ii) Particle (iii) Wave and particle (iv) None of these
46. f- orbital has maximum number of electrons
(i) 10 (ii) 6 (iii) 2 (iv) 14
47. Natural radioactivity is shown by elements which have atomic number
(i) 70 (ii) More than 80 (iii) X- rays (iv) None of these
48. Which orbital has the lowest energy?
(i) 3d (ii) 4s (iii) 3p (iv) 4f
49. Which ion has greater size?
(i) Cl- (ii) I- (iii) F- (iv) Br–
50. SI unit of wave length is
(i) Meter cube (ii) Meter (iii) Meter square (iv) Per metre
51. If the electro negativity difference between atoms is more than 1.7, the bond is
(i) Ionic (ii) Covalent (iii) Coordinate (iv) Metallic
52. The maximum number of electrons in d- orbital is
(i) 14 (ii) 10 (iii) 4 (iv) 5
53. Electro negativity depends on
(i) Atomic size (ii) Atomic numbers
(iii) Atomic volume (iv) All of the above
54. A covalent bond is formed when E.N values difference is
(i) Greeter than 1.7 (ii) Equal to 1.7
(iii) less than 1.7 (iv) None of these
55. Which element has higher electron affinity value?
(i) He (ii) Ne (iii) Ar (iv) Kr
56. Ionization energy depends on
(i) Magnitude of nuclear charge (ii) Atomic radius
(iii) Shielding effect (iv) All of the above
57. Which elements has high first ionization energy value?
(i) Li (ii) Be (iii) B (iv) C
58. Which element has low ionization value?
(i) He (ii) Li (iii) Na (iv) K
59. Which of the following is correct one?
(i) C=1/λ (ii) c=h/ (iii) =c/λ (iv) h = m/ 
60. The valence shell configuration of B is
(i) 2 2s 1 1 S 2, 2s 2 (iii) 1 s,2 2s,2 2p1 (iv) 2s2,2p3
1s (ii)
61. Complete the following with suitable
9 C 12 n1
4 Be + ______ 6 + O
(i) B+ (ii) B- (iii) 4

1 H1 (iv) 2He
62. Value of Rydberg constant is:

(i) 1.6 x 109 m -1 (ii) 9.7297x 107m-1
(iii) 1.0974.x 107m-1 (iv) 1.7888. x 10 9m-1
63. 14
7N + 2 He 4 + 1H 1
(i) 17 O16 N14
8O (ii) 8o16 (iii) 8 (iv)
64. No two electrons in an atom can have a set of some four quantum number " is called:
(i) Newton' first law (ii) Pauli's Exclusion principle
(iii) Hund's rule (iv) None of these
65. Two electrons in the helium atom:
(i) Have different spin quantum No. (ii) Have same spin quantum No
(iii) Occupy different shells (iv) None of these
66. T.V.picture tube is a type of:
(i) X- rays tube (ii) Discharge tube (iii) Millikan tube (iv) Positive rays tube
67. Value of plank's constant is :
(i) 6.626x 10 –34 erg s-1 (ii) 6.626x 10 -27 erg s- 1
(iii) 9.1x 10 –31 erg s-1 (iv) 6.02 x 10 –9 erg s-1
68. In 1913. Mosely used the X- rays to determine the :
(i) Mass number (ii) Atomic number
(iii) Relative atomic mass (iv) Avogadro's No.
69. The electron losses energy when:
(i) It jump from higher to lower orbit (ii) It jumps from lower to highter orbit
(iii) Electron is in constant motion (iv) All of these
70. Balmer series lie in :

(i) Infra red region (ii) Visible region
(iii) Ultra – violet region (iv) Invisible
71. An electron is said to be excited inside an atoms if:
(i) It losses energy (ii) It gains energy
(iii) Less than zero (iv) More than zero
72. The statement is not true:
(i) No two electrons can have the same set of four quantum number
(ii) The energy level K contains only one orbital and two or less electrons
(iii) The energy level L has 4 orbital s and can have maximum of 8 electrons
(iv) The N energy level contains six sub levels and maximum of 32 electrons
73. An orbital can have maximum of :
(i) 2 electrons (ii) 6 electrons
(iii) 8 electrons (iv) 32 electrons
74. Electronic configuration of Mg ( atomic no 12) is:
(i) 2 . 2p8 2 2 . 3s2 2ps
1S . 2s2 (ii) 1S, . 2s
(iii) 2 . 3s 2 P6 2 2 6 3s2
1S, 2 . 2 S (iv) 1S, 2s .2p ,
75. In ground state carbon atoms has:

(i) three unaired electrons (ii) Two lone pair electrons
(iii) Two unpaired electrons (iv) One unpaired electron
76. if l = 2 the orbitals is called as :
(i) s (ii) d (iii) f (iv) p
77. The lowest energy level which can have electron can have is :
(i) L (ii) K (iii) M (iv) N
78. Which one of the following particles contains 10 electrons, 11 protons and 12 neutrons:
(i) 24 + 2 (ii) 23 +
11 Na
(iii) 24 +2 23
12 Mg (iv) 10 Ne
79. The presence of three unpaired electrons in nitrogen atom can be explained by :
(i) Pauliexclusion principle (ii) Hund's rule
(iii) Au fbau principle (iv) Heisenberg's uncertainly principle
80. Velocity of :
(i) Alpha particles greater than beta particles
(ii) Beta particles greater than alpha particles
(iii) Alpha particles is same as beta particles
(iv) Alpha particles is same of velocity of lights
81. Radioactivity is due to :
(i) Stable electronic configuration (ii) Stable nucleus
(iii) Unstable electronic configuration (iv) Unstable nucleus
82. Emission of β particles from an element shows its :
(i) Atomic mass increase by 1 (ii) Atomic mass decrease by 1
(iii) Atomic charge increase by 1 (iv) Atomic charge decrease by 1
83. In a spectrum of light shortest and longest wave length respectively are:
(i) Violet and red (ii) Blue and red
(iii) Red and blue (iv) Violet and indigo
CHAPTER #04
1. The attractive force that holds atoms together is called
(i) Bond strength (ii) Chemical energy
(iii) Chemical bond (iv) None of these
2. Which electrons take part during a chemical reaction
(i) Inner electrons (ii) Outer electrons
(iii) Inner and outer electrons (iv) None of these
3 The type of bond between two atoms is determined by the difference of
(i) Electron affinity values (ii) Electronegativeity value
(iii) Ionization potential values (iv) None of these
4. A bond which is formed by the complete transfer of one or more electrons
from one atom to another is called
(i) Covalent bond (ii) Ionic bond
(iii) Co- ordinate bond (iv) H- bond
5. A chemical bond which is formed by mutual sharing of electrons is called
(i) Ionic bond (ii) Covalent bond
(iii) metallic –bond (iv) None of these
6. Ionic compounds have high
(i) high M. P (ii) high B.P (iii) high M.P.Or. B.P. (iv) None of these
7. Ionic compounds are soluble in
(i) benzene (ii) water (iii) chloroform (iv) hexane
8. A covalent bond in which both the electrons are donated by one of the
atoms is called
(iii) Coordinate covalent bond (iv) None of these
9. The bond which acquires a partial ionic character is known as
(iii) Polar covalent bond (iv) Non- polar bond
10. HCI possess
(i) Polar covalent bond (ii) Ionic bond
(iii) Coordinate bond (iv) Non- polar bond
11. A bond which is formed by sharing of two, two electron between two atoms is
called
(i) Single covalent bond (ii) Double covalent bond
(iii) Triple covalent bond (iv) None of these
12 Which compound has coordinate covalent bond?
(i) CH4 (ii) NH3 (iii) NH+4 (iv) Si H4
13. The double bonds are present between the atoms of the molecule.
(i) CO2 (ii) H2 O (iii) CH3 cl (iv) CH4
14 The theory which states that electron pairs are arranged around the central
atom of a molecule in such a way that there is maximum separation is
(i) VESPR theory (ii) V . B theory
(iii) M. O theory (iv) None of these
15. The theory which states that covalent bond is formed by the overlapping of two
or more than two half filled atomic orbital is
(i) M . O theory (ii) V. B theory
(iii) VESPER Theory (iv) None of these
16 The degree of polarity of a molecule is expressed in terms of its
(i) Viscosity (ii) Surface tension
(iii) Dipole moment (iv) Refraction
17 The SI units of dipole moment are
(i) Joule (ii) Debye
(iii) Joule- meter (iv) Coulomb meter
18. A bond in which region of highest electron density is around the bond axis is
called
(i) Pi- bond (ii) Sigma bond
(iii) H- bond (iv) None of these
19. The bond which is formed due to parallel overlap of p- orbital of two already
bonded atoms is known as
(i) Pi- bond (ii) Sigma bond
(iii) Metallic- bond (iv) None of these
20. The geometry of NH3 is
(i) Linear (ii) Octahedral (iii) Angular (iv) Pyramidal
21. The mixing of one s and three p- orbital to forms four equivalent hybrids is called
(i) sp2 hybridization (ii) sp hybridization
(iii) sp 3 hybridization (iv) dsp3 hybridization
22. Ethylene molecule has which hybridization
(i) sp3 (ii) SP (iii) sp 2 (iv) None of these
23. The bond angle of BCI3 molecule is

(i) O (ii) O (iii) O (iv) O
10 0 109. 5 107. 5 120
24. The molecule of ethylene contains how many sigma bonds

(i) Three (ii) Two (iii) One (iv) Four
25. Each SP3 hybird orbital has p character
(i) 70% (ii) 25% (iii) 75% (iv) 20%
26. PH3 has geometry
(i) Tetrahedral (ii) Pyramidal (iii) Hexagonal (iv) Octahedral
27. Which of the following is non- polar molecule?
(i) CH4 (ii) H2 O (iii) NH3 (iv) H2 S
28 Which of the following is polar molecule?
(i) CHCl3 (ii) CCI4 (iii) C6H6 (iv) C2 H4
29. Which molecule has liner geometry?
(i) SO2 (ii) H2 O (iii) CO2 (iv) H2 S
30. Which molecule has pi- bond ?
(i) C12 (ii) NH3 (iii) HC1 (iv) O2
31. Which molecule has lone pair of electrons?
(i) CC14 (ii) H2O (iii) C6 H6 (iv) None of these
32. Which molecule has zero dipole moment?
(i) SO2 (ii) H2 O (iii) NH3 (iv) CO2
33 Oxygen atom in H2O shows hybridization?
(i) sp (ii) SP2 (iii) SP3 (iv) SP2d
34. Which set of electrons offers more repulsion?
(i) Lone pair- bond pair (ii) Bond pair- bond pair
(iii) Lone pair- lone pair (iv) None of these
36. Which of the following molecules have zero dipole moment?
(i) CC1 4 (ii) CH 4 (iii) BF 3 (iv) All of the above
37. Which of the following molecules has angular shape?
(i) H2 S (ii) CO 2 (iii) CO (iv) HF
38. Bond formed by complete transference of one or more electrons from one atom
to Another is called:
(iii) Co- ordinate covalent bond (iv) None of these
39. Bond formed by mutual sharing of electrons between two atoms is called: 5 ,42
are same
(iii) Electrovalent bond (iv) B and C
40. An ion with a single positive charge becomes an atom by:
(i) Losing an electron (ii) Gaining an electron
(iii) Gaining a proton (iv) none of these
44. Valence electrons are the ____________ most shell electrons:
(i) Inner (ii) Outer
(iii) Middle (iv) None of these
45 Ionic bond forms between:
(i) Non metals (ii) Metals
(iii) More electropositive and more electro negative elements
(iv) Both elements have equal electro negativity
46. Bonding between sodium atom and chlorine atom is
(i) Covalent bonding (ii) Non- Polar bonding
(iii) Ionic bond (iv) Hydrogen bonding
47. The statement is not correct about Ionic compounds
(i) Ionic compounds have high melting and boiling points
(ii) They conduct electricity in the molten state
(iii) They are solids under ordinary conditions
(iv) They readily dissolve in non- polar solvent
48. The most important factor responsible for the formation of an ionic compound is
(i) Ionization potential (ii) Lattice Energy
(iii) Electron affinity (iv) Activation Energy
49. The mixing of different atomic orbital is known as:
(i) Crystallization (ii) Filtration
(iii) Hydrogenation (iv) Hybridization
50. Sp3 orbital are oriented with each other at an angle of
(i) 120O (ii) 180O (iii) 109. 5O (iv) 107. 5O
51. Sp3 hybird orbital gives ______________ structure:
(i) Triangular (ii) Planer (iii) Trigonal (iv) Tetrahedral
52. Which of the following compound is not linear in shapes:
(i) CO (ii) CO2 (iii) HBr D (iv) H2 O
53. sp orbitals are oriented with each other at an angle of:
(i) 120 O (ii) 180 O (iii) 109. 5 O (iv) 107. 5 O
54. In sp 2 hybridization carbon has:
(i) Two unhybird orbitals (ii) One unhybrid orbital
(iii) Four unhybrid orbitals (iv) Two hybrid orbitals
55. The angle between bonds in an ammonia molecule is
(i) Closer to angle in a liner molecule (ii) Closer to a tetrahedral angle
(iii) Closer to angle in planar molecule (iv) Closer to 90 O
56. The angle between bond in a water molecule is:
(i) Less than 104 O (ii) More than 104. 5 O
(iii) 104. 5 O (iv) More than ammonia
57. According to electron pair repulsion theory shape of the molecule depend upon:
(i) Bond pairs of electron (ii) Lone pair of electron
(iii) Both of these (iv) None of these
58. The molecule in which the electron pair on the central atom are directed at 180 O
degree angle to each other is
(i) Be F2 (ii) C2 H2 (iii) CH (iv) C2 H4
59. What is the total number of shared pair of electrons is the ethene molecule?
H H
C=C
H H
(i) 6 (ii) 8 (iii) 10 (iv) 12

60. Bonding molecular orbital forms by:
(i) s- s atomic orbital (ii) s- px atomic orbital
(iii) Px- px atomic orbital iv) All of these
61. Pi bond is:
(i) Stronger than sigma bond (ii) Weaker than sigma bond
(iii) same as sigma bond (iv) None of these
62. Nitrogen molecules has:
(i) 1 Pi bond (ii) 2 Pi bond
(iii) 2 Sigma bond (iv) 3 sigma bond
66. Which has the longest bond is called as:
(i) C=C (ii) C=C (iii) C-C (iv) All of these
67. Energy required to break a bond is called as:
(i) Heat of atomization (ii) Heat of combustion
(iii) Bond energy (iv) Latent heat of fusion
CHAPTER # 05
1. The branch of chemistry which deals with thermal energy changes in chemical
reactions is called.
(i) Chemical kinetic (ii) Thermodynamics
(iii) Thermo chemsitry (iv) Mechanics
2. If heat is evolved in the reaction, the process is said to be
(i) Endothermic (ii) Exothermic (iii) Isothermal (iv) Adiabatic
3. If heat is absorbed in the reaction , the process is said to be
(i) Exothermic (ii) Isothermal
(iii) Adiabatic (iv) Endothermic
4. The amount of heat evolved or absorbed in a chemical reaction, when the molar
quantities of products and reactants being the same as represented in chemical
equation is called:
(i) Heat of reaction (ii) Free energy of reaction
(iii) Entropy of reaction (iv) None of these
5. The branch of science which deals with heat energy transformation is known as
(i) Thermochemsitry (ii) Kinetics
(iii) Photochemistry (iv) Thermodynamics
6. The total energy contained within a chemical system is called its
(i) Enthalpy (ii) Internal energy
(iii) Kinetic energy (iv) Potential energy
7. Which property depends on the state of a system?
(i) Enthalpy (ii) Free energy (iii) Entropy (iv) All of the above
8. The energy required to break one mole of bonds to form neutral atoms is called
(i) Bond length (ii) Bond strength
(iii) Bond energy (iv) None of these
9. The mathematical form of first law of thermodynamics is
(i) ∆ E = q – w (ii) ∆ E = q + w (iii) W = ∆ E+ q (iv) Q = ∆E +w
10. Work is a product of force and
(i) Displacement (ii) Area (iii) Time (iv) Volume
11. H is equal to
(i) E + PV (ii) E+ P ∆ V (iii) ∆ E +P (iv) ∆ E+ P∆ V
12. The amount of heat evolved or absorbed in a process is the same whether the
process takes place in one or several steps is the statement of
(i) First law of thermodynamics (ii) Hess’s Law
(iii) Coulomb's law (iv) Phase law
13. By applying Hees's law, we can calculate
(i) ∆H (ii) ∆S (iii) ∆F (iv) K
14. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed, although it can be transformed from
one from to another. This is a statement of
(i) Law of conservation of matter (ii) Law of definite proportions
(iii) Law of conservation of energy (iv) None of these
15. ∆ H for an exothermic reaction carries
(i) Positive sign (ii) Negative sign
(iii) Both signs (iv) None of these
16. ∆ H for an endothermic reaction carries.
(i) Positive sign (ii) Negative sign
(iii) Both signs (iv) None of these
17. Concentration of reactant __________ with the passage of time in chemical
reactions
(i) Increase (ii) Decreases
(iii) Remains the same (iv) None of these
18. The environment containing the system is called:
(i) State (ii) Surroundings (iii) System (iv) All of
these
21. Which one is the intensive property?
(i) Density (ii) Mass (iii) Mole (iv) Volume
22. Which one is extensive property?
(i) Surface tension (ii) Viscosity
(iii) Refractive index (iv) Gibb’s free energy
23. The change in quanity of energy is represented by:
(i) ∆G (ii) ∆ H (iii) ∆ T (iv) ∆S
24. Heat absorb at constant volume is
(i) q=E+P∆V (ii) q= ∆E (iii) q = ∆ VE (iv) q = q2 – q1
25. Heat absorb at constant pressure
(i) qp = ∆H (ii) q P = E 2 + Pr2
(iii) q P = E 1 + PV1 (iv) qP =H2
26. Hess’s law is useful where direct measurement of enthalpy is
(i) Feesible (ii) Not of feasible (iii) Change (iv) Constant
27 The heat change when one mole of a solid substance is converted into the liquid
state at its melting point is called
(i) Heart of crystal (ii) Melting point (iii) Heat of fusion (iv) Heat of
molten
28. The heat change when one mole of a solid is directly converted into the gaseous
state at a temperature below is melting point is called:
(i) Heat of formation (ii) Heat of vaporization
(iii) Heat of combustion (iv) Heat of sublimation
30. The change in enthalpy which is released or absorbed its ∆ H = 52 KJ /mole
(i) Heat of formation (ii) Heat of reaction
(iii) Heat of neutralization (iv) Heat of combustion
31. if 600 cals of heat if added to a system which system does work equivalent to
of 800 cals by expanding against the surrounding, What is the value of ∆ E for
the system.
(i) 200 (ii) - 200 (iii) 1400 (iv) - 1400
CHAPTER # 06
1. When a rate of forward reaction is equal backward reaction, then the equilibrium
established is called.
(i) Chemical equilibrium (ii) Static equilibrium
(iii) Dynamic equilibrium (iv) None of these
2. N 2O 4 ← →2 NO 2 is an example of
(i) reversible reaction (ii) irreversible reaction
(iii) spontaneous reaction (iv) None of these
3. Reactions that proceed on both sides and never go to completion are called
(i) Irreversible reactions (ii) Reversible reactions
(iii) Opposing reactions (iv) Spontaneous reactions
4. The equilibrium constant can be used to predict
(i) The direction of reaction (ii) The extent of a reaction
(iii) The cited of changing conditions (iv) All of the above
5. Alcohols and acids react to form water and

(i) Halides (ii) Esters (iii) Amines (iv) Ketones
6. What factors will change the equilibrium state of a system?
(i) Temperature (ii) Pressure
(iii) Volume (iv) All of them
7. If a system at equilibrium is disturbed by some change. The system will shift so
as to counteract the effect of the change. This is statement of
(i) Law of mass action (ii) Law of conservation of energy
(iii) Le- Chateliers principle (iv) None of these
8. A catalyst merely speeds up the attainment of equilibrium by lowering the
(i) Energy of activation (ii) Entropy
(iii) Enthalpy (iv) Internal energy
9. Very small value of Kc indicates that the reaction is
(i) High yield (ii) Low yield (iii) Moderate yield (iv) No yield
10. Very large value of Kc indicates that the reaction is
(i) Partially complete (ii) Incomplete
(iii) Almost complete (iv) Tends to complete
11. Increase of pressure has marked effect on
(i) N2 + O2 NO (ii) N2 + 3 H2 NH3
(iii) PC15 PC1 3 + C1 2 (iv) None of these
12. Le- chatelier’s principle is concerned with
(i) Catalysis (ii) Photolysis
(iii) Photosynthesis (iv) Chemical equilibrium
13. Considering the following reaction 2 SO2 + O 2 2 S O3 ∆ H = - ve
The yield of SO3 will be maximum if
(i) Temperature is increased , pressure kept constant
(ii) Temperature is reduced , pressure increased
(iii) emperature and pressure are both decreased
(iv) Temperature and pressure are both decreased
14. Given the equilibrium
PC15 (g) PC1 3 (g) + C12 (g) ∆ H = + ve
The concentration of C12 at equilibrium will be increased by
(i) By lowering of temperature (ii) Adding PC13 the mixture
(iii) Adding PC 15 to the mixture (iv) Increasing the pressure
15. What happens when a reaction is at equilibrium and more reactant is added:
(i) Equilibrium remains unchanged (ii) Forward reaction rate increase
(iii) Reverse rate of reaction increase (iv) None of these
16. Ag C1 is ___________ in water :
(i) Insoluble (ii) Soluble completely
(iii) De- electrolysis (iv) None of these
17. Solubility product is the product of concentration of:
(i) + ve ions (ii) - ve ions
(iii) both A and B (iv) None of these
18. _________ in temperature favors the formation of product in case of exothermic
reaction:
(i) Increase (ii) Decrease
(iii) Constancy (iv) None of these
19. Energy required in addition to the average energy of reactants to convert them
into products is called.
(i) Potential (ii) Kinetic (iii) Activation (iv) Excitation
20. The equation for the reversible reaction of acetic acid ( aq):
(i) CH3 COOH + C2 H5 OH CH3 COOC2 H5 + H2 O
(ii) CH3 COOH CH3 COO - + H+
(iii) CH3 COOH CH 3 COO- + H+
(iv) CH3 COOH + Na OH CH 3 COONa + H2 O
21. Given a system in equilibrium an increase in the concentration of the products is
always produce by a rise of temperature when reaction is:
(i) In the gas phase (ii) Spontaneous
(iii) Endothermic (iv) Catalysed
22. In the beginning of reaction
(i) rate of reverse reaction is more than rate of forward reaction
(ii) rate of forward reaction is less than rate or reverse reaction
(iii) rate of reverse reaction is equal to zero
(iv) None of these
23. For the reaction 2 H I H2 + I 2 the value of Kc = 0.0156 at 52 o C. when the
cone of HI, H 2 & 12 is 1.00 mol/ lit each then the reaction will proceed.
(i) Backward reaction (ii) Forward reaction
(iii) Remain constant (iv) None of these
24. In the reaction H2 (g) 2 HI(g) the
(i) KP > K c (ii) KP > K c (iii) KP = K c (iv) KP ≠ K c
25. Under which one of following sets of conditions may the highest concentration
of ammonia at equilibrium be obtained from the following reaction:
N 2 (g) + 2H 2(g) 2H3 (g) ∆ = - 92 KJ mol- 1
Temperature Pressure Catalyst
(i) High High Present
(ii) High High Absent
(iii) High Low Absent
(iv) low High Presence
26. The Le- Chatelier’s principle is not applicable to the reaction:
(i) 2SO 2(g) + O2 (g) 2SO 3(g) ∆H = - ive
(ii) PC1 5 (g) + O2 (g) PC13 + C1 2 (g) ∆H = + ive
(iii) N2 (g) + 3H 2 (g) 2 NH3 (g) ∆H = - ive
(iv) Fe (s) + S (s) Fe S (s) ∆H = - ive
27. N2 O4 |NO2
At equilibrium state:
(i) Equal amount of each substance present at equilibrium state
(ii) PC1 5 (g) + O2 (g) PC13 + C1 2 (g) ∆H = + ive
(iii) N2 (g) + 3H 2 (g) 2 NH3 (g) ∆H = - ive
(iv) Fe(s) + S (s) Fe S (s) ∆H = - ive
28. N2 2 NO2
t equilibrium state:
(i) Equal amount of each substance present at equilibrium state
(ii) The composition of this mixture remains constant due to same rate of forward
and reverse reaction
(iii) Reaction is complete in a forward direction (iv) None of these
29. The solubility product of Ag Br is reported to be 4 x 10 10- 13, Ag Br gets
precipitated when 10-6 M Ag NO 3 is added to
(i) 4 x 10- 7 molar KBr (ii) 2x 10- 7 molar KBr
(iii) 5x 10- 7 molar KBr (iv) 3x 10- 7 molar KBr
30. Precipitation takes place when the product of ionc concentration exceeds its:
(i) Concentration (ii) Ionic product
(iii) 5x 10- 7 molar KBr (iv) 3x 10- 7 molar KBr
31. Calculate the Kc of the following reaction
A+B 2C+D
If initial concentration of the reactant and product is

Conc. of A = 1 moles / lit Cone of B= 0.02 moles/ lit
Conc. of C = 0.1 moles / lit Cone of D= 1 moles/ lit
(i) 1 (ii) 0.5 (iii) 0.1 (iv) 1.5
32. A+ B C
Equilibrium constant of the reaction Kc = 10
Concentration of A= 1, mole / dm3
Concentration of B= 1, mole / dm3
Concentration of C= 0.5. mole / dm3
(i) The creation will shift towards right
(ii) The reaction will shift towards left
(iii) Equilibrium has been established (iv) Reaction is stopped
33. A saturated solution of B a SO4 at 25 degree Celsius contains 3.9 x 10 – 5 mole / liters
of Ba + 2 ions what is the Ksp of this salt?
(i) 3.9 x 10 -5 (ii) 3.9 x 10 -6 (iii) 2.1 x 10 -7 (iv) 1.5 x 10 -9
34. If the ionic product is less than the solubility product, the solution is ?
(i) Super saturated (ii) Unsaturated
(iii) Saturation (iv) Homogenous solution
35. The value of Ksp of Pb Cr O4 IS 1.8 X 10 – 14 the concentration of Pb 2+ is 6. 25 x
– 5 -2 -8
10 and CrO4 is 1.125 x 10 for the reaction so the
Pb CrO 4 + 2 Cr O - 2
Pb 4
(i) Solution is unstated (ii) Solution is precipitated out
(iii) Solution is saturated (iv) Reaction is stop
CHAPTER # 07
1. A homogenous mixture of two or more than two or more than chemical substances is
called
(i) Solute (ii) Solution (iii) Solvent (iv) Solvation
2. Number of gram- equivalents of solute dissolved per dm3 of the solution is known as
(i) Molarity (ii) Molality (iii) Normality (iv) Mole of these
3. Number of moles of the solute dissolved per dm3 of the solution is known as
(i) Molarity (ii) Formality (iii) % (iv) None of these
4. Number of moles of the solute dissolved in 1 kg of solvent is known as
(i) Molarity (ii) Formality (iii) Molality (iv) Mole fraction
5. The ratio of the number of moles of a particular component of the solution to the total
number of moles of all the components of the solution is called
(i) % (ii) Mole fraction (iii) Formality (iv) Molality
6. The process in which water molecules surround and interact with solute ions or
molecules is called
(i) Hydration (ii) Salvation (iii) Hydrolysis (iv) Dehydration
7. Which substance yield ions when dissolved in water ?
(i) Acids (ii) Salts (iii) Bases (iv) All
8. The degree of dissociation depends upon
(i) Nature of electrolyte (ii) Dilution of solution
(iii) The temperature (iv) All factors
9. Which is the example of a sparingly soluble salt?
(i) AgCl (ii) KCl (iii) Na 2 CO 3 (iv) HCl
10. The rate of a chemical reaction is determined by
(i) Physical methods (ii) Chemical methods
(iii) Both methods (iv) None of these
11. The amount of chemical produced by an electric current is directly proportional to the
quanity of electricity passed. This fact is known as
(i) Faraday's (ii) Ohm's law (iii) Newton's law (iv) Coulmb's law
12. A cell in which a redox reaction produces an electric current is known as
(i) Reversible cell (ii) Galvanic cell
(iii) Electrolytic cell (iv) Irreversible cell
13. The cell which converts electrical energy to chemical energy is called
(i) Galvanic cell (ii) Dry cell
(iii) Electrolytic cell (iv) None of these
14. The potential difference is measured by a device known as
(i) Spectrometer (ii) Viscometer
(iii) Voltmeter (iv) Voltammeter
15. The electrode at which oxidation takes place is called
(i) Cathode (ii) Anode (iii) Diode (iv) Dynode
16. The electrode at which reduction takes place is called
(i) Cathode (ii) Anode (iii) Diode (iv) Dynode
17. Which elements has greater reduction potential?
(i) Li (ii) Cu (iii) Cl (iv) F
18. The oxidation number of Mn in KM n O 4 is
(i) +3 (ii) +5 (iii) +7 (iv) +9
19. Generally the oxidation number of oxygen is
(i) +2 (ii) -2 (iii) -1 (iv) + 1/ 2
20. The ionic product of water at 25 o C is
(i) 10- 12 (ii) 10- 13 (iii) 10- 14 (iv) 10- 7
21. A solution which contains H+ = 10 – 7 M is said to be
(i) Amphoteric (ii) Acidic (iii) Basic (iv) Neutral
22. The concentration of H+ and OH- ions in an aqueous solution can vary from
(i) 1 to 14 (ii) 1 to 10 14 (iii) 1 to 12 (iv) 1 to 10 – 12
23. The pH of 0.01 M HC1 is
(i) 4 (ii) 3 (iii) 1 (iv) 2
24. The concentration of H+ ions in a solution having pH 7 is equal to
(i) 10 - 5 (ii) 10 – 6 (iii) 10 – 8 (iv) 10 – 7
25. Which of the following pair acts as a buffer?
(i) Na Cl + Na OH (ii) H 2 SO4 + Na2SO 4
(iii) Mg NO3 + HNO 3 (iv) NH4Cl + NH4OH
26. Loss of electrons is called
(i) Reduction (ii) Oxidation (iii) Hydrolysis (iv) Electrolysis
27. Gain of electron is called
(i) Reduction (ii) Oxidation (iii) Hydrolysis (iv) Electrolysis
28. 4.0 g Na OH has been dissolved per dm3 of the solution. The strength of the solution is
(i) 0.5 M (ii) 0.6 M (iii) 0.1 M (iv) 1.0 m
29. 5% w/v NaOH solution means
(i) 5g NaOH + 100 g H2 O (ii) 5g NaOH + 100 g H2 O
(iii) 5g NaOH + 95 ml H2 O (iv) 5g NaOH + 100 cm3 solution
30. pH of 0.0001 M Na OH is
(i) 3 (ii) 11 (iii) 4 (iv) 7
31. Which salt gives neutral solution?
(i) CuSO 4 (ii) NaHCO 3 (iii) Na2CO 3 (iv) NaCl
32. What kind of buffer would be a mixture of CH3COOH and CH3COO Na ?
(i) Neutral buffer (ii) Acidic buffer
(iii) Basic butler (iv) None of these
33. pH of human blood is
(i) 7 (ii) 7.3 (iii) 7.8 (iv) 8.4
34. Which of the following reactions is correct one ?
(i) Zn + Cu Zn + Cu 2 + (ii) Zn + Cu 2+ Zn + Cu 2 + + Cu 2 +
(iii) Zn + Cu 2+ Zn 2 + + Cu (iv) Zn2 + + Cu 2+ Zn+ Cu
35. Which of the following elements have large oxidation potential?
(i) Cu (ii) Li (iii) K (iv) F
36. The oxidation number of N is HNO3 is
(i) +1 (ii) +3 (iii) +5 (iv) -5
37. pH of a solution is equal to
(i) Log [ OH] (ii) - log [ OH]
(iii) log [ H ] (iv) -log [ H+ ]
38. The sums of pH and pOH is equal to
(i) 10 (ii) 14 (iii) 12 (iv) 7
39. pH is determined by
(i) litmus paper (ii) indicator
(iii) pH meter (iv) All of these methods
40. These organic compounds whose colour change depends on pH of the solution are
known as
(i) Pigment (ii) Dyes (iii) Indicators (iv) None of these
41. Indicators are
(i) Strong acids (ii) Strong bases
(iii) Weak acids (iv) Weak acids or weak base
42. The colour of phenolphthalein in basic medium is
(i) Colorless (ii) Green (iii) Blue (iv) Pink
43. Hydrogen ions are more readily reduced than
(i) Ag (ii) Cu + + (iii) Cl2 (iv) Zn+1
44. The oxidation number of Cr in K 2 Cr O 4 is
(i) +5 (ii) +7 (iii) +3 (iv) +6
45. Component of solution in large amount is called:
(i) Solvent (ii) Solute (iii) Solution (iv) Minority
46. Oxidation state of sulphur in SO 2 is:
(i) -4 (ii) + 22 (iii) +2 (iv) +4
47. One of the following formulae contains nitrogen with oxidation state + 5
(i) NH 4+ 1 (ii) NH 3 (iii) HNO3 (iv) NO 2
48. One of the following aqueous solution has the lowest pH :
(i) 0. 1 M N a OH (ii) 0.1 M K OH
(iii) 0.1 M HC1 (iv) 0.001 M HNO 3
49. Sum of oxidation number of natural compound is always :
(i) -ve (ii) +ve (iii) Zero (iv) Infinite
50. One of the following salts dissolved in H2O to form a solution with a pH greater than 7:
(i) NaCl (ii) CuSO 4 (iii) Na2CO3 (iv) NH4Cl
51. pH of pure H2O is:
(i) +5 (ii) +7 (iii) +3 (iv) +6
52. Hydrolysis of a salt occurs in an aqueous solution, which:
(i) has pH = 7 (ii) Is neutral
(iii) Is either acidic or basic (iv) in all aqueous solutions
53. What is hydrolysis of salts:
(i) Interaction of the salt with OH – ions obtained from water
(ii) Interaction of the anions of the salt with H+ ions obtained from water
(iii) Interaction of the ions of the salt with the ions of the water
(iv) None of the above
54. A 10% solution of Na CI means that in 100 g of solution there is:
(i) 5.85 g Na CI (ii) 58. 5g of Na CI
(iii) 10 g Na CI (iv) 10 g of H2 O
55. 26.5 g sodium carbonate is added to 250 ml of distilled water to yield a concentration
equal to:
(i) 1.0 M (ii) 0. 5 M (iii) 1.0 N (iv) 1.5 M
56. Molarity of solution which contains 0.5 mole in 500 ml is:
(i) 0.5 M (ii) 1.0 M (iii) 1.5 M (iv) 2M
57. 1 lit of 0.5 N Ag NO 3 solution contains : [ molecular wt of Ag NO3 = 169.9]
(i) 50 gm of Ag NO 3 (ii) 100 gm of Ag NO 3
(iii) 84. gm of Ag NO 3 (iv) 65 gm of Ag NO 3
58. 0.1 M solution of different substance contains:
(i) Different mole of substance (ii) Different amount of substance
(iii) Different amount of solution (iv) All of these
59. 0. 5 moles of Na CI dissolve in 250 ml of solution, 2 lit of this solution contains:
(i) 234 gm of Na CI (ii) 250 gm of NaCI
(iii) 150 gm of Na CI (iv) 300 gm of Na CI
60. The molarity of H2 SO4 is 0.5 M. Its normality will be:
(i) 0.5 N (ii) 1.0 N (iii) 0.25 N (iv) 2. 0 N
61. The volume of 4M HCI needed to prepare one liter of 0.5 M solution is:
(i) 0.125 (ii) 0.0125 (iii) 0. 875 (iv) 0.0875
62. A mixture contains 1 mole of A, 3 moles of B and 6 moles of C moles fraction of A is:
(i) 0.1 (ii) 0.3 (iii) 0.6 (iv) 0.8
63. How many gm of HC1 needed to prepare 4 M HCI solution in 1 lit:
(i) 109.5 g (ii) 73. g (iii) 146 g (iv) 200 g
64. A 10 N solution stands fro :
(i) Normal Solution (ii) Decanormal solution
(iii) Decinormal solution (iv) Semi normal solution
65. What is the volume of 0.5 M HCI solution which reacts with 50 ml of 0.1 M Na OH
solution:
(i) 50 ml (ii) 5 ml (iii) 25 ml (iv) 10 ml
66. Theory of ionization was put forward by:
(i) Arrhenius (ii) Hess (iii) Le- Chatelier (iv) Avogadro
67. The charge from ferrous to ferric involves the:
(i) Loss of electron (ii) Gain of electron
(iii) Loss of proton (iv) Gain of proton
68. The addition of oxygen is known as
(i) Reduction (ii) Oxidation (iii) Combustion (iv) None of these
69. A reducing agent
(i) Always forms hydrogen (ii) Always removes hydrogen
(iii) Is an electron donor (iv) Is an electron acceptor
70. An oxidizing agent is that which can:
(i) Gain electrons (ii) Lose electrons
(iii) Share electrons (iv) Gain positron
71. The conversion of an atom into an anion is called as:
(i) Oxidation (ii) Reduction
(iii) Hydration (iv) None of these
72. When neutral atom change into cation than:
(i) It gains proton (ii) It gains electrons
(iii) It losses proton (iv) It losses electrons
73. Oxidation number oxygen in hydrogen peroxide is:
(i) +2 (ii) -2 (iii) +1 (iv) -1
74. Oxidation state of sulphur in sulphate radical is :
(i) +4 (ii) +5 (iii) +6 (iv) +7
75. The oxidation state of nitrogen in N H3 is:
(i) + 1/ 3 (ii) +3 (iii) -3 (iv) - 1/ 3
76. At the end of redox reaction, oxidation state of the oxidizing agent:
(i) Decrease (ii) Increase
(iii) Some time increase, some time decrease (iv) Remains same
77. Cell reaction for the cell
Zn / Zn 2 + ( 1. 0 M) ║Cd 2 + (1.0 M) / Cd is given by
(i) Cd Cd 2 + + 2 e (ii) Zn 2+ Zn O -2e
(iii) Zn 2 + + Cd Zn + C d 2 + (iv) Zn + C d 2+ Zn2+ + Cd
78. Electrical conductance depends upon which of the following factors:
(i) Numbers of ions (ii) Mobility of ions
(iii) Both of the above (iv) None of the above
79. Which of the following is incorrect.
(i) Copper is getting deposited (ii) Hydrogen electrode is an negative end
(iii) Hydrogen is getting reduced
(iv) Cu + 2 / Cu half cell has a higher redox potential
80. According to Lewis acid base theory base is a / an:
(i) Electron donor (ii) Electron acceptor
(iii) Proton donor (iv) Proton acceptor
81. Acids and base are:
(i) Proton acceptor (ii) Proton donor, proton acceptor
(iii) Proton donor, proton donor (iv) Proton acceptor, proton acceptor
82. Which of the following formula represent and acid with a basicity of 2 :
(i) HCl (ii) HNO 3 (iii) HCO2 H (iv) H2SO4
83. An alkali is a base which
(i) Is decomposed by heating (ii) Forms acid salts
(iii) Is neutral (iv) Dissolves in water
84. Which of the following has p H higher than 7 :
(i) 100 ml H2SO 4 ( 0.1 M)+ 100 ml NaCl (0.1 M)
(ii) 100 ml HC1 (0.1 M) + 100 ml NaCl (0.1 M)
(iii) 100 ml HNO 3 ( 0.1 M) + 200 ml NaCl (0.1 M)
(iv) 100 ml HNO 3 ( 0.1 M) + 200 ml Na OH (0.1 M)
85. CO2 passed through water after the combustion of hydrocarbons pH will be:
(i) 5 (ii) 7 (iii) 8 (iv) 2
86. If H+ ion concentration in the solution is 0. 0004, what is the solution:
(i) +4 (ii) -4 (iii) -3 (iv) Between 3 and 4
87. Methyl orange is used as an indicator in acid base titration to record change
of pH in the range:
(i) Large quantity of acid (ii) large quantity of water
(iii) Small amount of base (iv) Large amount of base
88. Drops of methyl orange in the strong base shows:
(i) Pink Colour (ii) No colour (iii) Red Colour (iv) Yellow colour
89. Which indicator is suitable for titrating strong acid against a weak base:
(i) Phenolphthalein (ii) Methyl orange
(iii) Any indicator (iv) No indicator
90. Buffer solution is made from weak acid with :
(i) Weak base (ii) Acidic salt (iii) Strong base (iv) Basic salt
91. The range of pH for phenolphthalein indicators is :
(i) 8- 10. 3 (ii) 3. - 5.5 (iii) 6. 8 – 8. 4 (iv) 10.1- 13.0
92. A buffer solution
(i) Change p H rapidly with the addition of an acid
(ii) Does not change p H at all
(iii) Resists changes in p H
(iv) Change p H only with the addition of an strong base
93. Which one is a neutralization reaction?
(i) SO 3 + H 2 O H2 SO 4 (ii) Zn CO3 Zn O + CO 2
(iii) Zn + Cu SO4 Zn SO 4 + Cu (iv) HC1 + KOH KC1 + H2 O
94. Reaction of an acid like HCl and a base like NaOH always
(i) Forms a precipitate (ii) Forms a volatile salt
(iii) Forms a soluble salt and water (iv) Forms a salt and water
95. If 10 ml of 0.1 M HC1 is mixed with 5.0 ml 0.2 M NaOH, the solution will be
(i) Neutral (ii) Acids (iii) Basic (iv) Difficult to predict
CHAPTER # 08
1. The branch of chemistry which deals with the study of reaction rates is known as
(i) Photochemistry (ii) Chemical kinetics
(iii) Thermodynamics (iv) Mechanics
2. The change in the concentration of reactants or products in a unit time is known as
(i) Rate of reaction (ii) Rate of constant
(iii) Order (iv) Molecularity
3. The number of atoms or molecules, whose concentrations determine the rate of the
reaction is called:
(i) Order (ii) Molecularity (iii) Rate constant (iv) Rate of reaction
4. Total number of atoms or molecules taking part in chemical reaction is known as
(i) Order (ii) Molecularity (iii) Rate constant (iv) Rate of reactions
5. The activation energy may be lowered
(i) By rising the temperature (ii) By lowering the temperature
(iii) By removing the products (iv) By adding a catalyst
6. if the rate of reaction is independent of the concentration of the reactant the reaction is
of: (i) Zero order (ii) First order (iii) Second order (iv) Third order
7. Consider the following rate law
Rate = K A ║B 2
Doubling the concentration of A increase the rate of reaction by a factor of

(i) 2 (ii) 3 First order (iii) 4 (iv) 9
8. Doubling the concentration of B increases the rate of reaction by a factor of
(i) 2 (ii) 3 (iii) 4 (iv) 9
9. Consider the general reaction
A B+C
The rate of reaction can be expressed as
(i) - d [ A]/ dt (ii) d[ B] / dt (iii) d[C] / dt (iv) All of the above
10. Those substances which slow down a reaction are called
(i) Catalysts (ii) Promoters (iii) Inhibitors (iv) None of these
11. The rate of reaction is given by
(i) dx (ii) dx x dt (iii) dx – dt (iv) dx + dt
dt
12. If a reaction between A and B is second order, which of the following is true
A+ B C
(i) Rate = K [ A] 2 [ B] (ii) Rate = K [ b] 2
(iii) Rate = K [A] 2 (iv) Rate = K [ A] [B]
13. Rate of reaction is directly proportional to the:
(i) Volume of products (ii) Order law
(iii) Relative masses of product (iv) Relative masses of reactants
14. Reaction with high activation energy are:
(i) Slow (ii) Fast
(iii) Moderate (iv) Does not take place
15. An increase in concentration:
(i) Is related to the number of collision directly
(ii) Is related to the number of collision inversely
(iii) Has no effect on the number of collision
(iv) Depends upon condition
16. The minimum energy required for:
(i) Colliding molecules to react is called threshold energy
(ii) Colliding molecules to react is called activation energy
(iii) Colliding molecules to react is called energy of reaction
(iv) Colliding molecules to react is called bond energy
17. Which of the following type of metals make the most efficient catalyst?
(i) Transition metals (ii) Alkali metals
(iii) Alkaline earth metal (iv) Non- metals
18. Rate of a reaction increase by increasing:
(i) Surface area (ii) Concentration reaction
(iii) Catalyst (iv) All of the above
19. Powdered zinc is more reactive than the solid zinc because
(i) It has more surface area (ii) Zinc is more reactive in powder form
(iii) Zinc is a transition metal (iv) Zinc is a electropositive elements
20. A+B catalyst C+D
Which of the following statements for the above reaction is correct

(i) The catalyst higher the energy of activation
(ii) Rate = K [ C][D]
(iii) Rate is dependent on concentration of A and B
(iv) None of these
21. Rate = K  NO|2[O2|.
If conc. of O2 is double the rate of reaction will also be:
(i) Increase 4 times (ii) Doubled
(iii) Decrease 4 times (iv) Decrease 1/2 time
22. The rate of certain reaction (dx / dt) at different times are as follows its order of
reaction.
Time ( in sec). 0 10 20 30
Rate (mole lit .S' ) 2.8 x 10 – 2 2.78 x 10 – 2 2.81 x 10- 2 2.79 x 10 – 2
(i) 1st Order (ii) 2nd Order (iii) 3rd Order (iv) Zero Order

Elegant MCQs

Uploaded by

Document Information

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Elegant MCQs

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

CHEMISTRY MCQS CLASS : XI

Course Incharge : M.FAHAD KHAN

28. Mass of one atom of carbon is

43. The equation of burning of hydrogen in oxygen is:

2H 2 (g) + O 2 (g) 2 H2 O (g)

41. Which substance has high viscosity?

(ii) Liquid boils T2 ……………………

(iii) Liquid condense T1 ……..

(iv) Solid sublimes

C. D. All of these have same adhesive forces

(i) B+ (ii) B- (iii) 4

62. Value of Rydberg constant is:

70. Balmer series lie in :

75. In ground state carbon atoms has:

23. The bond angle of BCI3 molecule is

24. The molecule of ethylene contains how many sigma bonds

(i) 6 (ii) 8 (iii) 10 (iv) 12

5. Alcohols and acids react to form water and

If initial concentration of the reactant and product is

Doubling the concentration of A increase the rate of reaction by a factor of

Which of the following statements for the above reaction is correct

(iii) Decrease 4 times (iv) Decrease 1/2 time

You might also like