PSYCHOLOGICAL ASSESSMENT

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:

1. The test booklet contains 150 test questions.

2. Read INSTRUCTIONS TO EXAMINEES printed on your answer sheet.
3. Shade only one (1) box for each question on your answer sheets. Two or more boxes shaded will
invalid your answer.
4. AVOID ERASURES.

INSTRUCTIONS:

1. Detach one (1) answer sheet from the bottom of your Examinee ID/Answer Sheet set.
2. Write the subject title on your box provided.
3. Shade Set Box “A” on your answer sheet if your test booklet is Set A, Set B if your test booklet is
Set B.

Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the questions.

1. The area of a normal distribution from 0 to +3 encompasses approximately______ of the curve

a) 50%
b) 68%
c) 95%
d) 99%

2. A television producer hires a director for a new show after viewing samples of the director’s
work on other television shows. Using the language of psychometrics, we could say that the
director was hired on the basis of:
a) A portfolio assessment
b) A behavioral assessment
c) An unstructured interview
d) A case study evaluation

3. According to the Code of Ethics, all of the following are rights of the testtakers, except:
a) The right not to have privacy invaded
b) The right to be informed of the test findings
c) The right to a nonstigmatizing diagnosis
d) The right to informed consent to testing

4. The true ratio or intelligence quotient was derived by

a) Adding the mental age (MA) and the chronological age (CA) of the test taker
b) Subtracting the CA from the MA and multiplying the result by 100

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 c) Dividing the CA by the MA and multiplying the result by 100
d) Dividing the MA by the CA and multiplying the result by 100

5. Evidence of validity that is based on test content and response processes is particularly applied
to:
a) Interest_______________
b) Personally Tests
c) Educational Tests
d) Clinical Tests

6. In order to get the discriminant validity evidence, one would correlate the score of tests that
purport to assess _________construct
a) The same
b) Eliminate not the same
c) Different
d) Random

7. Face validity refer primarily to

a) The representativeness of test content
b) Evidence of validity from psychometric perspective
c) The superficial characteristics of a test
d) The amount of empirical validation data accumulated for a test

8. Which of the following scales of measurement is the only one that has a meaningful zero point?
a) Nominal
b) ratio
c) ordinal
d) interval

9. Paul and Tessa scored at the 60th and 65th percentiles, respectively, on a language skills test.
Mario and Jose scored at the 90 th and 95th percentiles, respectively on the same test. We can
conclude that the difference between Paul and Tessa in terms of their language skills is the same
as the difference between Mario and Jose. The preceding statement is
a) True
b) False
c) Neither true or false
d) Either true or false

10. On a test of general ability, a 5-year old child obtains a mental age score of 4 years and a 10-
year old child obtains a mental age score of 9 years. If one were to compute their age according
to the original ratio IQ formula, the result would be as follows:
a) Both children would obtain the same ratio IQ
b) The 5-year old child would obtain a higher ratio IQ
c) The 10-year old child would obtain a higher ratio IQ

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 d) They all both have an average IQ

11. Interpret the IQ score of the 4-year old child. Please refer to item no. 10.
a) Normal
b) Above average
c) Below average
d) None of the above

12. All other things being equal, scores obtained from longer tests are ______ those obtained from
comparable tests that are shorter
a) Less reliable than
b) More reliable than
c) Just as reliable as
d) More unreliable as

13. Which of the following statements about the normal curve model is not true?
a) It is bilaterally symmetrical
b) Its limits extends to infinity
c) Its mean, median and mode coincide
d) Its multimodal

14. For testing and many other purposes, the quintessential or typical index or variability in a
distribution of scores is the
a) The sum of the squared deviation scores
b) The square root of the variance
c) The semi-interquartile range
d) Standard error of measurement

15. Which is the concern of a test developer if he is trying to establish construct validity
a) He is concerned with how well a test measures the constructs that it claims to measure.
b) He is focused on how well a test represents all aspects of the construct that it claims to
measure.
c) His object is to determine the extent to which the test is related to
specific criteria.
d) None of the options are correct.

16. Which of the following coefficient represents the strongest degree of correlation between
variables?
a) -.80
b) 0
c) +1.20
d) +.60

17. If not accompanied by further information, a high raw score is

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 a) Meaningless
b) Always better that a low score
c) Reliable when correlated with another variable
d) Valid when correlated with another variable

18. _________ constitutes the most widely used frame of reference for test score interpretation
a) Content domain
b) Work samples
c) Criteria
d) Norms

19. When transformed into the Wechsler-scale type of deviation IQs, a z score of -1.00 would
become a Wechsler IQ of
a) 85
b) 95
c) 105
d) 115

20. Cultural sensitivity in test development is manifested by

a) Panels of experts who reviews at items for discriminatory content
b) Test purchase qualification form that require statements of cultural
background
c) Behavioral evaluation of test scorers from different cultural background
d) Strict adherence to the guidelines on form in Tarasoff v Regents of University of
California

21. Carmen got a z-score of 2.60 in a science test; a z-score of 1.0 in grammar test and score of .50
in a math test. Evan on the other hand obtained the following scores, z-score of 2.00 in a science
test; a z-score of 1.00 in grammar test and z-score of 1.50 in grammar test and z-score of 0.85.
Cynthia got a z-score of 2.0 in a science test, a z-score of 1.50 in grammar test and a z-score of
2.50. What is Carmen’s corresponding CEEB score in Math?
a) 350
b) 550
c) 500
d) 250

22. Refer to the facts in no.21. Which of the following statements is correct?
a) As regards the three subjects taken by Carmen, she performed best in science.
b) with regard to Math, Cynthia performed better than Carmen
c) Evan did better than Cynthia in grammar
d) Evan is just an average student

23. Still refer on the facts in no. 21. Who had a superior performance in science
a) Carmen

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 b) Cynthia
c) Evan
d) all of them

24. Test scores can be meaningfully compared when

a) the test or test versions are the same
b) the test or test versions are different
c) when reference group are different, so long as test versions are the same
d) when derived score are the same, even when tests are different

25. Which of the following derived scores has M=5.5 and s=1
a) z score
b) T score
c) Sten
d) Stanine

26. The following can be used to establish a test re-test reliability, except:
a) scores of each test of parallel forms administered in two different
occasions
b) scores of the same test administered in two different days
c) scores obtained in the same test administered on same day
d) scores in the first half of the test and on the second half of the test for different days

27. The following reliability has content sampling as a source of error, except:
a) split- half
b) test re-test
c) parallel, immediate
d) equivalent, delayed

28. The following statistical techniques may be employed for establishing internal consistency
except?
a) Chronbach’s alpha
b) KR20
c) Spearman-Brown
d) ANOVA

29. Which of the following is content-related evidence of validity?

a) Test items are at an appropriate reading level.
b) Observed participant characteristics are consistent with responses on a scale.
c) Scores obtained on two administrations of the instrument are consistent.
d) Scores are correlated with scores obtained on another instrument.

30. The best construct-related evidence of validity comes from

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 a) a series of studies of the instrument.
b) a validity coefficient that is near 0.
c) careful review of the instrument by experts.
d) data-based predictions that prove to be correct.

31. Which of the following statements accurately portrays the relationship of reliability to validity?
a) Inferences must be valid before the scores can be reliable.
b) Scores must be reliable before inferences can be valid.
c) The more valid the inferences is, the higher the reliability of the score must be.
d) Score reliability is not related to inference validity.

32. A measure of variability in data indicating the distance from the lowest to highest score in the
set
a) mode
b) range
c) semi-interquartile range
d) standard deviation

33. A test developer wants to correlate score obtained in a self-esteem inventory he has
constructed with his two kinds of respondents; students active in extra-curricular activities and
students who are not. The test developer is probably establishing
a) Norms
b) validity
c) reliability
d) all of the above

34. If Pearson’s correlation coefficient is zero, the value of two variables are not related.
a) True
b) False
c) neither true or false
d) either true or false

35. If each item of a dichotomous scale is to be correlated with the total score of the same test the
appropriate statistical technique to use the establishing internal consistency of a 10 item test
would be
a) rxy
b) rpb
c) rho
d) phi
36. Which of the following statements is correct

a) a phi coefficient is used to establish the relationship between the score in the polytomous
scale and a dichotomous scale

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 b) a phi coefficient is used to establish the relationship between the those who answered
true. In every item and the total score in the 10 item quiz

c) a phi coefficient is used when establishing relationship between the

response in the dichotomous scale among the male and female
respondents

d) a phi coefficient is used when establishing relationship between the

response in the polytomous scale of participants from urban and rural
locality

37. Which of the following statements about measurement using continuous scales is true:
a) Always involves error
b) is always ordinal in nature
c) is always normally distributed
d) All of the above
38. A Pearson r correlation coefficient describes the ______ and the ______ of a linear relationship
between two interval scale or ratio scale variables.
a) level; amount
b) similarity; importance
c) direction; strength
d) variability; significance
39. In a study examining the relationship between participant’s age and number of friends, a
Pearson r= -.62 was computed. Which of the following best describes this finding?
a) As age increases, the number of friends increases
b) As age increases, the number of friends decreases
c) As age decreases, the number of friends decreases
d) As age increases, the number of friends stays the same

40. A correlation between college entrance exam grades and scholastic achievement was found to
be a 1.08. You would tell the university that:
a) The students in this school are underachieving.
b) They should hire a new statistician.
c) The is a poor predictor of success
d) Students who do best in this exam will make the worst students.

41. The term class intervals is best associated with

a) A socioeconomic status of a sample of test taker
b) A frequency distribution of test taker scores
c) A grouped frequency distribution of test takers scores
d) Measures of central tendency

42. A researcher obtained the following regression equation from a sample of data: y^=5+2x. Using
this equation and an x value of 3, her prediction of the corresponding y value is:
a) 30
b) 11

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 c) 8
d) 6

43. A trait or variable, such as reading ability, creativity, or attentiveness

a) z-score
b) Measurement
c) Test
d) Construct

44. If the shape of the distribution of scores obtained from a test is significantly skewed, it means
that the test is probably____ for the test takers
a) Too easy
b) Too hard
c) Either too easy or too hard
d) Just right

45. Convergent validity is intended to explain what relationship?

a) Premises from conclusions
b) The degree to which an operation is similar to other operations
c) Scores on a test can be correlated with scores on any other test
d) High correlations between random test scores

46. Dr. L reviewed a measurement scale designed to measure extroversion and said that it
appeared to measure extroversion. The measure has ______ validity.
a) face
b) internal
c) convergent
d) predictive

47. _________validity is demonstrated when a measure is NOT related to variables with which it
should not be related.
a) Convergent
b) Concurrent
c) Differentation
d) Discriminant

48. Content validity

a) a test which only one-digit of two-digit numbers
b) the emotional principles of a psychological test
c) prima facie face validity
d) construct validity

49. One way to assess the stability of measures ______ computing a Pearson_______.
a) coefficient criterion

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 b) linear coefficient
c) correlation coefficient
d) coefficient of determination

50. A group of students took the cognitive development test on Monday and then took the same
test again the following week. Most likely researchers were assessing the reliablility of the
meaure.
a) test-retest
b) split-half
c) odd-even
d) inter-item

51. Which of the following statements about test-retest reliability is FALSE?

a) The reliability efficient of a measure should be at least 80 would be the measure is
accepted as reliable.
b) Sometimes test-retest reliability is artificially high because people
remember how they answered the first time.
c) Test-retest reliability is the best form of reliability measurement.
d) Test-retest reliability is very useful is the variable being measured is expected to
stay constant over time.

52. My measure allows me to successfully predict future behavioral outcomes. My measure has:
a) Criterion Validity
b) Face Validity
c) alternate reliability
d) coefficient of stability

53. In its plural form, “norms” is a term used in psychometrics to refer to the test
performance data of
a) People tested at a different time than another group of test takers.
b) Test takers who constitute a control group in an experiment
c) Distributing norms to members of target populations
d) Putting a carpenter’s personal signature on a work product

54. Compared to psychological testing, psychological assessment is generally

a) simpler
b) more structured
c) more expensive
d) more objective

55. Credit for devising the first successful psychological testing the modern era is usually given to
a)Francis Galton
b) Alfred Binet
c)Wilhelm Wundt

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 d)James McKeen Cattell

56. The concept of ceiling and basal age are most clearly related to the issue of
a) Test validity
b) Test difficulty
c) The type of standard scores used in a test
d) The type of items used in a test

57. With regard to the samples used to established within-group norms, the single most important
requirement that they should be
a) Gathered locally by the institution or organization that will use them
b) Very large, numbering in thousands
c) Representative of the group for which they will be used
d) Convenient to obtain in the process of standardization.

58. Which of the following statements about test anxiety and test performance is correct?
a) The relationship between test anxiety and test performance is direct.
b) The relationship between test anxiety and test performance is indirect.
c) The relationship between test anxiety and test performance is non-linear
d) The relationship between test anxiety and test performance is non-directional.

59. The standardization sample is composed of 1200 college student; 600 are male and 600 are
females. Approximately how many will get a score above a CEED of 500?
a) 600
b) 300
c) 300 males and 300 females
d) 250 males and 350 males

60. It is considered as the breakthrough in the creation of modern tests.

a) The development of the woodworth’s Personal data Sheet
b) The development of the Simon- Binet Intelligence Test
c) The use on China of the tests for selection of public officials
d) The use of tests in Greece to further educational system.

61. Which of the following characteristics of the bell shaped curve tells that the lines do not touch
the baseline
a) It is symmetrical
b) It is asymptotic
c) It is asymmetrically asymptotic
d) It is bilaterally asymptotic

62. He coined the term mental tests

a) James Mckeen Cattell
b) Raymond Cattell

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 c) Lewis Terman
d) Alfred Binet

63. The MMPI gives a quantitative measurement of an individual’s _________

a) IQ and mental health
b) Reality testing
c) Internal psychodynamic adjustment
d) Emotional adjustment
64. If can be argued that all validity measures are measuring___________.
a) Content validity
b) Criterion validity
c) Construct validity
d) Predictive validity

65. In the following age-calculation, what would be the correct age given the following information:
Date of testing: 2009 / 10 / 25
Date of birth: 1998/ 4 / 27
Date the test were scored and interpreted: 2009/11/25
Date of submission of psychological report: 2009/11/26
a) 11 years, 6 months, 28 days
b) 11 years, 6 months, 29 days
c) 11 years, 5 months, 28 days
d) 11 years, 5 months, 29 days

66. Correction in which expects an examinee’s degree of psychological defensiveness is perhaps

the most sophisticated of the _____________ scale
a) Clinical
b) Testing
c) Reliability
d) Validity

67. Which of the following is a projective technique?

a) Block Design
b) Bender test
c) Army Beta
d) NEO-PI

68. Equal to the square root of the averaged squared deviation about the mean, this statistics is
called
a) The range
b) The standard deviation
c) The average deviation
d) The semi-interquartile

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69. With regards to the “do’s” and “don’ts” of cultural sensitivity in assessment and test use, which
of the following list of “do’s” is actually a “ do not” ?
a) Assume that a test that has been translated into another language is automatically
equivalent in every way to the original
b) Strive to incorporate assessment methods that complement the worldview and lifestyle
of assesses who come from specific cultural and linguistic population
c) Consideration of cultural hypothesis as possible explanation for findings
d) Be aware of the cultural assumptions on which a test is based.

70. Which is a criterion- referenced test?

a) The final competition in the Your Face Sounds Familiar
b) An examination for entry in a faculty union
c) A teacher made midterm examination scored on a curve
d) None of the above

71. Which of the following assumptions about psychological assessment is most controversial?
a) Psychological traits and states can be quantified
b) Test-related behavior predict non-test-related behaviors
c) Testing and assessment can be conducted in a fair and unbiased manner
d) Various sources of error are part of the assessment process

72. Meta-analysis is a term used to describe

a) A tendency of scores to fan out from the mean
b) A graphic technique for representing regression
c) A variant of psychoanalysis developed by Can Jung
d) A method of combining information across studies

73. Test construction, test administration, and test scorning and interpretation are
a) Sources of error variance
b) The sole responsibility of a test publisher
c) Facets according to the true score theory
d) Variables affected by inflation of range

74. A key difference between the terms “ psychological testing” and “ psychological assessment” is
that “psychological testing” refers to a process that
a) Involves more problem-solving than psychological assessment
b) Is more technician-like than psychological assessment
c) Was first described by Maloney and Ward in the mid-1970s.
d) Is much broader in scope than psychological assessment.

75. In contrast to a power test, a speed test

a) Has a time limit designed to be long enough to allow all test takers to attempt all items.
b) Can yield a split-half reliability estimate based on only one administration a test

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 c) Tends to yield a score differences among test takers that are based on performance
speed.
d) Tends to yield spuriously inflated estimates of alternate forms of reliability

76. The theoretical basis for the Edwards Personal preference schedule is
a) The socio-cultural perspective proposed by Horney
b) The needs system proposed by Murray
c) The factor analytic approach by Cattell
d) The psychodynamic approach by Freud

77. A person’s accumulation of stored information, called _____ intelligence, generally ______ with
age.
a) Fluid; decreases
b) Fluid; increases
c) Crystallized; increase
d) Crystallized; decrease

78. A test that was developed for a particular use with a particular population is said to be
a) Valid
b) Reliable
c) Standardized
d) Sensitive

79. A test developer designed a test that will indicate which applicants are likely to perform on the
job. Those who were selected obtained with high scores in their performance appraisal six
months after are hiring, the test has
a) Low reliability
b) Low content validity
c) Not been standardized
d) Low predictive validity

80. Anna has superb social skills, manages conflicts well, and has empathy for her friends and co-
workers. Which of the following is true about Anna?
Anna possesses a high degree of
a) Societal intelligence
b) Social intelligence
c) Practical intelligence
d) Emotional intelligence

81. The _____ classifies people according to Carl Jung’s personality types
a) Myer’s Briggs Type Indicator
b) MMPI
c) Locus of Control Scale
d) TAT

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82. The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory is a(an)
a) A projective technique
b) Empirically derived and objective personality test
c) Personality test developed mainly to assess job applicants
d) Personality test used primarily to assess locus of control

83. A 5-point Liker scale is most likely to commit

a) Halo effect
b) Severity error
c) Central tendency error
d) Random error

84. When 35 out of 40 tests takers answered item no.7 correctly said statement is describing
a) Item difficulty
b) Item discrimination
c) Validity of the item
d) Reliability of the item

85. If 30 % of the upper item and lower 27% of the item no.7 in __________ examination were
answered correctly said statement is describing
a) Item difficulty
b) Item discrimination
c) Validity of the item
d) Reliability of the item

86. A primary use of group tests of ability or intelligence

a) Screening large number of people
b) Measuring reading ability
c) Gauging applicant’s ability by means of a power test
d) All of the above

87. The personality test Maria is taking involves her describing random patterns of dots. What type
of test is she taking?
a) An empirically derived test
b) MBTI
c) MMPI
d) A projective test

88. Which of the following psychological tests make use of a theory of personality in its construction
and development?
a) Edwards Personal Preference Schedule
b) Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory
c) 16 Personality Factor Test

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 d) Gullford-Zimmerman Temperament Survey

89. A psychologist developed an instrument that will determine successful marriages. Using the said
instrument she found that 85% of those who scored a T score 70 remained married for about 20
years and above and 75% of those who score below 30 got annulled or separated in bed and
board. The psychologist conclude that the test has high
a) Reliability
b) Validity
c) Normative data
d) Standardization

90. Which of the following self-report inventories include items for measuring mental ability?
a) MMPI-1
b) MMPI-2
c) 16 PF Test
d) NEO-PI-R

91. Which statement is true?

a) Validity sets the limit on test’s reliability
b) Validity sets a limit only on a test’s inter-rater reliability.
c) The validity if a test is limited only by the test’s inter-rater reliability.
d) The validity of a test is limited by its reliability

92. Which is true about the Army Alpha test?

a) Its correlation with the SB was unacceptable
b) Its correlation with officer ratings were unacceptable
c) It was designed for the use of the illiterate recruits.
d) It was developed for use in a matter of weeks

93. A senior instructor at the Air Force Academy insists that his “personnel test” for officer
candidate school need only consists of one question: “ Did you ever fly a model airplane that
you built yourself?” if this one item test was actually used to select proper candidates, we could
assume that the test
a) Invalid due to the informal nature
b) Based on formal factor analytic procedures
c) Based on informal empirical criterion
d) None of the above

94. If you regularly buckle your seatbelt, the exam are good that you would score
a) High on measure of sharpening
b) Low on measure of cognitive style
c) High on measure of internal control
d) Low on measure of situational competence

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95. More likely, the first developer please refer to item no. 102 is busy establishing
a) Cognitive validity
b) Concurrent validity
c) Construct validity
d) Content validity

96. The test developer please refer to item no. 102 is influenced by the theory of
a) Rotter
b) Rogers
c) Beck
d) Bandura

97. A psychological report should

a) Directly and adequately answer the referral question
b) Be at least 10 pages long
c) Use jargon
d) be read only by the client

98. Which of the following is true about internal consistency reliability?

a) It measures the consistency over time or situation
b) It’s measurable using the split-half procedure
c) It’s measurable via test-retest format
d) It’s measurable using alternate forms

99. An online “IQ” test that provides result based on the performance on a single task, such as Block
Design, is said to be a poor intelligence test even if it correlates well to school success because it
is said to have low _________.
a) Criterion-related validity
b) Content validity
c) Concurrent validity
d) Reliable

100. Which of the following is FALSE about stability, reliability?

a) It is measures the consistency over time in situation
b) It is measurable with test-retest format
c) It’s measurable using alternate forms
d) It’s measurable using split-half procedure

101. What type of intervention was used by the psychologist in the example below:
PSYCHOLOGIST: Athena, please tell me a little bit of yourself.
ATHENA: Well, I graduated from the Greatest University where I obtained a BS degree in
Psychology and at the moment I want to top the Psychometrician Board Exams so I can solve the
problems of the world.

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 PSYCHOLOGIST: Oh that’s great Athena. Can you identify a worldwide problem that you can
solve when you top the Psychometrician Board Exam.
a) Directive, unstructured
b) Directive, structured
c) Non- directive, structured
d) Non-directive, unstructured

102. The area of the normal distribution for a T distribution encompasses approximately _____ of
the curve
a) 50%
b) 68 %
c) 95 %
d) 99 %

103. Evidence of psychological testing can be traced back to

a) Cavemen challenging each other to lift heavy stones
b) Selection of candidates for the Roman senate
c) Public service examinations in ancient China
d) Hammurabi’s code of civil law

104. The Deviation IQ is based on the notion of

a) A delinquency as a factor affecting the development of intelligence
b) Mental age versus chronological age
c) A z-score
d) Verbal versus performance scores

105. Empirical keying’ refers to

a) Scoring a test based on its ability to discriminate between certain identifiable groups of
people
b) Scoring a test based on the theory of what is being measured
c) Scoring a test using a scorning key made out of cardboard in which small holes reveal
the correct answers
d) Empirically validating test scores via research

106. Objectives tests are objective because

a) They are scored in a simple, straightforward manner
b) Scoring is a heavily dependent in the judgment of the scorer
c) Different scorers are likely to produce the same test score from the same test
performance
d) All of the above

107. A psychological test can become obsolete when

a) Psychological theory develops to render the basis of the test obsolete
b) Society changes to render the content of items less appropriate

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 c) Society changes to render the tests norms obsolete
d) All of the above

108. What is psychological assessment primary used for

a) Legal decision making
b) Report writing
c) Research
d) Answering referral questions(s)

109. Before administering a psychological test, a psychologist should ensure that

a) The test has local norms
b) The test does not have any copyright restrictions
c) The test has been reviewed in the Mental Measurements Yearbook
d) The test is appropriate whose with particular client in terms of his/her demographics

110. To ensure that the materials required for a psychological test session are in the test kit and
the test materials are intact can result in-
a) a waste of time for the psychologist and client
b) a shorter testing time
c) Higher testing fees
d) The need to use more tests

111. Results for a client on a psychological test

a) Should not be interpreted by a computer
b) Should be interpreted in isolation
c) Should be interpreted by a computer
d) Should not be interpreted in isolation

112. Projective tests are not objective because

a) They are scored in a simple, straightforward manner
b) Scoring is heavy dependent on the judgment of the scorer
c) Different scorers are likely to produce the same test score from the same test
performance
d) They are based on responses to ambiguous stimuli

For items 113-116 please refer to the research below

Research have noted that a decline in cognitive functioning as people age (Bartus,1990)
However, the results from other research suggest that the antioxidants in food such as berries
may reduce and even reverse age related declines (Joseph,et.al). To examine the phenomenon,
suppose that a researcher obtains a sample of n=16 adults who are between the ages of 65 and
75. The researcher used a standardized test to measure cognitive functioning for each
individual. The participants then begin a-month program in which they receive daily doses of

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 blueberry supplement. At the end of the two-month period, the researcher measures the
cognitive performance for each participant.

113. To determine if the blue berry supplement reduced cognitive decline which of the following
should the researcher do?
a) Correlate cognitive function before and after the two-month period taking the blueberry
supplement
b) Correlate the cognitive function of the control and experimental group following the
two month period
c) Compare the cognitive function of the participants before and after the two-month
period of taking blueberry supplement
d) Compare the cognitive function of the control and experimental group following the two
month period

114. What kind of experimental design was used?

a) Pre- experimental
b) Quasi-experimental
c) Between subjects design
d) Within subjects design

115. Which of the following threats to interval validity is more likely to be encountered by the
researcher
a) History
b) Instrumentality
c) Regression toward the average
d) Both a and b

116. The difference in test performance between percentile score of 60 and 55

a) Is equivalent to that between percentile scores of 15 and 10
b) Cannot be readily equated to all other 5 point differences in percentiles
c) Is equivalent to that between percentile scores of 60 and 70
d) Is twice that between percentile scores of 15 and 10
117. Mental Status Examination is what type of assessment?
a) Work samples
b) Portfolio assessment
c) Behavioral observation
d) Structured interview

118. Systematic error in a test exerts what kind of effect on test scores?
a) Random
b) Consistent
c) Unknowable
d) Inconsistent

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119. Another way if talking about the reliability of a test for a particular purpose is to talk about its
a) Dependability
b) Validity
c) Utility
d) Discriminability

120. Which of the following procedures does not yield an estimate of the reliability of a test?
a) Correlating the total of all even-numbered items with the total of all odd-numbered
items
b) Correlating the total of items in the first half of the test with the total of items in the
second half of the test
c) Correlating each item with the total score on the test
d) Finding the average of the correlation of each item with every other item.

121. In a two-choice decision problem ( the person belongs to the criterion group or they do not), a
fair negative decision would be that
a) The individual belongs to the criterion of group when they do not
b) The individual does not belong to the criterion group when they do
c) The individual belongs to neither group
d) The individual belongs to the criterion group when they do

122. The first step in constructing a psychological test is to

a) Determine the sample size to which the test is administered.
b) Review the relevant literature
c) Identify a likely publisher for the test
d) Be clear about the construct or constructs to be assessed with the test

123. Multiple choice tests provide more than two options for each question to overcome the
problem of
a) Faking
b) Carelessness
c) Defensiveness
d) Guesting

124. Test construction

a) Is a linear process with one stage following the other without variation
b) Is a relatively inexpensive process
c) Follows a sequence of steps but these steps may need to be retraced from time to time
d) Can be done quite quickly using modern computers

125. The clinical interview is a useful psychological assessment technique for psychologists who
work in a mental health setting because
a) A lot of information about the client can be collected very quickly
b) It is more accurate than other psychological assessment techniques

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 c) It is more valid than psychological assessment techniques
d) In enables psychologists to exit information that is not readily available from the client’s
record or file

126. Although it is used to include exams for different groups in item appropriation we need to
bear in mind the
a) Increasing number of groups decreases the overall sample size required
b) Increasing the number of groups increases the overall sample size required
c) Increasing the number of groups increases the overall standard deviation
d) Increasing the number of groups decreases the overall standard deviation

127. The term ‘social desirability’ when used with respect to construction of a personality test
refers to the fact that
a) People differ in their tendency to create a favorable impression of themselves when
answering test items
b) People differ in how strongly they are drawn to the company of others
c) People differ in how attractive they find social activities
d) People differ in terms of their tendency to agree rather than disagree with personality
statements

128. Forensic assessment is considered different from therapeutic assessment because

a) The validity of the tests used is different
b) The time required to conduct assessment is different
c) The test used for assessment are different
d) The purpose of assessment is different

129. Which of the following areas are usually covered in a Mental Status Examination?
a) Appearance, orientation, affect, thought content and process, insights
b) Appearance, orientation, tendency to lie, thought content and process, insight
c) CT scan, appearance, orientation, affect, insight
d) Orientation, affect, thought content and process, insight, CT scan

130. In norming a test we need to bear in mind

a) How we ensure the sample is normally distributed
b) How we ensure everyone in the sample is normal
c) What we expect the average response to be
d) How the test is to be used

131. A test of scholastic aptitude is administrative as the beginning of first semester and the
academic performance of the sample is examined at the end of the first year of university (i.e
two semester later). A failure to find a high-to-perfect correlation between test scores and
academic performance
a) Indicates the test lacks predictive validity
b) Indicates the test lacks concurrent validity

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 c) Is highly unlikely
d) May indicate a lack of test validity but may also reflect intervening effects unrelated to
scholastic aptitude

132. A false positive in personnel selection is

a) The rejection of an applicant who could have been successful
b) The appointment of someone whose job performance turns out to be substandard.
c) The incorrect scoring of a psychological test leading to someone being appointed who
shouldn’t have been
d) The use of a test with negative validity

133. An examinee who sacrifice speed for accuracy emphasizing

a) Quality over quantity
b) Quantity over quality
c) Reliability over validity
d) Relevance over interpretation

134. ______________

For problems 135-138 please refer to the situation below

A Test developer is establishing the local norms for 120 mental ability test where the target
sample includes 1000 Caucasians. In localizing the norms, the test was Tagalized and given to
1500 students. The mean score of the 800 boys was 78 with a standard deviation of 2.5 while
the means of the 700 girls was 79 with sd of 2.45.

135. The performance of the normative sample is:

a) Average
b) Below average
c) High average
d) Poor

136. The test developer also wants to find the Tagalized version measures the same as the original
in testing this statement pertains to
a) Reliability
b) Validity
c) Norms
d) Stability

137. To correlate the score in the original and the scores in the Tagalized versus the statistical
technique will be used?
a) KR20
b) alpha
c) rxy
d) rpn

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138. What is the standard item sample in the above given situation?
a) 1000 Caucasians
b) 1500 Filipinos
c) 800 Filipino boys
d) 700 Filipino girls

139. Transforming scores on psychological test is done primarily to

a) Protect the privacy of the test taker
b) Aid interpretation of the scores
c) Make the scores more manageable
d) Make the scores available for research

140. Which of the following statements about norms is correct?

a) For every psychological test there is one and only one set of norms
b) The size of the sample used in developing norms is been developed
c) Different norms may apply for the different purposes for which a test score is used
d) Norms are best developed using a criterion referencing approach

141. The Flynn effect refers to the observation that

a) The raw score mean in intelligence tests has remained constant over the years
b) The standard deviation of score on intelligence test has remained constant over time
c) The raw score mean on intelligence tests has been increasing over the years
d) The raw score mean on intelligence tests has been decreasing over the years

142. An assessment center is

a) A place where assessment are conducted
b) Comprised of many different activities
c) A place where assessment information is collated
d) An index of central tendency of a large number of assessments

143. If a mental ability is to be given to Filipino adults living in a highly urbanized city and asks a
question as part of information subscale: “Who is the 6 th President of America?” the said item is
can be best describes as:
a) Valid
b) Internally consistent
c) Culture free
d) Reliable

144. The following is a speed test, except:

a) SRA
b) CFIT
c) RPM
d) PNIT

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145. Which of the following is not a Level C test?
a) MMPI-2
b) Bender Test
c) Wechsler Scales
d) Rorschach Inkblot Test

146. In psychological testing and measurement, who is the user a test/psychological test?
a) Examiner
b) Examinee
c) Test constructor
d) Test developer

147. If a supervisor evaluates the performance of his subordinates by following the rule of
distribution such that there must be 8% of them who should obtain an average performance;
13% who should obtain above average; 13% below average; 2% superior and 2% poor
performance. Which of the following is true about the supervisor way of rating?
a) Supervisor is summing a Horn effect
b) Supervisor is very strict
c) Supervisor is in the norm referenced testing
d) Supervisor is committing the central tendency error

148. If the court issues a subpoena to a psychologist to attach the protocols to the psychological
report, the psychologist should
a) Tell the court that he cannot do so as said data are confidential
b) Tell the court in writing that he will release after he has secured consent from the client
c) He will readily obey the court as part
d) He will obey the court with mental reservation

149. Which assessment technique will be the most appropriate basis for selection of a film
director?
a) Observation
b) Work samples
c) Psychological test
d) Interview

150. Who demands for the following ethical standards like informed consent, confidentiality,
competence
a) Researcher
b) Examinee
c) Examiner
d) Professional organization

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