ĐƯỢC SƯU TẦM BỞI FANPAGE TÀI LIỆU TIẾNG ANH NÂNG CAO

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
HẢI PHÒNG
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
(Đề thi có 14 trang)
KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI THÀNH PHỐ BẢNG A
VÀ CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN DỰ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI QUỐC GIA
NĂM HỌC 2021-2022
ĐỀ THI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Ngày thi: 22/9/2021
(Thời gian làm bài 180 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề)

Chú ý: - Thí sinh làm bài vào PHIẾU TRẢ LỜI.

- Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu gì, kể cả từ điển.
- Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm.

I. LISTENING (40 points)

HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU
• Bài nghe gồm 4 phần; mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau 10 giây; mở đầu và kết thúc
mỗi phần có tín hiệu.
• Mở đầu và kết thúc bài nghe có tín hiệu.
• Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh đã có trong đề bài nghe.

PART 1: Listen to the conversation. For questions 1-5, decide whether the following statements are True
(T) or False (F). Write your answers on the answer sheet. (5 points)
1. It's impossible for buyers to avoid purchasing the fakes.
2. Aution houses and galleries sell all pieces of artwork regardless of their origin.
3. The chemical composition of the paint may help determine if a painting is real or not.
4. Comparing fingerprints left in paint helps in detecting a forgery.
5. Some forgeries have become valuable themselves.

PART 2: For questions 6-10, you will hear a talk by a woman called Jean who visited some traditional
North American events, a cowboy rodeo and a Native American powwow. Answer the following questions
with NO MORE THAN FIVE WORDS.
Write your answers on the answer sheet. (5 points)
6. To whom did the organizers express their gratitude at the starting ceremony for the rodeo?
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…….
7. Which term was used to refer to the helper riders?
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…….
8. Which marked the end of the powwow?
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…….
9. What made the sound Jean enjoyed on the Jingle dancer’s dresses?
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…….
10. What must have been added to one competitor’s costume?
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…….

PART 3: You will hear a radio interview in which a choreographer, Alice Reynolds, discusses a dance
programme. For questions 11-15, choose the answer (A, B, C, or D) which fits best according to what
you hear. Write your answers on the answer sheet. (10 points)
11. How is the programme designed to help youngsters?

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A. By getting them to talk about their feelings

B. By encouraging them to loosen up
C. By enabling them to convey their thoughts
D. By giving them a way to entertain themselves
12. When talking about the nature of communication, Alice reveals that ______.
A. teenagers are quick to react to a number of emotions
B. people who learn to show how they feel can articulate better
C. shy youngsters find the programme more useful than others
D. young people have a lot of pent-up negative emotions
13. What aspect of the programme encourages teenagers to face their troubles?
A. The social side of dance
B. The freedom of the movement
C. The obligation to interact
D. The release of feelings
14. Alice contrasts professional and amateur dancers in order to ______.
A. highlight the usefulness of the programme
B. emphasise the use of emotions in dance
C. illustrate the difference between teaching styles
D. explain the ability to recognise feelings
15. What point does Alice make about the study into a person’s personality?
A. It found that certain types of people dance better than others.
B. Personality has a bearing on people’s willingness to participate.
C. Who people are can be recognised through their movements.
D. It revealed that most people try to hide their true nature.

PART 4: You will hear a talk about climate change adaptation. For questions 16-25, complete the
passage with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS taken from the recording.
Write your answers on the answer sheet. (20 points)
The International Monetary Fund (IMF) is oftentimes misperceived as the world’s fiscal sponsor, the
omniscient and practically immeasurable (16) ______ for any suffering nations. Indeed, the drive behind
this organization’s assistance is likened to a (17) ______’s, which is nothing but pressurizing the hard-
hit countries to fulfill its requirements. Such a paradox can be seen in the case of Malawi in 1990s-
2000s. Besides the HIV/AIDS epidemic that was diminishing overall life expectancy and (18) ______,
the South East Asian country was also harshly deteriorated by a food shortage due to extreme weather.
Under the IMF’s policy conditions to the early 1990s (19) ______, Malawi had to sell off its (20) ______
to private companies while abandoning its agricultural subsidy program. The IMF’s suspension of
economic aid as a punishment against the Malawi government for violating such commitments was
heavily criticized, with Action Aid’s (21) ______ of the food crisis being the accusation. In fact, the
emergency situations were completely overlooked by the organization’s rigid approach to (22) ______.
It is by now crystal clear that IMF’s assistance was intrinsically a loan at an (23) ______, an exchange
for natural resources and a vicious circle of corruption and inflation. Therefore, a handful of nations are
(24) ______ this financial trap. Free market principles can be a cure for everything if only (25) ______
the urgency to care for the best interests of citizens.

II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (60 points)

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PART 1: For questions 26-45, choose the correct answer (A, B, C, or D) to each of the following
questions. Write your answers on the answer sheet. (10 points)
26. They are a real ______ organisation; they are only interested in making a profit as soon as possible.
A. devil-may-care B. fly-by-night C. open-and-shut D. down-to-earth
27. We should all ______ when advertisers attempt to use unfair practices.
A. make a stand B. make a comeback C. make amends D. make a deal
28. You can try reformatting your computer, but once you open that ______, you'll probably be working
on it for days.
A. apple of discord B. can of worms C. load of cobblers D. spot of bother
29. Our company has over 100 branches, ______ in a major urban area.
A. each locating B. the location of which C. and are located D. each located
30. Mr. Li is ______ on Chinese food and customs.
A. a distributor B. an authority C. a partisan D. a bursar
31. He says he's been investigating my complaint, but I feel he's just ______.
A. going with the flow B. going through the motions
C. going against the grain D. going along with them
32. We had ______ cold winter this year, so our heating bills were very high.
A. a reluctantly B. an excessively C. an aimlessly D. a cautiously
33. The delight in treasure finding doesn’t always ______ acquiring tremendous amounts of valuables.
A. dwell on B. poke around C. lay about D. hinge upon
34. ______, the strollers can take another road.
A. If need be B. When it must C. We might as well D. Come what may
35. When are we going to get rid of all these empty cartons? They've been ______ up the office for
weeks now.
A. buttering B. clutching C. cluttering D. botching
36. Owning and living in a freestanding house is still a goal of young adults, ______ earlier generations.
A. as did B. as it was of C. like that of D. so have
37. Archaeologists say the city was a ______ of all American culture during the 1960s.
A. microclimate B. microcopy C. microcosm D. microscope
38. Sam swore that he would ______ after he figured out that I had started the rumor about him.
A. fight shy of me B. get even with me C. lie heavy on me D. run afoul of me
39. Jessica is still ______ ignorant of the fact that she is about to be made redundant.
A. blissfully B. decorously C. jubilantly D. ecstatically
40. My arguments with the boss got worse and worse, and it all ______ in my deciding to change jobs.
A. elaborated B. superseded C. regenerated D. culminated
41. I don't like intellectual novels, serious music or films; my tastes are quite ______.
A. flat-topped B. lowbrow C. shamefaced D. high-octane
42. Henry kept trying to ______ his duties, so his manager told him if he didn’t take responsibility for
his work, he would have to leave the company.
A. beaver away B. clam up C. chicken out of D. weasel out of
43. Being a ______ entrepreneur, you will have to make a special effort for people to take you seriously.
A. fruiting B. budding C. blossoming D. flowering
44. It’s urgent ______ of the problem immediately.
A. the personnel manager be informed B. to be informed the personnel manager
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C. the personnel manager is being informed D. informing the personnel manager

45. Global warming has progressed ______ glaciers everywhere are shrinking.
A. too much an extent that B. to such an extent that
C. enough an extent that D. so great an extent that

PART 2: For questions 46-55, read the following passage and choose the word that best fits each of
the blanks.
Write your answers on the answer sheet. (5 points)
It only (46) ______ the completion of the reconstruction of the human genetic map for a whole host of
hereditary diseases to be eradicated. Originally, it was forecast that the venture would take until the
beginning of the 21st century to be (47) ______. At present, it is clear that the task can be finished much
earlier.
Hundreds of scholars have gone to extremes to help (48) ______ the mystery of the human genetic
structure with an ardent hope for (49) ______ mankind from disorders such as cancer, cystic fibrosis, or
arthritis.
The progress in this incredible undertaking is (50) ______ by an accurate interpretation of the
information involved in the chromosomes forming the trillions of the cells in the human body. Locating
and characterizing every single gene may sound an implausible assignment, but very considerable (51)
______ has already been made. What we know by now is that the hereditary code is assembled in DNA,
some parts of which may be diseased and (52) ______ to the uncontrollable transmission of the damaged
code from parents to their children.
Whereas work at the completion of the human genome may last for a few years more, notions like gene
therapy or genetic engineering don’t (53) ______ much surprise any longer. Their potential application
has already been (54) ______ in the effective struggle against many viruses or in the genetic treatment
of blood disorders. The hopes are, then, that hundreds of maladies that humanity is (55) ______ with at
present might eventually cease to exist in the not too distant future.
46. A. expects B. anticipates C. requires D. remains
47. A. dismantled B. discharged C. accomplished D. exterminated
48. A. dissolve B. interrogate C. respond D. unravel
49. A. liberating B. insulating C. surviving D. averting
50. A. dependent B. reliant C. qualified D. conditioned
51. A. headline B. headway C. heading D. headship
52. A. amiable B. conceivable C. conducive D. evocative
53. A. evoke B. institute C. discharge D. encourage
54. A. examined B. inquired C. corroborated D. accounted
55. A. aggravated B. plagued C. persecuted D. teased

PART 3:
A. For questions 56-60, give the correct form of the words in brackets to complete each of the
following sentences. Write your answers on the answer sheet. (5 points)
56. This brochure is generally considered to be the ______ guide to Australia. (DEFINE)
57. Liskeard and Callington are basically ______ from here, so it’ll take about the same time to get to
either of them. (DISTANT)
58. I really believe that it would be a major mistake to ______ any drugs that are currently illegal.
(CRIME)

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59. In the old days, buyers and sellers had to look through hundreds of ______ each week and go to car
boot sales at the weekend. (CLASS)
60. William was ready to leave everything behind and start ______ in California. (NEW)

B. For questions 61-70, give the correct form of the words in brackets to complete the following
passage. Write your answers on the answer sheet. (10 points)
At one time, for the (61) (PONDER) ______ of people needing to make the journey, the only way to
travel from Europe to America was by ship, but the days of a (62) (LEISURE) ______ five-day (63)
(ATLANTIC) ______ crossing in a large liner have long gone. Today, everything is about speed, and
long distance travel has become almost exclusively the business of the airlines. Although air travel is
admittedly fast, passengers are still subject to the unexpected (64) (HOLD) ______ which seem to be
inherent in any form of travel, but people’s reactions to such delays seem to be far more (65) (SEE)
______ than in the days of the great liners. Then, passengers might have shrugged their shoulders (66)
(RESIGN) ______ and relaxed with a book in their cabins, knowing that little could be done about the
situation, but today’s traveller is more likely to make his (67) (CONTENT) ______ known forcibly to
any official who is unfortunate enough to appear on the horizon.
It is easy to see why this might be the case since airport lounges are (68) (STANDARD) ______ to cope
with large numbers of passengers. Small wonder that people’s tempers begin to fray and their nerves are
(69) (TAX) ______ when faced with the prospect of a (70) (SLEEP) ______ overnight stay in what is,
after all, no more than a vast public hall.

PART 4: Think of ONE word only which can be used appropriately in all three sentences. Write your
answers on the answer sheet. 0 is an example. (10 points)
0. The police have ______ two men with robbery and they will appear in court tomorrow.
When he realized how late it was, George ______ out of the house and ran down the road to catch
the bus.
The hotel agreed that it was their mistake and said that I wouldn't be ______ for the phone calls that
appeared on my bill.
Answer: charged
71. The Potters drove through the countryside looking for a nice ______ for a picnic.
When the accident happened, reporters were on the ______ within minutes.
You can’t wear that jumper, there’s a ______ of paint on the front of it.
72. Liam was rather ______ with me when we spoke on the phone. I must have done something to
offend him.
As we’re rather ______ of time, I think we’d better get on to the main point of this meeting straight
away.
I was angry that they cancelled the arrangement at such ______ notice.
73. They watched as the lion ______ its teeth into its prey.
When it finally ______ in that she’d won the championship, she felt able to celebrate properly.
My heart ______ when I realized just how difficult the work I’d been given really was.
74. We believe that customers like the personal ______ and so we aim to treat them all as individuals.
I think there was just a ______ of envy in Michael's comments about my new car.
I've tried my hardest to persuade my father to pump his money into my struggling business, but
unfortunately, he's no soft ______.
75. Vanessa's students all speak very ______ of her and consider her the best teacher at the college.

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Margaret Michelle, one of the most ______ placed figures in local politics, has made great efforts
to alleviate poverty and raise living standard in her hometown.
He's such a ______ sprung young boy that he easily gets upset by other people's judgement on his
appearance.
PART 5: For questions 76-85, identify 10 errors in the following passage and get them right. Write
your answers on the answer sheet. 0 is an example. (10 points)
0. Line 1: do → does

Line Passage

CARNIVOROUS PLANTS
1 All plants rely on nutrients taken from the soil in order to survive. However, in areas where
2 the soil do not contain enough vital nutrients, some plants have adapted to supplement
3 their diets from another source: living organisms. Though they are little in number,
4 carnivorous plants are nonetheless fascinating being that “eat” anything from single-celled
5 organisms to insects in order to survive. They are commonly found in marshlands.
6 Carnivorous plants feature one of several types of “traps” to ensnare prey, which they
7 consume to bring up for nutrients that may be missing from the soil. While there are over
8 400 species of carnivorous plants in the world today, some are more prevalent than the
9 other. The most well-known of these plants are snap traps, including the Venus flytrap.
10 Snap traps are easily identified by their leaves, which are separated into two lobes that
11 have the ability to fold together. Inside the lobes, the surface covers with tiny hairs that
12 are sensitive to movement. When the plant’s prey brushes against the hairs, it triggers a
13 closing mechanism that rapidly brings the two lobes together, trapping the prey securely
14 inside. The response of the traps is phenomenon in regard to speed: the time between
15 triggering the hairs and snapping shut is less than a second. As the prey struggles inside
16 the trap, it only triggers more hairs, causing the leaves to tight their grip. The plant then
17 secretes liquid chemicals from special glands into the trap to dissolve the prey and absorb
18 all of their nutrients. Apart from the Venus flytrap, only one type of snap trap exists today,
referred to as the waterwheel plant. The two share a common ancestor and distinguish only
in a few ways. For instance, the waterwheel is an aquatic plant, while the flytrap is
exclusively terrestrial. In addition, the flytrap feeds primarily with arthropods like spiders,
while the waterwheel lives off simple invertebrates, like certain types of plankton.

PART 6: For questions 86-95, complete each sentence with one idiom created from a word or phrase
in column A with that in column B. Write your answers on the answer sheet. (10 points)

A B
from the bottom of habit
as a bolt from the dogs
cut the ladder
went to devil's advocate
pull out a fine figure
a good the blue
risking in the mouth

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a creature of mixer
playing your neck
look a gift horse all the stops
86. This local firm of accountants ______ after the new management had taken over.
87. My sister goes to bed at exactly 7.30 every night; she's ______.
88. Sophie's confident and interested in meeting different kinds of people. She's ______.
89. You'll be ______ if you swim down the river without any assistance.
90. "Don't you think Ann ______ at the anniversary ball?" – "That's right, she did look gorgeous in her
white dress."
91. I don't really like the stockings my parents gave me for Christmas. But, as they say, never ______.
92. There isn't much we can do to lift ourselves ______. Our earnings are low and the taxes are heavy.
93. The news of the plane crash came ______ to all of us, especially because our relatives were on
board.
94. I don't think she disagreed with you. She was just ______ because she enjoys arguing for the sake
of it.
95. We'll have to ______ to get the show ready on time.

III. READING (50 points)

PART 1: Read the text below and think of ONE word which best fits each space from 96 to 105. Write
your answers on the answer sheet. (10 points)
LONDON’S BLACK CABS
Black cabs, officially known as Hackney Carriages, are synonymous with London and are special for a
number of reasons. For a start, they are the only taxis in the city that can be hailed from the kerb with a
raised hand signal to get the driver’s attention. Currently, it is estimated that there are 20,000 black cabs
(96) ______ thereabouts on the capital’s streets. Their origin, in fact, can be (97) ______ back to the
name ‘Hackney Carriage’ said to derive from the French word haquenée referring to the type of horse
used to pull the carriages in the days of horse-drawn carriages. The first horse-drawn Hackney coaches
appeared on London’s streets in the 17th century during the reign of Queen Elizabeth I. As transport
developed and motor cars were (98) ______ vogue, motor cabs replaced the horse-drawn carriages. Since
the end of the 19th century, various car manufacturers’ vehicles have been used as motor cabs (99)
______ it was not until the mid-20th century that the cabs we have been (100) ______ stranger to over
the last decades first appeared.
It is such a realisation of becoming a black cab driver in London and it is no mean feat. If you want to
gain this honour, you will (101) ______ to have passed the infamous test known as ‘the Knowledge’,
which was first introduced in 1851 following hordes of complaints by passengers (102) ______ cab
drivers got lost. This incredibly difficult test can take around three or four years to prepare for and you
can often catch a (103) ______ of those drivers who are doing just this zipping around London on their
mopeds, with a map fastened to a clipboard on their handlebars. These people are essentially trying not
only to master the 25,000 or so streets within a six-mile radius of Charing Cross, but also to work out
the most direct routes from place to place. They must know thousands of "points of (104) ______" such
as hotels, hospitals, places of worship, theatres, stations, sports and leisure facilities, to name but a few.
Practically everywhere and anywhere that a potential passenger would wish to be taken to or from must
be known, so a nodding acquaintance, for a black cab driver, is beyond (105) ______ pale and perhaps
this is the most difficult part, knowing the quickest way to get from one place to another. Little wonder
so few people are successful.

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PART 2: For questions 106-118, read the following passage and do the tasks that follow.
Write your answers on the answer sheet. (13 points)
E-TRAINING
A. E-learning is the unifying term to describe the fields of online learning, web-based training, and
technology-delivered instruction, which can be a great benefit to corporate e-learning. IBM, for
instance, claims that the institution of its e-training program, Basic Blue, whose purpose is to train
new managers, saved the company in the range of $200 million in 1999. Cutting the travel expenses
required to bring employees and instructors to a central classroom accounts for the lion’s share of
the savings. With an online course, employees can learn from any Internet-connected PC, anywhere
in the world. Ernest and Young reduced training costs by 35 percent while improving consistency
and scalability.
B. In addition to generally positive economic benefits, other advantages such as convenience,
standardized delivery, self-paced learning, and a variety of available content, have made e-learning
a high priority for many corporations. E-learning is widely believed to offer flexible “any time, any
place” learning. The claim for “any place” is valid in principle and is a great development. Many
people can engage with rich learning materials that simply were not possible in a paper or broadcast
distance learning era. For teaching specific information and skills, e-training holds great promise. It
can be especially effective at helping employees prepare for IT certification programs. E-learning
also seems to effectively address topics such as sexual harassment education, safety training and
management training - all areas where a clear set of objectives can be identified. Ultimately, training
experts recommend a “blended” approach that combines both online and in-person training as the
instruction requires. E-learning is not an end-all solution. But if it helps decrease costs and
windowless classrooms filled with snoring students, it definitely has its advantages.
C. Much of the discussion about implementing e-learning has focused on the technology, but as
Driscoll and others have reminded us, e-learning is not just about the technology, but also many
human factors. As any capable manager knows, teaching employees new skills is critical to a
smoothly run business. Having said that, however, the traditional route of classroom instruction runs
the risk of being expensive, slow and, oftentimes, ineffective. Perhaps the classroom’s greatest
disadvantage is the fact that it takes employees out of their jobs. Every minute an employee is sitting
in a classroom training session is a minute they’re not out on the floor working. It now looks as if
there is a way to circumvent these traditional training drawbacks. E-training promises more effective
teaching techniques by integrating audio, video, animation, text and interactive materials with the
intent of teaching each student at his or her own pace. In addition to higher performance results,
there are other immediate benefits to students such as increased time on task, higher levels of
motivation, and reduced test anxiety for many learners. A California State University Northridge
study reported that e-learners performed 20 percent better than traditional learners. Nelson reported
a significant difference between the mean grades of 406 university students earned in traditional and
distance education classes, where the distance learners outperformed the traditional learners.
D. On the other hand, nobody said e-training technology would be cheap. E-training service providers,
on the average, charge from $10,000 to $60,000 to develop one hour of online instruction. This price
varies depending on the complexity of the training topic and the media used. HTML pages are a
little cheaper to develop while streaming-videos, presentations or flash animations cost more.
Course content is just the starting place for cost. A complete e-learning solution also includes the
technology platform (the computers, applications and network connections that are used to deliver
the courses). This technology platform, known as a learning management system (LMS), can either
be installed onsite or outsourced. Add to that cost the necessary investments in network bandwidth
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to deliver multimedia courses, and you’re left holding one heck of a bill. For the LMS infrastructure
and a dozen or so online courses, costs can top $500,000 in the first year. These kinds of costs mean
that custom e-training is, for the time being, an option only for large organizations. For those
companies that have a large enough staff, the e-training concept pays for itself. Aware of this fact,
large companies are investing heavily in online training. Today, over half of the 400-plus courses
that Rockwell Collins offers are delivered instantly to its clients in an e-learning format, a change
that has reduced its annual training costs by 40%. Many other success stories exist.
E. E-learning isn’t expected to replace the classroom entirely. For one thing, bandwidth limitations are
still an issue in presenting multimedia over the Internet. Furthermore, e-training isn’t suited to every
mode of instruction or topic. For instance, it’s rather ineffective imparting cultural values or building
teams. If your company has a unique corporate culture, it would be difficult to convey that to first-
time employees through a computer monitor. Group training sessions are more ideal for these
purposes. In addition, there is a perceived loss of research time because of the work involved in
developing and teaching online classes. Professor Wallin estimated that it required between 500 and
1,000 person-hours, that is, Wallin-hours, to keep the course at the appropriate level of currency and
usefulness. (Distance learning instructors often need technical skills, no matter how advanced the
courseware system.) That amounts to between a quarter and half of a person-year. Finally, teaching
materials require computer literacy and access to equipment. Any e-learning system involves basic
equipment and a minimum level of computer knowledge in order to perform the tasks required by
the system. A student that does not possess these skills, or have access to these tools, cannot succeed
in an e-learning program.
F. While few people debate the obvious advantages of e-learning, systematic research is needed to
confirm that learners are actually acquiring and using the skills that are being taught online, and that
e-learning is the best way to achieve the outcomes in a corporate environment. Nowadays, a go-
between style of the Blended learning, which refers to a mixing of different learning environments,
is gaining popularity. It combines traditional face-to-face classroom methods with more modern
computer-mediated activities. According to its proponents, the strategy creates a more integrated
approach for both instructors and learners. Formerly, technology-based materials played a
supporting role to face-to-face instruction. Through a blended learning approach, technology will
be more important.
Questions 106-111
The reading passage has seven paragraphs, A-F. Choose the correct heading for paragraphs A-F
from the list below. Write the correct number i-xi in boxes 106-111 on your answer sheet.
List of Headings
i. Overview of the benefits for the application of e-training
ii. IBM’s successful choice of training
iii. Future direction and a new style of teaching
iv. Learners’ achievement and advanced teaching materials
v. Limitations when e-training compares with traditional class
vi. Multimedia over the Internet can be a solution
vii. Technology can be a huge financial burden
viii. The distance learners outperformed the traditional university learners worldwide
ix. Other advantages besides economic consideration
x. Training offered to help people learn using computers
106. Paragraph A
107. Paragraph B

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108. Paragraph C
109. Paragraph D
110. Paragraph E
111. Paragraph F

Questions 112-115
The reading passage has seven paragraphs A-F.
Which paragraph contains the following information?
Write the correct letters A-F, in boxes 112-115 on your answer sheet.
112. Projected Basic Blue in IBM achieved a great success.
113. E-learning wins as a priority for many corporations as its flexibility.
114. The combination of the traditional and e-training environments may prevail.
115. Example of a fast electronic delivery for a company’s products to its customers.

Questions 116-118
Choose THREE correct letters (A-E) which show the correct information in the passage.
Write the correct letters in box 116-118 (in any order) on your answer sheet.
A. Technical facilities are hardly obtained.
B. Presenting multimedia over the Internet is restricted due to the bandwidth limit.
C. It is ineffective imparting a unique corporate value to fresh employees.
D. Employees need block a long time leaving their position attending training.
E. More preparation time is needed to keep the course at the suitable level.

PART 3: You are going to read an article. Seven paragraphs have been removed from the article.
For questions 119-125, choose from the paragraphs, A-H, the one which fits each gap. There is one
extra paragraph which you do not need to use. Write your answers on the answer sheet. (7 points)
HELP GUIDE US THROUGH THE UNIVERSE
Sir Martin Rees, Astronomer Royal, launches this year's Young Science Writer competition.
If you ask scientists what they’re doing, the answer won’t be ‘Finding the origin of the universe’,
‘Seeking the cure for cancer’ or suchlike. It will involve something very specialised, a small piece of the
jigsaw that builds up the big picture.
119.
So, unless they are cranks or geniuses, scientists don’t shoot directly for a grand goal - they focus on
bite-sized problems that seem timely and tractable. But this strategy (though prudent) carries an
occupational risk: they may forget they’re wearing blinkers and fail to see their own work in its proper
perspective.
120.
I would personally derive far less satisfaction from my research if it interested only a few other
academics. But presenting one’s work to non-socialists isn’t easy. We scientists often do it badly,
although the experience helps us to see our work in a broader context. Journalists can do it better, and
their efforts can put a key discovery in perspective, converting an arcane paper published in an obscure
journal into a tale that can inspire others.
121.
On such occasions, people often raise general concerns about the way science is going and the impact it
may have; they wonder whether taxpayers get value for money from the research they support. More
intellectual audiences wonder about the basic nature of science: how objective can we be? And how

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creative? Is science genuinely a progressive enterprise? What are its limits and are we anywhere near
them? It is hard to explain, in simple language, even a scientific concept that you understand well. My
own (not always effective) attempts have deepened my respect for science reporters, who have to
assimilate quickly, with a looming deadline, a topic they may be quite unfamiliar with.
122.
It's unusual for science to earn newspaper headlines. Coverage that has to be restricted to crisp
newsworthy breakthroughs in any case distorts the way science develops. Scientific advances are usually
gradual and cumulative, and better suited to feature articles, or documentaries - or even books, for which
the latent demand is surprisingly strong. For example, millions bought A Brief History of Time, which
caught the public imagination.
123.
Nevertheless, serious books do find a ready market. That's the good news for anyone who wants to enter
this competition. But books on pyramidology, visitations by aliens, and suchlike do even better: a
symptom of a fascination with the paranormal and ‘New Age’ concepts. It is depressing that these are
often featured uncritically in the media, distracting attention from more genuine advances.
124.
Most scientists are quite ordinary, and their lives unremarkable. But occasionally they exemplify the
link between genius and madness; these ‘eccentrics’ are more enticing biographees.
125.
There seems, gratifyingly, to be no single ‘formula’ for science writing - many themes are still under-
exploited. Turning out even 700 words seems a daunting task if you’re faced with a clean sheet of paper
or a blank screen, but less so if you have done enough reading and interviewing on a subject to become
inspired. For research students who enter the competition, science (and how you do it) is probably more
interesting than personal autobiography. But if, in later life, you become both brilliant and crazy, you
can hope that someone else writes a best-seller about you.
A However, over-sensational claims are a hazard for them. Some researchers themselves ‘hype up’
new discoveries to attract press interest. Maybe it matters little what people believe about
Darwinism or cosmology. But we should be more concerned that misleading or over-confident
claims on any topic of practical import don’t gain wide currency. Hopes of miracle cures can be
raised; risks can be either exaggerated, or else glossed over for commercial pressures. Science
popularisers - perhaps even those who enter this competition - have to be as sceptical of some
scientific claims as journalists routinely are of politicians.
B Despite this, there’s a tendency in recent science writing to be chatty, laced with gossip and
biographical detail. But are scientists as interesting as their science? The lives of Albert Einstein
and Richard Feyman are of interest, but is that true of the routine practitioner?
C Two mathematicians have been treated as such in recent books: Paul Erdos, the obsessive itinerant
Hungarian (who described himself as ‘a machine for turning coffee into theorems’) and John Nash,
a pioneer of game theory, who resurfaced in his sixties, after 30 years of insanity, to receive a Nobel
Prize.
D For example, the American physicist Robert Wilson spent months carrying out meticulous
measurements with a microwave antenna which eventually revealed the ‘afterglow of creation’ - the
‘echo’ of the Big Bang with which our universe began. Wilson was one of the rare scientists with the
luck and talent to make a really great discovery, but afterwards he acknowledged that its importance
didn’t sink in until he read a ‘popular’ description of it in the New York Times.
E More surprising was the commercial success of Sir Roger Penrose’s The Emperor’s New Mind. This
is a fascinating romp through Penrose’s eclectic enthusiasms - enjoyable and enlightening. But it
was a surprising best seller, as much of it is heavy going. The sales pitch ‘great scientist says mind
is more than a mere machine’ was plainly alluring. Many who bought it must have got a nasty
surprise when they opened it.
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F But if they have judged right, it won't be a trivial problem - indeed it will be the most difficult that
they are likely to make progress on. The great zoologist Sir Peter Medawar famously described
scientific work as ‘the art of the soluble’. ‘Scientists,’ he wrote, ‘get no credit for failing to solve a
problem beyond their capacities. They earn at best the kindly contempt reserved for utopian
politicians.’
G This may be because, for non-specialists, it is tricky to demarcate well-based ideas from flaky
speculation. But it’s crucially important not to blur this distinction when writing articles for a general
readership. Otherwise credulous readers may take too much on trust, whereas hard- nosed sceptics
may reject all scientific claims, without appreciating that some have firm empirical support.
H Such a possibility is one reason why this competition to encourage young people to take up science
writing is so important and why I am helping to launch it today. Another is that popular science
writing can address wider issues. When I give talks about astronomy and cosmology, the questions
that interest people most are the truly ‘fundamental’ ones that I can’t answer: ‘Is there life in space?’,
‘Is the universe infinite?’ or ‘Why didn’t the Big Bang happen sooner?’

PART 4: For questions 126-135, read an extract from an article on the design of green buildings and
choose the answer (A, B, C, or D) that fits best according to the text.
Write your answers on the answer sheet. (10 points)
THE SEARCH FOR EARTH-LIKE PLANETS
Astronomers have discovered more than 400 exoplanets, or, planets outside our solar system. Some of
these planets have Earth-like qualities. However, many of these exoplanets are as large as Jupiter, and it
is unlikely that they are habitable. A planet in the “habitable zone” means the planet is located at a
distance from its sun suitable enough to allow for the existence of water on its surface. This is called the
“Goldilocks position”, meaning the planet is neither too hot nor too cold.
In order to find planets that are light years from our own solar system, astronomers use two types of
telescope, each with sensitive instruments that employ special techniques, to aid in the acquisition of
data: ground-based and orbiting telescopes. In 2007, a team of Swiss scientists discovered the first Earth-
like planet outside our solar system, Gliese 581, estimated to be approximately 50 percent bigger than
Earth. Located about 20.5 light years from our world, Gliese 581 orbits a red dwarf star. To identify this
new planet, the astronomy team used a spectroscopic instrument known as HARPS, which is linked to
a 3.6-meter telescope at the European Southern Observatory in La Silla, Chile. Spectroscopic
instruments use a Doppler, or "wobble" technique, to identify radial velocity - how fast a star moves
toward or away from the point of observation. By analyzing the wavelength of light emitted from a
star, the instrument is therefore able to calibrate the mass of a planet in the star’s orbit. With the wobble
technique, astronomers are only able to perceive a planet that is less than 160 light years from Earth.
Employing this technique can be slow, because astronomers must wait for the planet to make one
complete orbit of its sun in order to confirm their data.
Though earth-bound telescopic systems like HARPS at La Silla play a prominent role in space
exploration, orbiting telescopes, like the Hubble Space Telescope and the Kepler Orbiting Telescope,
can provide astrophysicists with different data. Circling 380 miles above the Earth, the Hubble Space
Telescope (HST) is about the size of a yellow school bus. Soon after its launch in 1990, astronomers
were shocked to find that images sent back by the Hubble were slightly blurry due to a defective mirror.
To remedy this problem, NASA created a special lens for the Hubble, similar to the way eyeglasses
correct human eyesight, in a special mission, a team of astronauts serviced the Hubble by mounting this
corrective lens. They also added several other specialized instruments, including an infrared camera and
a spectrograph, which is used to analyze light. Among the Hubble’s discoveries are new planets, newly
born stars, various nebulae, and even collisions of asteroids on the planet Jupiter. In joint observation
with several ground-based telescopes, the Hubble found several exoplanets that exist in a habitable zone
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from their stars. It is also credited with the discovery of a molecule of methane gas in the atmosphere of
a Jupiter-sized exoplanet, supporting the theory of life forms in space.
In 2009, NASA launched the Kepler Orbiting Telescope. Its primary task is to focus on, or "stare at",
the stars. Instead of orbiting the Earth like the Hubble, it "trails" the Earth, meaning it travels behind the
Earth’s orbit around the Sun. The Kepler’s mission is to observe about 150,000 stars and determine if
these stars contain planetary systems, most particularly, habitable planets. Unlike the La Silla and
Hubble telescopes, the Kepler Orbiting Telescope uses a photometric instrument to measure light
emanating from a star. When a planet passes in front of a star (similar to an observation of Mercury or
Venus crossing in front of the Sun), the Kepler telescope analyzes a change in the intensity of light
emitted by that star. This process allows astronomers to evaluate and examine the data further to
determine if one or more planets may orbit the star.
The Kepler Orbiting Telescope accomplished its primary objective in 2010: to find Earth-like planets. It
discovered seven planets - some almost as large as Jupiter - beyond our solar system. While many
astrophysicists and astrobiologists have argued the unlikelihood of life forms on other planets, the data
from the Kepler Orbiting Telescope suggests the contrary.
126. According to paragraph 1, what is true about "exoplanets"?
A. Most of them are considerably smaller than the planet Jupiter.
B. Those that are as large as Jupiter probably cannot sustain life.
C. They are found within our solar system.
D. They are larger than the Earth.
127. In paragraph 1, why does the author use the phrase the Goldilocks position?
A. To support the concept of Earth-like exoplanets
B. To demonstrate the unlikelihood of a planet being Earth-like
C. To illustrate the differences between a habitable and uninhabitable planet
D. To explain the conditions needed for a planet to be considered habitable
128. In paragraph 2, all of the following are true about Gliese 581 EXCEPT ______.
A. it is half the size larger than Earth B. it is probably in a habitable zone
C. it is in our solar system D. it has its own sun
129. In paragraph 2, which of the following best expresses the essential information in the underlined
sentence? Incorrect answer choices change the meaning or leave out essential information.
A. Wobble techniques are used to demonstrate the use of a spectroscope.
B. Using the wobble technique, spectroscopic instruments can determine a star’s speed.
C. A star can move very fast away from the Earth, therefore it is necessary to use a wobble
technique.
D. In radial velocity, a star can move so quickly that it wobbles, which can be seen by using a
telescope.
130. The word blurry in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. clear B. cloudy C. stormy D. indistinct
131. According to paragraph 3, what problem did the Hubble Space Telescope have?
A. Its mirror was flawed. B. NASA damaged its
mirror.
C. A lens on its camera was broken. D. It did not have an infrared camera.
132. The word it in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. observation B. the Hubble Space Telescope
C. a molecule D. a habitable zone
133. Why does the author mention the molecule of methane in paragraph 3?
A. To support his statement about habitable planets
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B. To give evidence of one of the Hubble Space Telescope's uses

C. To give the Hubble credit for the discovery of a new gas
D. To illustrate the possibility for the existence of other life forms in the universe
134. According to paragraph 4, what can be inferred about the Kepler’s main purpose?
A. To search for new planets
B. To focus on threatening asteroids
C. To trail closely behind the Earth’s orbit
D. To determine if star systems contain potentially habitable planets
135. The author of the passage suggests that ______.
A. the Kepler Orbiting Telescope did not meet its goals
B. the Kepler’s data proves that life beyond our solar system is unlikely
C. most scientists doubt the usefulness of the Kepler Orbiting telescope
D. the discovery of Earth-like planets does not mean they are habitable

PART 5: You are going to read some extracts taken from an article. Choose from the sections (A-D) the
correct answer to each of the questions from 136 to 145. The sections may be chosen more than once.
Write your answers on the answer sheet. (10 points)
A. Monosodium Glutamate
Good food is one of life’s pleasures and even 1,200 years ago, oriental cooks knew that food tasted better
when prepared with a soup stock made from a type of seaweed. But it was only in 1908 that Japanese
scientists identified the ingredient responsible for enhancing flavour.
That ingredient is known today by its scientific name, monosodium glutamate. It is often referred to as
MSG and it is an amino acid found in virtually all foods. The bound form is linked to other amino acids
in proteins and is manufactured in the human body. The free form of glutamate in foods enhances food
flavours. Tomatoes, cheese and mushrooms are just some free glutamate rich foods. Free glutamate
content increases during ripening, bringing out a fuller taste in many foods and is made as a flavour
enhancer by a fermentation process similar to that used for making soy sauce and vinegar.
People have long known about the four basic tastes - sweet, sour, salty and bitter. But now a fifth basic
taste called umami has been recognised. This is imparted to foods by glutamate and is responsible for
the savoury taste of many foods, such as tomatoes and cheese.

B. Organic Food & Business

Organic farmers pride themselves on fostering sustainable agriculture, but it remains to be seen if the
industry’s rapid growth is in fact sustainable. One challenge facing the industry is to bring the price of
organic products more in line with those of conventional products. The price of organic ingredients is
improving but demand still outpaces supply. However, supply issues are overshadowed by the fact that
the organic foods sector continues to grow faster than the food industry as a whole, fundamentally due
to the natural alliance between organic crops and processed foods. Firstly, organic foods earmarked for
processing do not have to be as cosmetically perfect as their fresh counterparts. In addition, freezing or
tinning reduces many of the shelf-life problems associated with fresh produce. It was only a question of
time before mainstream food companies woke up to these synergies.
The pioneers of the organic food industry view the growing presence of major food companies in their
markets as a mixed blessing. Many smaller companies fear that the ideals of organic agriculture will be
compromised. Others think major food companies will help persuade consumers to buy organic products
through the power of their branding.

C. Chilli
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Capsicums, commonly known as chillis, come in all dimensions and colours from the tiny, pointed,
extremely hot, bird’s eye chilli, to the large, mild, fleshy peppers like the Anaheim. Indigenous to Central
and South America and the West Indies, they were cultivated long before the Spanish conquest, which
was the eventual cause of their introduction to Europe. Chillis along with tomatoes, avocados, vanilla
and chocolate changed the flavours of the known world. Today, there are around 400 different varieties
of chillis grown. They are easy to cultivate and are one of the world’s most widely distributed crops,
available for sale at most food outlets.
In 1902, a method was developed for measuring the strength of a given variety of capsicum, ranking it
on a predetermined scale. This originally meant tasting the peppers, but nowadays it can be done more
accurately with the help of computers to rate the peppers in units to indicate parts per million of
capsaicin. This potent chemical not only causes the fiery sensation, but also triggers the brain to produce
endorphins, natural painkillers that promote a sense of well-being.

D. Writing about Cooking

Two cookery writers are often credited with the present revival of interest in food and cooking. Elizabeth
David discovered her taste for good food when she lived with a French family for two years. After
returning to England, she learnt to cook so that she could reproduce some of the food that she had come
to appreciate in France. Her first book appeared when rationing was still in force after the war and most
of the ingredients she had so lovingly described were not available. At the time, her book was read rather
than used, and it created a yearning for good ingredients and for a way of life that saw more in food than
mere sustenance. Her later books confirmed her position as the most inspirational and influential cookery
writer in the English language. She shared with Jane Grigson an absorbing interest in the literature of
cookery.
Jane Grigson was brought up in the north-east of England, where there is a strong tradition of good
eating, but it was not until she began to spend time in France that she became really interested in food.
She was renowned for her fine writing on food and cookery, often catching the imagination with a deftly
chosen fragment of history or poetry, but never failing to explain the ‘why’ as well as the ‘how’ of
cookery.

In which section are the following mentioned? Your answers:

A group of foods that changed the way an area of the world cooked 136.
A period of time when access to food was restricted 137.
A comparison of the process of producing a substance with that also used for
138.
some other foods
The global popularity of a particular food 139.
An interest in discovering more about unfamiliar types of food 140.
The discrepancy between the amount of a type of food produced and the
141.
demand for it
A substance that reinforces the savoury aspect of food 142.
A way of determining the strength of a foodstuff 143.
Using literary forms to talk about food dishes 144.
Worries about the ethical future of a food industry 145.

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IV. WRITING (50 points)

PART 1: For questions 146-155, complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the
first one, using the word given in bold. DO NOT change the word given. You must use between
THREE and EIGHT words, including the word given. (10 points)
Note: A contraction is counted as ONE word.
146. Mr. Clinton reluctantly signed the contract of employment.
signature
→ It was with ......................................................................... on the contract of employment.
147. Coming second didn't make her feel any better because she only wanted to win.
consolation
→ Coming second ........................................................................ was all that mattered to her.
148. We're doubtful that this plan is very realistic.
reservations
→ We ....................................................................................................... realistic this plan is.
149. Eventually, Mark admitted that he was responsible for the error.
owned
→ Eventually, it ....................................................................... been responsible for the error.
150. There came a time when I completely ran out of patience.
stage
→ I ......................................................................................................... no more patience left.
151. Nobody knows why Frank made such an extraordinary decision.
prompted
→ Nobody knows .................................................................................................... a decision.
152. The spokesman said that the story was pure speculation.
dismissed
→ The story ..................................................................... than speculation by the spokesman.
153. Presumably you're still interested in travelling this summer.
lost
→ I take ............................................................................................... travelling this summer.
154. The manager praised one particular player.
singled
→ One particular player ....................................................................... praise by the manager.
155. My brother did not suffer from his experience.
none
→ My brother ............................................................................................. for his experience.

PART 2: (15 points)

The diagram below shows how electricity is generated in a hydroelectric power station.
Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons where
relevant.
Write at least 150 words.

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PART 3: (25 points)

Write an essay of about 300 words on the following topic.
Some people think that a sense of competition in children should be encouraged. Others believe that
children who are taught to cooperate rather than compete become more useful adults.
Discuss both these views and give your own opinion.
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or
experience.

----------- THE END -----------

Họ và tên thí sinh: ............................................... Số báo danh: ......................................................

Cán bộ coi thi số 1: ............................................. Cán bộ coi thi số 2: ...........................................

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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI THÀNH PHỐ BẢNG A
HẢI PHÒNG VÀ CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN DỰ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI QUỐC GIA
NĂM HỌC 2021 - 2022
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
(Hướng dẫn chấm gồm 05 trang)

A. Hướng dẫn chung

1. Cán bộ chấm thi chấm đúng như đáp án - thang điểm.
2. Nếu có câu nào, ý nào mà thí sinh có cách trả lời khác so với đáp án nhưng vẫn đúng thì vẫn cho
điểm tối đa của câu, ý đó theo thang điểm.
3. Cán bộ chấm thi không quy tròn điểm bài thi.

B. Đáp án - Thang điểm

I. LISTENING (40 points)

Part 1 (5 points – 1 point/correct answer)
1. F 2. F 3. T 4. T 5. T

Part 2 (5 points – 1 point/correct answer)

6. the sponsors
7. Rodeo clowns
8. retreat song
9. hundreds of small (tin) cones
10. some (nylon) ribbons

Part 3 (10 points – 2 points/correct answer)

11. C 12. B 13. D 14. A 15. C

Part 4 (20 points – 2 points/correct answer)

16. pit of money 21. in-depth autopsy
17. sugar daddy 22. economic salvation
18. decimating the workforce 23. extortionate rate
19. bailout loans 24. reeling from
20. grain reserves 25. unshackled by

II. LEXICO - GRAMMAR (60 points)

Part 1 (10 points – 0.5 point/correct answer)

26. B 27. A 28. B 29. D 30. B 31. B 32. B 33. D 34. A 35. C
36. B 37. C 38. B 39. A 40. D 41. B 42. D 43. B 44. A 45. B

Part 2 (5 points – 0.5 point/correct answer)

46. C 47. C 48. D 49. B 50.D 51. B 52. C 53. A 54. C 55. B

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Part 3 (15 points – 1 point/correct answer)

A.
56. definitive 57. equidistant 58. decriminalize 59. classifieds 60. anew
/ decriminalise
B.
61. preponderance 66. resignedly
62. leisurely 67. discontent(ment)
63. transatlantic 68. substandard
64. hold-ups 69. overtaxed
65. foreseeable 70. sleepless

Part 4 (10 points – 2 points/correct answer)

71. spot 72. short 73. sank 74. touch 75. highly

Part 5 (10 points – 1 point/correct answer)

Line Mistake Correction

76. 3 little few / small
77. 3 being beings
78. 6 bring make
79. 7 the other others
80. 9 covers is covered
81. 12 phenomenon phenomenal
82. 13 tight tighten
83. 15 their its
84. 16 distinguish differ
85. 18 with on

Part 6 (10 points – 1 point/correct answer)

86. gone to the dogs 91. never look a gift horse in the mouth
87. a creature of habit 92. from the bottom of the ladder
88. a good mixer 93. as a bolt from the blue
89. risking your neck 94. playing devil's advocate
90. cut a fine figure 95. pull out all the stops

III. READING (50 points)

Part 1 (10 points – 1 point/correct answer)
96. or 97. traced 98. in 99. but 100. no
101. need 102. whose 103. glimpse 104. interest 105. the

Part 2 (13 points – 1 point/correct answer)

106. i 107. ix 108. iv 109. vii 110. v 111. iii 112. A 113. B 114. F 115. D
116-117-118: B-C-E

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Part 3 (7 points – 1 point/correct answer)

119. F 120. D 121. H 122. A 123. E 124. G 125. C

Part 4 (10 points – 1 point/correct answer)

126. B 127. D 128. C 129. B 130. D 131. A 132. B 133. D 134. D 135. D

Part 5 (10 points – 1 point/correct answer)

136. C 137. D 138. A 139. C 140. D 141. B 142. A 143. C 144. D 145. B

IV. WRITING (50 points)

Part 1 (10 points)
146. It was with (some) reluctance that Mr. Clinton put/wrote my SIGNATURE on the
contract of employment.
147. Coming second was (of) no/ little CONSOLATION because winning was all that mattered
to her.
148. We have / are having (some) RESERVATIONS about/as to/concerning/regarding how
realistic this plan is.
149. Eventually, it was Mark who/that OWNED up to having/(that) he had been responsible
for the error.
150. I reached/got to a/the STAGE when/where I had no more patience left.
151. Nobody knows what PROMPTED Frank to make so extraordinary a decision.
152. The story was DISMISSED as nothing other / no more than speculation by a spokesman.
153. I take it (that) you have not LOST interest in travelling this summer.
154. One particular player was SINGLED out for praise by the manager.
155. My brother was NONE the worse for his experience.

Part 2 (15 points)

Excellent Good Below Average Ineffective

Task ●fully satisfy all ●cover the ●address the ●generally
Achievement the requirements requirements of the requirements of address the task;
of the task task the task the format may be
●clearly present ●present a clear ●present an inappropriate in
a fully overview of main overview with places
developed trends, differences information ●recount detail
response or stages appropriately mechanically with
selected no clear overview;
there may be no
data to support the
description

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Coherence ●Use cohesion ●logically organise ●arrange ●present

and in such a way information and information and information with
Cohesion that it attracts no ideas; there is clear ideas coherently some organisation
attention progression and there is a clear but there may be a
●Skillfully throughout overall progression lack of overall
manage pa ●use a range of ●use cohesive progression
ragraphing cohesive devices devices ●make
appropriately effectively, but inadequate,
although there may cohesion within inaccurate or
be some under- and/or between overuse of
/over-use sentences may be cohesive devices
faulty or ●may be repetitive
mechanical because of lack of
●may not always referencing and
use referencing substitution
clearly or
appropriately
Lexical ●Uses a wide ●use a sufficient ●use an adequate ●use a limited
Resource range of range of vocabulary range of range of
vocabulary with to allow some vocabulary for the vocabulary, but
very natural and flexibility and task this is minimally
sophisticated precision ●attempt to use adequate for the
control of lexical ●use less common less common task
features; rare lexical items with vocabulary but ●may make
minor errors some awareness of with some noticeable errors
occur only as style and inaccuracy in spelling and/or
‘slips’ collocation ●make some word formation
●may produce errors in spelling that may cause
occasional errors in and/or word some difficulty for
word choice, formation, but they the reader
spelling and/or do not impede
word formation communication
Grammatical uses a wide ●use a variety of ●use a mix of ●use only a
Range and range of complex structures simple and limited range of
Accuracy structures with ●produce frequent complex sentence structures
full flexibility error-free sentences forms ●attempt complex
and accuracy; ●have good control ●make some sentences but
rare minor errors of grammar and errors in grammar these tend to be
occur only as punctuation but and punctuation less accurate than
‘slips’ may make a few but they rarely simple sentences
errors reduce ●may make
communication frequent
grammatical
errors and
punctuation may
be faulty; errors
can cause some
difficulty for the
reader
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ĐƯỢC SƯU TẦM BỞI FANPAGE TÀI LIỆU TIẾNG ANH NÂNG CAO

Part 3 (25 points)

CATEGORY Most points Zero
Clarity Grammar, Occasional (2 or 3 per Problems in grammar, Significant
spelling, and style page) grammar, spelling or style that problems in
make it easy for spelling or style interfere writer’s grammar, spelling
the reader to problems. Tendency statements. (Multiple or style that make
follow. Use words to use vague words or problems in each it challenging to
correctly and avoid excessive jargon. paragraph). follow the writer's
jargon unless it is statements.
the most precise
word.
Relevance/ Achieves the Achieves the Achieves learning Fails to achieve
Significance learning objectives learning objectives of objectives minimally. the learning
of the task. the task. objectives of the
task.

Depth/Breadth Response displays Of the following 2 Of the following 2 tasks, Response is both
a full tasks, does one well does one well and the narrower than
understanding of and the other partially other not at all or does appropriate and
the complexity of or does both partially both minimally superficial. Fails
the issue addressed a) Recognizing varied a) Recognizing varied to recognize
and multiple points of view points of view varied
points of view. b) Exploring the topic b) Exploring the topic in interpretations
in depth from one depth from one point of and implications
point of view. view. of topic.

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