G T Technical & Management Institute Pvt.Ltd.

,
ISO 9001 Certified Institution

API 510 – DAY 4

API -577 – 2004
API 571-2003
API 572-2009
API 576- 2009

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 577 for API EXAMS
CLOSED BOOK (API RP-577)

1. What welding process is pictured?

a. GTAW
b. FCAW
c. SMAW
d. SAW

2. What welding process is pictured?

a. GTAW
b. FCAW
c. SMAW
d. GMAW

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3. What welding process is pictured?

a. GTAW
b. FCAW
c. SAW
d. GMAW

4. What welding process is pictured?

a. GTAW
b. FCAW
c. SAW
d. GMAW

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5. In the SMAW electrode identification system, a “1” in the third
position would mean:
a. AC & DCEN
b. digging arc with deep penetration
c. all position electrode
d. both a and b
e. none of the above

6. The electrode coating does which of the following:

a. acts as a shielding
b. acts as a deoxidation agent
c. acts as an alloying and ionizing agent
d. all of the above

7. GMAW is characterized by a _________

a. cut length electrode
b. flux core electrode
c. coated electrode
d. solid wire electrode which is fed continuously through a welding
gun

8. Gasses for GMAW can be:

a. inert and reactive
b. argon or helium for some applications
c. inert, mixed with some type of reactive gas
d. all of the above

9. In the electrode identification for GMAW, what does the “S” stand
for, in the electrode ER 70S-1?
a. Silicon
b. Spray arc
c. Solid wire
d. none of the above

10. When using GMAW, the type of metal transfer depends on:
a. shielding gas
b. current and voltage
c. power supply characteristics
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

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11. Spray transfer is considered to be ________.
a. the hottest GMAW welding type transfer
b. the least amount of heating to the base metal
c. the process with the highest deposition rate for the process
d. the process that is a program of exact combination of high and low
currents

12. Globular transfer is considered to be ________.

a. the hottest GMAW welding type transfer
b. the least amount of heating to the base metal
c. the process with the highest deposition rate for the process
d. the process that is a program of exact combination of high and low
currents

13. Pulsed arc transfer is considered to be ________.

a. the hottest GMAW welding type transfer
b. the least amount of heating to the base metal
c. the process with the highest deposition rate for the process
d. the process that is a program of exact combination of high and low
currents

14. Short circuiting transfer is considered to be ________.

a. the hottest GMAW welding type transfer
b. the least amount of heating to the base metal
c. the process with the highest deposition rate for the process
d. the process that is a program of exact combination of high and low
currents

15. GMAW is very sensitive to _________ which tends to leave the metal
unprotected during welding.
a. wind or drafts which tend to blow the shielding gas away
b. ultraviolet light waves
c. arc lengths
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

16. The ________ process has an electrode that is not intended to be

consumed during the welding operation.
a. SMAW
b. GMAW
c. FCAW
d. GTAW
e. none of the above

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17. GTAW can be performed using which of the following polarities?
a. DCEN
b. DCEP
c. AC
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

18. _______and __________ are the two most commonly used inert
gasses for the GTAW process.
a. CO2 and oxygen
b. Argon and helium
c. Acetylene and oxygen
d. none of the above

19. One of the problems associated with GTAW is:

a. inability to tolerate contamination
b. it is a slow process
c. tungsten inclusions
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

20. The ___________ Process is characterized by the use of a

continuously – fed solid wire electrode which provides an arc that is
totally covered by a layer of granular flux.
a. SMAW
b. GMAW
c. FCAW
d. GTAW
e. none of the above ( SAW)

21. The biggest advantage of SAW is its __________.

a. portability
b. ability to weld out of position
c. high deposition rate
d. ability to produce almost no weld defects

22. A major problem when using the SAW process is _________.

a. high deposition rate
b. weld contour
c. solidification cracking
d. none of these

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23. The “dictionary” for welding terms is the AWS document _________
a. A 2.4
b. D 1.1
c. B 1.11
d. A 3.0

24. A weld “joint” is defined as _____________.

a. any fillet weld
b. any place a weld can be performed
c. the junction of members or edges of members which are to be
joined or have been joined
d. the area which is to be welded

25. A weld “groove face” is defined as _______________.

a. that surface of a member included in the groove
b. the bevels and landing of a weld joint
c. the bevels and adjacent base metal
d. Both b and c

26. Which of the following is not a type of weld joint?

a. butt joint
b. corner joint
c. lap joint
d. fillet weld

27. The surface of the weld on the side opposite from where the welding
was done is called the ______________.
a. weld face
b. face reinforcement
c. root surface
d. root opening

28. The exposed surface of a weld on the side from which welding was
done is called the _______________.
a. weld face
b. face reinforcement
c. root surface
d. root opening

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29. ___________ refers to the actual melting together of the filler metal
and base metal, or the base metal only.
a. Fusion
b. Dilution zone
c. Penetration
d. Weld

30. ___________ is a term which relates to the distance that the weld
metal has progressed into the joint.
a. Fusion
b. Dilution zone
c. Penetration
d. Weld

31. A weld _______is a single progression of welding along a joint.

a. layer
b. section
c. area
d. pass

32. A common practice to reduce distortion caused by welding is

_____________.
a. backstep sequence
b. weld only on one side
c. preheat one side and weld from the other
d. all of the above

33. One of the most important parts of the welding inspector’s job is the
actual evaluation of welds to determine___________.
a. their suitability for an intended service
b. appearance
c. rating
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

34. A ________is some feature which introduces an irregularity in an

otherwise uniform structure.
a. defect
b. fault
c. discontinuity
d. none of the above

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35. A ________is a feature which impairs the suitability of that structure
for its intended purpose.
a. defect
b. fault
c. discontinuity
d. none of the above

36. Generally, _________ are considered to be the most critical

discontinuity.
a. undercut
b. cracks
c. overlap
d. porosity

37. __________ is described as the condition where the weld is not

completely fused either to the base metal or to adjacent weld passes.
a. Incomplete penetration
b. Incomplete fusion
c. Porosity
d. none of the above

38. _________ describes the situation where the weld metal has not
completely progressed into the weld root to fuse with the existing
root face.
a. Incomplete penetration
b. Incomplete fusion
c. Porosity
d. none of the above

39. __________are regions within the weld cross section or at the weld
surface where the molten flux is mechanically trapped within the
solidified metal.
a. Incomplete penetration
b. Incomplete fusion
c. Overlap
d. none of the above ( Slag Inclusion)

40. _________is defined as a cavity type discontinuity formed by gas

entrapment during solidification.
a. Crack
b. Lamination
c. Porosity
d. Undercut

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41. A discontinuity that appears as though the weld metal overflowed
the joint and laying on the adjacent base metal surface is called
____________.
a. incomplete penetration
b. incomplete fusion
c. overlap
d. none of the above

42. Which of the following is true about laminations?

a. a base metal flaw
b. result from the presence of nonmetallic inclusions which occur in
steel
c. were formed when the steel was produced
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

43. Recording on a data sheet of an indication that exceeds the reject

flaw size criteria and needs to be corrected is-
a. Recordable indication
b. Reportable indication
c. Notable indication
d. None of above

44. A sub –surface terrace and step-like crack with basic orientation
parallel to the base metal surface caused by tensile stresses in
thickness direction is called
a. Lamination
b. Plane-breaking crack
c. Lamellar tearing
d. Stress corrosion crack

45. Slag inclusion” is not found in welding performed by

a. SMAW
b. SAW
c. FCAW
d. GMAW

46. Most applicable method for sub-surface porosity is

a. UT
b. PT
c. ET
d. RT

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47. VT is most conveniently performed placing an eye
a. within 6” – 24” with angle less than 30° with the surface
b. within 6’’-24’’ with angle not less than 30° with surface
c. beyond 24’’ with angle less than 30°
d. beyond 24’’with angle not less than 30°

48. A clear radiography film has density of

a. 4
b. 0
c. 2
d. INFINITY

49. In UT examination,
a. A- scan shows cross-sectional elevation view
b. B- scan shows cross-sectional elevation view
c. C-scan shows cross-sectional elevation view
d. None of above

50. Steels with CE greater than 0.55% typically require:

a. Preheating only
b. Pre-heating & PWHT
c. No pre- heating or PWHT
d. PWHT only

51. Q.A method to assure that PWHT was performed satisfactorily is

a. Hardness testing of weld & HAZ
b. Radiography of weld &HAZ
c. PT or MT of weld &HAZ
d. UT of weld & haz

52. Welding process that has very high metal deposition rate is
a. SMAW
b. GTAW
c. GMAW
d. SAW

53. For qualification of welding operator using RT, , it Requires ---------

length to be examined
a. 3 feet
b. 3 meter
c. 30 inch
d. 6 inch
54. RT can best detect
a. Lamination

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 b. Undercut
c. LOF Side wall
d. All
e. None

55. In order to avoid Hydrogen cracking in the weldment

a. use Pre Heat
b. Use PWHT
c. Use Low Hydrogen electrode
d. All
e. None

56. In UT Calibration , the temperature of the calibration standard should

be within ---------- of the part to be examined
a. 10 deg F
b. 20 Deg F
c. 25 Deg F
d. All
e. None

57. Usually overlapping coverage should be minimum

a. 5 %
b. 10%
c. 2.5 %
d. All
e. none

58. As per API 577, the pressure test should be held at least
a. 3 mts
b. 30 mts
c. 10 mts
d. All

59. As per API 577 HAZ for C.S includes those regions heated to more
than
a. 500 Deg C
b. 300 Deg C
c. 700 Deg C
d. 1000 Deg C

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60. Choose correct option
a. Steels with CE less than 0.35 require no Pre Heat
b. Steel with CE of 0.35 to 0.55 requires pre heating
c. Steels with CE more than 0.55 requires both Preheat & PWHT
d. All
e. None

61. Aus SS contain ( as per API 577)

a. Low carbon
b. Chromium between 15 % to 32 %
c. Nickel 8 % to 37 %
d. All
e. None

62. Choose correct option

a. The most important consideration in welding Aus SS are
solidification cracking, hot cracking, distortion and maintaining
corrosion resistance
b. Solidification cracking exist in the fusion zone, while hot cracking
exists in the partially melted zone
c. To prevent cracking minimum amount ferrite to be present is 5 % to
20 %
d. All
e. None

63. Hot Taping should be carried with

a. E 6010
b. E 7010
c. E 7018
d. E 6011

64. In the case of Hot Taping carbon steel will burn in the presence of
--------- and high heat
a. Hydrogen
b. Oxygen
c. Chlorine
d. Steam

65. Which is the most important part of the weld symbol

a. Head
b. Tail
c. Reference Line
d. Arrow

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66. Which process can create oxygen deficient atmosphere
a. SMAW
b. GMAW
c. SAW
d. All

67. For welding Aluminum , Magnesium etc you will use

a. SMAW
b. GTAW with DCEN
c. GTAW with alternating current
d. SAW

68. Which method of GMAW can produce spatter

a. GMAW Spray transfer
b. GMAW Globular transfer
c. GMAW Short circuit transfer
d. GMAW pulsed arc

69. What is disadvantage of FCAW

a. More susceptible to wind & Drafts
b. Backing material is required for root pass welding
c. Low deposition rates
d. all
e. one

70. Choose correct option

a. One PQR may support several WPS
b. one WPS may be qualified by more than one PQR
c. both
d. none

71. Any electrode has become wet So

a. It can be reused as it is
b. It has to be baked in the oven to 200 Deg f & can be reused
c. It has to be discarded
d. It can be reused with aPI inspector’s permission

72. RT is not allowed in Welder qualification of

a. SMAW
b. GTAW
c. GMAW- S
d. all

73. In film interpretation

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 a. use of Magnifying device is not allowed
b. low power ( 1.5 X to 3 X) Magnifying devices can be used
c. Only high power Lense is allowed
d. Only high intensity light is needed

74. A film density of 3 allows

a. 1% of the incident light
b. .1 % of the incident light
c. 0.01 % of the incident light
d. all

75. In applications where the quality of the final product is important for
safety & reliability
a. One API approved radiographer should evaluate & pass judgement
b. More than one qualified interpreter should evaluate & pass
judgement
c. X ray quality Radiographs should be used
d. Radiograph should be free of indications

76. Manufacturer will supply the MTR

a. mandatorily to the purchaser
b. after the suitable payment
c. Only when purchaser require it
d. Only when the API code insist on

77. In Hot tapping Low Hydrogen electrodes

a. Reduces the risk of HAC in the root pass
b. Reduces the risk of Burnthrough
c. Improve safety
d. All
e. None

78. Service Hazard in Hot tapping with H2S is

a. Explosion
b. Pyrophoric scale
c. Burning
d. Combustion

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 API 510- EXAM 9-EXTRA
CLOSED BOOK (API RP-577)

Q.NO ANS REFERENCE

1 C Fig 2 API 577
2 D Fig 6
3 A Fig 4
4 C Fig 10
5 C fig A6
6 D 5.2.1
7 D 5.4.
8 D GK
9 C FIG A7
10 D 5.4
11 A 5.4.3
12 C 5.4.2
13 D 5.4.3
14 B 5.4.1
15 A 5.4.5 B
16 D 5.3
17 D 5.3
18 B GK
19 D 5.3.2
20 E 5.6
21 C 5.6.1
22 C GK
23 D 2.1
24 C 3.68
25 A FIG A5

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26 D FIG A1
27 C A5
28 A A5
29 A 3.36
30 C 3.30
31 D GK
32 A GK
33 A GK
34 C 3.19
35 A 3.16
36 B GK
37 B 3.29
38 A 3.30
39 D 3.54
40 C 3.47
41 C 3.42
42 D 3.38 & GK
43 B GK
44 C 3.37
45 D 5.4.4C
46 D GK
47 B 9.3.1
48 B 9.8, 9.3 & GK
49 B 9.9
50 B 10.9.1 LAST PARA
51 A GK
52 D 5.6.1
8.2 4TH PARA
53 A
4TH LINE
54 E GK
55 D GK

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56 D 9.9.1
57 B 9.9.3
58 B 9.11
59 C 10.2.3
60 D 10.9.1 LAST PARA
61 D 10.10.1
62 D 10.10.1 2ND PAGE
63 C 11.2.1
64 C TABLE 13
65 C GK
66 B 4.7
67 C 5.3
68 B 5.4.2
69 B 5.5.1 & 5.5.2
70 C 6.3
71 C 7.7
72 C 8.1
73 B 8.9.1
74 B 9.8.9.3
75 B 9.8.9.5
76 C 10.8 Last Para
77 D 11.2.1
78 B Table 13

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 API 571 FOR 510 EXAM

1. Which is more sensitive to temper embrittlement

a. C.S
b. 2.25 Cr -1 Mo low alloy steel
c. Low strength & High alloy Cr steel
d. All
e. None

2. Temper embrittlement
a. May result in Upward shift in DBTT
b. May result in Downward shift in DBTT
c. It canot be confirmed by the impact testing
d. It is more pronounced at lower temperature

3. For which kind of Damage mechanism inspection is of no use

a. Temper embrittlement
b. Brittle fracture
c. Erosion- corrosion
d. Caustic corrosion

4. Which of the following properties will not have effect on brittle

fracture
a. Thickness
b. Stress
c. Temperature
d. All
e. None

5. What is the morphology of brittle fracture

a. Multiple clamshell type
b. Full of Branches
c. Straight & un-branched
d. Spider web type

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6. Performing a warm pre stress hydro test followed by lower temp
hydro test may reduce the likelihood of
a. Temper Embrittlement
b. CUI
c. Briitle fracture
d. Caustic embrittlement

7. Thermal fatigue Cracking may be suspected if the temperature

a. is below 0 Deg C
b. Swing Exceeds 93 Deg C
c. Is above 200 Deg F
d. None

8. Thermal Fatigue mainly occurs in

a. Auto refrigeration equipment
b. High tem High alloy Steel
c. Coke drum shell
d. Equipments in the wet marine environment

9. Thermal fatigue cracks are usually

a. surface
b. Subsurface
c. Wide Dagger shaped & oxide filled
d. Spider web type

10. To detect thermal Fatigue Best NDT is

a. PT
b. VT
c. MT ( WFMT)
d. RT

11. Erosion corrosion depends on all of the following except

a. Velocity of the impacting medium
b. TAN level
c. Angle of the impact
d. All
e. none

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12. Which may reduce erosion
a. Decreasing the pipe dia to decrease the velocity
b. Keeping the bends sharp & short
c. Using replaceable impingement baffles
d. All
e. None

13. Suppose there is refractory loss on the stream due to erosion.

Which Ndt Method is faster
a. UT
b. RT
c. IR
d. PT

14. Which metal has the lowest erosion –corrosion

a. C.S
b. Monel
c. Titanium
d. Al-Bronze

15. Which can improve the mechanical fatigue resistance

a. Quenching
b. Tempering
c. Finer grained material
d. All
e. None

16. C.S & Titanium will have endurance limit. So below which
Fatigue crack
a. Increase with number cycle
b. Decrease with the number of cycles
c. Not occur Independent of the no of cycle
d. C.S & titanium do not have endurance limit at all

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17. Choose correct option
a. Aus ss exhibit an endurance limit
b. Titanium do not exhibit an endurance limit
c. C.S exhibit an endurance limit
d. All
e. None

18. What is morphology of Mechanical fatigue

a. Straight Un-branched cracks
b. Branched cracks
c. Blisters
d. Clam shell type beach marks

19. How the Fatigue cracking can be prevented best

a. By Doing PWHT
b. By Using correct metallurgy
c. By using proper design
d. While using marking stamps & tools prefer the high stress ones

20. Usually atmospheric corrosion probability is very less

a. at 0 Deg C
b. at 100 Deg C
c. above 121 Deg C
d. Above 121 Deg C but under insulation which gives double
protection

21. Out of the following which may not cause atmospheric

corrosion
a. Wet Rural environment
b. Marine environment above 70 Deg C
c. Bird Turds
d. All
e. None

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22. If you want to check for corrosion under CUI (With out removing
the insulation) what NDT method is preferable
a. RT
b. UT
c. ET
d. IR

23. If you want to check the missing or damaged insulation what

NDT is Preferred
a. RT
b. ET
c. IR
d. UT

24. How to minimize the cooling water corrosion and fouling

a. Velocity more then 10 fps
b. Velocity more than 5 fps
c. Velocity less than 5 fps
d. Maintain minimum & Maximum water velocity particularly in salt
water system

25. How to get information about scaling & Fouling in the water
cooled heat exchanger
a. using water analysis
b. impact testing
c. Periodic calculation of U factors
d. Pit gage to decide scale thickness

26. How to monitor boiler water condensate corrosion

a. Water analysis
b. Periodic calculation of U Factor
c. Calculation of j factor & X factor
d. All

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27. Dealing with Boiler water condensate corrosion has got all of
the following except
a. Pro active inspection programme
b. no proactive inspection programme
c. oxygen scavenging treatment programme
d. None

28. To find the thk in the FCC units where sulphur containing
streams are encountered
a. it is normal to use UT Thk Gage
b. It is preferable to use UT Scanning devices
c. It is usual to use pit gage
d. All
e. None

29. Sulphidation occurs at

a. 500 Deg C
b. 500 Deg F
c. 100 Deg C
d. Ambient temperature

30. The way to resist sulphidation is

a. Doing PWHT
b. Increasing the chromium content
c. Improvements in design
d. All
e. None

31. To find the corrosion rate due to sulphifation at a given temp for
a given material one uses
a. Psu nelson curve
b. Mc-Conomy curve
c. Wan Der-Wall Curve
d. Mac- Peterson curve

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32. Choose correct option
a. A sulphide scale on the surface increases the severity of
sulphidation
b. Copper based alloys form sulphide at higher tem than C.S
c. In general 300 series gives poor resistance to sulphidation
d. Sulphidation in general forms uniform thinning in the absence of
high fluid velocities and contaminants

33. At 600 Deg F for Cs and for sulphur content 1 % What will be
the Corrosion rate ( Open Book)
a. 1 mpy
b. 10 mpy
c. 3-4 mpy
d. 7 to 10 mpy

34. Out of following which is the environmental assisted cracking

a. Brittle fracture
b. Thermal fatigue
c. Sulphidation
d. Chloride SCC

35. Which of the following is not susceptible to chloride SCC

a. SS 300 series
b. Nickel alloys containing 20 % nickel
c. SS 400 series
d. All
e. None

36. Chloride SCC appear

a. As Straight cracks without branches
b. As the deep grooves
c. As Branched cracks
d. As a small & large voids

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37. You have Chloride SCC on Aus SS . Which is the better NDT
method to detect it
a. PT
b. MT
c. RT
d. ET

38. To Prevent Chloride SCC

a. Use materials with Nickel content more than 50 %
b. Use low Chloride content water during Hydro testing
c. Use C.S
d. All
e. None

39. Spider web like crack does not appear in appear in

a. Chloride SCC
b. Caustic embrittlement
c. Corrosion fatigue
d. none

40. Corrosion fatigue appears

a. Branched cracks
b. Straight crack without branch
c. Multiple parallel cracks
d. Spider web crack

41. Choose correct option

a. Both Corrosion fatigue & Mechanical fatigue have fatigue limit
load
b. Corrosion fatigue had got fatigue limit load while mechanical
fatigue does not
c. Mechanical fatigue had got fatigue limit load while corrosion
fatigue does not have
d. None

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42. Choose the correct option for Corrosion Fatigue
a. In Cycling boilers the first sign of damage is usually a pin hole
leak on the cold side of the water wall tube
b. Cracking is generally detected by WFMT method
c. Cracking often initiates at a stress concentration such as a pit on
the surface
d. All
e. None

43. Choose un-correct option

a. Increasing caustic concentration & temperature & doing PWHT
increase the severity of caustic embrittlement
b. Caustic embrittlement can occur in BFW in Boiler tubes that
alternate between wet & dry condition due to overfiring
c. Usually caustic embrittlement propagates parallel to the weldment
d. Nickel made alloys are more resistant to the caustic embrittlement

44. For NaOH concentration of 40 % weight at 250 Deg F , which

material is suitable ( Open Book)
a. Carbon steek
b. Carbon steel with PWHT
c. Nickel alloys
d. Chromium alloys
e. All

45. For C.S below endurance limit Fatigue cracking is more

probable for the cycles in the range of
a. 104
b. 107
c. 1000
d. None

46. Which is more potentially damaging

a. Hydrogen Blistering
b. HIC
c. SOHIC
d. All

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47. Hydrogen permeation is less at
a. PH 7
b. PH 3
c. PH 10
d. same for all PH

48. PWHT is effective to resist the damage due to

a. HIC
b. Blistering
c. SOHIC
d. SSC

49. HTHA ir more elaborately dealt in

a. API 510
b. API 570
c. API RP 941
d. API 2015

50. HTHA can be confirmed by

a. PT
b. WFMT
c. Metallographic analysis of the damaged areas
d. UT

51. In Early stage HTHA can be detected in sample by

a. PT
b. WFMT
c. UT
d. Scanning microscope

52. HTHA can be dealt with

a. By using alloys with high Mo & Chromium content
b. By Doing the PWHT
c. By increasing the Partial pressure
d. All
e. None

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53. In order to deal with HTHA in situations having 100 bars of
partial pressure of hydrogen for 600 Deg f, use Open Book)
a. use 6 cr -0.5 Mo
b. Use PWHT
c. Use 1.25 Cr- 0.5 Mo
d. Use nickel based alloys

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Figure 5-35 – Recommended Pressure and H2 partial pressure limits
per API 941. (Ref.1)

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Figure 4-85: Recommended operating limits for carbon steel in
caustic service. (Ref.1)

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 Figure 4-65:
Modified McConomy curves showing typical effect of temperature on
high temperature sulfidation of steels and stainless steels. (Ref.3)

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 API 571 FOR 510 EXAM

Q.NO ANS Reference

1 B 4.2.4.2
2 A 4.2.3.5 b
3 B 4.2.7.7
4 E 4.2.7.3
5 C 4.2 7.5
6 C 4.2.7.6 d 1
7 B 4.2.9.3.c
8 C 4.2.9.4.b
9 C 4.2.9.5.b
10 C 4.2.9.7 a
11 E 4.2.14.3 b & 14.4 d
12 C 4.2.14.6
13 C 4.2.14.7
14 C Table 4.3
15 D 4.2 16.4.b iv
16 C 4.2 16.3 c
17 C 4.2.16.3 c
18 D 4.2 16.5
19 C 4.2.16.6
20 C 4.3.2.3 f
21 D 4.3.2.3
22 A GK
23 C 4.2.3.7 g
24 D 4.3.4.3 g
25 C 4.3.4.7
26 A 4.3.5.7 a
27 B 4.3.5.7 b

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28 B 4.4.2.7 c
29 B 4.4.2.3 c
30 B 4.4.2.6 a
31 B fig 4.65
32 D 4.4.2.3.g
33 C Fig 4.65 & fig 4.66
34 D 4.5 & 4.5.1
35 C 4.5.1.3.l
36 C 4.5.1.4
37 D 4.5.1.7
38 D 4.5 1.6
39 C fig 4.79
40 C 4.5.2.5 a
41 C 4.5.2.3 c
42 D 4.5.2.6 c
43 A 4.5 3,3 a,b &, 4.53.4 d & 4.5.3.5 a
44 C ( Open Book) fig 4.85
45 B 4.2 16.3 d II
46 C 5.1.2.3.1.c
47 A 5.1.2.3.3.b.I
48 C 5.1.2.3.3. VI
49 C 5.1.3.1.3.d
50 C 5.1.3.1.5.a
51 D 5.1.3.1.5.c
52 A 5.1.3.1.6
53 C use Open Book fig5.35

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 API 572 QB

1. __________ below the original design conditions is a

permissible way to provide for additional corrosion
allowance
a. Re rating
b. De rating
c. Increasing the deign pressure
d. Increasing the design temperature

2. Normally strip lining material will be made up of

a. More corrosion resistant alloy
b. Less corrosion resistant alloy
c. More ductile alloy
d. More brittle alloy

3. Pressure Vessels can be made by all the following methods

except
a. By welding the ends of the rolled Plate
b. Hot Forging
c. Multilayer method
d. Cold forging

4. Which of the following making of the pressure vessels does

not produce longitude seam in the cylinder
a. By welding the ends of the rolled Plate
b. Hot Forging
c. Multilayer method
d. Cold forging

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5. For construction of heavy wall reactor subject to high
pressure what method of Pressure vessel fabrication is used
a. By welding the ends of the rolled plate
b. Multi layer method
c. Hot Forging
d. All
e. None

6. In the case of heat exchanger tubes for sea water application

which material is preferred
a. Carbon Steel
b. Aus SS
c. Duplex
d. Titanium

7. Tube sheets of Heat Exchanger bundles where water is the

condensing medium
a. High alloy steel
b. Admiralty brass
c. Steel
d. All
e. None

8. A carbon steel vessel is found it is susceptible to corrosion

in the process side. It operates at high pressure &
temperature. Which method is preferable
a. Use Cathodic protection methods
b. Use anodic protection approach
c. Use inner lining of suitable corrosion resistant material
d. Use material of the vessel as suitable solid alloy steel

9. FRP means
a. Fast reinforced pressure vessel
b. Fiber reinforced Plastic
c. It is a kind of metallic vessel to resist corrosion and Fouling
d. None

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10. Pressure vessels Are used for all the following purposes
except
a. Thermal reactor
b. Fractionator
c. Surge drum
d. All
e. None

11. The one of the primary reasons for inspections are

a. Safety
b. Reliability
c. Regulatory requirements
d. All
e. Non

12. The reasons for inspections are

a. To determine the Physical condition of the vessel
b. To determine the type, rate & cause of damage
mechanisms
c. To give the input for RBI
d. All
e. None

13. Inspections increases the reliability of the plant

a. By providing more data so optimization of the resources is
being effected
b. By doing more inspection a sense of confidence is installed
in Buyer’s Heart
c. By reducing the number & duration of unplanned shut down
d. All
e. None

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14. Regulatory requirements covers only those conditions
that affect
a. Only the Risk & reliability concerns
b. Financial & Business Concerns
c. Health & safety concerns
d. Safety & environmental concerns

15. Most vessels are built with more wall thk than what is
required to withstand the internal operating pressure
a. To act as Nozzle reinforcement
b. Using a nominal plate thk rather than the exact smaller value
c. To cope up with reduction in safety valve setting
d. All
e. None

16. What is the minimum thk for the metallic linings applied in
Pressure vessels
a. Half of minimum thk required for the shell
b. Half of the minimum thk required for the head
c. One tenth of thk of shell exclusive of CA
d. None

17. External inspection of the vessels basically consist of

a. Careful visual inspection
b. Hammer test
c. Scrapping to remove oxide scales
d. All
e. None

18. What are the possible deteriorations of foundation

a. Cracking
b. Settling
c. Spalling
d. All
e. None

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19. Cradles are often -------- to prevent moisture accumulation
and hence the formation of crevice corrosion
a. Riveted
b. Sealed with mastic compound
c. Seal welded
d. Caulked

20. Fine cracks formed in the concrete by high temperature

a. Can propagate and become serious
b. Conduct complete engineering study
c. Serious only if they expose the steel to corrosion
d. May be due to the poor concrete material

21. Find the incorrect statement: Usually foundations

a. May have Even settlement
b. May have Uneven settlement
c. May have absolutely No settlement problem
d. May have Uneven & of excessive amount

22. Distortion of the Hanger bolt can be checked by

a. Visual testing
b. By sidewise blow with a hammer
c. By using RT
d. With a direct strong blow with a hammer

23. Distortion of cylindrical skirts can be checked by

a. Plumb line
b. Straight Edge
c. By taking the diameter Readings at 60 Deg apart
d. all

24. If any settling has occurred

a. Check the columns and load carrying beams for buckling
b. Check the nozzle & adjacent area for distortion and cracking
c. Guy wires have to be checked for the broken strand
d. Make the report & send it to the owner

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25. Which provides greater data density for good statistical
information
a. UT Analogue Thk Gage
b. UT Digital Thk Gage
c. UT scanning devices
d. All

26. MFL techniques can be used to detect corrosion on the

vessels upto
a. 1 inch thk
b. 0.5 inch thk
c. 0.75 inch thk
d. MFL Technique canot be used to detect corrosion . It can be
used only to detect flaws

27. Grounding Resistance should not exceed --------- ohms and

its recommended value is ------ ohms or less
a. 10,25
b. 25,5
c. 100,10
d. 10,100

28. The most likely parts to search for the paint failure is
a. Crevices in the weld seam
b. Crevices in the riveted weld seam
c. The bottom heads of the vessels supported on the skirts in
the humid locations
d. All
e. none

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29. CUI is to be considered for the externally insulated vessels
which are subjected to moisture ingress and also operate
between
a. 10 Deg f to 350 Deg F for Alloy steel and 140 deg F to 400
deg f for Carbon steel
b. 10 Deg f to 350 Deg F for carbon steel and 140 deg F to
400 deg f for alloy steel
c. 10 Deg f to 140 Deg F for Alloy steel and 350 deg F to 400
deg f for Carbon steel
d. None

30. To Deal with CUI, the Following NDT Methods can be used
a. Neutron back scattering
b. Infrared thermography
c. Pulsed ET
d. All
e. None

31. When no History exists on the particular vessel the

minimum thk locations of thk measurement readings are
a. One for Shell, Head,
b. One for each shell ring & head
c. One for each quadrant of each shell ring and the head
d. All
e. None

32. In the case of caustic embrittlement , the caustic material

seeping through the cracks will often deposit
a. Green colures salts
b. White salts
c. Yellow colored salts
d. Blue salts

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33. Blisters are sometimes found out
a. By using RT
b. By using UT
c. By directing a flash light beam parallel to the metal surface
or by running the fingers over the metal surface
d. all
e. none

34. Aus SS is susceptible to

a. PASCC
b. Chloride SCC
c. Both
d. None

35. Using -------- Techniques should be considered if c.s

temperatures are in the range of 750 Deg f to 1000 Deg F
a. Remote UT
b. AET
c. ET
d. Replication technique

36. Extra cleaning methods like high pressure water blasting

or power chipping etc are warranted, when the following
are suspected
a. Scc
b. Wet sulphide cracking
c. Hydrogen attack
d. All
e. None

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37. Choose the correct option
a. High tem sulphur corrosion are more localized while high
tem naphthenic acid corrosion is more uniform
b. High tem sulphur corrosion are more uniform while high tem
naphthenic acid corrosion is more localized
c. Both of them are of uniform corrosion
d. Both of them are localized corrosion

38. If a steam is injected into a vessel

a. Corrosion & erosion may occur near the inlet
b. Corrosion & erosion may occur opposite to the inlet
c. Only the possibility of erosion exist near the inlet
d. At that temp neither corrosion nor erosion occurs anywhere

39. When the water is in the tubes of an exchanger

a. The outlet side of the channel will be more corroded
b. The outlet side of the channel will be least corroded
c. The inlet side of the channel will be more corroded
d. None

40. What is noble metal- Choose the best option

a. Metal that is worn by the noble people
b. Costly metal
c. Very tough metal which cannot be eroded
d. Metal that does not react with the environment and so
available in it’s metallic form

41. Choose the best option

a. More noble metal will corrode more
b. Less noble metal will corrode more
c. Both will corrode to the same extent
d. Usually more noble metal are more anodic in series

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42. Choose the incorrect option
a. CS exchanger channel’s gasket surfaces near the brass
tube sheets will corrode more
b. Shells of vessels adjacent to the inlet impingement plates
will erode more
c. Vessels subjected to the wet hydrogen cyanide are
susceptible to the cracks in heir weld’s HAZ
d. All
e. None

43. What NDT methods are effective for surface cracks

a. WFMT
b. ET
c. UT
d. All
e. None

44. Choose correct options

a. Lamination appear like slag lines but they run at right angles
to the surface
b. Laminations appears like crack and they run at right angles
to the surface
c. Laminations appears like crack and they run at a slant to the
plate surface
d. None

45. Choose correct option

a. Laminations appears like crack and they run at a slant to the
plate surface
b. If a lamination is suspected and it is not open enough for a
feeler to be inserted , heating it to about 200 Deg F with a
torch will usually cause the edge of the lamination to lip
upward and open up
c. Laminations can be traced by UT
d. All
e. None

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46. Choose the correct option
a. Erosion has smooth and bright appearance while the
corrosion does not
b. Erosion at the baffles of exchangers will appear as a series
of regularly spaced rings when a flash light beam is placed
parallel to the shell surface
c. Blister can cause shadows when a flash light beam is
flashed parallel to the surface
d. All
e. None

47. Choose correct option

a. When a large blister is near a weld, usually thickness
readings are taken with UT Gages
b. If out of roundness occurs at intervals throughout the length
of the vessel measurements are taken at each interval by
the central wire or plumb line or optical plummet
c. The condition of the trays affect the strength of the vessel
d. All
e. None

48. Choose correct option

a. Welds constructed of high strength steel and coarse grain
steel should be checked for cracks
b. The grooves of ring joint flanges are prone to cracks due to
excessive bolt tightening
c. Metallic lining should be checked for cracks when the lining
bulges or get wrinkling
d. All
e. None

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49. Choose in -correct options
a. Usually non-magnetic steel become magnetic after
carburization
b. Hammer test should not be used on the vessels under
pressure or the piping upstream of the catalyst bed
c. Pneumatic test is more safer than the hydro test as it uses
only gases
d. Now a days AET is used to test the integrity of the pressure
vessel

50. Choose the in-correct option

a. Vacuum testing is the preferred method as it can locate
leaks
b. Pressure testing is preferred to locate leaks
c. To locate the leak remotely UT Leak detector can be used
d. None

51. Inside of the copper Heat exchanger tubes can be tested

with
a. WFMT
b. ET
c. RFET
d. RT

52. The condition of the trays

a. Will affect the strength of the vessel
b. Will affect the Leak tightness of the vessel
c. Will affect the efficiency of the vessel
d. No effect at all

53. The out of roundness of the vessel can be detected and

measured if nozzle exist in the centre of the head
a. By UT thk Gage
b. By the central wire method
c. By a straight edge
d. By an optical shadow meter

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54. Choose correct option
a. Vacuum testing is the better method to locate leaks
b. Pressure methods is a good choice for the vessels that
operates in vacuum
c. Vacuum method can both indicate 7 Locate Leaks
d. None

55. To check the overall integrity of the vessel of complex

shape and where the vessel’s contents cannot be removed,
use
a. RT
b. UT
c. AE
d. Phased array

56. The more common way to test Heat Exchanger tubes for
erosion crack etc is to use
a. UT
b. ET
c. PT
d. MT

57. There is crack in the vessel which is not deeper than the
corrosion allowance
a. Just grind out the crack not to exceed CA
b. Crack is crack. Thoroughly repair IR by Gouging, Filling &
Grinding
c. Consult API inspector & PV engineer
d. Monitor it until next inspection

58. Here are several cracks in a plate

a. Repair all the crack
b. Leave the surface crack and repair all the subsurface crack
c. Grind Surface Crack and Do Pt & MT for subsurface crack
d. It is wise to replace the plate

59. As per OSHA refineries should follow

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 a. API 510
b. API 580
c. RAGAGEP
d. API 581 5.4

60. Immediately after the first on Stream inspection

a. Fitness for service has to be conducted
b. External visual inspection is a must
c. Internal inspection is a must
d. Service history record has to be established 6.3

61. RBI deals with efforts

a. To eliminate the risk
b. To reduces the probability of failure
c. To reduce the consequence of failure
d. To systematically manage the risk – 5.2 -510

62. Screening of the Risk is done

a. With unmitigated risk
b. With Absolute risk
c. Mitigated Risk
d. Residual Risk 580

63. Inspection
a. Affects the Probability side of the Risk equation
b. Affects the consequence side of the Risk equation
c. Directly reduces the Risk
d. Risk can be reduced only through inspection activities

64. Inspection can always

a. increase the risk
b. Reduce the Risk
c. Both
d. none

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65. Basic methods of Risk Analysis
a. Absolute & Relative
b. Qualitative & quantitative
c. Immediate & Long term
d. Current & Future

66. Consequence depend on

a. Nature of inspection methods
b. Effectiveness of the Past inspection methods
c. Type & volume of the fluid released
d. Appropriateness of the design code 5.2.2 – 510

67. Suppose it is desirable to enter into a vessel before it is

properly cleaned to search for the internal causes of poor
operation
a. One should never enter before it is properly cleaned
b. API 510 inspector can allow the entry if it is desired
c. In fact additional precautions and PPE given in API 2217
has to be followed
d. People can enter into the vessel by wearing the proper
monitoring badges 8.1

68. In fact Breathing air

a. Can use compressed air system
b. Pure Uncontaminated oxygen
c. Should come from two independent breathing source
d. All 8.1.1

69. Usually to determine the thk of Nozlle & connecting pipes

Usual NDT method
a. UT
b. RT
c. Tell tale hole
d. Corrosion button 9.2.1 after e

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70. Number and Location of TML is to be decided by
a. Owner
b. NDT Examiner
c. API Inspector & PV engineer
d. Fabricator 9.2.1

71. In RBI
a. All POF details are to be documented
b. All COF details are to be documented
c. Time frame should be captured
d. All
e. None 5.2.2 & 5.2.3 of API 510

72. Some vessels are built with greeter Thk than what is
required to withstand internal operating pressure to
account
a. For change in vessel service
b. For using a nominal plate thk rather than the exact smaller
value calculated
c. For the reduction of the safety valve setting
d. All
e. None 9.2.2

73. Columns & load carrying beams should be inspected for

a. Corrosion
b. Buckling
c. Fatigue cracks
d. Brittle fracture 9.3.6

74. In order to deal with corrosion in guy wires

a. Use SS Guy wire
b. Periodically lubricate guy wire
c. Paint the guy wire
d. Apply CP for the guy wire 9.3.8

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75. To Detect Creep Damage in CS at more than 900 Deg F
best method is
a. RT
b. UT
c. MT
d. Replication 9.3.9

76. In grounding Circuit Resistance can be

a. 5 ohms
b. 10 ohms
c. 25 ohms
d. All
e. none 9.3.10

77. On stream screening assessment of CUI ca ne done by

a. Neutron backscatter methods
b. Thermography
c. Pulsed ET
d. All
e. None 9.3.12

78. Caustic materials seeping through the cracks

a. Will create brittle fracture
b. Will create poisonous fumes
c. Will create fire hazard
d. Will deposit white salts 9.3.14

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79. Choose correct option
a. The bottom head of the fractionators processing high
sulphur crude oil will have intense corrosion around the inlet
lines
b. Naphthenic acid corrosion is more localized
c. Areas of the vessel opposite to inlet nozzle are subject to
erosion
d. The less noble metal will corrode more
e. All
f. None

80. Welds has to be carefully checked

a. If it has amine service
b. In the vessels constructed of High strength steel
c. Of low chromium metals
d. All
e. None 9.4.5

81. When Bulges or wrinkles become excessive in the lining

a. It improves the strength of lining
b. Lining has to be checked for cracks
c. You can apply coating over that to make it alright
d. Heating the lining will remove the wrinkles 9.4.7

82. Choose correct option

a. Hydrogen blisters will be formed at the surfaces which are
below the liquid level
b. Hydrogen blisters will be formed at the surfaces which are
above the liquid level
c. Hydrogen blisters are usually found by VT
d. All
e. None 9.4.4.4

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83. Find the odd man out : Spark tester
a. Can reveal for Cracks in Rubber lining
b. Can reveal leaks in glass linings
c. Can reveal Cracks in the refractory
d. All
e. None 9.4.8

84. In the case of internally insulated vessels if severe

corrosion occurs due to condensation on the shells behind
the insulation, because shell metal temperature is near the
dew point of the process stream, the corrective measures
can be
a. Increase the external insulation
b. Reduce the internal insulation
c. Design metal temperature should not be exceeded
d. All
e. None 9.4.8

85. Carburization of aUS SS can sometimes be detected by

a. RT
b. MT
c. PT
d. UT 9.6

86. For the vessels of complex designs, Structural integrity is

determined by
a. RT
b. UT
c. AE
d. IR 9.7.2

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 API 572 QB ANSWER

Q.NO ANS REFERENCE

1 B 3,1,26
2 A 3.1.28
3 D 4.2
4 B 4.2
5 B 4.2
6 D 4.3
7 D 4.3
8 D 4.3
9 B 4.3
10 C 4.5
11 A 5.1
12 D 5.1
13 C 5.3
14 D 5.4
15 D 9.2.2
16 D 9.2.2
17 D 9.3.2
18 D 9.3.3
19 C 9.3.3
20 C 9.3.3
21 C 9.3.3
22 B 9.3.4
23 D 9.3.6
24 B 9.3.9
25 C 9.2.1
26 B 9.2.1

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27 B 9.3.10
28 D 9.3.12
29 B 9.3.12
30 D 9.3.12
31 C 9.3.13
32 B 9.3.14
33 C 9.3.14
34 C 9.4.1
35 D 9.3.14
36 D 9.4.2
37 B 9.4.3
38 B 9.4.3
39 A 9.4.3
40 D (Definition)
41 B 9.4.3
42 D 9.4.3
43 D 9.4.4.2
44 C 9.4.4.2
45 D 9.4.4.2
46 D 9.4.4.3 & 4
47 B ( 9.4.4.4 & 9.4.4.5 & 9.4.5.2 )
48 D ( 9.4.5 & 9.4.6)
49 C ( 9.4.5 & 9.4.6)
50 A 9.7.2
51 B 9.7.3
52 C 9.4.5.1
53 B 9.4.4.5
54 B 9.7.2
55 C 9.7.2
56 B 9.7.2

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57 A 10.5
58 D 10.5.1.1. 4TH PARA
59 C 5.4
60 D 6.3
61 D 5.2 - 510
62 A 580
63 C 580
64 C 580
65 B 580
66 C 5.2.2 – 510
67 C 8.1
68 C 8.1.1
69 B 9.2.1 after e
70 C 9.2.1
71 D 5.2.2 & 5.2.3 of API 510
72 D 9.2.2
73 B 9.3.6
74 B 9.3.8
75 D 9.3.9
76 D 9.3.10
77 D 9.3.12
78 D 9.3.14
79 D ???
80 D 9.4.5
81 B 9.4.7
82 D 9.4.4.4
83 C 9.4.8
84 D 9.4.8
85 B 9.6
86 C 9.7.2

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www.globaltraining.in Page 56
 CLOSED BOOK API 576

1. Which of the following types of over pressure protection is not found on

a pressure vessel?
a. Safety Relief
b. Pilot Operated
c. Rupture Disk
d. Pressure/vacuum vent

2. Which of the following describes a types of rupture disks?

a. Multiple layer of graphite impregnated Kevlar fibers
b. Various metals – usually flat except steel.
c. Impervious graphite –un-bulged
d. Various metals, usually pre-bulged or impervious graphite, usually flat.

3. A relief valve has been shipped lying down on its side; this is a problem
because;
a. Relief valves are often heavy and are sometimes difficult to upright
b. Flange faces may be damaged during shipment
c. Springs in the valve may shift and distort and as a result not exert the
same force on stems and seats.
d. Springs may slip out and be lost during shipment

4. Which of the following normally determines the frequency of shop

inspection /overhaul of a relief device?
a. Normal Basis
b. Manufacturer’s Basis
c. Other Basis
d. Inspector’s basis and analysis.

5. what is the ideal time to inspect pressure relief valves?

a. When the unit is in operation
b. When the unit is out of operation
c. For relief valves when the boiler is undergoing Jurisdictional
Inspections
d. When the inspection least interferes with the process and
maintenance manpower is readily available

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6. A bulged metal rupture disk with the pressure on the concave side has
life expectancy of
a. 5 years
b. 2 years
c. 1 year
d. Indefinite length

7. Which of the following should be considered in determining the material

to be used for pressure relieving devices?
a. Temperature and pressure.
b. Pressure and corrosion resistance requirements.
c. Temperature, pressure, corrosion resistance requirements and
atmospheric conditions.
d. Atmospheric conditions and temperature.

8. The leak tightness of the relief valves is tested on the test block at a
pressure equal to:
a. Same as set pressure
b. 90% of the set pressure
c. Same as reseat pressure
d. None of the above

9. The principal reason for inspecting a pressure relief device is to

determine:
a. Condition of pressure relief device and if it is functioning properly
b. The remaining life of pressure relief device.
c. The spring coil diameter.
d. The body thickness.

10. Which of the following tests must be conducted on a valve as soon as it

has been received in the shop for inspection?
a. Visual inspection
b. Hydrotesting of valve body
c. Radiographic testing
d. Check set-pressure

11. API 576 does not address:

a. Valve testing on test benches in shop
b. Application of rupture discs
c. Training requirements for mechanics involved in inspection and repair
of pressure relieving devices
d. All of the above

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12. In a PRV in which the major relieving device or main valve is combined
with and controlled by a self-activated auxiliary pressure relief valve is
a. Pilot operated valve
b. Bellow type balancing valve
c. Relief valve
d. Safety valve

13. One primary reason for inspecting pressure relief devices is to

a. Determine the remaining life of the pressure relief device.
b. Measure and record the thickness data on the body of the valve.
c. Determine whether the device is functioning properly.
d. Clear the outlet piping of rainwater.

14. Which of following does not describes a Rupture Disk Device’s use?
a. Protecting the upstream side of relief valves against corrosion.
b. Protecting the relief valves from plugging or clogging.
c. Minimizing leakage through relief valves.
d. The only pressure protection of vacuum vessels.

15. For graphite pre-bulged metal rupture disks installed so that pressure is
against the concave side, the operating pressure of the protected
system is usually limited to
a. 65% of the disk predetermined bursting pressure.
b. 70% of the disk predetermined bursting pressure.
c. 75-95% of the disk predetermined bursting pressure
d. 75-80% 65% of the disk predetermined bursting pressure.

16. Which of the following does not describe the main reasons for
inspecting relief devices?
a. To protect personnel and equipment.
b. To determine the condition of a device..
c. To evaluate the inspection frequency.
d. To insure that the device’s protective coating is of the proper type.

17. An important element in the accurate setting of all relief valve’s lifting
pressure is use of
a. Salisbury Test Blocks.
b. Properly calibrated gauges.
c. New seats and springs
d. Soap bubble testing.

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18. What chemical substance often causes stress corrosion failure of
springs in relief devices?
a. Polymers.
b. Chlorides
c. H2S
d. Monosodium Glutamate

19. If damaged valve seats are discovered in a relief device what should be
suspected as the cause?
a. Erosion.
b. Severe under sizing
c. Improper or short piping spools at the inlet.
d. Corrosion, severe over sizing. Improper or lengthy piping at the inlet.

20. Sticking of newly installed relief valves can often be traced to

a. Poor alignment of the valve disk.
b. Incorrect valve disk.
c. Short pipe inlet runs.
d. Long pipe inlet runs.

21. In hydrogen sulfide service one issue that must be considered critical
when choosing over pressure protection is
a. Hydrogen chloride attack on any carbon steel used in the construction
of the valve.
b. Picking the correct material for this service.
c. Nitric acid corrosion
d. Elastrometric seals must be used

22. One of the many things that must be considered when evaluating the
failure of newly installed relief device to open at its set pressure is
a. The type of the gaskets used
b. The possibility of rough handling during shipment or installation.
c. The possibility of turning the valve flanges by a single bolt hole causing
distortion.
d. The valve being too far from the protected pressure vessel

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23. When the hydrostatic testing of discharge piping for pressure relief
devices is to be performed what can happen if precaution(s) are not
taken?
a. The disk, spring, and body of the area on the inlet of the valve can be
damaged.
b. The disk, spring, and body of the area on the discharge of the valve
are fouled.
c. The disk, spring, and body of the area on the inlet of the valve can be
damaged.
d. The disk, spring, and body of the area on the inlet of the valve can be
fouled.

24. When setting time intervals between the inspections of relief devices,
which of the following best apply?
a. They must be done at least every 8 years.
b. They must be done at least every 3 years.
c. Definite time intervals must be established.
d. None of the above.

25. As regards unscheduled inspections of relief devices, if a relief device

opens but fails to reseat properly
a. It must be immediately repaired.
b. The urgency of repair will depend on the nature of the leakage and
production requirements.
c. The urgency will depend only on the value of the leaking fluid.
d. The urgency will depend on the type of leakage, and the
characteristics of the leaking substance such as whether it is toxic,
flammable, or fouling.

26. A Visual on-stream inspection of a relief device is not meant to ensure

which of the following items?
a. Installation of the correct device, and the company ID such as a tag,.
b. No gags or blinds left in place and all intervening block valves being
open.
c. Upstream block valves are locked or chained in the proper position.
d. The valve’s discharge is pointed in the right direction.

27. A relief valves in hydrofluoric acid service must be

a. Be neutralized immediately after removal
b. Set using water only.
c. Set using hydrofluoric acid.
d. Set using air only.

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28. Which of the following relief devices is intended to work with steam
boilers?
a. Relief Valve.
b. Safety Relief Valve
c. Safety Valve
d. Balanced Safety Relief.

29. You notice that a pressure relief device has a closed bonnet. What type
of valve is it?
a. Relief Valve.
b. Safety Relief Valve
c. Conventional Safety Relief valve
d. Relief Valve and Conventional Safety Relief Valve.

30. While reviewing maintenance records you notice that the pre-bulged
rupture disks with pressure on the concave side have been in service
for three years. In this O K why or why not?
a. No, the recommended maximum service life for these burst disks is 2
years.
b. Yes, the recommended maximum service life for these burst disks is 3
years.
c. No, the recommended maximum service life for these burst disks is 1
year.
d. Yes, as long as no sign of failure has been revealed by inspection.

31. A pilot operated safety valve has been installed in heavy crude services
is this OK?
a. Yes, these valves are very effective in this type of service.
b. No, these valves are not intended to operate at normal temperatures.
c. Yes, these valves have closed bonnets and are leak proof.
d. Possibly not, these valves may not operate properly in this service due
to the possibility of deposits clogging small pilot circuits, unless
equipped with filtration or other protective means.

32. What services is a relief valve intended for?

a. Steam
b. Gases
c. Incompressible fluids
d. Water only.

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33. Scored Tension-Loaded rupture disks are normally made from_____
a. Thinner material than the un-scored disks for the same pressure.
b. Thicker material than the un-scored disks for the same pressure.
c. A different material than un-scored disks for the same pressure.
d. The same thickness material as un-scored disks for the same
pressure.

34. The following describes what type of relief device?

The major relieving device is combined with and controlled by a self-
actuated auxiliary pressure RV.
a. Johnson Controls bi-directional value.
b. Pilot operated reverse flow pressure control
c. Pilot operated pressure relief valve
d. Pilot operated check valve.

35. Some relief valves are manufactured using resilient O-ring seals. Which
of following is a reason for these O-rings?
a. Resistance to chemical attack
b. To resist high temperature.
c. To promote a higher degree of tightness in the sealing surfaces.
d. To make metal parts slide easier.

36. Simmer in a relief valve in best described as

a. A noise emitted when the valve opens too slowly.
b. A noise emitted when the valve opens too rapidly.
c. The audible or visible escape of compressible fluid between the seat
and disk of the valve.
d. A high pitched noise that varies with pressure changes.

37. What is the first step taken in the repair process when a relief valve
enters the repair shop before it is dismantled?
a. Profiling and reference charting.
b. Pop pressure test.
c. Chemical cleaning and decontamination
d. Visual inspection.

38. A balanced safety relief valve uses a bellows or other means to

a. Seal the valve internals
b. Allow for part expansion during temperature increases.
c. Create backpressure at desired components in the valve.
d. Minimize the effects of backpressure on the operating characteristics
of the valve.

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39. According to API 576, rupture disks that are removed for inspection
should really be
a. Cleaned by an approved solvent for the service it is in.
b. Cleaned by light wire brushing and in no case scraped.
c. Cleaned by light scraping and then wire bushed lightly
d. Replaced, due to the likelihood they may fail prematurely after handling

40. One time that the manufacturer of a pilot operated pressure relief device
should be consulted about their device’s setting procedure is when
a. The device is very old.
b. The device is in a non-corrosive service
c. The device will be set using water.
d. The device is in corrosive service

41. After a test and inspection cycle in a unit, pressure relief devices should
not be checked for;
a. Installation of the correct device
b. No gags or blinds left in place.
c. Seals installed to protect spring settings have not been broken.
d. Weather proof caps made of the proper material

42. Why is it important to check a relief valve for seat tightness

a. Leakage can be a hazard to the environment and leakage leads to
fouled inoperable valves.
b. Leakage leads to fouled and gate valves.
c. Leakage leads to fouled rupture disks on the inlet.
d. Leakage leads to fouled rupture disks on the outlet

43. Normally when relief valves are removed from a system the inlet and
outlet piping is inspected, if block valves are closed and the unit is in
service what can be done to inspect this piping?
a. Use of special borescope, which utilizes a pressure chamber.
b. Radiographs can be performed to indicate major fouling or blockage.
c. Do in a hot tap in the vicinity of the suspected blockage
d. Probing using a high pressure sealed probing device.

44. Leak tightness of the relief valves is tested by conducting:

a. Water Bubble test with water head = 0.5” at the set pressure
b. Water Bubble test with water head = 1.0” at set pressure
c. Water Bubble test with water head = 0.5” at 90% of the set pressure
d. None of above

CLOSED BOOK API 576 ANSWERS

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Q.No. ANSWER LOCATION OF ANSWER
1 D API 576, 4.9.3
2 D API 576, 4.10 2.1 & 2.5
3 C API 576, 5.8.2.2
4 A API 576, 6.4.2.1
5 D API 576, 6.5.2
6 C API 576, Page No.24 1st Line
7 C API 576, 5.6.1
8 B API 576, 6.2.15
9 A API 576, 6.1
10 D API 576, 6.28
11 C API 576, Scope
12 A API 576, 2.2.1.5
13 C API 576, 6.1.1
14 D API 576, 4.10.3
15 B API 576, 4.10.2.5
16 D 6.1.1 & 6.1.2 & GK
17 B API 576, 5.4.5
18 C API 576, 5.3.4
19 D API 576, 5.2.2
20 A API 576, 5.5.4
21 B API 576, 5.6.2
22 B API 576, 5.8.1 5th Line
23 B API 576, 5.10
24 C API 576, 6.4.1.2
25 D API 576, 6.5.3
26 D API 576, 6.3
27 A API 576, 6.2.6.2 b
28 C API 576, 4.3.2

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29 D API 576, 4.4.1 & 4.6.1
30 C API 576, 4.10.4 Page No.24 1st Line
31 D API 576, 4.8.3 a
32 C API 576, 4.4.2
33 B API 576, 4.10.2.2
34 C API 576, 4.8.1
35 C API 576, 4.41 4th Para
36 C API 576, 3.4.13
37 B API 576, 6.2.9
38 D API 576, 4.7.1
39 D API 576, 6.2.22.1
40 C API 576, 6.2.15.3
41 D API 576 6.3
42 A API 576, 6.2.16 Caution
43 B API 576, 6.2.7.1
44 C API 576, 6.2.15 & Fig. 40

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