MOCKBOARD 2012 W Answer

OUR LADY OF FATIMA UNIVERSITY
COLLEGE OF CRIMINAL JUSTICE
MOCK BOARD FOR MODULE 5/2012

(CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION)
NAME: ____________________________________ SCORE: ___________
INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one
answer for each item by shading the space corresponding to the letter of your choice on the
answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED.
1. The English Sheriff who was recognized as the most influential correctional practitioner of his
time and was instrumental in the passage of the Penitentiary Act of England in 1779.
A. John Howard C. William Penn
B. Jeremy Bentham D. Benjamin Rush
2. The superintendent is the disciplinary authority in prison while in jail, is the ___.
A. Warden C. Assistant warden
B. Chief, Custodial force D. Chief, Escort team
3 The minimum security prisons provides a model for those inmates who are:
A. First-time offenders C. In the death row
B. Serving life sentences D. Near the ends of their sentences
4. The form of executive clemency which reduces the sentence of a convicted person to shorter
term is referred to as ____.
A. Commutation C. Amnesty
B. Shortening D. Good time conduct allowance
5. The Iwahig penal colony and farm, a national penitentiary under the Bureau of Corrections is
located in ____.
A. Palawan C. Mindoro
B. Leyte D. Davao
6. A kind of prisoner who stays waiting for his transfer to the New Bilibid Prison is a/an ____.
A. City or municipal prisoner C. Insular prisoner
B. Provincial prisoner D. Detention prisoner
7. Convicted offender who was able to avail probation is required to report regularly to the ___.
A. Judge C. Board of Parole and Probation
B. Probation officer D. Prosecutor
8. The so-called “prisons without bars” are referred to as the ____.
A. Provincial jails C. Penal colonies
B. New Bilibid Prison D. Probation
9. They are confined in correctional facilities awaiting verdict on their cases.
A. Parolees C. Probationers
B. Detainees D. Youth offenders
10. Within how many days after verdict must a petitioner file his application for probation?
A. 10 days C. 15 days
B. 30 days D. 60 days
11. Institutions for the confinement of persons who are awaiting final disposition of their
criminal cases and also for the service of those convicted and punished with shorter sentences
usually up to 3 years.
A. Prisons C. Penal colonies
B. Jails D. Penitentiaries
12. An offender who is released on probation is required to report to his probation officer at
least ____.
A. Once a week C. Twice a month
B. Once a month D. Once every six months
13. The first so-called Penitentiary in America opened in 1790.
A. Walnut Street Jail C. Newgate Prison
B. Maison de Force D. Sing sing Prison
14. A surprise and sudden method of searching the prisoners or inmates for possession of
contrabands inside the cells. This is also known as “Shakedown”.
A. Raid C. Body search
B. Operation Greyhound D. Operation frisking
15. Which among the following is NOT under the Bureau of Jail Management and Penology?
A. Municipal Jail C. Provincial Jail
B. City Jail D. District Jail
16. Pardon is given when the offender ____.
A. has already been convicted C. is about to be convicted
B. is not yet convicted D. has already served his sentence
17. A person convicted by the court to serve five years of incarceration would be classified as
what kind of prisoner?
A. National prisoner C. Provincial prisoner
B. Municipal prisoner D. City prisoner
18. A bureau under the Department of Justice which is mandated to administer the prisons and
penal farms in the Philippines.
A. Bureau of Corrections C. Bureau of Prisons and Penal
Farms
B. National Bureau of Investigation D. Bureau of parole and Probation
19. The provincial jail personnel including the warden are appointed by the ____.
A. DILG Regional Director C. NAPOLCOM Regional Director
B. Provincial Governor D. DOJ Secretary
20. How many times can a convicted offender be granted probation?
A. Once in a lifetime
B. Twice, if crime committed is not serious
C. It depends upon the court
D. Once every five years
21. What is that conditional sentence that is not served in confinement?
A. Probation C. Pardon
B. Amnesty D. Executive clemency
22. Probation is founded on the idea of:
A. Continuous surveillance C. Prosecutorial discretion
B. Executive clemency D. The suspended sentence
23. Deduction to the term of imprisonment due to the convict’s exemplary behavior while
serving his sentence is referred to ____.
A. Exemplary bonus C. Good time conduct allowance
B. Behavior’s deduction D. Certificate of moral conduct
24. The form of executive clemency which reduces the sentence of a convicted person to shorter
term is referred to as ____.
A. Commutation C. Amnesty
B. Shortening D. Good time conduct allowance
25. Temporary custody of a person or the detention of a person for his own protection or care, to
secure from liability, harm, injury or damage.
A. Safekeeping C. Preventive imprisonment
B. Custodial investigation D. Voluntary surrender
26. The temporary release of an offender to a person of good standing in the community who
shall be responsible in return to bring him before the court whenever his presence is necessary.
A. Surety C. Bail
B. Recognizance D. Guarantor
27. Which of the following is exercised by the chief executive with the concurrence of congress?
A. Probation C. Amnesty
B. Pardon D. Parole
28. The parole and probation administration is tasked to administer a ____ corrections program.
A. Institutional C. Community-based
B. Integrated D. Traditional
29. Probation is considered as a ____.
A. Right C. Exoneration of guilt
B. Privilege D. Consideration
30. Statutory shortening of the maximum sentence that the prisoner served because of good
behavior.
A. Good conduct allowance C. Reprieve
B. Reward D. Probation
31. What is the act of grace from a sovereign power inherent in the state which exempts an
individual from punishment which the law imposes or prescribes for his crime, extended by the
President thru the recommendation of the Board of Parole and pardon.
A. Amnesty C. Pardon
B. Parole D. Probation
32. The oldest prison in the Philippines.
A. Bilibid prison C. New Bilibid prison
B. Manila City jail D. San Ramon Prison and Penal Farm
33. Probation is granted by the ____.
A. DOJ secretary C. Judge
B. Probation officer D. President
34. The merging of supervision of parole and probation is mandated by what particular law?
A. Executive Order No. 392 C. Presidential Decree 968
B. Executive Order No. 292 D. Act 4221
35. Prisoners who shall not be required to work but may provide cleanliness in their cells or jail
areas and perform such other labor as may be necessary for hygienic and sanitary reasons.
A. Female prisoners C. Pregnant prisoners
B. Prisoners who are 60 years old D. Detention prisoners
36. It refers to anything which is against or contrary to the rules and regulations of a prison or jail
facility.
A. Jewelry C. Dangerous drugs
B. Contrabands D. Deadly weapons
37. Probation shall not be extended to those sentenced to serve a maximum imprisonment of:
A. More than 6 years and one day C. Six years and one day
B. More than six years D. Less than six years
38. It is regarded as the most important program that aids in the rehabilitation of prisoners.
A. Recreational program C. Religious program
B. Educational program D. Employment of prisoners
39. To compute for the ideal capacity of a certain jail for every inmate, you must divide the
measurement of the cells floor area by:
A. 2x2 sq. meters C. 3x3 sq. meters
B. 4x4 sq. meters D. 5x5 sq. meters
40. A penal institution intended for political prisoners and founded by Captain Ramon Blanco of
the Spanish Royal Army. It is where Jose Rizal was imprisoned.
A. San Ramon Prison and Penal Farm C. Sablayan Penal Colony
B. Iwahig Penal Colony D. Davao Penal Colony
41. Which among the following inmates should be informed about the jail rules and regulations?
A. All those who had never been in jail before
B. Only those who can read and write
C. Only those who break the rules
D. All inmates
42. The highest official of the bureau of correction is the ____.
A. Director C. Superintendent
B. DOJ secretary D. National warden
43. Former President Marcos signed and approved the Probation law while ____ signed and
approved the Indeterminate sentence law.
A. President Osmena C. President Quezon
B. President Macapagal D. President Magsaysay
44. It has been regarded as the forerunner of modern penology due to its extensive use of parole
social case work and training school type of institution.
A. Pennsylvania system C. Auburn system
B. Elmira reformatory D. Borstal institution
45. Prison Superintendent is obliged to inform the immediate member of the family of the
prisoner if he –
A. escapes from prison C. is making good
B. becomes behaviorally dangerous D. is seriously ill
46. Transportation of prisoners was first utilized by what particular country?
A. Spain C. Portugal
B. France D. England
47. He advocated the progressive system or Irish system which is considered by many as one of
the most famous contributor to the reformatory movement.
A. Walter Crofton C. Z.R. Brockway
B. Alexander Maconochie D. Evelyn Ruggles Brise
48. The law that created the Board of Pardons and Parole.
A. Indeterminate sentence law C. Executive order 292
B. Probation law D. House Bill 393
49. A form of early punishment for wrongdoings wherein the offender is expelled from the
society and forced to live in the wilderness.
A. Pillory C. Guillotine
B. Banishment D. Flogging
50. The satellite unit of the New Bilibid Prison which houses minimum security prisoners
particularly those nearing release.
A. Camp Bukang Liwayway C. Camp Sampaguita
B. Youth rehabilitation center D. Reception and diagnostic center
51. The French word “Gaol” means ____.
A. Prison C. Jail
B. Lock-up D. Cell
52. A security facility for the detention of persons held for investigation or waiting preliminary
hearing. Usually the period of detention does not exceed forty-eight (48) hours.
A. Lock-up C. Jail
B. Prison D. Colony
53. A convicted prisoner who is sentenced to serve a prison term of one day to six months.
A. Municipal prisoner C. City Prisoner
B. Provincial prisoner D. Insular prisoner
54. The administration of prisons and penal colonies is under the ____.
A. Provincial government C. Municipal government
B. National government D. Barangay
55. The classification board in a provincial jail is chaired by the _______.
A. Warden C. Governor
B. Assistant warden D. Escort chief
56. It is an order issued by the court bearing its seal and the signature of the judge directing jail
or prison authorities to receive the inmate for custody or service of sentence imposed upon him.
A. Warrant of arrest C. Search warrant
B. Mittimus D. Carpeta
57. The authority authorized by law to grant commutation of sentence and pardon.
A. Secretary of Justice C. President
B. Board of Pardon and Parole D. Congress
58. . It refers to anything which is against or contrary to the rules and regulations of a prison or
jail facility.
A. Jewelry C. Dangerous drugs
B. Contrabands D. Deadly weapons
59. An offender who is released on probation is required to report to the probation officer within
how many hours upon receipt of the court order?
A. 24 hours C. 48 hours
B. 72 hours D. 74 hours
60. Pedro Santos was convicted of a crime and he was meted a penalty of one year to two years
of imprisonment. How many years would he be placed under probation?
A. 6 years C. 5 years
B. 4 years D. 3 years
61. Known as “law of retaliation” during the early times.
A. Lex eternal C. Lex salica
B. Lex taliones D. Lex humana
62. Father of Probation in the United States of America.
A. Matthew Davenport Hill C. John Augustus
B. Teodulo Natividad D. Z.R. Brookway
63. Considered the first formal laws that came light in Babylonia sometimes in 1750 BC. Its
concept of justice is known as “Lex Taliones” or the “the eye for an eye or tooth for a tooth
principle”
A. Code of Hammurabi C. Mosaic code or law
B. King Ur-Nammu’s code D. Justinian code
64. The first convict in the Philippines who was sentenced to death by means of lethal injection.
A. Leo Echagaray C. Baby Ama
B. Asiong Salonga D. Alias Waray
65. The first English prison established in 1556 to serve as a workhouse for vagabonds, idlers
and rogues. This system was considered as the origin of prison.
A. Bridewell C. Alcatraz
A. Norfolk prison D. Dartmoor prison
66. The following are agencies involved in corrections under the Department of Justice, except:
A. Bureau of Corrections
B. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
C. Boards of Pardon and Parole
D. Probation Administration
67. The pillar of the Philippine criminal justice system which takes over once the accused has
been found guilty and is meted out the penalty for the crime he committed.
A. Court C. Corrections
B. Law enforcement D. Prosecution
68. The satellite unit of the New Bilibid Prison which houses minimum security prisoners
particularly those nearing release.
B. Youth Rehabilitation Center D. Reception and Diagnostic center
69. What is the action of the court in case a probationer violated his/ her probation conditions?
A. Court revokes probation and probationer goes to prison
B. Court directs probationer to re- apply for probation
C. Court releases the probationer to the community
D. Court orders the continuation of probation
70. The first penal institution in the Philippines established in 1847 in Manila which was
designated as insular penitentiary in 1865 through a Royal Decree issued by the king of Spain.
A. Manila City Jail C. Bilibid Prison
B. New Bilibid Prison D. Fort Santiago
71. The highest rank in the Bureau of Jail Management and Penology.
A. Director General C. Director
B. Superintendent D. Chief Superintendent
72. This prison is known as the “ROCK” built in San Francisco Bay.
A. New York Prison C. San Francisco Prison
B. Alcatraz Prison D. New Gate Prison
73. The Correctional Institution for Women is located in ____.
A. Muntinlupa city C. Mandaluyong city
B. Quezon city D. Pasay city
74. Refers to the commutation of sentence, conditional pardon, and absolute pardon as may be
granted by the President upon recommendation of the boards of pardon and parole.
A. Amnesty C. Parole
B. Executive clemency D. Redress
75. A kind of prisoner who stays waiting for his transfer to the New Bilibid Prison is ___.
A. City or municipal prisoner C. Insular prisoner
B. Provincial prisoner D. Detention prisoner
76. This is an implied condition of probation.
A. Avoid committing another offense C. Report to the Probation Officer
B. Meet his family responsibility D. Abstain from drinking liquor
77. The publisher of the famous “State of Prisons” and proponent of the segregation of female
and young offenders from the adult male offenders.
A. Walter Crofton C. Robert Peel
B. John Howard D. Alexander Macanochie
78. Its task is to conduct a more effective rehabilitation of prisoners through a more scientific
study and diagnoses of each and every prisoner committed to the Bureau of Corrections. It was
established by virtue of Administrative Order No. 11 issued by the Secretary of Justice.
B. Reception and Diagnostic Center D. Camp Bagong Diwa
79. It is a method of punishment resorted to in extreme cases when lighter penalties are
ineffectual.
A. Solitary confinement C. Bartolina
B. Close confinement D. Third degree
80. Under the prison service manual, the prescribed color of uniform for maximum security
prisoners is ____.
A. Orange C. Blue
B. Yellow D. Pink
81. In response to the problem of overcrowding, English prisoners were moved to these floating
jails in 1700.
A. Branks C. Hulks
B. Walnut street jails D. Mamertine prison
82. Considered as the father of Philippine Probation.
A. Juan Ponce Enrile C. Ferdinand Marcos
B. Teodolo Natividad D. Juan Agas
83. The Father of Probation in England.
A. Matthew Davenport Hill C. John Augustus
B. Robert Peel D. O.W. Wilson
84. The infliction of physical pain or harm to a prisoner is classified as ____.
A. Corporal punishment C. Preventive punishment
B. Administrative punishment D. Corrective punishment
85. Primitive punishment of the transgressor carried out through personal vengeance.
A. Retribution C. Expiation
B. Deterrence D. Protection
86. The temporary stay in the execution of the court verdict, ordered by the President to enable
review of the merits of the case.
A. Appeal C. Pardon
B. Reprieve D. Commutation
87. It refers to an act of grace of the Chief Executive which grants general pardon to certain class
of offenders, but requires concurrence of congress.
A. Amnesty C. Pardon
B. Commutation D. Reprieve
88. What particular country first utilized prison as detention facilities?
A. United State of America C. England
B. France D. Spain
89. The merging of supervision of parole and probation is mandated by what particular law?
A. Executive order 392 C. Executive order 292
B. PD 968 D. Act 4221
90. What is the main objective of segregation of prisoners?
A. Diversification by age
B. Diversification by degree of imprisonment
C. Diversification by sex
D. Prevention of physical and moral contamination
91. It is regarded as the most important program that aids in the rehabilitation of prisoners.
A. Recreational program C. Religious program
B. Educational program D. Employment of prisoners
92. An exponent of the classical school of penology who advocated that society must reward
those who accept responsibility and punish those who do not.
A. Bentham C. Becarria
B. Lombroso D. Ferri
93. The Italian legal scholar whose work, “An Essay on Crimes and Punishments”, promoted
sweeping legal reforms, including the development of the penitentiary, was:
A. Guiseppe Garibaldi C. Vito Corleone
B. Enrico Fermi D. Cesare Beccaria
94. The English philosopher who is associated most closely with the “hedonistic calculus” is
_____.
A. Cesare Beccaria C. Jeremy Bentham
B. William Penn D. Benjamin Rush
95. It refers to a suspension of sentence after which the convict is released upon serving the
minimum sentence imposed by law and subject to his good behavior and positive reaction to
rehabilitation programs.
B. Parole D. Amnesty
96. A U.S. law which allowed convicts to be gainfully employed during the day while residing in
prison
A Huber law C. Harvard law
B Split sentence law D. Furlough law
97. Probation is basically a contract between the offender and the _____.
A. Victim C. Probation officer
B. Judge D. Correctional officer
98. “Prison hulks” of the early England referred to:
A. Torture devices C. Old prisoners
B. Types of cell D. Old ships
99. Jeremy Bentham’s idea that human beings seek pleasure while avoiding pain is called the
_____.
A. Anomie C. Hedonistic calculus
B. Logical positivism D. Expiation syndrome
100. Is a procedure by which prisoners are selected for release on the basis of individual
response and progress within the correctional institution and a service by which they are
provided with necessary control and guidance at the service of the remainder of their sentence
within the free community.
B. Amnesty D. Parole

(CRIMINAL LAW AND JURISPRUDENCE)
NAME: ____________________________________ SCORE: __________
1. What is that system of criminal procedure where the detection and prosecution of offenders
are not left to the initiative of private parties but to the officials and agents of the law? Resort is
made to secret inquiry to discover the culprit and violence and torture were often employed to
extract a confession. The judge is not limited to the evidence brought before him but could
proceed with his own inquiry which is not confrontative.
A. Mixed system C. Inquisitorial
B. Accusatorial D. Adversarial
2. Jessie while carrying a bayong was seen acting suspiciously by policemen. Although the
policemen did not know it at that time, Jessie had unlicensed firearms inside the bayong. The
policemen approach him and Jessie ran away. If you were the policeman what would you do?
A. Chase him and arrest him for illegal possession of FA
B. Secure first a warrant to arrest the suspect
C. Confiscate the bayong
D. Shot him at the back
3 R was shot in the stomach by W. R was immediately rushed to the hospital by X who asked
him: “ who did this to you?” to which R replied: “W shot me.” X made a statement before the
police as to what R told him. His testimony was admitted as a dying declaration of R. However,
R managed to survive. Is the statement of X admissible as a dying declaration?
A. Yes. It may be considered as part of the res gestae
B. Yes. It is admissible even if the declarant survives
C. No. It is not a dying declaration because it is incomplete
D. No. X survived hence it is not a dying declaration
4 Police officers receive a phone call telling them that three suspicious looking person were seen
at Northbay Blvd. Policemen were dispatched in the area and they saw a three person, one of
them are holding his abdomen and looking side by side. The man had a loaded firearm tucked in
his waist but this was not yet known to the policemen. If if you were the policeman what would
you do?
A. Approach him and arrest him for illegal possession of FA
B. Approach him and ask him what was under his shirt
C. Confiscate the firearm immediately
D. Handcuff him
5. It refers for reasonable ground of presumption that a matter is, or may be, well founded does
not mean actual and positive caused nor does it import actual certainty.
A. Referral C. probable caused
B. Just caused D. clarification
6. The penalty imposed by the court upon an offender is reduced to a lighter one is known as
____.
A. Reprieve C. Amnesty
B. Commutation of sentence D. Pardon
7. A was repeatedly stabbed by Z on the the different parts of his body. He did before he reached
the hospital and was declared DOA. While on the way to the hospital X said to his father that he
was not going to make it so his father asked him: “ what happened son?” to which A replied:
A. admissible as a dying declaration
B. admissible as part of the res gestae
C. not admissible as a dying declaration because it is in complete
D. not admissible for lack of consciousness of impending death
8. It pertains to the penalty prescribed by law in substitution of the payment of fine because the
convict is unable to satisfy said fine due to insolvency.
A. Subsidiary imprisonment C. Preventive imprisonment
B. Technical Arrest D. Bankruptcy
9. Are those crime committed against the society which produce direct damage or prejudice
common to all its members.
A. Private crimes C. Public crimes
B. Felony D. Infraction
10. Circumstances wherein the acts of the person are in accordance with the law and, hence, he
incurs no criminal and civil liability.
A. Justifying circumstances C. Exempting circumstances
B. Mitigating circumstances D. Aggravating circumstances
11. SPO1 Napagiwanan saw Amable, his neighbor, quarrelling with his wife. He seized Amable
and brought him to the police station where he was detained for one (1) hour after which he was
released upon others of the Prosecutor. What crime was committed by SPO1 Napagiwanan?
A. Delay in the Delivery of Detained Person C. arbitrary detention
B. Delaying release D. no crime was committed
12. Pugante was charge with rape but the alleged rape victim failed to appear and testify in court
despite repeated summonses. Unknown to the court, she was offered money to desist by pursuing
the case. The court dismissed the case and an order for released of Pugante from the Valenzuela
City Jail was issued. The warder refused to release Pugante saying that the judge committed
error. What crime was committed by the Jail Warder?
A. Arbitrary detention C. direct assault
B. Delaying release D. None
13. In this respect, the offender performs all the acts of execution which would produce the
felony as a consequence but which, nevertheless, do not produce it by reason of causes
independent of the will of the perpetrator.
A. Attempted felony C. Frustrated felony
B. Consummated felony D. Aborted felony
14. Crimes committed on board foreign merchant vessels are triable in the foreign country where
they are situated unless such crimes affect merely the internal management of the vessel.
A. English Rule C. French Rule
B. United Nations Rule D. American Rule
15. The following are persons exempt from the operation of criminal law by virtue of the
principles of public international law, except ____.
A. Heads of States C. Ambassadors
B. Consul D. Charges d’Affaires
16. Order of trial is:
A. Prosecution, rebuttal, defense, submission for decision
B. Defense, prosecution, rebuttal, submission for decision
C. Prosecution, defense, rebuttal, submission for decision
D. Defense, rebuttal, prosecution, submission for decision
17. A sworn statement charging a person with an offense subscribed by the offended party, any
peace officer or other peace officer charged with the enforcement of the law violated.
A. Complaint C. Charge sheet
B. Blotter D. Information
18. Persons who aid the felons to hide away evidence or profit from the fruits of the crime are
said to be ____.
A. Principals C. Accessories
B. Accomplices D. Conspirators
19. The duty of the party to present evidence to establish his claim is referred to as ____.
A. Burden of proof C. Burden of evidence
B. Bill of particulars D. Presentation of evidence
20. A person who had decided to commit a felony told somebody else of his plan is guilty of
____.
A. Proposal C. Conspiracy
B. Piracy D. Culpability
21. Circumstances where those that have the effect of reducing the penalty because there is
diminution of any of the elements of dolo or culpa, which makes the act voluntary or because of
the lesser perversity of the offender.
B. Aggravating circumstances D. Mitigating circumstances
22. It is a crime committed by a public officer by depriving the liberty of a person without any
legal ground.
A. Illegal detention C. Violation of domicile
B. Arbitrary detention D. Trespassing
23. It is an act of a public officer of entering the dwelling of another effected against the latter’s
will.
A. Trespass to dwelling C. Coercion
B. Violation of domicile D. Illegal entry
24. What penalty carries a prison term of 1 month to 6 months?
A. Arresto Menor C. Arresto Mayor
B. Reclusion Temporal D. Reclusion Perpetual
25. The branch or division of law which defines crimes, treats of their nature and provides for
their punishment is referred to as ____.
A. Criminology C. Criminal law
B. Penology D. Victimology
26. Fees and indemnities in the course of judicial proceedings are called:
A. Fines C. Civil liability
B. Costs D. Monetary penalties
27. Mayor Garci, in his effort to get rid his city of prostitute ordered the Chief of Police to round-
up all suspected prostitute and put them on board bound on Bicol. The bus far was shouldered by
the City government. What crime was committed to Mayor Garci?
A. Expulsion C. violation of domicile
B. Arbitrary detention D. no crime was committed
28. ____ are acts and omissions committed not only by means of deceit, but also by means of
fault and are punishable by law.
A. Violations of law C. Felonies
B. Infractions D. Illegal acts
29. The fine which exceeds P 6,000.00 is considered as ____.
A. Afflictive C. Light
B. Indeterminate D. Exorbitant
30. In this instance, the offender performs all the acts of execution from which the intended
crime actually results.
A. Attempted felony C. Frustrated felony
B. Consummated felony D. Aborted felony
31. The prosecution of criminal action either commenced by complaint or information shall be
under direction and control of the____.
A. Public prosecutor C. Private prosecutor
B. Presiding judge D. police investigator
32. To be appreciated as mitigating, it must be made to person in authority or his agent, it may be
present if made after the issuance of a warrant of Arrest, but before actual arrest is made.
A. Admission C. Confession
B. Voluntary surrender D. Evident premeditation
33. Evidence which cannot be overcome or rebutted.
A. Prima facie C. Direct
B. Conclusive D. Positive
34. Deliberate or malicious burning of a person to death refers to what kind of crime?
A. Homicide C. Arson
B. Murder D. Murder with arson
35. This is the wilful conscious killing of any child less than three (3) days old.
A. Infanticide C. Abortion
B. Genocide D. Kidnapping
36. If no appeal is made, a judgment becomes final after ______ days from its promulgation.
A. 5 C. 15
B. 10 D. 30
37. A witness testifying on matter which he learned from other person is said to be introducing
____________ evidence.
A. Direct C. Circumstantial
B. Hearsay D. Corroborative
38. Where was the state where the Miranda Doctrine originated?
A. Oregon C. Michigan
B. Arizona D. Texas
39. . ____ is the willful and corrupt assertion of falsehood under oath of affirmation,
administered by authority of law on a material matter.
A. False testimony C. Perjury
B. Fraud D. Corruption of minor
40. It may be defined as the forfeiture or loss of the rights of the State to prosecute the offender
after the lapse of a certain time fixed by law.
A. Prescription of Penalty C. Conditional rule
B. Prescription of crime D. Conditional pardon
41. During the session of the Sangguniang Panglunsod of Valenzuela City, councilor Lilly,
knowing that her proposed Ordinance will not be approved by the other councilors shouted “fire”
prompting the member of the Sanggunian to flee the building via the fire escape. There was no
fire and councilor Lilly made it all up. What crime was committed?
A. acts tending to prevent the meeting of the National Assembly
B. disturbance of proceedings
C. violation of parliamentary immunity
D. None
42. Criminal procedure is a______.
A. Substantive law C. Constitutional law
B. Administrative law D. Remedial or procedure law
43. What if a bank employee named Q was accidentally killed by stray bullets. It was
established that the bullet that killed him came from the responding policemen. A, B, C and D
will be charged with:
A. Murder C. Robbery only
B. Homicide D. Robbery with Homicide
44. . Those wherein there is an absence in the agent of the crime any of the conditions that
would make an act voluntary and hence, although there is no criminal liability , there is civil
liability.
B. Aggravating circumstances D. Alternative circumstances
45. What crime is committed by a private person who detains another for the purpose of
depriving the latter of his liberty for more than three (3) days?
A. Illegal arrest C. Illegal detention
B. Arbitrary detention D. Arbitrary arrest
46. There is ____ if the killing was considered beforehand and that is was motivated by more
than a simple desire to engage in an act of violence.
A. Implied malice C. Express malice
B. Deliberation D. Premeditation
47. H, I and J conspiring with each other, killed K who is the brother in law of J. H committed
the crime with evident premeditation while I was a recidivist. The aggravating circumstance of
recidivism applies to:
A. H only C. J only
B. I only D. To H, I and J
48. Using the preceding question as reference, the aggravating circumstance of relationship
affects the liability of:
A. H only C. J only
B. I only D. H, I and J
49. Evident premeditation shall affect the liability of:
A. H only C. J only
B. I only D. H, I and J
50. The accused repeatedly stabbed his victim in the abdomen but the latter did not die due to
timely medical intervention. The homicide committed is in what stage of execution?
A. Consumated Murder C. Frustrated Murder
B. Attempted Murder D. Impossible Crime
51. What is the best remedy of a person who is accused under a wrong name?
A. Ignore the charge
B. Enter a plea of NOT guilty
C. File a motion to quash on the ground of lack of jurisdiction
D. File a motion to correct the name
52. An arrest may be made on any day and at ___________.
A. Any time of the day or night C. Daytime only
B. Weekdays only D. None of the above
53. X, intending to burn Y’s house bought a gallon of kerosene and a box of matches. X,
realizing that what he is about to do is wrong, he decided not to pursue his intention of burning
Y’s house. A committed:
A. Attempted Arson C. No crime was committed
B. Frustrated Arson D. Impossible Crime of Arson
54. What if X decided to push through with his plan and started dousing Y’s house with
gasoline. As he was about to light it, he was stopped by Y. A committed:
A. Attempted Arson C. Overt Acts

B. Frustrated Arson D. Impossible Crime of Arson
55. Dr. Antonio is a medico legal officer at the PNP crime laboratory. He conducted the autopsy
of Mr. Castro’s cadaver who was believed to be poisoned. The case was investigated by the
CIDG and the crime lab was asked to conduct the autopsy. According to the autopsy report
which was immediately accomplished by Dr. Antonio after conducting the autopsy shows that
Mr. Castro died of cyanide poisoning. Before Dr. Antonio could testify, he migrated to the U.S.
to work as a nurse. The prosecution presented the autopsy report to prove the cause of Mr.
Castro’s death. The defense objected on the ground of hearsay. The autopsy report is:
A. Hearsay, hence inadmissible
B. Mere opinion, hence inadmissible
C. Admissible as Entries in the course of business
D. Admissible as Entries in official records
56. The Mayor of Valenzuela City, accompanied by the City Engineer is surveying a public land
occupied by squatters. The Mayor is planning relocate the squatters to Bulacan so that the land
may be used for infrastructure project. The squatters opposed the plan. Ambo, one of the
squatters, slapped the Mayor on the face when the latter came near him. Ambo committed what
crime?
A. sedition C. direct assault
B. disturbance of proceedings D. no crime was committed
57. The Kilusan ng Mga Ungas (KMU) was organize by Pedro Ungas for the purposeof stirring
dissatisfaction among the workers in a factory and inflamed them to rise against the government
and over throw it. Juan is a member of the Kilusan. Juan is liable for what crime?
A. illegal assembly C. illegal association
B. sedition D. none
58. Six (6) men entered the house of Maria brandishing firearms and knives. After they
ransacked Maria’s house, they took money and jewelry. But before they left, they brought Maria
to the backyard where she was ordered to undress and thereafter raped by the six men. What
crime(s) was committed?
A. Robbery and Rape C. Complex crime of Robbery with Rape
B. Theft and Rape D. Robbery only since the rape is absorbed
59. What if the six men ransacked Maria’s house while the latter was sleeping. As they were
about to leave the scene Maria woke up and saw them carrying her VCR and TV. She was
forced by the six men to go with them on board a waiting taxi. Upon reaching Monumento,
Caloocan City, the three men alighted. The remaining three men named X, Y and Z brought
Maria to a nearby motel where she was raped. What crime(s) was committed by X, Y and Z?
A. Robbery and Abduction with Rape C. Complex crime of Robbery with Rape
B. Theft and Rape D. Robbery only (rape is absorbed)
60. It may be defined as an act committed by a husband who keeps a mistress in the conjugal
dwelling, or shall have sexual intercourse, under scandalous circumstances, with a woman who is
not his wife, or shall cohabit with her in any place.
A. Concubinage C. Adultery
B. Immorality D. Rape
61. It is the act of a person for marrying for the second time, before the former marriage has been
legally dissolved or before the absent spouse has been judicially declared presumptively dead.
A. Polygamy C. Monogamy
B. Bigamy D. Moonlighting
62. A team of police officers was about to serve a warrant of arrest upon Mr. Ong, suspected
gambling lord in Bulacan. When the warrant of arrest was about to be issued, ten (10) of Mr.
Ong’s neighbors, all armed with knives, attacked the team but were repelled. Mr. Ong’s
neighbors committed what crime?
A. Rebellion C. Sedition
B. Inciting to Rebellion D. Direct Assault
63. Z, a member of the “Agaw-Armas Gang,” decided to rob a security guard of his firearm.
Fearing that the guard might beat him to the draw, the former decided to shoot him at the back.
When the guard’s dead body was sprawled on the floor, Z took his gun. What crime did Z
commit?
A. Murder C. Robbery only
B. Murder and robbery D. Robbery with Homicide
64. What if the original intention of Z is to kill the security guard because he found out that the
guard was having an affair with his wife. Fearing that the guard might beat him to the draw, he
decided to shoot him at the back. But after killing the guard, he took the latter’s gun. What crime
was committed by Z?
A. Murder C. Murder and Theft
B. Murder and robbery D. Robbery with Homicide
65. P is an assassin who was paid to kill Q. While Q was dining at a restaurant, P came from
behind and shot him twice in the head. R witnessed the incident and panicked. He
(R)immediately ran out of the restaurant and as he reached its main door he told the security
guard: “ P shot Q” The security guard was presented as a witness since R went into hiding for
fear or reprisal from P in case he would testify against him. The security guard’s statement as to
what R said to him is:
A. Part of the res gestae C. Declaration against interest
B. Dying declaration D. Non-hearsay
66. A is accused of killing B. A denies the accusation. After the preliminary investigation, the
city Prosecutor found probable cause against B and a case for murder was filed against him
before the RTC, which issued a warrant for A’s arrest. Before the warrant could be served, A
went to Paraguay, a country with which the Philippines has no extradition treaty in order to avoid
prosecution. After one year A returned to the Philippines and was arrested immediately by the
police and prosecuted. A’s act of going to foreign country is:
A. Implied admission of guilt C. Confession
B. Irrelevant D. None of the above
67. It is a felony wherein a person compels another by means of force, violence or intimidation
to do something against his will, whether right or wrong.
A. Grave threat C. Light threat
B. Grave coercion D. Light coercion
68. Under the law, the following are allowed to conduct Preliminary Investigation:
A. Provincial/City prosecutors C. National State Prosecutors
B. Judges of the MTC and MCTC D. All of them
69. PO1 Juan and PO2 Lugtu were patrolling the bus terminal of Victory Liner. They were
there to prevent street crimes and to provide police visibility. They received a tip that a person
would be transporting shabu. When they saw the person who matched the description in the tip,
they approached him and introduced themselves as policemen and asked him to show the
contents of his bag. The man agreed and they found out that he had with him several kilos of
shabu. If you were one of the policemen, what would you do?
A. Effect a warrantless arrest after the discovery of the drugs
C. Secure first a search warrant on the bus
D. None of the above
70. It is referred to as Alevosia, or means or methods employed to ensure its execution.
A. Craft C. Deceit
B. Intent D. Treachery
71. A group composed of dive (5) men, all armed with sumpak raided the Chinese cemetery
destroying tombstones, burial sites and other property located therein. The purpose of the group
is to show their hatred toward the Chinese businessmen whom they allege of monopolizing the
local businesses. The crime committed by the group is:
A. Rebellion C. Sedition
B. Conspiracy to Commit Sedition D. No crime was committed
72. Robert, the accused saw a 28 year old girl Ms. Tisay near the gate of her residence. Without a
word, Robert kissed Ms. Tisay on the cheek and brisked softly his hands on to her left breast. No
one saw the incident. In a minute, Robert left Ms. Tisay, who got shocked and speechless. What
crime was committed by Robert if any?
A. Acts of lasciviousness C. Unjust vexation
B. Attempted rape D. Seduction
73. Accused was convicted of homicide on September 15, 1983. No appeal was made; judgment
became final on October 1, 1983. He got his second conviction rendered on October 26, 1983 for
murder. He is called by law as a ____.
A. Hardened criminal C. Recidivist
B. Habitual offender D. Habitual deliquent
74. It is a swift attack, accompanied by violence, intimidation, threat, strategy or stealth against a
facility needed for the exercise and continued possession of power committed by a person
belonging to the military or police, with or without civilian support, for the purpose of seizing or
diminishing state power.
A. Rebellion C. Insurrection
B. Coup d’ etat D. Sedition
75. During the meeting of factory workers, the Labor Union Leader called upon the members to
sabotage the factory equipment and burn the warehouse due to their hatred towards their
employer whom they accuse of unfair labor practice. The factory workers agreed with the Labor
Leader. What crime was committed by the Labor Leader?
A. Rebellion C. Inciting to Sedition
B. Illegal Assembly D. Inciting to Rebellion
76. In the above scenario, are the factory workers who attended the meeting liable? If they are
liable, what crime?
A. Illegal Assembly C. Illegal Association
B. Sedition D. Not liable
77. Felonies or “delitos” are acts and omissions punishable by law. Felonies are committed not
only by means of “dolo” but also by means of “culpa”. Dolo means ____.
A. Deceit C. Negligence
B. Culpa D. Imprudence
78. X is accused of raping Y. After he was arrested, he was interviewed by TV reporters who
asked him: “ Did you rape Y?” A answered: “Yes.” The interview was recorded. When the case
was eventually tried in the court, the prosecution tried to prove X’s admission of the rape by
presenting the video footage of the interview and the testimony of the TV reporter who
interviewed X. X is challenging the admissibility of the admission saying that it was made
without the presence of counsel, hence inadmissible. The admission by X is:
A. Not admissible because X was not assisted by counsel
B. Admissible because it was voluntarily made
C. Not admissible because the admission is irrelevant
D. Admissible because the TV interview is not part of custodial investigation
79. X throws a hand grenade at Y. Y was killed and 2 others were seriously injured. The crime
committed by X is:
A. Murder and multiple physical injuries
B. Murder with multiple attempted murder
C. Murder and multiple attempted murders
D. Murder
80. A forged 100 pieces of Philippine P 1,000.00 peso bill. The forgery was committed in China
and the fake money was to be smuggled to the Philippines via Taiwan. The shipment was
confiscated in Taiwan by the Philippine Center for Transnational Crime (PCTC) and A was
arrested therein. What country has jurisdiction over A’s crime?
A. China C. Taiwan
B. Philippines D. All of the above
81. Ms. X, a nurse at a hospital, removed the oxygen mask of the patient who was suffering from
emphysema, and as a result of which the patient could not breathed. The patient survived due to
the timely arrival of the resident physician who immediately attached the oxygen mask to the
patient. Ms. X committed:
A. Consummated Murder C. Frustrated Murder
B. Attempted Murder D. Impossible Crime of Murder
82. “Delito compuesto” occurs when a single act constitutes two or more grave or less grave
offenses. Delito compuesto means ____ in English.
A. Compound complex crime C. Complex crime proper
B. Complicated crime D. Consummated crime
83. A, B and C agreed to kill X and so armed with guns, they proceeded to the house of the latter
whereupon A told B and C that he would just stay in the yard as lookout. When B and C entered
the room of X and saw him sleeping, it was C who shot him. The killing is attended by treachery,
which aggravates the liability of:
A. A only C. B and C only
B. C only D. A, B and C
84. The offender entered the dwelling with the intention of taking the stereo. He was able to get
inside the house but before he could find the stereo he was immediately caught by the occupant.
The offender committed:
A. Attempted Robbery C. Consummated Robber
B. Frustrated Robbery D. Consummated Trespass to Dwelling
85. What if the offender was able to find the stereo and as he was removing it from the table he
was caught by the occupant. The offender committed:
A. Attempted Robbery C. Consummated Robbery
86. Assuming that the offender managed to get the stereo and as he was about to get out of the
house he was caught by the occupant. The offender committed:
87. If he was able to bring out the stereo, the accused would be guilty of:
88. Abdul, while on board a vinta chased MV Doña Paz, a passenger vessel while it was at Sulu
sea. When it overtook MV Doña Paz, Abdul and his companions boarded the passenger vessel
and took control of it and brought it to Malaysia where the passengers were robbed of their
belongings. What crime was committed by Abdul and his men?
A. Piracy C. Qualified Piracy
B. Mutiny D. Robbery
89. Using the preceding number as reference, but this time Abdurajak is not the leader but
merely acted as a lookout at the pier to monitor the arrival of government troops, for what crime
would he be liable?
A. Espionage C. Rebellion
B. Sedition D. No crime was committed
90. It signifies a reasonable ground of suspicion supported by circumstances sufficiently strong
in themselves to warrant a cautious man to believe that the person is guilty of the offense with
which he is charged.
A. Just Cause C. Information
B. Tip D. Probable cause
91. The duty of the party to present evidence to establish his claim is referred to as ___.
A. Burden of proof C. Burden of evidence
B. Bill of particulars D. Presentation of evidence
92. Accused was convicted of homicide on September 15, 1983. No appeal was made; judgment
became final on October 1, 1983. He got his second conviction rendered on October 26, 1983 for
murder. He is called by law as a ____.
A. Hardened criminal C. Recidivist
B. Habitual offender D. Criminalist
93. D is a suspect in a stabbing incident. He was arrested a few minutes after the incident and
was brought to the police station where he was photographed and was asked to remove his T-
shirt to see if he had a tattoo on his chest because the victim said that his attacker had a tattoo on
his chest. It was found out that D had a tattoo on his chest similar to the one described by the
victim. The subsequent photographing and removal of D’s shirt is:
A. Inadmissible because it violate D’s right against self –incrimination
B. Admissible because it does not violate D’s right against self –incrimination
C Inadmissible because it is irrelevant
D.None of the above
94. After receiving a tip that Amminudin would be arriving at the Pier after two days bringing
with him prohibited drugs, what would you do assuming you are a police officer?
A. Effect a Warrantless arrest upon his arrival at the pier
C. Secure first a search warrant on the vessel
95. A group of men from Jolo, Sulu led by Abdurajak banded together and armed themselves
with armalites. Their purpose is to declare a separate Islamic state in southern Philippines. No
actual clash of arms has taken place since Abdurajak knew that his forces would be no match for
the government soldiers. Abdurajak and his men committed:
A. Sedition C. Rebellion
B. Treason D. No crime was committed
96. Assuming you opted to effect a warrantless arrest, what would be your basis?
A. Hot Pursuit Arrest C. In flagrante delicto arrest
B. Probable cause D. None of the above
97. When an offense committed is a necessary means of committing another offenses.
A. Compound Complex crime (delito complejo)
B. Complex crime proper (delito complejo)
C. Complicated crime
98. Crimes committed on board a Philippine-registered ship or airship is triable in:
A. Philippine courts
B. International Court Justice
C. Courts of the country where the vessel is situated
D. United Nation
99. That crime committed on board a foreign merchant vessel while on waters of another country
are not triable in that country unless those which affect the peace and security of that country or
the safety of that state is endanger.
A. English Rule C. French Rule
B. Territoriality D. None of the above
100. . An accessory penalty to reclusion perpetua and reclusion temporal which deprives the
offender, during his sentence of the rights of parental authority, guardianship, marital authority
and the right to dispose his own property.
A. Disqualification C. Civil Interdiction
B. Distierro D. All of the above

(CRIMINALISTICS)
NAME: ____________________________________ SCORE: ___________
1. What is that spreading of two ridges that previously running side by side?
A. Bifurcation C. Convergence
B. Divergence D. Enclosure
2. Better known as fingerprint identification.
A. Dactylography C. Anthropometry
B. Dactyloscopy D. Podoscopy
3. In 1835, he made the first successful attempt to identify a murderer from a bullet recovered
from the body of a victim.
A. Henry Goddard C. Professor Lacassagne
B. Paul Jeserich D. Professor Balthazard
4. The one who coined the term “Photography” is ____.
A. William Fox Merschel C. Joseph Nicephere Niece
B. Louis Mande Daguerre D. John F.W. Herchel
5. The rifling of the firearm is located inside the barrel. It consists of ____.
A. Depressed portion C. Raised portion
B. Lands and grooves D. Lands portion
6. The determining factor of how wide is the area of coverage of a lens as well as the size of the
image that it will produce is the ____.
A. Lens opening C. Depth of field
B. Focal length D. Hyper-focal distance
7. Is a magnified photograph of a small object object obtained by attaching a camera to the
ocular of a compound microscope.
A. Microphotograph C. Macrophotograph
B. Photomicrograph D. Photomicrograph
8. A fingerprint pattern in which the ridges form a sequence of spirals around core axes.
A. Loop C. Whorl
B. Arch D. Delta
9. Is the person who devised an instrument that can record changes of blood pressure, pulse beat
and respiration simultaneously which he called the “ Bread board Lie Detector”.
A. Cesare Lombroso C. Sir James Mackenzie
B. John A. Larson D. Leonard Keeler
10. A signature written by the forger in his own style of handwriting without attempting to copy
to form the genuine signature. It is what kind of forgery?
A. Traced forgery C. Simple forgery
B. Disguised forgery D. Simulated forgery
11. He was the father of modern ballistics.
A. Richard O. Arthur C. Daniel Wesson
B. Col. Calvin Goddard D. Elisha King Root
12. This part of the hair can be the subject of DNA analysis due to its follicular tag.
A. Cortex C. Cuticle
B. Root D. Medulla
13. What kind of test is used in the determination of gunpowder residue?
A. Marquis’ test C. Chromatographic test
B. Diphenylamine test D. Methamphetamine test
14. Crystolith hair of marijuana is in the shape of ____.
A. Square C. Round
B. Bear claws D. Hulled coconut
15. In fingerprinting, the forking or dividing of one line to two or more branches is known as
____.
A. Ridge C. Island
B. Delta D. Bifurcation
16. When a ridge bifurcates, sending two ridges across the imaginary line, how is it counted?
A. One C. Three
B. Two D. Six
17. Taking photographs of arrested persons for identification purposes is called ____.
A. Photo-synthesis C. Mugging
B. Bugging D. Rogue’s gallery
18. A lens of a camera is supposed to have inherent seven major lens defects or aberrations. Of
these defects, the most difficult lens defect or aberration to correct is the ____.
A. Spherical aberration C. Distortion
B. Chromatic aberration D. Astigmatism
19. A sexual perversion characterized by erotic desire or actual intercourse with corpse.
A. Satyriasis C. Nymphomania
B. Necrophilia D. Anilingus
20. An allied science of fingerprint which deals with the identification of a person by palm print
is known as ____.
A. Chiroscopy C. Podoscopy
B. Palmistry D. Poroscopy
21. A component of the polygraph instrument which records the blood pressure and the pulse
rate of the subject.
A. Cardiosphygmograph C. Pneumograph
B. Galvanograph D. Kymograph
22. The term finger was derived from what Latin word?
A. Dermis C. Dactyl
B. Digitus D. Skopien
23. ____ is the scientific study of the prints of the soles of the feet.
A. Poroscopy C. Podoscopy
B. Chiroscopy D. dactyloscopy
24. It is the mechanism of a firearm which grasps the rim of the cartridge case and withdraws it
from the chamber.
A. Extractor C. Lock
B. Ejector D. Extractor rod
25. Methamphetamine hydrochloride is commonly known as ____.
A. Cocaine C. Shabu
B. Heroin D. LSD
26. What pattern type has the ridges that enter on one side of the pattern and flow to the other
side with a rise in the center?
A. Loop C. Tented arch
B. Plain arch D. Exceptional arch
27. The most suitable material for making foot mark cast in soil is ____.
A. Plaster of Paris C. Paraffin wax
B. Sheallac D. Chalk
28. A distinctive design which is translucent impressed on the paper during manufacture.
A. Watermark C. Fiber mark
B. Paper design D. Trademark
29. It was him who in 1901 introduced blood typing which has been the basis of the ABO
system.
A. Patrick Hayes C. Karl Landsteiner
B. Montgomer Mayer D. Silvertone Keys
30. What mark is found on the bullet after it passes the barrel of a firearm?
A. Mark of the firing pin C. Rifling mark
B. Mark of the breechblock D. Mark from the extractor
31. In photography, a chemical used as an accelerator in a developer solution.
A. Hydroquinone C. Sodium carbonate
B. Potassium bromide D. Sodium sulfite
32. The papillary ridges are immutable, perennial or individual for the third month of the
embryonic period until decomposition sets in after death. The statement is under the principle of
____.
A. Infallibility C. Constancy
B. Variation D. Merit and fitness
33. In a shooting incident, the presence of gunpowder residues on the victim’s wound or clothing
is an indication that the distance is ____.
A. Closed range C. Far range
B. 10 feet D. 12 feet
34. Rigor mortis has already set in when muscles of the cadaver is ____.
A. Stiff C. Soft
B. Decomposed D. Destroyed
35. The first successful smokeless powder was introduced by ____.
A. Capt. Schultze C. Capt. Barbell
B. Alfred Noble D. Capt. Roger
36. A process by which a canal-like outline is produced on a fraudulent document underneath the
genuine and tracing it with the use of a pointed instrument.
A. Carbon process C. Transmitted light process
B. Indention process D. Projection process
37. It is the dissolution of the tissues by the digestive action of its bacteria and enzyme.
A. Putrefaction C. Post mortem rigidity
B. Primary placidity D. Cadaveric spasm
38. The chemical processing step wherein the latent image recorded on the paper or film
becomes visible.
A. Fixer C. Developer
B. Stop bath D. Bleacher
39. It is a kind of death that occurs due to disease or ailment of the body.
A. Molecular death C. Somatic death
B. Medico-legal death D. Natural death
40. The galvanograph component of a polygraph machine detects what?
A. Breathing C. Blood pressure
B. Skin resistance D. Pulse rate
41. A kind of photography used to restore writing which have been erased chemically or
mechanically or in the detection of substitution, overwriting or secret writing.
A. Photomicrography C. Photomacrography
B. Police photography D. Ultraviolet photography
42. What type of a pattern consisting of two or more deltas, one or more ridge forming a
complete circuitry and when an imaginary line is drawn from left delta to right delta it touches or
cross the circuiting ridge/s considered as the most common type of whorl.
A. Plain whorl C. Central pocket whorl
B. Double loop whorl D. Accidental whorl
43. A person allowed by the court to give an opinion or conclusion during a trial on particular
scientific evidence.
A. Investigator C. Expert witness
B. Prosecutor D. Defense lawyer
44. Is that section of the polygraph machine designed to run the paper at a regular speed of 6
inches per minutes?
A. Keymograph C. Pen and inking system
B. Pneumograph D. Galvanograph
45. Specimen handwriting consisting of writing or printing executed from day to day in the
course of business, social or personal affairs.
A. Specimen signature C. Evidence signature
B. Collected standard D. Model specimen
46. Attributed as the person who first discovered true photography.
A. William Henry Fox Talbot C. Thomas Wedgewood
B. Louis Jacques Mande Dagurre D. Joseph Nicephore Niepce
47. This is the most suitable material for making foot mark cast in soil.
A. Shellac C. Plaster of Paris
B. Paraffin wax D. Glue
48. Which denomination bears a concealed value?
A. 500-piso C. 20-piso
B. 200-piso D. 10-piso
49. A chemical that acts as scissor to cut DNA molecules at specific locations.
A. Restriction enzyme C. Fragmentation enzyme
B. Helix cut process D. Hybridization
50. The person who made the first suggestion for using the Psycho Galvanic reaction for
detecting deception and we stated that galvanic skin phenomenon is under the influence of
exciting mental impressions and the will has no effect upon it.
A. Veraguth C. Sticker
B. Harold Burtt D. Vittorio Bennussi
51. Is the person known for being the U.S. public enemy number one, who attemps to destroy his
friction by applying a corrosive acid?
A. Robert James Pitts C. Roscoe Pitts
B. John Dillenger D. John Augustus
52. Test that may be applied to dried bloodstrains, whole, fresh, unclotted blood.
A. Precipitin Test C. Benzidine test
B. Phospatase test D. Takayama test
53. The efforts of these researchers led to the discovery that the DNA is actually composed of
two DNA strands coiled into a double helix which resemble two wires twisted around each other.
They were.
A. Watson and Crick C. Watson and Hayes
B. Watson and Gretel D. Watson and Meyer
54. Pioneer who first used the term psycho-galvanic skin reflex.
A. Veraguth C. Vittorio Benussi
B. Lombroso D. Angelo Mosso
55. Caliber of the firearm is measured in the barrel from what particular part?
A. From land to land C. From land to groove
B. From groove to land D. From groove to groove
56. A new Mexico Geologist who adopted the first individual use of fingerprints in August 8,
1882, by using his own thumb mark as a protection to prevent tampering with the pay order he
issued.
A. Sgt John Kenneth Ferrier C. Gilbert Thompson
B. Capt. James Parke D. Dr. Henry P. Forest
57. Whose portrait is on the 100-piso note?
A. Benigno Aquino C. Emilio Aquinaldo
B. Manuel Roxas D. Sergio Osmena
58. The person who made a great improvement on the polygraph machine in the year 1926 was
____.
A. Leonarde Keeler C. John E. Reid
B. John A. Larson D. Richard O. Arthur
59. Which denomination in the Philippine note has a predominantly orange color?
A. 10-piso C. 100-piso
B. 20-piso D. 50-piso
60. There are three types of firearms: rifle, pistol and revolver. When you recovered fire
cartridges from the crime scene, your suspicion is focused on ____.
A. Revolver C. Pistol
B. Shotgun D. Pistol or rifle
61. A kind of document executed by a person in authority and by private parties but notarized by
competent officials.
A. Private document C. Commercial document
B. Public document D. Official document
62. A type of a pattern consisting of a core, delta, recurving ridge and a ridge count of at least
one.
A. Radial loop C. Loop
B. Ulnar loop D. Tented arch
63. A type of fingerprint pattern in which the slope or downward flow of the innermost sufficient
recurve is towards the thumb of radius bone of the hand of origin.
A. Ulnar loop C. Tented arch
B. Accidental whorl D. Radial loop
64. The word finger was derived from what Latin Word.
A. Dermis C. Digitus
B. Dactyl D. Skopien
65. What is the main layer of the epidermis, which covers the surface on which ridges are
visible?
A. Dermis C. Stratum corneoum
B. Stratum mucusom D. Sanguinal stratum
66. What type of a pattern possesses an angle, an uptrust, or two of the three basic characteristics
of the loop?
A. Plain arch C. Central pocket loop
B. Tented arch D. Accidental whorl
67. The wavelength of electro-magnetic energy in reference to visible light is ____.
A. 001-100 C. 300-400
B. 400-700 D. 700-100
68. He was the person who devised an instrument that can record changes of blood pressure,
pulse beat and respiration simultaneously which he called “Bread board lie detector”.
A. Sir James Mackenzie C. Leonarde Keeler
B. John A. Larson D. Cesare Lombroso
69. It is the ancient method of detecting deception practiced in Bengal, India where accused to
prove his innocence would touch his tongue to an extremely hot metal.
A. Boiling water ordeal C. Ordeal of heat and fire
B. Red hot iron ordeal D. Ordeal of balance
70. A system of identification which was used earlier than the fingerprint system, made by
measuring various bony structure of human body and developed by Alphonse Bertillon.
A. Portrait Parle C. Tattoo
B. Anthropometry D. Photography
71. Who determines the guilt of the subject in a polygraph test?
A. Examiner C. Judge
B. Prosecutor D. Investigator
72. Is a heart specialist who described in two British journal the polygraph machine as “Ink
Polygraph.”
A. Leonarde Keeler C. Sir James Makenzie
B. Dr. Hans Gross D. William Moulton Marston
73. When a ridge bifurcates, sending two ridges across the imaginary line, how is it counted?
A. One C. Two
B. Three D. Six
74. Is the person who devised an instrument that can record changes of blood pressure, pulse beat
and respiration simultaneously which he called the “ Bread board Lie Detector”.
A. Cesare Lombroso C. Sir James Mackenzie
B. John A. Larson D. Leonard Keeler
75. The pattern or curved path of the bullet in flight is known as ____.
A. Yyaw C. Range
B. Velocity D. Trajectory
76. This refers to the deflection of the bullet from its normal path after striking a resistant
surface.
A. Misfire C. Mushroom
B. Richochet D. Key hole shot
77. All of the following are accurate tests for the presence of alcohol in the human body except
one.
A. Saliva test C. Harger breath test
B. Fecal test D. Blood test
78. Developed the system of handwriting classification utilized by most police department.
A. Lee and Abbey C. Rolando Wilson
B. Levine D. Landsteiner
79. Twenty – four hours after death, the cadaver became hard or stiff, Stiffening of a muscle in
post mortem cases is known as_____.
A. Ante-Mortem C. Post mortem
B. Rigor Mortis D. Edgar mortis
80. The emulsion speed rating of a film that is both expressed in arithmetical and logarithmic
value.
A. ASA rating C. DIN rating
B. BSI rating D. ISO rating
81. If a fired bullet is submitted for examination to the laboratory, the expert can determine
which of the following?
A. Firearm used C. Kind of firearm used
B. Individual characteristics D Owner of the firearm
82. The cause of death of a person who immediately died because of lack of oxygen for around 3
to five minutes refers to ____.
A. Stroke C. Asphyxia
B. Stupor D. Exhaustion
83. In a polygraph test, the primary purpose of the pre-test interview is to ____.
A. Prepare subject for the test C. Obtain instant confession
B. Make the subject calm D. explain the polygraph test procedures
84. A discoloration of the body after death when the blood tends to pool in the blood vessels of
the most dependent portions of the body and starts 20 to 30 minutes after death and is completed
by 12 hours.
A. Livor mortis C. Primary flaccidity
B. Maceration D. Algor mortis
85. How many standard fingerprint patterns are there? ( types)
A. Three C. Eight
B. Two D. Nine
86. It is referred to as the unstable rotating motion of the bullet.
A. Trajectory C. Yaw
B. Velocity D. Gyroscopic action
87. What are the depressed portions or canal structure of the friction skin found between ridges?
A. Pores C. Ducts
B. Furrows D. Indentions
88. What is the tiny openings on the skin from where sweat is excreted?
A. Duct C. Pores
B. Furrows D. Sweat glands
89. Known as the Father of modern fingerprint, whose system of classification was spread in
almost English speaking-country.
A. Juan Vucitich C. Sir Edward Richard Henry
B. Francis Galton D. William Herschel
90. The investigator should avoid asking witnesses long complicated questions because this will:
A. Give the witness a chance to formulate desired answer
B. Enable him to ascertain the purpose of the interviewer
C. Renders difficulty in obtaining the facts for conviction
D. Embraces him and cause him to answer he does not know
91. ____ is a magnified photograph of a small object obtained by attaching a camera to the
ocular of a compound microscope.
A. Microphotograph C. Macrophotograph
B. Photomicrograph D. Photomacrograph
92. He devised a quantitative analysis on a polygraph chart and the test called Backster Zone
Comparison Technique.
A. C.D. Lee C. Galileo
B. Cleve Backster D. Richard O. Arthur
93. A kind of wound produced by a blunt instrument such as club and stone.
A. Incised wound C. Hack wound
B. Lacerated wound D. Punctured wound
94. What type of firearm has six lands and grooves with right twist?
A. Smith and Wesson C. Colt
B. Browning D. Webley
95. Is that appears as tiny black line with white dots called pores in an inked finger impression.
A. Sweat pore C. Furrow
B. Sweat duct D. Ridges
96. A kind of erasure using a rubber eraser, sharp knife, razor blade or picking instrument.
A. Mechanical erasure C. Electronic erasure
B. Magnetic erasure D. Chemical erasure
97. Is the person who discover the two main layer of the friction skin ( Epidermis and Dermis)
and to whom one of the thin layer of the friction skin was named.
A. Herman Welcker C. Marcelo Malpighe
B. William Herschel D. Henry Faulds
98. The first man noted for the used of the word” Polygraph”
A. Thomas Jefferson C. G. Gallilleo
B. F. Galton D. Sir James Makenzie
99. The principle in fingerprint study that states that fingerprint cannot be forged. Fingerprint is a
reliable and a positive means of identification.
A. Principle of infallibility C. Principle of individuality
B. Principle of permanency D. Principle of constancy
100. Is the person who discover the two main layer of the friction skin ( Epidermis and Dermis)
and to whom one of the thin layer of the friction skin was named.
A. Herman Welcker C. Marcelo Malpighe
B. William Herschel D. Henry Faulds

(CRIME DETECTION AND INVESTIGATION)
NAME: ____________________________________ SCORE: ___________
1. Summary of the habits, techniques and peculiarities of behavior characterizing the operational
procedure employed by certain criminals.
A. Criminal tactics C. Planning
B. Modus operandi D. Modus vivendi
2. Most likely place to look for fingerprints of theft in an automobile, which has been stolen and
abandoned.
A. Dashboard C. Door handles
B. Steering wheel D. Rear view mirror
3. The interrogation of the suspect to be constitutional must adhere to what doctrine?
A. Escobedo doctrine C. Marcos doctrine
B. Aquino doctrine D. Miranda doctrine
4. Usually a motive in arson is -
A. Economic gain C. Revenge
B. Pyromania D. Prankter’s act
5. Special crime investigation is more concerned on:
A. Physical evidence C. Tracing evidence
B. Testimonial evidence D. Associative evidence
6. In introducing physical evidence at a trial, three important factors must be constructed: First,
the evidence must be material and relevant, second the article must be properly identified and
____.
A. It must be part of the modus operandi
B. There must be knowledge of laboratory procedures
C. The object must have been used in the commission of the crime
D. The chain of custody must be established
7. The Bureau of Fire Protection is under what department?
A. Department of National Defense
B. Department of Social Welfare and Development
C. Department of the Interior and Local Government
D. Department of Justice
8. The team leader will mark an area in the form of a rectangle. At the end of the rectangle, the
searchers begin by turning and proceeding back along new lanes but parallel to the first
movement. This search method is known as:
A. Strip method C. Spoke method
B. Grid method D. Spiral method
9. One kind of writ issued to bring someone before a court or judge is called a ____.
A. Corpus striatum C. Corpus delicti
B. Habeas corpus D. Modus operandi
10. The best known criminal organization in the United States is the “Mafia”, now called as:
A. Omerta C. Cosa Nostra
B. Patriarca D. Costa Rica
11. Considered as the “Father of criminal investigation.
A. Robert Peel C. Alphonse Bertillon
B. Edgar Hoover D. Cesare Beccaria
12. This is the gravitation of blood in the most dependent portion of the body thus producing
reddish discoloration of the area affected. It appears usually from three to six hours following
death.
A. Rigor mortis C. Postmortem lividity
B. Cadaveric spasm D. State of shock
13. The system of searching a crime scene that is generally most effective is the ____.
A. Zone method C. Double-strip method
B. Wheel method D. Spiral method
14. A systematic examination of all facts relating to conditions, actions and physical features
associated with motor collision is called:
A. Traffic engineering
B. Hit and run investigation
C. Traffic collision
D. Traffic accident investigation
15. Bottles, envelopes, test tubes, pins, thumb tacks, carton boxes, paper bags, plastic zip bags,
plastic bag containers, etc. are used for:
A. Collection of evidence C. Preservation of evidence
B. Searching tools D. None of them
16. This is the national policy-making and coordinating body in the Philippines on matter
pertaining to drugs abuse.
A. Department of Health C. Dangerous Drug Board
B. Department of Justice D. PNP Narcotics Command
17. This refers to the controlled questioning of suspects and hostile witnesses in order to obtain
useful information.
A. Interrogation C. Interview
B. Third degree D. Duress
18. Each person who handles an item of evidence from the time of its discovery until
presentation in court must take certain safeguards. This safeguarding of the evidence from person
to person is most accurately termed as:
A. Standards of comparison C. Chain of custody
B. Control of evidence D. Integrity of evidence
19. Any drug which sedates the central nervous system is referred to as:
A. Narcotic C. Medicine
B. Depressant D. Stimulant
20. The profession and scientific discipline directed to the recognition, identification,
individualization and evaluation of physical science by application of natural sciences in matters
of law and science.
A. Chemist C. Scientist
B. Criminalist D. Toxicologist
21. Principle of science applied to law enforcement.
A. Instrumentation C. Forensics
B. Legal medicine D. Criminology
22. Uses his seeming desire to give information to talk to the law enforcers in order to get more
information from them than he gives.
A. Double-crosser informants C. Mercenary informants
B. False informants D. Self-aggrandizing informants
23. Clandestine operation in police parlance
A. Covert intelligence C. Secret activity
B. Overt intelligence D. Surveillance
24. What government agency shall take charge in the custody of all confiscated dangerous drugs,
plant sources, essential chemicals, controlled precursors, and the like?
A. Philippine National Police C. Dangerous Drug Board
B. Phil. Drug Enforcement Agency D. Bureau of Foods and Drugs
25. The discreet observation of places, persons and vehicles for the purpose of obtaining
information concerning the identities or activities of suspects.
A. Close observation C. Espionage
B. Tailing D. Surveillance
26. Articles and materials which are found in connection with the investigation and which aid in
establishing the identity of the perpetrator or the circumstances which the crime was committed
or which, in general assist in the prosecution of the criminal.
A. Tracing evidence C. Corpus delicti
B. Associative evidnce D. Physical or material evidence
27. Kind of dismissal whereby the description and characteristics maybe vague that identification
is difficult.
A. Known fugitives C. Professional criminals
B. Ordinary criminals D. Unknown fugitives
28. A declaration made under consciousness of an impending death is known as ____.
A. Part of res gestae C. Confession
B. Admission D. Dying declaration
29. In the hierarchy of the Mafia, the lowest members are known as:
A. Privates C. Hitmen
B. Soldiers D. Strikers
30. A compilation of photographs of known criminals utilized in investigation for identifying
suspects in a crime.
A. Photographic file C. Album for criminals
B. Rogue’s gallery D. Cartographic sketch
31. Rigor mortis is a postmortem body changes occurring in the ___.
A. Color C. Blood
B. Eye D. Muscle
32. Questioning technique of a person who is suspected of having committed a crime thereby
eliciting information the suspect may have known is called ____.
A. Interrogation C. Investigation
B. Interview D. Convection
33. Self-incriminatory statement falling short of an acknowledgment of guilt.
A. Confession C. Acceptance
B. Admission D. Torture
34. If blood is in fluid condition, what is added to avoid contamination of the specimen?
A. Formaldehyde C. Saline solution
B. Alcohol D. Distilled water
35. In this method, the area to be searched is divided into quadrant and each searcher is assigned
in each quadrant.
A. Zone method C. Strip method
B. Spiral method D. Wheel method
36. The explanation of any symbols to identify objects in a sketch.
A. Compass direction C. Title
B. Legend D. Scale
37. Heat transferred by direct contact from one body to another is known as:
A. Nuclear fission C. Convection
B. Conduction D. Radiation
38. Mechanical device strategically located in an installation or street where fire hose is
connected so that water with pressure will be available to extinguish fire.
A. Fire hose box C. Fire truck
B. Hose reel D. Fire hydrant
39. An art which deals with the identity and location of the offender and provides evidence of his
guilt through criminal proceeding.
A. Information C. Interrogation
B. Instrumentation D. Investigation
40. A person who provides an investigator with confidential information concerning a past or
projected crime and does not wish to be known as a source of information.
A. Informant C. Witness
B. Informer D. Confidential informant
41. What drugs are commonly referred as “downers” because they relax, create a feeling of well-
being and produce sleep to the user?
A. Opium C. LSD
B. Barbiturates D. Marijuana
42. In a police line-up, in which the purpose is to eliminate the power of suggestion as a factor in
identification as a procedure how many persons is needed in such a line-up?
A. 3 to 5 C. 5 to 7
B. 7 to 10 D. 10 to 15
43. These business-like enterprises are most likely engaged in selling “Protection” and are
supplying illegal goods and services, including but not limited to gambling, prostitution, drug
trafficking, racketeering and other unlawful activities.
A. Terrorists groups C. Subversive groups
B. Mercenaries D. Organized crime groups
44. What is referred to as the “Green Triangle Area”?
A. Mindoro-Palawan-Masbate
B. Benguet-Kalinga Apayao-Mt. Province
C. Ilocos Sur-Benguet-Mt. Province
D. Zamboanga-Cotabato-Davao
45. What is known as the Fire Code of the Philippines?
A. PD 448 C. PD 1184
B. PD 421 D. PD 1185
46. Which among the following evidence is referred to as the “body of the crime”?
A. Associative C. Circumstancial
B. Corpus delicti D. Habeas corpus
47. It is the physical possibility that the suspect could have committed the crime.
A. Motive C. Intent
B. Opportunity D. Deceit
48. ____ is heat transfer through air motion.
A. Convection C. Conduction
B. Radiation D. Combustion
49. It is an explanation offered by a person who is the suspect in the commission of crime
purposely to demonstrate that he or she was in some other place other than where the crime took
place and at the time the crime happened.
A. Alibi C. Defense
B. Excuse D. Justification
50. Employed where a general impression of the subject’s habit and associate are required.
A. Surveillance C. Loose tail shadowing
B. Rough shadowing D. Close tail shadowing
51. What group of drugs is used medically as pain-killers?
A. Opiates C. Shabu
B. Track D. Coke
52. What is the general rule for the movement of vehicular traffic in the Philippines?
A. “Watch out” C. “Keep to the right”
B. “Keep to the left” D. “Full stop”
53. More advantageous because it permits immediate changes of men and less likely to be
recognized.
A. One-man shadow C. Two-man shadow
B. Three-man shadow D. ABC method
54. In the examination of the scene of vehicular accident, which of the following evidence will
show how the accident happened?
A. Point of impact
B. The driver is under the influence of liquor
C. Hole on the line pavement
D. Vehicle has break failure
55. Fires fueled by substances such as gasoline, grease, oil, or other volatile fluids are classified
as what type of fire?
A. Class A C. Class C
B. Class B D. Class D
56. This is defined as the positive and direct acknowledgment of guilt by a person regarding the
event in relation to the commission of a particular crime.
A. Admission C. Plea of guilty
B. Confession D. Sworn statement
57. A declaration made under consciousness of an impending death.
A. Part of res gestae C. Confession
B. Dying declaration D. Admission
58. Made by investigator at the crime scene. No scale, proportion ignored and everything is
approximate.
A. Sketch C. Draft
B. Rough sketch D. Finished sketch
59. Principles of science applied to law enforcement.
A. Instrumentation C. Forensics
B. Legal medicine D. Criminology
60. This sketch shows the crime scene with its nearest physical surroundings.
A. Finished sketch C. Sketch of details
B. Sketch of locality D. Sketch of grounds
61. Such articles and evidences which assist the investigator in locating the suspect.
A. Physical evidences C. Material evidences
B. Associative evidences D. Tracing evidences
62. After finding sufficient and strong evidence against the suspect, what will be the police
investigator do if the suspect denies allegation against him?
A. Inquest the case C. Use third degree
B. Release the suspect D. Look for additional evidence
63. Among the following, which is NOT an element of murder?
(a) Treachery C. Evident premeditation
(b) Voluntary surrender D. Taking advantage of superior strength
64. ____ is the most recent popular scientific tool in the identification of person.
A. Fingerprint identification C. Deoxyribonucleic acid
B. Denture analysis D. Serology
65. Which of the following is considered as the most effective fixed installation for controlling
fire which will discharge water into incipient fire from heads located near the ceiling?
A. Fire hydrant C. Standpipe
B. Automatic water sprinkler D. Fire extinguisher
66. What type of license has a validity of three years and can be used for driving as a means of
livelihood?
A. Business License C. Commercial License
B. Entrepreneur License D. Professional License
67. What is the most important objective of the Bureau of Fire Protection?
A. Firefighting C. Fire education
B. Fire prevention D. Fire control and confinement
68. What mechanisms transfer heat from one body to another?
A. Confection, reflection, and refraction
B. Reflection, conduction, and radiation
C. Refraction, reflection, and convection
D. Conduction, convection, and radiation
69. Willful and malicious burning of a building constitutes the crime of ___.
A. Damage to property C. Arson
B. Malicious mischief D. Fire crime
70. This is ordinarily made at the time and scene of the arrest. To discover weapons or evidences
and determine the identity of the suspects.
A. Preliminary search of a person C. Wall search
B. Standing search D. Floor search
71. Evidence which offers least resistance to decomposition.
A. Blood C. Hair
B. Saliva D. Semen
72. If amphetamines are known as “uppers”, what drugs are known as “downers”?
A. Hallucinogens C. Barbiturates
B. Solvents D. Cocaine
73. What is the law, which requires the mandatory compliance by motorists of private and public
vehicles to use seat belt devices, and requires vehicles manufacturers to install seat belt devices
in all their manufactured vehicles?
A. RA 4136 C. RA 6539
B. RA 8750 D. RA 9344
75. Method employed by the police to deprive the liberty by a person taken into custody.
A. Protective custody C. Detaining for questioning
B. Police restraint D. All of the foregoing
75. What is the oldest cultivated plant as source of a prohibited drug?
A. Marijuana C. Peyote
B. Opium D. Coca bush
76. A laboratory test used to determine whether a blood sample is of animal or human origin.
A. Precipitin test C. Paraffin test
B. Chromatography D. Spectrophotometry
77. Movies, pictures, writings, and other expressions that are intended to arouse sexual
incitement and have no artistic merit or redeeming social value are referred to as:
A. Photography C. Indecent exposure
B. Pornography D. Voyeurism
78. Special crime investigation is more concerned on ____.
A. Associative evidence C. Tracing evidence
B. Testimonial evidence D. Physical evidence
79. Instrumental detection of deception.
A. Ballistic test C. Fingerprint test
B. Polygraph testing D. Questioned document test
80. What kind of sketch is made by the sketcher or investigator at the crime scene?
A. Complicated C. Finished
B. Rough D. Smooth
81. Interrogation fitted for subjects who are willing to talk.
A. Narrative type C. Interrogation type
B. Question and answer type D. Stern type
82. The marks left on the road surface left by metal parts of the vehicle and may serve as a clue
in traffic investigation is referred to as:
A. Scuff marks C. Scratches and gouges
B. Skid marks D. Flat tire marks
83. A police activity directed towards the identification and apprehension of alleged criminals
and the accumulation, preservation, and presentation of evidence regarding their alleged crimes.
A. Police patrol C. Police intelligence
B. Fingerprinting D. Criminal investigation
84. Object usually utilized in marking hard objects.
A. Stylus C. Pen
B. Ink D. Chalk
85. A type of report which is done on the need basis. It may be done every hour, every six hours,
and every eight hours depending on the situation.
A. Patrol report C. Situation report
B. Progress report D. Formal report
86. It is the Philippine law which defines and penalizes the government’s Anti-Graft and Corrupt
Practices Act.
A. RA 3016 C. RA 3020
B. RA 3019 D. RA 3017
87. When the subject is in prone position what type of search should be implemented?
A. Kneeling search C. Floor search
B. Standing search D. Wall search
88. Necessary to determine the appearance of the crime scene as well as the objects, what
naturally occurred and what were the circumstances of the crime.
A. Crime scene C. Physical reconstruction
B. Mental reconstruction D. Reconstruction of the crime
89. Most common type of shadowing.
A. One-man shadow C. Two-man shadow
B. Three-man shadow D. Rough shadow
90. Systematic search for facts admissible in court to establish the truth of a criminal case is
done.
A. Crime scene C. Modus operandi
B. Sketch D Search warrant
91. What drug is known as the “assassins of the youth”?
A. Heroin C. Cocaine
B. Marijuana D. Shabu
92. What is generally considered to be the final step in the police investigation process?
A. Inquest of the suspect C. Conviction of the accused
B. Testifying in court D. Arrest of the suspect
93. Tool of criminal investigation.
A. Crime management C. Instrumentation
B. Criminal propaganda D. Modus operandi
94. The Philippine law that amended Republic Act 6425 known as the Dangerous Drugs Act of
1972.
A. RA 9160 C. RA 9208
B. RA 6975 D. RA 9165
95. Which of these statements is TRUE?
A. Radiation is heat transfer through combustion
B. Radiation is heat transfer through solid materials
C. Radiation is heat transfer through air motion
D. Radiation is heat transfer by electromagnetic waves
96. What is the best evidentiary specimen that ca be used in DNA analysis?
A. Semen C. Saliva
B. Urine D. Blood
97. ____ is a surprise invasion of a building or area and considered as a small-scale attack of a
limited territory.
A. Crisis C. Raid
B. Battle D. Search & Seizure
98. A police report should have an introduction, a body and a conclusion. When the investigator-
on-case makes recommendations for further action or a statement that the case requires no
further action, such recommendation or statement should be included where?
A. In the conclusion C. In the body
B. In the introduction D. In the synopsis
99. The right to proceed ahead of other vehicles.
A. Emergency C. Right of way
B. Hit and run D. Suicide truck
100. When an offense has been committed and the peace officer has probable cause to believe
based on personal knowledge of facts or circumstances that the person to be arrested has
committed it describes what kind of lawful warrantless arrest?
(a) The so-called “In-flagrante Delicto arrest C. Escapee arrest
(b) Hot pursuit arrest D. Bench warrant arrest
COLLEGE OF CRIMINOLOGY
MOCK BOARD FOR MODULE I/2012

(SOCIOLOGY OF CRIME AND ETHICS)
NAME: ____________________________________ SCORE: ___________
1. The word ethics was derived from what Greek word, which means character or customs?
A. Ethica C. Ethos
B. Ethyos D. Etiquetta
2. This Philippine law refers to the Special Protection of Children Against Child Abuse,
Exploitation and Discrimination Act of 1992.
A. RA 7610 C. RA 6809
B. RA 9262 D. RA 9344
3. Those sentenced prisoners to serve a term of six months and one day to three years should be
confined in the ____.
A Provincial jail C. Municipal jail
B. National penitentiary D. PNP cell
4. When the act is considered crime merely because the law makes it prohibited
A. Mala in se C. dura lex sed lex
B. mala prohibita D. malam calsum
5. The anti-gambling operation in every city and municipality is the primary responsibility of the
___.
A. PNP C. Task Force Gambling
B. AFP D. Local executives
6. The theory of criminal law which is based on human free will and the purpose of the penalty is
retribution. It referred to as the ____.
A. Classical theory C. Neo classical theory
B. Positivist theory D. Neo positivist theory
7. The Latin term “Actus Reus” means:
A. Guilty act C. Not guilty
B. Guilty mind D. Real act
8. The only pillar of the Philippine criminal justice system which is not an agency of the
government.
A. Court C. Community
B. Probation D. NGO
9. The following are the three principal divisions of criminology, except –
A. Criminal etiology C. Penology
B. Sociology of law D. Criminal sociology
10. According to ___, crime problem could be traced not to bad people but to bad laws.
A. Lombroso C. Becarria
B. Bentham D. Ferri
11. Except for one, all are components of the American justice system.
A. Police C. Prosecution
B. Court D. Correction
12. The study of the origin, nature, principles, processes and explanations to the existence of
crimes is referred to as _____.
A. Sociology C. Etiology of crime
B. Penology D. Criminalistics
13. What refers to anti-social act or behavior which deviates from the normal pattern of rules and
regulation, custom and culture which society does not accept and which therefore, justifies some
kind of admonishment, punishment or corrective measures in the public interest and it is being
committed by minors?
A. Child Delinquency C. Juvenile Delinquency
B. Minor Delinquency D. Youth Delinquency
14. Juvenile delinquency is not directly caused by poverty as claimed but by the conditions
created by poverty. To prevent delinquency, the best solution would be –
A. Eliminate the cause C. Abolish poverty
B. Arrest the offender D. Beef up the police force
15. The main cause of inefficiency in the PNP is ____.
A. Lack of equipment C. Lack of discipline
B. Lack of training D. lack of good commanders
16. In case of neurotic person, what is the best thing to be done?
A. Give him the impression that he is crazy
B. Need to understand him
C. Needs guidance and assistance
D. Bring him to mental hospital
17. In hostage taking incident, the positive effect of time is _____.
A. Creeping effect C. Increases basic human needs
B. Results to boredom D. Results to loss of objectivity
18. It is a personality dimension that affects human behavior and reflects an innate biological
predisposition to react physiologically to stressful or upsetting events.
A. Neurotism C. Psychotism
B. Extraversion D. Introversion
19. A formal act or set of formal acts established by custom or authority as proper to special
occasion.
A. Traditions C. Customs
B. Ceremony D. Decorum
20. In the selection of negotiator in a hostage-taking incident, the good quality to be considered
is ____.
A. Former lover C. Must be flexible
B. Enemy of the hostage-taker D. Knows the dialect of the hostage-taker
21. The first school of criminology established on the concept of free will.
A. American school of criminology C. Classical school
B. Mcnagten rule D. Positivist school
22. It is a principle that a person should not be deprived of life, liberty or property without
reasonable and lawful procedures.
A. Equal protection C. Right against self-degradation
B. Due process D. Bill of rights
23. A combination of personal and social factors with an utterly unique physical structure human
being creates –
A. Social pathology C. A causation of maladjustment
B. Crime situation D. Juvenile delinquency
24. This school of thought that emphasized on the scientific treatment of criminals, not on the
penalties to be imposed because it is believed that a man is subdued occasionally by a strange
and morbid phenomenon, which constrains him to do wrong in spite of or contrary to his own
volition.
A. Classical C. Neo Classical
B. Positive D. Psychoanalytical
25. The so-called “Happy Hours” where PNP members gather together at their Station or
Headquarter for a lighthearted jesting, or airing of minor grapes, are usually done on ______ or
any other day suitable for the occasion.
A. Monday C. Friday
B. Wednesday D. Saturday
26. This is the Rape Victim Assistance and Protection Act of 1998.
A. RA 8353 C. RA 8551
B. RA 9262 D. RA 9344
27. It is defined as an act committed or omitted in violation of a public law forbidding and
commanding it.
A. Felony C. Delinquency
B. Tort D. Vagrancy
28. Uncontrollable resistance to do something.
A. Schizophrenic C. Idiocy
B. Epileptic D. Compulsive neurosis
29. Argues that delinquency and crime patterns are learned and adopted.
A. Differential identification theory C. Imitation suggestion theory
B. Differential social disorganization D. Conflict of culture theory
30. Who originated a system of classifying criminals according to body measurements?
A. Alphonse Bertillion C. David Maurer
B. Edward Henry D. William Bonger
31. It refers to crimes, which occur with sufficient regularity, and is used as the basis in
determining the peace and order situation in a particular locality.
A. Simple crimes C. Complex crimes
B. Index crimes D. Non-index crimes
32. It is a practical science that treats the principle of human morality and duty as applied to law
enforcement.
A. Ethics C. Virtue
B. Code of ethics D. Police Ethics
33. The turning point in the development of an affair or a series of events is referred to as
______.
A. Emergency C. Contingency
B. Crisis D. Violence
34. A government official under the DOJ who represent the State against an offender in criminal
proceedings.
A. Public prosecutor C. Private prosecutor
B. Defense attorney D. Tanod-bayan
35. Refers to the study of behavior and mental processes.
A. Criminology C. Sociology
B. Psychology D. Psychiatry
36. The Philippine pillars of the criminal justice system that are absent, or not components of the
American criminal justice processes.
A. Prosecution and corrections C. Court and community
B. Prosecution and community D. Police and prosecution
37. The law that provides for stronger deterrence and special protection against child exploitation
and discrimination.
A. RA 7344 C. RA 7610
B. RA 6975 D. PD 603
38. The highest appellate court in the Philippine judiciary.
A. Court of Appeals C. Sandiganbayan
B. Regional Trial Courts D. Supreme Court
39. It is a crime committed by a respectable person belonging to the upper class of society in the
course of his occupational activities.
A. White collar crime C. Black collar crime
B. Blue collar crime D. Collarless crime
40. A science devoted to the study of mankind and its relation to its physical, mental and cultural
history.
A. Neurology C. Sociology
B. Anthropology D. Mental ecology
41. The criminal justice system process starts to move once a person suspected of committing
crime is ____.
A. Arrested C. Inquested
B. Arraigned D. Convicted
42. A person who cannot appreciate what is right from wrong, one has no adequate security
feeling, and emotionally immature –
A. Normal C. Abnormal
B. Mentally disturbed D. Imbecile
43. Lack of education is a factor in juvenile delinquency and is also caused by poverty which
creates other conditions that breed delinquency like poor housing, bad neighborhood, etc.
Education is a part of our _____.
A. Psychosocial environment C. Economic environment
B. Political environment D. Ecological environment
44. A special court created by PD 1606 which try and decide cases against government officials.
A. Sandiganbayan C. Tanodbayan
B. Bantay-bayan D. Sharia’ court
45. Regarded as the court of last resort.
A. Supreme court C. Court of appeals
B. Regional trial court D. kangaroo court
46. He introduced the concept of anomie and is regarded as the father of sociology.
A. John Grisham C. Emile Durkeim
B. Isaac Ray D. Edwin Sutherland
47. He is one who had no proper parents’ care or guardianship, or whose parents or guardians
have deserted him for a period of at least six continuous months.
A. Abandoned Child C. Abused Child
B. Dependent Child D. Neglected Child
48. This is a child who has no parental care or guardianship as provided under RA 9344.
A. Dependent C. Child at risk
B. Abandoned D. Child in conflict with the law
49. The oldest terrorist tactic which is normally planned and predictable. Oftentimes, the attacker
claims responsibility of doing it.
A. Assassination C. Bombing
B. Kidnapping D. Ambush
50. Italian scholar who applied the rationalist philosophy of the Enlightenment to the criminal
justice system.
A. Cesare Beccaria C. Jeremy Bentham
B. Walter Crofton D. Alexander Maconochie
51. The Domestic Adoption Act of 1998.
A. RA 8552 C. RA 8551
B. RA 8043 D. RA 9208
52. It is an informal and summary investigation conducted by a public prosecutor in criminal
cases involving persons arrested and detained without the benefit of a warrant of arrest.
A. Custodial investigation C. Preliminary investigation
B. Interrogation D. Inquest proceeding
53. It describes the behavior of hostages or kidnap victims who, overtime, become sympathetic
to their captors.
A. London’s syndrome C. Stockholm syndrome
B. Zellweger syndrome D. Down syndrome
54. Drug dependents, addicts or users are considered victims except those who peddle or sell
drugs. In case of their arrest, they have to be turned over to _____.
A. Rehabilitation centers C. Reformatory
B. Barangay center D. Half-way homes
55. Which of the following the prosecution belongs?
A. Executive C. Legislative
B. Judiciary D. Court
56. On the issue of mental condition of a person, he who alleges something must prove the same
by presentation of evidence in support of his allegation. In a criminal proceeding wherein the
defense of insanity is invoked, who must present proof?
A. The Prosecution C. The expert witness
B. The accused D. The court
57. It is the wise use of one’s judgment in making decisions. It is generally practiced in the
Philippine criminal justice system.
A. Common sense C. Option
B. Discretion D. Instinct
58. A psychologist who is famous for his differential association theory wherein criminal
behavior is learned through communications within intimate personal groups.
A. Richard B. Felson C. Edwin Sutherland
B. Franco C. Ferracuti D. Larry Q. Baron
59. Youth problems to include juvenile delinquency, welfare and rehabilitation are part of the
functions of ____.
A. Department of health
B. Department of Justice
C. Department of education, culture & Sports
D. Department of Social welfare and development
60. Which of the following is not a deviant behavior?
A. Vandalism C. Drunkenness
B. Child labor D. Exhibitionist
61. It is referred to as sexual gratification by watching clandestinely nude women.
A. Voyeurism C. Fethism
B. Bestiality D. Pedophilia
62. Study of the role of the victim in the commission of a crime.
A. Victimology C. Victimization
B. Criminal Epidiomology D. Criminal ecology
63. Those crimes committed only during a certain period of the year like violation of tax laws.
A. Seasonal crimes C. Episodal crimes
B. Instant crimes D. Situational crimes
64. It is a pro-active decentralized approach designed to reduce crime, disorder and by extension,
fear of crime and intensely involving the same officer in the same community on a long-term
basis so that the residents will develop trust to cooperate with police by providing information
and assistance to achieve its mission.
A. Community Policing C. Environmental Policing
B. Society Policing D. State Policing
65. . It refers to anything, which is contrary or against the rules of a particular prison or jail
facility like cash, jewelry, dangerous drugs and deadly weapons.
A. Greyhound C. Contraband
B. Prohibited Items D. Taboo Stuff
66. It is an accusation in writing charging a person for an offense, subscribed by the fiscal and
filed before the court.
A. Affidavit C. Complaint
B. Information D. Subpoena
67. The study of jail management and prison administration.
A. Penology C. Correction
B. Inmatetology D. Polygraphy
68. The following military and police ranks are given honor ceremony during arrival and
departure, EXCEPT:
A. Chief Inspector C. Chief Superintendent
B. Director General D. General
69. A child whose parents are not legally married or the child is born out of wedlock.
A. Legitimate child C. Illegitimate child
B. Abandoned child D. Neglected child
70. When in his presence, the person to be arrested has committed, is actually committing, or is
attempting to commit an offense is a scenario which can also be called as:
A. Hot Pursuit C. Fugitive from Justice
B. In Flagrante Delicto D. Prisoner’s Arrest
71. The immediate group of father, mother and children, living together is called _____.
A. Society C. Community
B. Nuclear family D. Extended family
72. The primary law governing the Philippine correctional system can be found in the ____.
A. Revised penal code C. Administrative code
B. Land Transportation and traffic code D. Family code
73. A goal of corrections that refers to the coming back of the offender to the mainstream of
society.
A. Reintegration C. Rehabilitation
B. Deterrence D. Punishment
74. The binding spirit that enhances teamwork and cooperation among PNP personnel, extending
to the people they serve, which manifest their deep commitment and concern to one another, is
known as:
A. Bonding C. Motivation
B. Discipline D. Camaraderie
75. It is the capacity to use wise and appropriate judgment on every incident at a given situation.
A. Decision C. Discretion
B. Option D. Wisdom
76. This is a child who has no parental care or guardianship as provided under RA 9344.
A. Child at risk B. Dependent
B. Abandoned D. Child in conflict with the law
77. Which among the following criminal justice model is based on the idea that the most
important functions of the pillar of the Criminal Justice System are the protection of the public
and the repression of criminal conduct?
A. Crime Control C. Crime Detection
B. Crime Prevention D. Crime Reduction
78. This theory of criminology explains that both conforming behavior and deviant behavior
have two reinforcing elements: an inner control system and an outer control system.
A. Containment theory C. Culture conflict theory
B. Differential association theory D. Social disorganization theory
79. . It is a sub-field of criminology, which deals with the study of criminal things, or those
articles left by the perpetrator in the crime scene (physical evidence), which have significance in
the solution of case. This is also known as Forensic Science.
A. Criminalistics C. Etiology of Crime
B. Penology D. Sociology of Law
80. The first step in a hostage-taking incident.
A. Crowd control C. Traffic control
B. Negotiation D. Assault
81. This is usually the easiest type of hostage taker to deal with and considered relatively rational
thinker after assessing the situation and weighing the odds, in most case, comes to terms with the
police, refrain from unnecessary violence or useless killing.
A. Prisoner C. Professional Criminal
B. Psychotic D. Terrorist
82. A normative science of the conduct of human being living in a society.
A. Ethics C. Norms
B. Behavior D. Virtue
83. Persons of mixed type physique tend to commit what particular crimes?
A. Deception and fraud C. Violence
B. Petty thievery D. Offenses against morality and decency
84. Field commander in a hostage situation may be at the same time the ____.
A. Negotiator C. Hostage
B. Head of assault team D. Decision maker
85. Law enforcement personnel should well remember that this country was founded on ___.
A. Rule of the fittest C. Majority rule
B. A rule of law D. A rule of man
86. A set of principles of conduct within an organization that guide decision-making and
behavior. Its purpose is to provide members with guidelines for making ethical choices in the
conduct of their work.
A. Code of ethics C. Ethical standards
B. Code of conduct D. Code of behavior
87. The so-called “Happy Hours” where PNP members gather together at their Station or
Headquarter for a lighthearted jesting, or airing of minor grapes, are usually done on ______ or
any other day suitable for the occasion.
A. Monday C. Friday
B. Wednesday D. Saturday
88. Sum total of dealings of the police with the people it serves and whose goodwill and
cooperation it craves for the greatest possible efficiency on public service.
A. Public relations C. Police community relations
B. Crime prevention D. Order maintenance
89. Children in situation of armed conflicts are declared as ____.
A. War zone C. Zone of peace
B. Armed conflict zones D. Belligerent
90. ____ is the manifest lack of adequate ability and fitness for the satisfactory performance of
police duties. This has reference to any physical and intellectual quality, the lack of which
substantially incapacitates one to perform the duties of a peace officer.
A. Oppression C. Incompetency
B. Dishonesty D. Poor performance
91. Which is not a function of the prosecutor?
A. To conduct preliminary investigation C. To file information
B. To find probable cause D. To hear, try and decide cases
92. Under this ethical standard, all PNP members shall follow logical procedures in
accomplishing their duties to minimize waste of time, money and efforts.
A. Perseverance C. Humility
B. Justice D. Orderliness
93. PNP members should always bear in mind that they are public servants and not masters of
the people; they must perform their duties without arrogance.
A. Orderliness C. Integrity
B. Humility D. Perseverance
94. The activities from arrest to reentry of the offender to the community referred to ____.
A. Criminal justice system process C. Criminal justice
B. Criminal justice system D. System-Process
95. Under this law, a child enjoys the presumption of minority.
A. RA 6809 C. RA 7610
B. RA 9344 D. PD 603
96. Over nine years of age but under 18 years of age at the time of the commission of crime.
A. Youthful offender C. Socialized delinquent
B. Truant D. Criminal
97. Refers to the belief that criminal offenders should receive treatment to change the aspect that
led the individual to commit crime.
A. Reintegration C. Rehabilitation
B. Deterrence D. Punishment
98. Who heads the Lupon Tagapamayapa as prescribed in RA 7160?
A. Barangay Chairman C. City Mayor
B. Barangay Tanod Chief D. Provincial Governor
99. The founder of the positivist School of Thought that advocated the theory that crime can be
attributed to a hereditary predisposition in certain individuals.
A. Cesare Beccaria C. Cesare Lombroso
B. George Wilker D. Ordway Hilton
100. This is determined by genes which contain traits to be passed on from parents to offsring.
A. Adaptation C. Conditioning
B. Heredity D. Learning
.

(LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION)
NAME: ____________________________________ SCORE: ___________
1. The revoked deputation of the mayor as representative of NAPOLCOM may only be restored
upon approval of the ____.
A. Congress C. President
B. Chief, PNP D. NAPOLCOM
2. An intelligence file which is a consolidation of all list of persons with warrant of arrest issued
by competent authorities.
A. Journal file C. Order of battle
B. Wanted list file D. Patrol vehicle
3. It is a process by which employees are aided by their employer to become more proficient at
their jobs through the development of proper attitudes, required skills, and necessary knowledge.
A. Training C. Rehearsing
B. Exercise D. Dry-run
4. A plan with a time horizon of 5 to 1o years is called ____.
A. Annual plan C. Strategic plan
B. Mid-term plan D. Longest plan
5. In the process of surveillance, sometimes the subject or suspect is being guarded against the
shadower and he usually stays at the rear of the former.
A. Convoy C. Back-up
B. Surveillant D. Decoy
6. This patrol method which utilizes disguise, deception and lying in wait rather than upon high
visibility patrol techniques.
A. High visibility patrol C. Low visibility patrol
B. Decoy patrol D. Directed patrol
7. The National Police Commission is attached to the Department of the Interior and Local
Government for ____.
A. Administrative control C. Operational supervision
B. Administration and control D. Policy and program coordination
8. ____ is the critical, on site examination and analysis to ascertain the security status, identify
deficiencies or excesses, determine protection needed and make recommendation.
A. Security training C. Security check
B. Security survey D. Security education
9. Which is not considered amongst the types of perimeter barriers?
A. Solid wall C. Full view fencing
B. Moats or bodies of water D. Vacuum of space
10. He is a person who provides information to the investigator on a regular basis. He is either
paid regularly or in a case-to-case basis.
A. Informer C. Informant
B. Infiltrator D. Saboteur
11. The government agency tasked by law to administer and control the Philippine National
Police.
A. DILG C. NAPOLCOM
B. Civil Service Commission D. Local government units
12. Police Omni-presence implies that –
A. The police and the community work together in policing the community
B. There are no police officers in the community
C. The presence of the police is felt everywhere and anytime of the day and night
D. The barangay tanods take charge of policing
13. It is a promotion which may be extended to any uniformed personnel of the PNP for act of
conspicuous courage and gallantry at the risk of his life above and beyond the call of duty.
A. Regular promotion C. Special promotion
B. Promotion by virtue of position D. Combat promotion
14. ____ is the typical patrol strategy that involves officers responding to citizens’ call.
A. Proactive patrol C. Reactive patrol
B. Routine patrol D. Selective patrol
15. What is the method of collecting information wherein the investigator tails or shadows the
persons or vehicles?
A. Research C. Surveillance
B. Casing D. Photography
16. The English police system founded by Henry Fieldings composed of amateur volunteers.
A. Bow street runners C. Tithings
B. Parish constable system D. Field marshalls
17. Refers to the proper arrangement and utilization of police resources.
A. Police accountability C. Police organization
B. Police administration D. Police management
18. In busy and thickly populated commercial streets like those in Divisoria, police patrol is very
necessary. Since there are several types of patrol, which of the following will you recommend?
A. Horse patrol C. Foot patrol
B. Mobile patrol D. Helicopter patrol
19. What is the Republic Act passed by congress defining the regulation and proper licensing of
private security businesses?
A. RA 6425 C. RA 5437
B. RA 5487 D. RA 5874
20. What is referred to as the knowledge pertaining to capabilities, vulnerabilities and probable
course of actions of foreign nations?
A. Combat intelligence C. National intelligence
B. Strategic intelligence D. Police intelligence
21. He is the person responsible in the creation of records, usually the executives.
A. Records personnel C. Processor or user
B. Originator D. Sender
22. Highly technical and qualified police applicants such as engineers, nurses, doctors and
graduates of forensic sciences can enter the PNP as commissioned officers through ____.
A. Regular promotion C. Lateral entry
B. Commissionship D. Special Connection
23. Which is not amongst the basic elements of security system?
A. Human guards C. Physical barriers
B. Devices and equipment D. Patrol vehicle
24. Promotion of rank in the Philippine National Police is primarily based on _____.
A. Accomplishment C. Merit and fitness
B. Palakasan system D. Qualification
25. SPO4 Candido Gomez will reach his 56th birthday on October 13, 2012. What administrative
action should be taken by the PNP regarding his status?
A. Dismiss him from the service C. Retire him compulsorily
B. Retire him optionally D. Promote him to the next higher rank
26. Management function that involves motivating subordinates, influencing individuals and
teams as they work, selecting the most effective communication channels, or dealing in any way
with employee behaviour issued.
A. Leading C. Controlling
B. Planning D. Organizing
27. The father of organized military espionage was:
A. Akbar C. Genghis Khan
B. Alexander the great D. Frederick the great
28. It shall refer to an act or omission not involving moral turpitude but affecting the internal
discipline of the PNP.
A. Grave offense C. Serious offense
B. Minor offense D. Capital offense
29. Natural hazards such as storms, earthquakes, floods or lahar cannot be prevented from
occurring. To minimize the disastrous effects of these phenomena, the security officer must
prepare a:
A. Security education plan C. Guard deployment plan
B. Disaster or emergency plan D. Civil defense plan
30. The early English police system which adopted the so-called “Tithings”.
A. Frankpledge system C. Metropolitan Constabulary of London
B. Parish constable system D. Bow street runners
31. Regarded as the Patriarch of Police professionalism.
A. August Vollmer C. J. Edgar Hoover
B. O.W. Wilson D. Richard Sylvester
32. What police plans refer to actions taken at a designated location and under specific
circumstances?
A. Management plans C. Operating plans
B. Tactical plans D. Procedural plans
33. One of the significance of records is that it is an element of _______.
A. Simplicity C. Dependability
B. Dynasty D. Measuring performance
34. It is the reconnaissance or surveillance of a building, place or area to determine its suitability
for intelligence use or its vulnerability in an intelligence operation.
A. Coverage C. Counterstrike
B. Casing D. Counterattack
35. Police Senior Inspector Roy Torres was administratively charged before the PLEB for
conduct unbecoming a police officer and was subsequently dismissed from the service. He
intended to appeal his case on the ground that the penalty imposed was exorbitant. Where could
he file his appeal?
A. To the Office of the Chief, PNP C. To the NAPOLCOM National Appellate Board
B. To the PLEB D. To the NAPOLCOM Regional Appellate Board
36. What is the system of natural or man-made barriers placed between the potential intruder and
the object/person/matter being protected?
A. Communication security C. Physical security
B. Personnel security D. Document security
37. How is the crew complement of a mobile patrol division organized into shifts for each tour of
duty?
A. Daily four shift assignment C. Daily five shift assignment
B. One shift daily D. Daily three shift assignment
38. A person’s suitability to be given a security clearance is determined through a process called
____.
A. Security training C. Security education
B. Security promotion D. Security investigation
39. The head of the NCRPO district offices with position title of District Director shall have the
rank of __.
A. Director C. District superintendent
B. Chief superintendent D. Senior superintendent
40. Police officers must develop the ____ of recording the facts as they are learned and as the
evidence is obtained.
A. Obligation C. Perspective
B. Habit D. Duty
41. This is a patrol program designed to ensure law-abiding citizens feeling of security but the
reaction of fear for one would be violators.
A. Double officer patrol C. Single officer patrol
B. Low visibility patrol D. High visibility patrol
42. The organizational principle which dictates that every police officer should report to one and
only one superior refers to ____.
A. Command responsibility C. Span of control
B. Unity of command D. Coordination
43. Which of the following referred to as the end product resulting from the collection, collation,
evaluation, analysis, integration, and the interpretation of all available information.
A. Raw data C. Intelligence
B. Information D. Hearsay
44. When a group of people interact to achieve stated purposes, this is most nearly ____.
A. Management C. Control
B. Delegation D. Organization
45. He exercises the power to revoke for cause, licenses issued to security guards.
A. Chief, PNP C. USEC for Peace & Order
B. Secretary, DILG D. Chairman, NAPOLCOM
46. What is the required age for the grant of waiver of age requirement for initial appointment to
the police service?
A. Not below 25 nor over 35 years of age
B. Not below 20 nor over 35 years of age
C. Less than 25 but not more than 32 years of age
D. More than 22 but less than 32 years of age
47. Which of the following is the most common reason why an informer gives information to the
police?
A. Wants to be known to the police C. Monetary reward
B. As a good citizen D. Revenge
48. The unit of PNP that handles the processing and issuances of license for private security
personnel?
A. PNP SUSIA C. PNP FED
B. PADPAO D. PNP SAGSD
49. The number of persons one individual can effectively supervise best describes the
organizational principle of ____.
A. supervision C. Unity of command
B. Span of control D. Leadership
50. These records in personnel management are designed to aid in assignments, promotions and
disciplinary actions.
A. Case records C. Identification records
B. Miscellaneous records D. Administrative records
51. Managing public or government affairs refers to ____.
A. Administration C. Supervision
B. Management D. leadership
52. Limit or number of personnel that can be supervised by a superior best described the
organization’s Principle of ____.
A. Span of control C. Unity of command
B. Chain of command D. Delegation of authority
53. PO3 Peter Factor is assigned to collect available information concerning the activities of the
Red Scorpion Group (RSG). He is with what unit of the police?
A. Anti- juvenile delinquency C. Criminal investigation
B. Intelligence D. Patrol
54. It is the protection of high-ranking officials from harm, kidnapping and similar acts.
A. Asset protection C. Physical security
B. Document security D. VIP security
55. It is a police function which serves as the backbone of the police service. In all types of
police stations, there is a specific unit assigned to undertake this function in view of its
importance.
A. Vice control C. Traffic Enforcement
B. Criminal investigation D. Patrol
56. A thorough and complete investigation of all or some of the circumstances or aspects of a
person’s life is conducted.
A. Local agency check C. Background investigation
B. National agency check D. Personnel security investigation
57. The PNP has a program which ensures the deployment of policemen in busy and crime prone
area. This is called:
A. Patrol deployment program B. Roving patrol program
B. Patrol and visibility program D. Police visibility program
58. How are coded message converted to intelligible language?
A. Encoding C. Processing
B. Labeling D. Decoding
59. Plans can be changed to meet future requirements which were not considered during the
planning stages. This indicates ____ in planning.
A. Responsiveness C. Efficiency
B. Flexibility D. Effectiveness
60. Information and materials the unauthorized disclosure of which would cause exceptionally
grave damage to the nation, politically, economically or from a security aspect. Its classification
is ____.
A. Top secret C. Secret
B. Confidential D. Restricted
61. The PNP National Support Unit which supervises the licensing and registration of firearms
and explosives.
A. Civil security group C. Criminal investigation and detection group
B. Crime laboratory D. Special action force
62. In counter intelligence, surveillance is categorized according to intensity and sensitivity.
When there is intermittent observation, varying in occasions, then this surveillance is called:
A. Loose C. Discreet
B. Open D. Close
63. Which is not a part of a building’s interior defenses?
A. Perimeter guardhouse C. CCTV system
B. ID and pass control D. Restricted or controlled areas
64. It serves as the police department’s foundation of record, accomplished by the desk officer,
or clerk, or telephone operator receiving a call for police assistance.
A. Investigation report C. Case report
B. Complaint/assignment sheet D. Daily record of events
65. He coined the most familiar acronym “POSDCORB” which explains the functions of
management.
A. Luther Gulick C. Joan Urwich
B. Frederick Taylor D. Douglas McGregor
66. Has the power to choose the Provincial Director from a list of three eligibles recommended
by the PNP Regional Director.
A. Congressman C. Governor
B. Chief, PNP D. President
67. The founder of professional policing.
A. Robert Peel C. O.W. Wilson
B. J. Edgar Hoover D. Henry Fieldings
68. The head of the PNP Internal Affairs Service is the ____.
A. Director-General C. Inspector General
B. Internal General D. Director
69. If the highest imposable penalty for administrative offense in the PNP is dismissal from the
service, what is the next lower highest penalty?
A. Suspension C. Forced resignation
B. Demotion in rank D. Admonition
70. The right vested upon a superior officer to give order and the power to exact obedience from
subordinate officers.
A. Command C. Authority
B. Supremacy D. Police power
71. Who among the following female applicants is qualified to the PNP recruitment program in
terms of height requirement?
A. Rosa Santos who is 5’2 C. Josie Cruz who is 5’4
B. Fe Reyes who is 5’3 D. All of them
72. Can a security guard make an arrest without a warrant?
A. Yes, if he has duty detail order
B. No, if he doesn’t have a valid warrant
C. Yes, if under the citizen’s arrest doctrine
D. No, only peace officer can enforce a warrant
73. The first step in the planning process is to _____.,
A. Determine the objectives of the plan C. Decide what resources are required
B. Establish the need for the plan D. Implement a control mechanism
74. The Commission that attests the appointment of PNP personnel from the rank of Police
Officer 1 to Police Superintendent is the _____.
A. Commission on Appointment C. Commission on Audit
B. Civil Service Commission D. National Police Commission
75. The following are qualified for appointment to the rank of Police Senior Inspector via lateral
entry, EXCEPT:
A. Doctor of Medicine C. Chaplain
B. Doctor of Dental Medicine D. Lawyer
76. Those who are charged with the actual fulfilment of the agency’s mission are _____
personnel.
A. Staff C. Supervision
B. Management D. Line
77. A police station should have a ____ plan which includes every step that has been outlined
and officially adopted as the standard method of action to be followed by members of the police
organization.
A. Tactical plan C. Procedural plan
B. Management plan D. Operational plan
78. The management of keys in plant or business organization to prevent unauthorized individual
access to the keys.
A. Master key C. Combination lock
B. Management key D. Key control
79. Crime solution efficiency of a particular police office based its performance from ____.
A. Police patrol C. Police follow-up
B. Police investigation D. Police traffic management
80. As an external disciplinary authority in the PNP the peoples Law Enforcement Boards are
empowered to investigate and decide citizen’s complaints against PNP members. These boards
are created by ____.
A. National Police Commission C. City/municipal mayors
B. Sangguniang Panglungsod/bayan D. PNP
81. In 1836, through a Royal decree from Spain, a police system known as rural police was
introduced in the Philippines. It referred to ____.
A. Guardrilleros C. Carabineros de seguridad publica
B. Guardia civil D. Local police
82. A personnel of the police department who has taken oath of office and possess the power to
arrest is called ____.
A. Arresting officer C. Sworn officer
B. Commanding officer D. Superior officer
83. A PCP commander in the NCRPO is a/an ____.
A. Uncompensated personnel of the PNP
B. Head of the PNP organization
C. Coordinator of work activities to accomplish police missions
D. Non-uniformed personnel of the PNP
84. What type of organizational structure in which quick decisions are made because of direct
line authority and discipline can be easily administered.
A. Line organization C. Functional organization
B. Line and staff organization D. Staff organization
85. What is the method of separation from the police service after completing the required age
for length of service?
A. Retirement C. Attrition
B. Dismissal D. Demotion
86. A private security guard who is escorting a big amount of money or cash outside his area of
jurisdiction shall be issued with a ____.
A. Memorandum order C. Duty detail order
B. Security license D. Mission order
87. Which of the following is not human or man-made hazard in industrial firm?
A. Pilferage C. Lightning storm
B. Sabotage D. Arson
88. Measures undertaken to deny the enemy of any information consisting of active and passive
intelligence measures.
A. Combat intelligence C. Strategic intelligence
B. Counter-intelligence D. Line intelligence
89. In accordance with Sec. 36, RA 6975, all personnel of the Philippine National Police are
considered employees of the ____.
A. Local government C. National government
B. NAPOLCOM D. DILG
90. ____ is viewed by many as a critical element in community-oriented policing because it
brings officer into closer contact with the public.
A. Automobile patrol C. Watercraft patrol
B. Foot patrol D. Canine patrol
91. When one procures information about subject surety, he is performing ____ collection
method.
A. Routine C. Active
B. Covert D. Overt
92. The amount and nature of the demands of the police service are not the same on all of the
three shifts. It is therefore necessary to make available maximum manpower at the time the
police service is of greatest demand. This is organization by:
A. Clientele C. Time
B. Purpose D. Process
93. It is a summary or compilation of facts and details regarding a certain applicant to the PNP
wherein general information concerning a person and his identity may be found.
A. Resume C. Bio-data
B. Personal data sheet D. 201 file
94. It is a function of management which makes the supervisors and superior officers within the
chain of command to make decisions in advance.
A. Organizing C. Planning
B. Directing D. Staffing
95. The highest non-star rank in the Philippine National Police.
A. Chief Superintendent C. Senior superintendent
B. Senior Police officer 4 D. Superintendent
96. Line units such as the patrol section or investigation section in police stations prepare their
work programs which are called:
A. Budget C. Management plan
B. Operational plan D. Tactical plan
97. Obligation to a superior officer as to task or duty given refers to ____.
A. Responsibility C. Authority
B. Accountability D. Capability
98. It is the knowledge, which the investigator gathered, and acquired from another person
through observation, personal study, research, experience etc.
A. Fact C. Information
B. Intelligence D. Lead
99. The ex-officio chairman of the National Police Commission is the ____.
A. Chief, PNP C. NAPOLCOM Executive Officer
B. DILG Secretary D. Vice Chairman
100. The association of Chiefs of Police in Asia that periodically meets to primarily address the
problems on regional security and in combating transnational crimes.
A. INTERPOL C. EUROPOL
B. ASEANAPOL D. NAPOLCOM

MOCKBOARD 2012 W Answer

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OUR LADY OF FATIMA UNIVERSITY

COLLEGE OF CRIMINAL JUSTICE

MOCK BOARD FOR MODULE 5/2012

NAME: __________________________ SCORE: _

MOCK BOARD FOR MODULE 6/2012

NAME: __________________________ SCORE:

A. Attempted Arson C. Overt Acts

MOCK BOARD FOR MODULE 4/2012

MOCK BOARD FOR MODULE 3/2012

NAME: __________________________ SCORE: _

MOCK BOARD FOR MODULE I/2012

NAME: __________________________ SCORE: _

MOCK BOARD FOR MODULE 2/2012

NAME: __________________________ SCORE: _

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