‫تقريبا هاي معظم التجميعات اللي نزلت ع الجروب ‪ ...

‬ي ريت اللي هيدخلوا االمتحانات الجديده يضيفوا اسئلتهم‬

‫امتحان التوظيف لديوان الموظفين العام ‪100( 2007‬سؤال)‬

BY Ahmed Rawhi Dabour
 ‫نتقدم بالشكر للزمالء د محمود قش‬ ‫ه‬ Mahmoud Qesh  ‫و د احمد عبد الها‬ a‫يد‬Ahmed Abdu
l Ha diabdu‫ سؤال من امتحان االيفوم االخير كما نتقدم لهم بالتهنئه لحصوله‬02‫ ي‬1 ‫ على تجميع حوال‬l
‫م على اعلى الدرجات و نتمنى لهم التوفيق ان شاء ال‬

https://www.facebook.com/groups/113971498631524/101020721900794

‫اسئلة المزاولة المؤقتة‬

‫الورقة االولى‬

http://www.4shared.com/rar/zwXC-0BB/___.html

‫الورقة الثانية‬

http://www.4shared.com/rar/bcBhrygq/___.html

‫تنظيم الدكتورة والء سمور‬

2013 3 ‫مزاولة‬

by mhmd al hooby

1) What is the disease that may transmit as autosomal recessive and the choices was !! :-

A)sickle cell anaemia

B) thallasemia

C)paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria

D)last one i don't remember !

*amswer:both A&B are true

__________________________

2)In dilated cardiomyopathy all of the following are true except :-

A)Dilated neckveins

B)S4

C)S3

D)hepatomegaly

*the answer is B

_________________________

3)Which one of the following may disturb the glycemic control :

A) fibratesB)ezetimibeC)cholesteramineD) nicotinic acid * answer

D__________________________

4) During appendectomy you find that the appendex is normal and there are thickening of the
uterine tube with pus on the outer surface, what should you do?

A) Appenectomy

B)Appendicectomy & salpingectomy

C)salpingectomyD) no thing

* answer is A____________________________

5)In the neoborn, the oxygen reserve in the blood is enough for ____

A) 30 seconds

B) 60-120 seconds

C) 3-4 minutes D)5-7 minutes

*answer is B !!

____________________________________

6)The most pregnancy loss occur in the first trimester, what is the percentage of genetic
problem that cause it?

A)20

B)50
C)75 D)95

*answer is B !!

__________________________________________

7)What is the commonest source of infection of the surgical wound?

A) skin of the patient

B) nasopharyngeal flora of the patient

C)Air in the operating room D) surgical instruments*answer is B !

_______________________________________

8)In testicular cancer the common presenting sign

A)secondary hydrocele

B)testicular pain

C)painelss testicular mass D)enlarged inguinal node

* the answer is C_____________________________________

9)central abdomenal pain with periambilical bruises, what is diagnoses?

ِA)acute choleycystitis

B) gall stone ilieus

C) acute pancreatitis D) perforated peptic ulcer*answer is C

______________________________

10)All of the following is a risk factor of neonatal jaundice except

A)post date

B)family history of neonatal jaundice

C)diabetic motherD)____*answer is A

___________________________

11)All of the following is normal heart sound in pregnancy except:

A) diastolic B) systolic murmur

C) S3 D) S4 *answer is A
_________________________________

12)the most common complication of frontal sinusitis

A)meningitis

B)subdural abscess

C)frontal bone osteitis D) brain abscess

*answer : i dont know !______________________________

13)Most common important (or common) manifestation of acute otitis media

A)pain

B)tinitus

C)otorrhea D)deafness

*answer is A__________________________________

14)chronic otitis media with effusion, complication except:

A)nerve deafness

B)menigitis

C)mastoiditis D)____!

*answer is A

__________________________

15)The priority in burn patient in the first 24 hours?

A) antibiotics

B)dressing and wound management

C)IV fluids

D)skin grafting

*answer is C
____________________________

16)All the following cause splenomegaly except

A) myeloprolefrative diseases

B) spherocytosis

C) diabetes mellitus

D) Infectious monoclusis

*answer is C

_____________________________

17)The most common complication of hemorroidectomy

A)urinary retention

B)ulcer

C)stenosis

D)! fistula

*answer is A

___________________________

18)causes of microcytosis in the peripheral blodd all except :

A)Iron deficiency

B)hypthyroidsim

C)haemolytic anaemia
D)chronic blodd loss

*answer is B

_________________________

19)Schistocytes can be seen in the following except :

A)TTP

B)DIC

C)Autoimmune haemolytic anemia D)Metastatic adenocarcinoma

*answer is D________________________

20)Rapid ventricular filling causes :

A)S1

B)S4

C)S3

D)S2

*answer is C

_______________________

21)child 5 years presented with sudden onset of cyanosis and dyspnea , dysphagia

A) epiglotitis

B)forrign body

C)bronchiolitis

D)____

*answer is B
___________________________

22)All the following is causes of stridor after 2 hours of thyroidectomy except

A)hematoma

B)laryngomalacia

C)hypocalcemia

D)recurrent laryngeal nerve injury

*answer is D !

___________________________

23)2 week new born develped stridor the cause:

A) laryngomalacia

B) forrign body

C) epiglottitis

D) croup

*answer is A

___________________________

24)Iron in infant enough for

A)3 month

B)6 month

C)9 month

D)12 months
*answer is B

_____________________

25)Hemoglbin F formed in the fetus by

A)liver

B) bine marrow

C) yolk sack

D)spleen

*answer is A !

____________________

26)In which trimester the lowest blood pressure occur

A)first

B)second

C)third

D)after delivery

*answer is B

_____________________

27)All the following is the function of placenta except:

A) kidney

B)adrenal
C)lung

D)liver

*answer is B !!

_________________________

28) All of the following are major criteria for rheumatic fever except:

A)craditis

B)erythyma choronicum migrans

C)sydenham chorea

A)polyarthritis

*answer is B

_______________________

29)Cannular size in hypovolemic shock:

A)19G

B14G

C)22G D)24G*answer is B30)Causes of IUGR are the following except:

A)rubella

B)herpes 2

C)toxoplasmosis

D)syphilis

*answer is B !

___________________
31)the most common organ injured in blunt truama to abdomin:

A)spleen

B)pancreas

C)iver

D)small intestine

*answer is C

___________________

32)the most common organ injuried in car accident on patient with seat belt

A)pancreas

B)small intestine

C)liver

D)spleen

*answer is B!

_______________________

33)Dehydrated child 30 Kg, IV fluid needed as a maintenance in the first 24 hours:

A)1700 mL

B)2100 mL

C)2400 mL

D)1300 mL
*answer is A

____________________________

34)All of the following abdominal injury can be treated observatly except:

A)spleen hematoma

B)liver laceration

C)perforated viscous

D)pancreas laceration

*answer is C

______________________________

35)Complications of blood transfusion are the following except:

A)hypercalcemia

b)hyperkalemia

c)hypothermia

D)hemolytic reaction

*answer is A

____________________________

36)Strict vegetarian person has deficiency in:

A)B12

B)B6
‫‪C)folic acid‬‬

‫‪D)vitamin A‬‬

‫?‪*answer is B12 !37) What is the most common cause of preterm labour‬‬

‫‪A)Idiopathic‬‬

‫‪B)Premature rupture of membranes‬‬

‫‪C)others.....................*Answer A‬‬

‫بسم هللا الرحمن الرحيم‬

‫السالم عليكم ورحمة هللا وبركاته‬

‫كيف حالكم جميعا‬

‫بفضل هللا تعالى اليوم اكتمل رفع الملفات الخاصة بامتحان مزاولة المهنة والتوظيف وهيا بتشمل المواد الي بتيجي في الورقة‬
‫األولى ( الباطنة واألطفال ) والورقة التانية ( الجراحة والنساء والوالدة )‬

‫الملفات مرفوعة ع حسابي الخاص وما يخافه إخوانا من حذفهم وأنا فتحت فولدر اسمه مزاولة ع الرابط التالي حتالقه ملفات‬
‫المواد األربعة مرفوعة فيه‬

‫‪http://www.mediafire.com/?7oulq5abux5es‬‬

‫‪ :‬وهي روابط المواد بشكل مباشر‬

‫ملف الباطنة وبحتوي على ‪ 386‬سؤال وتم تنسيقه بشكل كامل وجاهز للطباعة‬

‫‪http://www.mediafire.com/?g68rh2qadl2f5r0‬‬

‫ملف األطفال انا بعتذر انه ما تم تنسيقه‬

‫‪http://www.mediafire.com/?waw7ocaeuocrhci‬‬

‫ملف الجراحة وبحتوي على ‪ 1364‬سؤال وتم تنسيقه وجاهز للطباعة‬

‫‪http://www.mediafire.com/?rlcwn2x3ur9jm78‬‬

‫ملف النساء والوالدة ويحتوي على ‪ 1180‬سؤال وتم تنسيقه بشكل كامل وجاهز للطباعة‬

‫‪http://www.mediafire.com/?l5ctqyv6kx9q9hc‬‬

‫طبعا األسئلة هاي تجميع أخونا الدكتور وسام المصري وتم تنسيقها وإعادة ترتيبها من طرفي الدكتور محمد عبد المجيد اسليم‬
‫‪ .‬وذكر األسماء هان فقط عشان ما تنسونا من دعواتكم ال أكثر‬

‫وبنشكر الدكتورة أميرة العسولي ع مجهودها في مراجعة نصف أسئلة مادة النساء والوالدة وبشكر زوجتي الغالية الدكتورة‬
‫‪ .‬عال إبراهيم السدودي ع مجهودها الكبير في المساهمة في العمل هاد وجعله هللا في ميزان حسنات الجميع‬

‫كان إلي نصيحة إلخواني وكررتها في األربع بوستات إلي تم إضافتها باألسئلة بشكل منفصل انه كل واحد فينا يعمل اله فولدر‬
‫خاص فيه عشان هاي األسئلة كمان راح يتم دراستها في امتحان التوظيف بإذن هللا‬

‫الملفات زي ما راح تشوفوها جاهزة مباشرة للطباعة فما راح تتغلبه لو حبيته تطبعوها للي ما بحب يدرس ع الكمبيوتر‬

‫ويا شبابنا الغوالي ما تنسه انه في ورق في مكتبة السلطان بتحتوي ع اسئلة مش موجودة في االسئلة المحوسبة والزم تتطلعه‬
‫عليها النها مهمة كمان‬

‫بتمنى من شبابنا يكمله هالمشروع بأنه بعد انتهاءهم من االمتحان تاع المزاولة يحاوله يعملوها كتاب صغير ينباع ويكون‬
‫مطبوع وبأيد الجميع‬

‫تمنياتي للجميع بالتوفيق والنجاح‬

‫وأنا آسف ع أي تقصير بدر مني في إعداد الملفات‬

‫وما تنسونا من صالح دعائكم‬

‫مزاولة ‪2013 5‬‬

‫‪by Nour El-haddad Mohamed Alaa Yazji‬‬

1- the most common cause of massive hemoptysis = TB

2- most common cause of hemoptysis = broncholitis

3- all of the following complication of meningitis except = ventricular hge

4- sudden death of MI cause by =vf

5- complication of CP all except = blindness

6- all can cause microamenia except = hypothyrodism

7- all can cause macrocytosis except = IDA

8- auscaltation of dialted cardiomypathy =

9- sit with minimal support can roll from prone tho supine abcent pencer grasp = 6 months

10- Hb A1C = 2 MONTHS

11- rhumatic fever major criteria all except = erythema camcm margin

12- case of DM2 which drug can use to control HTN = ACEI

13- all can cause gynecomastia except =

14- causes of AF = 1 HTN 2 pneumonia 3 fever 4 all

15- turner syndrom = web neck delayed femoral pulse

16- down syndrom most common condinetal hreat disease = AV defect

17- case of insomia and urine incontinance female defect in which lobe of brain

18- case ph 7.2 hco3 15 pco2 22 =metabolic acidosis compensated respiratory alkalosis

19- minimal chage nephritic syndrom how to confirm dX = respond to steroid

20- most common cause of HTN in infancy is = renal disease

21- nephrotic sundrom how to investigate coagutalion profile = antithrombin 3

22- streal pyruia ?

23- according to urine analysis which is true ?

24- thalassima A which is true

25- urine analysis in infant ?

26- case of warfin and hge = CT

27- case of retinal hge and distarbed concious = ct

28- oligohydryminosis associated with all except = oesophygeal atreasia

29- toxic schock syndrome caused by = staph aures

30- strept A all r true regim in ttt except = gentamicin im

31- rhumatoid arthritis confirm dx by = distal myopathy

32- cystic fibrosis all r true except ?

33- paciarticular juvinile arthritis associated with uvitis

34- 1 year cough at night = reactive airway obstruction

35- itchy all r true except =hyperlidemia

36- case shortness of breath ???/

37- supine postion prevent = sudden infant death syndrom

38- chrons disease and UC DD BY ?

39- paracetamol intoxication all r true except ?

40- drug increase glucose = necotic acid

41- drug decrease parkinsoism tremors ?

42- G6PD all true except =indication of splenomectomy

43- sound of rapid filling of lt ventriclle is s 3

44- high s1 and rumbble murmur and v wave in the jugualr vein = mitral stenosis and tricuspid
regirge

45- rheumatic fever mosty cause = mitral stenosis

46- not indication of oral rehydration ? ta2reban el egaba cant = sever dehydration and
metabolic acidosis

47- case of bilateral basal trackels and hepatomegally and pitting odema = CHF

48- all causes of excudate ascitis except = bud charri syndrome

49- all can casue pain in left hypochondrium except = ta2reban SCA

50- not a cause of splenomegally = ITP

51- case of pyloric stenosis mainly IX by = US

52- case of food poisoning the cause is = staph aures

53- case of staph pneumonia the most emergency = tension pneumothorax

54- fever and dullness on the right and trachia shift to the left (case ) mostly = pneumonia and
pleural effuion

55- 30 kg infant daily fluid requriment is = 1700

56- chest pain most important IX IS = history

57- febril convulsion on true = EEG not indicated

58- prolctenima can cause in associted to ......... is = hyperpigmentation

59- addison disease ???? but i think the answer is decrease BUN

60- case knee swelling and ankle pain and diarreha = UC

61- drolling saliva case = acute epiglotitis

62- broncholitis one true = diffecull fooding

63- all case hypercallcimia except = hypothyrodism

64- acromegally can case all except = 1 rectal polyps 2 spinal stenosis 3 cardiac failure 4 pul HTN

65- al zahymer disease eary sign is = short memory loss

66- cow milk in compare to human milk have = more protein concentration

67- kwashincour = sun exposed

68- all case cyanosis in infancy except = coarctiation of aorta

69- idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis = mesh metzaker bass ta2reban el answer was plueral effusion

70- sever anaphylactic shock of inscit bite give = epinephrine

71- septic shock early sign is = dealy capillary refill

72- increased cardiac work = early in seplic shock i think

73- complication of hypernatrimic dehydration = cerebral odema

74- distention and decreased WT after begin of weaning of infant due to = cealaic disease

75- acute abd non surgical = hyperthyrodism

76- hypothyrodism diagnosis = TSH

77- chronic otitis media with wffusion can cause = hearing loss fee nas bte7ki learning diffecullty

78- hepatitis A route of transmission = fecooral

79- entamebia hystilotica route of transmission = fecooral

80- all the following are true about neonatal jundice except ?

81- schictocyte charactarstic of all except ?

82- NSAID = increase bleeding time

83- case HB 17 all can cause it except ?

84- early sign of DVT is = pain

85- most common orgn injury while wearing seat bult is = SI

86- most common organ injury in blunt truma is spleen

87- most common organ injury in penetrating truma is = SI

88- the most accurate method in estimated good therapy in burn pt is = UOP

89- the most common cause of PPH is = uterine atony

90- all r true except in induction of vaginal delivery = placenta previa

91- HB F synsethis by = i think liver

92- oxygen carrier to the featous how many min

93- all r causes of blood trasfusion except ?

94- tall p wave on ECG dt = hyperkalemia

95- the most common compliction of ceaserian hysterctomy is = uterine retention

96- decrease cardiac work in pregnency at which time = 2nd trimester

97- the most dagnostic test for PE = angio ct

98- case of 80% burn = 14.1 ringer lactate

99- stridor increase by lieing on supine postion ?

100- which infection will affect featous growth /

101- q about sinusitis complication

102- case sever abd pain + bleeding per vagina = uterine rupture

103- OCPS increase risk of = breeast cancer

104- overian canscer increased by /

105- all can cause cervical cancer except = late 1st intercourse

106- pt with trauma and he is concious first piority is to = abc

107- gall bladder ly on ?

108- the femoral vein in relation to the femoral canal or sheath ?

109- on surgery the appendix was normal and there wa suppurative FT what to do =
appendectomy

110- all can cause splenomegally except DM mesh 3aref eza kan fee so2l heek wala la2 bas hey
elly fakroh

111- firm nodule of the thyriod mostly ?

112- the most dagnostic test in mutinodular goiter is ?

113- fall on the flexed elbow with abcent pulse distal what to do = close reduction and check for
pulse

114- gun shot on the chest with tacycardia and ........ what to do ?

115- the most common cause of nipple discharge is = duct ectasia

116- DUB means ?

117- 54 year old have bleeding ....... what to do ?

118- the most type of hernia that can be strangulated is ? = femoral

119- appendacitis the most important sign is = tendrenss in RIF

120- fever pain jundice ?

121- fee so2al 3an diverticula ? 1 dudemun 2 ilum 3 jujemum 4 rectum

122- initial fluids in hypovomlic shock is

123- size of canula in mulitruma pt = 14

124- folicular thyroid cancer

125- the investigation done in all antenatal care is = BP

126- the cause of recurent abortion is ?

127- genital prolapse all except ?

128- DDH ?

129- watery nasal discharge

130- testicular torsion the most common age is = less 20

131- complication of thyrodictomy

132- calcitonin production from ?

133- the most common cause of prematurty = PROM

134- prevent gas gangrin =

135- the piority in trauma pt in 1st 24 hs is = fluid

‫اسئلة الرعاية‬

55 years old businessman has daily headache since 3months with nausea and vomiting ?? most
appropriate diagnosis brain tumour sinus headache cluster headache tension headache ?

"commonest `lumbar spine prolapse ??

"Q its answr was adenoid and tonsillar hypertrophy common causes of obstructive sleep apnea"

"seventh report of the joint national committe on prevention detection treatment of

hypertension suggest treatment for hypertension in other wise normal person ?"

"recurrebt vitiligo, tinnitus and hearing loss hallmark of ?? menier's cholestatoma vestibular
neuritis ACoustin neuroma"

"most sensitive test to detect maxillary sinusitis ??"

"THE greatest risk factor for pregnant women to develop pyelonephritis ?"
"most likely mode of transmission of IMN ??"

"first sign of puberty in male ??"

"neonatal jaundice dt neonatal septicemia appear after ??"

"Most common symptoms of MI ?? another Q but if in eldery ?"

"3months old infant presented with erythematous rash in groin that spre the skin folds ??"

"most appropriate life style modification allivate symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome ??"
Duaa Akram

‫ اسئلة الرعاية االولية في عيادة صبحة‬:

most common presentation of MI - chest pain

metabolic syndrome all except - peripheral obesity

vaccine mostly caues fever and irritability - pertussisage of presentation of pyloric stenosis

most common preventable cause of peripheral vascular dz

itching and crusting eye - blepheritistime of breast self exam - within one week of mensesq
about chronic bronchitis it descibe its definitionmost common cause of chronic cough -
postnasal driptreatment of ameaba - metronidazole

treatment of pinworm - mebendazoleq about hepatits c - most cases develope into chronic
formdefenition of migraine - unilateral throbbing headache

symmetric synovitis with morning stiffness - RAneonatal jaundice to be considered as sepsis - at

fifth day

3months old infant presented with erythematous rash in groin that spre the skin folds - diaper
dermatits

vertigo , tinnitus and hearing loss - meniers dzfirst sign of puberty in males - testicular
enlargement
the initial antihypertensive drug should be used in pt without comorbiditeis according to JNC7 is
- thiazide

q about acute appendictis

- most appropriate medication for the treatment of hypertension in a diabetic patient-ACEi

lumbar disc dz - L5 S1most common cause of UTI in children - ???? Ecoli

absolut breastfeeding should be in - 1st 6 months

q about diagnosis of DM

q about gout ( pt was taking hydrochlorothiazide

best test to evaluate thyroid dz - TSH

most commont cuase of male infertility - varicocele

"most common endocrinopathy in reproductive age group ???"

‫امتحان المنحه االردنيه االم الماضي‬

By Mohammed Alhoobi

1) 58 Year old female c/o pruritis, jaundice and statorrhea o/e jaundice, spider navi and
hepatosplenomegaly what is the most likely diagnosis ?

A)alcoholic liver disease

B)wilson's

C)autoimmune hepatitis

D)primary biliary cirhosis

2) what is the most common cause of congenital infection :

(ans) Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is the most common cause of congenital infection affecting about
1% of all the live births worldwide

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Here we will write the Q of the Jordanian scholarship In Shaa Allah

decrease COP Will occur if abdominal pressure exceed ?

10

25

30

40

50
COP After cardiac arrest became ______ of precardiac output ??!!

10 %

25 %

50 %

80%

90 %v

what's the most common outcome of PE ?

Sudden death

dyspnea

no outcome

infarction

haemoptysis

ECG finding in hypothermia

short QT

polong PR interval

2nd degree heart block

U wave

The most important psthogenesis of OM ?

Obstruction of eustuchian tube

impaired cellular immunity

bad ciliary motilty

>
>

>

Investigation of choice in obstructive jaundice ?

US

CT

cholangiography

MRI

March 18, 2013 at 7:19pm · Like

in patient with G6PD deficiency the following drug CI ??

Primaqine

mefloqine

trufen

Acute leg pain except dvt or siatics

Mohammed Alhoobi yeas 70 old fema;e present with abd cramping for two hour with vomiting
abd film show dilated loop what are the cuse:

1-sigmoid volvulous

2-ceacal volvuolus.

3-ileal obstruction

4-jejunal obstruction.

Charactetsics of neurogenic shock all except

Tachycardia
Bradycardia and hypotesion

>

>

cardiac output increased in

Cariogenic shok

Early septic shok

Late septic shok

Neutogenic shok

complication of bacterial meningitis in children except:

1-deafness

2-CP

3-intraventricular hemorhage

4-seizure.

all of the following cause gynecomastia except::

digoxin

furosmeid...See More

in lead poisoning are true except :-

microcytic anaemia

haemolytic anaemia

decrease erythrocyte portoporphyrin

wrist drop
acute encephalopathy

pyloric stenosis cause persistant high hyperbilirubinemia or abdominal distension !?

1 day neonate with abdominal mass what is the most likely cause of this mass ?

posterior urethral valve

polycystic kidney

willm's

neuroblastoma

causes of catract :_

malnutrition

UV rays

alcohol

smoking

>

all are true

Pre & post test on Communicable Disease Surveillance

For questions 1-9, please answer each of the statements by true (T) or false (F):

1. A case of AFP needs not be reported immediately to the Field Office until
the results of stool examination are disclosed.

2. Confirmation of neonatal tetanus depends on bacteriological.

3. A suspected case of diphtheria is an illness characterized by laryngitis or
pharyngitis or tonsillitis and an adherent membrane of the tonsils,
pharynx and/or nose.

4. When Corynebacterium diphtheriae is cultured from an asymptomatic

person, the case should be reported as a confirmed case of diphtheria.

5. A case of pertussis is suspected when a person presents with a cough

lasting at least 2 weeks with paroxysms of coughing or inspiratory whoop
or post-tussive vomiting without other apparent cause.

6. A case of suspected cholera need not be investigated during an outbreak

of the disease.

1. Acute bloody diarrhoea should be confirmed by stool

analysis and/or culture.

2. Administration of several vaccines to a child in one

immunization session exposes the child to risk.

3. Measles and/or MMR should not be given to child with

acute upper respiratory tract infection.

Section II: Tick the correct answer

11. The Daily Tally Sheet and the Weekly Return on incidence of communicable
diseases should be completed by:

a) Medical Officer.

b) Staff nurse.

c) Clerk.

d) Any of the above.

12. The functions of disease surveillance include the following:

a) Collection of data.

b) Analysis and interpretation of data.

c) Disease control activities.

d) All of the above.

e) (a) and (b) only.

13. Purposes of surveillance include:

a) To identify deviation from expected patterns.

b) To identify outbreaks in order to institute prevention and control

activities.

c) To evaluate the impact of control programmes.

d) (a) and (b) only.

e) All of the above.

14. Common indicators of morbidity include:

a) Incidence rate.

b) Prevalence rate.

c) Crude death rate.

d) All of the above.

e) (a) and (b) only.

15. A confirmed polio case is:

a) Any child under 15 years of age with acute flaccid paralysis.

b) An AFP case in which after 60 days of onset there is still residual

paralysis.

c) An AFP case which died or lost for follow-up.

d) (b) or (c).

e) Any of the above.

16. AFP cases should:

 a) Be reported to Field Office immediately.

b) Be investigated within 48 hours.

c) Have stool specimens collected within 14 days of onset of paralysis.

d) All of the above.

17. A case of “Rash and Fever” could be:

a) Measles.

b) Rubella.

c) Dengue.

d) (a) or (b) only.

e) Any of the above.

18. Which of the following conditions is contraindication for vaccines?

a) Low birth weight

b) Underweight.

c) Cough with mild fever

d) Mild diarrhoea

e) Hyperpyrexia  39
19. The diagnosis in case of “Rash and Fever” could be established by:

a) IgM ELISA test.

b) IgG ELISA test.

c) Any of the above.

d) None of the above.

20. A child with acute diarrhoea, the most appropriate line of treatment is:

a) Prescribe antibacterial medicines.

b) Treatment with oral rehydration salt.

c) Refer to the hospital.

d) a & b.

21. Meningitis is suspected when a patient presents with:

a) Sudden onset of fever.

b) Stiff neck.

c) Bulging fontanels in an infant.

d) All of the above.

e) a & c, only.

22. Acute watery diarrhoea is passage of:

a) 3 or more loose or watery stools in 24 hours.

b) 5 or more loose or watery stools in 24 hours.

 c) 5 or more loose stools with signs of dehydration during the past 2 days.

d) None of the above.

23. For notification purposes, acute bloody diarrhoea is defined as:

a) Passage of at least 3 loose stools with visible blood in the stools.

b) Isolation of E. coli from stools.

c) Identification of E. histolytica cysts.

d) None of the above.

24. Cholera is suspected in a case of watery diarrhoea in a patient aged 5 years or

more associated with/or resulting in:

a) Severe dehydration.

b) Death.

c) Any of the above.

25. An acute illness presenting with jaundice, dark urine, anorexia, malaise, acute
fatigue and right upper quadrant tenderness in a 6-year-old child is:

a) Acute chloecystitis.

b) Tumor of the head of the pancreas.

c) Viral hepatitis.

d) Rh incompatibility.

26. An asymptomatic HIV-positive case is suspected in the following conditions:

 a) A young man who came recently from an area with HIV/AIDS high
endemic rate.

b) A lady with vaginal discharge.

c) A person who asks for an HIV testing.

d) Any of the above.

e) (a) or (b) only.

27. Major clinical manifestations of a case of AIDS are:

a) Intermittent fever for more than one month.

b) Diarrhoea for more than one month.

c) Persistent cough for more than one month.

d) Any of the above.

e) (a) and (b) only.

28. An ulcer on penis or scrotum in men, and on labia, vagina or cervix in women
could be:

a) Syphilis.

b) Herpes simplex.

c) Gonorrhea.

d) (a) or (b).

e) (b) or (c).

29. Gonorrhea is suspected in a man with:

 a) Scrotal swelling.

b) Urethral discharge.

c) Ulcer on glans penis.

d) (a) and/or (b).

e) Any combination of the above.

30. Vaginal discharge in a woman could be caused by:

a) Chlamydia.

b) HIV.

c) Gonorrhea.

d) (a) or (c).

e) Any of the above.

31. Acute food-borne enteric illness could be caused by:

a) Staphylococcus aureus.

b) Salmonella.

c) Insecticides.

d) Rotavirus.

e) Any of the above.

32. Descriptive epidemiology includes all EXCEPT:

a) What?

b) Who?

c) When?

d) Where?

e) Why?

33. During the second week of February, 87 persons in a small community

(population 460) attended a social event which included a meal prepared by
several of the participants. Within 3 days, 39 of the participants became ill with
salmonellosis. The attack rate among the participants was:

a) 0.45/100

b) 8.5/100

c) 18.9/100

d) 44.8/100

e) Cannot be calculated from the information given.

34. The most common way that a Medical Officer detects outbreaks in a camp is by:

a) Receiving information from affected residents.

b) Receiving information from other health care providers.

c) Reviewing all case reports received each week to detect common

features.

d) Performing analysis of surveillance data each week.

e) Any of the above.

35. For an investigation of an outbreak, what is the logical order of the activities
listed below?

1. Analyze data by time, place, and person.

2. Generate hypotheses.

3. Conduct active surveillance for additional cases.

4. Verify the diagnosis.

5. Confirm that the number of cases exceeds the expected number.

a) 1-2-3-4-5.

b) 5-4-1-2-3.

c) 5-1-3-2-4.

d) 5-4-1-3-2.

e) 5-1-3-2-4.

36. A case during an outbreak investigation should be specified in terms of:

a) Clinical criteria.

b) Time.

c) Place.

d) Person.

e) All of the above.

37. In a 7 month old infant with cough, how many breaths /minute is fast breathing?

a) 60 or more
 b) 50 or more

c) 40 or more

d) Non of the above.

38. Match the three definitions on the right-hand side with the diseases on the left-
hand side:

a) Meningococcal meningitis. ____1) Suspected case of meningitis with turbid CSF

b) Bacterial meningitis. _____2) Identification of diplocci by gram stain/or

culture.

c) Viral meningitis. _____3) “Normal” CSF.

39. Match each of the following three statements on the right-hand side with one of
the four terms on the left-hand side:

a) Endemic ___1) Last week 28 cases; but usually 10 cases/week.

b) Epidemic ___2) Last week 55 cases; but usually 50-70 cases/week

c) Pandemic ___3) Last week 28 cases; but usually 25 cases/week.

d) Hyper-endemic

40. Match the three definitions on the right-hand side with the diseases on the left-
hand side:

a) Brucellosis ___1) An acute illness characterized

by acute onset of fever, night sweats, undue
fatigue, anorexia, weight loss, headache and
arthralgia and is epidemiologically - linked to
 consumption of contaminated animal
products.

b) Viral hepatitis___2) Systemic disease

characterized by insidious onset of sustained
fever, severe headache, malaise, anorexia,
relative bradycardia, non-reproductive cough
in the early stages of illness and
constipation.

c) Malaria ____3) An illness characterized by fever, headache, back pain,

chills, sweats, myalgia, nausea and vomiting in a person
coming from an endemic country.

d) Typhoid

Assessment of KAPs of Medical Officers

On Prevention and Control of NCDs

SECTION I:

For questions 1-24, please answer each of the statements by true (T) or false (F):

1. FPG  110mg/dl and  126mg/dl on two separate occasions should be

confirmed by 100gm OGTT.

2. In management of type 1 DM, the usual starting insulin dose is 0.5-1

units/kg body weight.

3. Glibenclamide is given in minimum daily dose of 20mg in two divided

doses.
4. Gliclazide is prescribed for type 2 patients  65 years and/or patients with
microalbuminuria.

5. Change of dosage of an anti-diabetic drug or change from one type of

treatment to another should be made after 3 months of follow-up
provided that compliance with lifestyle modification and drug intake is
ensured.

6. Dislipidaemia in most diabetic patients can be managed by lifestyle

modification.

7. Hypoglycaemia starts with sweating, shaking, trembling, hunger and

headache.

8. Hyperglycaemia is managed by taking rapidly absorbable carbohydrates

or sweetened drink.

9. If a diabetic patient has proteinuria by dipstick, s/he should have the

microalbuminuria test.

10. One of the earliest signs of diabetic neuropathy is the absence of

vibration sense.

11. Vibration sense can be checked by the reflex hammer.

12. OGTT should be performed for some diabetic patients on every routine
visit.

13. Lifestyle modification should be discussed with the patient on every visit.
14. Urine ketones testing is important when the diabetic patient suffers for
sweating, tremor, vision disturbances and loss of concentration.

15. Hypertension is defined as a systolic BP higher than 140mmHg and/or a

diastolic BP higher than 90mmHg on multiple blood pressure
measurements.

16. If the initial BP measurement is found < 130/85mmHg, it should be re-

checked in 2 years and the patient should be counselled on lifestyle
modification.

17. PG should be checked annually for patients with hypertension.

18. BP should be measured every other scheduled visit for diabetic patients.

19. The only aim of treatment of hypertension is to reduce the raised BP.

20. Lasix is a diuretic used in mild hypertension without a co-existing

condition

21. The maximum antihypertensive daily dose of atenolol is 100mg.

22. If 25mg of hydrochlorothiazide does not control BP, the dose should be
increased to 50mg.

23. The Initial Assessment section of the PRF should be completed with
respect to new patients only.
24. Emphasis in patient care should be placed on management of end-stage
complications rather than prevention of early complications.

SECTION II:

Questions 25-60 are multiple choice questions. Tick the correct answer.

25. Body Mass Index (BMI) is measured by:

a) Weight/height in centimeter

b) Weight2/height in meters

c) Weight / height2 in meters

d) Weight2 / height2 in meters

e) Weight3 / height in meters

26. Non-communicable diseases include:

a) Diabetes mellitus and hypertension only

b) “a” and cancer.

c) “b” and mental disorders and rheumatoid arthritis.

27. NCD patients should be educated to:

a) Develop a sense of reliance.

b) Acquire adequate knowledge skills in applying health lifestyle behaviors.

c) Deal with expected medical emergencies.

d) “b” and “c” only.

e) All of the above.
28. Type 2 DM is characterized by:

a) Acute onset.

b) Ketonuria.

c) Weight loss and sweating.

d) Any combination of the above.

e) None of the above.

29. The following person has a higher risk for diabetes:

a) Age 50 years and diabetic father.

b) Age 45 years and diabetic parents.

c) Sedentary life, age 45 and diabetic mother.

30. Maintenance of near-normal PG and BP levels:

a) Has minimal effect on reduction of complications.

b) Averts chronic complications.

c) Aggravates acute complications.

d) Significantly delays the development of early complications.

31. Early detection of diabetes and/or hypertension:

a) Leads to early management and early development of nephropathy.

b) Poses unnecessary responsibilities on the health team and the patient.

c) Has minimal effect on the quality of life of the patient.

 d) Should be considered only in case of patients with symptoms.

e) None of the above.

32. Type 2 DM is suspected in:

a) A 15-year-old obese child with polyuria.

b) A 70-year-old man with Ketonuria, weight loss and severe polyuria.

c) A 45-year-old multiparous lady without the clinical symptoms of

hyperglycaemia.

d) “a” or “c”.

33. Symptoms of marked hyperglycaemia include the following EXCEPT:

a) Blurred vision.

b) Polydipsia.

c) Sweating.

d) Weight loss.

34. Proper management of diabetes mellitus aims at all the following EXCEPT:

a) Prevention of acute and long-term complications.

b) Monitoring development of complications.

c) Detection of diabetes in other family members.

d) Provision of timely interventions.

35. Diet management in diabetes includes the following EXCEPT:

a) Carbohydrates should include 60% of the total energy intake.

b) Protein intake should be limited to small amounts, especially in

children and pregnant women.
c) Saturated fat should be reduced to small amounts.

d) Commercially-prepared diabetic foods are not required and sometimes

are harmful.

36. Type 1 diabetics should be educated on the following:

a) Interaction of food intake and physical activity with OHAs.

b) Insulin injection technique.

c) Blood glucose monitoring.

d) “b” and “c”.

37. When exercise is initiated for a diabetic or hypertensive patient, the following
should be observed EXCEPT:

a) Condition of the heart and lungs.

b) Presence of complications.

c) Gradual increase in intensity of exercise and duration of physical activity.

d) Possible development of hyperglycaemia.

38. Controlled diabetic or hypertensive patients without TOD should be monitored

every:

a) One month.
 b) Two months.

c) Three months.

d) Six months.

39. The best indicator of acceptable glycaemia control includes:

a) 2-hour PPG of  180mg/dl.

b) Absence of symptoms.

c) Absence of sugar in urine.

d) Any of the above.

40. All pregnant women should be screened for hypertension:

a) At registration.

b) At 24-28 weeks.

c) At every visit.

d) When the lady develops oedema of the ankles.

41. Diagnosis of hypertension in pregnancy is established by:

a) A rise of 15mmHg in DBP from the first trimester.

b) BP > 160/90mmHg.

c) A rise of 25mmHg in SBP from the first trimester.

d) “a” or “c”.

42. All pregnant women are screened for diabetes using:

 a) 100gm OGTT.

b) 75gm OGTT.

c) Fasting plasma glucose.

d) Post-pranidal plasma glucose.

43. The following statements are false EXCEPT:

a) 100gm OGTT is performed for pregnant woman whose FPG falls between
110 and 125mg/dl.

b) Acceptable glycaemia control in GDM is 140-160mg/dl post-

prandially.
c) If plasma glucose is not controlled in a pregnant diabetic with 0.2-0.3
units of insulin/kg body weight, the insulin dose can be gradually
increased by 1-2 units every other day without the need for referral to
diabetologist.

d) The woman with GDM should be followed-up during the six weeks
following delivery.

44. The following statements are true EXCEPT:

a) Pre-eclampsia occurs primarily among primigravida and after the 20 th

week of gestation.

b) Pregnant women who show a tendency for increase of BP values during

repeat antenatal visits should be monitored until the end of the post-
partum period for possible development of pre-eclampsia.

c) BP for pregnant women should be measured either in the sitting

position or while lying on the back.
d) Pre-eclampsia should be only managed at hospital.

45. Very few cases of type 1 DM can be managed with:

 a) Lifestyle modification only.

b) Sulphonylureas.

c) Insulin and small doses of OHAs.

d) Biguanides.

e) None of the above.

46. Insulin vials when stored at room temperature have a shelf life of:

a) 2 weeks.

b) 3 weeks.

c) 4 weeks.

d) 5 weeks.

47. All the following factors slow insulin absorption rates from the injection site,
EXCEPT:

a) Excess alcohol.

b) Cold climate.

c) Smoking.

d) Fasting.

48. People with type 2 DM:

a) Are ketonic.

b) Are mostly young.

c) Are definitely obese.

 d) Have a gradual onset of disease.

49. When there is severe lack of insulin, blood glucose levels increase and the
following develops, EXCEPT:

a) Polyuria.

b) Dehydration.

c) Oedema.

d) Ketosis.

50. The following are risk factors for a diabetic foot, EXCEPT:

a) Hypertension.

b) Smoking.

c) Lack of exercise.

d) Hyperuricaemia.

51. The following statements are true in respect of exercise, EXCEPT:

a) Strenuous exercise should be avoided if the person with diabetes has late
complications.

b) Exercise may demand an increase in insulin dosage.

c) Exercise is best carried out when injections are given in the abdominal
wall.

d) May cause hypoglycaemia.

52. Microalbuminuria in diabetes:

 a) Can be diagnosed by dipstick.

b) Can predict the presence of retinopathy.

c) Is difficult to manage with diet.

d) Is the most important indicator for renal disease.

53. In diabetic nephropathy:

a) BP should be kept below 160/90mmHg.

b) BP should be kept below 140/90mmHg.

c) BP control does not play any role.

d) Low-fat diet can retard progression to renal failure.

54. In gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM):

a) FPG should be done to all pregnant women during the first weeks of
pregnancy.

b) Combination therapy can help some mild cases of GDM.

c) After delivery, the women with GDM will not be at risk for subsequent
development of diabetes mellitus.

d) Management should include insulin with lifestyle modification.

55. In gestational hypertension the recommended anti hypertensive drugs is:

a) Hydrochlorothiazide.

c) Atenolol.

d) ACE-inhibitors.
 e) Ca-channel blockers.

f) Methyldopa.

56. In patients with type 2 diabetes uncontrolled by OHA, it is important to rule out
all, EXCEPT:

a) Poor patient compliance to his diabetes management plan.

b) Possibility of the patient being ill.

c) Possibility of the patient undergoes a stressful period.

d) The patient is taking high doses of OHA.

57. A young married woman with type 1 DM:

a) Should achieve good metabolic control before conceiving.

b) May have frequent vaginal infections associated with diabetes of long

duration.

c) Is forbidden to conceive since diabetes will cause malformation of the

child.

d) “a” and “b”.

58. The following applies to diabetic foot, EXCEPT:

a) Uncommon and inexpensive disability.

b) Caused by a combination of peripheral neuropathy, peripheral vascular

disease and infection.

c) Can progress from a superficial ulcer to gangrene of the whole foot.

d) Is preventable by education and screening.

59. Patients with diabetes and/or hypertension should be taught to recognize early
symptoms of acute and chronic complications and report to the MO:

a) On the next scheduled visit.

b) As soon as possible.

c) After one week.

d) When they get a second attack of symptoms.

60. Patients with elevated BP usually present:

a) With drumming in the ears.

b) With headache and blurred vision.

c) Without symptoms.

d) With “a” and/or “b”.

SECTION III:

For the following questions, match the terms on the left-hand side with the statements
on the right-hand side.

61. Match the following:

a) IGT _____1) Fasting PG 126mg/dl or more

on two separate occasions.

b) IFG _____2) Fasting PG 110mg/dl.

c) Normal FPG ____3) FPG 110mg/dl but less than

126mg/dl.

d) Diabetes mellitus ____4) 2-hr PG 7.8mmol/L and

<11.1mmol/L in OGTT.

62. Match the following:

a) 2-hr PPG. ____1) Acceptable control value of:

140 - 180mg/dl.

b) Total serum cholesterol. ____2) Acceptable control value of:

200 - 250mg/dl.

c) Serum triglycerides. ____3) Acceptable control value of:

150 - 200mg/dl.

63. Match the following antihypertensive drugs on the right-hand side with the
compelling contraindication on the left hand side.

a) Diuretics _____1) Chronic obstructive airway

disease.

b) Beta-blockers _____2) Pregnancy.

c) ACE inhibitors ____3) Heart block.

 d) Calcium antagonists ____4) Gout

e) Methyldopa

SECTION IV: Answer the following questions:

64. List 5 factors used for risk stratification for cardiovascular disease:

1. __________________________________________________

2. __________________________________________________

3. __________________________________________________

4. __________________________________________________

5. __________________________________________________

6. __________________________________________________

65. List target organ damage (TOD) in hypertension:

1. __________________________________________________
2. __________________________________________________
3. __________________________________________________
4. __________________________________________________
5. __________________________________________________
66. The main management regimens for management of hypertension are (list in
order of treatment of choice):

1. __________________________________________________
2. __________________________________________________
1. __________________________________________________
2. __________________________________________________
3. __________________________________________________
 4. __________________________________________________

67. List four criteria for consideration of acceptable control in an individual with
diabetes and/or hypertension.

6. __________________________________________________
7. __________________________________________________
8. __________________________________________________
9. __________________________________________________
10. __________________________________________________

68. List three lifestyle measures for prevention and control of NCDs:

1. __________________________________________________
2. __________________________________________________
3. __________________________________________________
4. __________________________________________________
5. __________________________________________________

69. Fill the missing cells in the following table:

Early complications Late complications

Eyes
-
Cardiovascular
system -
Kidneys
-
Cerebrovascular
system

Nerves
-
Feet

BY
Marwa Abu Amro