CHC - 309 / CHC - 310 Instrumentation Process Control Question Bank

CHC - 309 / CHC - 310 Instrumentation and Process Control
Question Bank
1. A thermometer having first order dynamics is placed in a temperature bath of 45 oC.
After the thermometer, reaches the equilibrium with the bath. The bath temperature is
subjected to sinusoidal forcing function about its average temperature of 45 oC with
amplitude of 15oC. If period of oscillation is 30 sec/cycle and time constant of
thermometer is 10 seconds. Determine amplitude ratio.
A) 0.11 B) 0.43 C) 0.22 D) 0.55
2. A thermometer having first order dynamics is placed in a temperature bath of 45 oC.

After the thermometer, reaches the equilibrium with the bath. The bath temperature is
subjected to sinusoidal forcing function about its average temperature of 45 oC with
amplitude of 15oC. If period of oscillation is 30 sec/cycle and time constant of
thermometer is 10 seconds. Determine phase lag.
A) -60.20 B) -61.30 C) 64.40 D) -64.50
3. Which of the following is not wrong for first order system?

A) A slope of response curve is 0.632 at the beginning of the process.
B) The steeper is the initial response of first order system for smaller value of time
constant.
C) The response would be complete after two time constants.
D) The initial rates of change of y (t) were to be maintaining the response would
reach its ultimate value in one time constant.
4. Which of the following about sinusoidal function is true?

A) The output of sine function for the first order system with frequency 𝜔 equal to
the input sine function given to first order system.
B) The output of sine function for the first order system with frequency 𝜔 less than
C) The output of sine function for the first order system with frequency 𝜔 greater
than input sine function given to first order system.
D) The output of sine function for the first order system with frequency 𝜔 may equal
or less than input sine functions given to first order system.
5. Which of the following is false statement?

A) Time constant is a multiplication of resistance and capacitance
B) Amplitude ratio is always less than one
C) Presence of constant in in overall transfer function has no effect on overall phase
angle
𝐶0 (𝑠) 1
D) Transfer function = = , where co and ci are the inlet and outlet
𝐶𝑖 (𝑠) (1+𝜏𝑠)
concentrations
𝐻2 (𝑠)
6. Which of the option given below represent correct transfer function for liquid
𝑄 (𝑠)
level system as shown in figure? The resistance are linear and R 1= R2 = 1. Note two
streams are flowing from tank 1, one of which is flowing to the tank 2.
0.667
A)
(1.33 𝑠 +1)(𝑠+1)
0.667
B)
(0.75 𝑠 +1)(𝑠+1)
1
C)
(1.33 𝑠 +1)(𝑠+1)
1
D)
(0.75 𝑠 +1)(𝑠+1)
7. Which of the following is false statement?

A) With proportional controller only the control system is able to restrict the rise of
controlled variable and bring it to rest at new steady state value.
B) In PI controller additional integral action gives rise to addition of offset and hence
PI controller response is oscillatory in nature.
C) PD controller has almost same offset as that of proportional controller.
D) In PID controller the additional action of derivative gives rise to fewer
oscillations.
8. If the process gain is positive and control action is direct then type of control valve to
close is also called as,
A) Fail open B) fail close C) Fail ON D) Fail OFF
9. Which of the following is not an application of controllers?

A) Proportional controller can be used effectively for the control of liquid level
system.
B) PI controller can be used for both control of vapour pressure and flow control.
C) PD controller used for system in which more oscillatory response is desirable.
D) PID controller is used for control of temperature.
10. In case of inherent characteristics of valve, linear valve have,

A) Sensitivity is negligible.
B) Sensitivity is increases with increase in flow.
C) Sensitivity is decreases with decreases in flow.
D) Sensitivity is constant.
11. A step change of magnitude 4 is introduced into the PI controller. If the value of K c is
6 and reset rate is 0.5 What is a response equation of controller?
A) P (t) = 11 [1 + t] B) P (t) = 12 [2 + t]
C) P (t) = 13 [2 + t] D) P (t) = 11 [2 + t]
12. In PID controller, the error is increased linearly at the rate of 5 0C/Minute. The value
of Kc is 5, the reset rate is 1 and 𝜏𝐷 is 0.5. Obtain the integral time.
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
of Kc is 5, the reset rate is 1 and 𝜏𝐷 is 0.5. Obtain the response of controller at t = 0
minute.
A) 12.5 B) 12.6 C) 12.7 D) 12.8
of Kc is 5, the reset rate is 1 and 𝜏𝐷 is 0.5. Obtain the response of controller at t = 1
minute
A) 49 B) 50 C) 51 D) 52
15. A unit step change in error is introduced into PID controller. If K c = 10, 𝜏1 = 1, 𝜏𝐷 = 0.5.
What is the response equation of controller?
A) P (t) = 11 [1 + t] B) P (t) = 10 [1 + t]
B) P (t) = 9 [2 + t] D) P (t) = 8 [2 + t]
16. A pneumatic controller has an output pressure of 10 bar when the set point and pen point are
together. The set point and pen point are suddenly displaced by 0.5 cm. Given, slope of curve
is 0.05. Determine integral time (𝜏1 )
A) 20 seconds B) 30 seconds C) 40 seconds D) 50 seconds
17. Which statement related to pneumatic control system is false?

A) The knob calibration for the various controllers parameter like gain, integral time and
derivative time are essential
B) Maintenance cost is less than electronic controller
C) Easy to repair than electronic controller
D) It is not suitable for hazardous chemical industries.
18. The potentiometer is a transducer in control system which converts,

A) Mechanical position into electric signal
B) Potential difference between two poles of battery into electric signal
C) Pressure difference into electric signal
D) Pressure into electrical signal
19. Which of following process is called transduction process?

A) The variable capacitance differential pressure transducer is used to detect and transmit
pressure difference of control system.
B) The strain gauges are used for conversion of pressure signal to electrical signal. In strain
gauge the electric resistance is depends on mechanical strength
C) In case of thermocouple the e.m.f. (electromotive force) generated because of bimetallic
junction is measured in terms of voltage and calibrated against temperature
D) Transducing of concentration signal to pen reading.
20. Block diagram of a simple standard control system is shown below in the figure. Which of
the following statement about the above control system is wrong?
A) The transfer functions of the measuring element and the process is represented by H and
G2 respectively
B) The overall transfer function for the change in load (X = 0) is given by
C) The overall transfer function for the change in set point (X1 = 0) is given by
D) Manipulated variable is represented by C.
21. Water is flowing through a series of four tanks and getting heated as shown in figure. It is
desired to design a cascade control scheme for controlling the temperature of water leaving
the tank 4 as there is a disturbance in the temperature of a second stream entering the tank 2.
Select the best place to take the secondary measurement for the second loop.
A) Tank 1
B) Tank 2
C) Tank 3
D) Tank 4
22. Temperature control of an exothermic chemical reaction taking place in a CSTR is

done with the help of cooling water flowing in a jacket around the reactor. The types
of valve and controller action to be recommended are
A) Air to open valve with the controller direct acting.
B) Air to close valve with the controller indirect acting.
C) Air to open valve with the controller indirect acting.
D) Air to close valve with the controller direct acting.
23. What is the Laplace transform of impulse input having magnitude 'X' ?
A) X B) X2 C) 1/X D) 1
24. When the damping co-efficient (ξ) is unity, the system is

A) Overdamped B) Critically damped
C) Underdamped D) Highly Fluctuating
25. Which is the symbol for "pneumatic control valve" ?

A) B) C) D)
26. A non-linear system will have __________ steady state values.

A) 1 B) more than one C) 2 D) 3
27. The Laplace transform of exp(at), where a > 0, is defined only for the Laplace
parameter, s > a since
A) The function is exponential.
B) The Laplace transform of integral of exp(at) has finite values only for s > a.
C) The Laplace transform integral of exp(at) has initial values only for s > a.
D) The function exp(at) is piece-wise continuous only for s > a.
28. __________ controller has the maximum stabilising time.

A) P B) PD C) PI D) PID
29. Which of the following is not a differential pressure flow meter?

A) Rotameter B) Flow nozzle C) Orificemeter D) Venturimeter
30. _____ is the static characteristics of an instrument.

A) Response B) Time lag C) Drift D) Dynamic error
31. Which of the following is the dynamic characteristics of an instrument?

A) Reproducibility B) Sensitivity C) Dead zone D) Fidelity
32. For measuring the temperature of red-hot furnace which is the most suitable
instrument?
A) Platinum resistance thermometer C) Optical pyrometer
B) Thermocouple D) Bimetallic thermometer
33. Which of the following shows maximum dip effect?
A) Mercury thermometer B) Radiation pyrometer
C) Bimetallic Thermometer D) Thermocouple
34. Pick out the most suitable instrument for measuring temperature in the range of -40 to
4250C.
A) Mercury thermometer B) Radiation pyrometer
C) Bimetallic Thermometer D) None of these
35. Thermocouple is suitable for measuring

A) Liquid temperatures only B) very high temperatures only
C) very low temperatures only D) both high and low temperatures
36. Thermal wells are used in the temperature measurement to

A) Guard against corrosive and oxidising action on thermocouples materials
B) Reduce measuring lag
C) Increase the fidelity
D) Increase the sensitivity
37. A barometer measures the _______ pressure.

A) Absolute B) gauge C) absolute as well as gauge D) dynamic
38. E.m.f. generated by thermocouples is of the order of

A) Millivolts B) microvolts C) volts D) kilovolts
39. Which thermocouple can be used to measure a temperature of around 1400 0C

A) Copper-constantan B) Aluminium-chromel
C) Platinum-platinum/rhodium D) None
40. Maximum differential pressure in liquid manometer is ____ psi

A) 20 B) 30 C) 40 D) 50
41. Bellows are made of

A) Leather B) Paper C) Plastic D) Thin copper sheet
42. Thermistor is
A) Semiconductor whose resistance decreases with temperature rise
B) Metal whose resistance increases linearly with temperature rise
C) Metal whose resistance does not vary with temperature
D) Device for measuring nuclear radiation
43. Bourdon gauge measures _____ pressure

A) < atmospheric B) > 2 Kg/cm2 (gauge)
C) < 2 Kg/cm2 (gauge) D) > 10 Kg/cm2
44. Radiation Pyrometer
A) Have very slow speed of response
B) Need not “see” the temperature source; it is measuring
C) Can’t measure temperature of objects without making physical contact
D) None of these
45. The basic principle involved in the measurement of temperature by thermocouple is

the ____ effect.
A) Raman B) Seebeck C) Peltier and Seebeck D) Thomson and Peltier
46. Instrumentation in a plant offers the advantages of

A) Greater safety of operation B) Better quality of product
C) Greater operation economy D) All of these
47. Dilute wine was used as a thermometric liquid initially to develop temperature scale.
First empirical temperature scale developed was the _ scale.
A) Kelvin B) Centigrade C) Fahrenheit D) Reaumer
48. The temperature of tempering oil baths maintained at 400°C during heat treatment of
steel is measured by a/an thermocouple.
A) Chomel-alumel B) iron-constantan
C) Platinum-platinum/rhodium None of these
49. Which of the following temperature measuring instruments need not touch the object
whose temperature is being measured?
A) Radiation/infrared pyrometer B) Filled system thermometer
C) Mercury in glass thermometer D) Thermo electric pyrometer
50. Thermal conductivity measurement comprises the working principle of a

A) CO2 analyser B) Polarimeter C) Spectrometer D)Chromatograph
51. Response of a system to a sinusoidal input is called ______ response.

A) Impulse B) unit step C) Frequency D) None of these
52. Strain gage pressure transducers are used to measure pressures.

A) gage as well as vacuum B) absolute as well as differential
C) Both A and B D) neither A nor B
53. Continuous shell temperature measurement in a liquid-liquid heat exchanger is done

by a
A) Thermocouple B) Resistance thermometer
C) mercury in glass thermometer D) vapor pressure thermometer
54. The difference between the variable and its steady state value is known as
A) Error B) Manipulated variable C) Load variable D) Deviation variable
55. Which of the following factors does not influence the measurement accuracy?
A) Static & dynamic error B) Reproducibility
B) Dead zone D) None of these
56. Pick out the first order system from among the following
A) Damped vibrator
B) Mercury in glass thermometer kept in boiling water
C) Interacting system of two tanks in series
D) Non-interacting system of two tanks in series.
57. If the response of a control system is to be free of offset and oscillation, the most
suitable controller is
A) Proportional controller B) Proportional-derivative controller
C) Proportional-integral controller D) proportional-derivative-integral controller
58. In second order underdamped system

A) Decay ratio = overshoot B) Decay ratio = (overshoot)2
C) Overshoot increases for increasing damping coefficient
D) Large damping coefficient means smaller damping
59. Time constant is

A) Time taken by the controlled variable to reach 63.2% of its full change
B) Same as transportation lag
C) Same as dead time
D) Time required by the measured variable to reach 63.2% of its ultimate change
60. Which of the following controllers has maximum offset?

A) P-controller B) PI controller C) PD controller D) PID controller
61. The level of liquid under pressure can be determined using

A) Bubbler system B) differential pressure manometer
C) diaphragm box system D) air-trap system
62. The transfer function of PD controller is

A) Kc (1 + τd s) B) Kc (1 + 1/τd s) C) Kc τd s D) Kc / τd s
63. Measurement of sub-zero Celsius temperature in industry is done most commonly by

A) Thermocouples B) Resistance thermometers
C) Gas thermometers D) bimetallic thermometers
64. Final control element is a

A) Valve B) switch C) signal D) none of these
65. For two non-interacting first order systems connected in series, the overall transfer
function is the ___ of the individual transfer functions.
A) Product B) ratio C) sum D) difference
66. The frequency at which maximum amplitude ratio is attained is called the ______
frequency.
A) Corner B) resonant C) cross over D) natural
67. Bode diagram is a plot of

A) Log (AR) vs log (f) and φ vs log (f) B) log (AR) vs f and log φ vs f
C) AR vs log (f) and φ vs log (f) D) None of these
68. Gain margin is equal to

A) Amplitude ratio B) reciprocal of amplitude ratio
C) gain in P controller D) gain in PI controller
69. Bode diagram are generated from output response of the system subjected to which of
the following input?
A) Impulse B) Step C) Ramp D) Sinusoidal
70. The response of two tanks of same size and resistance in series is
A) Underdamped B) Critically damped C) Overdamped D) None of these
71. If OLTF of control system G(S) H(S) = K / S (S+3)(S+6) then for construction of root
locus diagram ,the Kmar for examine stability will be
A) 142 B) 152 C) 162 D) 172
72. For G(S) H(S) = K / S (S+3)(S+6) then the points of intersection of root locus with
imaginary axis are
A) 4.2j and -4.2j B) 3.2j and -3.2j C) 2.2j and -2.2j D) 5.2j and -5.2j
73. If control system having G(S) H(S) = K / S (S+1) (S+2) (S+3) then for
construction of root locus diagram , the valid BAP are
A) - 0.371 and -2.619 B) - 0.361 and -2.619
C) - 0.317 and -2.619 D) - 0.381 and -2.619
74. For control system having G(S) H(S) = K / S (S+1) (S+2) (S+3) then for construction
of root locus diagram ,then Kmarginal will be
A) 10 B) 60 C) 66 D) 62
75. If G(S) H(S) = K / S (S+1) (S+2) (S+3) then the points of intersection of root locus
with imaginary axis will be
A) j and – j B) 2j and - 2j C) 2.2j and - 2.2j D) 2.3j and -2.3j
76. The characteristic equation of control system is S4+6S3+23S2+40S+50 = 0, Then by

stability criteria the above system is
A) Marginally stable B) marginally unstable C) unstable D) stable
77. The characteristic equation of control system is

5S6+8S5+12S4+20S3+100S2+150S+200 = 0, Then by stability criteria the above
system is
A) Marginally stable B) marginally unstable C) unstable D) stable
78. What will be the angle of departure of the pole -1+j if other poles are -1- j and 0 ,
control system having only 3 poles no zero,
A) 2250 B) -2250 C) 450 D) -450
79. If G(S) H(S) = K / S (S2+2S+25) then Centre of Gravity will be
A) -0.66 B) 0.66 C) -1.66 D) 1.66
80. The transfer function for U tube Manometer H(S)/X(S) = (Ʈ2 S2+2 ξƮS +1)
representing second order system having l is length , g gravity const., µ is viscosity, ç
is densitythen the Damping coeff. ξ will be
A) [8µl/ d2çg] (l/2g) B) [8µl/ d2çg] (2g /l)
2 1/2
C) [8µl/ d çg] (l/2g) D) [ 8µl/ d2çg] (2g /l)1/2
(CHL-304) Mathematical Methods in Chemical Engineering
MCQ Question Bank
1. Bolzano’s method is also called as
a Regula Falsi Method b Iterative Method
c Newton Raphson Method d Interval method
2. ………method takes more number of iterations to get accurate solution for solving
polynomial equations.
a Regula Falsi b Iterative Method
c Bisection Method d Newton Raphson Method
3. …….. is the second iterative root of X 3 − 4 X − 9 = 0 by interval method.
a 2.5 b 2.75
c 2.6875 d 2.625
4. Method of successive approximation is also called as
a Regula Falsi b Iterative Method
c Bisection Method d Newton Raphson Method
5. The basis of …………..method is expansion of Taylor’s theorem
a Iterative Method b Regula Falsi
c Newton Raphson Method d Bisection Method
6. The second approximate root of X 3 − 5 X − 7 = 0 , by using method of False

position, which lies between (2, 3), is
a 2.8428 b 2.5
c 2.6428 d 2.7356
7. Newton-Raphson method uses …………….. equation for finding root of polynomial

equation
a f (X1) b f (X1)
Xn = X n = 1−
f ' ( X1) f ' (X1)
c f (X1) d f (X n)
X n = X1 − X n = 1−
f ' (X1) f ' ( Xn)
8. For solving equations involving transcendental function, we can perform calculations

using……………..mode of calculator.
a any b matrix
c degree d radian
9. Real root of X 3 + X − 1 = 0 , by iterative method is,
a 0.6097 b 0.658
c 0.6206 d 0.5892
10. In case of Regula Falsi method, if the root of equation lies between (a, b), the
equation for finding first approximate root is,
a f (b) − f ( a ) b af (b) − bf (a )
b−a f (b) − f (a )
c af (b) − bf (a ) d b−a
b−a f (b) − f (a )
11. 1 − 2
The characteristics equation of A =   is
2 1 
a λ 2 − 2λ − 5 b λ2 − 2λ + 5
c λ 2 + 2λ + 5 d λ 2 + 2λ − 5
12.
1 2 3 
3
The Eigen value of A are……………………, if A = 0 2 − 7 
0 0 4 
a 1,8,64 b -1,-8,-6
c -1,-2,-3 d 1,2,4
13. 1 2 3
The Eigen vectors of matrix A =  2 − 4 8
 3 8 6
a idempotent b normal
c orthogonal d nilpotent
14. 5 4
The Eigen values of matrix A=  are
1 2
a 6, 1 b 6, -1
c -6, -1 d -6, 1
15. Two Eigen vectors X1 and X2 are orthogonal if
a X1T.X2=1 b X1T.X2≠0
c X1T.X2≠1 d X1T.X2=0
16. If reaction rate is given as a function of temperature, for getting the optimum value
of temperature at which rate will be maximum can be obtained from,
a dr b dr
=1 =∞
dT dT
c r d dr
=1 =0
T dT
17. 1
For the reversible reaction, SO2 + O2 ↔ SO3 , 100 gmol of mixture ( air 90% and
2
SO2 10%) is present, if XA is the conversion of SO2, then total kmol of final gas
mixture will be,
a 100-4XA b 100-5XA
c 100+5XA d 100+4XA
18. 1
2
SO2 10%) is present, if XA is the conversion of SO2, then partial pressure of SO2 in
final gas mixture will be,
a 2(1 − X A ) b 2(1 − X A )
25 + X A 25 − X A
c 2(1 − X A ) d 2(1 + X A )
20 − X A 20 − X A
19. 1
2
SO2 10%) is present, if XA is the conversion of SO2, then partial pressure of O2 in
a 18.9 + 4 X A b 18.9 − 4 X A
100 + 5 X A 100 − 4 X A
c 18.9 − 5 X A d 18.9 − 5 X A
100 − 5 X A 100 + 5 X A
20. 1
2
SO2 10%) is present, if XA is the conversion of SO2, then partial pressure of SO3 in
a 2X A b 2X A
100 − 5 X A 100 + 5 X A
c 2X A d 2X A
20 − X A 20 + X A
21. Spherical naphthalene ball evaporates at a rate proportional to the exposed surface. A
ball of naphthalene with a radius 0.007 m initially has its radius reduced to 0.006 m
after 6 months, how long it will take for radius to become 0.004 m
a 1.5 years b 1.0 years
c 0.5 years d 0 years
22. Spherical naphthalene ball evaporates at a rate proportional to the exposed surface. A
ball of naphthalene with a radius 0.007 m initially has its radius reduced to 0.006 m
after 6 months, how long it will take for the volume to reduce to 25 % of its original
volume
a 12.54 months b 15.54 months
c 18.54 months d 20.54 months
23. 1
2
SO2 10%) is present, if XA is the conversion of SO2, then gmol of N2 in final gas
mixture will
a Continuously increase b Continuously decrease
c Be the function of conversion d Remain same
24. We have to perform back substitution for getting other unknowns, in………..method,
for solving system of linear equations.
a Gauss-Jordon b Relaxation
c Gauss elimination d Jacobi
25. In ………. method of solving the set of linear equation, we have to arrange the
sequence of equations in a such way that their diagonal elements should be
dominant
a Jacobi b Gauss elimination
c Gauss-Jordon d Relaxation
26. ………. method is also called as modified Jacobi method.
a Gauss-Jordon b Gauss elimination
c Relaxation d Gauss-Seidel
27. ……………method is not iterative method.
a Gauss-Seidel b Gauss-Jordon
c Jacobi d Relaxation
28. dy
For, the differential equation, = x + y , if y=1 at x=0, value of y(2) using Picard’s
dx
method will be,
a x3 b x2 x3 x4
1+ x + x2 + 1+ + +
6 2 2 2
c x2 x3 d x2
1+ + 1+
2 2 2
29. In case of solving ordinary differential equations by RK numerical method, if we

decrease the magnitude of the step size ‘h’, then accuracy of solution
a Cannot predict b Remains same
c Decreases d Increases
30. dy
For the differential equation, = x + y 2 , values of y0' , y0'' , y0''' , y0iv , y0v , y0vi are 0, 1,
dx
0,0,6,0 respectively, what will be the value of y by using Taylor’s series method.
a x2 x4 b x2 x6
+ +
2 20 2 20
c x 2 x3 d x 2 x5
+ +
2 20 2 20
31. dy
For the differential equation, = x + y 2 , y=1 at x=0, if h=0.1, by Runga Kutta forth
dx
order method, value of K1 will be,
a 0.2 b 0.15
c 0.1 d 0.05
32. dy
dx
a 0.1152 b 0.213
c 0.3251 d 0.23
33. dy
dx
a 0.1168 b 0.2154
c 0.15 d 0.1234
34. dy
dx
a 0.1895 b 0.0923
c 0.1347 d 0.2135
35. dy
dx
order method, value of K will be,
a 0.1896 b 0.2309
c 0.2365 d 0.1165
36. In case of numerical integration, if number of intervals are multiple of three then we
have to apply …………………..rule
a Trapezoidal b Simpson’s 1/3rd
c Weddle’s d Simpson’s 3/8th
37. The solution obtained using…………………rule for the numerical integration is least
accurate.
a Simpson’s 3/8th b Simpson’s 1/3rd
c Trapezoidal d Weddle’s
38. The solution obtained using…………………rule for the numerical integration is

most accurate.
a Weddle’s b Trapezoidal
c Simpson’s 3/8th d Simpson’s 1/3rd
39. For application of Weddle’s rule in numerical integration, at least, we must have
……..values of the function.
a 5 b 6
c 7 d 8
40. π
2
For calculating the appro. value of  sin xdx , using 11 ordinates, value of h will be
0
a π/20 b π/10
c π/15 d π/5
41. π
2
The appro. value of  sin xdx , using 11 ordinates and by Trapezoidal rule is,
0
a 0.9981 b 1
c 1.006 d 0.9732
42. π
2
 sin xdx , using 11 ordinates and by Simpson’s 1/3

rd
The appro. value of rule is,
0
a 1.006 b 1
c 0.9981 d 0.9732
43. dy
For = x + y , Integrating factor (I.F.) will be,
dx
a ex b e-x
c e2x d e-2x
44. dy
For , = x + y , y(0)=1, the General Solution will be,
dx
a y=1+x+2ex b y= -1-x+2ex
c y=1-x-2ex d y= -1-x-2ex
45.
For estimating the number of students who obtained marks between 40 and 45 we
have to apply, Marks No. of students
30-40 31
40-50 42
50-60 51
60-70 35
70-80 31
a Newton’s backward interpolation b Newton’s forward interpolation

formula formula
c Stirling’s formula d Lagrange’s interpolation farmula
46.
The number of students who obtained marks between 40 and 45, are
Marks No. of students
30-40 31
40-50 42
50-60 51
60-70 35
70-80 31
a 15 b 17
c 16 d 18
47. Following is not direct method of solving system of linear equations.
a Gauss Elimination b Gauss-Jordon
c Gauss-Seidel d Crout’s
48. In case of Relaxation method numerically, we have to/ can select……….value of

residual.
a highest b smallest
c average d any
49. If diagonal elements of the set of equations are dominant, then normally we have to
apply……………method of solving the linear equation.
a Relaxation b Jacobi
c Gauss Elimination d Gauss-Seidel
50. The equation for solving numerical integration by Simpson’s 1/3rd rule is
a h/3[(sum of first and last ordinate) b h/3[(sum of first and last ordinate) +
+ 2(sum of remaining odd 4(sum of remaining odd
ordinates)+4(sum of remaining ordinates)+2(sum of remaining even
even ordinates)] ordinates)]
c h/3[(sum of first and last ordinate) d h/3[(sum of first and last ordinate) +
+ 4(sum of remaining odd 2(sum of remaining odd
ordinates)+4(sum of remaining ordinates)+2(sum of remaining even
even ordinates)] ordinates)]
51. dC B K1 K2
The rate equation in terms of for A → B → C reaction in batch reactor
dt
is
a K1CA-K2CB b K1CB-K2CC
c K2CB -K1CA d -K1CB+K2CC
52. For the following system of equation,
8X+Y+Z=8, 2X+4Y+Z=4, X+3Y+3Z=5,
the second set of root by Jacobi method is
a (0,0,0) b (8,4,5)
c (1,1,1.66) d (8,4,3)
53. For the following system of equation,
8X+Y+Z=8, 2X+4Y+Z=4, X+3Y+3Z=5,
the first set of root by Jacobi method is

a (1,1,1.66) b (8,4,5)
c (8,4,3) d (0,0,0)
54. 1
2
SO2 10%) is present, if XA is the conversion of SO2, then partial pressure of N2 at the
start of reaction will be,
a 2(1 + X A ) b 0.711
20 − X A
c 1 d 0.9
55. dy y − x
For the differential equation, = , with initial condition y=1 at x=0, y at
dx y + x
x=0.02 taking h=0.02 will be,
a 1.06 b 1.04
c 1 d 1.02
56. dy y − x
For the differential equation, = , by using Euler’s method with initial
dx y + x
condition y=1 at x=0, y at x=0.04 taking h=0.02 will be,
a 1 b 1.0192
c 1.0292 d 1.0392
57. If y =f(x0+rh), then value of dy/dx at x=x0 using Newton’s Backward difference
formula is
a 1  1 2 1 3  b 1 1 1 
∇y 0 − 2 ∇ y 0 − 3 ∇ y 0 − .... ∇y 0 − ∇ 2 y 0 − ∇ 3 y 0 − ....
h2   h 2 3 
c 1  1 2 1 3  d 1 1 1 
∇y 0 + 2 ∇ y 0 + 3 ∇ y 0 + .... ∇y 0 + ∇ 2 y 0 + ∇ 3 y 0 + ....
h2   h 2 3 
58. If y =f(x0+rh), then value of d2y/dx2 at x=x0 using Newton’s Backward difference
formula is
a 1  2 1 3 1 4  b 1  2 1 3 1 4 
h2 ∇ y 0 + 2 ∇ y 0 + 3 ∇ y 0 + .... h2 ∇ y 0 − 2 ∇ y 0 − 3 ∇ y 0 − ....
   
c 1  2 3 11 4  d 1  2 1 3 11 4 
h2 ∇ y 0 + ∇ y 0 + 12 ∇ y 0 + ... h2 ∇ y 0 − 2 ∇ y 0 − 12 ∇ y 0 + ....
   
59. 1 − 2 − 1
If A = 0 3 2  then eigen values are,
0 0 5 
a (1,3,5) b (-1, -3, -5)
c (1,9,25) d (-2, -1, 2)
60. 1 0 0
If A = 0 3 0 then eigen values are,
0 0 2
a (0,0,0) b (1,3,2)
c (-2,-1,2) d (1,-2,-1)
CHC-401 Modeling Simulation and Computer Aided Design
Instruction:
 Use of non-programmable calculator is allowed.

 All the symbols have their usual meanings unless specified.
1. In case of separation of mixture of two or more liquid components, based on

difference in volatility .................. is load disturbance.
A Temperature on particular B Distillate composition

tray
C Reflux flow rate D Feed Composition

difference in volatility.................. is control variable.

tray
C Reflux flow rate D Feed flow rate

difference in volatility.................. is manipulated variable.

tray
C Reboiler Heat D Feed flow rate

difference in volatility.................. is uncontrolled variable.

tray
C Reflux flow rate D Feed flow rate
5. In case of ....................., corrective action is taken as soon as disturbance enters

the process.
A Servo control B Feedforward control
C Feedback control D Regulatory control
6. In case of jacketed tubular reactor, flow of energy out of boundary at 𝑧 + 𝑑𝑧 is

given by,
A 𝜕 𝑣𝐴𝜌𝐶𝑝 𝑇 B 𝜕 𝑣𝐴𝜌𝐶𝑝 𝑇
𝑣𝐴𝜌𝐶𝑝 𝑇 + 𝑑𝑧 𝑣𝐴𝜌𝐶𝑝 𝑇 + 𝑑𝑧
𝜕𝑡 𝜕𝑧
C 𝜕 𝑣𝐴𝜌𝐶𝑝 𝑇 D 𝜕 𝑣𝐴𝜌𝐶𝑝 𝑇
𝑣𝐴𝜌𝐶𝑝 𝑇 + 𝑑𝑡 𝑣𝐴𝜌𝐶𝑝 𝑇 + 𝑑𝑡
𝜕𝑡 𝜕𝑧
7. In case of jacketed tubular reactor, heat conduction out of boundary at 𝑧 + 𝑑𝑧 is
given by,
A 𝜕 𝑞𝑧 𝐴 B 𝜕 𝑞𝑧 𝐴
𝑞𝑧 𝐴 + 𝑑𝑡 𝑞𝑧 𝐴 + 𝑑𝑧
𝜕𝑡 𝜕𝑡
C 𝜕 𝑞𝑧 𝐴 D 𝜕 𝑞𝑧 𝐴
𝑞𝑧 𝐴 + 𝑑𝑡 𝑞𝑧 𝐴 + 𝑑𝑧
𝜕𝑧 𝜕𝑧
8. In case of jacketed tubular reactor, heat generated by chemical reaction is given
by,
A −𝑘𝐶𝐴 Adz Cp T B 𝑘𝐶𝐴 Adz Cp T
C 𝑘𝐶𝐴 Adz λ D −𝑘𝐶𝐴 Adz λ
9. In case of variable mass system, for developing force balance equation, we have
to consider conservation of................
A Mass B Force
C Momentum D Energy
10. Based on equation of motion, pick up the correct relationship
A 𝑁 B 𝑁
𝑑(𝑀𝑣𝑖 ) 𝑑(𝑀𝑣𝑖 )
= 𝐹𝑗𝑖 = 𝐹𝑗𝑖
𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡
𝑗 =1 𝑗 =0
C 𝑁 D 𝑁
𝑑(𝑀𝑣𝑖 ) 𝑑(𝑀𝑣𝑖 )
= 𝐹𝑗𝑖 = 𝐹𝑗𝑖
𝑔𝑐 𝑑𝑡 𝑔𝑐 𝑑𝑡
𝑗 =1 𝑗 =0
11. With reference to Lumped jacket model, in case of non-isothermal CSTR, with 4
equal volumes the correct model equation for Lump 1 is
A 1 𝑑𝑇𝐽1 1
𝑉𝐽 𝜌𝐽 𝐶𝐽 = 𝐹𝐽 𝜌𝐽 𝐶𝐽 𝑇𝐽0 − 𝑇𝐽1 + 𝑈𝐴𝐻 (𝑇 − 𝑇𝐽1 )
4 𝑑𝑡 4
B 1 𝑑𝑇𝐽1
4 𝑑𝑡
C 𝑑𝑇𝐽1 1
𝑑𝑡 4
D 1 𝑑𝑇𝐽1 1 1
𝑉𝐽 𝜌𝐽 𝐶𝐽 = 𝐹𝐽 𝜌𝐽 𝐶𝐽 𝑇𝐽0 − 𝑇𝐽1 + 𝑈𝐴𝐻 (𝑇 − 𝑇𝐽 1 )
4 𝑑𝑡 4 4
12. In case of non-isothermal CSTR, considering metal wall capacitance, energy
equation for metal wall is
A 𝑑𝑇𝑀
𝜌𝑀 𝑉𝑀 𝐶𝑀 = 𝑕𝑖 𝐴𝑖 𝑇𝑀 − 𝑇 − 𝑕𝑜 𝐴𝑜 𝑇𝐽 − 𝑇𝑀
𝑑𝑡
B 𝑑𝑇𝑀
𝜌𝑀 𝑉𝑀 𝐶𝑀 = 𝑕𝑜 𝐴𝑜 𝑇𝐽 − 𝑇𝑀 − 𝑕𝑖 𝐴𝑖 𝑇𝑀 − 𝑇
𝑑𝑡
C 𝑑𝑇𝑀
𝜌𝑀 𝑉𝑀 𝐶𝑀 = 𝑕𝑖 𝐴𝑖 𝑇 − 𝑇𝑀 − 𝑕𝑜 𝐴𝑜 𝑇𝑀 − 𝑇𝐽
𝑑𝑡
D 𝑑𝑇𝑀
𝜌𝑀 𝑉𝑀 𝐶𝑀 = 𝑕𝑜 𝐴𝑜 𝑇𝑀 − 𝑇𝐽 − 𝑕𝑖 𝐴𝑖 𝑇 − 𝑇𝑀
𝑑𝑡
13. In case of non-isothermal CSTR, considering metal wall capacitance, energy
equation for cooling jacket is
A 𝑑𝑇𝐽
𝜌𝐽 𝑉𝐽 𝐶𝐽 = 𝐹𝐽 𝜌𝐽 𝐶𝐽 𝑇𝐽0 − 𝑇𝐽 + 𝑕𝑜 𝐴𝑜 𝑇𝐽 − 𝑇𝑀
𝑑𝑡
B 𝑑𝑇𝐽
𝜌𝐽 𝑉𝐽 𝐶𝐽 = 𝐹𝐽 𝜌𝐽 𝐶𝐽 𝑇𝐽0 − 𝑇𝐽 + 𝑕𝑜 𝐴𝑜 𝑇𝑀 − 𝑇𝐽
𝑑𝑡
C 𝑑𝑇𝐽
𝜌𝐽 𝑉𝐽 𝐶𝐽 = 𝐹𝐽 𝜌𝐽 𝐶𝐽 𝑇𝐽0 − 𝑇𝐽 − 𝑕𝑜 𝐴𝑜 𝑇𝑀 − 𝑇𝐽
𝑑𝑡
D 𝑑𝑇𝐽
𝜌𝐽 𝑉𝐽 𝐶𝐽 = 𝐹𝐽 𝜌𝐽 𝐶𝐽 𝑇𝐽0 − 𝑇𝐽 − 𝑕𝑜 𝐴𝑜 𝑇𝐽 − 𝑇𝑀
𝑑𝑡
14. When components must be moved from one phase to another phase, before or
after the reaction, then reaction becomes .................... limiting.
A Heat transfer B Phase transfer
C Mass transfer D Momentum transfer
15. 𝑑𝑣
In case of gravity flow tank, is equal to,
𝑑𝑡
A 𝑔 𝐾𝐹 𝑔𝑐 2 B 𝐿 𝐾𝐹 𝑔𝑐 2
𝑕− 𝑣 𝑣− 𝑕
𝐿 𝜌𝐴𝑝 𝑔 𝜌𝐴𝑝
C 𝑔 𝐾𝐹 𝑔𝑐 2 D 𝐿 𝐾𝐹 𝑔𝑐 2
𝑣− 𝑕 𝑕− 𝑣
𝐿 𝜌𝐴𝑝 𝑔 𝜌𝐴𝑝
16. In case of Batch distillation with holdup, the overall material balance for still pot
is,
A 𝑑𝑀𝐵 B 𝑑𝑀𝐵
= −𝐷 =𝐷
𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡
C 𝑑𝑀𝐵 D 𝑑𝑀𝐵
= 𝑅−𝐷 = 𝐿1 − 𝐷
𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡
17. In case of Batch distillation with holdup, jth component balance for nth tray is
given by,
A 𝑑𝑥𝑛𝑗
𝑀𝑛 = 𝑅 𝑥𝑛+1,𝑗 − 𝑥𝑛𝑗 + 𝑉(𝑦𝑛−1,𝑗 − 𝑦𝑛𝑗 )
𝑑𝑡
B 𝑑𝑥𝑛𝑗
𝑀𝑛 = 𝑅 𝑥𝑛+1,𝑗 − 𝑥𝑛𝑗 − 𝑉(𝑦𝑛−1,𝑗 − 𝑦𝑛𝑗 )
𝑑𝑡
C 𝑑𝑥𝑛𝑗
𝑀𝑛 = 𝑅 𝑥𝑛𝑗 − 𝑥𝑛 +1,𝑗 + 𝑉(𝑦𝑛𝑗 − 𝑦𝑛−1,𝑗 )
𝑑𝑡
D 𝑑𝑥𝑛𝑗
𝑀𝑛 = 𝑅 𝑥𝑛𝑗 − 𝑥𝑛 +1,𝑗 + 𝑉(𝑦𝑛−1,𝑗 − 𝑦𝑛𝑗 )
𝑑𝑡
18. In case of Batch distillation with holdup, jth component balance for reflux drum
is given by,
A 𝑑𝑥𝐷𝑗
𝑀𝐷 = 𝑅 + 𝐷 𝑥𝑁𝑇𝑗 − 𝑉𝑦𝑁𝑇 ,𝑗
𝑑𝑡
B 𝑑𝑥𝐷𝑗
𝑀𝐷 = 𝑉𝑦𝑁𝑇 ,𝑗 – (𝑅 + 𝐷)𝑥𝐷𝑗
𝑑𝑡
C 𝑑𝑥𝐷𝑗
𝑀𝐷 = 𝑅 + 𝐷 𝑥𝐷𝑗 − 𝑉𝑦𝑁𝑇 ,𝑗
𝑑𝑡
D 𝑑𝑥𝐷𝑗
𝑀𝐷 = 𝑉𝑦𝑁𝑇 ,𝑗 – (𝑅 + 𝐷)𝑥𝑁𝑇𝑗
𝑑𝑡
19. In case of steady state two stage cross current solvent extraction fraction of solute
extracted (E) is calculated by,
A 2𝛼 + 1 B 2𝛼 − 1
(𝛼 + 1)2 (𝛼 + 1)2
C 2𝛼 + 1 D 2𝛼 − 1
(𝛼 − 1)2 (𝛼 − 1)2
20. For single stage solvent extraction, S=12 R, m=0.125, c=0.1 kg/m3, fraction of
solute that could be extracted is
A 0.55 B 0.6
C 0.65 D 0.7
21. For two stage counter current solvent extraction, S=12 R, m=0.125, c=0.1 kg/m 3,
fraction of solute that could be extracted is
A 0.889 B 0.689
C 0.589 D 0.789
22. In which phase of model building, estimation of parameters take place?
A problem definition B application
C preliminary and detailed D evaluation

analysis
23. A high efficiency cyclone is used when we are handling...........
A Valuable solid materials B High volume of gas-solid mixtures
C Highly viscous mixtures D High density materials
24. A high throughput cyclone is used when we are handling...........
A Highly viscous mixtures B High volume of gas-solid mixtures
C High density materials D Valuable solid materials
25. The performance curves of cyclone designs are normally used

for.........calculation.
A scaling up B efficiency
C Performance D economy
26. The Smoker’s equation for number of stages required is
A (𝑥0∗ (1 − 𝛽𝑥𝑛∗ )
𝑙𝑜𝑔 𝑙𝑜𝑔 𝛼 𝑠𝑐 2
𝑥𝑛∗ 1 − 𝛽𝑥0∗
B (𝑥𝑛∗ 1 − 𝛽𝑥0∗ )
𝑙𝑜𝑔 𝑙𝑜𝑔 𝛼 𝑠𝑐
𝑥0∗ (1 − 𝛽𝑥𝑛∗
C (𝑥0∗ (1 − 𝛽𝑥𝑛∗ )
𝑙𝑜𝑔 ∗ 𝑙𝑜𝑔 𝛼 𝑐𝑠 2
𝑥𝑛 1 − 𝛽𝑥0∗
D (𝑥𝑛∗ 1 − 𝛽𝑥0∗ )
𝑙𝑜𝑔 𝑙𝑜𝑔 𝛼 𝑠𝑐 2
𝑥0∗ (1 − 𝛽𝑥𝑛∗
27. The Underwood’s equation in terms of Rm is

A 𝛼𝑖 𝑥𝑖,𝑓 B 𝛼𝑖 𝑥𝑖,𝑑
= 𝑅𝑚 + 1 = 𝑅𝑚 + 1
𝛼𝑖 − 𝜃 𝛼𝑖 − 𝜃
C 𝛼𝑖 𝑥𝑖,𝑓 D 𝛼𝑖 𝑥𝑖,𝑑
= 𝑅𝑚 − 1 = 𝑅𝑚 − 1
28. In case of the Underwood’s equation, θ is obtained from following equation,

A B
𝛼𝑖 𝑥𝑖,𝑑 𝛼𝑖 𝑥𝑖,𝑓
=𝑞−1 =𝑞−1
C D
𝛼𝑖 𝑥𝑖,𝑑 𝛼𝑖 𝑥𝑖,𝑓
=1−𝑞 =1−𝑞
29. Fenke equation for calculating minimum number of stages is
A B
𝑥𝐿𝐾 𝑥𝐻𝐾 𝑥𝐿𝐾 𝑥𝐻𝐾

𝑙𝑜𝑔
𝑥𝐻𝐾 𝑑 𝑥𝐿𝐾 𝑏 𝑥𝐻𝐾 𝑑
𝑥𝐿𝐾 𝑏
𝑙𝑜𝑔
log 𝛼𝐻𝐾 𝛼𝐿𝐾
C D
𝑥𝐿𝐾 𝑥𝐻𝐾 𝑥𝐿𝐾 𝑥𝐻𝐾

𝑙𝑜𝑔
𝑥𝐻𝐾 𝑑 𝑥𝐿𝐾 𝑏 𝑥𝐻𝐾 𝑑
𝑥𝐿𝐾 𝑏
𝑙𝑜𝑔
log 𝛼𝐿𝐾 𝛼𝐻𝐾
30. The values of constants in Antoine equation for Styrene are A=9.386, B=3328.57
and C= 63.72, the temperature T= 350 is in Kelvin, what will be the value of
Pressure in Bar?
A 0.2654 B 0.4896
C 0.106 D 0.51
31. The values of constants in Antoine equation for Ethyl benzene are A=9.386,
B=3379.47 and C= 59.95 the temperature T= 350 is in Kelvin, what will be the
value of Pressure in Bar?
A 0.2074 B 0.1465
C 0.5213 D 0.3352
32. The values of constants in Antoine equation for Styrene are A=9.386, B=3328.57
and C= 63.7 and for Ethyl benzene values are A=9.386, B=3379.47 and C= 59.95
the temperature T= 350 is in Kelvin, from the data provided which component
will be more volatile?
A Both have same volatility B Data is not sufficient
C D Ethyl Benzene
Styrene
33. In case of gas- liquid separator, the settling velocity (ut ) is given by,
A 𝜌𝐿 − 𝜌𝑉 0.5 B 𝜌𝑉 − 𝜌𝐿 0.5
0.07 𝜌𝑉 0.07 𝜌𝐿
C 𝜌𝐿 − 𝜌𝑉 0.5 D 𝜌𝑉 − 𝜌𝐿 0.5
0.7 𝜌𝑉 0.7 𝜌𝐿
34. In case of gas- liquid separator, if we have not used demister pad the settling
velocity (ut ) is given by,
A 𝜌𝐿 − 𝜌𝑉 0.5 B 𝜌𝐿 − 𝜌𝑉 0.5
0.15 𝜌𝑉 0.0105 𝜌𝑉
C 𝜌𝐿 − 𝜌𝑉 0.5 D 𝜌𝐿 − 𝜌𝑉 0.5
0.015 𝜌𝑉 1.5 𝜌𝑉
35. In case of gas- liquid separator, if volume held in vessel is 200 Litres and
diameter of vessel is 1.25 meter, what will be required liquid depth in meter?
A 0.163 B 0.123
C 0.14 D 0.186
36. In case of horizontal separator, for operating pressure >35 bar, L/D ratio should
be,
A 5 B 3
C 4 D 2
37. A horizontal separators are used when
A Density difference between B Long liquid hold-up time is

liquid and gases is negligible required
C we have to handle flammable D Droplets of liquid are very fine

mixtures
38. Normally, Fermentation processes are carried out in
A continuous stirred tank b plug flow reactor

reactor
C batch reactors d packed bed reactor
39. If pure cold water is flowing through non-isothermal plug flow reactor, then we
need not to develop
A Energy balance equation B Momentum balance equation
C Total continuity equation D Component continuity equation
40. For, ideal perfectly mixed constant volume and constant density tank following
equation is correct,
A 𝑑𝑉 B 𝑑𝑉
𝐹0 − 𝐹 = 𝐹0 − 𝐹 ≠
𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡
C 𝑑(𝑉𝜌) D 𝐹0 = 𝐹
𝐹0 𝜌0 − 𝐹𝜌 =
𝑑𝑡
41. If fluid is flowing through constant diameter cylindrical pipe, the final form of
mass balance equation will be,
A 𝜕𝜌 𝜕(𝑣𝜌) B 𝜕𝜌 𝜕(𝑣𝜌)
− =0 − =0
𝜕𝑧 𝜕𝑡 𝜕𝑡 𝜕𝑧
C 𝜕𝜌 𝜕(𝑣𝜌) D 𝜕𝜌 𝜕(𝑣𝜌)
+ =0 + =0
𝜕𝑡 𝜕𝑧 𝜕𝑧 𝜕𝑡
42. For the first order reversible reaction, taking place in CSTR 𝐴 ↔ 𝐵, with rate
constant k1 (forward reaction) and k2(backward reaction), component continuity
equation for component A is
A 𝑑(𝐶𝐴 𝑉)
= 𝐹0 𝐶𝐴0 − 𝐹𝐶𝐴 + 𝑘1 𝐶𝐴 𝑉 − 𝐾2 𝐶𝐵 𝑉
𝑑𝑡
B 𝑑(𝐶𝐴 𝑉)
= 𝐹0 𝐶𝐴0 − 𝐹𝐶𝐴 + 𝑘1 𝐶𝐵 𝑉 − 𝐾2 𝐶𝐴 𝑉
𝑑𝑡
C 𝑑(𝐶𝐴 𝑉)
= 𝐹0 𝐶𝐴0 − 𝐹𝐶𝐴 − 𝑘1 𝐶𝐴 𝑉 + 𝐾2 𝐶𝐵 𝑉
𝑑𝑡
D 𝑑(𝐶𝐴 𝑉)
= 𝐹0 𝐶𝐴0 − 𝐹𝐶𝐴 − 𝑘1 𝐶𝐵 𝑉 + 𝐾2 𝐶𝐴 𝑉
𝑑𝑡
43. For the first order reversible reaction, taking place in CSTR 𝐴 ↔ 𝐵, with rate
constant k1(forward reaction) and k2(backward reaction), component continuity
equation for component B is
A 𝑑(𝐶𝐵 𝑉)
= 𝐹0 𝐶𝐵0 − 𝐹𝐶𝐵 − 𝑘1 𝐶𝐵 𝑉 + 𝐾2 𝐶𝐴 𝑉
𝑑𝑡
B 𝑑(𝐶𝐵 𝑉)
= 𝐹0 𝐶𝐵0 − 𝐹𝐶𝐵 − 𝑘1 𝐶𝐴 𝑉 + 𝐾2 𝐶𝐵 𝑉
𝑑𝑡
C 𝑑(𝐶𝐵 𝑉)
= 𝐹0 𝐶𝐵0 − 𝐹𝐶𝐵 + 𝑘1 𝐶𝐴 𝑉 − 𝐾2 𝐶𝐵 𝑉
𝑑𝑡
D 𝑑(𝐶𝐵 𝑉)
= 𝐹0 𝐶𝐵0 − 𝐹𝐶𝐵 + 𝑘1 𝐶𝐵 𝑉 − 𝐾2 𝐶𝐴 𝑉
𝑑𝑡
44. A Murphree vapour phase efficiency (Enj) is given by,
𝑇 𝑇
A 𝑦𝑛−1,𝑗 − 𝑦𝑛𝑗 B 𝑦𝑛𝑗 − 𝑦𝑛−1,𝑗
𝑇 ∗ 𝑇 ∗
𝑦𝑛−1,𝑗 − 𝑦𝑛𝑗 𝑦𝑛−1,𝑗 − 𝑦𝑛𝑗
𝑇 𝑇 ∗
C 𝑦𝑛𝑗 − 𝑦𝑛−1,𝑗 D 𝑦𝑛−1,𝑗 − 𝑦𝑛𝑗
∗ 𝑇 𝑇
𝑦𝑛𝑗 − 𝑦𝑛−1,𝑗 𝑦𝑛𝑗 − 𝑦𝑛−1,𝑗
45. In case of non isothermal CSTR, average jacket temperature (TJA) is used in
A Significance metal wall B Perfectly mixed cooling jacket

capacitance
C Lumped jacket model D Plug flow cooling jacket
46. In case of Laminar flow in a pipe, considering system as dough nut shaped
element, shear force on face at (r +dr) is given by,
A 𝜕
2𝜋𝑟 𝑑𝑧 𝜏𝑟𝑧 + 2𝜋𝑟 𝑑𝑧 𝜏𝑟𝑧 𝑑𝑟
𝜕𝑟
B 𝜕
2𝜋𝑟 𝑑𝑟 𝜏𝑟𝑧 + 2𝜋𝑟 𝑑𝑟 𝜏𝑟𝑧 𝑑𝑧
𝜕𝑧
C 𝜕
2𝜋𝑟 𝑑𝑧 𝜏𝑟𝑧 + 2𝜋𝑟 𝑑𝑟 𝜏𝑟𝑧 𝑑𝑧
𝜕𝑧
D 𝜕
2𝜋𝑟 𝑑𝑟 𝜏𝑟𝑧 + 2𝜋𝑟 𝑑𝑟 𝜏𝑟𝑧 𝑑𝑟
𝜕𝑟
element, pressure force on face at (z +dz) is given by,
A 𝜕
2𝜋𝑟 𝑑𝑟 𝑃 + 2𝜋𝑟 𝑑𝑟 𝑃 𝑑𝑟
𝜕𝑟
B 𝜕
2𝜋𝑟 𝑑𝑧 𝑃 + 2𝜋𝑟 𝑑𝑟 𝑃 𝑑𝑟
𝜕𝑟
C 𝜕
2𝜋𝑟 𝑑𝑟 𝑃 + 2𝜋𝑟 𝑑𝑟 𝑃 𝑑𝑧
𝜕𝑧
D 𝜕
2𝜋𝑟 𝑑𝑟 𝑃 + 2𝜋𝑟 𝑑𝑟 𝑃 𝑑𝑟
𝜕𝑧
element, the rate of change of momentum is given by,
A 1 𝑑 B 𝑑
2𝜋𝑟 𝑑𝑧 𝑑𝑟 𝜌𝑣𝑧 2𝜋𝑟 𝑑𝑧 𝑑𝑟 𝜌𝑣𝑧
𝑔𝑐 𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡
C 1 𝜕 D 𝜕
2𝜋𝑟 𝑑𝑧 𝑑𝑟 𝜌𝑣𝑧 2𝜋𝑟 𝑑𝑧 𝑑𝑟 𝜌𝑣𝑧
𝑔𝑐 𝜕𝑡 𝜕𝑡
49. In design of Shell and Tube Heat Exchanger, design variable outer tube diameter
has .........different values.
A 8 B 12
C 7 D 6
50. In design of Shell and Tube Heat Exchanger, a design variable tube length has
.........different values.
A 3 B 5
C 4 D 6
51. In design of Shell and Tube Heat Exchanger, design variable shell head type has
.........different values.
A 3 B 5
C 4 D 6
52. Generally, in design of Shell and Tube Heat Exchanger, pressures drop more than
..........Bar is not desirable for the flow of fluid.
A 1.0 B 2.5
C 1.5 D 2.0
53. In design of Shell and Tube Heat Exchanger, the main objective function is to
.........
A Minimize the total heat B Minimize the pressure drop.

transfer area.
C Perform heat transfer D Maximise overall heat transfer

operation quickly. coefficient at minimum cost.
54. In case ideal binary distillation column, component continuity equation for Tray
𝑑(𝑀1 𝑥 1 )
(n=1) is equal to
𝑑𝑡
A 𝐿2 𝑥2 − 𝐿1 𝑥1 − 𝑉𝑦𝐵 + 𝑉𝑦1 B 𝐿1 𝑥1 − 𝐿2 𝑥2 + 𝑉𝑦𝐵 − 𝑉𝑦1
C 𝐿1 𝑥1 − 𝐿2 𝑥2 − 𝑉𝑦𝐵 + 𝑉𝑦1 D 𝐿2 𝑥2 − 𝐿1 𝑥1 + 𝑉𝑦𝐵 − 𝑉𝑦1
55. In case ideal binary distillation column, component continuity equation for
𝑑(𝑀𝐵 𝑥 𝐵 )
reboiler and column base is equal to
𝑑𝑡
A 𝑉𝑦𝐵 − 𝐿1 𝑥1 + 𝐵𝑥𝐵 B 𝐿1 𝑥1 − 𝑉𝑦𝐵 + 𝐵𝑥𝐵
C 𝐿1 𝑥1 + 𝑉𝑦𝐵 − 𝐵𝑥𝐵 D 𝐿1 𝑥1 − 𝑉𝑦𝐵 − 𝐵𝑥𝐵
56. In case ideal binary distillation column, component continuity equation for
𝑑(𝑀𝐷 𝑥 𝐷 )
condenser and reflux drum is equal to
𝑑𝑡
A 𝑉𝑦𝑁𝑇 − 𝑅𝑥𝐷 + 𝐷𝑥𝐷 B 𝑉𝑦𝑁𝑇 − 𝑅𝑥𝐷 − 𝐷𝑥𝐷
C 𝑉𝑦𝑁𝑇 + 𝑅𝑥𝐷 + 𝐷𝑥𝐷 D 𝐷𝑥𝐷 − 𝑉𝑦𝑁𝑇 − 𝑅𝑥𝐷
57. In dissociation of acid HA, the equilibrium constant KA, as per law of mass
action is given by,
A 𝐻 + 𝐴− B 𝐻𝐴
𝐻𝐴 𝐻+ 𝐴−
C 𝐻+ D 𝐴−
𝐻𝐴 𝐻𝐴
58. If we are carrying reaction in isothermal plug flow reactor, then we need not to
develop
A Momentum balance equation B Energy balance equation
C Component continuity D Total continuity equation

equation
59. In case of single component vaporiser, for liquid and vapour phase dynamic
model, rate of boiling (WV) is directly proportional to .......... difference.
A Volatility B Pressure
C Concentration D density
60. In case of single component vaporiser, for liquid and vapour phase dynamic
model, proportionality constant KMT is known as
A Pseudo phase transfer B Pseudo heat transfer coefficient

coefficient
C Pseudo diffusivity coefficient D Pseudo mass transfer coefficient
61. In case of ....................., corrective action is taken after disturbance gets enter the
process.
62. Control variable is also known as
A Manipulated variable B Load Disturbances

C Uncontrolled variable D Controlled variable
63. Normally, slow reactions are carried out in

reactor
64. Normally, highly exothermic reactions are carried out in

reactor
65. If we divide large CSTR into small volume CSTRS’ in series then it will act as a

reactor
66. Manipulate the system input to counteract the effects of disturbances is
67. Manipulate the system input to keep the output close to a given reference
trajectory, e.g. minimize the difference between the output and the reference
trajectory is

CHC403 PROCES DYNAMICS AND CONTROL
1. Three tank in series liq level noninteracting system has order___

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
2. Three tank in series liq level Interacting system has order___
A)1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
3. Mercury thermometer is _____ order system.
A)3 B) 2 C) 1 D) 4
4. Single tank liq level system is _____ order system.
A)3 B) 2 C) 1 D) 4
5. Single pole at origin represented by_______.
A) S+1 B) S C) 1 /S D) 1
6. Single Zero at origin represented by_______.
A) S+1 B) 1/S C) S D) 1
7. First order pole represented by_______.
A) S+1 B) S C) 1 /S+1 D) 1
8. First order zero represented by_______.
A) 1/S+1 B) S C) S+1 D) 1
9.Two poles at origin represented by_______.
A) S+1 B) S C) 1 /S2 D) 1 /S3
10.Three poles at origin represented by_______.
A) S+1 B) S C) 1 /S3 D) 1 /S2
11.Two zeros at origin represented by_______.
A) S+1 B) S C) S2 D) 1 /S3
12. Three zeros at origin represented by_______.
A) S+1 B) S C) S3 D) 1 /S2
13. Time constant for single tank liq level system is
A) MC/HA B) V/Q C) A R D) A/R

14.Time constant for Mercury thermometer system is
A) HA/MC B) V/Q C) MC/HA D) AR
15.Time constant for Mixing tank system is
A) Q/V B) VQ C) V/Q D) AR
16. Laplace of unit impulse is
A) 1/S B) S C) 1 D) S+1
17. Laplace of unit step function is
A) 1 B) S C) 1/S D) S+1
18. If x(t)= B t for ramp function, then X(S) will be
A) 1/S B) S C) 1 /S2 D) S+1
19. Time required for the response to first reach its ultimate value is called_____ .
A) Response time B) overshoot C) Rise time D) decay ratio
20. Time required for the response to come within plus minus 5% of its ultimate
value and remain there is called_____ .
A) Rise time B) overshoot C) Response time D) decay ratio
21.______is the measure of how much response exceeds the ultimate value.
A) Rise time B) Response time C) overshoot D) decay ratio
22.The ratio of sizes of successive peaks is called_____ .
A) Rise time B) overshoot C) decay ratio D) response time.
23. Damping coefficient equal to 1 represents _______system.
A) underdamped B)overdamped C) critically damped D) first order
24.Damping coefficient less than 1 represents _______system.
A) critically damped B)overdamped C) underdamped D) first order
25.Damping coefficient greater than 1 represents _______system.
A) underdamped B) critically damped C) overdamped D) first order

26. The nature of roots are comlex in ________system.
A) critically damped B)overdamped C) underdamped D) first order
27. The nature of roots are real and different in ________system.
A) underdamped B) critically damped C) overdamped D) first order.
28. The nature of roots are real and equal in ________system.
A) underdamped B)overdamped C) critically damped D) first order.
29. U tube manometer represents _____ order system.
A) ZERO B) FIRST C) SECOND D) THIRD
30. A Damped vibrator represents _____ order system.
31.U tube manometer system represents _____.
A) only damping coeff. B) only time const.
C) both damping coeff & time const. D) neither damping coeff nor time const.
32. A Damped vibrator system represents _____.
A) only damping coeff. B) only time const. C) both damping coeff & time
const. D) neither damping coeff nor time const.
33. If sinusoidal input given to the first order system then its output will
be_______.
A) step B) ramp C) Sinusoidal D) impulse.
34. If sinusoidal input given to the first order system then its output amplitude will
be_______as compared to input amplitude.
A) same B) more C) less D) zero.
35. If sinusoidal input given to the first order system then its output waves shows
difference in _________.
A) only amplitude B) only phase angle
C) both amplitude and phase angle D) neither amplitude nor phase angle.
36. The difference between unsteady state and steady state variables
called_______variables.
A)measured B) manipulated C) deviation D)controlled

37. The transfer function is the ratio of laplace transform of output to the
input_____.
A) measured B) manipulated C) deviation D)controlled
38. The _________unbounded input.
A) step B) impulse C) ramp D) sinusoidal.
39.The step input is ______input.
A) unbounded B) some times bounded sometimes unbounded
C) bounded D) always unbounded.
40. The impulse input is ______input.
41. The sinusoidal input is ______input.
42. Transportation lag is also called ______.
A) phase lag B) time lag C) distance velocity lag D) time and phase lag.
43. Dead time is also known as ______.
A) phase lag B) time lag C) distance velocity lag D) time and phase lag.
44. The difference between set point and measured variable is called _____.
A) measured variable B) manipulated variable
C) error signal D)controlled variable
45. ___________ is the input to the controller.
A) measured variable B) manipulated variable
C) error signal D)controlled variable

46. The output of the controller is the input to the _________.
A) measuring element B) load variable
C) final control element D)process
47. The control valve is the ____________.
A) measuring element B) load variable
C) final control element D)process
48. Output of the final control element is
A) measured variable B) set point
C) manipulated variable D)controlled variable
49. The _____ can also be the another input to the process.
A) measured variable B) set point C) load variable D)error signal
50. Underdamped system shows _____________ response.
A) nonoscillatory B) steady C) oscillatory D) linaer.
51. Overdamped system shows _____________ response.
A) Oscillatory B) steady C)Non oscillatory D) linaer.
52. _____controller gives either zero or 100 % output.
A) P B) PI C) ON OFF D) PD
53. For single tank liq level system , transfer function G(S) =_____.
A) 1+ TS B) R (1+TS) C) R/1+TS D) 1+S
54. For Mercury thermometer system , transfer function G(S) =_____.
A) 1+ TS B) R (1+TS) C) 1/1+TS D) 1+S
55. For Mixing process, transfer function G(S) =_____.
A) 1+ TS B) R (1+TS) C) 1/1+TS D) 1+S
56. Single tank Mixing process is represents _____order system.
A) ZERO B) SECOND C) FIRST D) THIRD

57. Single tank liq level system is represents _____order system.
58. Mercury thermometer system is represents _____order system.
59. General two tank in series liq level noninteracting system represents
_____order system.
60. General two tank in series liq level Interacting system represents _____order
system.
61.A thermometer having first order dynamics is placed in a temperature bath of

45oC. After the thermometer, reaches the equilibrium with the bath. The bath
temperature is subjected to sinusoidal forcing function about its average
temperature of 45oC with amplitude of 15oC. If period of oscillation is 30 sec/cycle
and time constant of thermometer is 10 seconds. Determine amplitude ratio.
A) 1.42 C) 0.044
B) 0.43 D) 2.45

and time constant of thermometer is 10 seconds. Determine maximum
temperature read by thermometer.
A) 99oC C) 51oC
B) 150oC D) 82oC

and time constant of thermometer is 10 seconds. Determine phase lag.
A) -164.20 C) -6.440
B) -264.30 D) -64.50
64.A first order system is subjected to impulse forcing function of magnitude 5.
The time constant of system is 6 second. For 3 second y(t) is
A) 0.5 C) 52
B) 5.1 D) 53
65.Which of the following is not wrong for first order system?
A) A slope of response curve is 0.632 at the beginning of the process.

B) The steeper is the initial response of first order system for smaller value of
time constant.
C) The response would be complete after two time constants.
D) The initial rates of change of y (t) were to be maintaining the response would
reach its ultimate value in one time constant.
66.The__________ controller has the maximum stabilising time.
A) P C) PI
B) PD D) PID
67.Solve the following equation for y (t)

( )
∫ 𝑦 (𝜏) 𝑑𝜏 = Y(t) = 1
A) 𝐿 sinh(𝑡) C) 𝐿 sinh(𝑡)
B) 𝐿 cosh(𝑡) D) 𝐿 cosh(𝑡)
68.A mercury thermometer bulb is half inches long. The glass envelope is very
thin, hence it is assume that glass wall does not expand or contract during
response. Calculate the time constant for water flowing at 10 ft/sec at a
temperature of 1000F
A) 1.2 C) 1.4
B) 1.3 D) Given data is not sufficient
69.A thermometer having a first order dynamics with a time constant of 1 minute
is placed in a temperature bath at 1000F. After the thermometer reaches the
steady state, it is suddenly placed in a bath at 1100F at t=0 and left there for 1
minute, after it is immediately return to bath at 1000F. Calculate thermometer
reading at 0.5 minute.
A) 3.80F C) 100F
B) 103.90F D) 10.40F
70.A thermometer having a first order dynamics with a time constant of 1 minute
is placed in a temperature bath at 1000F. After the thermometer reaches the
steady state, it is suddenly placed in a bath at 1100F at t=0 and left there for 1
minute, after it is immediately return to bath at 1000F. Calculate thermometer
reading at 2 minute.
A) 10020F C) 102.30F
B) 100F D) 2.40F
71.A thermometer having a time constant 1 minute is initially at 500C. It is

immersed in a bath maintain at 1000C at t=0. Determine temperature reading at
t=1.2 minutes.
A) 184.60C C) 184.80C
B) 184.70C D) 84.90C
72.A thermometer having a time constant 1 minute is initially at 500C. It is

immersed in a bath maintain at 1000C at t=0. If at t = 1.5 minutes thermometer is
removed from the bath and put in a bath at 750C. Determine maximum
temperature indicated by the thermometer.
A) 188.70C
B) 88.80C
C) 8.90C
D) 189.00C
73.Which of the following about sinusoidal function is true?
A) The output of sine function for the first order system with frequency 𝜔 equal to
B) The output of sine function for the first order system with frequency 𝜔 less
than the input sine function given to first order system.
C) The output of sine function for the first order system with frequency 𝜔 greater
than input sine function given to first order system.
D) The output of sine function for the first order system with frequency 𝜔 may
equal or less than input sine functions given to first order system.
74.Which of the following is false statement?
A) Time constant is a multiplication of resistance and capacitance

B) Amplitude ratio is always less than one
C) Presence of constant in in overall transfer function has no effect on overall
phase angle
( )
D) Transfer function = ( )
= ( )
, where co and ci are the outlet
concentrations
75.A thermometer is having a time constant 0.2 minute is placed in a temperature

bath and after some time the thermometer is in equilibrium with the bath. The
temperature of bath is increased at a rate of 100C per minute. What the
temperature difference is between indicated and bath temperature at 0.1 minute?
A) 76 C) 0.078
B) 77 D) 79
76.A thermometer is having a time constant 0.2 minute is placed in a temperature

bath and after some time the thermometer is in equilibrium with the bath. The
temperature of bath is increased at a rate of 100C per minute. What the
temperature difference is between indicated and bath temperature at 1 minute
after the change is begin?
A) 16 C) 18
B) 17 D) 0.1
77.If forcing function f (t) has a Laplace transform
𝑓(𝑠) = + –
Then graph of function f(t) is given by

2
A) B) 1
2
1
1 2 3
1 2 3
C) D)
2
2 1
1
1 2 3
1 2 3
78.A thermometer having first order dynamics is placed in a bath at 500C. After
the thermometer reaches equilibrium with bath, the bath temperature is subjected
to sinusoidal forcing function about its average temperature of 500C with
amplitude of 100C. If the period of oscillation is 3 minutes per cycle and the time
constant of the thermometer is 10 second. Find out phase angle
A) 187 C) 8.3
B) -87.2 D) 7.4
79.A thermometer having first order dynamics is placed in a bath at 500C. After
the thermometer reaches equilibrium with bath, the bath temperature is subjected
to sinusoidal forcing function about its average temperature of 500C with
amplitude of 100C. If the period of oscillation is 3 minutes per cycle and the time
constant of the thermometer is 10 second. Find out amplitude ratio.
A) 0.04 C) 0.09
B) 0.01 D) 0.07
80.A thermometer following first order dynamics with time constant of 0.2 minutes
is placed in a temperature bath at 1000C and allows for reaching at steady state.
It is suddenly transferred to bath at 1500C at t=0 and let for 2 minutes and
immediately return to original bath. Calculate reading of thermometer at 0.1
minute.
A) 18 C) 17
B) 119 D) 11
( )
81.Transfer function of transportation lag is ( )
= _______
A) 𝑒 C) 𝑒
B) 𝑒 D) 𝑒
82.Which of the statement is false among the following statements?
A) Non-interacting system is less sluggish

B) For interacting two tank system second tank load the first tank so called
loading system
C) Transportation lag is also called dead time
D) Consider a transfer function
( )
( )
= Here unit of gain is same as that of time constant of a system.
83.The liquid level process is shown is operating at steady state when the
following disturbance occurs at t =1 m3, water is added suddenly (unit impulse) to
the tank. Determine level at 0.5 minutes.Time constant of a system is 0.5 minute.
A) 1.1 C) 5.3
B) 1.2 D) 1.4
84.The liquid level process is shown is operating at steady state when the
following disturbance occurs at t =1 m3, water is added suddenly (unit impulse) to
the tank. Determine level at 0.5 minutes. Time constant of a system is 1 minute.
A) 0.15 C) 1.17
B) 2.16 D) 5.18
85.Which of the following option shows correct formula for finding he time
constant of liquid level system as shown in figure. h0is average operating level.
The resistance R is linear. The tank has three vertical wall and one slopes at an
angle 𝛼 from the vertical as shown in diagram. The distance separating the
parallel wall is B
A) 𝜏 = 𝑅(𝐵 + ℎ 𝑡𝑎𝑛 𝛼) C) 𝜏 = 𝑅(𝐵 − ℎ 𝑡𝑎𝑛 𝛼)

B) 𝜏 = 𝑅(𝐵 + 𝐵 ℎ 𝑡𝑎𝑛 𝛼) D) 𝜏 = 𝑅(𝐵 − 𝐵 ℎ 𝑡𝑎𝑛 𝛼)
( )
86.Which of the option given below represent correct transfer function ( )
for
liquid level system as shown in figure? The resistance are linear and R1= R2 = 1.
Note two streams are flowing from tank 1, one of which is flowing to the tank 2.
.
A) ( . )( )
C) ( . )( )
.
B) ( . )( )
D) ( . )( )
87.Calculate the time constant (second) for manometer. If length of manometer

tube containing manometer fluid is 0.06 meter.
A) 76 C) 80
B) 0.078 D) 82
88.Calculate the time constant (second) for damped oscillator, having mass of
box in kilogram is 2 and spring constant 0.02 N/m. Force applied to box is 3000N.
A) 70 C) 90
B) 80 D) 10
89.Step response equation for critically damped second order control system is
represented in ______ option
A) 1 − 𝑒 (1 + ) C) 1 − 𝑒 (1 − )
B) 1 + 𝑒 (1 + ) D) 1 + 𝑒 (1 − )
90.Impulse response equation for critically damped second order control system
is represented in ______ option
A) 𝑒 C) 𝑒
B) 𝑒 D) 𝑒
91.For steady state sinusoidal response equation for under-damped, critically

damped and over-damped phase lag is given as,
A) tan ( ( )
) C) tan ( ( )
)
B) − tan ( ( )
) D) − tan ( ( )
)
92.Which of the following statement about under-damped step response of
second order system is false?
A) Overshoot decreases as damping parameter increases
B) Decay ratio = 𝑒
C) Response time is the time needed to reach the response +/- 5% of its final
steady state value.
D) The rise time is a measure of speed of response
93.A manometer is 60 cm long and 6.3 mm inside diameter glass tube is half
filled with water. The manometer is subjected to a pressure differential of 3500
N/m2. Determine the time constant.
A) 0.60 seconds C) 0.12 seconds

B) 0.71 seconds D) 0.83 seconds
94.A manometer is 60 cm long and 6.3 mm inside diameter glass tube is half
filled with water. The manometer is subjected to a pressure differential of 3500
N/m2. Determine the time constant.
A) 0.05 C) 7
B) 6 D) 8
95.The overall transfer function for control system is given as, G(s) = . .
a
step change of magnitude 6 is given to system. Determine overshoot
A) 2.2% C) 5.4%
B) 25.3% D) 2.5%
a step change of magnitude 6 is given to system. Determine period of oscillation.
A) 1.44 time/cycle C) 3.42 time/cycle

B) 1.41 time/cycle D) 1.43 time/cycle
a step change of magnitude 6 is given to system. Determine natural period of
oscillation.
A) 3.14 time/cycle C) 16 time/cycle

B) 15 time/cycle D) 17 time/cycle
a step change of magnitude 6 is given to system. Determine rise time.
A) 6 unit of time C) 8 unit of time

B) 7 unit of time D) 1.09 unit of time
a step change of magnitude 6 is given to system. Determine ultimate value of
response.
A) 4 C) 16
B) 5 D) 7
a step change of magnitude 6 is given to system. Determine ultimate value of
response.
A) 7 C) 9
B) 8 D) 20
101.Which of the following statement is false?
A) A negative feedback control system ensures the stability.

B) For positive feedback control system error is an addition of set point and
measured value.
C) If in control system load variable does not changing with time then it is a servo
mechanism following control loop.
D) Regulatory mechanism is generally used in missile and air craft.
102.In air control open control valve _____
A) As pressure increases on spring loaded diaphragm from lower side, stream

move up and cross section available for flow increases.
B) As pressure increases on spring loaded diaphragm from upper side, stream
move up and cross section available for flow increases.
C) As pressure increases on spring loaded diaphragm from lower side, stream
move down and cross section available for flow increases.
D) As pressure increases on spring loaded diaphragm from upper side, stream
move down and cross section available for flow increases.
103.The response equation of valve for unit step change is ____Kv is a sensitivity
A) 𝐾 C) 𝐾
B) 𝐾 D) 𝐾
104.Which of the following is false statement?
A) With proportional controller only the control system is able to restrict the rise
of controlled variable and bring it to rest at new steady state value.
B) In PI controller additional integral action gives rise to addition of offset and
hence PI controller response is oscillatory in nature.
C) PD controller has almost same offset as that of proportional controller.
D) In PID controller the additional action of derivative gives rise to fewer
oscillations.
105.If the process gain is positive and control action is direct then type of control
valve to close is also called as,
A) Fail open C) Fail ON

B) Fail close D) Fail OFF
106.Which of the following is not an application of controllers?
A) Proportional controller can be used effectively for the control of liquid level
system.
B) PI controller can be used for both control of vapour pressure and flow control.
C) PD controller used for system in which more oscillatory response is desirable.
D) PID controller is used for control of temperature.
107.In case of inherent characteristics of valve, linear valve have,
A) Sensitivity is negligible.
B) Sensitivity is increases with increase in flow.
C) Sensitivity is decreases with decreases in flow.
D) Sensitivity is constant.
108.A step change of magnitude 4 is introduced into the PI controller. If the value
of Kc is 6 and reset rate is 0.5 What is a response equation of controller?
A) P (t) = [1 + t] C) P (t) = 3 [2 + t]
B) P (t) = 12 [2 + t] D) P (t) = [2 + t]
109.In PID controller, the error is increased linearly at the rate of 50C/Minute. The
value of Kc is 5, the reset rate is 1 and 𝜏 is 0.5. Obtain the integral time.
A) 1 C) 3.5
B) 2.5 D) 4.5
value of Kc is 5, the reset rate is 1 and 𝜏 is 0.5. Obtain the response of controller
at t = 0 minute
A) 12.5 C) 127
B) 126 D) 128
value of Kc is 5, the reset rate is 1 and 𝜏 is 0.5. Obtain the response of controller
at t = 1 minute
A) 4.9 C) 5.1
B) 50 D) 5.9
112.A unit step change in error is introduced into PID controller. If Kc = 10, 𝜏 = 1,
𝜏 = 0.5. what is the response equation of controller?
A) P (t) = [2 + t] C) P (t) = 2 [2 + t]
B) P (t) = 10 [1 + t] D) P (t) = 3 [2 + t]
113.A pneumatic controller has an output pressure of 10 bar when the set point
and pen point are together. The set point and pen point are suddenly displaced
by 0.5 cm. Given, slope of curve is 0.05. Determine integral time (𝜏 )
A) 2 seconds C) 40 seconds
B) 3 seconds D) 5 seconds
114.Which statement related to pneumatic control system is false?
A) The knob calibration for the various controllers parameter like gain, integral
time and derivative time are essential
B) Maintenance cost is less than electronic controller
C) Easy to repair than electronic controller
D) It is not suitable for hazardous chemical industries.
115. What is the Laplace transform of impulse input having magnitude 1 ?

A) 1/S C) 1/1+S
B) S D) 1
116. When the damping co-efficient (ξ) is unity, the system is
A) Overdamped.
B) Critically damped.
C) Underdamped.
D) Highly fluctuating.
117. Which is the symbol for "pneumatic control valve" ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
118. Bode stability method uses __________ loop transfer function.
A) open C ) open or close
B) closed D) neither open nor close
119. Phase lag of the frequency response of a second order system to a sinusoidal
forcing function
A) is 30° C) approaches 180° asymptotically
B) is 90° at the most D) is 120°
120. The root locus method, a pole of a transfer function G(s) is the value of s for
which G(s) approaches
A) -1 B) 0 C) 1 D) ∞
Plant Design, Economics & Costing (CHC-404) /
Project Engineering and Economics (CHL-405)
MCQ Question Bank
1. In a cash flow series __________.
A) Uniform gradient signifies that an income or disbursement changes by the same
amount in each interest period
B) Either an increase or decrease in the amount of a cash flow is called the gradient
C) The gradient in the cash flow may be positive or negative
D) All of these
2. The ratio of current assets to current liabilities is known as __________.
A) Liquidity ratio B) Current ratio
C) Acid-Test (or Quick) ratio D) Debts ratio
3. Current assets less inventories divided by current liabilities is known as __________.
A) Liquidity ratio B) Current ratio
C) Acid-Test (or Quick) ratio D) Debts ratio
4. The interest calculated on the basis of 365 days a year, is known as __________.
A) Exact simple interest B) Regular interest
C) Ordinary simple interest D) None of these
5. The wages of supervisors and material handlers are charged as __________.
A) Over head B) Direct labour cost
C) Indirect labour cost D) None of these
6. The main object of providing depreciation is __________.
A) To reduce tax B) To calculate true profit
C) To show true financial position D) None of these
7. Depreciation is a process of __________.
A) Valuation B) Replacement
C) Allocation D) None of these
8. Under the straight line method of providing depreciation it __________.
A) increase every year
B) decrease every year
C) may increase or decrease every year depending on asset value
D) remain constant every year
9. Under diminishing balance method, depreciation is calculated on __________.
A) scrap value B) original value
C) asset value D) book value
10. The full form of PERT is __________.
A) Program Evaluation and Review Technique
B) Program Evaluation and Recent Technique
C) Program Evaluation and Reduction Technique
D) Project Evaluation and Review Technique
11. __________ are used to represent activity in a network diagram.
A) Circles B) Arrows
C) Squares D) Rectangles
12. The shortest possible time in which an activity can be achieved under ideal
circumstances is known as __________.
A) Expected time estimate B) Pessimistic time estimate
C) Optimistic time estimate D) The most likely time estimate
13. According to the time estimates made by the PERT planners, the maximum time that
would be needed to complete an activity is called __________.
A) Expected time estimate B) Pessimistic time estimate
C) Optimistic time estimate D) The most likely time estimate
14. A __________ is a set of activities which are networked in an order and aimed
towards achieving the goals of a project.
A) Project B) Process
C) Project management D) Project cycle
15. The project life cycle consists of __________.
A) Understanding the scope of the project
B) Objectives of the project
C) Formulation and planning various activities
D) All of the above
16. Following are the phases of Project Management Life Cycle. Arrange them in correct
order 1. Design, 2. Marketing, 3. Analysis and evaluation, 4. Inspection, testing &
delivery.
A) 1-2-3-4 B) 3-1-2-4
C) 3-2-1-4 D) 4-3-2-1
17. Five dimensions that must be managed on a project __________.
A) Constraint, Quality, Cost, Schedule, Staff
B) Features, priority, Cost, Schedule, Staff
C) Features, Quality, Cost, Schedule, customer
D) Features, Quality, Cost, Schedule, Staff
18. “Space available in vertical and horizontal directions is most effectively utilized” is
known as the principle of __________.
A) Minimum distance B) Cubic space utilization
C) Flexibility D) Flow
19. In which of the following layout type, materials are fed into the first machine and
finished products come out of the last machine?
A) Product layout B) Process layout
C) Fixed position layout D) Cellular manufacturing layout
20. Which of the following is the first step in making a correct location choice?
A) Develop location alternatives
B) Evaluate the alternatives
C) Decide the criteria for evaluating location alternatives
D) Make a decision and select the location
21. Who introduced the bar charts?
A) Williams Henry B) Henry Gantt
C) Jane Gantt D) Joseph Henry
22. Which grade of stainless steel is known as acid proof steel?
A) AISI 304 B) SIS 2333
C) AISI 316 D) SIS 2359
23. Which among the following is not a permanent wielding connection?
A) Sampling device B) Reducers
C) Bends D) Tees
24. What are the reasons causing pressure drop in hydraulic systems?
i. Long length of pipe ii. Friction
iii. Type of fluid iv. Losses in valves and bends
A) i and iv B) Only i
C) ii and iii D) i, ii, iii and iv
25. Calculate area of a pipe if, flow rate is 20 l/min and flow velocity is 5 cm/s.
A) 66.66 cm2 B) 60 cm2
C) 62 cm2 D) 64 cm2
26. Which formula is used to calculate head loss in valves?
A) K2 (v/2 g) B) K (v2/2 g)
C) K (v/2 g) D) K3 (v2/2 g)
27. Which of the following valves is used to maintain pressure in the system?
A) Pressure relief valve B) Manual control valve with variable flow plug
C) Check valve D) Pneumatic control valve with variable-flow plug
28. Valves with constant outlet pressure are used after which of the following machines?
A) Separator B) Pasteurizer
C) Filling machine Homogenizer
29. With increasing flow rate, the hydraulic efficiency of a centrifugal pump __________.
A) remains constant B) decreases and then increases
C) monotonically decreases D) increases and then decreases
30. Which of the following facilitates close control of flow of fluids?
A) Gate valve B) Check valve
C) Butterfly valve D) Globe valve
31. Who are the customers of the occupational safety function?
A) All employees in an organization
B) All employees in an organization and the community as a whole
C) The safety manager, supervisor, peers, and subordinates
D) From the CEO-level of management to the line work
32. Plant layout is a design for the floor plan of a plant which aims __________.
A) to improve efficiency by arranging equipment according to its function.
B) to improve efficiency by arranging equipment according to its cost.
C) to improve efficiency by arranging equipment according to its grade.
D) to improve efficiency by arranging equipment according to its Location.
33. Which of the following is not a principle of good plant layout?
A) Minimum movement B) Maximum accessibility
C) Maximum flexibility D) Minimum visibility
34. Centrifugal pump is normally classified on the basis of the __________.
A) type of casing B) number of blades in impeller
C) impeller blade angle D) rpm
35. Safety valves are provided in chemical equipments to guard against excessive
__________.
A) temperature B) pressure/pressure fluctuation
C) turbulence D) noise
36. Which is the most effective method of reducing contamination to workers?
A) PPE B) Fans
C) Engineering controls D) Administration controls
37. The fluid used in hydraulic controller is __________.
A) water B) steam
C) air D) oil
38. Positioning controllers are used for __________.
A) temperature changes B) high loads
C) low loads D) flow rate changes
39. On-off controllers are normally used for __________.
A) high loads B) temperature changes
C) low loads D) flow rate changes
40. Which of the following controllers has the maximum offset?
A) P controller B) P-I controller
C) P-D controller D) P-I-D controller
41. Any other element in array is replaced by new value, which is calculated by relation
_________.
A) NV= [PV - (PC - PR / P )] B) NV= [PV + (PR - PC / P )]
C) NV= [PV - (PR - PC / P )] D) NV= [PV - (PR + PC / P )]
42. The earliest start time rule __________.

A) Compares the activities end time for an activity predecessor
B) Compares the activities starting time for an activity successor
C) Directs when a project can start
D) Regulates when a project must begin
43. Which of the following statement is true in terms of scheduling a project by CPM?
A) A project is not divided into various activities
B) A sequence of various activities is made according to their importance
C) Required time for each activity is not established
D) All the above
44. Solve the LPP by simplex method, Max Z= 3X1 + 5X2 +4 X3, Subject to constraint
2X1 + 3X2 ≤ 8, 2X2 +5 X3 ≤ 10, 3X1 + 2X2 +4X3 ≤ 15. The most negative value
in first array is _________.
A) -8 B) -6
C) -3 D) -5
45. Solve the following Equation and find out the value of D.C.C.F.R.O.R. 45,000 (1 + I)
9
= 199575.
A) 0.166 B) 0.144
C) 0.145 D) -0.145
46. During which stages of risk planning, risks are prioritized based on probability and
impact?
A) Monitor and control risks B) Perform Qualitative risk analysis
C) Plan risk management D) Identify Risks
47. Find out the prime cost for following data: (All figures are in Rs) Stock of raw
material as on 01-01-2008 = 33280, Purchase of raw material = 759200, Stock of raw
material as on 31-12-2008 = 35360, Productive wages = 516880.
A) 7,57,120 B) 7,92,480
C) 12,74,000 D) 12,84,000
48. Cost of Production is a combination of _________.
A) Prime cost & Factory Expenses B) Total cost & Profit
C) M.F cost & S.D. Expenses D) Factory cost & Administrative Expenses
49. _________ Element of cost analysis is included in administrative Over Head Charges.
A) Show room Charges B) Repair of Machine
C) Wages to Watchman D) Audit Charges
50. In tank firm cum utility block diagram minimum distance between storage tank and
pump or any other equipment is given by _________.
A) 650 mm to 850 mm B) 700 mm to 900 mm
C) 750 mm to 1000 mm D) 800 mm to 950 mm
* * * * *
CHL314 PETROLEUM REFINING ENGINEERING (ELECTIVE)
1. Aniline point test quantitatively indicates the ______content of an

oil.
A)Paraffin B) Olefins C) Aromatics D) Naphthene .
2. Gasolene yield in naptha catalytic reforming is_____% by wt
A)50 B) 65 C) 85 D) 96
3. The main aim of cracking is to produce.
A) DIESEL B) KEROSENE C) GASOLENE D) LUBE OIL
4. The characterization factors is calculated as 12.5, it means that, it

is
A) naphthenic B) intermidiate C) paraffinic D) olefinic
5.Which is desirable in petrol but not in kerosene.
A) paraffins B) naphthenes C) aromatics D) olefins
6. Main constitutes of natural gas is
A) propane B) ehthylene C) methane D) ethane
7. _____is non generative fixed bed catalytic reforming process.
A) hydroforming B) thermofer catalytic reforming C)

platforming D) hyperforming
8. molecular weight of crude petroleum around
A) 50 B) 150 C) 1500 D) 15000
9. The characterization factor of crude petroleum oil is around
A) 1 B) 3 C) 11 D)22
10. Gum formation in stored gasoline is mainly due to the_____
A) oxygen B) phosphorus C) sulphur D) nitrogen

11.Which of the following unleaded gasoline has the least octane
number
A) catalytically cracked gasolene B) polymer gasolene
C) straight run gasolene D) catalytically reformed gasolene
12. Gasolene has high lead succeptibility in_______.
A) catalytically cracked gasolene B) polymer gasolene
C) straight run gasolene D) catalytically reformed gasolene
13. Pyrolysis of kerosene mainly produces__________
A) lighter paraffins B) stabilized gasolene
C)olefins and aromatics D) diesel
14. Pyrolysis of natural gasolenes mainly produces__________
A) lighter paraffins B) stabilized gasolene
C)olefins and aromatics D) diesel
15. ______ is desirable in diesel and kerosene but not in gasoline.
A) mercaptons B) paraffins C)aromatics D) naphthenes
16. Octane number of normal heptanes is assumed to be____.
A) 100 B) 50 C) 0 D) infinite
17. Waxes present in petroleum products
A) can be separated out by distillation B) not soluble in them
C)crystallize out at low temp. D)decrease their viscosity
18._______process consume hydrogen.
A)visbreaking B) propane disphalting
C)fluid catalytic cracking D) thermal cracking
19. Octane number of reformed gasoline upto _____
A) 10 B) 20 C)90 D) 500
20. Sour crude bearing
A)asphalt B) wax C)sulphur D) nitrogen
21. Penetration test determines the ___________of the grease.
A)viscosity B) temperature C)stiffness D) oilness
22. ________additives improve cetane number of diesel.
A)tetra methyl lead B) amyl nitrate
C)tetraethyl lead D) naphthenic acid
23. catalyst used in alkylation process is
A)silica gel B) alumina C)sulphuric acid D) nickel
24.Molecular weight of petrol around
A)40-60 B) 250=300 C)100-130 D) 350-500
25. ______added to increase octane number of petrol.
A)tetra methyl lead B) amyl nitrate
C)tetraethyl lead D) naphthenic acid
26. tetraethyl lead added to increase octane number of petrol,

because its octane number is
A)less than 25 B) between 25 to 75 C) more than 100 D) 0
27. Octane number of motor gasolene used in India and USA is

respectively
A)94 & 100 B) 83 & 100 C)87 & 94 D) 94 & 87
28. Most effective catalyst used in catalytic cracking of petroleum

products is
A)iron oxide B) vanadium pentaxide C)zeolite D) nickel

29.Alkylation causes olefins to combine ____________
A) with each other B) with olefins
C) with iso paraffins D) with paraffins
30._________has the highest viscosity at the given temperature.
A)light diesel oil B) petrol C)fuel oil D) naptha
31. Gasolene extracted from natural gas by compression and cooling

is called _____gasolene.
A)polymer B) casing head C)unleaded D) straight run
32. __________has the highest octane number.
A)iso paraffins B) oleffins C)aromatics D) naphthenes
33. Cracking is _____reaction.
A)reversible B) favoured at very low temperature

C)endothermic D)exothermic
34. Aromatics are desired constituents of________
A)lubricating oil B) diesel C)petrol D) kerosene
35._____determination is not very significant and important test for

gasolene.
A)gum and sulphur content B) octane number
C)viscosity D) reid vapor pressure
36.Catalyst used in catalytic cracking is
A)nickel B) vanadium pentaxide C)silica alumina D) silica gel
37. Naphthenic acid is ______compound.
A)sulphur B) nitrogen C)oxygen D) phosphorus
38. ________has maximum API Gravity.
A)diesel B) kerosene C)petrol D) furnace oil

39.Quinoline is a/an_________compound.
A)phosphorus B) oxygen C)nitrogen D) sulphur
40. Flash point of motor gasoline may be around
A)10 B) 100 C)45 D) 150
41.Smoke point of kerosene may be around____mm.
A)0-5 B) 10-15 C) 20-25 D) 100-120
42. ________has mimimum API Gravity.
A)diesel B) kerosene C) furnace oil D) petrol
43. The reid vapor pressure is the measure of its____
A)carbon residue B) cloud point
C)vapor locking tendency D) pour point
44._______has maximum H/C ratio by wt.
A)naptha B) diesel C)gasolene D) fuel oil
45.________has lowest cetane number.
A)naphthenes B) olefins C)aromatics D) iso paraffins
46._______test for softening point of bitumen
A)flame B) viscosity C)ball and ring D) impact
47.Natural gasoline produced from______
A) oil refineries B) kerosene
C)natural gas sripping D) oil wells
48. Pour point and freezing point is equal for____
A)diesel B) kerosene C)water D) petrol
49. casing head gasoline is the liquid ___
A)hexane B) natural gas C)butane D) propane

50.____has lowest viscosity at given temp.
A)diesel B) kerosene C)naphtha D) lube oil
51.High aniline point of diesel indicates_____
A)large ignition delay B) low diesel index
C)highly paraffinic D)highly aromatic
52.catalyst used in isomerisation is _____
A)phosphoric acid B) alumina C)aluminium chloride D) nickel
53. ________most important property of jet fuel.
A)cloud point B) pour point C)freezing point D) colour
54.______ is the naphthene.
A)butene B) butadien C)cyclohexane D)acetylene
55.__________has lowest flash point.
A)diesel B) kerosene C)petrol D) furnace oil
56. ________converts n-paraffins to isoparaffins.
A)copolymerisation B) polymerisation C)isomerisation D)

alkylation
57._________contain minimum sulphur.
A)furnace oil B) LSHS C)naphtha D) kerosene
58. Visbreaking_______
A)uses natural gas as feed B) carried out at atmospheric pressure

C)produces fuel oil of lower viscosity D) produces gasoline only
59. Solvent used for dewaxing of petroleum products are_________
A)hexane B) MEK C)propane D) furfural

60. LPG is the mixture of propane and ____
A)pentane B) hexane C)butane D) methane
61. Petroleum obtained in earth’s crust, specially in__________
A) Liquid state B) Solid State C) All States D)

Gaseous state
62] In petroleum the elements O2, N2, S constitutes about ______,

including different metals in traces.
A) 11% B) 8% C) 14% D) 9%
63] Mendeleeff and Berthelot, were caught up with the idea of explaining
reasons for petroleum deposits. Their explanation was based upon the
___________, mainly on the activity of __________ series.
A) Oganic and Ethylene B) Organic and Acetylene
C) Inorganic and Ethylene D) Inorganic and Acetylene
64] The range of radio isotopes of carbon _______ is within the ranges
of natural carbonaceous materials and not from ________, as they do
not have any chance to absorb radioactivity.
A) C12-C13, Organics B) C11-C12, Organics
C) C12-C13, Inorganics D) C11-C12,

Inorganics
65] Petroleum is associated with _________ rocks
A) Sedimentary B) Igneous
C) Argillaceous D) Metamorphic
66] The highest Carbon atom present in crude is_____
A) C60 B) C172 C) C70 D) C178
67] Unsaturates are formed during ___________.
A) Vaccum Distillation B) Coking
C) Atmospheric Distillation D) Cracking

68] In case of Naphthenes, although C3 and C4 structures are in
existence, their stability is decreased because of excessive ________
A) Strain B) Stress C) Vibrations D) Weak Bonding
69] Generally sulphur compounds are present in more quantities in

________________.
A) Low molecular weight stocks B) High molecular weight stocks
C) Middle Distillates D) lighter Distillates
70] Formula for Mercaptans is ____________
A) CnH2n+1 SH B) CnHn-1 SH C) CnH2n-1 SH D) CnHn+1 SH
71] Nitrogen presence in free form __________
A) Gasoline B) Natural gas C) CNG D) Lighter

crude
72] Asphalts are mostly soluble in ________ and Carbon disulphides.
A) Organic solvents B) Polar solvents C) Aromatic solvents D)

Inorganic solvents
73] Ash formation is mainly due to metals and _________
A) Inorganics B) Organics C) Sediments

D) Heavy carbons
74] Lube has boiling range of ___________ at a pressure of 40 mm of

Hg.
A) 250-275 OC B) 398-422 OC C) 275-300 OC

D) 389-422 OC
75] Residue containing 2%- 5% paraffins is considered as ________

crude
A) Paraffinic B) Naphthenic C) Aromatic D) Mixed

76] Important property of LPG fuel mixture is __________
A) Vapour Temp. B) Vapour Pressure C) Vapour Composition D)

Vapour evaporated
77] Specific heat of petroleum fraction depends upon Gravity and

_________.
A) Density B) Temperature C) Heat Capacity D)

Viscocity
78] With ________ density the specific heat decreases
A) Constant B) Decrease in C) Decrease and then slightly

increase in D) Increase in
79] From paraffins to aromatics heat of combustion __________
A) Increases B) Decreases C) Varies linearly D)

Remains steady
80] Petroleum is a mixture of hydrocarbons has boiling range of – 160 to

______0C
A) 8000C B) 9000C C) 10000C D) 12000C
81] Pitch having boiling range of ___________
A) 400 to 6000C B) 600 to 8000C C) 800 to 10000C D) above 10000C
82] The maximum pressure in Atm. Distillation Unit reaches to

___________
A) 1 atm. B) 2 atm. C) 3 atm. D) 4 atm.
83] The max. temp. in topping operations of Atm. Distillation Unit is

allowed as _________
A) 3550C B) 3650C C) 3750C. D) 3850C
84] In ADU, the crude degrades due to thermal cracking above the
temperature_______
A) 3450C B) 3550C C) 3650C. D) 3750C

85] To avoid the load on ADU, the preflashing is done due to crude
contains _______
A) soluble gas B) insoluble gas C) heavy fraction D) condensed

distillate
86] Preflashing is conducted in ADU, at 1000C under a pressure

__________.
A) 1-2 atm B) 2-3 atm C) 3-5 atm D) upto 1 atm
87] Preflashing is conducted in ADU, at 1000C to remove__________
A) soluble gas B) insoluble gas C) heavy fraction D) light ends
88] Every plate act as true fractionator in ________ arrangement of

distillation towers.
A) top tray reflux B) pump back reflux C) pump around reflux D)

reflux fractinator
89] Reflux is provided in regular intervals in_________ arrangement of

distillation towers.
A) top tray reflux B) pump back reflux
C) pump around reflux D) reflux fractionator
90] To build up of vapor, larger tower diameter is required in________

arrangement of distillation towers.
A) top tray reflux B) pump back reflux C) pump around reflux D)

reflux fractionator
91] In VDU, the temperature of reduced crude at flash zone is around

350 0C to _______
A) 3750C B) 4000C C) 4250C D) 4500C
92] In VDU, the pressure in flash zone is around 30 to ____ mm
A) 60 mm B) 90 mm C) 40 mm D) 70 mm
93] In VDU, the pressure for long Residuums is around 40 to____ mm
A) 50 mm B) 60 mm C) 80 mm D) 70 mm
94] In VDU, the pressure at top of the column is around 12 to____ mm
A) 20 mm B) 15 mm C) 18 mm D) 21 mm
95] In VDU, the temperature at top of the column is around 225 to ____
A) 2600C B) 2500C C) 2750C D) 3000C
96] Vapor pressure of LPG at 650C is _____in kg/cm2.
A) 4 to10 B) 10 to 26 C) 26 to 32 D) 32 to 38
97] 95% Evaporation temperature of LPG is ______
A) - 1 0C B) - 2 0C C) – 3 0C D) - 4 0C
98] As per specification of motor gasoline, maximum. lead content in

gm/lit ________
A) 0.53 B) 0.54 C) 0.55 D) 0.56
99] As per specification of motorgasoline,minimum residue on

evaporation in gm/100ml ____
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5
100] As per specification of kerosene, maximum char value is 20

________
A) mg/gm of oil consumed B) gm/gm of oil consumed
C) gm/kg of oil consumed D) mg/kg of oil consumed
101] As per specification of high speed diesel oil, the max.sediment by

extraction in wt% is _____
A) 0.05 B) 0.5 C) 0.15 D) 1.1
102] As per specification of high speed diesel oil, the max.water content
in vol.% is _____
A) 0.05 B) 0.5 C) 0.15 D) 1.1

103] As per specification of high speed diesel oil, the max.total sulphur
content in wt.% is _____
A) 0.05 B) 0.5 C) 0.15 D) 1.1
104] As per specification of high speed diesel oil, the max.ash content
in wt.% is _____
A) 0.05 B) 0.5 C) 0.1 D) 0.01
105] As per specification of high speed diesel oil, the max. carbon
residue by ramsbottom method in wt.% is _____
A) 0.02 B) 0.5 C) 0.1 D) 0.2
106] As per specification of kerosene, the max. total sulphur content in

wt.% is _____
A) 0.1 B) 0.5 C) 0.25 D) 0.2
107] As per specification of kerosene, the min.flash pt.by Abel method

in 0C is _____
A) 30 B) 35 C) 45 D) 48
108] As per specification of motor gasoline, the max. total sulphur

content in wt.% is _____
A) 0.1 B) 0.5 C) 0.25 D) 0.2
109] As per specification of motor gasoline, the reid vapor pressure at

380C, max. is _____
A) 0.4 B) 0.5 C) 0.6 D) 0.7
110] In Visbreaking operation, the cracking temperature 0C range is

425 to ____
A) 440 0C B) 460 0C C) 490 0C D) 510 0C
111] In high temperature cooking operation, the cracking temperature

range in 0C 800 to____
A) 800 B) 1000 C) 1200 D) above 1200

112] In Thermal cracking operation, the cracking temperature range in
0C is 460 to _____
A) 520 B) 600 C) 800 D) 900
113] In Low temperature cooking operation, the cracking temperature

range in 0C is 520 to ___
A) 550 B) 600 C) 800 D) 850
114] The product in Visbreaking operation is________
A) gasoline B) gas and unsaturates C) tar oils D) fuel oil
115] The product formed during decomposition above 10000C is

________
A) pitch B) carbon black C) tar oils D) fuel oil
116] The product obtained in high temperature cooking operation

is________
A) pitch or coke B) carbon black C) H2 gas D) fuel oil
117] In catalytic cracking, heavy oils converted into _______.
A) gasoline B) gas and unsaturates C) lube oil D) fuel oil
118] In Fluidized Catalytic Cracking, most of the cracking reactions

occurred in________
A) Regenerator and flue section B) Reactor C) Regenerator

D) Risers
119] Asphalts are high molecular weight complex molecules soluble in

________
A) carbon tetrachloride B) carbon disulphide C) water D)

petroleum ether
120] Bitumen is made by ________
A) asphalts & resins B) resins & mineral oils
C) mineral oils & asphalts D) mineral oils, asphalts & resins

121. Cetane number can be calculated from______
A) viscosity index B) characterization factor
C)diesel index D) octane number

(CHL-316) Industrial Pollution Control
MCQ Question Bank
1. Fine particles of the size ranging from 0.01 to 1 micro meter which can be liquid or
solid is called as __________.
A) Dust B) Smoke
C) Mist D) Aerosol
2. Particulates (< 1μm size) remaining suspended in air indefinitely and transported by
wind currents are called __________.
A) aerosols B) mists
C) fumes D) smoke
3. The true statement about ‘greenhouse effect’ is that it is __________.
A) caused by CO2 Only B) caused by combination of many gases
C) caused by NO2 Only D) caused only by CO2, CFC, CH4 & NO2 gases
4. The mass concentration of air pollutant is the ratio of __________.
A) Mass of pollutant to the mass of air
B) Mass of pollutant to the weight of air
C) Mass of pollutant to the mass of air plus mass of pollutant
D) Mass of air to the mass of pollutant
5. For the survival of fish in a river stream, the minimum dissolved oxygen prescribed is
__________.
A) 4 ppm B) 3 ppm
C) 2 ppm D) 1 ppm
6. Smog is __________.
A) A natural phenomenon B) A combination of smoke and fog
C) Is colourless D) All of the above
7. Mass volume concentration of air pollutant is equal to the ratio of __________.
A) Mass of pollutant to the volume of air
B) Mass of air to the volume of pollutant plus volume of air
C) Volume of air to the mass of pollutant plus mass of air
D) Mass of pollutant to the volume of air plus volume of pollutant
8. The process taking place inside clouds, where the contaminants serve as condensation
nuclei on which droplets condense is __________ process.
A) Diffusion B) Sedimentation
C) Rainout D) Wash out
9. The screens are fixed __________.
A) at an angle 30° to 60° to the direction of flow
B) perpendicular to the direction of flow
C) parallel to the direction of flow
D) at an angle 60° to 90° to the direction of flow
10. Bio-chemical oxygen demand (BOD) for the first 20 days in generally referred to
__________.
A) carbonaceous demand B) first stage demand
C) initial demand D) all of these
11. By using conductometric analysis we can analyze the concentration of SO2 up to
__________ concentration
A) 1.0 ppm B) 0.1 ppm
C) 0.01 ppm D) 10 ppm
12. The coagulant widely used for sewage treatment is __________.
A) chlorinated copperas B) ferric chloride
C) ferric sulphate D) alum
13. By using chemiluminescent analyzer, we can analyse __________.\
A) NO B) NO2
C) N2O D) NO3
14. The amount of oxygen consumed by the aerobic bacteria’s which cause the aerobic
biological decomposition of sewage, is known __________.
A) Chemical Oxygen Demand B) Bio-Chemical Oxygen Demand
C) Dissolved Oxygen D) None of these.
15. Solid particles of the size ranging from 0.1 to 1 micro meter is called as __________.
A) Smoke B) Fumes
C) Dust D) Mist
16. Gas leaked in Bhopal tragedy __________.
A) Sodium isothiocyanate B) Potassium isothoiocynate
C) Ethyl isocyanate D) Methyl isocyanate
17. The algae dies out in the zone of __________.
A) degradation B) cleaner water
C) active decomposition D) recovery
18. The pH value of fresh sewage is usually __________.
A) equal to 7 B) less than 7
C) more than 7 D) equal to zero
19. Which method can be used to make ocean water fit for drinking?
A) Boiling B) Reverse osmosis
C) Filtration D) Chlorination
20. The spacing of bars of perforations of fine screens used for the treatment of sewage, is
__________.
A) 5 to 8 mm B) 3 to 5 mm
C) 2 to 3 mm D) 8 to 10 mm.
21. Depletion of ozone layer in the outer atmosphere may cause __________.
A) heart disorder B) bronchitis
C) skin cancer D) lung cancer
22. The volume concentration of air pollutant in parts per million is equal to __________.
A) yp x 106 B) yp x 10-6
C) yp x 109 D) yp x 10-9
23. Which process during wastewater treatment helps in killing germs?
A) Sedimentation B) Flocculation
C) Aeration D) Chlorination
24. Which of these diseases can happen from drinking contaminated water?
A) Small pox B) Cholera
C) Malaria D) Pneumonia
25. The mechanism refers to the removal of pollutants below the cloud is __________.
A) Diffusion B) Rainout
C) Washout D) Sedimentation
26. What type of membranes are used in membrane bioreactors?
A) Microfiltration only. B) Ultrafiltration only.
C) Nanofiltration only. D) Microfiltration or ultrafiltration.
27. The critical element in the reverse osmosis process is the __________.
A) Membrane B) Osmotic pressure
C) Solvent flux D) Pressure gradient
28. The total solids in wastewater would be a combination of __________.
A) Fixed solids and settle able solids
B) Dissolved solids and suspended solids
C) Dissolved solids and volatile solids
D) Suspended solids and fixed solids
29. Which process provides the best effluent quality for water reuse?
A) Conventional activated sludge process with media filters.
B) Trickling filters.
C) Membrane bioreactor.
D) Aerated lagoons.
30. The high volume filtration method popular for measurement of mass concentration of
suspended particulates smaller than __________.
A) 10 µm B) 20 µm
C) 30 µm D) 15 µm
31. The primary cause of worldwide water pollution is __________.
A) industry B) domestic use
C) agriculture D) in-stream use
32. The collection efficiency of electrostatic precipitator depends on __________.
A) the electrode area B) the particle drift velocity
C) the gas flow rate D) all of the above
33. At what DC voltage, a corona discharge occurs close to the negative electrode of
electrostatic ppt __________.
A) 40-50 KV B) 50-60 KV
C) 60-70 KV D) 70-80 KV
34. The operation of a cyclone separator relies on __________.
A) centrifugal force acting on the particle
B) producing an electric charge on the particle to be collected and then directing it by
electrostatic forces to the collecting electrodes
C) creation of intimate contact between a stream of gas & flow of scrubbing liquor
D) diffusion of dust particles
35. In a flame photometric analyzer, sulphur is ignited in a H2-rich flame a characteristics
flame emission spectrum is produced with a band centered at __________.
A) 392 mµ B) 398 mµ
C) 396 mµ D) 394 mµ
36. The stage in wastewater treatment plants that uses biological processes to purify water
is called __________.
A) wastewater reduction B) primary sewage treatment
C) biochemical reduction D) all of the above
37. For a given particle size the collection efficiency of a cyclone separator __________.
A) will be increased at higher pressure drops
B) will be decreased at higher pressure drops
C) will not be affected by changing pressure drop
D) none of the above
38. In the electrostatic precipitator __________.
A) low conductivity material is more easily collected
B) high conductivity material is more easily collected
C) electrical conductivity of material is not an important factor
39. In a fabric filter the pressure drop __________.
A) increases directly as density of the gas and independent of the viscosity of the gas
B) increases directly as density of the gas and inversely as viscosity of the gas
C) increases directly as viscosity of the gas and inversely as density of the gas
40. By suing non-dispersive infrared spectrophotometer we can analyze __________.
A) SO2 B) CO2
C) NO2 D) CO
41. By using flame ionization detector, we can analyze __________.
A) CO B) CO2
C) HC D) SO2
42. Carbon monoxide is a pollutant because it __________.
A) Reacts with O2 B) Reacts with haemoglobin
C) Inhibits glycolysis D) Inactivates nervous system
43. Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) in a river water __________.
A) increases when sewage gets mixed with river water
B) Remains unchanged when algal bloom occurs
C) Has no relationship with concentration of oxygen in the water
D) Gives a measure of salmonella in the water
44. Lagoons may be characterized as __________.
A) anaerobic B) facultative
C) aerated D) all of these
45. Zeolite softening process removes __________.
A) only temporary hardness of water
B) only permanent hardness of water
C) both temporary and permanent hardness of water
D) the dissolved gases in permanent hard water
46. Conventional tertiary treatment is __________.
A) chemical coagulation and flocculation B) filtration
C) sedimentation D) none of these
47. The chemical oxygen demand (COD) measures the __________.
A) amount of oxygen required for growth of microorganisms in water
B) amount of oxygen that would be removed from water in order to oxidize pollutant
C) amount of oxygen required to oxidize the calcium present in waste water
48. Temporary hardness of water is caused by the presence of __________.
A) chlorides of calcium & magnesium B) sulphates of calcium and magnesium
C) carbonates of sodium & potassium D) bicarbonates of calcium & magnesium
49. Which of the following chemical is sometime added in the process of coagulation and
flocculation?
A) Aluminium sulphate B) Aluminium oxide
C) Calcium chloride D) None of these
50. Both temporary and permanent hardness of water can be removed on boiling water
with __________.
A) calcium hydroxide B) sodium carbonate
C) calcium oxide D) calcium carbonate
51. BOD of a pond is related to __________ in per unit volume of water.
A) All the plants B) All the nektons
C) All the microbes D) All the animals
52. The activated sludge process consists of returning a portion of the clarifier
__________.
A) effluent water entering the reactor
B) influent water coming out of the reactor
C) effluent water coming out of the reactor
D) influent water entering the reactor
53. The Total dissolved solids (TDS) can be reduced by the following method
__________.
A) Distillation B) Reverse osmosis
C) Ion exchange D) All of the above
54. Nowadays, a membrane technique, which removes almost all minerals and salts from
water, is being used to purify water. What is this method known as?
A) Distillation B) Sedimentation
C) Reverse osmosis D) Boiling
55. In electro dialysis process, the electric power requirements is proportional to the
number of __________ removed from the water.
A) Ions B) Total solid
C) Suspended solid D) Organic molecules
56. Acid rain is caused by increase in the atmospheric concentration of __________.
A) Ozone and dust B) SO2 and NO2
C) SO3 and CO D) CO2 and CO
57. The centrifugal force can be expressed as __________.
A) MVɵ/r B) MVɵ2/r
C) ½ MVɵ2 D) MVɵ2/gr
58. The principal source of volatile organics (Hydrocarbons) is __________.
A) Industrial processes B) Transportation
C) Stationary fuel combustion D) Volcanoes
59. Highly corrosive air pollutants are widely removed by using __________.
A) Absorption tower B) Spray Tower
C) Centrifugal Scrubber D) Venture scrubber
60. Fluoride pollution mainly affects __________.
A) Kidney B) Brain
C) Teeth D) Heart
* * * * *
(CHL-402)Transport Phenomena
MCQ Question Bank
1. The Jacobian for transformation from three dimensional Cartesian coordinates to

spherical polar coordinates is __________.
A) . B) .
2
C) . . D) .
2. In the boundary layer, the flow is __________.
A) viscous and rotational B) inviscid and irrotational
C) inviscid and rotational D) viscous and irrotational
3. Which of the following plays an important role in problems of simultaneous heat and
mass transfer?
A) Sherwood number. B) Lewis number.
C) Schmidt number. D) Prandtl number.
4. Select the relation between Hydrodynamic Boundary Layer Thickness and
Concentration Boundary Layer Thickness for single power velocity profile.
A) Sh = 0.288 (Sc) 0.50. (Re) 0.33 B) Sh = 0.345 (Re) 0.50. (Sc) 0.33
C) Sh = 0.288 (Re) 0.50. (Sc) 0.33 D) Sh = 0.345 (Sc) 0.50. (Re) 0.33
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5. For velocity profile U = Umax [1 - r/R] , average velocity (Ub) is given by _______.
A) 0.917 Umax B) 0.817 Umax

C) 0.717 Umax D) 0.617 Umax
1/7
6. If velocity profile is given by U = Umax [1 - r/R] , then velocity momentum
correction factor (β) and velocity Energy correction factor (α) is given by _______.
A) α = 0.214 β= 0.357 B) α = 0.215 β= 0.358
C) α = 0.216 β= 0.359 D) α = 0.217 β= 0.360
7. Calculate average value of free convection heat transfer coefficient using Grashoff
analogy data: Gr =2.04 X 107, Pr = 0.697, Thermal Conductivity = 0.02791 w/m0c.
A) 6.74 w/m2.0C B) 7.74 w/m2.0C
C) 8.74 w/m2.0C D) 9.74 w/m2.0C
8. Colburn analogy for calculating Km relation for Sc & velocity in case of Turbulent
flow is given by _______.
A) 0.662 (Re) -0.50 B) 0.552 (Re) -0.20
C) 0.332 (Re) -0.50 D) 0.442 (Re) -0.20
9. The ratio of Heat transfer between Horizontal & Vertical configuration, L/D is given
by _______.
A) 1.8 B) 2.8
C) 3.8 D) 4.8
10. Coordinate can be represented by Ur = Cosϴ [C/r2 - D], Uϴ = Sinϴ [C/r2 + D], Uz=0,
Equitation of Continuity is _______.
A) Unity B) Unsatisfied
C) Satisfied D) Infinity
11. A Newtonian fluid at steady state equitation of motion for spherical coordinate is
represented by µ {d/dr[1/r d/dr (r.uØ)]} = 0, velocity at uØ = _______.
A) [C1.r/2 + C2/r] B) C1.r/2 - C2/r]
C) [C1.r/2 X C2/r] D) [C1.r2/2 + C2/r2]
12. Water is flowing through a tube having 22 mm diameter at velocity 2.0 m/sec
Calculate heat transfer coefficient by Colburn equation if following data are given. K
= 0.63 w/m0C, µ = 0.645 X 10-3 N.S/m2, µw= 0.345 X 10-3 N.S/m2, Re= 127536, Pr
= 2.289.
A) 14513 w/m2.0C B) 12513 w/m2.0C
C) 13513 w/m2.0C D) 10513 w/m2.0C
13. + + = 0 is a continuity equation for __________.
A) cylindrical coordinates in r, θ, φ direction with compressible fluid

B) rectangular coordinates in r, θ, z direction with compressible fluid
C) cylindrical coordinates in r, θ, z direction with incompressible fluid
D) rectangular coordinates in r, θ, φ direction with compressible fluid
14. Air at 300C blows over a flat plate 3 m long & at velocity 2.0 m/sec. The plate is at
temperature 1200C. The thermal boundary layer starts after 1.5 m. Find local heat
transfer coefficient. (hL). Density = 1.12 kg/m3, viscosity = 1.9 X 10-5 N.S/m2, K =
0.027 w/m.k.
CP = 1000 J/kg.K, Pr = 0.7034.
A) 1.13 w/m2.0C B) 2.13 w/m2.0C
C) 3.13 w/m2.0C D) 4.13 w/m2.0C
15. Consider an incompressible laminar boundary layer flow over a flat plate of length L,
aligned with the direction of an oncoming uniform free stream. If F the ratio of the
drag force on the front half of the plate to the drag force on the rear half, then
__________.
A) F < 0.5 B) F = 0.5
C) F = 1.0 D) F > 1.0
16. Air flow over a flat plate is at a velocity 40 m/s, skin friction coefficient at a point on
the plate is 0.0040. Calculate the value of local heat transfer coefficient for air flow
using Stanton analogy data: Pr = 0.674, St = h/38038.
A) 98.98 w/m2.0K B) 78.88 w/m2.0K
C) 88.88 w/m2.0K D) 68.88 w/m2.0K
17. The equation to a surface in spherical coordinates is given by φ=π/3. The surface is
__________.
A) A sector of a circle
B) A cone making an angle of π/3 with the z-axis
C) A vertical plane making an angle of π/3 with the x-axis
D) A vertical plane making an angle of π/3 with the z-axis
18. Rectangular coordinate system is also known as __________.
A) Space coordinate system B) Cartesian coordinate system
C) Polar coordinate system D) Planar coordinate system
19. The mass diffusivity, the thermal diffusivity and the eddy momentum diffusivity are
same for, NPr = NSc = _______.
A) 1.0 B) 0.5
C) 1.5 D) 2.0
20. Colburn analogy for calculating Km relation for Sc & velocity in case of Laminar
flow is given by _______.
A) 0.0696 (Re) -0.50 B) 0.0596 (Re) -0.50
C) 0.0496 (Re) -0.20 D) 0.0296 (Re) -0.20
21. Water is flowing through a tube having 22 mm diameter at velocity 2.0 m/sec
Calculate heat transfer coefficient by Dittos Belter equation if following data are
given. K = 0.63 w/m0C, µ = 0.645 X 10-3 N.S/m2, µ w= 0.345 X 10-3 N.S/m2, Re=
64234 Pr = 4.54.
A) 6463 w/m2.0C B) 7463 w/m2.0C
C) 9463 w/m2.0C D) 8463 w/m2.0C
22. A viscous oil at 350C flows over a flat plate of 5 m long and at velocity of 0.05 m/sec.
The plate is at temperature 950C. Find average heat transfer coefficient (hm).
Density = 960 kg/m3, Kinematic viscosity = 6.0 x 10-5 m2/sec, =7.0 x 10-8 m 2/sec,
K= 0.2 W/m.sec
A) 12.44 W/m2K B) 14.44 W/m2K
C) 15.44 W/m2K D) 16.44 W/m2K
23. Calculate the Reynolds Number for agitated vessel if diameter is 0.9 m, agitator
Rotates at 150 rpm, density = 720 Kg/m3, µ = 4.0 x 10-3 NS/m2.

A) 364500 B) 264500
C) 164500 D) 464500
24. The following Case represented the two velocity component v = 2y2, w = 2xyz find
3rd component of velocity such that they satisfy continuity equation.
du /dx + dv/ dy + dw /dz = 0
A) u = (-4xy – 2y x2 /2) + f (y x ) B) u = (-4xy – 2y x2 /2) + f (y z )
C) u = (-4xy – 2y x2 /2) + f (y v ) D) u = (-4xy – 2y x2 /2) + f (y u )
1/7
25. For velocity profile U = Umax [1 - r/R] , average velocity (Ub) is given by _______.
A) 0.917 Umax B) 0.817 Umax
C) 0.717 Umax D) 0.617 Umax
26. A fluid flow held is given by V = x2 yi + y2 zj – (2xyz +yz2) k, Calculate velocity
resulted at the point (2, 1, 3)
A) 19.58 units B) 20.50 units
C) 18.50 units D) 21.58 units
27. Identify the following derivative as substantial time derivative
A) δc / δt B) D2C/D2T
C) DC/DT D) dc / dt
28. Calculate value of mass transfer coefficient for turbulent flow (KG) using Sherwood
analogy data: DAB = 7.0 X 10-6 m2/s, Re = 4819.7, SC = 2.445, diameter of tube = 25
mm.
A) 9.86 X 10-3 m/s B) 6.86 X 10-3 m/s
C) 7.86 X 10-3 m/s D) 8.86 X 10-3 m/s
29. Calculate value of mass transfer coefficient for air flow in case of sphere (KG) using
Sherwood analogy data: DAB = 6.95 X 10-6 m2/s, Re = 701.0, SC = 2.463, diameter of
tube = 30 mm.
A) 9.029 X 10-3 m/s B) 6.029 X 10-3 m/s
C) 7.029 X 10-3 m/s D) 8.029 X 10-3 m/s
30. For velocity profile U = Umax [1 – (r – R)2], the velocity gradient at the center line is
given by _______.
A) + ve B) – ve
C) 0 D) ∞
31. Calculate diffusion mass transfer coefficient for turbulent flow (Kmc) using Sherwood
analogy data: DAB = 4.2 X 10-5 m2/s, Re = 6.389 X 105, SC = 0.3577, Length =1.00 m.
A) 0.04748 m/s B) 0.06748 m/s
C) 0.07748 m/s D) 0.08748 m/s
32. Calculate value of heat transfer coefficient for fully developed turbulent flow using
Peclet analogy data: G = 3456.84 Kg/m2.s, CP = 140 J/Kg.K, Thermal Conductivity =
8.70 w/m0K, µ = 1.554.0 X 10-3 N.S/m2 & Diameter of pipe = 25.00 mm.
A) 2933 w/m2.0K B) 5933 w/m2.0K
C) 6933 w/m2.0K D) 3933 w/m2.0K
33. Oil is flowing down a vertical well as a film 1.7 mm thick. Oil density 820 kg/m3 and
Viscosity = 0.20 Pa.S, Find out Reynolds Number _______.
A) 1.070 B) 1.080
C) 1.060 D) 1.050
n
34. If velocity profile is given by U = Umax [1 – r/R] , Reynolds number is one lakhs,
then velocity gradient at the centre line is given by _______.
A) – Umax/ 4 R B) – Umax/ 5 R
C) – Umax/ 6 R D) – Umax/ 7 R
35. Calculate value of convective heat transfer coefficient using for liquid sodium using
Peclet analogy data: Re=178022, Pr=7.425 X 10-3, Thermal Conductivity = 81.50
w/m0K & Diameter of pipe = 30.00 mm.
A) 30087 w/m2.0K B) 20087 w/m2.0K
C) 40087 w/m2.0K D) 50087 w/m2.0K
1/n
36. For velocity profile U = Umax [1 – r/R] , Reynolds number is four lakhs, the value
of n is given by _______.
A) 6 B) 7
C) 8 D) 9
37. In heat mass and momentum transfer equation is ρ ( DV/DT ) = - Δp + µ Δ2v + ρ g,
If µ = 0 The equation is called as
A) Navier Stokes Equation B) Bernoulli’s Equation
C) Continuity Equation D) Euler’s Equation
38. Select the relation between Hydrodynamic Boundary Layer Thickness and Thermal
Boundary Layer Thickness for single power velocity profile.
A) Nu = 0.288 (Pr) 0.50. (Re) 0.33 B) Nu = 0.345 (Re) 0.50. (Pr) 0.33
C) Nu = 0.345 (Pr) 0.50. (Re) 0.33 D) Nu = 0.288 (Re) 0.50. (Pr) 0.33
39. The following Case represented the two velocity component u = x2 + y2 + z2 and v =
xy2 - yz2 + xy. Determine third component of velocity such that they satisfy continuity
equation du /dx + dv/ dy + dw /dz = 0
A) W = (-3xz – 2xyz+ 23/3) + f (v w ) B) W = (-3xz – 2xyz+ 23/3) + f (x z )
C) W = (-3xz – 2xyz+ 23/3) + f (x y ) D) W = (-3xz – 2xyz+ 23/3) + f (u v )
40. Calculate average value of free convection heat transfer coefficient using Grashoff
analogy data: Gr =2.04 X 107, Pr = 0.697, Thermal Conductivity = 0.02791 w/m0c.
A) 6.74 w/m2.0C B) 9.74 w/m2.0C
C) 7.74 w/m2.0C D) 8.74 w/m2.0C
41. Find the mean stable film boiling heat transfer coefficient (hm) by using following
data Stable film boiling heat transfer coefficient with radiation effect = 32.9 W/m2.K
& Stable film boiling heat transfer coefficient without radiation effect = 153.66
W/m2.K.
A) 148.3 W/m2 K B) 158.3 W/m2 K
C) 168.3 W/m2 K D) 178.3 W/m2 K
42. Bovine serum albumin diffuses in water at 320C to form a dilute solution. Molecular
weight of Bovine serum albumin is 67500; viscosity of water at 320C is 0.764 X 10-3
N.s/m2. Calculate Bovine serum albumin diffusivity in water.
A) 10.216 X 10-11 m2/s B) 7.216 X 10-11 m2/s
C) 6.216 X 10-11 m2/s D) 9.216 X 10-11 m2/s
43. The flow condition in condensate film is defined in terms of Reynolds Number. Their
flow can be Characterized by following relation, when [4m/µ]<_______, flow is
laminar.
A) 4000 B) 2100
C) 1800 D) 4200
44. Coordinate can be represented by Ur = Cosϴ [C/r2 - D], Uϴ = Sinϴ [C/r2 + D], Uz=0,
Equitation of Continuity is _______.
A) Satisfied B) Unity
C) Unsatisfied D) Infinity
0
45. A viscous oil at 35 C flows over a flat plate of 5 m long and at velocity of 0.05 m/sec.
The plate is at temperature 950C. Find thermal boundary layer thickness (δT).
Density = 960 kg/m3, Kinematic viscosity = 6.0 x 10-5 m2/sec, =7.0 x 10-8 m 2/sec,
K= 0.2 W/m.sec.
A) 0.0186 B) 0.0286
C) 0.0486 D) 0.0386
46. If coordinates are represented by velocity components ur = r sinθ, uθ = 2r cosθ, uZ = 0
in (r, θ, z) directions. Equation of Continuity is
A) Unity B) Satisfied
C) Unsatisfied D) Infinity
47. When a flat plate of 0.1 m2 area is pulled at a constant velocity of 30 cm/sec parallel
to another stationary plate located at a distance 0.01 cm from it and the space in
between is filled with a fluid of dynamic viscosity = 0.001 Ns/m2, the force required
to be applied is __________.
A) 0.3 N B) 0.6 N
C) 10 N D) 16 N
48. The least distance between two points on the equatorial circle on the surface of the
earth having polar coordinates (R, 0) and (R, π/2) with respect to the origin at the
centre of the Earth is __________.
A) R B) R/2
C) Rπ/2 D) Rπ
49. An open circular cylinder 1.2 m height is filled with a liquid to its top. The liquid is
given a rigid body rotation about the axis of the cylinder and the pressure at the centre
line at the bottom surface is found to be 0.6 m of liquid. What is the ratio of Volume
of liquid spilled out of the cylinder to the original volume?
A) 3/8 B) 1/4
C) ½ D) 3/4
50. Calculate Radiation heat transfers Coefficients (hr) using following data: Stephan’s
Boltzmann’s Constant = 5.67 X 10-8 w/m2.k4, Emissivity = 0.8, Ts = 373 K, Tw =
723.
A) 52.90 W/m2K B) 42.90 W/m2K
C) 22.90 W/m2K D) 32.90 W/m2K
* * * * *
(ESC-301) Machine Design & Drawing
MCQ Question Bank
1. The value of stress concentration factor depends upon __________.

A) material of the part
B) geometry of the part
C) weight of the part
D) material and geometry of the part
2. Which of the following material has the maximum ductility?
A) Mild steel
B) Copper
C) Aluminum
D) Zinc
3. In unilateral system of tolerance, the tolerance is allowed on __________.
A) one side of the actual size
B) one side of the nominal size
C) one side of the basic size
D) both sides of the nominal size
4. In order to remove internal stresses produced by hardening the steel, the process
usually adopted is __________.
A) annealing
B) normalising
C) tempering
D) spheroidising
5. The lower deviation is the algebraic difference between __________.
A) minimum limit and the basic size
B) maximum limit and the basic size
C) maximum actual size and the corresponding basic size
D) minimum actual size and the corresponding basic size
6. The resilience of a bolt may be increased by __________.
A) decreasing its length
B) increasing its length
C) decreasing its shank diameter
D) increasing its shank diameter
7. If a shaft made from ductile material is subjected to combined bending and twisting
moment, calculations based on which one of the following failure theories will give
the most conservative value?
A) Maximum shear stress theory
B) Maximum strain energy theory
C) Maximum principal stress theory
D) Maximum distortion energy theory
8. According to Guest's theory, the failure occurs at a point in a member when the
maximum __________ in a bi-axial stress system reaches the shear stress at elastic
limit in simple tension test.
A) tensile stress
B) working stress
C) yield stress
D) shear stress
9. Which of following property is desirable in parts subjected to shock & impact loads?
A) Toughness
B) Strength
C) Stiffness
D) Brittleness
10. The shock resistance of steel is increased by adding __________.
A) cobalt and molybdenum
B) chromium
C) nickel
D) nickel and chromium
11. Factor of safety for fatigue loading is the ratio of __________.
A) elastic limit to the working stress

B) elastic limit to the yield point
C) endurance limit to the working stress
D) Young's modulus to the ultimate tensile strength
12. The material commonly used for machine tool bodies is __________.
A) mild steel
B) cast iron
C) aluminum
D) brass
13. In order to avoid tearing of the plate at an edge, the distance from the centre line of
the rivet hole to the nearest edge of the plate should be equal to (where d = Diameter
of rivet hole) __________.
A) 1.00 d
B) 1.25 d
C) 1.50 d
D) 2.00 d
14. The rivet head used for boiler plate riveting is usually __________.
A) flat head
B) snap head
C) pan head
D) conical head
15. Which of the following welded joint is designed for shear strength?
A) Parallel fillet welded joint
B) Transverse fillet welded joint
C) Butt welded joint
D) Corner joint
16. In a transverse fillet welded joint, the size of weld is __________ the throat of weld.
A) equal to
B) 0.5 times
C) 2.0 times
D) 1.4 times
17. For longitudinal joint in boilers, the type of joint used is __________.
A) lap joint with single cover plate
B) lap joint with double cover plate
C) butt joint with single cover plate
D) butt joint with double cover plate
18. If the tearing efficiency of a riveted joint is 50%, then the ratio of diameter of rivet to
the pitch is __________.
A) 0.3
B) 0.5
C) 0.7
D) 0.9
19. In static loading, stress concentration is more serious in __________.
A) elastic materials
B) ductile materials
C) brittle materials
D) plastic materials
20. The objective of caulking in a riveted joint is to make the joint __________.
A) leak proof
B) free from corrosion
C) stronger in tension
D) free from stress
21. A double strap butt joint (with equal straps) is __________.
A) always in single shear
B) always in double shear

C) always in triple shear
D) either in single shear or double shear
22. For welding plates of thickness less than 5 mm, its edges __________.
A) do not require bevelling
B) should be bevelled to a single V or U-groove
C) should have a double V or U-groove on one side
D) should have a double V or U-groove on both sides
23. Presence of nickel in steel improves its __________.
A) wear resistance
B) surface finish
C) corrosion resistance
D) ductility
24. Which of the following is not an example of fusion welding?
A) Gas welding
B) Electric arc welding
C) Thermit welding
D) Resistance welding
25. A transmission shafts does not include __________.
A) counter shaft
B) crank shaft
C) line shaft
D) over head shaft
26. A shaft is subjected to a maximum bending stress of 80 N/mm2 and maximum

shearing stress equal to 30 N/mm2 at a particular section. If the yield point in tension
of the material is 280 N/mm2 and the maximum shear stress theory of failure is used,
then the factor of safety obtained will be __________.
A) 2.5
B) 3.0
C) 2.8
D) 3.5
27. The longitudinal stress is __________ of the circumferential stress.
A) 1/2
B) 2/3
C) 3/4
D) 2/1
28. A circular shaft can transmit a torque of 5 kN-m. If the torque is reduced to 4 kN-m,
then the maximum value of bending moment that can be applied to the shaft is
__________.
A) 1 kN-m
B) 2 kN-m
C) 4 kN-m
D) 3 kN-m
29. Two shafts will have equal strength, if __________.
A) diameter of both the shafts is same
B) twisting moment of both the shafts is same
C) material of both the shafts is same
D) angle of twist of both the shafts is same
30. A basic shaft is one whose __________.
A) diameter is uniform
B) lower deviation is zero
C) upper deviation is zero
D) lower and upper deviations are zero
31. The bending moment M and a torque T is applied on a solid circular shaft. If the
maximum bending stress equals to maximum shear stress developed, then M is equal
to __________.
A) T
B) 2 T
C) 4 T
D) T/2
32. Two shafts A and B are made of the same material. The diameter of shaft A is twice
as that of shaft B. The power transmitted by the shaft A will be __________ of
shaft B.
A) two times
B) four times
C) eight times
D) sixteen times
33. The design of shafts made of brittle materials is based on __________.
A) Rankine's theory
B) Saint Venant's theory
C) Guest's theory
D) Von Mises theory
34. Stress concentration factor is defined as the ratio of __________.
A) maximum stress to the endurance limit
B) nominal stress to the maximum stress
C) maximum stress to the nominal stress
D) nominal stress to the endurance limit
35. A steel shaft of diameter 5 mm is heated from 15° C to 40° C and it is free to expand.
The bar will induce __________.
A) compressive stress
B) tensile stress
C) shear stress
D) no stress
36. The stress induced in a body, when suddenly loaded, is __________ the stress
induced when the same load is applied gradually.
A) equal to
B) twice
C) one-half
D) four times
37. In a flange coupling, the flanges are coupled together by means of __________.
A) bolts and nuts
B) studs
C) screws
D) headless taper bolts
38. When a bolt is subjected to shock loading, the resilience of the bolt should be
considered in order to prevent breakage at the __________.
A) head
B) shank
C) thread
D) tail
39. An universal coupling is used to connect two shaft __________.
A) which are perfectly aligned
B) whose axes intersect at a small angle
C) have lateral misalignment
D) which are not in exact alignment
40. A taper key which fits half in the key way of the hub and half in the key way of shaft
is known as __________.
A) tangent key
B) hollow saddle key
C) flat saddle key
D) sunk key
41. For a shaft diameter of 200 mm, the number of bolts in a marine flange coupling
should be __________.
A) 4
B) 6
C) 8
D) 10
42. A wood-ruff key is __________.
A) a tapered key with head at one end
B) capable of tilting in a recess milled out in the shaft
C) fitted in pairs at right angles
D) a tapered key with head at both ends
43. Which of the following key is preferred for the condition when a large amount of
impact type torque is to be transmitted in both direction of rotation?
A) Woodruff key
B) Gib-head key
C) feather key
D) Tangent key
44. The taper on key is given on __________.
A) top side only
B) bottom side only
C) both the sides
D) any side
45. A feather key is generally __________.
A) loose in shaft and tight in hub
B) tight in both shaft and hub
C) loose in both shaft and hub
D) tight in shaft and loose in hub
46. When a belt drive is transmitting maximum power, __________.
A) driving tension on slack side is equal to centrifugal tension

B) driving tension on tight side is twice the centrifugal tension
C) effective tension is equal to centrifugal tension
D) effective tension is half of centrifugal tension
47. In designing a flange coupling, the pitch circle diameter of bolts is taken as
(where d = Diameter of the shaft), __________.
A) 3 d
B) 2 d
C) 5 d
D) 4 d
48. In designing a key, it is assumed that the distribution of forces along the length of key,
__________.
A) varies linearly
B) varies exponentially, being more at the torque-input end
C) is uniform throughout
D) varies exponentially, being less at the torque-input end
49. The ball bearings are provided with a cage __________.
A) to reduce friction
B) to facilitate slipping of balls
C) to prevent the lubricant from flowing out
D) to maintain the balls at a fixed distance apart
50. An open belt drive is used when __________.
A) shafts are arranged parallel and rotate in the opposite directions
B) shafts are arranged parallel and rotate in the same directions
C) shafts are arranged at right angles and rotate in one definite direction
D) driven shaft is to be started or stopped whenever desired without interfering with

driving shaft
51. Surface endurance limit of gear material is dependent upon its __________.
A) elastic strength
B) yield strength
C) brinell hardness number
D) toughness
52. The rolling contact bearings are known as __________.
A) antifriction bearings
B) thin lubricated bearings
C) thick lubricated bearings
D) plastic bearings
53. When two non-intersecting and non-coplanar shafts are connected by gears, the
arrangement is known as __________.
A) spiral gearing
B) spur gearing
C) helical gearing
D) bevel gearing
54. Idler pulley is used for __________.
A) increasing velocity ratio
B) changing the direction of motion of belt
C) applying tension
D) decreasing velocity ratio
55. Which one of the following is a positive drive?
A) Crossed flat belt drive
B) Chain drive
C) V-belt drive
D) Rope drive
56. The wire ropes make contact at __________.
A) sides of groove of the pulley
B) sides and bottom of groove of the pulley

C) anywhere in the groove of the pulley
D) bottom of groove of the pulley
57. When the speed of belt increases, __________.
A) the coefficient of friction between the belt and pulley increases
B) the coefficient of friction between the belt and pulley decreases
C) the power transmitted will decrease
D) the power transmitted will increase
58. The ratio of driving tensions in V-belt drives is __________ flat belt drives.
A) equal to
B) cosec α times more than
C) sin α times more than
D) sin α times less than
59. The effective stress in wire ropes during normal working is equal to the stress due to
__________.
A) acceleration/retardation of masses plus stress due to bending
B) axial load plus stress due to acceleration/retardation
C) bending plus stress due to acceleration/retardation
D) axial load plus stress due to bending
60. Crowning on pulley helps in __________.
A) to keep the belt in centre on a pulley while it is in motion
B) in increasing the slip of the belt
C) in decreasing the slip of the belt
D) to increase pulley life
* * * * *
CH-2.2 Reaction Engineering and Nano catalysis
𝜂
Q.1 is equation for the -------
1+𝜂𝐾1 𝑆𝑎 𝜌𝑏 ⁄𝐾𝑐 𝑎𝑐
a. Overall Effectiveness Factor b. Internal Effectiveness Factor

c. Thieles Modulus d. Mears criteria
Q.2 If Thiele modulus is large --------------- usually rate limiting.

a. Surface reaction b. External diffusion
c. Mass transfer d. Internal diffusion
Q3. If energy balance equation for steady state is ----
a. 𝑄 − 𝑊𝑠 + 𝐹𝐴𝑜 ∑𝑛𝑖=1(𝐻𝑖𝑜 − 𝐻𝑖 ) − ∇𝐻𝑅𝑥 (𝑇)𝐹𝐴𝑜 𝑋 = 0
b.𝑄 − 𝑊𝑠 + 𝐹𝐴𝑜 ∑𝑛𝑖=1 𝜃𝑖 (𝐻𝑖𝑜 − 𝐻𝑖 ) − ∇𝐻𝑅𝑥 (𝑇)𝐹𝐴𝑜 𝑋 = 0
c. 𝑄 − 𝑊𝑠 + 𝐹𝐴𝑜 ∑𝑛𝑖=1(𝐻𝑖𝑜 − 𝐻𝑖 ) − ∇𝐻𝑅𝑥 𝐹𝐴𝑜 = 0
d. 𝑄 − 𝑊𝑠 + 𝐹𝐴𝑜 ∑𝑛𝑖=1 𝜃𝑖 (𝐻𝑖𝑜 − 𝐻𝑖 ) − ∇𝐻𝑅𝑥 (𝑇)𝐹𝐴𝑜 = 0
Q.4 The Mears criteria for external diffusion is
−𝑟𝐴; 𝜌𝐵 𝑅 𝑛 −𝑟𝐴; 𝜌𝐵 𝑅
a. 𝐾𝑐 𝐶𝐴𝑏
≥ 0.15 b. 𝐾𝑐 𝐶𝐴𝑏
< 0.15
−𝑟𝐴; 𝜌𝐵 𝑅 𝑛 −𝑟𝐴; 𝜌𝐵 𝑅𝑛
c. < 0.15 d. > 0.15
𝐾𝑐 𝐶𝐴𝑏 𝐾𝑐 𝐶𝐴𝑏
Q.5 The energy balance equation for contentious reactor is

0 (𝑇 )
a. 𝑋[∆𝐻𝑅𝑋 𝑅 + ∆𝐶𝑃 (𝑇 − 𝑇𝑅 )] = ∑ 𝜃𝑖 𝐶𝑃 (𝑇 − 𝑇𝑖𝑜 )
𝑏. 𝑄 − 𝑊𝑠 − 𝑋[∆𝐻(𝑇) + ∆𝐶𝑃 (𝑇 − 𝑇𝑅 )] = ∑ 𝜃𝑖 𝐶𝑃 (𝑇 − 𝑇𝑖𝑜 )

0 (𝑇 )
c. 𝑄 + 𝐹𝐴𝑜 𝑋[∆𝐻𝑅𝑋 𝑅 + ∆𝐶𝑃 (𝑇 − 𝑇𝑅 )] = ∑ 𝜃𝑖 𝐶𝑃 (𝑇 − 𝑇𝑖𝑜 )
0 (𝑇 )
d. 𝑄 − 𝑊𝑠 − 𝐹𝐴𝑜 𝑋[∆𝐻𝑅𝑋 𝑅 + ∆𝐶𝑃 (𝑇 − 𝑇𝑅 )] = 𝐹𝐴𝑜 ∑ 𝜃𝑖 𝐶𝑃 (𝑇 − 𝑇𝑖𝑜 )
Q.6 The equation for Q in energy balance equation for the CSTR reactor is
𝐴
a.Q = UA(Ta − T) b.𝑄 = ∫0 𝑈𝐴(𝑇𝑎 − 𝑇) 𝑑𝐴
𝑉
c. 𝑄 = ∫0 𝑈𝑎(𝑇𝑎 − 𝑇) 𝑑𝑉 d. 𝑄 = 𝑈𝑎(𝑇𝑎 − 𝑇)
Q.7 The mole balance equation for CSTR is ----
𝐹𝐴𝑜 𝐹 𝑋 −𝑟𝐴 (𝑋,𝑇) −𝑟𝐴
𝑉 = −𝑟 b. 𝑉 = −𝑟 𝐴𝑜(𝑋,𝑇) c. 𝑉 = d. 𝑉 = 𝐹
𝐴 (𝑋,𝑇) 𝐴 𝐹𝐴𝑜 𝑋 𝐴𝑜
Q.8 The reactors in series with inter stage cooling are used for ----------- for higher conversion
a. Exothermic reversible reaction b. Endothermic reversible reaction
c. Irreversible reaction d. Elementary Reaction
Q.9 For CSTR with heat exchange T=------------
𝑄+∑ 𝜃𝑖 𝐶𝑃𝑖 𝑇0 +(−∆𝐻𝑅𝑋 )(𝑇𝑅 )𝑋+𝑋∆𝐶𝑝 𝑇𝑅
a. ∑ 𝜃𝑖 𝐶𝑃𝑖 + 𝑋∆𝐶𝑃
𝑈𝐴𝑇𝑎 +∑ 𝐹𝑖𝑜 𝐶𝑃𝑖 𝑇0 +(−∆𝐻𝑅𝑋 )(−𝑟𝐴 𝑉)

b. ∑ 𝐹𝑖𝑜 𝐶𝑃𝑖
𝑈𝐴𝑇𝑎 +∑ 𝐹𝑖𝑜 𝐶𝑃𝑖 𝑇0 +(−∆𝐻𝑅𝑋 )(−𝑟𝐴 𝑉)

c.
𝑈𝐴 + 𝐹𝐴0 𝐶𝑃𝐴
𝑈𝑎 (𝑇𝑎 −𝑇)+(−∆𝐻𝑅𝑋 )(−𝑟𝐴 𝑉)
d.
𝑈𝐴+ ∑ 𝐹𝑖𝑜 𝐶𝑃𝑖
Q.10 𝑋[−∆𝐻𝑅𝑋 (𝑇)] = ∫𝑇 ∑ 𝜃𝑖 𝐶𝑃𝑖 𝑑𝑇 is the energy balance equation for the--------
𝑇 𝑖𝑜
For adiabatic tabular reactor the equation is -----------

a. Isothermal PFR
b. Adiabatic tabular reactor
c. Adiabatic CSTR reactor
d. Non isothermal PFR
Q.11 According to the Davidson Harrison model for fluidized bed reactor the reaction does not
take place in----------
a. Emulsion Phase b. Bubble phase c. Lean Phase d. Wake
Q.12 The Thiele modulus is --------
𝑆𝑢𝑟𝑓𝑎𝑐𝑒 𝑟𝑒𝑎𝑐𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑒
a.
𝐷𝑖𝑓𝑓𝑢𝑠𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑒
𝐷𝑖𝑓𝑓𝑢𝑠𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑒
b.
𝑠𝑢𝑟𝑓𝑎𝑐𝑒 𝑟𝑒𝑎𝑐𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑒
c. 𝑠𝑢𝑟𝑓𝑎𝑐𝑒 𝑟𝑒𝑎𝑐𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑒

d. 𝑠𝑢𝑟𝑓𝑎𝑐𝑒 𝑟𝑒𝑎𝑐𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑒 𝑋 𝐷𝑖𝑓𝑓𝑢𝑠𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑒
Q.13 The solution to the differential equation 𝑑2 𝜑 + 2 𝑑𝜑
− ∅1 𝜑 = 0 is
2 𝑑ʎ ʎ 𝑑ʎ
𝐴1 𝐵1
a. 𝜑 = 𝑠𝑖𝑛ℎ∅1ʎ + 𝑐𝑜𝑠ℎ∅1ʎ
ʎ ʎ
𝐴1 𝐵
b. 𝜑 = 𝑐𝑜𝑠ℎ∅1 ʎ + ʎ1 𝑠𝑖𝑛ℎ∅1 ʎ
ʎ
1 1
c. 𝜑 =
ʎ
𝑐𝑜𝑠ℎ∅1 ʎ + 𝑠𝑖𝑛ℎ∅1ʎ
ʎ
d. 𝜑 = 𝑐𝑜𝑠ℎ∅1ʎ + 𝑠𝑖𝑛ℎ∅1 ʎ
Q.14 How far the reactant diffuses into the pellet before reacting is given by
a. Actual rate of reaction
b. Internal effectiveness
c. Overall effectiveness factor
d. Diffusion rate
Q.15 For first order chemical reaction 𝜂 = − − −
3
a. (∅1 𝑐𝑜𝑡ℎ∅1 − 1)
∅21
b. ∅1
c. (∅1 𝑐𝑜𝑡ℎ∅1 − 1)
3
d. ∅ (∅1 𝑐𝑜𝑡ℎ∅1 − 1)
1
Q.16 Sintering effect of catalyst is prevented by ------- of catalyst

a. Inhibitors b. Promoters c. Activation d. Support
Q.17 The substance be a successful catalyst in an industrial application required -------
a. High Strength
b. Non porous structure
c. High activity per unit of volume in the eventual reactor
d. Low thermal stability
Q.18 Drying temperatures for manufacturing of the Xerogel is -------- 0C
a. 250-300 b. 150-200 c. 100-150 d. 400-450
Q.19 For Hydrogenation reaction ------------- is used as catalyst with alumina as support
a. Ni- ZnO b. ZnO c. Cu d. Pt
Q.20 Spheres with surface are 300 m2/g can be prepared for
a. Silica b. Carbon c .Alumina d. zirconia
Q.21 Aluminium is found in nature in the form of bauxite an ore consisting of aluminium
hydroxides, ------ and other oxides.
a. Zinc b. Silica c. Bayerite d. Carbon
Q.22 The η and  Alumina is --------- form of the alumina
a. Non porous crystalline b. Crystalline c. Porous amorphous d. Amorphous
Q.23 As a support, ϒ-Al2O3 offers high surface areas (50–300 m2 g–1), mesopores of between -
----- nm,
a. 5-15 b. 50-100 c. 250-300 d.300-500
Q.24 The method used for the synthesis of carbon is ---------
a. Impregnation b. Hydrolysis c. Pyrolysis d. Sol –Gel
Q.25 The cylindrical shape of the supported catalyst ---------- pressure drop
a. Reduces b. Increases c. Not Changes d. Exponential increases
Q.26 (𝑞 + 𝐾𝑔 𝑆) (𝐶𝑒 − 𝐶𝑏 ) = 𝑢𝑏 𝑉 𝑑𝐶𝑏 is the material balance for ---------
𝑑𝑦
a. The bubble phase

b. Emulsion Phase
c. Fluidized Bed Reactor
d. Trickle Bed Reactor
Q.27 For the fluidized bed reactor ----------- model is used .Harrison Devidson model K’=----
a. Thiel’s Model b. Maxwell c. Harrison Devidson d. Ficks
Q.28 The exit concentration in fluidized bed reactor is given by
𝐶𝐴 1 𝑢𝑚𝑓 𝐻 𝑢𝑚𝑓 𝐻
a. = [𝑚2′ (1 − 𝑚1′ ) exp(−𝑚2′ 𝐻) − [𝑚1′ (1 − 𝑚2′ ) exp(−𝑚2′ 𝐻)]
𝐶0 𝑚1′ −𝑚2′ 𝑢0 𝑋 𝑢0 𝑋
b. = [𝑚1′ (1 − 𝑚2′ ) exp(−𝑚2′ 𝐻) − [𝑚2′ (1 − 𝑚1′ ) exp(−𝑚1′ 𝐻)]
𝐶0 𝑚1′ −𝑚2′ 𝑢0 𝑋 𝑢0 𝑋
c. = [𝑚1′ (1 − 𝑚2′ ) exp(−𝑚2′ ) − [𝑚2′ (1 − 𝑚1′ ) exp(−𝑚1′ )]
𝐶0 𝑚1′ −𝑚2′ 𝑢0 𝑋 𝑢0 𝑋
𝐶 1 𝑢𝑚𝑓 𝐻 𝑢𝑚𝑓 𝐻
d. 𝐶𝐴 = 𝑚′ −𝑚′ [𝑚1′ (1 − 𝑢0 𝑋
𝑚2′ ) exp(−𝑚2′ 𝐻) − [𝑚2′ (1 − 𝑢0 𝑋
𝑚1′ ) exp(−𝑚1′ 𝐻)]
0 2 1
Q.29 The material balance equation for the bubble phase in differential operator form is
𝛽
a. (𝐷 + 𝐾 ′ /𝐻(1 − 𝛽))𝐶𝑒 − 𝐶𝑏 = 0
1−𝛽
𝐻 𝑋
𝑏. (𝐷 + ) 𝐶𝑏 − 𝐶𝑒 = 0
𝑋 𝐻
𝑋 𝛽
c. (𝐷 + ) 𝐶𝑏 − 1−𝛽 𝐶𝑒 = 0
𝐻
𝑋 𝑋
d. (𝐷 + ) 𝐶𝑏 − 𝐶𝑒 = 0
𝐻 𝐻
Q.30 The equilibrium relationship at gas liquid interface in trickle bed reactor is given by -----
a.𝐶𝐴𝑖 = 𝑋 𝐶𝐴(𝑔) b.𝐶𝐴𝑖 = 𝐻 𝐶𝐴(𝑔)
𝐶𝐴(𝑔)
c. 𝐶𝐴𝑖 = 𝐻 /𝐶𝐴(𝑔) d. 𝐶𝐴𝑖 = 𝐻
Q.31 Transport of reactant A from bulk gas phase to gas liquid interface is -----
1
a.𝑟𝐴′ = 𝐾𝑔 𝑎𝑖 (𝐶𝐴𝑔 − 𝐶𝐴𝑖𝑔 ) b. 𝑟𝐴′ = 𝐾𝑔 𝑎𝑖 (𝐶𝐴𝑔 − 𝐶𝐴𝑖𝑔 )
(1−∈𝑏 )𝜌
1 1
c. 𝑟𝐴′ = 𝐾𝑔 (𝐶𝐴𝑖𝑔 − 𝐶𝐴𝑔 ) d. 𝑟𝐴′ = 𝐾𝑔 𝑎𝑖 (𝐶𝐴𝑖𝑔 − 𝐶𝐴𝑔 )
(1−∈𝑏 )𝜌 (1−∈𝑏 )𝜌
Q.32 In flame hydrolysis method used for silica manufacturing the original size and aggregation
of the silica spheres can be controlled by --------
a Air Pressure b. Temperature of flame c. Catalyst d. Height of flame
Q.33 ------------------ Procedure for synthesis of supported catalyst is followed when materials are cheap
and obtaining the optimum catalytic activity per unit volume of catalyst is the main consideration.
a. Loading pre-existing support materials b. Sol – Gel
c. Coprecipitating d. Hydrothermal
Q.34 Silica and alumina supports contain several types of ----- groups
a. Alkali b. Acidic c. Neutral d. hydroxyl
Q.35 The enthalpy carried out of the system in energy balance for the non-isothermal reactor
design is given by ---------
a. 𝐹𝑖 𝐻𝑖 = 𝐹𝑖 (𝑈𝑖 + 𝑃𝑉𝑖 ) b. 𝐹𝑖 𝐻𝑖 = 𝑈𝑖 + 𝑃𝑉𝑖
c. 𝐹𝑖 𝐻𝑖 = ∑ 𝐹𝑖 𝑃𝑉𝑖 + ∑ 𝐹𝑜 𝑃𝑉𝑜 d. 𝐻𝑖 = 𝐹𝑖 (𝑈𝑖 + 𝑃𝑉𝑖 )
Q.36 The porous catalyst is used when catalytic reaction is ---------
a. Surface reaction control
b. Internal diffusion control
c. External Diffusion control
d. Mass and Heat transfer control
Q.37 For Very fast reaction very little A gets to--------- in fluidized bed reactor.
a. Lean b. Cloud c Emulsion. d. Wake
Q.38 In the trickle bed reactor the transport of reactant from interface to bulk liquid is given by --
----
1
a. 𝑟𝐴′ = 𝐾𝑙 𝑎𝑖 (𝐶𝐴𝑖 − 𝐶𝐴𝑏 ) b. 𝑟𝐴′ = 𝐾𝑙 𝑎𝑖 (𝐶𝐴𝑖𝑔 − 𝐶𝐴𝑏 )
(1−∈𝑏 )𝜌
1 1
c. 𝑟𝐴′ = 𝐾𝑙 𝑎𝑖 (1−∈𝑏 )
(𝐶𝐴𝑖 − 𝐶𝐴𝑏 ) d. 𝑟𝐴′ = 𝐾𝑙 𝑎𝑖 (1−∈𝑏 )𝜌
(𝐶𝐴𝑏 − 𝐶𝐴𝑖 )
Q.39 The point of intersection of plot of XMB Vs T and XEB Vs T for the adiabatic reversible
reaction gives --------
a. Temperature b. Equilibrium temperature and Conversion
c. Minimum Temperature and Conversion d. Minimum Temperature and Conversion
Q.40 For steady state tubular reactor with heat exchange the energy balance equation is ------
𝑑𝑇 𝑟𝐴 ∆𝐻𝑅𝑋 −𝑈𝑎(𝑇−𝑇𝑎 ) 𝑑𝑇 𝑟𝐴 ∆𝐻𝑅𝑋 −𝑈𝑎(𝑇−𝑇𝑎 )
a. = ∑ 𝐹𝑖 𝐶𝑝𝑖
b. = ∑ 𝛳𝑖 𝐶𝑝𝑖
𝑑𝑣 𝑑𝑣
𝑑𝑇 𝑟𝐴 ∆𝐻𝑅𝑋 −𝑈𝑎(𝑇−𝑇𝑎 ) 𝑑𝑇 𝑟𝐴 −𝑈𝑎(𝑇−𝑇𝑎 )

c. = d. =
𝑑𝑣 𝐶𝑝𝑖 𝑑𝑣 𝐶𝑝𝑖
𝐾𝑒
Q.41 For elementary solid catalyzed liquid phase reaction ⇔ 𝐵 , 𝐻𝐴0 (298 𝐾) = −40000 cal/mol
𝐻𝐵0 (298 𝐾) = −60000 𝑐𝑎𝑙/𝑚𝑜𝑙, Ke= 100000 at 298 0K. The ∆𝐻𝑅0 is
a. -100000 b. 20000 c.40000 d. -20000
Q.42 𝐻𝐼 = 𝐻𝑖0 (𝑇𝑅 ) + − − −
𝑇 𝑇
a. ∫𝑇 𝐶𝑃𝑖 𝑑𝑇 b. ∫𝑇 𝑅 𝐶𝑃𝑖 𝑑𝑇
𝑅
𝑇 𝑇
c. ∫𝑇 𝐶𝑃𝑖 𝑑𝑇 + 𝐹𝐴0 𝐶𝑃 d. ∫𝑇 𝑅 𝐶𝑃𝑖
𝑅
Q.43 The mol balance equation for packed bed reactor is given by
𝑑2 𝐶𝐴𝐵 𝑑2 𝐶𝐴𝐵 𝑑𝐶𝐴𝐵
a. 𝐷𝑎 −  𝜌𝑏 𝑆𝑎 𝐾𝐶𝐴𝐵 = 0 b. 𝐷𝑎 −𝑈 −  𝜌𝑏 𝑆𝑎 𝐾𝐶𝐴𝐵 = 0
𝑑𝑧 2 𝑑𝑧 2 𝑑𝑧
𝑑2 𝐶𝐴𝐵 𝑑𝐶𝐴𝐵 𝑑2 𝐶𝐴𝐵 𝑑𝐶𝐴𝐵
c. 𝐷𝑎 −𝑈 −  𝜌𝑏 𝑆𝑎 = 0 d. 𝐷𝑎 −𝑈 −  𝜌𝑏 𝑆𝑎 𝐶𝐴𝐵 = 0
𝑑𝑧 2 𝑑𝑧 𝑑𝑧 2 𝑑𝑧
Q.44 The flow pattern in reaction phase of fluidized bed reactor is -----------------
a. Turbulent b. Laminar. c. Backmixed d. not plug flow
Q.45 The shape of the catalyst body influences -----------
a. Velocity Profile b. Heat transfer characteristics
c. Reactor design d. Mass transport characteristics
Q.46 The energy balance equation for unsteady state non isothermal CSTR is
𝑑𝑇 𝑄−𝑊𝑠 −∑ 𝐹𝑖0 (𝐻𝑖 −𝐻𝑖0 )+(∆𝐻𝑅𝑥 )(−𝑟𝐴 𝑉)
a. = ∑ 𝑁𝑖 𝐶𝑃𝑖
𝑑𝑡
𝑑𝑇 ∑ 𝐹𝑖0 (𝐻𝑖 −𝐻𝑖0 )+(∆𝐻𝑅𝑥 )(−𝑟𝐴 𝑉)
b.
𝑑𝑡
= ∑ 𝑁𝑖 𝐶𝑃𝑖
𝑑𝑇 𝑄−∑ 𝐹𝑖0 (𝐻𝑖 −𝐻𝑖0 )+(∆𝐻𝑅𝑥 )(−𝑟𝐴 𝑉)

c. = ∑ 𝑁𝑖 𝐶𝑃𝑖
𝑑𝑡
𝑑𝑇 𝑄−𝑊𝑠 −∑ 𝐹𝑖0 (𝐻𝑖 −𝐻𝑖0 )+(∆𝐻𝑅𝑥 ))
d. 𝑑𝑡 = ∑ 𝑁𝑖 𝐶𝑃𝑖
Q.47 According to kunii levenspil model the rise velocity of the bubble u, depends size,
a. Gas flow rate b. only on the bubble c. Emulsion Phase d. Wake
Q.48 In fluidized bed reactor in the emulsion stays the gas phase velocity is at ------------
a. Transport fluidization condition b. Equal to bubble phase
c. Minimum fluidization condition d. Less than fluidizing velocity
Q.49 Transition metals are good metal catalysts because -----------------
a. High reactivity
b. Thermal stability.
c. Stable electronic configration.
d. Easily lend and take electrons from other molecules.
Q.50 In a TBR the catalyst bed is fixed the flow pattern is much closer to
a. Mixed flow b. Backmixed c. Plug flow d.Turbulant
Q.51 In kunii Levenspiel model the bed fraction ɗ is given by
𝑢0 −𝑢𝑚𝑓 𝑢𝑚𝑓 −𝑢0
a.𝛿 = b. 𝛿 =
𝑢𝑏 𝑢𝑏
𝑢𝑏 −𝑢𝑚𝑓 𝑢𝑏 −𝑢𝑚𝑓
c. 𝛿 = d. 𝛿 =
𝑢0 𝑢𝑚𝑓
Q.52 Relative chemical stability and the easy recoverability is the characteristic of
a. Carbon b. silica c.  -Alumina d. η Alumina
Q.53 Volatility at low temperature is the prerequisite for the precursor to be used in -------
technique for the synthesis of nano catalyst.
a. Sol -Gel b. CVD
c. Hydrothermal d. Reduction
Q.54 The linear hydroxyls on alumina have -------- character.
a. Non Polar b. Ampoteric c. Cationic d. anionic
Q.55 In oxidative addition -------- bonds are formed
a. coordination b. Covalent c. Two covalent d. Ionic
Q.56 As gas and or liquid flow rates are increased the flow pattern in trickle bed reactor is ------
a. Rippling b.Plug flow c. Laminar d. Turbulent
Q.57 According to falsified kinetics for the catalytic reaction 𝐸𝑇 = − − − −
a. 1.5𝐸𝑃 b. 𝐸 𝑝 c.2𝐸𝑃 d.𝐸𝑝 /2
Q.58 In deoposition precipitatin method for supported catalyst small crystallites of metal hydroxide or
carbonate precipitate from solution, preferably by -------------at the interface between liquid and
support
a. Homogeneous nucleation b. Heterogeneous nucleation
c. Seeding nucleation d. Precipitation
Q.59 For first order reaction at large value of the Thiele modulus to increase the overall rate of the
catalytic reaction --------------
a. Decrease the temperature b. Decrease the concentration
c. Decrease the radius of pellet d. Increase the radius of pellet
Q.60 The oxidation state of each metal changes by unity in ---------

a. Insertion b. Heterolytic addition
c. Oxidative addition d. Homolytic addition

CHC - 309 / CHC - 310 Instrumentation Process Control Question Bank

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CHC - 309 / CHC - 310 Instrumentation Process Control Question Bank

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CHC - 309 / CHC - 310 Instrumentation and Process Control

2. A thermometer having first order dynamics is placed in a temperature bath of 45 oC.

3. Which of the following is not wrong for first order system?

4. Which of the following about sinusoidal function is true?

5. Which of the following is false statement?

7. Which of the following is false statement?

9. Which of the following is not an application of controllers?

10. In case of inherent characteristics of valve, linear valve have,

17. Which statement related to pneumatic control system is false?

18. The potentiometer is a transducer in control system which converts,

19. Which of following process is called transduction process?

22. Temperature control of an exothermic chemical reaction taking place in a CSTR is

24. When the damping co-efficient (ξ) is unity, the system is

25. Which is the symbol for "pneumatic control valve" ?

26. A non-linear system will have __________ steady state values.

28. __________ controller has the maximum stabilising time.

29. Which of the following is not a differential pressure flow meter?

30. _____ is the static characteristics of an instrument.

31. Which of the following is the dynamic characteristics of an instrument?

35. Thermocouple is suitable for measuring

36. Thermal wells are used in the temperature measurement to

37. A barometer measures the _______ pressure.

38. E.m.f. generated by thermocouples is of the order of

39. Which thermocouple can be used to measure a temperature of around 1400 0C

40. Maximum differential pressure in liquid manometer is ____ psi

41. Bellows are made of

43. Bourdon gauge measures _____ pressure

45. The basic principle involved in the measurement of temperature by thermocouple is

46. Instrumentation in a plant offers the advantages of

50. Thermal conductivity measurement comprises the working principle of a

51. Response of a system to a sinusoidal input is called ______ response.

52. Strain gage pressure transducers are used to measure pressures.

53. Continuous shell temperature measurement in a liquid-liquid heat exchanger is done

58. In second order underdamped system

59. Time constant is

60. Which of the following controllers has maximum offset?

61. The level of liquid under pressure can be determined using

62. The transfer function of PD controller is

63. Measurement of sub-zero Celsius temperature in industry is done most commonly by

64. Final control element is a

67. Bode diagram is a plot of

68. Gain margin is equal to

76. The characteristic equation of control system is S4+6S3+23S2+40S+50 = 0, Then by

77. The characteristic equation of control system is

1. Bolzano’s method is also called as

a Regula Falsi Method b Iterative Method

c Newton Raphson Method d Interval method

a Regula Falsi b Iterative Method

c Bisection Method d Newton Raphson Method

3. …….. is the second iterative root of X 3 − 4 X − 9 = 0 by interval method.

4. Method of successive approximation is also called as

a Regula Falsi b Iterative Method

c Bisection Method d Newton Raphson Method

5. The basis of …………..method is expansion of Taylor’s theorem

a Iterative Method b Regula Falsi

c Newton Raphson Method d Bisection Method

6. The second approximate root of X 3 − 5 X − 7 = 0 , by using method of False

7. Newton-Raphson method uses …………….. equation for finding root of polynomial

8. For solving equations involving transcendental function, we can perform calculations

9. Real root of X 3 + X − 1 = 0 , by iterative method is,

15. Two Eigen vectors X1 and X2 are orthogonal if

a 1.5 years b 1.0 years