Ges 100, Ges101 and Ges 102

GES 100 WORK BOOK
ANSWERS
INTRODUCTION TO LANGUAGE AND
COMMUNICATION
UNIT ONE
AN OVERVIEW OF COMMUNICATION SKILLS IN
ENGLISH
1. Listening process
2. competence
3. decoding
4. B
5. a. listening
b. reading
c. speaking
d. writing
6. decoded
7. purpose
8. listening for gist
9. reciprocal
10. non-reciprocal
11. intensive reading
12. scanning
13. reading comprehension
UNIT TWO
FORMS AND FUNCTIONS OF LANGUAGE OR
COMMUNICATION
1. Language
2. Form and function
3. Communication
4. Message, the encoder/sender, the channel, the
receiver/decoder and feedback
5. Listening and Speaking
6. reading and writing
7. viewing and visual representation
8. a. spoken language
b. written language
VICKO”S CONCEPT 1
c. sign language
d. Body language
9. Structural forms of languages
10. true
11. language function
12. referential
13. performative
14. phatic function
15. ceremonial
VICKO”S CONCEPT 2
MODULE 2
STUDY AND LIBRARY SKILLS
UNIT THREE
MASTERING YOUR NOTE-TAKING AND NOTE MAKING
TECHNIQUES
1. Note -Taking
2. Note – taking
3. D
4. True
5. D
6. Self Assessment exercise
7. Mentally, physically and psychologically
8. Record, Reduce, Recite, Reflect and Review
9. Note-Making
UNIT FOUR
THE LIBRARY: DEFINITION, TYPES, SECTIONS,
CATALOGUING AND USES
1. Library
2. D
3. Book mobile or mobile libraries
4. C.
5. Cover
6. the front cover, the central ridge and the back cover
7. half title page
8. publishers blurb
9. full bibliographic information
10. Copyright page
11. International standard book number
12. National library
13. Main Book
14. Library classification
15. Call numbers
16. Call mark
17. The library in American Congress
18. B
19. The card catalogue
VICKO”S CONCEPT 3
20. International Standard Serial Numbers
21. Editor
22. Directory
23. Publisher
24. Abstracts
25. Periodical publications
UNIT FIVE
USING THE DICTIONARY AND OTHER REFERENCE
MATERIALS
1. A reference material
2. C
3. General and specific reference
4. General and subject specific
5. Cambridge , Advanced learners, Oxford English and
Oxford Reference.
6. Bilingual dictionary
7. C
8. A
9. Dictionary
10. Thesaurus
11. A
12. D
MODULE 3:
STUDY AND LIBRARY SKILLS
UNIT SIX
LISTENING SKILLS
1. Listening
2. 45%
3. Two months
4. Hearing, Listening
5. C
6. People Listening style
7. Attentive listeners
8. A combative listener
VICKO”S CONCEPT 4
9. Intensity and hearing, Evaluating
10. A reflective listener
UNIT SEVEN
TYPES OF LISTENING AND HINDRANCES TO
EFFECTIVE LISTENING
1. (a) Biased listening
(b) Social Listening
(c) Serious listening
(d) Critical Listening
(e) Discurnisative listening
2. Physiological defects and Psychological problems
3. Anxiety
4. Cognitive dissonance
5. The controlling
6. Insincere listeners
7. C
8. A
9. explicit and implicit
10. psychological
11. C
12. Social listening
MODULE 4:
SPEAKING/ORAL SKILLS
UNIT EIGHT
MASTERING THE ENGLISH SPEECH SOUNDS AND
EFFECTIVE SPEAKING IN ENGLISH
1. Phonetics and Phonology
2. Phonetics
3. Phonology
4. Mouth , throat and nose
5. D
6. .
7. Active articulators
8. Points of articulation or passive
9. Places and manner
VICKO”S CONCEPT 5
10. 44
11. Front vowel, back vowels and the central vowel
12. Diphthongs
13. A phoneme
14. Consonant
15. /f, v/
16. Voiced sounds
17. Nasal
18. Interference in spoken English
19. Voiceless sound
20. D
UNIT NINE
INTONATION: MEANING, TYPES AND FUNCTIONS IN
COMMON
1. Intonation
2. Falling tunes and the rising tune
3. False
4. Falling tune
5. Falling tune
6. B
7. Grammatical
UNIT TEN
SKILLS FOR SUCCESSFUL PUBLIC SPEAKING AND
ACADEMIC PAPER PRESENTATION
1. True
2. Public speaking
3. B
4. Yes
5. Yes
VICKO”S CONCEPT 6
MODULE 5:
READING SKILLS
UNIT ELEVEN
EXPLORING THE NATURE OF READING AND READING
RATES
1. Yes
2. Reading
3. C
4. Decoding, fluency , Vocabulary and
comprehension
5. Fluency
6. Reading speed of rate
7. Skimming, scanning , normal reading and careful
reading
8. True
9. B 200 – 400 WPM
10. B 250 -350 wpm
11. A 100-250wpm
12. D Time available
13. Reading technique
14. Reading for critical analysis
15. 400- 700 wpm
UNIT TWELVE
THE PURPOSE AND STAGES OF READING
1. Pre-reading
2. Yes
3. Previewing and Skimming
4. The topic, supporting details and the main idea.
5. Active
6. Reading for literacy purpose
7. Preview
8. Three
9. No
10. Reading purpose and degree of familiarity and
previewed difficulty
VICKO”S CONCEPT 7
UNIT THIRTEEN
ADJUSTING YOUR TECHNIQUE TO SUIT YOUR
PURPOSE.
THE DIFFERENT TYPES OF READING
1. Reading Skills
2. Skimming
3. 100
4. Pre-reading, Reviewing and Reading
5. Scans
6. B
7. A newspaper for sports scores a conference guide, to
locate word in a data, to read a train, to read web pages
when surfing the internet.
8. Understanding, bolding, italics, subheadings and section
breaks
9. Table of content and index
10. Alphabetically, Chronologically and Non-alphabetically
11. Intensive/Close /Narrow/Critical Reading
12. Close/Narrow/Critical Reading
UNIT FOURTEEN/FIFTEEN
STUDIES IN READING COMPREHENSION SKILLS AND
STRATEGIES; CONTROL OF READING FAULTS
1. Reading complex
2. Recognizing main ideas, Identifying supporting,
Recognizing implied ideas, understanding poet and tone
3. Reading Fault
4. D
5. Regress
6. Vocalization
7. sub- vocalization
8. SQ3, OK4R and 3S3R
9. Survey, Question, Read, Revise and Review
10. Overview, Keyword, Read, Recite, Reflect, Revise
11. Survey , Study-read, Speed – read, Record, Review,
Reflects
12. Preview, Read, Record, Review or Revise, Use
VICKO”S CONCEPT 8
MODULE 6
TECHNICAL AND ACADEMIC WRITING SKILLS
UNIT 16
EFFECTIVE WRITING FOR ACADEMIC PURPOSES
1. Writing
2. Economy , simplicity and Consciences
3. Simplicity
4. Economy
5. Consciences
6. Style
7. Word choice, sentence fluency and writer’s voice
8. Language
9. Precision, Consciences and cohesion
10. Sentence
UNIT 17
THE ROLE OF PARAGRAPHING
THE ACADEMIC WRITINGS
1. A.
2. Paragraph
3. The topic sentences
4. A topic sentence, supporting sentences and a concluding
sentence
5. True
6. Unity, Coherence and Adequate development
7. coherence
8. B
9. Unity
10. adequately development
11. Time is a component quantity of various measurements
used to sequence events to compare the duration of events
or the intervals between them.
VICKO”S CONCEPT 9
UNIT EIGHTEEN AND NINETEEN
ESSAY LETTER WRITING
UNITS 20, 21, 22

ACADEMIC WRITINGS AND DOCUMENTATION STYLES
1. Term paper and Projects/long essays
2. A term paper
3. Pre-writing, Writing and Post-writing
4. Title page, Dedication, Table of contents, Acknowledge,
Abstract
5. Introduction
6. Abstract
7. The review of relevant/relate Literature
8. American Psychological Associate
9. Reference or Works Cited
10. Appendix/Appendices
11. Reliable, Accurate, Objective and Up-to-date
12. Primary sources, Secondary sources and Tertiary sources
13. Primary sources
14. Secondary sources
15. Tertiary Sources
16. The Chicago documentation style
17. The Council of Science Editors (CSE)
18. Modern Language
VICKO”S CONCEPT 10
MODULE 7
GRAMMAR AND MECHANICS
1. Open word 33. B
class/macro and 34. A
closed word class 35. B
(minor) 36. A
2. Open word class 37. B
3. Close word 38. A
4. Noun 39. A
5. Concrete Nouns 40. B
6. Abstract Nouns 41. A
7. A and An 42. B
8. Transitive 43. A
9. Intransitive 44. A
10. Intransitive 45. His or her
11. Transitive 46. His or her
12. Model Auxiliaries 47. C
13. Two old 48. B
14. Rickety 49. B
15. Centerpiece 50. C
16. Clean and tidy 51. A
17. C 52. Clause
18. C 53. Phrase
19. A 54. Clause
20. Quickly 55. Phrase
21. Slowly 56. Phrase
22. Patiently 57. Phrase
23. Next week 58. B
24. Yesterday 59. B
25. Already 60. A
26. Over there 61. A
27. Downstairs 62. Question Mark
28. Upstairs Colon
29. Is Semicolon
30. A Parentheses
31. A Exclamation Mark
32. B
MODULE 8
VOCABULARY DEVELOPMENT
1. The word
2. Vocabulary
3. Root, stem and affixes
4. The root
5. Prefixes and suffuses
6. B
7. True
8. A
9. Introduction
10. Agreement
11. delayed
12. Grew
13. Continued
14. Description
15. Analysis
16. invention
17. freedom
18. favourable
19. Flexibility
20. a comforting
21. b. uncomfortable
c. discomfort
d. comfortably
21. Personnel department
22. Effect on your mood
23. Checked
24. Cook
25. Dessert
26. Trip
27. Travel
28. Journey
29. Robbed
30. Shade
UNIVERSITY OF PORT 1HARCOURT
SCHOOL OF GENERAL STUDIES.
GES 100.2 COMMUNICATION SKILLS IN
ENGLISH
1. Drawings of an area of the earth are referred to as

(a) Maps
(b) Directives
(c) Atlas
(d) Handbooks
2. Books published yearly which carry information on various

events for the coming year are called _______
(a) Year book
(b) Annual book
(c) Almanacs
(d) Hand book
3. _________ holds the parts of the book together and makes

them easy to handle
(a) Preliminary pages
(b) Binding
(c) Tight book
(d) Surran tight
4. In which of the section of the library can we find the

dictionary?
(a) Research section
(b) Reference
(c) Acquisition
(d) None
5. The short description on the cover of a book is
referred to as _______
(a) Balb
(b) Babule
(c) Back print
(d) Blurb
6. Never allow ______ days to elapse without making up the
notes taken in class
(a) Four
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Five
7. Always consult other _______ when making up your notes
(a) Lecturers
(b) Books
(c) Students
(d) Notes
8. _______ is the modification or amplification of notes taken

during lectures
(a) Note books
(b) Note making
(c) Note taking
(d) Long memory
9. ________ is a technique of outlining in note taking and

note making
(a) Text book format
(b) Pattern
(c) Sentence outline
(d) Course outline
10. Division of an outline can be done by the use of _________

(a) Note books
(b) Text books
(c) Lecture notes
(d) Numbers
11. Flexibility in reading can be achieved through the
following reading strategies
(a) Listening and speaking
(b) Reading and writing
(c) Skimming and scanning
(d) None
12. We skim because we want to make utmost use of our
_________
(a) Text books
(b) Note books
(c) Lecture notes
(d) Notes
13. ________ is also known as preview reading

(a) Pre-reading
(b) Over-view
(c) Review
(d) Skim reading
14. Which is not required in speed reading

(a) Context clues
(b) Proper eye movement
(c) Active reading
(d) Knowledge of one’s speed
15. Which is of great relevance in summarizing a text

(a) Connotative sentences
(b) Semantic fields
(c) Meaningful clusters of words
(d) Topic sentence
16. Inferential comprehension requires

(a) Making personal corrections
(b) Collocation
(c) Sub-vocalization
(d) Evaluation information
17. Which is a context clue?

(a) Inferences
(b) Chronological order
(c) Writer’s purpose
(d) Definitional sentence
18. Connectives and determiners enable us to
(a) Identify background knowledge
(b) Identify the functions of details
(c) Determines the writer’s purpose
(d) None of the above
19. Which can shape a writer’s arguments

(a) Educational background
(b) Experiences
(c) Environment
(d) All of the above
20. A major comprehension skill is

(a) Armchair travelling
(b) Strategic comprehension
(c) Deductive comprehension
(d) Flexibility
21. A good paragraph must contain the following in which

order
(a) Purpose, Unity, coherence, completeness and order
(b) Coherence, completeness, unity, purpose and order
(c) Order, unity, purpose, coherence and completeness
(d) Topic sentence, connectives, beginning, middle and
ending
22. Lots of people have problems writing conclusions because

(a) They do not know what to say
(b) They do not know how much to say
(c) They forget that the conclusion is the conclusion
(d) They sum up all the steps of the argument they have
23. There are three stages in paragraph development

(a) The beginning, the middle and the conclusion
(b) Pre-writing, writing and post-writing
(c) Parallelism, antecedent and recapitulation
(d) What, how and why
24. There are three basic types of paragraph
(a) The narrative, descriptive and argumentative paragraph
(b) Introductory, transitory and the concluding
paragraph
(c) The expository, persuasive and structural paragraph
(d) The response, research and assessment paragraph
25. A fast and effective reader makes

(a) Very few eye movement
(b) Rapid eye movement
(c) No eye movement
(d) Persistent eye movement
26. A fast and effective reader makes

(a) Rapid reading
(b) Study pace reading
(c) Retrogression
(d) Peripheral
27. ________ is not a figure of speech
(a) Apostrophe
(b) Ellipsis
(c) Irony
(d) Bathos
28. ________ uses a part of something to represent the whole

and vice-versa
(a) Methonymy
(b) Euphemism
(c) Synecdoche
(d) Oxymoron
29. The opposite of bathos is _________

(a) Litotes
(b) Climax
(c) Dathos
(d) Oxymoron
30. We are unaware of the devices of the enemy” is an example
of _______
(a) Climax
(b) Litotes
(c) Euphemism
(d) Unlitotes
31. “The pen is mightier than the sword” This statement is

_______
(a) Paradoxical
(b) Ironical
(c) Sarcastic
(d) Metonymical
32. “He is an eloquent dumb man” us an example of ________

(a) Allusion
(b) Pun
(c) Euphemism
(d) Oxymoron
33. “To Nigeria will I steal and there I’ll steal” is an example of
(a) Allusion
(b) Pun
(c) Euphemism
(d) Oxymoron
34. Based on their mode of operation in the process of

communication, figures of speech are classified into
_______ basic types
(a) Three
(b) Four
(c) Two
(d) Twelve
35. Figures of speech can _______ the reader for better

understanding
(a) Persuade
(b) Factorize
(c) Delude
(d) None of the above
36. _________ is regarded as the basic unit of language

(a) The alphabet
(b) The sentence
(c) The phrase
(d) The word
37. _______ is a board concept which refer to words and there

various connections and collocations
(a) Vocabulary
(b) Dictionary
(c) Encyclopedia
(d) Lexis
38. Words that have the same spelling, same pronunciation but
different meaning are called.
(a) Homophones
(b) Homographs
(c) Homonyms
(d) Homomorphs
39. The process of word formation that is most productive is

(a) Compounding
(b) Conversion
(c) Derivative
(d) Clipping
40. The plural form of “Corrigendum” is _______

(a) Corrigandums
(b) Corrigenda
(c) Corrgendae
(d) Corrigendi
41. One of these is not an irregular noun
(a) Sheep
(b) Syllable
(c) Girl
(d) Stadium
42. All of these are examples of neuter nouns except one

(a) Phenomenon
(b) Hippopotamus
(c) Criterion
(d) Stadium
43. The plural formation that requires the addition of “e” as in

formulae is called
(a) Feminine
(b) Neuter
(c) Masculine
(d) Complex
44. A Process of word formation by combining parts of two or

more already existing words in the same language is
referred to as
(a) Clipping
(b) Back of formation
(c) Coinage
(d) Blending
45. “He is a goat” is an example of ________ meaning

(a) Connotative
(b) Denotative
(c) Contextual
(d) Reflexive
46. A _______ is a group of words without a finite verb
(a) Sentence
(b) Clause
(c) Phrase
(d) Paragraph
47. All these are structural types of phrases except one
(a) Adverbial phrase
(b) Gerundial phrase
(c) Participial phrase
(d) Infinitival phrase
48. ________ is not the part of the sentence that is modified

(b) Absolute phrase
(c) Participial phrase
(d) Infinitival phrase
49. All but one belongs to the open word class in English
(a) Eat
(b) Man
(c) And
(d) Fine
50. Please ______ on this point

(a) Expantiate
(b) Expertiate
(c) Expatiate
(d) Expartiate
51. The party has only just ________

(a) Began
(b) Being began
(c) Commence
(d) None
52. This is just the tip of the _________

(a) Ice
(b) Ice breaker
(d) Ice bag
(d) None
53. The player was _______ side
(a) Up
(b) Of
(c) Off
(d) On the
54. We are going on a three _________ holiday

(a) weeks
(b) Weeks’
(c) Week
(d) Weeks’
55. There is ______ poverty in Nigeria

(a) Abject
(b) Object
(c) Ground
(d) Grounded
56. Adjourn collocates _________

(a) Cult
(b) Matter
(c) Quarrel
(d) Magistrate
57. To persevere means to __________
(a) Preserve
(b) Moan
(c) Cajole
(d) None
58. The past tense of burst is _________
(a) Bursts
(b) None
(c) Bursted
(d) Busted
59. You are nothing but a _______ weather friend
(a) Fear
(b) Fare
(c) Sphere
(d) None
60. The building was _______ to borrow from the bank
(a) Raze
(b) Razed
(c) Erase
(d) Erased
61. We needed a ________ to borrow from the bank

(a) Surety
(b) Guarantee
(c) Collateral
(d) Mortgage
62. I know the _______ of the word

(a) Pronounciation
(b) Pronunciation
(c) Pronunsation
(d) Pronountiation
63. The police action was very swift and _________

(a) Determined
(b) Positive
(c) Possible
(d) Decisive
64. The president with his wife and five body guards ________
attending a meeting in Paris
(a) Are
(b) Is
(c) Were
(d) Will
65. The houses with their garden _______ sold

(a) Was
(b) Were
(d) Is being
(d) Was being
66. The ________ hut is the one I built
(a) Little white mud
(b) White little mud
(c) White mud little
(d) None
67. The room is out of ________

(a) Bonds
(b) Bond
(c) Bound
(d) None
68. Tom used to be the best behaved student, _______

(a) Wasn’t he
(b) Aren’t him?
(c) Weren’t he?
(d) Weren’t him?
69. Each morning and evening ______ another problem for the
commuter
(a) Presented
(b) Present
(c) Presents
(d) Presenting
70. If you go travelling without permission, you may ______

your job
(a) Loose
(b) Loss
(c) Be losing
(d) None
71. “l cant bear to see the child suffer” is ________ phrase

(a) Gerundic
(b) Infinitive
(c) Participial
(d) None
72. “Being humble is his greatest desire is ________ phrase
(a) Gerund
(b) Infinitive
(c) Participial
(d) absolute
73. Waiting for the bride’s arrival, the bride’s-groom prayed
silently is
(a) Gerund
(b) Infinitive
(c) Participial
(d) Absolute
74. The most handsome boy has won the pageant

(b) Prepositional phrase
(c) Adjectival phrase
(d) Noun phrase
75. The man who showed me the way is a kind

(a) Adverbial clause
(b) Adjectival clause
(c) Noun clause
(d) None
76. That John refused to assist us is a mystery

(a) Noun phrase
(b) Adjectival phrase
(c) Noun clause
(d) Adverbial clause
77. Mary went swimming, although it was raining

(a) Independent clause
(b) Dependent clause
(c) Independent phrase
(d) Dependent phrase
78. We shall assist the ruling class if only they acknowledge
their flaws
(a) Independent clause
(b) Dependent clause
(c) Independent phrase
(d) Dependent phrase
79. John, the die is cast
(a) Article
(b) Expletive
(c) Vocative
(d) Appositive
80. Ala, the business man has been here with me

(a) Article
(b) Expletive
(c) Vocative
(d) Appositive
81. It is crystal clear who will become the manager

(a) Article
(b) Expletive
(c) Vocative
(d) Appositive
Identify the sentence types from 82-87:

82. The Dean and Heads of departments are meeting with the
students
(a) Simple
(b) Complex
(c) Compound
(d) Compound-Complex
(e) Multiple.
3. The children got home, ate their food and did their home
work
(a) Simple
(b) Complex
(c) Compound
(e) Multiple
84. I will eat the food, though not well prepared

(a) Simple
(b) Complex
(c) Compound
(e) Multiple
85. Tari is a very handsome looking man but obviously also

very irresponsible
(a) Simple
(b) Complex
(c) Compound
(e) Multiple
86. Tell me your name and I will tell you what you are because
I have seen you before
(a) Simple
(b) Complex
(c) Compound
(e) Multiple
87. The villagers killed the big snake and drove away the fox
before they could sleep peacefully last night
(a) Simple
(b) Complex
(c) Compound
(e) Multiple
Indentify the sentence pattern from 18-25:
88. Here is the president
(a) VCS
(b) AVS
(c) SVC
(d) SVO
(e) VSO
89. Away went the robber like a bat out of hell

(a) ASVA
(b) SVAA
(c) SVOAA
(d) AVSA
(e) SVC
90. The masons finished the building in recorded time

(a) SVOA
(b) SVOO
(c) SVOC
(d) SVC
(e) SVAOC
91. One big bully threw Martha a devastating punch

(a) SVOA
(b) SVOO
(c) SVOC
(d) SVOCA
(e) SVOOCA
92. It is palatable
(a) SV
(b) SVO
(c) SVA
(d) SVC
(e) SV
93. The lecturer will invite you when he is prepared
(a) SVOCA
(b) SVOA
(c) SVOA
(d) SVOOCA
(e) ASVOCA
94. There lies the corpse on the carrier
(a) ASVA
(b) AVSA
(c) SVAA
(d) SVOCA
(e) AVSCAO
95. To record very good scores this semester is my great and

constant dream
(a) SCVOC
(b) SVCOVA
(c) SVC
(d) SVCO
(e) SVA
Identify the odd example

96. (a) Wane
(b) Dwindle
(c) Wax
(d) Peter out
(e) Slump
97. (a) Yearning

(b) Bessottedness
(c) Infatuation
(d) Abhor
(e) Overdraft
98. (a) Collateral

(b) Credit
(c) Savings
(d) Editorial
(e) Overdraft
99. (a) Coke

(b) Lemonade
(c) Brandy
(d) Orange
(e) Juice
100. (a) Melt

(b) Thaw
(c) Liquefy
(d) Freeze
(e) Evaporate
GES 100.1: COMMUNICATION SKILLS IN ENGLISH
(REGULAR)
INSTRUCTION: Fill in the right answer to question in your

computer. sheets. Answer all the questions
1. Reference materials are marked REF or Ref (a) There is no
difference between these (b) there is a difference between
them (c) one is shelved at the reference section while the
other is in the open shelf (d) both are displayed on the
shelf.
2. Old issues of journals are called _________ (a)
superseded issue (b) old books (c) ancients issues
(d) discarded issue.
3. Catalogue cards are the same as (a) cards in
catalogues cabinets (b) catalogue of books (c) information
on the shelves (d) cards in the books.
4. In which section of the library one find the dictionary (a)
research section (b) reference section (c) circulation
section (d) acquisition section
5. Accession number of a book is (a) the number given to a
book in the library (b) the call mark of the book (c) the
call number of the book.
6. A few of these apples________ great (a) tasted (b)
tastes (c) taste (d) none.
7. It these men that I saw (a) were (b) was (C) has d) is.
8. Half of the mango ____ rotten (a) are (b) is (c) were
(d) can being.
9. A gang of thieves _____ broken into the bank (a) have
(b) were (c) was (d) has.
10. Neither the boys nor their father ____ arrive. (a) have (b)
had been (C) has (d) was.
11. The crowd________ silent (a) were (b) are (c) has
(d) was.
12. Derby as well as Tony _________brave (a) are (b)
was (c) has being (d) is.
13. We made Ben our cook (a) SSV (b) SVOC (c)
SVVO (d) SSVVO.
14. Some men can be so unrepentant (a) SAVO (b) SVAC (c)
SVAO (d) SVA. (e) SVC.
15. We later heard the views (a) SAVO (b) SVO (c)
SVCA (d) SVOA.
16. This is good news indeed (a) SVAA (b) SVO (c)
SVAC (d) SVCA (e) SVOA.
17. This is the end of the story (a) SV (b) SVV (c) SVO (d)
SVCA (e) none of the above.
18. Good I called________ (a) word (b) morpheme (c)
syllable (d) root
19. Hanger-on is ___________(a) verb + noun (b) adjective +
preposition (c) noun + adjective (d) adjective.
20. Spoon-feed is ___________(a) verb adjective (b) adjective

noun (c) noun + verb
(d) adverb + verb.
21. Armored car is__________ (a) noun + verb (b) noun +
noun (c) verb + noun (d) adverb + verb (e) adjective +
noun.
22. Make-believe is ____________ (a) verb + adjective (b)
noun + adjective (c) verb + verb (d) ad+ noun.
23 — 26: Answer the question below, based on the information

in the following passage.
The concepts of fashion as we know it originated around 1350.
Before that time, people wore loose garments draped according to
the national style. Clothing styles changed after the Crusaders. Court
tailors began attaching buttons to clothes that fastened tightly
around the human form. These garments resulted in fashion’s first
scandal when the Catholic Church objected to the revealing clothes.
The Objection posed by the Church did not halt the progress of
fashion, however. As merchants and other members of the emerging
middle class acquired new wealth, they wanted to dress like the
nobility. The aristocrats, in turn, struggled to keep a step ahead of
the middle class, and as a result, styles quickly became obsolete. By
1380 tailors were kept busy with the rapidly changing fashions. As
fashions changed, some odd styles emerged. One of the strangest
was that worn by women in Venice, Italy, in the 1600s. Venetian
noblewomen began wearing platform shoes that lifted them nearly a
foot off the ground. The wearer required an attendant on either side
to support her as she walked on the stilt-like shoes.
The shoes might have been designed to keep the women’s feet dry
when water from the surrounding lagoons rose and flooded some of
the city’s streets, but they were far from practical; the women who
wore them might be considered among the earliest slaves to fashion.
23. The crusaders saw the Turks and Mongols wearing (a)
loose garments (b) clothes fastened with buttons (c)
clothes fastened with zippers (d) high platform shoes.
24. What is meant by phrase ―styles quickly become obsolete‖
in the second paragraph? (a)Styles came into fashion (b)
strange styles developed (c) no one care about styles
anymore (d) none.
25. Which of the following doesn’t explain why Venetian
women wore high platform shoes? (a) They wanted to keep
their feet dry (b) they wanted to maintain the height of
fashion (C) they wanted to scandalize the Catholic
Church (d) they wanted to attract attention.
26. According to the selection, who were among the earliest
slaves to fashion? (a) Venetian noblewomen of 1600s (b)
the attendants who supported the Venetian women (c) the
tailors who tried keep up with the changing fashions (d) the
Turks and Mongols.
27. The major factor that disrupts effective comprehension of
any kind is_______ (a) inattention and break in
telementation (b) fatigue (c) carelessness (d) over
enthusiasm.
28. Reading compression can be seriously affected by
__________ (a) poor eyesight (b) impaired hearing (c)
poor acoustics (d) poor environment.
29. While reading comprehension involves the eyes and the
optic nerves, listening comprehension involves (a) the
vocal cords (b) the nose arid olfactory nerves (C) the
tongue and the mouth cavity (d) the ear, the ear drum
and ear nerves.
30. Notes taken at lectures and fully made are very useful
because (a) they eliminate reading full books over and
consulting lecturers (b) they build confidence (c) they save
time (d) none of the above.
31. The loose cover when present on a book is called
__________ (a) dusk jacket (b) film jacket (c) coast jacket
(d) cover file.
32. When the cover of a book bears a short description of the
content the description is called ________ (a) the blurb
(b) the blube (c) the blurbel (d) the burbul.
33. Which of these pages is differentiated by being numbered
in Arabic numeral figures (a) subsidiary pages(b)
introduction (c) the main book (d) preliminary pages.
34. Which of these is written by a person other than the author
of the book? (a) Preface
(b) forward (c) introduction (d) none of the above.
35. Which of these classification schemes is used in the
University of Port Harcourt? (a) Dewey Decimal
Classification Scheme (b) Library of Congress
Classification Scheme (c) Bibliographic Classification (d)
Universal Decimal Classification Scheme.
36. Which of these contains 12.5cm x 7.5cm (3 x 5 inches)
cards? (a) Card catalogue (b) catalogue cards (c) guides
cards (d) card arrangement.
37. Journals differ from books because: (a) they are expensive
(b) appear at regular seasons (c) they have editors (d)
they have dates.
38. Note-taking and making, judicious use of time table and
study efforts can all be supported by_________ (a) more
individual effort (b) intensive private work (c) group study
(d) reading speed.
39- 48: Write the letter of the term that describes each
underlined portion in the following passage:
Has this never happened to you? You decided to take a personal
quiz, (39) which you found on the internet. (40) You add up your
score and you eagerly read the paragraph that supposedly described
your personality type. However (41) when you finish reading you
feel horrible. The reason is not (42) because you don’t recognize
yourself, but because you do! (43) When a scenario like this occurs,
keep these points (44) in mind first the quiz results may not be
completely accurate. (45) Taking a personality test while in a rotten
mood. It can skew the result. Second, personality quizzes vary in
quality. Even highly respected test (46) that professionals use may
have flaws. (47) Finally, even if your quiz results are accurate you
could turn the situation into a learning experience. You might try to
change (48) whatever attitudes and behaviours you’d like to
improve or you could choose to accept yourself as you are.
39. (a) Noun clause (b) adjective clause (c) adverb (d)
independent clause.
40. (a) Simple sentence (b) compound sentence (c) complex
sentence (d) compound-complex sentence.
independent clause.
42. (a) Noun clause as subject (b) noun clause as direct
object (c) noun clause as predicate (d) noun clause as
predicate nominative.
independent clause.
44. (a) Independent clause (b) sentence fragment (c) run-on-
sentence (d) simple sentence.
45. (a) Independent clause (b) sentence fragment (c) run-on-
sentence (d) simple sentence.
46. Essential adjective clause (b) nonessential adjective
clause (C) adverb clause (d) noun clause.
47. Simple sentence (b) compound sentence (c) complex
sentence (c) compound complex sentence.
48. (a) Noun clause as subject (b) noun clause as direct
object of an infinitive (c) noun clause as direct object (d)
essential adjective clause.
49. These are called terminal punctuations marks: (a) ellipsis,
dash and apostrophe (b) full stop, exclamation and ellipsis
(c) full stop, exclamation mark and question make (d)
none.
50. The hyphen, parenthesis and quotation mark are used
to_____ (a) to indicate commission and enclose words (b)
to show possessiveness and enclose expression (c) to
introduce, link or enclose words.
51. I am sure that things will improve (a) noun complement
(b) nominal (C) adjective complement.
52. Which of these is written by a person order than the author
of the book? (a) Preface
(b) forward (c) introduction (d) content page.
53. Context clues help to (a) define reading purpose (b)
identify sentence structure (c) defer meanings of words (d)
infer meanings of words.
54. (a) many admirer of their work agree (b) many admirers of
their work agrees (c) many admire of their work agree (d)
none.
55. (a) Do wrapping islands and trees seems (b) does wrapping
island and trees seems (c) does wrapping island and trees
seems.
56. (a) The press was (b) the press are (c) the press have
been (d) none.
57. It is raining (a) SVC (b) SV (c) SVo (d) none.
58. His behaviour towards his son is inexplicable (a) AVSA
(b) SVAA (c) SVC (d) none.
59. The odd item is __________ (a) biographies (b)
novels (c) poems (c) plays.
60. Which is riot relevant in active reading? (a) The
publisher (b) the writer (C) the reader (d) the text.
61. The, survivors gave God all the glory (a) SVOC (b)
SVOA (c) SVOO (d) SVO.
62. The boys hurriedly finished the job. (a) SVOA (b)
SAVO (c) ASVO (d) SVOA.
63. Dr. Jonathan is the president (a) SVOC (b) SVC (C)
SAVC (d) (d) SVOA.
64. Which is associated with previewing? (a) Abstract (b)
connotation (c) call cards (d) flexibility.
65. Topic sentences: (a) express topical ideas (b) express main
ideas (C) are topics of texts,(d) all of the above.
66. Obasi was given a piece of advice by the lecturer (a)
SVOA (b) SVOO (c) SVOC (d) SVO.
67. My father gave me a new book. (a) SVOO (b)
SVOA (c) SVA (d) SVO.
68. The judge found him guilty (a) SVOC (b) SVC (c)
SVOA (d) SVAA.
69. The VC will invite you when he is ready. (a) SVA
(b) SVC (c) SVOA (d) none.
70. Ade ale the meal quickly (a) SAVO (b) SVOA (c) SVC (d)
SVOC.
GES 100.1: COMMUNICATION SKILLS IN ENGLISH
(REGULAR)
INSTRUCTION Fill in the right answer to the question in your
computer sheets. Select the letter of each correct answer
1. We read to _______ (a) obtain information (b) understand
information (c) interpret information (d) all of the above.
2. A problem associated with reading comprehension is ____
(a) scanning (b) anticipating content (d) skimming (d)
defining purpose.
3. To master a text, we (a) skim (b) scan (c) study (d) none of
the above.
4. Which is associated with previewing? (a) Abstract (b)
Connotation (c) call cards (d) flexibility.
5. Topic sentences: (a) express topical ideas (b) express main
ideas (c) are topics of texts (d) defer meanings of words (d)
infer‖ meanings of words.
6. Context clues help to: (a) express topical ideas (b) express
main ideas (c) are topics of text (d) defer meanings of
words (e) infer meanings of words.
7. help us understand relations within a text (a) adjectives (b)
topic sentences (C) connectives (d) previews.
8. Which are not associated with graphic illustration? (a)
Blurbs (b) tables (c) diagrams (d) pictures.
9. Background knowledge is _______(a) knowledge of writer
(b) general knowledge (c) knowledge of self (d)
knowledge of the text.
10. Which is not relevant in active reading? (a) Giving
definitions (b) making word associations (c) giving
elaborations (d) making hypothesis.
11. Which is not a function of a sentence? (a) The publisher (b)
the writer (c) the writer (d) the text.
12. To identify facts, we need ________(a) evaluative skill (b)
deductive skill (c) literal skill (d) inferential skill.
13. Which is not an outcome of recreational reading? (a)
Proficiency in English (b) critical analysis (C) general
knowledge (d) insight into human conditions.
14. Extensive reading involves: (a) detailed reading (b)
specialized reading (c) leisurely reading (d) all of the
above.
15. The odd item is ________ (a) biographies (b) novels (C)
poems (d) plays.
Choose the word pair that completes each of the following
analogy test items:
16. ACCOUNTANT: CALCULATOR: (a) mathematics: graph
(b) gardener: shovel (C) pen: writer.
17. SUPERVISOR: FACTORY: (a) spectator: applause (b)
boss: command (c) drummer: drum.
18. VOLUME: ENCYCLOPEDIA: (a) book: page (b) poet:
poetry (c) musician: orchestra.
19. HILARIOUS: COMEDY: (a) edit: scene (b) gloomy:
tragedy (c) performance: triumphant.
20. RAIN: FLOOD: (a) fire: matches (b) plane crash:
casualties (c) crop loss: drought.
Choose the correct option:
21. (a) The lecturer gave us a test on chemistry. (b) The
lecturer gave us a test in chemistry (C) The lecturer gave a
test to us in chemistry.
22. (a) She made the comments to my hearing. (b) She made
the comments at my hearing. (c) She made the comments
in my hearing.
23. (a) My son went to the office with a car (b) My son went
to the office by a car (c) My son went to the office on a
car.
24. (a) The examination will start by 9.am prompt (a) The
examination will start around 9am prompt (c) The
examination will start at 9am prompt.
25. (a) The doctor operated my sister this morning (b) The
doctor operated on my sister this morning (c) The doctor
operated up on my sister this morning.
Select the letter of each correct answer.
26. Note-taking must necessarily be immediately followed by:
(a) further listening and reading (b) note-making (c)
discussion (d) reading for fun.
27. In formal education, note-taking involves: (a) reading (b)
conference attendance (c) spoken and written / printed
materials (d) all of the above.
28. Reading may be defined as: (a) making sense out of
pictures (b) getting a message out of phonetic symbols only
(c) decoding a message from graphic symbols.
29. Reading comprehension is greatly enhanced by (a) high
level language competence and effective reading skills (b)
fluency in language (c) ability to write correctly (d)
intensive reading.
30. The major skills employed in listening comprehension are
(a) tuning in, attention, thought process and evaluation
(b) tuning in and insulation (c) thinking and evaluation (d)
insulation and evaluation.
Select the word with the correct spelling
31. (a) Accommodation (b) acomodation (c) accomoddation
(d) acormodation.
32. (a) Hypophysics (b) hypotheses (c) hypothesis (d)
hypophesis.
33. (a) Palm (b)parlimpseste (c) pelimpsest(d) palympsest.
34. (a) Foreshow (b) forshadow (c) forshardow (d)
forshadowed.
35. (a) Genre (b)geme (c) genner (d) jenre.
36. (a) Aright (b) all right (c) al-right (d) allright.
37. (a) glaening (b) gleening (c) gleaning (d) gunning.
38. (a) Advertorial (o) advatorial (c) advetorale (d)
ardvertorial.
39. (a) Aapositive (b) appositive (c) arpositive(d) apositive.
40. (a) Litotes (b) lirtotis (c) lelotis (d) litoities.
One of the underlined sections in the following sentences may

contain errors of grammar, usage, punctuation and spelling.
Write the letter of the incorrect section.
41. Michelangelo painted (a) so good that he (b) was
commissioned by the (c) pope to paint the ceiling of the
Sistine Chapel.
42. The finch (a) is a (b) spirited bird that sings (c) beautiful
and is often kept a pet.
43. The ancient (a) Romans regular (b) practice
bribery and (c) infanticide.
44. (a) The Commissioner of Work announced that the (b)
road project would be (c) awarded to lowest bidder.
45. (a)All the locations proposed for (b) the disposal of these
industrial wastes have (c) it disadvantages.
Choose the correct option:
46. Library books are secured by ensuring that they are: (a)
chained to a place (b) not stolen (c) classified.
47. An encyclopedia may: (a) cover only one subject (b) have
the origin of words (c) contain words on a special subject.
48. Almanacs (a) record list of facts (b) cover subjects like
sports (c) give direction to travelers.
49. If you want to know the location of Honduras, you will:
(a) read a novel (b) search your dictionary (c) look in an
atlas.
50. In journals and periodicals, supersede issues mean the same
thing as: (a) back files (b) file jackets (c) dust jackets.
The underline portion functions as________

51. It’s a beautiful spring morning at Millers Woods: (a)
adjunct (b) adjective (c) noun (d) nominal.
52. Joan should learn how to handle things better: (a)
adjective (b) verb (c) adverb.
53. Is this the school building? (a) Noun (b) nominal (c)
determiner (d) adjective (e) C and D.
54. The Chief jumped down the roof: (a) pronoun (b)
preposition (c) adverb (d) adjunct (e) noun.
55. His book fell through: (a) pronoun (b) preposition (c)
adverb (d) adjunct (e) an idiom.
56. Pray to handle better things: (a) adverbial (b) adjunct (c)
verb (d) modifier (e) adjective.
57. He is just a feudal lord: (a) adjunct (b) adverbial (c)
adjective (d) modifier (e) quantifier.
58. Is he the first? (a) Article (b) determiner (c) compliment (d)
enumerator (e) adjectival.
59. She is: (a) adverbial (b) verb to be (c) predicate (d)
pronoun (e) none of the above.
60. Here is better: (a) pronoun (b) comment (c) preposition (d)
adjective (e) none of the above.
61. This is incredible: (a) object (b) pronoun (c) compliment
(d) none of the above.
62. That sounds untrue: (a) verb (b) transitive (c) linking
verb(d) modal verb (e) all of them.
63. Both are good: (a) noun (b) pronoun (c) subject marker (d)
reposition (e) object,
64. I haven’t returned since: (a) adjective (b) adverb (c)
preposition (d) complement (e) conjunction.
65. This is the age of information technology: (a) noun (b)
determiner (c) modifier (d) object (e) adjective.
The SVCOA pattern of the sentence is…………………….
66. It is certain that he will write: (a) SVC (b) SVCO (c SVCO
(d) SCO (e) None
67. That is good news indeed: (a) SVAA (b) SVOQ (c) SVAC
(d) SVCA (e) SVOA.
68. Mary and Jane sounded funny: (a) SSV (b) SVA (c) SVO
d) SVVC (e) SOVC.
69. You may be the next coordinator: (a) SVVC (b) SVC (c)
SVAA (d) SAVC.
70. You were once a leader (a) SVA (b) SVO (c) SVAA (d)
SVAC.
Logic and philosophy
GES 102 WORK BOOK
ANSWER TO MODULE 1: PHILOSOPHY COMPONENT
UNIT ONE
1. C 8. D
2. D 9. C
3. B 10. D
4. B 11. D
5. B 12. B.
6. D 13. A
7. B
UNIT TWO
1. C 3. B
2. C 4. C
5. E
6. Substance
Potentiality
Actuality
7. It is the philosophy covering the nature of
existence, truth and knowledge
8. Epistemology
9. The combination of matter and form
10. It is the concentration of facts rather than emotion
or ideas.
It is the practical and the consequence of a given
action.
UNIT THREE
1. (a) Cosmology (b) Ontology (c) Cosmogony

2. ―meta‖ meaning over and above ad ―physika‖
meaning nature
3. (a) What is life (b) what is man (c) what
can I believe (d) what can I hope
4. (a) the world of form (b) The particular or
physical matter.
5. (a) Substance (matter) (b) form
6. (a) episteme (b) logos
7. Rene Descartes
8. Proposition
Premise
Conclusion
9. Ethos meaning practical knowledge
10. Investigation of the right
11. Subject and object
12. Skepticism
UNIT FOUR
1. Will power
2. a sketch plan for life
3. Is the study which has to do with practical
knowledge for social being of man.
4. i. organ transplant
ii. Euthanasia (mercy killing)
iii. Artificial insemination
iv. Genetic engineering
5. i. Environmental ethics
ii. Media ethics
iii. Business ethics
6. Thomas Hobbes contract theory that conflict
arises as man began to meet each other. Grace
Christian theory of imperfection
7.
S/N NAME DESCRIPTION
1. Ethical objectivity Morality of objective value
2. Ethics of naturality Action determined
3. Unitarianism Belief of only one God
8. on the basis of moral objectivity.

9. Human are social animals that interact with one
another and such interaction are granted by
mutuality accepted side of conduct and human are
also moral agents with objectivity.
UNIT FIVE
1. Thales of Miletus
2. To create social harmony and maintain the
undisrupted dignity and right which is inherent in
him by virtue of his being as a rational being.
3. The desire to ensure certainly of haired knowledge
4. R. J. Hirst
5. Natural right
6. State that everyone has the right to take part in
government of his country.
7. Law according to Marx and Engel is the will of
the dominating class raised to the level of law as
documented by material condition of life.
8. Human right tend to be reduced to the level of
other right. It transcend because it does not enjoy
absolute guarantee and protection as different
form of government conceive it differently.
9. Powerful
Universality
Absolution
Laws of equality among human beings.
10. The Christian and the Islamic doctrine of the
existence of the universe see one and only God as
(Almighty God) in Christian while Islam (Allah)
UNIT SIX
1. Greek word ―philia‖ and Sophia

2. Comprehensive knowledge of things
3. Scientific knowledge is attained through
experiment, method and experimentation and
philosophic knowledge is attained not through
experiment careful reasoning.
4. Socrates
5. Critical reasoning, objective explanation,
skepticism and critical evaluation.
6. Growth means quantitative increase while
development is qualitative increase.
7. Degeneration
8. Developing, stagnating; de-developing or
underdeveloped
9. A group of people with common tradition, history
and common government.
10. Political instability; corruption, insecurity and
dependent on a primary product; capital flight.
Gender issues, leadership, lack of philosophical
understanding.
11. Development is a process of unfolding, evolving
or maturing that entails a change of form from one
stage to a greater one.
MODULE 2: LOGIC COMPONENT

UNIT SEVEN
1. The study of reasoning
2. The outcome of the product of our reasoning
3. Inference is the act of passing from one
propositional statement to another whose truth is
believed to follow from that of the former.
4. A collection of proposition statement where one is
asserted on the basis of the other (s).
5. A statement have truth value while a command
does not.
6. A sentence is a statement or group of words that
makes measuring or sense that may or may not
have a truth value
7. A premise is a proposition that provide the ground
for reaching conclusion.
8. premise lead to conclusion while conclusion is
derived from a premise.
9. Deductive argument infer from generate to
particular statement while inductive argument the
reverse is the case.
10. One which affirms the premises but find one
which negates the conclusion of an argument.
11. When the statement is logicality sound.
12. It is the rule of influence which thus; P Q; Q P.
This means that of the consequent be derived, the
antecedent is derived.
13. Validity and truth statement.
_______________
Logic and Philosophy
1. The etymological definition of philosophy

emphasizes its nature
as__________(a)Abstract(b) Critical (c)
Theoretical(d) An activity(e) Logical
2. Existentialism stresses the priority of
_________(a)The ideal over the actual (b) Form
over matter(c) The one over many(d)Existence
over essence
(e) Essence over existence
3. Socrates died by _________(a) Shooting
himself(b)Hanging himself (c)Drinking hemlock
(d) Burning himself(e) Committing suicide
4. When we reason, we carry out one of the
following_________(a) We manufacture fact(b) We
distill facts(C)We draw inference(d) We
necessarily apprehend the truth(e) None of the
above
5. Metaphysically, Plato’s idealism is opposed to
Aristotle’s __________ (a) Actualize(b)
Concretism(c)
Physicalism(d)Rationalism(e)Materialism
6. Ethical principles differ from ordinary physical
laws in that they are_________(a)Laws of
nature(b) Laws of conscience(c) Man-made laws
(d) Divine laws (e) Societal laws
7. The history of the Ancient period is divided
into__________(a) Pre-socratic&Medieval (b)
Socratic &Milesians(c) Modern &Contemporary
(d) Socratic&Classical(e)Pre-socratic&Socratic
8. The fallacy involved in begging the question is
called in Latin as_________(a)Non
Sepuitur(b)Ignoratio Elenchi(c)petition
Principii(d) Argumentum Ad hominem.
9. The famous existentialist thinker who
pronounced God is dead was
___________(a)Immanuel Kant (b) Karl
Marx(c)Fredrick Nietzsche (d) Descartes (e)
Charles Darwin (f) David Hume.
10. Every proposition in Logic has_______(a)
Answer(b) Truth value (c) Solution(d) Reason (e)
Solution
11. Human right is equivalent to which of these? (a)
Divine right(b) Natural right(c) Social right(d)
Legal right(e)Jurial right.
12. One who studies the nature of the universe, its
origin and purpose is called an
epistemologist____________(a) True/False (b)
True(b)False (d) None of the above(e) All of the
above.
13. Philosophy is defined as logical clarification of
thought by__________(a) Vittganstin(b)
Wittgenstan(c) Wittgenstein (d) Gensteinvig(e)
Fittgenstein.
14. The contemporary philosophical movement that
sees the problem of language as the main task of
philosophy is________ (a) Literary movement(b)
Meta-linguistic movement (c)Analytic philosophy
(d) Logical positivism (e) Pragmatism
15. Another name for the modern period is
____________ (a) Dark age(b) Classical period(c)
Medieval period(d)Age of reason (e) Modern
period
16. One of the major characteristics of the medieval
period of philosophy was ________(a)Faith
preceded reason (b) Reason preceded faith (c)
Faith alone mattered(d) Reason alone
mattered(e) Reason was the servant of faith
17. The “unexamined use is not worth living” is
associated with_____(a) Plato (b) Aristotle (c)
Rene Descartes (d) Immanuel Kant (e)Socrates
18. The__________ argue against innate ideas (a)
Idealist(b)Empiricists (c) Kant(d) Rationalists(e)
Existentialist
19. In the Ancient period, the problem of
permanence and change was a controversy
between the following philosophers __________(a)
Parmenides&Craytlus(b) Heraclitus & Zeno (c)
Parmenides& Socrates (d)Parmenides&
Heraclitus (e) Pythagoras &Parmenides
20. The ontogological argument for the existence of
God is sometimes called __________(a) Aposteriori
argument(b) Cause to effect argument or Apriori
argument(c) Effect to cause argument or
Aposteriori argument(d) Apriori argument(e)
Cosmological argument.
21. Parmenides philosophy is a reaction to
philosophy of ___________(a) Thales (b) Socrates
(c) Democritus(d) Zero(e)Heraclitus
22. For a group of philosophers, atoms constituted
all reality__________(a) Plato and the atomists (b)
Heraditus and the atomists (c) Socrates and the
atomists (d)Democritus and the atomists (e)
Aristotle and the atomists.
23. The famous Sophists in the ancient period who
saw knowledge as relative or subjective
were__________(a) Protagoras, Gorgias and
Parmenides(b) Pythagoras, Plato and
Thrasmaychus(c) Socrates, Plato and Aristotle
(d)Gorgias, Thrasmaychus and Protagoras (e)
Protagoras, Gorgias and Pythagoras
24. The term “cogito ergo sum” is associated with
which philosopher?(a)Rene Descartes (b) John
Locke(c) Immanuel Kant (d) Thomas Hobbes(e)
Francis Minimah
25. Thomas Aquinas and Baruch Spinoza belong to
which periods in the history of philosophy?(a)
Ancient and medieval(b) Medieval and
contemporary(c) Ancient and modern(d)
Contemporary and modern(e)Medieval and
modern
26. The dictum “man is the measure of all things” is
associated with ____________(a) Pythagoras (b)
Heraclitus(e)Protagoras (d) Plato(e) Aristotle
27. Another name for Aesthetics as a branch of
philosophy is __________ (a) Theory of knowledge
(b) Theory of being(c)The beautiful in things(d)
The science of reasoning(e) The science of
morality
28. The branch of philosophy that deals with human
knowledge is called _________(a) Ethics (b)
Aesthetics (c)Epistemology (d) Logic (e)
Metaphysics
29. ___________philosophy was to show the
mathematical basis of reality; (a) Thales(b)
Pythagoras (c) Epicurus (d) Democritus (e)
Socrates
30. One of the major reasons why a man should be
moral is because of_________(a) Natural equality
of all (b) Peace and harmony in the society (c)
Legal punishment (d)Reality of Hell fire (e) None
of the above
31. One consequence of pragmatism as a
philosophical movement in the contemporary
period is ________(a) It leads to objectivity (b) It
relativizes truth (c) It produces good man (d) It
helps us to live harmoniously (e) It helps
philosophers to explain the world
32. In a valid argument________(a) Conclusion
implies the premises (b) Conclusion entails the
premises (c) Conclusion necessitates the
premises(d)Premises necessitate the conclusion
(e) Conclusion gives rise to premises
33. Who among the Pre-Socratic philosophers
developed the “theory of the Apeiron or the
indeterminate boundless”(a)Anaximander (b)
Anaximenes(c) Thales (d) Heraclitus(e)
Protagoras
34. The rightness or wrongness of an action can be
determined by the quantity of happiness or pain
the action produces is associated with: (a)
Kantianism (b)Utilitarianism (c) Situationism(d)
Formalism (e) Intuitionism
35. According to Kant, objective scientific knowledge
is achievable if we continue ourselves to the
realm of ___________(a) Noumena(b) Phenomena
(c) Ideal (d) Abstract. (e) Reason
36. The problem that was foremost in the minds of
the Milesian philosophers was_____________(a)
The problem of permanence and change (b) The
problem of appearance and reality (c)The origin
of the world (d) The characteristics of the world
(e) Moral questions about man and society
37. Which of the following philosophers is the
immediate successor of Socrates?(a)Thales(b)
Anaximander(c)Sophists (d) Aristotle(e) Plato
38. Philosophy is believed to have started in the city
of___________(a) Crete (b) Alexandra (c)
Crote(d)Miletus(e) Rome
39. Skepticism is a philosophical position that
denies the possibility of
knowledge_____________(a)True (b) True /
False(c) False (d) None of the above(e) All of the
above
40. The pursuit of philosophy is the pursuit
_______________(a)Of the love of wisdom(b) Of
knowledge (c) Of science of wisdom(d) Of the
wise(e) Of the lover of wisdom.
41. One who studies the nature of the universe, its
origins and purpose is called_____________(a)
Epistemologist (b) Thinker(c) Metaphysician(d)
Logician (e) Ethicist
42. The German Philosopher who attempted a
synthesis between rationalism and empiricism
was_____________(a) David Hume, (b) Ludwig
Wittgenstein(c)Immanuel Kant(d) Thomas
Hobbes (e) Rene Descartes
43. The philosophical movement that tried to make
philosophy scientific in the early 20th Century
was___________
(a) Rationalism (b) Empiricism (c)Vienna circle(d)
Idealism (e) Logical position
44. If an argument is sound, then______________(a) It
cannot be valid(b) All its statements most be
false(c)Mike is a tree cannot be part of it(d) Its
conclusion most logically entail the premises(e)
The argument most be sound
45. Which school of thought holds perceptual
experience as the primary source of all true
knowledge?
(a) Empiricism(b) Materialism (c) Pragmatism(d)
Idealism
Using the index of concepts, time or thought system
in question 46- 54 choose the odd one among
these options.
46. (a) Soren Kierkegaard(b) Martin Heidegger (c)
Jean Paul Sartre (d) Frederick Nietzsche (e)None
of the above
47. (a) Speculative (b) Critical (c)Experimental(d)
Analytical (e) Logical
48. (a) Existentialism (b) Logical positivism
(c)Rationalism (d) Analytic philosophy (e)
Pragmatism
49. (a) Why something instead of nothing? (b)Is
there any difference between morally right or
wrong actions? (c) Does God exist? (d) Is reality
essentially spiritual or material? (e) What is the
relationship between mind and matter?
50. (a) Anaximander (b) Democritus (c)
Anaxmenes(d) Pythagoras (e) Socrates
51. (a) Rene Descartes (b) Baruch Spinoza (c)Isaac
Newton (d) Gottfried Leibniz
52. (a) Rudolf Carnap(b) A.J. Ayer (c) Moritz
Schlick(d)John Locke (e) Otto Neurath
53. (a) Bertrand Russell (b) Soren Kierkegaard(c)
Moritz Schlick(d) George Berkeley (e) Charles
Sanders Pierce
54. (a) Francis Minimah(b) John Locke(c) Socrates
(d) Ludwig Wittgenstein (e) St. Augustine
55. With the emergence of the Sophists and
Socrates, Greek Philosophy shifted from
cosmology and ontology to the development of
(a) Man and the world(b) Society and
reality(c)Man and society (d) Philosophy and the
world(e) Study of Being
56. The question of “why “and “how “are the major
concern of which branches of
philosophy?(a)Metaphysics and Epistemology (b)
Logic and Epistemology(c) Aesthetics and
Metaphysics (d) Ethics and Metaphysics(e)
Epistemology and Logic
57. From the philosophical perspective, morality
derives from man’s ______________(a) Religious
nature (b) Political nature (c) Economic nature
(d)Social nature (e) Sexual nature.
58. Conceptualization of human rights in absolute
terms is possible only within the sphere
of_____________(a) Politics (b) Democracy (c)
Philosophy(d) Law(e) Science.
59. The contents of human rights was first
articulated globally in the year___________(a)
1947(b) 1984 (c) 1960 (d) 1919 (e) 1948
60. A misconception of national development
equates development with_____________(a)
Statistical growth (b) Spiritual growth (c)
Structural material growth (d) Religious
growth(e) Human growth
61. The three famous individuals who stood in
complete opposition to the teaching of the
Sophists in the Ancient period were________(a)
Thales, Anaximander, Anaximenes(b) Plato,
Pythagoras, Zeno (c) Sophists, Jews, Heraclitus
(d) Socrates, Plato, Aristotle(e) Plato, Pythagoras,
Democritus
62. “Truth is what works”. Logical Positivism is the
contemporary philosophical school of thought
associated with this expression(a) True(b)False(c)
True/ false(d) None of the above(e) All of the
above
63. The Philosopher associated with the “tabula
rasa” concept was_______________(a) Rene
Descartes (b) Thales(c) St. Augustine(d)John
Locke (e) Thomas Hobbes
65. Philosophy’s contribution to the concept of
national development is mainly on its emphasis
on_________(a) Population growth (b)
Human/moral development, (c) Economic
development (d) Political and social
development(e) Infrastructural development
66. _______ are the nonmaterial essences of things
in Plato’s philosophy (a) Particulars (b) Essence
(c)Ideas (d) Substances (e) Predicament
67. ____ is often regarded as the father of modern
philosophy(a) Fredrick Hegel (b) John Locke (c)
DavidHume(d) Rene Descartes (e) Francis
Minimah
68. The term metaphysics is derived from two
Greek words___________
(a) Meta and Logus(b)Meta and Physika(c) Meta
and Physics (d) Episteme and Logos(e) Meta and
Logos
69. Whose definition of philosophy as “criticism of
criticisms” makes philosophy methodologically
relevant to every branch of human endeavor?(a)
Karl Marx (b) John Dewey (c) Francis Bacon (d)
Isaac Newton(e) William James
70. A statement is either true or false which law of
thought does this statement
express__________(a)Law of contradiction (b) Law
of identity (c) Law of excluded middle (d) All of
the above(e) None of the above
71. A substance for Aristotle is a combination
of___________(a)Matter, form, potentiality &
actuality(b) Matter, form, ideas & potentiality(c)
Body, soul, potentiality & actuality(d)
Substance, matter, potentiality & actuality(e)
Substance, existence, form & matter
72. The description of philosophy as a rational
enterprise implies___________(a) Extreme
rationalism(b) Knowledge of essence(c) Empirical
rationalism (d) Knowledge of things(e) Absolute
rationalism
73. “The end of a thing is its perfection. Death is the
end of life. Therefore, death is the perfection of
life”. This is an example of what
fallacy?(a)Equivocation(b) Circular reason(c)
Amphiboly(d) Cartesian fallacy (e) Begging the
question
74. Give the Latin equivalent of “I think, therefore I
am” (a) Esseestpercipi(b) Tabula rasa (c)Cogito
ergo sum (d) Credo ut intelligence (e) Rationalis
et al
75. The following attributes excepts __________
distinguishes natural rights from all other rights
(a) Inviolability (b) Immutability (c) Legality
(d)Inalienability(e) Morality
76. The role of philosophy in Human Rights
discourse is basically _________(a) To punish
those that abuses them (b) To justify through
reason the desirability of them (c) To study the
abuse of it (d) To console those who suffer the
abuse of them(e) To compensate those who
respect them
77. A situation in which premises are affirmed, but
the conclusion is negated is called _________(a)
Argument (b) Inference (c) Universality (d)
Dilemma (e) Counter example
78. A proposition can be valid or invalid (a) True (b)
False (c) True/False (d) all of the above (e)
Noneof the above
79. The major distinguishing characteristics of
modern philosophy is its emphasis on________(a)
Scientific method (b) Understanding man (c) A
Good understanding of God (d) Love of
Humanity (e) Rational Method of inquiry
80. A proposition in which the meaning of the
predicate is not contained in the subject is
called___________(a) Synthetic (b) Analytic (c)
Aposteriori (d) Apriori (e) Syndicative
81. A justified true belief is equivalent to_________(a)
Fact (b) Knowledge(c) Opinion (d) Faith (e)
Rumor
82. Empiricism as a school of thought in the
modern period is consistent
with__________(a)Sense experience(b) Innate
ideas(c) Realism (d) Materialism(e) Idealism
83. Ethical principles differ from ordinary physical
laws in that they are__________(a) Laws of
nature(b) Laws of conscience (c) Man-made laws
(d) Divine laws (e) Societal laws.
84. Another name for a premise is___________(a)
Logic (b) Affirmation (c) Truth (d) Grounds (e)
Thoughts
85. According to Aristotle, metaphysics before
Socrates was erroneous because it conceived
reality in terms of ________(a) Ideal
form(b)Material principles(c) Substances (d) The
one (e) Universals
86. Man is entitled to the fundamental human
rights by virtue of being___________(a) A child (b)
A social being (c) A political animal (d) A rational
being (e) Religious being
87. The earliest logician was:____________(a) Thales
(b) Plato (c) Aristotle (d) Socrates (e) Descartes
88. ______ moves from general to particular
proposition (a) Arguments (b) Inductive
argument(c) Deductive argument(d) Inference (e)
None of the above
89. Who among the following postulated Air as the
primary substance or reality? (a) Thales (b)
Epicurus (c)Anaximenes(d) Democritus (e)
Anaximander
90. Neither John Dewey nor Charles Pierce is the
father of pragmatism (a) True (b) False (c)
Unknown (d) all of the above
91. According to________`economic rights should
constitute the content of human rights.(a)
Liberal (b) Human right activist (c) The universal
declaration of rights (d) Marxist (e) Sociologists
92. Prior to the philosophical reflections of the
Milesians, the classical Greek minds had their
source in __________(a) Polity (b) Political (c)
Mythology (d) Society (e) Oracle
93. __________ defined philosophy as criticism of
criticisms (a) William James (b) John Locke (c)
Karl Marx(d)John Dewey (e) Francis Becon
94. The process of deriving one statement on the
basis of others is ____________(a) Consistency (b)
Logic (c) Inference (d) Thinking (e) Epistemology
95. The cosmological argument for the existence of
God is sometimes called____________(a) Cause to
effect argument or Apriori argument(b)Effect to
cause argument or Aposteriori argument(c)
Apriori argument(d) Ontological argument (e)
Cosmological argument
96. _________is the form of government mostly
accepted within the context of human right
philosophy (a) Liberia socialism (b) Marxian
communism (c) Totalitarism(d) Democracy (e)
Platonism
97. The evaluation of validity/soundness of an
argument is applicable to ____________(a)
Deduction (b) Induction (c) Implication(d)
Conjunction(e) Argument
98. All the charters on human rights agree that
_________is a fundamental human right (a) Right
to free housing (b) Right to vote and be voted for
(C)Right to life (d) Right to health and education
(e) Right to speech
99. The principle of Logic that maintains that
something cannot be said to be and at the same
time said not to be is known as_____(a) The
doctrine of being(b) The doctrine of being or not-
being (c) The principle of non-contradiction (d)
The principle of being
100. The Ancient dictum “you cannot step twice into
the same river” is credited to ________(a)
Aristotle(b) Plato (c) Parmenides(d)Heraclitus(e)
Protagoras
101. power installed in something by virtue of been
something is what_________(a)actuality
(b)potentiality (c)form (d)water
102. another name for medieval period is called
(a)dark age (b)middle age (c)golden age (d)all of
the above
103. The root meaning of Philosophy is ……… (A)
Wise love(B) Wisdom
friendly(C)Wisdomlover(D)Wisdomfriendship
The approach to philosophical problems which diverts
attention from the classical ways of doing
philosophy is best
expressed in? (A) Metaphysics (B) Epistemology
(C)
Existentialism (D) Ethics
104. In the Averroes Thomistic tradition, “Credo ut
intellegam” means? (A) I believe so that I may
see (B) I
believe so that I may be faithful (C) I believe so
that I may
succeed (D) I believe so that I may understand
105. Materialism is best defined as: (A) Reality is
explicable
in terms of idealism. (B) Reality is wholly
spiritual (C)
Reality is inexplicable in terms of the existence
of matter (D)
Reality is explicable in terms of the existence an
nature of
matter alone
106. The process of reasoning whereby the human
mind passes from some given evidences in order
to make judgement is called (a) inference (b)
logical movement (c) deduction (d) induction (e)
none of the above.
107. The major components of an argument are (a)
validity and invalidity (b) propositions,
premises(es) and conclusion (c) premiss(es),
conclusion and validity (d) propositions, validity
and truth (e) none of the above
108. The Milesian school included (a) thales,
Anaximander, anaximenes (b) plato, Socrates,
Aristotle (c) Pythagoras, Heraclitus,parmenides
(d) all of the above (e) none of the above.
109. The statement “John is has no wife” is an
example of (a) An invalid proposition (b) a fallacy
(c) induction (d) deducdtion (e) all of the above
110. The law of contradiction asserts that (a) the
world is made up of opposites (b) contradiction
should be avoided (c) no statement can both be
true or false at the same time (d) a proposition is
true if and only if it contradicts another
proposition. (e) none of the above.
111. “Dr.Oni is a teacher”. Is an example of (a) a
fallacy of identity (b) a proposition (c) the law of
contradict (d) A and C.
112. The search for reality is called (a) ethics (b)
matter (c) metaphysics (d) logic (e) none of the
above.
113. Which of these is true of philosophy? (a) it has
nothing to do with other disciplines (b) it has
only one definition (c) it has very many
definitions (d) it cannot be defined at all (e) none
of the above.
114. A posteriori proposition is the type of proposition
that is used in (a) knowledge derived from
experience (b) knowledge of eternal verities (c)
knowledge of ethical principles (d) knowledge
derived from pure reason (e) knowledge of ideas
115. Relativism as a branch of epistemology derives
(a) objective knowledge (b) standard knowledge
(c) correct knowledge (d)a priori knowledge (e) a
posteriori knowledge.
116. ____________believed that water is the
fundamental stuff of nature (a) Anaximander (b)
zero (c) Thales (d) Heraclitus (e) none of the
above
117. _________ denied permanence in nature (a)
Socrates (b) Heraclitus (c) Anaximanes (d)
Parmenides (e) all of the above
118. __________ believed that everything is in the
stage of flux (a) Heraclitus (b) Thales (c)
Parmenides (e)Empedocies
119. __________ believed in the transmigration of soul
(a) socrates (b) the sophists (c) Pythagoras (d)
Heraclitus (e) all of the above.
120. One important feature of philosophy is
____________ (a) criticism (b) radicalism (c)
dogmatism (d) indoctrination (e) all of the above.
121. __________ postulated the eclipse of the sun (a)
plato (b) thales (c) Aristotle (d) Socrates (e) None
of the above.
122. Which of the following personalities fall within
the period classified as the Golden age of greek
philosophy. (a) socrates, plato, aristotle (b)
thales, Anaximander, anaximenes (c)
Parmenides, Democritus, Pythagoras (d) all of
the above (e) none of the above
123. The first and greatest problem of philosophy is
(a) philosophy itself (b) law (c) psychology (d)
religion (e) all of the above.
124. Philosophy emerged in the (a) 3rd century (b) 5th
BC (c) 6th BC (d) all of the above (e) none of the
above
125. The phrase “Existence precedes essence” is
associated with (a) pragmatism (b)
phenomenology (c) existentialism (d)
perennialism (e) None of the above.
126. The validity of an argument depends on the
________ of the argument (a) truthfulness (b)
truthfulness and falsity (c) form (d) contents (e)
C and D.
127. The dictum * and unexamined life is not worth
living* is credited to (a) Aristotle (b) thales (c)
Socrates (d) Karl Marx (e) None of the above
128. The philosopher who announced to the world
that God is dead is (a) G.E Moore (b) Karl Popper
(c) Frederick Nietzsche (d) St. Aquinas (e) none of
the above.
129. Existentialism is a philosophy of (a)
Globalization (b) the Universe (c) human
existence (d) spiritualism (e) none of the above.
130. The essence of philosophy is (a) Economic (b)
psychological (c) metaphysical (d) social (e)
mystical.
131. The method of reasoning from particular to
general is called ___________ (a) inductive
reasoning (b) deductive reasoning (c) valid
reasoning (d) psychological reasoning (e) None of
the above.
132. One of the following statement is not properly
descriptive of logic (a) logic deals with the art of
correct reasoning (b) logic deals with inferences
(c) logic examines validity of arguments (d) logic
deals with persuasive power (e) logic deals with
the order of form of argument.
133. An argument is valid (a) if all the premises are
true (b) if the conclusion is true (c) if the
premises and the conclusion are true (d) if it is
impossible for the conclusion to false if the
premises are true (e) none of the above
134. What is natural logic (a) logic as it exists in
nature (b) pure logic without artificial concepts
(c) logic in natural language (d) all of the above
(e) A and B
135. The central concern of the logician is (a) to seek
truth (b) to discover facts (c) to reason correctly
(d) to establish criteria for the appraisal of
argument (e) to encourage argumentation.
136. A valid argument is an argument _________ (a)
whose premises are related (b) whose premises
are the same as the conclusion (c) with true
prospositions only (d) containing false
propositions only (e) whose premises provide
conclusive ground for its conclusion.
137. A fallacy is (a) a good argument (b) sound
argument (c) a type of argument that may seem
correct but which proves, upon examination, not
to be so (d) A and C (e) None of the above.
138. Argument and verecundiam means (a) appeal to
force (b) appeal to pity (c) appeal to wrong
authority (d) irrelevant conclusion (e) appeal to
verification.
139. Punctuation in logic is important because (a) it
makes logic easy to understand (b) it helps to
make logic scientific (c) it helps to avoid
ambiguity and confussion (d) it makes logic
sophisticated (e) all of the above.
140. Coherence, correspondence, and pragmatic
theories are regarded as (a) the Golden theories
of ethics (b) the classical theories of truth (c) the
experimental theories of certainty (d) the
German theories of philosophy (e) none of the
above
141. Philosophy originated from (a) USA (b) Athens
(c) Rome (d) Great Britain (e) none of the above
142. Which is not a period in the history of Western
Philosophy (a) Pre-Socratic period (b) Medieval
period (c) Modern period (d) sophistry period (e)
None of the above.
143. Which of the following explains why there is no
single universally acceptable definition of
philosophy? (a) schools of thought (b) Area
perspective (c) dispute (d) A and B (e) None of
the above
144. Which of the following is not a pattern in the
definition of philosophy? (a) the study of being
(b) the study of cognition (c) the study of all that
exists (d) the study of experience and nature (e)
none of the above.
145. Which is not a theme in Existentialism? (a)
subjectivity (b) existence precedes essence (c)
man and the gods (d) freedom (e) authenticity
146. The first set of people who offered answers to
questions that others would have taken for
granted in a manner akin to that ascribed to
philosophy were _______ (a) the Germans (b) the
Americans (c) the Greeks (d) The Romans (e) The
Africans
147. Which of the following is not a ________ logical
connective (a) conjunction (b) disjunction (c) Bi-
conditional (d) equivalence (e) none of the above
148. Disjunctive syllogism is symbolized as
____________ (a) P v q, ~p, q (b) p>q, p, q (c)
p,q,p,g (d) p,g,p (e) pq, ~q, ~p
149. The law of identify asserts that (a) truth and
false means validity and invalidity (b) a
statement is either true or false (c) no statement
can be both true or false (d) if a statement is
true then it is true (e) none of the above.
150. The statement “all humans are mortal” is an
example of (a) universal affirmative statement (b)
universal negative statement (c) particular
affirmative statement (d) particular negative
statement (e) existential statement
151. The statement “Man is the measure of all things”
as a philosophical dictum is associated with (a)
Rene Descartes (b) Aristotle (c) Berkeley (d)
Protagoras of Abdera (e) None of the above
152. _______________ is the symbol for contradiction
(a) p,p (b) p, ~p (c) p v ~p (d) P q (e) all of the
above
153. The branch of philosophy which studies the
native origin and limit of human knowledge is
known as (a) philosophical (b) metaphysics
154. Meetings of the logical positivists where they
shaped their philosophical position (a) took
place in France (b) took place in London (c) took
place in Germany (d) took place in U.S.A (e) took
place in Vienna, Australia
155. In the nature study or cosmology, Thales
thought that everything in nature was in the
first place. (a) fire (b) air (c) water (d) earth (e) all
of the above.
156. The main branches of philosophy are (a)
metaphysics, theology and ethics (b)
mathematics, epistemology and ethics (c) ethics,
axiology and cosmology (d) metaphysics,
epistemology and skepticism (e) epistemology,
ethics and metaphysics
157. The main teaching of Parmenides is that (a) the
world is eternally the same (b) change in an
illusion (c) in reality nothing changes (d) all of
the above (e) only (b) above is right
158. In the medieval period (a) philosophy became the
tool of theology (b) philosophy moved away from
Greeks to Christian thinkers (c) philosophy was
independent (d) (a) and (b) above (e) none of the
above
159. . Who said Philosophy deals with clarification
and language analysis? (A) PaulFeyerabend (B)
Karl Popper (C) Ludwig Wittgenstein (D) David
Hume
160. Rationalism as opposed to empiricism, is the
Philosophical view that ……… (A) Reason and
universal ideas and categories are the ultimate
source of prior knowledge (B) Sense perception
is the source of human knowledge (C) Reason
plays a complementary role in the attainment of
human knowledge (D) Human knowledge is
sense-based
161. The central idea of the pragmatic tradition of
philosophy is ……… (A) I believe so that I may
understand (B) I believe so that I may reason
well (C) I believe so that I may not reason well
(D) That we should decide the truth of a belief by
its utilitarian value
162. Who said defined ethics as the branch of
philosophy dealing with rightness or wrongness
of human action with moral obligation,
principles of morality and their justification? (A)
T. Hobbes (B) J. Locke (C) Brostein (D) A.
Echekwube
163. Symbolic logic is intended to eliminate one of the
following (A) Argument (B) Principles (C)
Ambiguity (D) Logic
164. Logic is defined as the science of reasoning
because it is interested in one of the following (A)
Psychological concern (B) Rational justification
(C) Metaphysical concern (D) Theological
concern
165. The process through which an argument can be
derived is known as ……… (A) Systematic logic
(B) Proposition (C) Conjunction (D) Inference
166. Do you promise to stop cheating in exams? (A)
Argumentum ad Miscericordiam (B) Accent (C)
Complex Question (D) Bacculum
167. You either buy GST Text Book or you carry over
the courses (A) Argumentum ad Bacculum (B)
Argumentum ad Verecundiam (C) False cause
(D) Converse Accident
168. Formal logic is said to correspond with ……… (A)
Argument (B) deductive (C) Inductive (D)
Informal logic
169. . ……… denote anything that causes an
argument to go wrong (A) Disagreement (b)
fallacy (C) Debate (D) Dispute
170. The soundness of a deductive argument is
determined by its ……… (A) Form (B) Validity (C)
Structure (D) Content
171. An argument with explicative conclusion is
regarded as ……… (A) P. ~ p (B) P É p (C) P º p
(D) P v ~ p
172. The quality of a categorical proposition is
determined by its ……… (A) Copula (B) Subject-
term (C) Predicate (D) none of the above
173. The use of symbolic logic is essentially to
eliminate ……… in arguments (A) Complexity (B)
Particularity (C) Ambiguity (D) None of the above
174. The problems which arise for philosophers in
metaphysics include: (A) Criterion for knowledge
and truth (B) Being, universals and particular
(C) Reasoning and logic (D) Human conduct and
justice
175. In Protagoras’ words, “man is the measure of all
things”, this means ……… (A) Man measures the
length and breaths of thing (B) Man determines
what is true of false (C) Man is the creator of the
universe (D) Man is greedy in nature
176. Pragmatism is the doctrine that the truth of a
belief lies in ……… (A) Its metaphysical value (B)
its practical usefulness (C) Its explanatory value
(D) its theoretical value
177. The branch of philosophy called Epistemology is
the same thing as ……… (A) the study of what is
not (B) The study of students that are out of
school (C) The theory of knowledge (D) Belief or
disjunctions
178. Critical philosophy seeks to do ……… (A)
Induction of concepts in other discipline(s) (B)
Analyses and clarifies the concepts of other
disciplines (C) Conflict the concepts of other
disciplines (D) Fight the concepts of other
discipline
179. One of the prominent philosophers of the
rationalist tradition is? (A) Averroes (B) Thomas
Aquinas (C) Rene Descartes (D) William James
180. One of the major branches of philosophy is
……… (A) Plato (B) Ontology (C) Phenomenology
(D) Pragmatic tradition
181. Philosophy as human discipline grew out of the
Greek culture in the thought of ……… (A) Plato
and Aristotle (B) Pythagoras and Socrates (C) I.
C. Onyewuenyi (D) Rene Descartes and Russel
182. Validity of an argument is dependent on its
……… (A) Soundness (B) Form (C) Content (D)
Figure
183. The proposition that is claimed on the basis of
other propositions is known as ……… (A)
Conclusion (B) Inference (C) Deductive (D) All of
the above
184. An argument that goes beyond the evidence
provided in the premises is termed ……… (A)
Invalid (B) Inductive (C) Structure (D) None of
the above
185. Fallacies of relevance and ambiguity arise only
from ……… (A) Formal logic (B) Deductive
argument (C) Informal logic (D) All of the above
186. Fallacies of ambiguity can be avoided through
……… (A) Logic (B) Argument (C) Definition (D)
Laws of thought
187. Utilitarianism is either act or ……… (A) Gentle
(B) Authorized (C) Rule (D) Hypothetical
188. The word “philosophy” is derived from the Greek
words namely ……… (A) Wisdom and love (B)
Knowledge and Love (C) Philos and Sophia (D)
Sophia and Philos
189. Logic is a ……… to philosophy just as
mathematics is to basic sciences. (A) Branch (B)
Houses (C) Tool (D) None of the above
190. The conscious act of thinking before one speaks
is regarded as ……… (A) Ethical (B) Principle (C)
Geometrical (D) Logical
191. Logic is derived from ……… word. (A) Spanish
(B) Arabic (C) Greek (D) Esan
192. Logic is not interested in ……… (A) Correct
reasoning (B) Deceit (C) Argument (D) All of the
above
193. An argument could be valid yet not sound. (A)
False (B) We were not taught (C) True (D) No
idea
194. Logic is defined as the science of …………. (A)
Psychological interest (B) Metaphysical interest
(C) Rational interest (D) Theological interest
195. The founder of empiricism is (a) John locke (b)
David hume (c) Francis Bacon (d) None of the
above
196. _________ period moved from idealism to
materialism (a) ancient period (b) contemporary
period (c) modern period (d) medieval period (e)
none of the above.
197. _________ is a philosophical position that denies
the possibility of knowledge (a) skepticism (b)
existentialism (c) empiricism (d) rationalism
198. Who considered wisdom to be possession of God
or gods alone (a) Pythagoras (b) Protagoras (c)
Socrates (d) Aristotle (e) St Thomas
199. A lover of wisdom is called (a) philosophy (b)
philosopher (c) philosopha (d) philosopher
200. The Greek poets that offered explanation on the
origin of gods are (a) homor& Socrates (b) Homer
& Hesiod (c) Homer &Hesoid (d) Homer &
Pythagoras.
201. The first to ask for the rational explanation of
reality _______ of Miletus (a) Pythagoras (b)
Protagoras (c) Thales (c) none of the above (e)
Socrates
202. The two philosophers whose answers led to
classification of philosophy are ______ and
________ (a) Plato & Socrates (b) Plato & Aristotle
(c) Aristotle & Socrates (d) Plato & Thales (e)
Thales & Socrates
203. __________period explained through the
intervention of the gods and goddesses
(a)modern period (b)classical period
(c)contemporary period (d)ancient period.
204. Ancient period consist of ________and
_________stage (a) classical and contemporary
(b)classical and modern (c)Socratic and pre
socratic (d) Socratic and classical
205. The first to ask for the rational explanation of
reallitly was (a)thales (b)plato (c)Anaximander (d)
Protagoras
206. ____________were the first exponents of new
intellectual trend about man and society.
(a)rationalist (b) sophist (c) pragmatist
(d)existentialist
207. The first systematic ontology was presented by
________metaphysics (a)Aristotle (b) Plato (c)
Thales (d) Protagoras
208. Theod in which faith precedes is
____________period (a)modern (b)medieval (c)
contemporary (d)ancient
209. The period in which reasons precedes faith
(a)medieval (b) modern (c)ancient (d)
contemporary
210. The man that traced all ideas to experience is
_________(a)john locke (b) st Aquinas (c) duns
scotuseriugena (d) baruch Spinoza
211. The school of thought that was against
rationalism (a) empiricism (b) pragmatism (c)
existentialism (d) none of the above (e) all of the
above
212. ___________believes that experience is the true
source of knowledge (a) pragmatism (b)
rationalism (c) empiricism (d) existentialism
213. ___________ reconciled reason and experience as
a source of knowledge (a)ReneDescartes (b)
Gottfried Leibniz (c) john Locke
(d)ImmanuelKant
214. ______________period moved from idealism too
materialism (a)contemporary (b) modern (c)
ancient (d)medieval
215. The father of existentialism is (a) DavidHume (b)
Francis bacon (c) Fredrick Nietzsche
216. In the 5th century, the doubted that surfaced
the possibility of knowledge is (a)skepticism (b)
rationalism (c) empiricism (d) pragmatism
217. The process of deriving one statement on the
basis of others is (a) argument (b)logic (c)
premise (d)deductive argument
218. The term philosophy was coined by (a)
Protagoras (b)Pythagoras (c)pathagoras (d)
Thales
219. The first philosophers are called (a)milesian (b)
Egyptians (c)sophist (d) rationalist
220. The founder of milesian school of philosophy
(a)Protagoras (b)Pythagoras (c)Thales (d)Plato
221. “The origin or cause of reality was numbers”the
statement can be associated to (a) Protagoras (b)
Rene Descartes (c)Pythagoras (d) none of the
above
222. The philosophers who stood in complete
opposition to the teaching of the sophist are
_________,__________, and_________(a) Socrates,
Thales, Plato (b)Socrates, Plato Aristotle
(b)Thales,Aristotle,Democritus (d) Plato,
Democritus, thales (e)none of the above
223. The philosopher that see philosophy as the
disease of what should be cured are (a)gottlob
frege, Ludwig Wittgenstein,Bertrand Russell
(b)ImmanuelKant, DavidHume, bishop Berkeley
(c)john Locke, ImmanuelKant, gottlob frege(d)
soren kierkegaard,DavidHume, gottlob frege
224. The statement “man is that which he makes of
himself” is made by (a)Soren Kierkegaard (b)
Socrates (c)thales (d)Sartre (e) Plato
225. “all those who say that man evolved from ape
like Darwin will surely burn in hell” the
foregoing is an illustration of what sort of fallacy
(a)ignoratio elenchi (b)false cause (c)hominen
abusive (d) hominen circumstantial (e) none of
the above
226. “iran has better comply with the UN regulations
or it will be completely destroyed” the foregoing
is a goodl illustration of what fallacy?
(a)hominen abusive (b)hominen circumstantial
(c) baculum (d) verecumdiam (e) misericordiam
227. The fallacy argumentum ad populum is
otherwise known as (a)appeal to force (b)appeal
to reason (c)bandwagon effect (d)appeal to pity
(e) none of the above
228. The basic problem of philosophy is (a)physics
(b)chemistry (c)language (d) history (e)
philosophy
229. The fallacy of ignoratio elenchi results into what
kind of situation (a)begging the question
(b)irrelevant conclusion (c)attacking the straw
(d)blackmail (e)appeal to force
230. The essential purpose of logic to human
existence is to (a)provide a plan of action
(b)provide the structure of thinking (c) (a) and (b)
above (d) only (b) above
231. What principle of thought states that a thing is
what it is and no other thing? (a)identity
(b)contradiction (c)excluded middle (d) all of the
above (e) none of the above
232. Symbolically speaking the statement “being is
non being is not” can be represented thus (a)P p
(b)P q (c)Q p (d)A-W (e)none of the above
233. How is the law of contradiction represented
symbolically ? (a) that p,~p cannot be (b) that
p,~p is correct (c) that p,~p is valid (d)that p, ~p
is possible (e) none of the above
234. By the rule of excluded middle of the symbolic
statement p v ~p is (a) true (b)false (c)both true
and false (d) simply contradictory (e)impossible
235. The adoption of the principle of verification as
the criterion of meaningfulness is credited to
(a)existentialists (b) induct visits (c)pragmatists
(d)logical positivists (e)empericists
236. Which of these is a type of knowledge
(a)knowledge apriori (b)knowledge aposteriori (c)
synthetic apriori knowledge (d)all of the above
(e)none of the above
237. Simple statement can be (a)said to consist of a
subject term and a predicate term (b)affirmative
or negative (c)universal or existential (d)all of the
above (e)none of the above
238. Argument as a reasoning process consist of the
(a)inferential procedure (b)inductive procedure
only (c)deductive procedure only (d)deductive
and inductive procedures (e)none of the above
239. Universal are (a) class names (b)universal
concepts (c)general names (d) all of the above (e)
none of the above
240. The central teaching of pragmatism is that an
idea or theory is meaningful if it has (a)cash
value (b)a capacity to solve practical human
problems (c)practical results (d)all of the above
241. What is the subject-matter of logic? (a)symbols
(b)language (c)arguments proposition
(e)inference
242. In determining the subject-matter of logic, we
identify (a)psychology and anthropology
(b)language and arguments (c) reasoning and
sensation (d)thinking and sensation (e)all of the
above
243. Which is the odd one out? (a) (-) (b) (v) (c)(~) (d)
(r)
244. P q, p, q. the above symbolic representation is
known as (a)modus tollens MT (b)modus ponens
MP (c)hypothetical syllogism HS (d)absorption
ABS (e)none of the above
245. Validity is to ________logic what correctness is to
_________logic (a)ambiguity, relevance
(b)induction,deduction (c) deduction,induction
(d)all of the above (e)none of the above
246. The position of the ordinary language
philosophers is that (a)language is a picture of
reality (b)philosophical problems arise out of bad
grammar (c)clarification of the use of concepts
leads to the avoidance of ambiguities and
obscurities and confusion (d)all of the above
247. Some of the radical movement that sprang up in
the contemporary period included
(a)logical,positivism and pragmatism
(b)philosophy of analysis and existentialism
(c)aristotelianism, existentialism and
consciencism (d) only(a) and (b)are correct (e)
none of the above
248. When is an argument said to be
complete?(a)when its formal structure is said to
be valid (b)when its formal structure is said to
be correct (c) when its formal structure is both
valid and correct (d) when its formal structure
coheres with its material content (e)all of the
above
249. All of these are features of argument except one
(a)inference (b)premises (c)conclusion (d)
judgement (e)interrogation
250. The essential problem with the inductive
procedure is the high case of (a)probability
(b)certainty (c)statistic (d)logistic (e)none of the
above
ANSWERS
1.a 2.d 3.c 4c. 5.e. 6.a 7.e 8.c 9.c 10.b 11.b 12.c
13.c 14.c 15.d 16.a 17.e 18.b 19.d 20.B 21.b 22.e
23.d 24.d 25.a 26.e 27.c 28.c 29.c 30.b 31.b 32.b
33.d 34.a 35.a 36.b 37.c 38.c 39.d 40.a 41.a 42.c
43.c 44.c 45.c 46.a 47.e 48.c 49.c 50.b 51.e 52.c
53.d 54.d 55.a 56.c 57.a 58.d 59.a 60.e 61.c 62.d
63.b 64.d 65.b 66.c 67.d 68.b 69.b 70.a 71.a 72.b
73.a 74.c 75.d 76.b 77.e 78.b 79.a 80 a 81.b 82.a
83.a 84.d 85.b 86.d 87.c 88. b 89.c 90.b 91.c 92.c
93.d 94.c 95.b 96.d 97.a 98.c 99.c 100.d 101.b
102.a 103.c 104.b 105.d 106.b 107.b 108.a 109.a
110.c 111.a 112.b 113.c 114.a 115.a 116.c 117.b
118.a 119.c 120.a 121.b 122.a 123.d 124.c 125.c
126.e 127.c 128.c 129.c 130.c 131.a 132.d 133.c
134.e 135.c 136.e 137.e 138.c 139.c 140.c 141.b
142.d 143.d 144.e 145.a 146.c 147.c 148.e 149.d
150.a 151.d 152.c 153.c 154.e 155.c 156.e 157.a
158.d 159.c160.a 161.d 162.c 163.c 164.b 165.d
166.c 167.d 168.b 169.b 170.a 171.d 172.d 173.c
174.b 175b. 176.b 177.c 178.b 179.c 180.b 181.b
182.a 183.a 184.b 185.c 186.c 187.c 188.c 189.a
190.d 191.c 192.b 193.c 194.c 195.c 196.b 197.a
198.a 199.b 200.b201.c 202.b 203.d 204.c 205.a
206.b 207.a 208.b 209.b 210.a 211.a 212.c 213.d
214.a 215.d 216.a 217.b 218.d 219.a 220.c 221.c
222.b 223.a 224.a 225.c 226.d 227a. 228.c 229.b
230.a 231.a 232.e 233.a 234.d 235.d 236.d 237.d
238.c 239.c 240.d 241.c 242e. 243.d 244.d 245.c
246.d 247.a 248.c 249.e 250.a
COMPUTER APPRECIATION AND APPLICATION
GES 101 WORK BOOK ANSWERS
1. a computer is an electronic machine that is capable of
accepting data (as input) processing data and modifying
information (as output) fast, accurately and thus more
efficiently than human beings.
2. Information Technology
3. By the Information Technology Association of America
(ITAA) is the study, design, development, implementation,
support or management of computer-based information
systems particularly software applications and computer
hardware.
4. i. Hardware
ii. software
iii firmware
AL
U CP
U
Centra Output
Input
l Unit unit
Unit
MEMORY
SYSTEM
Primar
y
memor
Secondar
y
y
Memory
6. Data, Information
7. ABACUS
8. Russian ABACUS and Japanese Soroban
9. The ABACUS
10. 1936 - Konrad Zuse (Z1 Computer)
1942 - ABC Computer (John Atanasoff & Clifford Jerry)
1951 – Mavehy UNIVAL Computer (John Presperfckert)
1958 – The integrated Circuit (Jack Killays Robert)
1964 - Computer Mouse and Window (Douglas
Englbert)
1969 - ARPAnet
1970 - Intel 1103 computer memory.
11. Five (5)
12. Type, Size and Purpose
13. Microcomputer, Minicomputer and mainframe
14. CUP-Central Processing Unit
ALU – Arithmetic and Logical Unit
15. Keyboards, Scanners, magnetic tape, floppy Disk Units,
Microphones, Analog-to-digital, converter and card
readers.
16. i. plotters
ii. Printers
iii. Speaker systems
iv. Digital –to-Analog converters
17. Computer Software is the collective term for all programs
which control the activities of computer.
18. translators
Editors
Operating system OS
Utilities
19. i. Fourth Generation OS
ii. Second Generation OS
iii. First Generation OS
iv. Zeroth Generation OS
20. (i) Maintainability (ii) Small size (iii) Non-
deterministic (iv) Sharing
(v) Long – term storage (vi) Efficiency (vii) Reliability
21. Statements, Language to one Written in another
language
22. i. Compliers
ii. Assemblers
iii. Interpreters.
23. Packages which include word processing, Spreadsheet,
DBMS, View data systems and Tailor-made packages
24. i. Artificial intelligence
ii. Low-level language
iii. machine language
iv. high level languages
25. High level
26. Common Business Oriented language
27. Beginners All –purpose symbolic interaction
28. FORmula TRANslation
29. Machine language
30. Low level
31. Special purpose language
32. Data and instruction
33. Three (3)
34. QWERTY
35. i. The function key ii. Alphanumeric key
iii. Alphabet keys.
36. Control key
37. Input unit
38. Twelve (12)
39. Alt Del, Enter
40. Double- click, click drag and drop and right click
41. Touch screen, mouse, joystick and light pen
42
43. i. Start programs and choose options
ii. Move icons
iii. Select menu command
iv. Resize windows
44. Related data
Data
Analy
45. sis
Data Data
Collection Interpretat
ion
Data
Prese
ntati
46. i. Character ii. Records (iii) Database (iv)
Field (v) File
on
47.
Databa
se
File
Record
s
Fields
Charact
er
48. 1. Retrieving new data
2. updating data in the database
3. deleting data from the database
4. Inserting new data to the database
5. It provides quick access to all data in the system
6. It provides easy and expressive user interface\
7. It provides flexibility amongst users interms of
sharing data
49. A primary key is a unique identifier in a relational
database
50. It is a suite of programs (or software) that manages all
access to the database
51. - Software
- Hardware
52. Database administrator is a person or a team incharge of
issues of use of the database while application programmer
is charged with writing application
53. Two (2)
i. Physical view
ii. Logical view
54. It is a total representing or description of all data items
in a database
55. i. Centralization ii. Data integrity iii.
Files integration
iv. Security v. Assurance vi resolution of conflict
56. The DEMS is used to manage information on a logical
level while the file systems is used to manage information
on a physical level
57. (i) Relational model
ii. Network model
iii. Hierarchical models
58. Data capture involves the acquisition of raw information
for use in the computer
59. It is necessary for collecting documents making
measurements to be typed and filing of questionnaire.
60. (i) Manual
(ii) Automated Data Capture
61. Automated Data Capture
62. (i) Voice capture (ii) Data from Digital
Document
63. Document reader are scanners in the form of Optical mark
recognition Optical Character Recognition (OCR) and
Magnetic ink character Recognition (MICR)
64. Barcode are the vertical zebra ______________ marks seen
on most manufacture __________________ while
magnetic strip are used to retina ___________tricks and
users.
65. identification of fingerprints. Voice intonetor, eye retina
living and other biological characteristics
66. Passive use ADC, techniques strictly for input transaction
handling while actor use ANC to generate output by
triggering native computing and information exchange
process.
67. A group of computers and associated equipment which are
connected together so that they can communicate with each
other.
68. Scanner, photocopier, hard disk, fax machine, printer and
processors.
69. Network interface card
70. Twisted pair cable transmission media. Network server,
Network clients and modem
71. i. Wide Area Network
ii. Local Area Network
iii. Metropolitan Area Network
72. LAN is a group of computers within a small area while,
WAN covers a very large area like a country.
73. It refers to the manner in which a network is connected.
74 i. Ring ii. star iii. Bus iv. Mesh
75 enterprise WAN connects the widely separated computer
network of a single organization while global WAN
connect that of several organization.
76. i. Convenience ii. Security iii. File transfer
iv. convenience v. Flexibility mail
77. integrated set of control programs designed to manage
computer resources and maximize the overall operation and
effectiveness.
78. i. sharing hardware among users
ii. facilitating input/output
iii. Scheduling resources among users
iv. recovering from error
v. Preventing users from interfering with one
another.
vi. allowing users to share data among themselves
vii. Implementing the user interface.
79. i.) Device manager (DM)
ii.) Memory manager (MM)
iii) Processor manager (PM)
iv) File manager (FM)
80. Zenth generation operating system: 40s & early 50s
First Generation early 50s
Second Generation Early 70s which supported military
Third Generation; mid 70s with militancy facilities
Fourth Generation; Late 70s and early 80s
Fifth Generation
81. i in been track of process and the status
ii. to allocate the processor to a process
iii. To decide who will have the chance to use the
process.
iv. to reclaim processor when a process
_______________ processor usage.
82. i. storage (ii) input/output devices (iii)
processors (iv) communication devices (v) files
and data
83 (i) Real time system (Time Critical environment)
(ii) Interactive System (Turn around when debugging)
(iii) Batch processing (Processing group of similar)
(iv) Hybrid System (Combination of batch and interactive
system)
84. Internal DOS command are always present in the memory
BREAK DIR RO
CL+ ERASE SET
TIME CLS EXIT
TYPE COPY
PATH
PASTE
85. EXE and com – the program that ―do‖ things
BAT – batch files
RAk – Test file backup copies
DOC - word processing documents
DAT – general date files
TMP – temporary works files
86. Wildcards are used with the DIR command to selectively
display group of file IOS ???. com (specific all file
name beginning with the litter IOS DIR???.
87. Copy all the items in A to disk
B.
88. The UNIX operating system supports multiple uses and
each user can execute multiple programs concurrently, built
in security.
89. It is a graphical user interface (Gut) based OS with a
desktop that has a status bar for selecting different
application program.
90. Windows 95, 98, 2000, NT; ME; CL; XP; Windows vista
and Windows 7
91. i. Ms words (ii) Microsoft Access (iii) MS
Excel (iv) Corel draw (v) Microsoft PowerPoint
(vi) photoshop.
92. Menu bar; status bar; formular bar; sheet bar and tool bar.
93. File the current cell
94. The average of cells B1 to B6
95. control how your presentation moves from one slide to the
next
96. i. Online
ii. Batch
iii. Distribute Processing
iv. Real time
97. Data conversion; Data Entry; Image processing ; form
processing – Processing of Data
98. The internet can be used for getting wide variant of
information while the intranet is limited in information.
99. It is device that forwards data packets along networks.
100. TCP/IP Transfer, Control protocol /internet protocol for
information transfer/travel over the internet.
Browsers: Browsers include internet explorer, firefox,
opera and Netscape navigator
Webserver: they handle the actual web pages.
WWW: World Wide Web; allow users to move easily from
one resources to another.
URL: Uniform Resources Locator; are the method by
which documents or data are addressed in the world wide
web.
IMAP: Internet Message Access Protocol; for accessing e-
mail from your local server.
POP3: Post of File Protrocol3; provides a simple,
standardized way, for users to access mail boxes and
download message to computer.
HTTP: Hypertext Transfer Protocol; used for accessing
mailbox
SMTP: Simple Mail Transfer Protocol used by the Mail
Transfer Agent (MTA) to deliver email to the recipient
mail server.
CGI: Common Gateway Interface; ways in which
interactivity between the user and the page can be
programmed and experienced.
COMPUTER APPRECIATION AND APPLICATION
1. ………….. is not part of the status bar

a. page number
b. line
c. column
d. section
e. drop cap
2. Convert 10610 to base 2

a. 01010112
b. 1101012
c. 1010102
d. 011010102
e. 010110102
3. Hierarchical model, network model and relational model

are all parts of
a. system model
b. network model
c. database model
d. data structure
e. data architecture
4. The Drag and Drop feature can be turn on or off in the

Tools command
a. false
b. true
c. not correct
d. not true
e. none of the above
5. The control buttons on the title bar include all except

a. restore
b. minimise
c. maximise
d. close
6. ----------- provides a list of toggle options

a. list boxes
b. text boxes
c. check boxes
d. option button
e. drop down list
7. The F4 command in DOS will

a. redisplay buffer
b. delete all
c. delete all characters in buffer to the last command
d. redisplay all characters
e. Do nothing
8. The area that first appear on the screen after the system
boots is
a. wallpaper
b. screen saver
c. background
d. desktop
e. windows OS
9. Convert 111101012 to base 8

a. 1748
b. 7128
c. 7218
d. 2718
e. 1728
10. The formula for subtraction in Excel is

a. no minus in excel
b. =A4-B4
c. =SUBTRACT(A4:B4)
d. =(A4-B4)SUBTRACT
11. The splitting of text to fit in a cell is called

a. word wrap
b. insertion point
c. text wrap
d. name boxing
e. auto fill
12. The command VOL in command prompt is

a. increase the system volume
b. display a disk volume label and serial number
c. display the disk volume level
d. display all files in the volume
e. display nothing
13. Pick the odd one out

a. drawing toolbar
b. status bar
c. formula bar
d. formatting toolbar
e. standard tool e. none of the above
14. Advantage of electronic data processing is

a. faster processing speed
b. automatic data processing as it enter the system
c. accurate data output
d. timely availability of result
e. All of the above
15. Games, web browsers and application programs are

written in
a. low level language
b. high level language
c. computer software translators
d. binary codes
e. Computer compilers.
16. A machine language is in 0 and 1

a. true
b. false
c. ASCII language
d. all of the above
17. Which is not part of a standard keyboard

a. numeric keys
b. alphanumeric keys
c. text keys
d. function keys
18. Deleting the original item does not automatically delete

the shortcut
a. true
b. false
c. not true
d. probably
19. The data capture technique best suitable for examinations

and questionnaires is
a. optical character recognition
b. magnetic character recognition
c. mark sensing device
d. Kimball tags
e. magnetic tags.
20. The processing of data by consisting of a keyboard
actuated by a machine operator is called
a. electronic data processing
b. manual data processing
c. human data processing
d. machine data processing
e. mechanical data processing
21. file handler, formatter, and sort/list utility are all examples
of
a. translators
b. applications
c. OS
d. utilities
e. computer tools
22. Classification of computers by types includes

a. microcomputer and minicomputer
b. digital and analog computer
c. special and general computer
d. mainframe and super computer
e. wearable and special computers
23. --------------- is not a feature of an operating system
a. sharing
b. long term storage
c. efficiency
d. redundancy
e. reliability
24. The keyboard command to close a window is

a. CTRL + X
b. CTRL + W
c. CTRL + Y
d. CTRL + SHIFT + DELETE
e. CTRL + END
25. The move through a cell is achieved through

a. use of the arrow keys
b. selecting with the mouse
c. use of the tab key
d. a, b and c are correct
26. The formula bar in excel display

a. the content of an active cell
b. the formula in a cell
c. the name of the active cell
d. a and b is correct
e. a, b, c is correct
27. A temporary storage area in computer memory is called
a. RAM
b. ROM
c. primary memory
d. secondary storage
e. buffer
28. To add cell A2 & A4 use ……
a. =Sum (A1:A3)
b. Sum (A2:A4)
c. =SUM(A2;A4)
d. =A1:A3
e. None of the above
29. The command dir t*.* will

a. display s*.* is not an internal or external command
b. display an error message
c. display all dir and files that starts with letter t
d. display t*.* is a file
e. display t*.* does not exist
30. The cls command in DOS

a. shutdown the computer
b. shutdown the system
c. display all directory with cls name
d. restart the program
e. clear the screen
31. The roller on a PS2 mouse enables the user to

a. scroll up and down
b. saves 35% of the time spent scrolling a document
c. zoom in and out a graphic application
d. a, b and c is correct
e. only b and c is correct
32. Triple click on a mouse selects

a. a text
b. a line or paragraph
c. a word
d. all
e. a letter
33. To expand the length of a column
a. move the mouse pointer to the line between the
columns, left click holding down and drag to either left
or right directions
b. move the mouse pointer to the line between the rows,
left click holding down and drag to either left or right
directions
c. move the mouse pointer away from the line between
the columns, left click holding down and drag to either left
or right directions
d. move the mouse pointer to the line away from
columns, left click holding down and drag to either left or
right directions
e. none of the above.
34. Word processor, spreadsheet, view date system, database

management system and spss are examples of
a. application software
b. computer system software
c. system program
d. computer os software
e. application and system software
35. The command DISKCOPY A:B will

a. copy the content of A to B
b. copy the content of drive A to a specified drive
c. copy the content of a and await the next instruction
d. copy the content in all drives
e. just copy
36. ………….. is an internal DOS commands except
a. dir
b. time
c. tree
d. all of the above except e
e. only a and b is correct
37. Primary memory will usually contain

a. the program currently executed and data needed by
the program
b. a faster access time
c. a smaller size
d. a, b, c is correct
e. only a and b is correct.
38. Which of these is not a type of printer

a. dot matrix printer
b. digital printer
c. ink jet printer
d. laser printer
e. colour ink printer
39. A device that checks whether a box has been ticked or

selected is called
a. magnetic character device
b. mark sensing device
c. optical character device
d. credit card
e. Kimball tag
40. What specifies the internet address of a file stored on a

host computer connected to the internet
a. uniform resource locator
b. .com
c. .Gov
d. address bar
e. net access locator
41. The function of the F5 key

a. redisplay buffer
b. delete all characters
c. stores the current line for editing
d. delete entire lines
e. edit entire line for formatting
42. The use of unique bar and spaces in data capture is found
in
a. MICR code
b. OCR code
c. BAR CODE
d. CREDIT CARD CODE
e. ATM CODE
43. The intersection between a column and a row is called

a. midpoint
b. centre point
c. cell
d. area
e. excel spread sheet
44. Ctrl +shift + A will …………

a. continue Execution complete
b. slow the execution
c. stop execution completely
d. paused execution for a while
e. format letters as all capital
45. The program which enable access to the content of a computer

displaying files and folders is
a. all programs
b. window explorer
c. file navigator
d. internet explorer
e. start button
45. In MS word 2003 pagination and formatting can be

automatically done
a. false
b. not true
c. a and b is correct
d. all of the above
e. True
46. To access the world wide web, a computer system needs

to have
a. internet surfing ability
b. internet protocol name
c. a web browser
d. an isp connector
e. internet locator
47. The bar that provides short cut for menu and frequently
used command is
a. standard tool bar
b. menu bar
c. formatting tool bar
d. formula bar
e. status bar
48. The bars that allows the screen to move left, right, top and
bottom are
a. vertical and alignment bar
b. alignment and movement bar
c. movement and vertical bar
d. horizontal and movement bar
e. vertical and horizontal bar
49. The primary steps in data processing are all except

a. information output
b. information input
c. processing of data
d. data storage
e. all except d
50. Optic coaxial cable is to local area network as micro wave

is to
a. LAN
b. WAN
c. GAN
d. large area NETWORK
e. wide aperture network
51. The use of very large-scale integrated circuits is common

in
a. fourth generation computers
b. third generation computers
c. second generation computers
d. first generation computers
e. fifth generation
52. the main purpose of storing data is for

a. creating a database
b. processing
c. data usage
d. none of the above
e. all of the above
53. Which of these is not a common use of the internet?

a. file shearing
b. voice telephony
c. electronic fund transfer
d. electronic mail e
e. manual filing
54. The first page a user logged on to is called

a. welcome page
b. web site
c. internet page
d. home page
e. web page
55. The total number of columns in Microsoft office excel

2003 is
a. 18834
b. 18845
c. 168435
d. 164853
56. The work area in Microsoft word is known as

a. document area
b. work space
c. document space
d. space area
57. The maximum number of worksheets in a workbook is
a. 257
b. 256
c. 266
d. 265
e. 267
58. Common domain names include
a. .com
b. .edu
c. .gov
d. .org
e. all of the above
59. The right button on the mouse is use to

a. execute a command
b. call for options
c. open an application
d. format a document
e. all of the above
60. Chats are used to view data in Microsoft office excel

a. false
b. true
c. not true
d. all of the above
61. The fill handle is used to generate a formula sequence to

adjacent cells
a. true
b. false
c. all of the above
62. The auto texting feature of Microsoft word helps in

automatic insertion of images
a. true
b. false
c. not of the above
d. all of the above
63. Procedure oriented languages is common to
a. high level language
b. low level language
c. foreign language
d. list logic processing language
e. all of the above
64. Which of these is not a data element of a database

a. field
b. file
c. records
d. character
e. directory
65. Database architecture can be viewed in respect to

organization of data
a. not true
b. not entirely true
c. true
d. false
66. Commercial facilities of WAN include

a. e-governance
b. view data
c. e-banking
d. e-solutions
e. e-travel
67. CTRL+ALT+DELETE will perform what action

a. shutdown the system
b. calls up the task manager
c. restart the system

d. b and c are correct
e. all of the above
68. FTP is an acronym for

a. file translate process
b. file transfer process
c. file transfer protocol
d. file translate protocol
e. file transfer partition
69. -------- is not a file extension name

a. .cdr
b. .doc
c. .ppt
d. .bas
70. The EXIT command in DOS command prompt will

a. display all dir folders
b. shut down the computer
c. quit the CMD.EXE program
d. all of the above
e. C and D are correct.
71. The movement of the cursor to the next line as it gets to

the end of the margin in the document area is called
a. cursor movement
b. word wrap
c. text wrap
d. enter new line
e. neither A, B, C nor D
72. The following are internal or external operable command

in DOS except

a. DEL, COPY, PRINT
b. VERIFY, FORMAT, SHUTDOWN
c. CONVERT, RMDIR, REPLACE
d. COPY, EDIT, PASTE
e. CLS, DIR, ECHO
73. Multiple windows that are opened are indicated on the

a. menu bar
b. standard tools bar
c. notification bar
d. task pane
e. task bar
74. A list of logically arranged commands is displayed as

a. menu bar
b. tools bar
c. command bar
d. standard tools bar
A file in Microsoft office excel is saved as a

a. spreadsheet
b. excel file doc.
c. workbook
d. spread sheet book
e. all of the above
75. The keyboard command to find a text in a document is

a. ctrl + A
b. ctrl + F
c. ctrl + G
d. ctrl + H
e. ctrl + V

76. The screen of Microsoft word is made up of the following
except ……………
a. Title bar
b. Menu bar
c. Standard toolbar
d. Formatting toolbar
e. page setup bar
77. The movement of full or part of document from one place

to another leaving the original copy is called ……………
a. Cutting
b. Copying
c. Pasting
d. Editing
e. All of the above.
78. The function of the shift + F2 key is

a. do nothing
b. copy text
c. edit page
d. paste all
79. The keyboard key that deletes all the characters in a buffer
up to the last character is
a. F4
b. F2
c. F6
d. F8
e. F12
80.
81. A temporary storage area in computer memory is called
a. RAM
b. ROM
c. primary memory

d. buffer
e. butter
82. The maximum number of sheets in a workbook is

a. 256
b. 255
c. 265
d. 266
e. 258
83. To add cell A2 & A4 use ……

a. =Sum (A1:A3)
b. Sum (A2:A4)
c. =A1:A3
d. None of the above
e. =SUM(A2;A4)
84. Excel is an electronic spread sheet to calculate, analyze

and view date
a. very true
b. not all through
c. not absolutely true
d. very wrong
e. false
85. Moving between cells is achieved through

a. press the tab key on the keyboard
b. use the mouse to select the next cell
c. use of any of the four arrows keys
e. all of the above except d
86. The formula =MAX(c2,d3,f5,g5) will

a. do nothing
b. find the sum of the cells

c. find the maximum of the cells
d. find the mean of the cells
87. The Fill Handle is to

a. fill data into a row or column
b. generate the sequence data in a row or column
d. only a is correct
e. only b is correct
87. Font, font style, double strike through, emboss, subscript

and all cap are all check boxes in
a. edit
b. view
c. file
d. menu
e. format
88. The file with the following extensions .DOC, .VBP, .XLS
and. FOR are
a. word document, visual processor, excel, Fortran
b. word document, visual basic program, excel and
Fortran
c. word document, visual basic package, excel and
Fortran
d. all of the above e. none of the above
89. Ctrl + U will perform what function on a selected text

a. select all
b. underline
c. paste d. cut

90. The command dir s*.* will
a. display s*.* is not an internal or external command
b. display an error message
c. display all dir and files that starts with letter s
d. display s*.* is a file
e. display s*.* does not exist
91. The cls command in DOS

a. shutdown the computer
b. shutdown the system
c. display all directory with cls name
d. restart the program
e. clear the screen
92. Formatting in Microsoft excel and Microsoft word is the

same method
a. true
b. not true
c. false
d. b and c are correct
e. very false
93. The formula bar in excel displays

a. the data in an active cell
b. the cell that is selected
d. only a is correct
e. only b is correct
94. Ctrl + Z command will perform what function

a. select all
b. copy all
c. Undo the last command
d. display all zip files
e. show zip folder

95. Icons are
a. short cuts to programs in the computer
b. picture commands
c. picture short cut of Microsoft package in a DOS
command
d. pictorial representations of programs, applications and
commands
e. only d and a are correct
96. The roller on a PS2 mouse enables the user to

a. scroll up and down
b. saves 35% of the time spent scrolling a document
c. zoom in and out a graphic application
d. a, b and c is correct
e. only b and c is correct
97. Triple click on a mouse selects

a. a text
b. a line or paragraph
c. a word
d. all
e. a letter
98. To expand the length of a column

a. move the mouse pointer to the line between the
right directions
b. move the mouse pointer to the line between the rows,
directions
c. move the mouse pointer away from the line between
the columns, left click holding down and drag to either left
or right directions

d. move the mouse pointer to the line away from
right directions
e. none of the above.

UNIVERSITY OF PORT HARCOURT
DEPARTMENT OF COMPUTER SCIENCE
GES 101.1: COMPUTER APPRECIATION AND
APPLICATION
NSTRUCTION: ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS
PAPER 1:
1. ______ is not part of the status bar (a) page number (b) line
(C) column (d) section (e) drop cap.
2. Convert 10610 to base 2 (a) 0101011 2 (b) 1101012 (c)
1010102 (c) 011010102 (e) 010110102.
3. Hierarchical model, network model and relational model
are all parts of ____ (a) system model (b) network model
(c) database model (d) data structure (e) data
architecture.
4. The drag and drop feature can be turn on or off in the tools
command (a) false (b) true (c) not correct (d) not true
(e) none of the above.
5. The control buttons on the title bar include all except (a)
restore (b) minimize (C) maximize (d) close (e) none of
the above.
6. _________ provides a list of toggle options (a) list boxes
(b) test boxes (c) check boxes (d) option button (e) drop
down list.
7. The F4 command in DOS will (a) redisplay buffer (b)
delete all (c) delete all characters in buffer to the last
command (d) do nothing (e) prompt for next command.
8. The area that first appear on the screen after the system
boots is __________(a) wallpaper (b) screen saver (c)
background (d) desktop (e) windows
9. Convert 1111010112 to base 8 (a) 174 8 (b) 7128 (c) 7218
(d) 2718 (e) 1728
10. The formula for subtraction in Excel is (a) no minus in
excel (b) A4 -B4 (c) = subtract (A4:B4) (d) = (A4-B4)
subtract (e) none of the above.

11. The splitting of text to fit in a cell is called (a)V word wrap
(b) insertion point (c) text wrap (d) name boxing (e) auto
fill.
12. The command VOL in command prompt is (a) increase the
system volume (b) display a disk volume label and serial
number (c) display the disk volume level (d) display all
files in the volume (e) display nothing.
13. Pick the odd one out (a) drawing toolbar (b) status bar (c)
formula bar (d) formatting bar
(e) standard tool (I) none of the above.
14. Advantages of electronic data processing is _______ (a)
faster, processing speed (b) automatic data processing as it
enters the system (c) accurate data output (d) timely
availability of result (e) all of the above.
15. Games, web browsers and application programs are written
in (a) low level language (b) high level language (c)
computer software translators (d) binary codes (e)
computer.
16. A machine language i in 0 and 1 (a) true (b) false (c)
ASCII language (d) all of the above (e) none of the above.
17. Which is not part of a standard keyboard (a) numeric keys
(b) alphanumeric keys (c) text keys (d) function keys (e)
none of the above.
18. Deleting the original item does not automatically delete the
shortcut (a) true (b) false (c) not true (d) probably (e) none
of the above.
19. The data capture technique best suitable for examinations
and questionnaires is V (a) optical character recognition (b)
magnetic character recognition (c) mark sensing device
(d) Kimball tags (e) magnetic tags.
20. The processing of data by consisting of a keyboard
actuated by a machine operator is called (a) electronic data
processing (b) manual data processing (c) human data
processing (d) machine data processing (e) mechanical
data processing.
21. Classification of computers by type include_______ (a)
microcomputer and minicomputer (b) digital and analog

computer (c) special and general computer (d) mainframe
and super computer (e) wearable and special computers.
22. File handler, formatter and sort/list utility are all examples
of ____________ (a) translators (b) applications (c) OS (d)
utilities (e) computer tools.
23. _________ is not a feature of an operating system (a)
sharing (b) long term storage (c) efficiency (d)
redundancy (e) reliability
24. The keyboard command to close a window is (a) CTRL
+ X (b) CTRL + W (c) CTRL ± SHIFT + DELETE (d)
CTRL + END. 46.
25. The move through a cell is achieved (a) use of the arrow
keys (b) selecting with the mouse (c) use of the tab key (d)
a, b and c are correct. (e) None of the above.
26. The formula bar in excel displays (a) the data in an active
cell (b). the formula in a cell (c) the name of the active cell
(d) a and b is correct (e) a, b, c are correct.
27. A temporary storage area in a computer is called
_________ (a) RAM (b) ROM (c) Primary memory (d)
secondary storage (e) buffer.
28. To add cell A2 & A4 use_____ (a) = sum (A1:A3) (b) =
sum (A2,A4) (c) = Ai:A3 (d) none of the above (e) all of
the above.
29. The command dirt will display _______ (a) display is not
an internal or external command (b) display an error
message (c) display all dir and files that starts with
letter (d) display t* * is a file (e) display t*.*does not
exist.
30. The CLS command in dos will perform what Function (a)
shutdown the computer (b) shutdown the system (c) display
all directory with cls name (d) restart the program (e)
clear the screen.
31. The roller on a PS2 mouse enables the user to (a) scroll up
and down (b) saves 35% of the time spent scrolling a
document (c) zoom in and out a graphic presentation (d) a,
b and c is correct (e) only b and c is correct.

32. Triple click on a mouse selects (a) a text (b) a line or
paragraph (c) a word (d) all (e) a letter.
33. To expand the length of a column (a) move the mouse.
pointer to the line between the columns, left click
holding down ‘and drag to other left or right directions
(b) move the mouse pointer to the line between the rows,
left click and drag to either left or right directions (c) move
the mouse pointer away from the line between the columns,
directions (d) move the mouse pointer to the line away
from columns, left click holding and drag to either left or
right directions (e) none of the above.
34. Word processor, spreadsheet, view date system, database
management system and sps, are examples ________ (a)
application software (b) computer system software (c)
system program (d) computer operating system software
(e) application and system software.
35. The command DISCOPY A:B will (a) copy the content of
A to B (b) copy the content of drive A to a specific drive
(C) copy the content of a and await the next instruction (d)
copy the content in all drives (e) just copy.
36. ______ is an internal DOS command except (a) dir (b)
time (c) tree (d) all of the above except e (e) only a and b
is correct.
37. Primary memory will usually contain ____ (a) the program
currently executed and data needed by the program (b) a
faster access time (c) a smaller size (d) a,b,c is correct (e)
only a and b is correct.
38. Which of these is not a type of printer (a) dot matrix printer
(b) digital printer (c) inkjet printer (d) laser printer (e)
colour ink printer. .
39. A device that checks whether a box has been ticked or
selected is called _______ (a) magnetic character device
(b) mark sensing device (c) optical character device (d)
credit card (e) Kimball lag.
40. What specifies the internet address of a file stored on a host
computer connected to the internet (a) uniform resource

locator (b) .Com (c) .Gov (d) address bar (e) not access
locator.
41. The function of the F5 key is (a) to display buffer (b)
delete all characters (c)
stores the current line for editing (d) delete entire
lines (e) edit entire line for
formatting.
42. The use of unique bar pnd spaces in data capture is Found
in (a) MICR code (b) OCR code (c) BAR code (d) Credit
card code (e) ATM code.
43. The intersection between a column and a row is called (a)
midpoint (b) centre point (c) cell (d) area (e) excel spread
sheet.
44. Ctrl + Shift + A will________ (a) continue execution
complete (b) slow the execution (c) stop execution
completely (d) pause execution for a while (e) format
letters as a capital letters.
45. The program which enables access to the content of a
computer displaying files and folders is _______(a) all
programs (b) window explorer (c) file navigator (d)
Internet explorer (e) start button.
46. In MS Word 2003 pagination and formatting can be
automatically done (a) false (b) not true (c) a and b is
correct (d) all of the above (e) true.
47. To access the World Wide Web, a computer system needs
to have __________ (a) Internet surfing ability (b) Internet
protocol name (c) web browser (d) an ISP connector (e)
Internet locator.
48. The bar that provides shortcut for menu and frequently
used command is — (a) standard tool bar (b) menu bar
(c) formatting tool bar (d) formula bar (e) status bar.
49. The bar that allows the screen to move left, right, top and
bottom are (a) vertical and alignment bar (b) alignment and
movement bar (c) movement and vertical bar (d) horizontal
and movement bar (e) vertical and horizontal bar.

50. The primary steps in data processing are all excepts (a)
information output (b)information input (c) processing of
data (d) data storage (e) all except d
51. Optic coaxial cable is to local area network as micro wave
is to (a) LAN (b) WAN (c) MAN (D) Large Area
NETWORK (e) Wide aperture network.
52. The use 61 very large scale integrated circuits is common
in (a) fourth generation computers (b) third generation
computers (c) data usage (d) none of the above (e) all of
the above.
53. The main purpose of storing data is for (a) creating a
database (b) processing (c) data usage (d) none of the
above (e) all of the above.
54. Which of these is not a common use of the interest? (a)
file shearing (b) voice telephony (c) electronic fund transfer
(ci) electronic mail (e) manual filing.
55. The first page a user logged on to is called (a) welcome
page (b) web site (C) Internet page (d) home page (e) web
page.
56. The total number of columns in Microsoft office excel
2003 is (a) 18834 (b) 18845 (c) 168435 (d) 164853 (e)
none of the above.
57. The work area in Microsoft word is known as (a)
document area (b) work space (c) document space (d)
space area (e) none of the above.
58. The Maximum number of worksheet in a boob is (a)
257 (b) 256 (c) 266 (d) 265 (e) 267.
59. Common domain names include (a) .com (b) edu. (c)
gov. (e) .all of the above.
60. The right button on the mouse is used to (a) execute a
command (b) call for option (c) open an application (d)
format a document (e) all of the above.
61. Chats are use to view data in Microsoft office excel (a)
false (b) true (c)not true (d) all of the above (e) none of the
above.

62. The fill handle is used to generate a formula sequence to
adjacent cell (a) true (b) false (C) all of the above (d) none
of the above.
63. The auto texting feature of Microsoft word helps in
automatic insertion of images (a) true (b) false (c) none of
the above (d) all of the above.
64. Procedure oriented languages is common to (a) high level
language (b) low level language (c) foreign language (d)
list logic processing language (e) all of the above.
65. Which of these is not a data element of a database (a) field
(b) file (c) records (d)character (e) directory.
66. Database architecture can be viewed in respect to
organization to data (a) not true (b) not entirely true (c)
true (d) false (e) none of the above.
67. Commercial facilities of WAN include (a) e-governance
(b) view data (c) e-banking (d) c-solutions (e) e-travel.
68. CTRL + ALTERNATE + DELETE will perform what
action (a) shutdown the system (b) calls up the task
manager (c) restart the system (d) b and C is correct (d) all
of the above.
69. FTP is an acronym for (a) file translate process (b)
filed transfer process (c) file transfer protocol (d) file
translate protocol (e) file transfer partition.
70. _________ is not a file extension name (a) .cdr (b) .doc (c)
.ppt (d) .bas (e) none of the above.
71. The advantage of computer to manual processing is
accuracy, speed and durability (a) false (b) not true (c) true
(d) none of the above (e) partially true.
72. The function key F11 is used to (a) edit a document
(b) graph drawing (c) formatting a text (d) text wrapping
(e) word wrapping.
73 A button that only allows one option from severed options
is called_______ (b) lit box (c) radio button (d) option
button (e) none of the above.
74. The movement of the insertion point to the next line as one
type to the end of the line is called (a) moving (b) text wrap
(c) word wrap (d) alignment (e) none of the above.

75. The use of unique bar and spaces in data capture is found in
(a) MICR code (b) OCR code (c) BAR code (d) Credit
card code (e) ATM code
76. Chart tips can ______ (a) show the formatting of a data
label (b) show the name of a data series (c) show the value
of data point (d) b and c (e) a and c.
77. When you print preview a worksheet (a) the entire
worksheet is displayed (b) the selected range is displayed
(c) active portion of the worksheet is displayed (d) a, b and
c (e) none of the above.
78. Ctrl + N will (a) insert a new blank document (b) insert
a new file (c) insert a new image (d) insert music (e) new
video.
79. The command that shows a listing of all the Directories of
a Disk is (a) TREE (b) DIR (c) GLS (d) LIST Ce) VER.
80. To copy DOS file requires the use of (a) COPY command
(b) EDIT command (c) FORMAT command (d) DELETE
command.
81. Which command is used to rename a file in. DOS
command prompt (a) RENAME (b) CHANGE NAME (C)
REN (D) EDIT (E) RENAME FILE.
82. A character that is raised and smaller above the base of a
text is known as _____ (a) outlined (b) raised (c)
superscript (d) subscript (e) exponential.
83. A word processor would most likely be used to do (a) keep
an account of money spent (b) do a computer search media
Centre (c) maintain an inventory (d) type a document (e)
edit audio.
84. The Ctrl + Home key will perform what task (a) nothing
(b) move to the beginning of a document (c) move to the
end of the document (d) move to the next line.
85. Mechanical method, manual method and electronic data
processing are all (a) data manipulation control (b) data
processing methods (c) data sorting antics (d) data
processing algorithm (e) none of the above.

86. What is the pictorial background of the desktop
environment called (a) pictorial (b) image (c) icon (d)
wallpaper (e) shop shot.
87. Which of these is not a common use of the internet (a) data
sharing (b) voice telephony (c) electronic fund transfer (d)
electronic mail (e) manual filing?
88. Programs designed to perform specific tasks is known as
(a) system software (b) application software (c) utility
programs (d) operating system (e) all of the above.
89. Which is not a component of operating system (a) memory
manager (b) processor manager (c) device manager (d) file
manager (e) none of the above.
90. A machine language is in 0 and 1 (a) true (b) false (c)
ASCH language (d) all of the above (e) none of the above.
91. Which of these will change the colour appearance of a
window (a) screen saver (b) theme (c) wallpaper (d)
desktop.
92. The command DIR??? Will (a) give a listing of file names
up to three characters lung (b) display all directories with
???extension (c) display all file names starting with? (d) do
nothing.
93. How many ways can you save a document? (a) 3 (b) 4
(c) 5 (d) 6 (e) 2.
94. The formula for multiplication is (a) MULTIPLY (A2:A4)
(b) = MULTIPLY (84:B6) -(c) C4*H5 (d) D4*2 (e)
MULTIPLY (A3:C4).
95. The command to maximize a document window is (a) ctrl
+B (b) ctrl + F1O (C) ctrl -t- F8 (d) ctrl + shift + b (e) alt
ctrl.
96. Frequently used commands are displayed as icons on the
(a) menu bar (b) standard tool bar (c) status bar (d)
format bar (e) drawing tool bar.
97. The system unit of a personal computer typically contains
all of the following except (a) microprocessor (b) disk
controller (c) keyboard (d) modem (e) serial interface.

98. The software program that manage all access to a database
is called (a) DBMS (b) software (c) database manager (d)
none of the above (e) all o the above.
99. The intersection between a column and a row is
called (a) midpoint (b) centre
point (C) cell (d) area (e) excel spread sheet.
100. Which is not an arithmetic operator in Microsoft Excel (a)
addition (b) subtraction (c) multiplication (d) division (e)
none of the above.

GES 101.1: COMPUTER APPRECIATION AND
APPLICATION
INSTRUCTION: ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS PAPER 1:
1. The network topology in which no central wiring is
required is called (a) Bus (b) Ring (c) Mesh (d) Star (e)
none of the above.
2. Which of the following networks topology is easier to
troubleshoot _________ (a) LAN (b) WAN (c) MAN (d)
Star (e) Ring.
3. The set of rules and procedures governing the transmission
between two, points in a network is called ______
(a)internet (b) internet card (c) protocol (d) topology (e)
none of the above.
4. _________ is used to connect dissimilar network (a)
Router (b) Hub (c) Switch (d) gateways (e) B- game.
5. The following are the uses of internet except ________(a)
E-mail (b) E-book (c) Money (d) E- service (e) B – game.
6. A method of processing information in which transactions
are accumulated and stored until a specific time is called
(a) late processing (b) online processing (c) batch
processing (d) immediate processing.
7. Data processing method include the following except (a)
ordination (b) input (c) process (d) data capture (e)
storage.
8. When 4bits are combined, it is called ___________(a) byte
(b) word (c) nibble (d) character (e) none of the above.
9. A terabyte is equal to _______ (a) times gigabyte (b)
megabyte (c) 1,024 gigabytes.
10. The batch processing and online processing fall under
_____ (a) Electronic method (b) manual method (c)
mechanical method (d) all of the above (d) none of the
above.
11. The DOS command tine is also called the _____ (a)
window (b) Internet command (c) command prompt (d) B
& C (e) none of the above.

12. The command used to copy files and directing trees is
called ______ (a) V copy (b) copy (c) Copy con (d) none
of the above.
13. Files deleted from flash goes into the ____(a) Recycle bin
(b) my document (c) my computer (d) A & B (e) none of
the above.
14. _______ Every time a window is opened, a button
representing it appears on the (a) start button (b) task bar
(c) title bar (d) desktop (a) all of the above
15. The task bar contains start button and _____ area (a) Blue
(b) Notification (C) Black (d) white (e) all of the above.
16. To view properties for the selected item, the following
combinations of keys are used (a) Ctrl + z (b) Alt + Enter
(c) F8+ A (d) none of the above.
17. A step by step method that is used to solved a problem is
called __________ (a) algorithm (b) flowchart (c)
program (d) software (e) all
18. Assembly language is _________ language (a) 1 st
generation (b) 2nd generation (c) 3rd generation (d) 4th
generation (e) all of the above.
19. Instructions in first generation language are given using
_____ (a) Mnemonics (b) binary numbers (c) natural
expressions (d) a & b (e) none of the above.
20. Ability of the operating system to perform several tasks
parallel is called ____ (a) concurrence (b) multitasking (c)
mono programming (d) none of the above (e) all of the
above.
21. The temporary storage in the computer’s memory is called
______ (a) Cache (b) primary memory (c) buffer (d) flash
(e) all.
22. To display the entire buffer key is used_____(a) Fl (b)
P2 (c) F3 (d) F4 (e) P6.
23. To store the current line for further editing _________ key
is used (a) Fl (b) F2 (c) F8 (d) F2 (e) F3.
24. All are examples of internal DOS commands
except________ (a) TYPE (b) VOL (c) DIR (d) COPY (e)
all of the above (f) none of the above.

25. The extension name for general data files is (a) BAT (b)
DCC (c) DAT (d) GDF (e)none of the above.
26. In a dialogue box _____ provides a list of toggle options
(a) Drop-down lists boxes (b) check boxes (c) option
button (d) A&B (e) none.
27. Every location in the computer memory has___________
(a) Unique address (b) general address (c) primary address
(d) secondary address (e) no address.
28. The following are parts of window except (a) menu bar
(b)tool bar (C) scroll bar (d) recycle bin (e) all of the
above.
29. The movement of full or part of document from one space
to another leaving the original copy is called (a) cutting (b)
copying (c) pasting (d) editing (e) all of the above.
30. The screen of Microsoft word is made up of the following
except (a) title bar (b) menu bar (c) standard toolbar (d)
formatting toolbar (e) icon.
31. The keyboard shortcut for replace is _____(a) Ctrl + F (b)
Ctrl + G (c) Ctrl + H (d) all of the above (e) none of the
above.
32. Groups of cells are called _____ (a) formula addresses (b)
range (c) excel (d) A & B (e) none of the above.
33. To add cell A1 & A3 use ________ (a) = sum (A1 A3)
(b) = sum ( A + A3) (c) = A1 A3 (d) none of the above
(e) all of the above.
34. The smallest unit of a database is called _____________
(a) character (b) field (c) records DBMS (e) none of the
above.
35. The way data is stored in a database is
called_____________ (a) Logical view (b) physical (c)
schema. (d) subschema (e) none.
36. The first generation computers were generally very (a)
good (b) unreliable (c) reliable (d) understandable (e)
none.
37. The corning of translators was witnesses by______ (a) 1 st
generation computer (b) 2nd generation computers (c) 3rd

generation computers (d) all of the above (e) none of the
above.
38 An integrated package comprising of several programs is
called (a) Microsoft word (b) windows (c) Icon (d) DOS
(e) none.
39. The first and introductory screen of windows is called
the_____ (a) wall paper (b) screensaver (c) desktop (d)
mouse (e) all.
40 To prompt to cell address to be jumped to in Excel,
press______ (a) Fl (b) F2 (c) F4 (d) F6 (e) none of the
above.
41. To display menu of range name press _____ (a) Fl (b) F2
Cc) F4 (d) F6 (e) F3.
42. The arrangement of data in the computer memory is called
_______ (a) data processing (b) data capture (c) data
integrity (d) data structure (e) none of the above.
43. Which of the following is true about data (a) data are
processed facts (b) data are information (c) data are
unprocessed (d) information processed to give data (e)
none of the above.
44. The database offers the following capabilities except
______ (a) inserting data (b) retrieving data (c) updating
data (d) overwriting data (e) deleting data.
45. An operating system is also called ____________ (a)
Directory. (b) Processor (c) Supervisor (d) File (e) none of
the above.
46. One of these is not a first-generation computer (a) ENIAC
(b) ABC (c) IBM 300 (d) UNIVAC (e) Mark I.
47. One of the following is not necessary in LAN (a) Modem
(b) Adapter card (c) cable (d) 45 (e) Hub.
48. A secondary memory with storage of 10.2MB is equivalent
to how many characters (a) 102000 (b) 1020000000
(c)102000000 (d) 11200000 (e) 10200000.
49. Which of the following operating system is suitable for
networking (a) Windows 31 (b) Windows 95 (c) Windows
NT (d) Windows 2000 (e) Disk Operating System.

50. The following are examples of database management
systems except (a) oracle (b) MS Excel (c) super base 2 (d)
MS ACCESS (e)Mysol.
51. Windows is _________ (a) not an operating system (b)
behaves like an operating system (c) command driven (d)
part of an operating system (e) none of the above.
52. One of the following is not harmful to the computer (a)
spyware (b) virus (c) PO-culling (d) Worm (e) Trojan
53. Which of the following is not a LAN Topology (a) Bus (b)
Star (c) door-to-door (d) Ring (e) Mesh.
54. One of the following is not necessary in LAN (a) Modem
(b) Adapter card (c) cable (d) RJ 45 (e) Hub.
55. A major distinction between LAN and WAN is
___________ (a) distance apart (b) communication (c)
Integrity (d) modem (e) all of the above.
56. One of these is not a Presentation Graphics Software (a)
Freelance (b) Excel (c) Power Point (d) Corel Draw (e)
none.
57. Which of the following factors is responsible for the rise of
the Internet’s popularity (a) the World Wide Web (b) the
elimination of barriers to commercial activity on the
internet (c) online service providers (d) A and B above (e)
all.
58. The FORMAT command in addition to preparing the disk
for use also (a) adds information to the disk (b)
deletes every content of the disk (c) arrange all files in the
in order (d) compresses the content of the disk (e) none of
the above.
59. The function of the command DIR EXE is to (a) write all
files to the disk (b) display every file in the disk (c) display
only file with extension (d) display files not having
extension.EXE (e) none of the above.
60. One of the following enhances windows operations (a)
Keyboard (b) Light pen (c) Mouse (d) joystick (e) none of
the above.

61. In windows application the background of the desktop is
called (a) title bar (b) stack bar (c) wall paper (d) screen
saver (e) none.
62. The earliest forerunner of modern digital computer is
_____ (a) Abacus (b) Main (c) Desktop (d) Laptop (e)
IBM.
63. The first electronic known computer is called (a) punch
card (b) digital computer (c) ENIAC (d) IBM (e) none of
the above.
64. The second-generation operating system supported (a)
single processing (b) batch processing (C) multi
programmed system (d) my document (e) none of a, b, C.
65. A manager of a database is called ______(a) BDA (b)
DBMA (c) DBP (d) Data base manager (e) none of a,b,c
or d.
66. A modem is normally required in (a) PAN (b)LAN (c)
multiplexer (d) Wide area Network (e) none of the
above.
67. The circuit devices that dominated first generation
computers is called Diode (b) integrated Circuit (c)
Translator (d) Vacuum tubes (e) none of a, b, c or
68. The third generation computers were built using (a) SSI
circuit (b) MSI circuit (c)LSI circuit (d) VLSI circuits (e)
none.
69. A device that enables computer user to save work after a
power failure is modern (b) scanner (c) stabilizer (d) UPS
(e) none of the above.
70. Data and program instructions which are being processes
by the computer are held in (a) hard disk (b) control unit
(C) main memory (d) ALU (e) none of the above.

Ges 100, Ges101 and Ges 102

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Ges 100, Ges101 and Ges 102

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

GES 100 WORK BOOK

UNITS 20, 21, 22

1. Drawings of an area of the earth are referred to as

2. Books published yearly which carry information on various

3. _________ holds the parts of the book together and makes

4. In which of the section of the library can we find the

8. _______ is the modification or amplification of notes taken

9. ________ is a technique of outlining in note taking and

10. Division of an outline can be done by the use of _________

13. ________ is also known as preview reading

14. Which is not required in speed reading

15. Which is of great relevance in summarizing a text

16. Inferential comprehension requires

17. Which is a context clue?

19. Which can shape a writer’s arguments

20. A major comprehension skill is

21. A good paragraph must contain the following in which

22. Lots of people have problems writing conclusions because

23. There are three stages in paragraph development

25. A fast and effective reader makes

26. A fast and effective reader makes

28. ________ uses a part of something to represent the whole

29. The opposite of bathos is _________

31. “The pen is mightier than the sword” This statement is

32. “He is an eloquent dumb man” us an example of ________

34. Based on their mode of operation in the process of

35. Figures of speech can _______ the reader for better

36. _________ is regarded as the basic unit of language

37. _______ is a board concept which refer to words and there

39. The process of word formation that is most productive is

40. The plural form of “Corrigendum” is _______

42. All of these are examples of neuter nouns except one

43. The plural formation that requires the addition of “e” as in

44. A Process of word formation by combining parts of two or

45. “He is a goat” is an example of ________ meaning

48. ________ is not the part of the sentence that is modified

50. Please ______ on this point

51. The party has only just ________

52. This is just the tip of the _________

54. We are going on a three _________ holiday

55. There is ______ poverty in Nigeria

56. Adjourn collocates _________

61. We needed a ________ to borrow from the bank

62. I know the _______ of the word

63. The police action was very swift and _________

65. The houses with their garden _______ sold

67. The room is out of ________

68. Tom used to be the best behaved student, _______

70. If you go travelling without permission, you may ______

71. “l cant bear to see the child suffer” is ________ phrase

74. The most handsome boy has won the pageant

75. The man who showed me the way is a kind

76. That John refused to assist us is a mystery

77. Mary went swimming, although it was raining

80. Ala, the business man has been here with me

81. It is crystal clear who will become the manager

Identify the sentence types from 82-87:

84. I will eat the food, though not well prepared

85. Tari is a very handsome looking man but obviously also

89. Away went the robber like a bat out of hell

90. The masons finished the building in recorded time

91. One big bully threw Martha a devastating punch

95. To record very good scores this semester is my great and

29. The command dir t. will