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SEDC Handouts

TABLE OF CONTENTS

1.0 SEDC-Engineering Mechanics – Statics---------------------------------------------------------2-17


2.0 SEDC-Engineering Mechanics – Dynamics--------------------------------------------------18-27
3.0 SEDC-Strength of Materials-----------------------------------------------------------------------28-39
4.0 SEDC-Static Determinacy and Influence Lines-----------------------------------------------40-41
5.0 SEDC-Theory of Structures - Cables and Arches-------------------------------------------42-43
6.0 SEDC-Approximate Analysis----------------------------------------------------------------------45-46
7.0 SEDC-Deflections------------------------------------------------------------------------------------46-47
8.0 SEDC-Analysis of Statically Indeterminate Structures--------------------- ----------------48-49
9.0 SEDC-Reinforced Concrete Design 1 - Allowable Stress Design ---------------------=-50-51
10.0 SEDC-Reinforced Concrete Design 2 - Flexure Analysis --------------------------------52-54
11.0 SEDC-Reinforced Concrete Design 3 - Shear and Torsion ------------------------------55-57
12.0 SEDC-Reinforced Concrete Design 4 - Analysis and Design of Slabs ----------------58-59

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13.0 SEDC-Reinforced Concrete Design 5 - Analysis and Design of Columns -----------60-66

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14.0 SEDC-Reinforced Concrete Design 6 - Bond, Anchorage and Development Length--67
15.0 SEDC-Steel Design 1 - Design Philosophies and Load Calculation -----------------------68
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16.0 SEDC-Steel Design 2 - Tension Members ---------------------------------------------------69-71
17.0 SEDC-Steel Design 3 - Simple Connections ------------------------------------------------72-74
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18.0 SEDC-Steel Design 4 - Eccentric Connections ---------------------------------------------75-76


19.0 SEDC-Steel Design 5 – Beams -----------------------------------------------------------------77-79
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20.0 SEDC-Steel Design 6 - Bearing Plates and Column Base Plates-----------------------80-81


21.0 SEDC-Steel Design 7 - Compression Members--------------------------------------------82-84
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22.0 SEDC-Steel Design 8 - Bi-axial Bending------------------------------------------------------85-86


23.0 SEDC-Timber Design-------------------------------------------------------------------------------87-88
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24.0 SEDC-Seismic Analysis----------------------------------------------------------------------------89-90


25.0 SEDC-Wind Loading Analysis------------------------------------------------------------------------91
26.0 SEDC-Prestressed Concrete Design-----------------------------------------------------------92-93
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27.0 SEDC-Foundation Design-------------------------------------------------------------------------94-96


28.0 SEDC-Construction--------------------------------------------------------------------------------97-100
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INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the 4. Compute the magnitude of the component of F
following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by directed along the axis of member AB.
shading the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on a. 963.38 lb c. 869.33 lb
the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES b. 636.40 lb d. 689.33 lb
ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 2 only.
5. Compute the magnitude of the component of F
Resultant of a Force System directed along the axis of member AC.
• Components and Resultant of Concurrent Force System a. 963.38 lb c. 869.33 lb
1. Two forces act on the hook. Determine the magnitude b. 636.40 lb d. 689.33 lb
of the resultant force.
Situation 3:
The vertical force F acts downward at A on the two
membered frame. Set F = 500 N

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a. 746.56 N c. 665.74 N
b. 756.64 N d. 656.74 N
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Situation 1:
From the figure shown below,
R

6. Determine the magnitude of the component of F


E

directed along the axis of AB.


a. 366.03 N c. 303.66 N
EL

b. 448.29 N d. 484.92 N

7. Determine the magnitude of the component of F


C

directed along the axis of AC.


a. 366.03 N c. 303.66 N
b. 448.29 N d. 484.92 N
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Situation 4:
2. Compute the magnitude of the resultant force F R.
The force acting on the gear tooth is F = 30 lb.
a. 11.98 N c. 19.18 N
R

b. 11.89 N d. 18.19 N

3. Compute the direction of the resultant force measured


counterclockwise from the positive x-axis.
a. 57.63° c. 157.63°
b. 357.63° d. 257.63°

Situation 2:
The force F = 450 lb acts on the frame.

8. Calculate the component of the force acting along the


line a-a.
a. 45.96 lb c. 30.64 lb
b. 26.95 lb d. 40.42 lb

9. Calculate the component of the force acting along the


line b-b.
a. 45.96 lb c. 30.64 lb
b. 26.95 lb d. 40.42 lb

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Situation 5: 14. If the resultant force of the two tugboats is 3 kN,


The plate is subjected to the two forces at A and B as directed along the positive x axis, determine the
shown in the figure: required magnitude of force FB.
a. 7.07 kN c. 1.61 kN
b. 4.07 kN d. 3.66 kN

15. If the resultant force of the two tugboats is 3 kN,


directed along the positive x axis, determine the
required direction 𝜃 of force FB.
a. 38.26° c. 42.76°
b. 35.08° d. 29.05°

16. If the resultant force of the two tugboats is required to


be directed towards the positive x axis, and F B is to be
a minimum, determine the magnitude of FR.
10. Determine the angle 𝜃 for connecting member A to the a. 2.12 kN c. 1.73 kN
plate so that the resultant force of FA and FB is directed b. 1.59 kN d. 2.67 kN
horizontally to the right.
a. 74.93° c. 54.93° • Resultant of Three or more Concurrent Forces

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b. 44.93° d. 64.93° 17. Determine the magnitude of the resultant force and its
direction 𝜃 measured counterclockwise from the

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11. Determine the magnitude of the resultant force. positive x axis.
a. 11.58 kN c. 10.40 kN
b. 9.51 kN d. 11.10 kN
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Situation 6:
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If the magnitude of the resultant force is to be 500 N,
directed along the positive y axis,
E
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a. 𝐹𝑅 = 31.24 𝑘𝑁; 𝜃 = 39.81°


C

b. 𝐹𝑅 = 39.81 𝑘𝑁; 𝜃 = 31.24°


c. 𝐹𝑅 = 38.19 𝑘𝑁; 𝜃 = 34.21°
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d. 𝐹𝑅 = 34.21 𝑘𝑁; 𝜃 = 38.18°

12. Determine the magnitude of the force F. Situation 8:


a. 840 N c. 777 N From the figure shown below,
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b. 960 N d. 667 N

13. And its direction 𝜃.


a. 45.21° c. 53.56°
b. 50.10° d. 40.39°

Situation 7:
A large vessel is being towed by two tugboats A and B.

18. Determine the magnitude of F1 so that the resultant


force is directed vertically upward and has a
magnitude of 800 N.
a. 297.04 N c. 247.09 N
b. 279.40 N d. 274.90 N

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19. Determine the direction 𝜃 of F1 so that the resultant Situation 11:


force is directed vertically upward and has a From the given pipe assembly as shown below,
magnitude of 800 N.
a. 29.10° c. 60.90°
b. 35.57° d. 54.43°

• Resultant of Concurrent, 3-D Force System


Situation 9:
From the figure shown below,

24. Calculate the magnitude of the resultant force F R.

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a. 680.0 lb c. 753.7 lb
b. 282.8 lb d. 160.0 lb

20. Express the force as a Cartesian vector in N. 25.


ie Calculate the coordinate direction angles of the
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a. 265.17𝑖 − 459.28𝑗 + 530.33𝑘 resultant force FR.
b. 265.17𝑖 + 459.28𝑗 + 530.33𝑘 a. 64.46°, 22.04°, 102.26°
c. 265.17𝑖 − 459.28𝑗 − 530.33𝑘 b. 25.54°, 67.96°, 77.74°
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d. 265.17𝑖 + 459.28𝑗 − 530.33𝑘 c. 154.46°, 22.04°, 12.26°
d. 25.54°, 67.96°, 102.26°
21. Determine the coordinate direction angles of the force.
E

a. 69.30°, 52.24°, 45° Situation 12:


b. 69.30°, 127.76°, 135° If the resultant force acting on the bracket is directed
EL

c. 69.30°, 52.24°, 135° along the positive y axis,


d. 69.30°, 127.76°, 45°
C

Situation 10:
Two forces act on the hook shown. The resultant force
FR acts along the positive y axis and has a magnitude of
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800 N.
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26. Determine the magnitude of the resultant force so that


22. Compute the magnitude of F2. 𝛽 < 90°.
a. 700 N c. 588 N a. 589.13 N c. 754.14 N
b. 600 N d. 905 N b. 276.14 N d. 145.86 N

23. Compute the coordinate direction angle of F2 with 27. Determine coordinate direction angles of F so that 𝛽 <
respect to x-axis. 90°.
a. 158.2° c. 21.8° a. 121.3°, 52.5°, 126.9°
b. 77.6° d. 107.6° b. 58.7°, 52.5°, 126.9°
c. 121.3°, 52.5°, 53.13°
d. 58.7°, 52.5°, 53.13°

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• Resultant of Parallel Force System 32. Determine the length “b” of the uniform load.
Situation 13: a. 4.5 ft c. 7.5 ft
The loading on the bookshelf is distributed as shown. b. 9 ft d. 3.75 ft

33. Determine the position “a” of the uniform load.


a. 8.5 ft c. 1.5 ft
b. 7.5 ft d. 9.75 ft

Situation 16:
The beam is loaded as shown.

28. Determine the magnitude of the equivalent resultant


force of the distributed loading.
a. 13.25 lb c. 5.25 lb
b. 8.00 lb d. 15.13 lb

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29. Determine its location measured from point O.

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a. 0.34 ft c. 3.09 ft
b. 2.41 ft d. 3.13 ft 34. Determine the magnitude of the resultant force.
a. 140 N c. 180 N
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Situation 14: b. 120 N d. 160 N
The beam is subjected to distributed loading as shown.
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35. Determine its location measured from A.


a. 3.20 m c. 2.80 m
E

b. 3.00 m d. 2.60 m
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Situation 17:
The beam is loaded as shown in the figure.
C
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30. Determine the magnitude of the equivalent resultant


force of the distributed loading.
a. 10.65 kips c. 4.80 kips
b. 13.50 kips d. 5.85 kips
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31. Determine its location measured from point B.


a. 0.48 ft c. 12.48 ft
b. 1.24 ft d. 0.26 ft

Situation 15: 36. Determine the magnitude of the resultant force.


The beam is subjected to the distributed loading. The a. 1.88 kips c. 0.625 kips
resultant force and couple moment acting about the b. 2.50 kips d. 1.25 kips
fixed support are required to be zero.
37. Determine its location measured from O.
a. 7.5 ft c. 4.5 ft
b. 3 ft d. 6 ft

• Resultant of Non-Concurrent Force System


Situation 18:
The wooden frame is subjected to coplanar forces as
shown below.

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Moment of a Force
• Moment of Force about a Point
43. Determine the moment of the force about point O.

a. 340 N-m c. 460 N-m


b. 160 N-m d. 445 N-m

38. Determine the magnitude of the resultant force. 44. Determine the moment of the force about point O.
Neglect the thickness of the member.
a. 352.05 N c. 356.09 N

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b. 401.07 N d. 392.32 N

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39. Determine where the resultant’s force line of action
intersects a vertical line along member AB, measured
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from A.
a. 3.318 m c. 0.318 m
b. 2.318 m d. 1.318 m
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40. Determine where the resultant’s force line of action


intersects a horizontal line along member CB,
E

measured from end C.


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a. 1.00 m c. 0.25 m
b. 1.50 m d. 1.75 m a. 16.25 N-m c. 11.25 N-m
b. 13.91 N-m d. 17.30 N-m
• Resultant of Parallel, 3-D Force System
C

Situation 19: 45. Determine the moment of the force about point O.
The building slab is subjected to four parallel column
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loadings. Take F1 = 8 kN and F2 = 9 kN


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a. 1,660.60 N-m c. 1,066.06 N-m


b. 1,606.06 N-m d. 1,060.66 N-m

Situation 20:
A force F having a magnitude of F = 100 N acts along
the diagonal of the parallelepiped.
41. Determine the location of the resultant force measured
from the x-axis.
a. 10.82 m c. 11.54 m
b. 11.31 m d. 20.87 m

42. Determine the location of the resultant force measured


from the y-axis.
a. 10.82 m c. 11.54 m
b. 11.31 m d. 20.87 m

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46. Express the force F as a Cartesian Vector (N) . a. 243.11 lb-ft c. 443.11 lb-ft
a. −53.45𝑖 + 80.18𝑗 − 26.73𝑘 b. 343.11 lb-ft d. 143.11 lb-ft
b. −53.45𝑖 − 80.18𝑗 + 26.73𝑘
c. 53.45𝑖 + 80.18𝑗 + 26.73𝑘 • Moment of Force about a Specified Axis
d. −53.45𝑖 + 80.18𝑗 + 26.73𝑘 Situation 22:
Three forces act at points A, B, and C as shown.
47. Determine the moment of F about point A (N-m).
a. −16.04𝑖 − 32.07𝑘
b. −16.04𝑗 + 32.07𝑘
c. −16.04𝑗 − 32.07𝑘
d. −16.04𝑖 + 32.07𝑘

Situation 21:
The pipe assembly is subjected to the 80-N force.

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51. Determine the resultant moment of the three forces
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about the x-axis.
a. 80 lb-ft c. 120 lb-ft
b. 230 lb-ft d. 220 lb-ft
E

52. Determine the resultant moment of the three forces


EL

about the y-axis.


48. Determine the moment of force F about point A (N-m).
a. 80 lb-ft c. 120 lb-ft
a. 10.61𝑖 + 13.09𝑗 + 29.19𝑘
b. 230 lb-ft d. 220 lb-ft
C

b. −5.39𝑖 + 13.09𝑗 − 11.38𝑘


c. −5.39𝑖 + 13.09𝑗 + 11.38𝑘
53. Determine the resultant moment of the three forces
d. 10.61𝑖 − 13.09𝑗 + 29.19𝑘
about the z-axis.
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a. 80 lb-ft c. 120 lb-ft


49. Determine the moment of force F about point B (N-m).
b. 230 lb-ft d. 220 lb-ft
a. 10.61𝑖 + 13.09𝑗 + 29.19𝑘
b. −5.39𝑖 + 13.09𝑗 − 11.38𝑘
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54. Determine the moment MAB produced by the force F.


c. −5.39𝑖 + 13.09𝑗 + 11.38𝑘
d. 10.61𝑖 − 13.09𝑗 + 29.19𝑘

50. Find the combined moment of the forces P and Q about


point O. The magnitudes of the forces are P = 80 lb and
Q = 60 lb.

a. 80.50 N-m c. 60.50 N-m


b. 70.50 N-m d. 30.50 N-m

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55. Determine the moment of this force F about an axis Equilibrium and Reactions
extending between A and C. Express the result as a • Equilibrium of Concurrent Force System
Cartesian vector (lb-ft). Situation 23:
A 60-kg cylinder is supported by cables BA and BC.

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a. 11.52𝑖 + 8.64𝑗 c. −11.52𝑖 + 8.64𝑗

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b. 11.52𝑖 − 8.64𝑘 d. −11.52𝑖 − 8.64𝑘 58. Determine the tension in cables BA.
a. 403.24 N c. 475.66 N
• Moment of a Couple
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b. 420.43 N d. 456.76 N
56. Determine the resultant couple moment of the three
couples acting on the plate. 59. Determine the tension in cables BC.
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a. 403.24 N c. 475.66 N
b. 420.43 N d. 456.76 N
E

60. Determine the magnitude and direction 𝜃 of F so that


the particle is in equilibrium.
EL
C
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a. 820 lb-ft c. 3,650 lb-ft


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b. 950 lb-ft d. 1,100 lb-ft

57. Determine the magnitude of the couple moment acting


on the gear.

a. 𝐹 = 3.69 𝑘𝑁, 𝜃 = 47.23°


b. 𝐹 = 4.96 𝑘𝑁, 𝜃 = 82.23°
c. 𝐹 = 3.96 𝑘𝑁, 𝜃 = 82.23°
d. 𝐹 = 4.69 𝑘𝑁, 𝜃 = 47.23°

61. If the mass of cylinder C is 40 kg, determine the mass


of cylinder A in order to hold the assembly in the
position shown.
a. 163.92 N-m c. 25.10 N-m
b. 43.92 N-m d. 81.96 N-m

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64. Determine the force P required to hold the 100-kg


weight in equilibrium.

a. 34.6 kg c. 30 kg
b. 20 kg d. 24.6 kg

62. The man attempts to pull down the tree using the cable
a. 22.22 kg c. 44.44 kg
and small pulley arrangement shown. If the tension in
b. 11.11 kg d. 33.33 kg
AB is 60 lb, determine the tension in cable CAD and the

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angle 𝜃 which the cable makes at the pulley.
• Equilibrium in Springs

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65. The spring has a stiffness of k = 800 N/m and an
unstretched length of 200 mm. Determine the force in
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cables BC and BD when the spring is held in the
position shown.
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E
EL
C

a. 𝑇 = 46.30 𝑙𝑏, 𝜃 = 30°


EO

b. 𝑇 = 30.46 𝑙𝑏, 𝜃 = 20°


c. 𝑇 = 46.30 𝑙𝑏, 𝜃 = 20°
d. 𝑇 = 30.46 𝑙𝑏, 𝜃 = 30°
a. 𝐹𝐵𝐶 = 171.4 𝑁, 𝐹𝐵𝐷 = 145.5 𝑁
• Equilibrium in Pulley System
R

b. 𝐹𝐵𝐶 = 145.5 𝑁, 𝐹𝐵𝐷 = 171.4 𝑁


63. Determine the force P required to hold the 100-lb
c. 𝐹𝐵𝐶 = 154.5 𝑁, 𝐹𝐵𝐷 = 174.1 𝑁
weight in equilibrium. d. 𝐹𝐵𝐶 = 174.1 𝑁, 𝐹𝐵𝐷 = 154.5 𝑁

66. Determine the mass of each of the two cylinders if they


cause a sag of s = 0.5 m when suspended from the
rings at A and B. Note that s = 0 when the cylinders are
removed.

a. 100 lb c. 12.5 lb
b. 50 lb d. 25 lb

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a. 46.45 kg c. 23.22 kg
b. 4.73 kg d. 2.37 kg

• Equilibrium in Three-Dimensional Force System


Situation 24:
A 900-kN load is supported by cables AB, AC, and AD.

71. Which of the following most nearly gives the reaction


at A if the weight of the plate is neglected?
a. 231.48 kN c. 833.33 kN
b. 208.33 kN d. 787.04 kN

72. Which of the following most nearly gives the reaction


at B if the weight of the plate is neglected?

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a. 208.33 kN c. 787.04 kN
67. Determine the tension developed in cable AB. b. 231.48 kN d. 833.33 kN
a.
b.
1,125 N
843.75 N
c.
d.
506.25 N
725.75 N 73.
ie Which of the following most nearly gives the reaction
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at C if the plate has a thickness of 12 mm and a unit
68. Determine the tension developed in cable AC. weight of 77 kN/m3?
a. 1,125 N c. 506.25 N a. 787.82 kN c. 209.12 kN
R

b. 843.75 N d. 725.75 N b. 834.12 kN d. 232.27 kN


E

69. Determine the tension developed in cable AD. 74. The uniform plate has a weight of 500 lb. Determine
a. 1,125 N c. 506.25 N the tension developed in cable C.
EL

b. 843.75 N d. 725.75 N

70. A tripod supports a load W as shown in the figure.


C

Determine the maximum load W that can be supported


by the tripod if each leg has a capacity of 15 kN.
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a. 200 lb c. 100 lb
b. 350 lb d. 250 lb

Analysis of Structures
• Method of Joints and Method of Section
Situation 26:
A roof truss is loaded as shown in the figure.

a. 24.00 kN c. 34.48 kN
b. 34.99 kN d. 36.00 kN

Situation 25:
The figure shows a 1.80-m diameter horizontal steel
plate supported by three posts at A, B, and C. A load P
= 1,250 kN is placed at a distance x = 0.50 m.

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75. Determine the force in member AH. 81. Compute the force in member CD.
a. 30.20 kN (T) c. 30.20 kN (C) a. 2.25 kips (T) c. 5.25 kips (C)
b. 22.99 kN (C) d. 22.99 kN (T) b. 5.25 kips (T) d. 2.25 kips (C)

76. Determine the force in member CD. 82. Compute the force in member GK.
a. 21.375 kN (T) c. 17.58 kN (T) a. 2.70 kips (T) c. 1.80 kips (T)
b. 17.58 kN (C) d. 21.375 kN (C) b. 2.70 kips (C) d. 1.80 kips (C)

77. Determine the force in member CG. 83. Compute the force in member GJ.
a. 7.50 kN (T) c. 8.11 kN (T) a. 1.00 kips (C) c. 0.50 kips (C)
b. 8.11 kN (C) d. 7.50 kN (C) b. 2.00 kips (T) d. 1.50 kips (T)

Situation 26: Situation 28:


The truss is loaded by a 4-kN and 5-kN force applied at A transmission tower is subjected to 1,200 lb and
B and A, respectively. 1,600 lb force at G and E, respectively.

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R

78. Compute the force in member AE.


E

a. 3.11 kN (C) c. 8.85 kN (C)


b. 3.11 kN (T) d. 8.85 kN (T)
EL

79. Compute the force in member CF.


a. 8.77 kN (T) c. 8.77 kN (C) 84. Determine the force in members DC.
C

b. 16.33 kN (T) d. 16.33 kN (C) a. 0.90 kips (T) c. 1.90 kips (T)
b. 0.90 kips (C) d. 1.90 kips (C)
80. Compute the force in member BF.
EO

a. 6.20 kN (C) c. 2.20 kN (T) 85. Determine the force in members HI.
b. 2.20 kN (C) d. 6.20 kN (T) a. 0.90 kips (T) c. 1.90 kips (T)
b. 0.90 kips (C) d. 1.90 kips (C)
Situation 27:
R

A K-truss supports the concentrated loads as shown. 86. Determine the force in members JI.
(Use P = 3,000 lb and Q = 1,000 lb) a. 0 kips c. 0.42 kips (T)
b. 2.10 kips (C) d. 0.42 kips (C)

• Method of Members
Situation 29:
A frame is used to support the 300-lb load applied as
shown in the figure,

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87. Determine the horizontal component of force at C 92. Compute the magnitude of the pin reaction at A.
which member ABC exerts on member CEF. a. 410.8 N c. 415.5 N
a. 300 lb c. 75 lb b. 400.0 N d. 93.75 N
b. 100 lb d. 37.5 lb
93. Compute the magnitude of the pin reaction at C.
88. Determine the vertical component of force at C which a. 93.75 N c. 400.0 N
member ABC exerts on member CEF. b. 415.5 N d. 410.8 N
a. 300 lb c. 75 lb
b. 100 lb d. 37.5 lb Cables
• Cables under Concentrated Loads
Situation 30: Situation 32:
The engine hoist is used to support the 200-kg A cable is subjected concentrated loads as shown in the
engine. figure.

w
ie
ev
R
E

94. Determine the tension in segment AB.


a. 39.17 lb c. 46.71 lb
89. Determine the force acting in the hydraulic cylinder
EL

b. 88.15 lb d. 82.99 lb
AB.
a. 2.17 kN c. 9.23 kN 95. Determine the tension in segment BC.
b. 7.01 kN d. 8.97 kN a. 46.71 lb c. 82.99 lb
C

b. 39.17 lb d. 88.15 lb
90. Determine the horizontal component of force at the
pin C.
EO

96. Determine the tension in segment CD.


a. 9.23 kN c. 8.97 kN a. 82.99 lb c. 88.15 lb
b. 2.17 kN d. 7.01 kN b. 46.71 lb d. 39.17 lb
R

91. Determine the vertical component of force at the pin C. 97. Determine the cable’s total length.
a. 2.17 kN c. 8.97 kN a. 20.16 ft c. 22.68 ft
b. 9.23 kN d. 7.01 kN b. 19.08 ft d. 21.19 ft

Situation 31: Situation 33:


A folding table is subjected to a uniformly distributed A cable is subjected concentrated loads as shown in the
load as shown. Neglecting friction and the weights of figure.
the members,

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98. Determine the tension in segment AB. • Catenary Cable


a. 10.20 kN c. 11.84 kN Situation 36:
b. 9.44 kN d. 13.57 kN The span L and the sag H of the cable AB are 100 m and
10 m, respectively. If the cable weighs 50 N/m,
99. Determine the tension in segment CD.
a. 10.20 kN c. 11.84 kN
b. 9.44 kN d. 13.57 kN

100. Compute the sag yB.


a. 5.68 m c. 8.84 m
b. 6.32 m d. 3.16 m

• Parabolic Cable 107. Determine the maximum tension in the cable.


Situation 34: a. 6.33 kN c. 2.57 kN
The cable is subjected to a uniform loading of b. 6.83 kN d. 3.86 kN
w = 250 N/m.
108. Determine the minimum tension in the cable.
a. 6.33 kN c. 2.57 kN
b. 6.83 kN d. 3.86 kN

w
109. Determine the total length of the cable.
a. 100.26 m c. 102.62 m

ie b. 103.89 m d. 101.98 m
ev
Situation 37:
101. Determine the maximum tension in the cable. A cable is supported at A and B, where B is 10 m higher
R
a. 14.44 kN c. 13.02 kN than A. The cable weighs 50 N/m and the lowest point
b. 6.25 kN d. 12.50 kN is observed to be 5 m lower than A and 20 m
horizontally from A.
E

102. Determine the minimum tension in the cable.


a. 12.50 kN c. 6.25 kN
EL

b. 13.02 kN d. 14.44 kN

103. Determine the total length of the cable.


C

a. 50.86 m c. 51.86 m
b. 50.42 m d. 51.42 m
EO

Situation 35:
The cable supports a girder which weighs 850 lb/ft.
R

110. Determine the horizontal component of the tension at


any point.
a. 1.90 kN c. 2.29 kN
b. 2.79 kN d. 2.04 kN

111. Determine the tension at B.


a. 1.90 kN c. 2.79 kN
b. 2.04 kN d. 2.29 kN

112. Determine the total length of the cable.


104. Determine the minimum tension in the cable. a. 58.88 m c. 57.77 m
a. 49.79 kips c. 36.46 kips b. 58.79 m d. 57.23 m
b. 61.71 kips d. 50.68 kips
Friction
105. Determine the reaction at support A. • Dry Friction
a. 49.79 kips c. 36.46 kips Situation 38:
b. 61.71 kips d. 50.68 kips The uniform 10-kg ladder in the figure rests against
the smooth wall at B, and the end A rests on the rough
106. Determine the total length of the cable. horizontal plane for which the coefficient of static
a. 118.72 ft c. 120.72 ft friction is 𝜇𝑠 = 0.3.
b. 122.93 ft d. 116.93 ft

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118. Determine the frictional force developed between the


crate and the ground if P = 200 N.
a. 120.0 N c. 130.1 N
b. 195.15 N d. 200.0 N
113. Determine the angle of inclination 𝜃 of the ladder if the
ladder is on the verge of slipping. 119. Determine the frictional force developed between the
a. 59.04° c. 16.70° crate and the ground if P = 450 N.
b. 30.96° d. 73.30° a. 170.1 N c. 270.0 N
b. 255.15 N d. 195.15 N

w
114. Determine the normal reaction at B.
a. 58.86 N c. 29.43 N 120. Blocks A, B, and C have weights of 50 N, 25 N, and 15

ie
b. 49.05 N d. 98.10 N N, respectively. Determine the smallest horizontal
force P that will cause impending motion. The
ev
Situation 39: coefficient of static friction between A and B is 𝜇𝑠 =
A box weighing 100 N is subjected to a horizontal force 0.3, between B and C, 𝜇𝑠 = 0.4, and between block C
P as shown in the figure. The coefficients of static and and the ground, 𝜇𝑠 = 0.35.
R
kinetic friction between the box and the ground are
𝜇𝑠 = 0.4 and 𝜇𝑘 = 0.2.
E
EL
C
EO

a. 61.5 N c. 45.0 N
b. 15.0 N d. 46.5 N
115. Determine the force P needed to cause impending Situation 41:
R

motion of the block. The crate has a mass of 50 kg and the coefficients of
a. 40 N c. 20 N static and kinetic friction between the crate and the
b. 30 N d. 60 N ground is 𝜇𝑠 = 0.25 and 𝜇𝑘 = 0.20.
116. If P = 30 N, determine the frictional force developed
between the box and the ground.
a. 30 N c. 60 N
b. 40 N d. 20 N

117. If P = 50 N, determine the frictional force developed


between the box and the ground.
a. 20 N c. 40 N
b. 30 N d. 60 N
121. Determine the minimum horizontal force P required to
Situation 40: hold the crate from sliding down the plane.
A 50-kg crate is subjected to an inclined force P as a. 431.07 N c. 165.93 N
shown in the figure. The coefficients of static and b. 474.27 N d. 140.31 N
kinetic friction between the crate and the ground are
𝜇𝑠 = 0.3 and 𝜇𝑘 = 0.2. 122. Determine the minimum value of force P required to
push the crate up the plane.
a. 474.27 N c. 140.31 N
b. 431.07 N d. 165.93 N

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123. Determine the minimum value of force P required to • Belt Friction


keep it moving up the plane. 127. The maximum tension that can be developed in the
a. 140.31 N c. 165.93 N cord shown in the figure is 500 N. If the pulley at A is
b. 431.07 N d. 474.27 N free to rotate and the coefficient of static friction at the
fixed drums B and C is 𝜇𝑠 = 0.25, determine the
124. A uniform 50-kg plank is resting on friction surfaces at largest mass of the cylinder that can be lifted by the
A and B. The coefficients of static friction are shown in cord.
the figure. If an 80-kg man starts walking from A
toward B, determine the distance x when the plank will
start to slide.

a. 28.28 kg c. 165.55 kg
b. 95.86 kg d. 15.69 kg

w
a. 1.14 m c. 3.14 m
b. 2.14 m d. 4.14 m 128. A force of P = 25 N is just sufficient to prevent the 20-

• Wedges
iekg cylinder from descending. Determine the required
force P to begin lifting the cylinder. The rope passes
ev
125. The two 200-kg blocks are pushed apart by the 15° over a rough peg with two and half turns.
wedge of negligible weight. The angle of static friction
is 12° at all contact surfaces. Determine the force P
R

required to start the blocks moving.


E
EL
C
EO

a. 476.60 N c. 2,249.45 N a. 1,539.78 N c. 196.20 N


R

b. 524.90 N d. 1,962.00 N b. 3.19 N d. 25.00 N

126. Determine the smallest force P needed to lift the 3000- 129. A cable is attached to the 20-kg plate B, passes over a
lb load. The coefficient of static friction between A and fixed peg at C, and is attached to the block at A. Using
C and between B and D is 𝜇𝑠 = 0.3, and between A and the coefficients of static friction shown, determine the
B is 𝜇𝑠 = 0.4. Neglect the weight of each wedge. smallest mass of block A so that it will prevent sliding
motion of B down the plane.

a. 4,054.36 lb c. 3,868.17 lb
a. 3.84 kg c. 2.22 kg
b. 4,485.37 lb d. 2,893.91 lb
b. 19.25 kg d. 1.93 kg

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Centroids, Center of Gravity, and Moment of Inertia • Moment of Inertia, Parallel-Axis Theorem, and Radius of
• Centroid and Center of Gravity Gyration
Situation 42: Situation 43:
The composite figure has the dimension shown. The composite figure has the dimension shown.
Dimensions are in millimeter. Dimensions are in millimeter.

130. Determine the location 𝑥̅ of the centroid of the area


134. Calculate the moment of inertia with respect to its

w
from the reference y-axis.
centroidal x-axis.
a. 66.60 mm c. 46.60 mm
7.74𝑥106 𝑚𝑚4 c. 3.81𝑥106 𝑚𝑚4

ie
a.
b. 56.60 mm d. 36.60 mm 6 4
b. 23.61𝑥10 𝑚𝑚 d. 55.38𝑥106 𝑚𝑚4
ev
131. Determine the location 𝑦̅ of the centroid of the area
135. Calculate the moment of inertia with respect to its
from the reference x-axis.
centroidal y-axis.
a. 338.44 mm c. 308.44 mm
R
a. 7.74𝑥106 𝑚𝑚4 c. 3.81𝑥106 𝑚𝑚4
b. 328.44 mm d. 358.44 mm 6 4
b. 23.61𝑥10 𝑚𝑚 d. 55.38𝑥106 𝑚𝑚4
132. Locate the centroid (𝑥̅ , 𝑦̅) of the shaded area.
E

136. Calculate the moment of inertia about the x-axis.


a. 7.74𝑥106 𝑚𝑚4 c. 3.81𝑥106 𝑚𝑚4
EL

b. 23.61𝑥106 𝑚𝑚4 d. 55.38𝑥106 𝑚𝑚4

137. Calculate the moment of inertia about the y-axis.


C

a. 7.74𝑥106 𝑚𝑚4 c. 3.81𝑥106 𝑚𝑚4


6 4
b. 23.61𝑥10 𝑚𝑚 d. 55.38𝑥106 𝑚𝑚4
EO

138. Calculate the radius of gyration about the x-axis.


a. 60.62 mm c. 34.72 mm
b. 24.36 mm d. 92.84 mm
R

139. Calculate the radius of gyration about the y-axis.


a. (1.18, 1.39) c. (-1.18, 1.39)
a. 60.62 mm c. 34.72 mm
b. (1.39, 1.18) d. (-1.39, 1.18)
b. 24.36 mm d. 92.84 mm
133. Determine the location 𝑦̅ of the centroid C of the beam
having the cross-sectional area shown. 140. The centroid of the plane region is located at C. If the
area of the region is 2000 mm2 and its moment of
inertia about the x-axis is Ix = 40 × 106 mm4,
determine Iu.

a. 46.40𝑥106 𝑚𝑚4 c. 23.80𝑥106 𝑚𝑚4


b. 91.20𝑥106 𝑚𝑚4 d. 33.60𝑥106 𝑚𝑚4
a. 79.69 mm c. 85.75 mm
b. 90.00 mm d. 83.16 mm

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141. Determine the moment of inertia of the cross-sectional 142. Determine the location 𝑦̅ of the centroid of the area
area of the T-beam with respect to its centroidal x-axis. from the reference x-axis.
a. 9.04 in. c. 8.49 in.
b. 5.20 in. d. 10.77 in.

143. Determine the moment of inertia with respect to its


centroidal x-axis.
a. 407.30 in4 c. 542.32 in4
b. 342.27 in4 d. 477.29 in4

144. Determine the moment of inertia with respect to its


centroidal y-axis.
a. 90.60 in4 c. 225.62 in4
a. 27.0𝑥106 𝑚𝑚4 c. 37.0𝑥106 𝑚𝑚4 b. 25.57 in 4 d. 160.59 in4
b. 8.78𝑥106 𝑚𝑚4 d. 7.88𝑥106 𝑚𝑚4

Situation 44: END OF HANDOUT


A W14 × 34 section is joined to a C10 × 15.3 section to
form a structural member that has the cross section
shown. The American Institute of Steel Construction
“Stay positive,

w
Structural Steel Handbook lists the following cross-
sectional properties:
Work hard,
For W14 x 34 For C10 x 15.3
ie Make it happen.”
ev
A = 10 in2 A = 4.48 in2
𝐼 𝑥̅ = 340 in4 𝐼 𝑥̅ = 67.3 in4
R
𝐼 𝑦=̅ 23.3 in4 𝐼𝑦 ̅ = 2.27 in4
x = 0.634 in
E
EL
C
EO
R

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INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the 9. What is the total distance traveled by car A to overtake
following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by car B?
shading the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on a. 29.17 mi c. 37.50 mi
the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES b. 33.33 mi d. 41.67 mi
ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 2 only.
10. Car B is traveling a distance d ahead of car A. Both
Kinematics of Rectilinear Translation cars are traveling at 60 ft/s when the driver of B
• Rectilinear Motion with Constant Acceleration suddenly applies the brakes, causing his car to
Situation 1: decelerate at 12 ft/s2. It takes the driver of car A 0.75
A truck traveling along a straight road at speed of 20 seconds to react (this is the normal reaction time for
kph, increases its speed to 120 kph in 15 sec. drivers). When he applies his brakes, he decelerates at
15 ft/s2. Determine the minimum distance d between
1. What is the constant acceleration? the cars so as to avoid a collision.
a. 3.33 m/s2 c. 1.85 m/s2 a. 15.0 ft c. 16.9 ft
b. 3.70 m/s 2 d. 6.67 m/s2 b. 20.3 ft d. 12.1 ft
2. Determine the total distance travelled. • Free Falling Bodies, Air Resistance Neglected
a. 833.33 m c. 291.67 m Situation 5:
b. 500.00 m d. 458.33 m A stone is thrown vertically upward and returns to

w
earth in 12 seconds.
Situation 2:
An automobile starting from rest speeds up to 40

ie
11. Calculate the initial velocity.
meters per second with a constant acceleration of 4 a. 58.86 m/s c. 62.64 m/s
m/s2, runs at this speed for a time, and finally comes to
ev
b. 49.05 m/s d. 54.92 m/s
rest with deceleration of 5 m/s2. If the total distance
travelled is 1000 meters. 12. Determine the maximum height reached by the stone.
R
a. 135.48 m c. 122.63 m
3. Find the distance covered during the acceleration. b. 160.38 m d. 176.58 m
a. 300 m c. 100 m
E

b. 200 m d. 400 m 13. At what time did it travel until it reaches the highest
point?
EL

4. Find the distance traveled at constant speed. a. 7 sec c. 8 sec


a. 240 m c. 640 m b. 5 sec d. 6 sec
b. 360 m d. 160 m
C

Situation 6:
5. Find the total time of travel. A stone is projected vertically upward from the top of
a. 40 sec c. 34 sec a 120-m high tower at a velocity of 36 m/s.
EO

b. 42 sec d. 36 sec
14. Determine the maximum height attained by the stone
Situation 3: measured from the ground.
An automobile is driven at 30 mph for 12 min, then at a. 164.930 m c. 186.055 m
R

40 mph for 20 min, and finally at 50 mph for 8 min. b. 44.930 m d. 66.055 m
6. Calculate the average speed over the interval. 15. How long will it take the stone to reach the top?
a. 37 mph c. 40 mph a. 11.581 sec c. 3.670 sec
b. 39 mph d. 38 mph b. 9.512 sec d. 9.829 sec
7. How fast must the automobile move in the last 8 min 16. How long will it take the stone to reach the ground?
to obtain an average speed of 35 mph? a. 9.512 sec c. 11.581 sec
a. 20 mph c. 15 mph b. 9.829 sec d. 3.670 sec
b. 17 mph d. 12 mph
17. With what velocity will it hit the ground?
Situation 4: a. 60.419 m/s c. 53.561 m/s
Car A at a gasoline station stays there for 10 minutes b. 50.108 m/s d. 40.397 m/s
after a car B passes at an average speed of 40 mph.
Situation 7:
8. How long will it take car A moving at an average speed A ball is dropped from the top of a tower 80 ft high at
of 50 mph to overtake car B? the same instant that a second ball is thrown upward
a. 35 min c. 45 min from the ground with an initial velocity of 40 ft/s.
b. 40 min d. 50 min

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18. Determine the time elapsed when the two ball pass
each other.
a. 0.5 sec c. 2 sec
b. 1 sec d. 1.75 sec

19. How high are the two balls from the ground when they
pass each other?
a. 16.0 ft c. 15.6 ft
b. 23.9 ft d. 20.7 ft

• Rectilinear Motion with Variable Acceleration


Situation 8:
A car moves in a straight line such that for a short time 28. Determine the time t’ needed to stop the car.
its velocity is defined by 𝑣 = (3𝑡 2 + 2𝑡) m/s, where t a. 60 sec c. 40 sec
is in seconds. b. 50 sec d. 30 sec

20. Determine the distance travelled when t = 3 sec. 29. How far has the car travelled?
a. 30 m c. 36 m a. 3,000 m c. 2,000 m
b. 39 m d. 33 m b. 2,500 m d. 1,500 m

w
21. Determine the acceleration when t = 3 sec. Situation 11:
A car accelerates from initial velocity of 10 m/s. The

ie
a. 25 m/s2 c. 15 m/s2
b. 20 m/s2 d. 10 m/s2 acceleration is increasing uniformly from zero to 8
m/s2 in 6 seconds. During the next 2 seconds, the car
ev
Situation 9: decelerates at a constant rate of 2 m/s2.
The position of a particle along a straight-line path is
R
defined by 𝑠 = (𝑡 3 − 6𝑡 2 − 15𝑡 + 7) ft, where t is in 30. Determine the velocity after 8 seconds.
seconds. a. 30 m/s c. 20 m/s
b. 34 m/s d. 24 m/s
E

22. Determine the particle’s instantaneous velocity when


t = 10 sec. 31. Determine the distance traveled after 8 seconds.
EL

a. 225 ft/s c. 135 ft/s a. 128 m c. 165 m


b. 105 ft/s d. 165 ft/s b. 140 m d. 172 m
C

23. Determine the particle’s acceleration when t = 10 sec. Situation 12:


a. 46 ft/s2 c. 48 ft/s2 The a-t curve for a particle having rectilinear motion is
b. 52 ft/s 2 d. 50 ft/s2 shown in the figure. At t = 0, the velocity is 8 ft/s and
EO

the particle is 60 ft to the left of the origin of


24. Calculate the particle’s displacement when t = 10 sec. displacement.
a. 250 ft c. 450 ft
b. 257 ft d. 457 ft
R

25. Determine the particle’s total distance travelled when


t = 10 sec.
a. 450 ft c. 250 ft
b. 457 ft d. 257 ft

26. Calculate the particle’s average speed when t = 10 sec.


a. 45.0 ft/s c. 25.7 ft/s
b. 25.0 ft/s d. 45.7 ft/s

27. Calculate particle’s average velocity when t = 10 sec. 32. Determine the velocity when t = 4 sec.
a. 25.7 ft/s c. 45.7 ft/s a. 20 ft/s c. 30 ft/s
b. 45.0 ft/s d. 25.0 ft/s b. 12 ft/s d. 38 ft/s

• Motion Curves 33. Determine the displacement when t = 7 sec.


Situation 10: a. 75 ft c. 66 ft
The car starts from rest and travels along a straight b. 48 ft d. 37 ft
track such that it accelerates at 10 m/s2 for 10 seconds,
and then decelerates at 2 m/s2. 34. Determine the displacement when t = 13 sec.
a. 141 ft c. 138 ft
b. 166 ft d. 129 ft

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Kinematics of Curvilinear Translation a. 76.45 m c. 31.18 m


• Projectile Motion, Air Resistance Neglected b. 61.16 m d. 45.87 m
Situation 13:
A projectile is fired from the edge of a 150-m cliff with • Tangential and Normal Components of Acceleration
an initial velocity of 180 m/s at an angle of 30° with the Situation 14:
horizontal. Neglect air resistance. The boat is traveling along the circular path with a
speed of 𝑣 = (0.0625𝑡 2 ) m/s, where t is in seconds.

35. Find the horizontal distance from the gun to the point
where the projectile strikes the ground. 40. Determine the tangential acceleration when t = 10 s.
a. 2,606 m c. 2,835 m a. 0.98 m/s2 c. 1.59 m/s2
b. 3,441 m d. 3,100 m

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b. 1.25 m/s2 d. 0.87 m/s2
36. Determine the total time of flight.

ie
41. Determine the normal acceleration when t = 10 s.
a. 18.19 sec c. 22.08 sec a. 1.25 m/s2 c. 0.87 m/s2
b. 19.89 sec d. 16.72 sec b. 0.98 m/s d. 1.59 m/s2
ev
2

37. Determine the greatest elevation above the ground 42. Determine the magnitude of its acceleration when t =
reached by the projectile.
R
10 s.
a. 448.12 m c. 412.84 m a. 0.87 m/s2 c. 1.59 m/s2
b. 652.48 m d. 562.84 m b. 1.25 m/s 2 d. 0.98 m/s2
E

38. An airplane used to drop water on brushfires is flying Situation 15:


EL

horizontally in a straight line at 180 mi/h at an altitude The automobile has a speed of 80 ft/s at point A and an
of 300 ft. Determine the distance d at which the pilot acceleration having a magnitude of 10 ft/s2, acting in
should release the water so that it will hit the fire at B. the direction shown.
C
EO
R

a. 740 ft c. 1,140 ft
b. 1,340 ft d. 940 ft
43. Determine the radius of curvature of the path at point
39. Water is sprayed at an angle of 90° from the slope at A.
20 m/s. Determine the range R. a. 739 ft c. 1,280 ft
b. 1,626 ft d. 915 ft

44. Determine the tangential component of acceleration.


a. 5.77 ft/s2 c. 8.66 ft/s2
b. 11.55 ft/s 2 d. 5.00 ft/s2

Situation 16:
The racing car shown in the figure is traveling at 90
km/h when it enters the semicircular curve at A. The
driver increases the speed at a uniform rate, emerging
from the curve at C at 144 km/h.

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45. Determine the tangential acceleration when the car is a. 21 ft/s up c. 60 ft/s down
at B. b. 24 ft/s up d. 48 ft/s down
a. 1.65 m/s2 c. 1.55 m/s2
b. 11.23 m/s 2 d. 11.13 m/s2 51. In the pulley configuration shown, cylinder A has a
downward velocity of 0.3 m/s. Determine the velocity
46. Determine the normal acceleration when the car is at of B.

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B.
a. 11.23 m/s2 c. 11.13 m/s2

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b. 1.55 m/s 2 d. 1.65 m/s2 ev
47. Determine the magnitude of the acceleration when the
car is at B.
a. 1.55 m/s2 c. 11.13 m/s2
R
b. 1.65 m/s2 d. 11.23 m/s2

Situation 17:
E

The automobile is originally at rest at s = 0. The


tangential acceleration can be expressed as 𝑎𝑡 =
EL

(0.05𝑡 2 ) ft/s2, where t is in seconds.


a. 0.20 m/s down c. 0.45 m/s down
b. 0.20 m/s up d. 0.45 m/s up
C

Situation 18:
Block B is pulled downward at 4 ft/s and the speed is
EO

decreasing at 2 ft/s2.
R

48. Determine the magnitude of its velocity at s = 550 ft.


a. 80.56 ft/s c. 90.32 ft/s
b. 235.24 ft/s d. 115.42 ft/s

49. Determine the magnitude of its acceleration at s = 550


ft.
a. 7.42 ft/s2 c. 18.17 ft/s2
b. 58.40 ft/s 2 d. 34.79 ft/s2

Kinematics of Particle Systems


• Absolute Dependent Motion Analysis
50. If block A of the pulley system is moving downward at
6 ft/s while block C is moving down at 18 ft/s, 52. Determine the velocity of block A at that instant.
determine the velocity of block B. a. 1 ft/s up c. 2 ft/s down
b. 1 ft/s down d. 2 ft/s up

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53. Determine the acceleration of block A at that instant.


a. 0.5 ft/s2 c. 2.5 ft/s2
b. 2.0 ft/s 2 d. 1.0 ft/s2

• Relative Motion
54. Two planes, A and B, are flying at the same altitude. If
their velocities are 𝑣𝐴 = 500 𝑘𝑝ℎ and 𝑣𝐵 = 700 𝑘𝑝ℎ
such that the angle between their straight-line courses
is θ = 60°, determine the velocity of plane B with
respect to plane A.
a. 103.9 km/h c. 30.0 km/h
b. 34.6 km/h d. 52.0 km/h

Kinematics of Rotation
• Rotation with Constant Angular Acceleration
Situation 20:
A wheel has an initial clockwise angular velocity of 10
rad/s and a constant angular acceleration of 3 rad/s2.

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58. Determine the number of revolutions it must undergo
to acquire a clockwise angular velocity of 15 rad/s.

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a. 3.316 rev c. 20.833 rev
b. 2.301 rev d. 14.458 rev
ev
59. What time is required to acquire a clockwise angular
a. 606 kph c. 1,200 kph velocity of 15 rad/s?
R

b. 1,044 kph d. 850 kph a. 1.67 sec c. 2.00 sec


b. 1.33 sec d. 1.00 sec
E

Situation 19:
At the instant shown, the car at A is traveling at 10 m/s Situation 21:
EL

around the curve while increasing its speed at 5 m/s2. The disk is originally rotating at 𝜔𝑜 = 12 𝑟𝑎𝑑/𝑠.
The car at B is traveling at 18.5 m/s along the If it is subjected to a constant angular acceleration of
straightaway and increasing its speed at 2 m/s2. 𝛼 = 20 𝑟𝑎𝑑/𝑠 2,
C
EO
R

60. Determine the magnitude of the velocity of point A at


the instant t =2 s.
a. 48.0 m/s c. 26.0 m/s
b. 24.0 m/s d. 52.0 m/s
55. Determine the relative velocity of A with respect to B
at this instant. 61. Determine the magnitude of the tangential component
a. 13.44 m/s c. 16.67 m/s of acceleration of point A at the instant t =2 s.
b. 11.43 m/s d. 7.07 m/s a. 81.9 m/s2 c. 163.2 m/s2
b. 10.0 m/s 2 d. 1,352.0 m/s2
56. Determine the relative acceleration of A with respect
to B at this instant. 62. Determine the magnitude of the normal component of
a. 4.32 m/s2 c. 0.83 m/s2 acceleration of point A at the instant t =2 s.
b. 4.24 m/s 2 d. 3.85 m/s2 a. 163.2 m/s2 c. 10.0 m/s2
b. 1,352.0 m/s2 d. 81.9 m/s2
57. A passenger in an automobile observes that raindrops
make an angle of 30° with the horizontal as the auto 63. Determine the magnitude of the velocity of point B
travels forward with a speed of 60 km/h. Compute the when the disk undergoes 2 revolutions.
terminal (constant) velocity 𝑣𝑟 of the rain if it is a. 25.43 m/s c. 47.66 m/s
assumed to fall vertically. b. 10.17 m/s d. 16.76 m/s

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64. When the angular velocity of a 4-ft diameter pulley is Kinetics of a Particle: Force and Acceleration
3 rad/s, the total acceleration of a point on its rim is 30 • Kinetics of Rectilinear Translation
ft/s2. Determine the angular acceleration of the pulley Situation 25:
at this instant. The 300-N block A in the figure is at rest on the
a. 6.0 rad/s2 c. 15.0 rad/s2 horizontal plane when the force P is applied at t = 0.
b. 7.5 rad/s2 d. 12.0 rad/s2 The coefficient kinetic friction is 0.2.

• Rotation with Variable Angular Acceleration


Situation 22:
A body rotates according to the relation 𝛼 = 3𝑡 2 + 4,
displacement being measured in radians and time in
seconds. If its initial velocity is 4 rad/s and the initial
angular displacement is zero,
72. Find the acceleration of the block.
65. Compute the angular velocity for the instant when t = a. 1.856 m/s2 c. 3.048 m/s2
3 sec. b. 2.161 m/s 2 d. 3.702 m/s2
a. 35 rad/s c. 43 rad/s
b. 31 rad/s d. 39 rad/s 73. Find the velocity of the block when t = 5 seconds.
a. 9.28 m/s c. 18.51 m/s
b. 10.81 m/s d. 15.24 m/s

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66. Compute the angular displacement for the instant
when t = 3 sec.
74. Find the displacement of the block when t = 5 seconds.

ie
a. 38.25 rad c. 32.58 rad
b. 50.25 rad d. 25.05 rad a. 27.0 m c. 23.2 m
b. 38.1 m d. 46.3 m
ev
Situation 23:
75. A car is traveling at 100 km/h along a straight, level
The rotation of a pulley is defined by the relation 𝜃 =
road when its brakes become locked. Determine the
R
2𝑡 4 − 30𝑡 2 + 6, where 𝜃 is measured in radians and t
stopping distance of the car knowing that the
in seconds.
coefficient of kinetic friction between the tires and the
E

road is 0.65.
67. Compute the value of angular velocity at the instant
a. 117.05 m c. 33.1 m
when t = 4 sec.
EL

a. 256 rad/s c. 264 rad/s b. 83.4 m d. 60.5 m


b. 240 rad/s d. 272 rad/s
76. Determine the acceleration of the blocks when the
C

system is released. The coefficient of kinetic friction is


68. Compute the value of angular acceleration at the
0.25, and the mass of block A is 50 kg while the mass
instant when t = 4 sec.
of block B is 25 kg. Neglect the mass of the pulleys and
a. 347 rad/s2 c. 324 rad/s2
EO

b. 338 rad/s2 d. 312 rad/s2 cord.

Situation 24:
The angular acceleration of a pulley which will rotate
R

from rest is increased uniformly from zero to 12 rad/s2


for 4 seconds, and then uniformly decreased to 4
rad/s2 during the next 3 seconds.

69. Determine the angular velocity at the end of 4 seconds.


a. 7.52 m/s2 c. 5.72 m/s2
a. 18 rad/s c. 24 rad/s
b. 2.67 m/s2 d. 6.27 m/s2
b. 15 rad/s d. 21 rad/s
77. If the mass of block A is twice the mass of block B, find
70. Determine the angular displacement at the end of 4
the acceleration of A. Neglect the masses of the pulleys.
seconds.
a. 23 rad c. 46 rad
b. 32 rad d. 64 rad

71. Determine the angular displacement at the end of 7


seconds.
a. 146 rad c. 114 rad
b. 152 rad d. 134 rad

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a. 8.41 m/s2 c. 4.20 m/s2 • Kinetics of Curvilinear Translation


b. 6.54 m/s2 d. 3.27 m/s2 Situation 28:
A bob of weight W = 100 lb is moving with a constant
Situation 26: velocity of v = 8.03 ft/s in a horizontal plane at the end
Figure shows a system consisting of three blocks of the chord of length L = 18 in. The string generates a
connected by an inextensible cable that runs around cone while in motion, thus the system is called a
four pulleys. The masses of blocks A, B, and C are 60 conical pendulum.
kg, 80 kg, and 20 kg, respectively. Neglect the mass of
the pulleys and cord.

w
83. Determine its inclination 𝜃 with respect to the vertical.
a. 37.67° c. 57.67°

ie
b. 47.67° d. 67.67°
ev
78. Find the acceleration of block A. 84. Determine the tension in the supporting cord.
a. 0 m/s2 c. 4.91 m/s2 a. 187 lb c. 202 lb
b. 2.45 m/s2 d. 3.68 m/s2 b. 133 lb d. 289 lb
R

79. Find the acceleration of block B. 85. Determine the time required to complete one
E

a. 2.45 m/s2 c. 4.91 m/s2 revolution.


b. 3.68 m/s2 d. 0 m/s2 a. 0.992 sec c. 1.103 sec
EL

b. 1.157 sec d. 2.116 sec


80. Find the acceleration of block C.
a. 3.68 m/s2 c. 4.91 m/s2 86. A weight concentrated at the end of a cord forms a
C

b. 0 m/s2 d. 2.45 m/s2 conical pendulum for which the period is 1 sec.
Determine the velocity v of the weight if the cord
Situation 27: rotates inclined at 30° with the vertical.
EO

The 125-kg concrete block A is released from rest in a. 0.109 m/s c. 1.901 m/s
the position shown and pulls the 200-kg log B up the b. 1.109 m/s d. 0.901 m/s
30° ramp. The coefficient of kinetic friction between
the log and the ramp is 0.5. 87. A “swing ride” is shown in the figure. Calculate the
R

necessary angular velocity 𝜔 for the swings to assume


an angle 𝜃 = 35° with the vertical. Neglect the mass of
the cables and treat the chair and person as one
particle.

81. Determine the acceleration of block A.


a. 1.78 m/s2 c. 1.52 m/s2
b. 0.89 m/s2 d. 0.76 m/s2

82. Determine the velocity of log B when block A hits the


ground.
a. 2.30 m/s c. 4.61 m/s a. 6.465 rad/s c. 2.338 rad/s
b. 3.26 m/s d. 1.85 m/s b. 1.064 rad/s d. 0.651 rad/s

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88. The flatbed railway car travels at the constant speed of


60 km/h around a curve of radius 55 m and bank angle
15°. Determine the smallest coefficient of static
friction between the crate and the car that would
prevent the crate of mass M from sliding.

a. 0.85 m c. 0.93 m
b. 1.35 m d. 1.25 m

Situation 30:
The coefficient of kinetic friction between the box and
the surface is 0.3. The box is released from rest at A.

a. 0.315 c. 0.221
b. 0.217 d. 0.257

w
Situation 29:
A sports car, having a mass of 1,700 kg, travels
horizontally along a 20° banked track which is circular
and has a radius of curvature of 100 m. The coefficient
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ev
93. Compute the velocity of the box when it reaches B.
of static friction between the tires and the road is 0.20. a. 8.54 m/s c. 5.84 m/s
b. 8.45 m/s d. 4.85 m/s
89. Determine the maximum constant speed at which the
R

car can travel without slipping up the slope. 94. Compute the velocity of the box at C if the distance
a. 24.43 m/s c. 18.38 m/s between B and C is 3m.
E

b. 21.17 m/s d. 22.70 m/s a. 2.43 m/s c. 0.43 m/s


b. 4.43 m/s d. 1.43 m/s
EL

90. Determine the minimum constant speed at which the


car can travel around the track without sliding down 95. Compute the total distance travelled by the box if it
the slope. stops at D.
C

a. 13.17 m/s c. 12.25 m/s a. 10.0032 m c. 11.0032 m


b. 9.91 m/s d. 11.36 m/s b. 9.0032 m d. 8.0032 m
EO

Kinetics of a Particle: Work and Energy 96. The small body has a speed 𝑣𝐴 = 5 m/s at point A.
• Work-Energy Method Neglecting friction, determine its speed 𝑣𝐵 at point
91. Calculate the velocity v of the 50-kg crate when it B after it has risen 0.8 m.
reaches the bottom of the chute at B if it is given an
R

initial velocity of 4 m/s down the chute at A. The


coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.30.

a. 2.18 m/s c. 4.76 m/s


b. 2.79 m/s d. 3.05 m/s

97. The 8-kg block is moving with an initial speed of 5 m/s.


If the coefficient of kinetic friction between the block
and plane is 𝜇𝑘 = 0.25, determine the compression in
a. 2.17 m/s c. 3.15 m/s the spring when the block momentarily stops.
b. 7.01 m/s d. 8.97 m/s

92. The crate, which has a mass of 100 kg, is subjected to


the action of the two forces. If it is originally at rest,
determine the distance it slides in order to attain a
speed of 6 m/s. The coefficient of kinetic friction
between the crate and the surface is 𝜇𝑘 = 0.2.

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a. 0.688 m c. 0.557 m 100. Determine the velocity of the cart at time 𝑡 = 8 𝑠.


b. 0.508 m d. 0.612 m a. 6.33 m/s c. 2.57 m/s
b. 1.42 m/s d. 3.86 m/s
98. The 6-kg cylinder is released from rest in the position
shown and falls on the spring, which has been initially 101. Calculate the time t at which the cart velocity is zero.
pre-compressed 50 mm by the light strap and a. 8.25 sec c. 9.25 sec
restraining wires. If the stiffness of the spring is 4 b. 8.17 sec d. 9.17 sec
kN/m, compute the additional deflection of the spring
produced by the falling cylinder before it rebounds. Situation 32:
A particle with a mass of 0.75 kg has an initial velocity
of 𝑣 = 6 𝑚/𝑠. Forces F1 and F2 act on the particle and
their magnitudes change with time according to the
graphical schedule shown.

w
a. 79.43 mm c. 29.43 mm
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ev
b. 89.17 mm d. 39.17 mm
R
Kinetics of a Particle: Impulse and Momentum
• Linear Impulse-Momentum
99. If the coefficient of kinetic friction between the 150 N
E

crate and the ground is 𝜇𝑘 = 0.2, determine the speed


of the crate when t = 4 s. The crate starts from rest and 102. Determine the vertical component of the particle’s
EL

is towed by the 100-N force. velocity after 3 seconds.


a. 14.54 m/s c. 6.11 m/s
b. 7.87 m/s d. 9.20 m/s
C

103. Determine the resultant velocity of the particle after 3


seconds.
EO

a. 15.77 m/s c. 8.96 m/s


b. 13.68 m/s d. 12.04 m/s

104. Determine the direction of the resultant velocity of the


R

particle from the x-axis after 3 seconds (positive


counterclockwise).
a. 17.4 m/s c. 22.7 m/s
a. 131.76° c. 106.25°
b. 19.8 m/s d. 21.2 m/s
b. 112.80° d. 154.44°
Situation 31:
• Conservation of Momentum
The cart is moving down the incline with a velocity
105. The 15-Mg boxcar A is coasting to the right at 1.5 m/s
𝑣0 = 20 𝑚/𝑠 at 𝑡 = 0, at which time the force P
on the horizontal track when it encounters a 12-Mg
begins to act as shown. After 5 seconds the force
tank car B coasting at 0.75 m/s toward it. If the cars
continues at the 50-N level.
collide and couple together, determine the speed of
both cars just after the coupling.
a. 0.5 𝑚/𝑠 ← c. 0.5 𝑚/𝑠 →
b. 1.5 𝑚/𝑠 ← d. 1.5 𝑚/𝑠 →

106. The spring is fixed to block A and block B is pressed


against the spring. If the spring is compressed s = 200
mm and then the blocks are released, determine their
velocity at the instant block B loses contact with the
spring. The masses of blocks A and B are 10 kg and 15
kg, respectively.

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111. Determine the velocity of the 50 kg block after the


impact.
a. 0.599 m/s c. 0.799 m/s
b. 0.699 m/s d. 0.899 m/s

112. Compute the percentage of the energy lost.


a. 85.99 % c. 89.95 %
a. 𝑣𝐴 = 2.31 𝑚/𝑠 →; 𝑣𝐵 = 3.46 𝑚/𝑠 → b. 99.85 % d. 59.98 %
b. 𝑣𝐴 = 2.31 𝑚/𝑠 ←; 𝑣𝐵 = 2.31 𝑚/𝑠 →
c. 𝑣𝐴 = 3.46 𝑚/𝑠 ←; 𝑣𝐵 = 2.31 𝑚/𝑠 → Situation 35:
d. 𝑣𝐴 = 3.46 𝑚/𝑠 ←; 𝑣𝐵 = 3.46 𝑚/𝑠 → The two identical steel balls moving with initial
velocities 𝑣𝐴 and 𝑣𝐵 collide as shown. The coefficient
107. The 5-kg block A has an initial speed of 5 m/s as it of restitution is 𝑒 = 0.7.
slides down the smooth ramp, after which it collides
with the stationary block B of mass 8 kg. If the two
blocks couple together after collision, determine their
common velocity immediately after collision.

w
ie
ev
R
113. Determine the velocity of ball A just after the impact.
a. 4.79 m/s c. 7.38 m/s a. 8.54 m/s c. 10.29 m/s
b. 2.84 m/s d. 5.68 m/s b. 3.22 m/s d. 6.73 m/s
E

• Impact and Coefficient of Restitution 114. Determine the velocity of ball B just after the impact.
EL

Situation 33: a. 8.54 m/s c. 10.29 m/s


Object A which weighs 10kg and moving to the right b. 3.22 m/s d. 6.73 m/s
at a speed of 10 m/s, collided object B, which weighs
C

5 kg and moving to the left at 5 m/s. 115. Compute the percentage loss of system kinetic energy.
a. 22.2 % c. 44.4 %
b. 33.3 % d. 55.5 %
EO

108. If the coefficient of restitution, 𝑒 = 0, find the velocity


of A after impact.
a. 1 m/s c. 5 m/s
b. 0 m/s d. 15 m/s END OF HANDOUT
R

109. If the coefficient of restitution, 𝑒 = 0.80, find the


velocity of A after impact.
a. 5 m/s c. 0 m/s
“Claim it.
b. 1 m/s d. 15 m/s You will soon become an
110. If the coefficient of restitution, 𝑒 = 1, find the velocity
of A after impact. Engineer.”
a. 0 m/s c. 5 m/s
b. 15 m/s d. 1 m/s

Situation 34:
A 75 g bullet traveling at 600 m/s strikes and becomes
embedded in the 50 kg block, which is initially at rest.

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Strength of Materials
ENGR. HANS LAWRENCE E. DELA CRUZ

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the


following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by
shading the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on
the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES
ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 2 only.
Simple Stresses
• Normal, Shearing, and Bearing Stress
1. A hollow steel tube with an outside diameter of 200
mm is subjected to an axial tensile force of 400 kN as
shown in the figure. Determine the thickness of the
tube if the stress is limited to 130 MPa.

a. 64.80 kips c. 115.07 kips


b. 50.27 kips d. 38.16 kips

7. Figure shows a two-member truss supporting a block


of weight W. The cross-sectional areas of the members
are 800 mm2 for AB and 400 mm2 for AC. Determine

w
the maximum safe value of W if the working stresses
are 110 MPa for AB and 120 MPa for AC.
a.
b.
12.04 mm
10.04 mm
c.
d.
5.02 mm
6.02 mm
ie
ev
Situation 1:
R
The bar ABCD in the figure consists of three cylindrical
steel segments with different lengths and cross-
sectional areas. Axial loads are applied as shown.
E
EL

a. 98.13 kN c. 61.71 kN
C

b. 173.33 kN d. 136.00 kN
2. Calculate the normal stress in segment AB.
a. 6,667 𝑝𝑠𝑖 (𝑇) c. 3333 𝑝𝑠𝑖 (𝑇) Situation 2:
EO

b. 4375 𝑝𝑠𝑖 (𝐶) d. 2778 𝑝𝑠𝑖 (𝐶) A billboard 3 m high x 4 m wide is supported on each
end by a pin jointed assembly (bracing not shown for
3. Calculate the normal stress in segment BC. simplification). The total weight of the billboard is 30
a. 3333 𝑝𝑠𝑖 (𝑇) c. 6,667 𝑝𝑠𝑖 (𝑇) kN.
R

b. 2778 𝑝𝑠𝑖 (𝐶) d. 4375 𝑝𝑠𝑖 (𝐶)


Wind pressure, q = 1.70 kPa
4. Calculate the normal stress in segment CD. Wind pressure coefficient, c = 1.00
a. 2778 𝑝𝑠𝑖 (𝐶) c. 4375 𝑝𝑠𝑖 (𝐶)
b. 3333 𝑝𝑠𝑖 (𝑇) d. 6,667 𝑝𝑠𝑖 (𝑇)

5. The cross-sectional area of bar ABCD is 600 mm2.


Determine the maximum normal stress in the bar.

a. 33.33 MPa c. 58.33 MPa


b. 41.67 MPa d. 50.00 MPa

6. The column consists of a wooden post and a concrete 8. Determine the horizontal reaction at A.
footing, separated by a steel bearing plate. Find the a. 18.08 kN c. 9.05 kN
maximum safe value of the axial load P if the working b. 7.89 kN d. 15.78 kN
stresses are 1000 psi for wood and 450 psi for
concrete.

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9. Determine the axial stress in member BC if its cross- a. 349.78 kN c. 549.78 kN


sectional dimension is 6 mm x 76 mm. b. 449.78 kN d. 649.78 kN
a. 91.62 MPa c. 39.96 MPa
b. 45.81 MPa d. 19.98 MPa Situation 5:
A circular hole is to be punched in a plate that has a
10. If strut AB was replaced by a 16-mm diameter cable, shear strength of 40 ksi (see figure). The working
determine the normal stress in the cable. compressive stress for the punch is 50 ksi.
a. 90.63 MPa c. 45.31 MPa
b. 103.89 MPa d. 207.79 MPa

Situation 3:
The 250 mm x 700 mm rectangular wood panel is
formed by gluing together two boards along the 30°
seam.

16. Compute the maximum thickness of the plate in which


a hole 2.5 in. in diameter can be punched.
a. 0.76 in. c. 0.80 in.
b. 0.78 in. d. 0.82 in.

w
17. If the plate is 0.25 in. thick, determine the diameter of

ie
the smallest hole that can be punched.
a. 0.80 in. c. 1.20 in.
ev
b. 0.60 in. d. 1.60 in.

18. The lap joint is connected by three 20-mm-diameter


R

rivets. Assuming that the axial load P = 50 kN is


11. Determine the normal stress in the glued joint if P = distributed equally among the three rivets, find the
E

10 kN. shear stress in a rivet.


a. 42.9 kPa c. 28.6 kPa
EL

b. 49.5 kPa d. 24.7 kPa

12. Determine the shear stress in the glued joint if P = 10


C

kN.
a. 42.9 kPa c. 28.6 kPa
b. 49.5 kPa d. 24.7 kPa
EO

Situation 4:
A beam is loaded as shown in the figure.
a. 15.38 MPa c. 53.05 MPa
R

b. 18.18 MPa d. 159.15 MPa

19. The cylindrical steel column has an outer diameter of


4 in. and inner diameter of 3.5 in. The column is
separated from the concrete foundation by a square
bearing plate. The working compressive stress is
26,000 psi for the column, and the working bearing
stress is 1,200 psi for concrete. Find the largest force P
13. Determine the shear stress in the 20-mm-diameter pin that can be applied to the column.
at 𝐴.
a. 8.84 𝑀𝑃𝑎 c. 17.68 𝑀𝑃𝑎
b. 68.00 𝑀𝑃𝑎 d. 34.00 𝑀𝑃𝑎

14. Determine the shear stress in the 30-mm-diameter pin


at 𝐵.
a. 8.84 𝑀𝑃𝑎 c. 17.68 𝑀𝑃𝑎
b. 68.00 𝑀𝑃𝑎 d. 34.00 𝑀𝑃𝑎

15. What force is required to punch a 20-mm-diameter


hole in a plate that is 25 mm thick? The shear strength
of the plate is 350 MN/m2.

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a. 67.69 MPa c. 58.80 kips 25. Calculate the circumferential stress in the wall of the
b. 135.38 MPa d. 76.58 kips cylinder.
a. 9,400 psi c. 9,600 psi
Situation 6: b. 4,800 psi d. 4,700 psi
The lap joint is connected by three 20-mm-diameter
rivets. Assume that the axial load P = 50 kN is 26. A cylindrical pressure vessel is fabricated from steel
distributed equally among the three rivets. plating that has a thickness of 20 mm. The diameter of
the pressure vessel is 450 mm, and its length is 2.0 m.
Determine the maximum internal pressure that can be
applied if the longitudinal stress is limited to 140 MPa,
and the circumferential stress is limited to 60 MPa.
a. 24.89 MPa c. 10.67 MPa
b. 5.33 MPa d. 12.44 MPa

Situation 8:
The tank shown in the figure is fabricated from 1/8-in
steel plate. The tank has an internal pressure of 125
20. Find the bearing stress between a plate and a rivet. psi.
a. 18.18 MPa c. 33.33 MPa

w
b. 15.38 MPa d. 53.05 MPa

ie
21. Find the maximum average tensile stress in each plate.
a. 15.38 MPa c. 53.05 MPa
ev
b. 18.18 MPa d. 33.33 MPa

22. Assume that the axial load P applied to the lap joint is
R
distributed equally among the three 20-mm diameter
rivets. What is the maximum load P that can be applied
if the allowable stresses are 40 MPa for shear in rivets,
E

90 MPa for bearing between a plate and a rivet, and


27. Calculate the maximum longitudinal stress developed
120 MPa for tension in the plates?
EL

in the tank.
a. 9,000 psi c. 4,500 psi
b. 21,000 psi d. 6,566 psi
C

28. Calculate the maximum hoop stress developed in the


tank.
EO

a. 21,000 psi c. 6,566 psi


b. 9,000 psi d. 4,500 psi

Simple Strain
R

• Hooke’s Law: Axial Deformation


a. 330.0 kN c. 135.0 kN
Situation 9:
b. 390.0 kN d. 37.7 kN
During a stress-strain test, the unit of deformation at a
stress of 35 MN/m2 was observed to be 166.67 𝑥 10−6
• Thin-Walled Pressure Vessels m/m and at a stress of 140 MN/m2 it was
23. A spherical shell with 70-in. outer diameter and 67-in.
666.67 𝑥 10−6 m/m. If the proportional limit was 200
inner diameter contains helium at a pressure of 1200
MN/m2.
psi. Compute the stress in the shell.
a. 26,800 psi c. 13,400 psi
29. What is the modulus of elasticity.
b. 28,000 psi d. 14,000 psi a. 210 GPa c. 250 GPa
b. 200 GPa d. 230 GPa
Situation 7:
The cylindrical portion of the propane tank has an 30. What is the strain corresponding to a stress of 80
outer diameter of 12 in. and a wall thickness of 0.125 MN/m2.
in. The tank is pressurized to 200 psi.
a. 380.95 𝑥 10−6 𝑚/𝑚
b. 495.08 𝑥 10−6 𝑚/𝑚
24. Calculate the longitudinal stress in the wall of the
c. 280.95 𝑥 10−6 𝑚/𝑚
cylinder.
d. 595.08 𝑥 10−6 𝑚/𝑚
a. 4,700 psi c. 4,800 psi
b. 9,400 psi d. 9,600 psi

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31. A 4-mm-diameter steel wire, 3.2 m long, carries an • Statically Indeterminate Members
axial tensile load P. Find the maximum safe value of P Situation 11:
if the allowable normal stress is 280 MPa and the The concrete post in the figure is reinforced axially
elongation of the wire is limited to 4 mm. Use E = 200 with four symmetrically placed steel bars, each of
GPa. cross-sectional area 900 mm2. The moduli of elasticity
a. 3.52 kN c. 2.65 kN are 200 GPa for steel and 14 GPa for concrete.
b. 1.40 kN d. 3.14 kN

Situation 10:
A steel rod has a length of 2.5 m and has an axial
rigidity of 60,000 kN. It is subjected to an axial tensile
force of 60 kN.

32. Determine deformation of the rod.


a. 2.5 mm c. 25 mm
b. 2.0 mm d. 20 mm

33. Determine the stiffness of the rod.


a. 30,000 N/mm c. 24,000 N/mm 37. Compute the stress in concrete when the 1000-kN

w
b. 3,000 N/mm d. 2,400 N/mm axial load is applied.
a. 55.91 MPa c. 103.65 MPa

ie
34. Determine the flexibility of the rod. b. 11.09 MPa d. 7.26 MPa
a. 1/2,400 mm/N c. 1/30,000 mm/N
ev
b. 1/3,000 mm/N d. 1/24,000 mm/N 38. Compute the stress in steel when the 1000-kN axial
load is applied.
35. The steel propeller shaft ABCD carries the axial loads a. 11.09 MPa c. 103.65 MPa
R
shown in figure. Determine the change in the length of b. 55.91 MPa d. 7.26 MPa
the shaft caused by these loads. Use E = 29 x 10 6 psi
for steel. Situation 12:
E

A copper rod of length = 3 m, diameter = 300 mm and


modulus of elasticity = 120 GPa is inserted into an
EL

aluminum tube. The aluminum tube has a length =


2,999.995 mm, wall thickness of 20 mm and modulus
of elasticity of 70 GPa.
C

a. −0.03185 𝑖𝑛. c. −0.01358 𝑖𝑛. 39. Determine the deformation of each material due to an
b. 0.03185 𝑖𝑛. d. 0.01358 𝑖𝑛. axial compressive load P = 120 kN.
EO

a. 𝛿𝑐 = 0.0371 𝑚𝑚; 𝛿𝑎 = 0.0321 𝑚𝑚


36. A bronze bar is fastened between a steel bar and an b. 𝛿𝑐 = 0.0321 𝑚𝑚; 𝛿𝑎 = 0.0371 𝑚𝑚
aluminum bar as shown in the figure. Axial loads are c. 𝛿𝑐 = 0.0414 𝑚𝑚; 𝛿𝑎 = 0.0364 𝑚𝑚
R

applied at the positions indicated. Find the largest d. 𝛿𝑐 = 0.0364 𝑚𝑚; 𝛿𝑎 = 0.0414 𝑚𝑚
value of P that will not exceed an overall deformation
of 3.0 mm, or the following stresses: 140 MPa in the 40. Determine the stress in each member.
steel, 120 MPa in the bronze, and 80 MPa in the a. 𝜎𝑐 = 0.85 𝑀𝑃𝑎; 𝜎𝑎 = 1.46𝑀𝑃𝑎
aluminum. Assume that the assembly is suitably b. 𝜎𝑐 = 1.48 𝑀𝑃𝑎; 𝜎𝑎 = 0.75 𝑀𝑃𝑎
braced to prevent buckling. Use Est = 200 GPa, Eal = 70 c. 𝜎𝑐 = 1.46 𝑀𝑃𝑎; 𝜎𝑎 = 0.85𝑀𝑃𝑎
GPa, and Ebr = 83 GPa. d. 𝜎𝑐 = 0.75 𝑀𝑃𝑎; 𝜎𝑎 = 1.48 𝑀𝑃𝑎

41. Determine the axial strain if no gap exist.


a. 1.213 𝑥 10−7 c. 1.213 𝑥 10−5
−6
b. 1.213 𝑥 10 d. 1.213 𝑥 10−4

42. Before the 400-kN load is applied, the rigid platform


rests on two steel bars, each of cross-sectional area
a. 42.73 kN c. 67.20 kN 1400 mm2, as shown in the figure. The cross-sectional
b. 12.80 kN d. 39.00 kN area of the aluminum bar is 2800 mm2. Compute the
stress in the aluminum bar after the 400-kN load is
applied. Use E = 200 GPa for steel and E = 70 GPa for
aluminum. Neglect the weight of the platform.

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46. Determine the stress in the rod when the temperature


rises to 70℃ if the wall yields by 0.50 mm.
a. 97.71 MPa (C) c. 79.17 MPa (C)
b. 79.17 MPa (T) d. 97.71 MPa (T)

47. What is the maximum temperature such that no stress


will be developed in steel rod if the wall yields by 0.75
mm?
a. 62.22℃ c. 32.22℃
b. 52.22℃ d. 42.22℃

Situation 15:
The figure shows a homogeneous, rigid block weighing
12 kips that is supported by three symmetrically
placed rods. The lower ends of the rods were at the
same level before the block was attached. The
a. 32.60 MPa c. 16.30 MPa
temperature of all bars increases by 100℉. Use the
b. 63.28 MPa d. 126.56 MPa
following data:
Situation 13:

w
The figure shows a rigid bar that is supported by a pin 𝑨 (𝒊𝒏𝟐 ) 𝑬 (𝒑𝒔𝒊) 𝜶 (/℉)
at A and two rods, one made of steel and the other of Each steel rod 0.75 29 x 106 6.5 x 10-6

ie
bronze. Neglect the weight of the bar. Bronze rod 1.50 12 x 106 10.0 x 10-6
ev
R
E
EL
C

Steel Bronze
EO

Area (mm2) 600 300 48. Determine the stress in each of the steel rod after the
E (GPa) 200 83 temperature has risen.
a. 11.6 ksi (C) c. 3.6 ksi (T)
R

b. 3.6 ksi (C) d. 11.6 ksi (T)


43. Compute the stress in steel rod caused by the 50-kN
load.
49. Determine the stress in the bronze rod after the
a. 106.14 MPa c. 191.82 MPa
temperature has risen.
b. 383.63 MPa d. 53.07 MPa
a. 11.6 ksi (C) c. 3.6 ksi (T)
b. 3.6 ksi (C) d. 11.6 ksi (T)
44. Compute the stress in bronze rod caused by the 50-kN
load.
• Poisson’s Ratio: Uniaxial, Biaxial and Triaxial Loading
a. 53.07 MPa c. 106.14 MPa
Situation 16:
b. 191.82 MPa d. 383.63 MPa
A rectangular steel block 1 in. wide, ½ in. deep and 4
in. long is subjected to an axial tensile load of 10.5 kips.
• Thermal Stresses
Measurements show the block to increase in length by
Situation 14:
2.8 x 10-3 in. and to decrease in width by 0.21 x 10 -3 in.
A steel rod 3 m long is secured between two walls. The
rod is stress free at 20℃. The cross-sectional area of
50. Determine the Poisson’s ratio of the material.
the rod is 1000 mm2 and 𝛼 = 11.25 𝜇𝑚/𝑚℃.
a. 0.30 c. 0.33
b. 0.25 d. 0.27
45. Determine the stress in the rod when the temperature
rises to 70℃ if the walls are rigid.
51. Determine the Modulus of Elasticity of the material.
a. 115.2 MPa (T) c. 112.5 MPa (C)
a. 35,000 ksi c. 40,000 ksi
b. 152.1 MPa (C) d. 121.5 MPa (T)
b. 30,000 ksi d. 45,000 ksi

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Situation 17: 55. Determine the minimum diameter of the solid shaft
The thin-walled tube is subjected to an axial force of that will not exceed the allowable angular
40 kN. The tube elongates 3 mm, and its circumference deformation.
decreases by 0.09 mm. The material behaves a. 125 mm c. 114 mm
elastically. b. 132 mm d. 119 mm

56. What is the maximum shearing stress developed in the


shaft?
a. 41.30 MPa c. 5.60 MPa
b. 29.20 MPa d. 17.10 MPa

Situation 19:
A hollow steel shaft 2,510 mm long must transmit
torque of 34 kN-m. The total angle of twist must not
exceed 3°. The maximum shearing stress must not
exceed 110 MPa. Use G = 83 GPa.
52. Determine the modulus of elasticity, E.
a. 67.91 GPa c. 76.19 GPa 57. Determine the minimum required polar moment of
b. 101.53 GPa d. 103.15 GPa inertia.

w
a. 19,637,035.44 mm4
53. Determine the value of Poisson’s ratio. b. 13,028,193.04 mm4

ie
a. 0.344 c. 0.333 c. 16,691,566.41 mm4
b. 0.244 d. 0.222 d. 10,809,638.58 mm4
ev
54. A rectangular steel block is 300 mm in the x direction, 58. Determine the minimum outside diameter so that the
200 mm in the y direction, and 150 mm in the z allowable shearing stress will not be exceeded.
R

direction. The block is subjected to a triaxial loading a. 127.06 mm c. 112.92 mm


consisting of three uniformly distributed forces as b. 125.70 mm d. 132.59 mm
follows: 250 kN tension in the x direction, 320 kN
E

compression in the y direction, and 180 kN tension in 59. Determine the maximum required inside diameter.
a. 92.85 mm c. 65.77 mm
EL

the z direction. For steel, 𝜈 = 0.30 and E = 200,000


MPa. Determine the total strain in the x direction due b. 88.25 mm d. 100.16 mm
to the forces applied in the three directions.
Situation 20:
C

A steel shaft is to be manufactured either as a solid


circular shaft or as circular tube. The shaft is to
transmit a torque of 1,200 N-m without exceeding an
EO

allowable shear stress of 50 MPa nor an allowable rate


of twist of 7°/m. Use G = 78 GPa for steel.

60. Determine the required diameter of the solid shaft.


R

a. 16.83 mm c. 49.63 mm
b. 24.81 mm d. 33.65 mm

61. Determine the required outer diameter of the hollow


shaft if the thickness of the shaft is specified as one-
tenth of the outer diameter.
a. 29.58 mm c. 38.39 mm
b. 59.16 mm d. 19.20 mm
a. 4.17 x 10-5 c. 3.55 x 10-5
b. 4.78 x 10-5 d. 5.68 x 10-5 62. What power is transmitted by the shaft at 20 Hz?
a. 163.2 kW c. 24.0 kW
Torsion b. 150.8 kW d. 81.9 kW
• Torsion in Circular Shafts
Situation 18: 63. Four pulleys are attached to the 50-mm-diameter
The 6-m solid steel shaft is subjected to a torque of 12 aluminum shaft. If torques are applied to the pulleys as
kN-m. The allowable angle of twist of the shaft is 3°. shown in the figure, determine the angle of rotation of
Use G = 83 GPa. pulley D relative to pulley A. Use G = 28 GPa for
aluminum.

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a. 2.56 kN-m c. 2.64 kN-m


b. 3.51 kN-m d. 5.11 kN-m

• Flange-Bolt Couplings
68. A flanged bolt coupling consists of ten 20-mm-
diameter bolts spaced evenly around a bolt circle 400
mm in diameter. Determine the torque capacity of the
coupling if the allowable shearing stress in the bolts is
40 MPa.

a. −5.34° c. −7.34°
b. −6.34° d. −8.34°

• Statically Indeterminate Shafts


Situation 21: a. 24.72 kN-m c. 25.13 kN-m
The compound shaft shown in the figure is made of b. 33.81 kN-m d. 31.25 kN-m
bronze and steel and is fixed at both ends. It is

w
subjected to a concentrated torque at the junction. The 69. A flanged bolt coupling consists of eight 10-mm-
steel segment is 1 m long. diameter steel bolts on a bolt circle 400 mm in

ie diameter, and six 10-mm-diameter steel bolts on a


concentric bolt circle 300 mm in diameter, as shown in
ev
the figure. What torque can be applied without
exceeding a shearing stress of 60 MPa in the bolts?
R
E
EL

64. Determine the ratio of the length of the steel segment


to that of the bronze such that the materials will be a. 18.11 kN-m c. 10.72 kN-m
C

stressed to their limits. b. 15.08 kN-m d. 11.16 kN-m


a. 1.05 c. 1.30
• Torsion in Thin-Walled Tubes: Shear Flow
EO

b. 1.42 d. 1.19
Situation 22:
65. Compute the torsional reaction at the right support if A tube 2 mm thick has a shape as shown in the figure
the applied torque at the junction is maximized. and is subjected to a torque of 600 N-m. Use G = 35
R

a. 4.97 kN-m c. 1.96 kN-m GPa and L = 3m.


b. 2.98 kN-m d. 3.47 kN-m

66. Determine the angle of twist at the junction.


a. 3.90° c. 5.59°
b. 2.21° d. 3.35°

67. The compound shaft is attached to a rigid wall at each


end. For the bronze segment AB, the diameter is 75
mm and G = 35 GPa. For the steel segment BC, the 70. Determine the shearing stress caused by the applied
diameter is 50 mm and G = 83 GPa. Given that a = 2 m torque.
and b = 1.5 m, compute the largest torque T that can a. 170.74 MPa c. 89.36 MPa
be applied as shown in the figure if the maximum shear b. 78.36 MPa d. 134.63 MPa
stress is limited to 60 MPa in the bronze and 80 MPa in
the steel. 71. Find the shear flow.
a. 156.73 N/mm c. 178.73 N/mm
b. 341.48 N/mm d. 269.26 N/mm

72. Determine the angle of twist.


a. 43.4° c. 22.4°
b. 13.4° d. 33.4°

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Situation 23: 79. Determine the maximum bending moment that occur
The tube is subjected to a torque of 750 N-m. in the span.
a. 80.0 kN-m c. 30.0 kN-m
b. 37.3 kN-m d. 20.0 kN-m

Situation 26:
The beam is loaded by two triangular loads as shown.
Take L = 5 m and use wo = 12 kN/m.

73. Find the average shear stress in the vertical side of the
tube.
a. 8.7 MPa c. 13.2 MPa
b. 15.6 MPa d. 10.4 MPa

74. Find the average shear stress in the horizontal side of


the tube.
a. 8.7 MPa c. 13.2 MPa 80. Determine the maximum shear that occur in the span.

w
b. 15.6 MPa d. 10.4 MPa a. 12 kN c. 15 kN
b. 24 kN d. 30 kN
• Helical Spring
Situation 24: 81.
ie Determine the maximum bending moment that occur
ev
A light helical spring is fabricated by wrapping wire ¾ in the span.
in. in diameter around a forming cylinder 8 in. in a. 12.5 kN-m c. 11.5 kN-m
b. 15.0 kN-m d. 16.5 kN-m
R
diameter. Use G = 12 x 10 6 psi.

75. Determine the axial force exerted by the spring Situation 27:
E

without exceeding the allowable shearing stress of 18 The shear diagram for a beam is given below.
ksi.
EL

a. 382 lb c. 341 lb
b. 374 lb d. 356 lb
C

76. Determine the number of turns required to permit an


elongation of 4 in.
a. 13 turns c. 10 turns
EO

b. 14 turns d. 11 turns

77. Compute the maximum shearing stress developed in a


phosphor bronze spring having mean diameter of 200
R

mm and consisting of 24 turns of 20-mm diameter


wire when the spring is stretched 100 mm. Assume G
= 42 GPa and use Wahl’s Formula.
a. 23.10 MPa c. 42.03 MPa
b. 31.89 MPa d. 32.71 MPa 82. Determine the maximum concentrated load applied on
the beam.
Shear and Moment in Beams a. 40 kN c. 25 kN
• Shear-Moment Diagram b. 10 kN d. 50 kN
Situation 25:
The beam is loaded as shown in the figure. 83. Determine the maximum negative moment in the
beam.
a. 10 kN-m c. 25 kN-m
b. 15 kN-m d. 30 kN-m

84. Determine the location of the point of contraflexure


from the right end of the beam.
a. 3.25 m c. 0.25 m
b. 1.25 m d. 4.75 m

78. Determine the maximum shear that occur in the span.


a. 80 kN c. 40 kN
b. 120 kN d. 20 kN

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Situation 28: 90. Determine the distance of the resultant from the 10 kN
Refer in the figure. A barge shown in diagram carries load.
the following loads: a. 3m c. 5m
b. 2m d. 2.5 m
W1 = 290 kN/m
W2 = 580 kN/m 91. Calculate the maximum shear in the beam.
(For every strip along longitudinal direction) a. 42 kN c. 45 kN
b. 48 kN d. 36 kN
Dimensions are:
L1 = L3 = 3 m 92. Calculate the maximum moment in the beam.
L2 = 6 m a. 94.17 kN-m c. 98.17 kN-m
b. 104.17 kN-m d. 108.17 kN-m

Stresses in Beams
• Bending/Flexural Stress
Situation 31:
The simply supported beam in the figure has a
rectangular cross section 120 mm wide and 200 mm
high.

w
ie
85. Find the total length, L (m), so that the upward
pressure is uniform, and the barge remains horizontal.
ev
a. 15.0 m c. 24.0 m
b. 21.0 m d. 18.0 m
R
93. Compute the maximum bending stress in the beam.
86. If shear is zero at 5 m from the left end, what is the
a. 35.0 MPa c. 25.0 MPa
upward pressure in kN/m?
b. 30.0 MPa d. 20.0 MPa
a. 96 kN/m c. 58 kN/m
E

b. 192 kN/m d. 174 kN/m


94. Compute the bending stress at a point on section B that
EL

is 25 mm below the top of the beam.


87. If the upward pressure is 145 kN/m, what is the
a. 8.70 MPa (C) c. 7.80 MPa (C)
resulting moment (kN-m) at first point of zero shear?
b. 8.70 MPa (T) d. 7.80 MPa (T)
a. 2,088 kN-m c. 1,566 kN-m
C

b. 1,305 kN-m d. 3,915 kN-m


Situation 32:
Given a rectangular hollow box with outer dimension
EO

• Moving Loads 85 mm by 125 mm and constant thickness of 10 mm


Situation 29: has an ultimate stress of 415 MPa. Use Modulus of
A truck with axle loads of 40 kN and 60 kN on a elasticity E = 110 GPa.
wheelbase of 5 m rolls across a 10-m span.
R

95. Determine the bending moment M for which the factor


88. Compute the maximum bending moment. of safety will be 2.50.
a. 122.5 kN-m c. 156.5 kN-m a. 10. 32 kN-m c. 11.02 kN-m
b. 160.0 kN-m d. 133.5 kN-m b. 20.09 kN-m d. 50.23 kN-m
89. Compute the maximum shearing force. 96. Determine the corresponding radius of curvature of
a. 80 kN c. 100 kN the section.
b. 90 kN d. 75 kN a. 2.18 m c. 4.76 m
b. 27.91 m d. 41.42 m
Situation 30:
A truck and trailer combination having the axle loads 97. Determine the minimum height h of the beam shown
shown in the figure rolls across the simply supported in the figure if the flexural stress is not to exceed 20
span of 12 m. MPa.

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Strength of Materials
ENGR. HANS LAWRENCE E. DELA CRUZ

a. 137 mm c. 155 mm Situation 36:


b. 113 mm d. 162 mm A wide flange beam carries a shear of 150 kN. The
section properties are shown in the table.
Situation 33:
A beam is loaded as shown in the figure. Its cross- Flange width, bf = 200 mm
sectional properties are also given. Flange thickness, t f = 20 mm
Overall depth, d = 300 mm
Web thickness, t w = 20 mm

106. Determine the shear stress on the web at the junction


of the flange and the web?
a. 20.94 MPa c. 22.54 MPa
b. 24.66 MPa d. 27.04 MPa
98. Determine the maximum moment in the beam.
107. Determine the maximum shear stress on the section?
a. 9.25 kN-m c. 11.25 kN-m
a. 32.08 MPa c. 34.65 MPa
b. 12.25 kN-m d. 10.25 kN-m
b. 29.34 MPa d. 37.87 MPa
99. Determine the maximum tensile stress.
108. Determine the percentage of the shear carried by the
a. 45 MPa c. 30 MPa

w
web.
b. 60 MPa d. 90 MPa
a. 94.18 % c. 93.85 %

ie
b. 95.30 % d. 92.61 %
100. Determine the maximum compressive stress.
a. 30 MPa c. 45 MPa
ev
Situation 37:
b. 90 MPa d. 60 MPa
A glued-laminated (glulam) timber beam is made from
5 – 40 mm by 140 mm (finish dimensions) boards as
Situation 34:
R
shown in the figure. The strength of the wood in
A beam is loaded as shown in the figure. Its cross-
horizontal shear is 550 kPa (which takes into account
sectional properties are also given.
a factor of safety).
E
EL
C
EO

101. Determine the maximum tensile stress.


a. 25.00 MPa c. 24.00 MPa
b. 16.25 MPa d. 15.60 MPa
R

102. Determine the maximum compressive stress. 109. What is the maximum allowable vertical shear force V
a. 24.00 MPa c. 25.00 MPa for the section?
b. 15.60 MPa d. 16.25 MPa a. 6.21 kN c. 9.07 kN
b. 10.27 kN d. 15.42 kN
• Horizontal Shearing Stress
Situation 35: 110. What is the required shear strength of the glue joints
A rectangular beam 100 mm x 200 mm carries a (MPa) considering a factor of safety against failure of
uniformly distributed load of 5 kN/m over its simple the glue joints of FS = 3.0? Neglect thickness of the glue
span of 5 m. joint.
a. 1.584 MPa c. 0.176 MPa
103. Determine the shear 1 m from the left support. b. 0.528 MPa d. 4.752 MPa
a. 7.50 kN c. 12.50 kN
b. 8.75 kN d. 5.00 kN Combined Stresses
• Combined Axial and Flexural Loads
104. Determine the shear stress 1 m from the left support Situation 38:
at a point 30 mm from the top of the beam. A solid circular pole has a height of 3 m and a diameter
a. 0.19 MPa c. 0.33 MPa of 250 mm. The pole carries a compressive load of 3 kN
b. 0.29 MPa d. 0.48 MPa at an eccentricity of 100 mm and a lateral force of 0.45
kN at its top. The unit weight of the pole is 22 kN/m3.
105. Determine the maximum shear stress in the beam.
a. 0.56 MPa c. 0.94 MPa
b. 0.38 MPa d. 0.66 MPa

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111. Determine the maximum compressive stress at the


base of the pole.
a. 0.95 MPa c. 1.14 MPa
b. 1.03 MPa d. 1.20 MPa

112. Compute the maximum tensile stress at the base of the


pole.
a. 1.03 MPa c. 1.20 MPa
b. 0.95 MPa d. 1.14 MPa

113. Determine the maximum shearing stress at the base of 119. Determine the maximum shear stress.
the pole. a. 87.5 MPa c. 62.5 MPa
a. 9.17 kPa c. 13.75 kPa b. 150.0 MPa d. 125.0 MPa
b. 11.38 kPa d. 12.22 kPa
120. Determine the normal stress on the diagonal AB.
Situation 39: a. 31.6 MPa c. 28.0 MPa
To reduce interference, a link in a machine is designed b. 50.0 MPa d. 37.8 MPa
so that its cross-sectional area in the center section is
reduced by one-half, as shown in the figure. The 121. Determine the shearing stress on the diagonal AB.
a. 31.6 MPa c. 50.0 MPa

w
thickness of the link is 50 mm. Use P = 40 kN.
b. 37.8 MPa d. 28.0 MPa

ie
Situation 42:
The state of plane stress at a point with respect to the
ev
xy-axes is shown in the figure.

114. Determine the maximum value of the normal stress


R

acting on section m-n.


a. 60 MPa c. 40 MPa
E

b. 80 MPa d. 20 MPa
EL

115. Determine the minimum value of the normal stress


acting on section m-n.
a. 0 MPa c. -40 MPa
b. -60 MPa d. 20 MPa
C

122. Determine the equivalent normal stress with respect


• State of Stress at a Point (Plane Stress) to the x’ y’-axes.
EO

Situation 40: a. 𝜎𝑥′ = 17.86 𝑀𝑃𝑎; 𝜎𝑦′ = 72.14 𝑀𝑃𝑎


A wooden beam whose length is 1 m is 100 mm wide b. 𝜎𝑥′ = 72.14 𝑀𝑃𝑎; 𝜎𝑦′ = 17.86 𝑀𝑃𝑎
and 200 mm high. It carries a load of 100 kN as shown. c. 𝜎𝑥′ = −72.14 𝑀𝑃𝑎; 𝜎𝑦′ = 17.86 𝑀𝑃𝑎
d. 𝜎𝑥′ = 17.86 𝑀𝑃𝑎; 𝜎𝑦′ = −72.14 𝑀𝑃𝑎
R

123. Determine the equivalent shear stress with respect to


the x’ y’-axes.
a. 32.99 MPa c. 30.99 MPa
b. 33.99 MPa d. 31.99 MPa
116. Determine the total tensile stress at A.
a. 34.98 MPa c. 29.98 MPa Situation 43:
b. 32.48 MPa d. 27.48 MPa The state of stress at a point is the result of two
loadings. When acting separately, the loadings
117. Determine the maximum principal stress at A. produce the two states of stress shown in the figure. If
a. 37.55 MPa c. 39.85 MPa the two loadings are applied simultaneously:
b. 35.65 MPa d. 42.16 MPa

118. Determine the maximum shearing stress at A.


a. 11.94 MPa c. 18.16 MPa
b. 4.87 MPa d. 16.18 MPa

Situation 41:
A small block is 40 mm long, 20 mm high, and 10 mm
thick. The block is subjected to the forces shown in the
figure.

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ENGR. HANS LAWRENCE E. DELA CRUZ

124. Determine the maximum principal stress for the


combined state of stress.
a. 39.5 MPa c. 30.0MPa
b. 38.3 MPa d. 32.4 MPa

125. Determine the principal planes for the combined state


of stress.
a. 22.5° c. 45.0°
b. 13.3° d. 26.6°

END OF HANDOUT

“Don’t watch the clock.


Do what it does.
Keep going.”

w
ie
-Sam Levenson ev
R
E
EL
C
EO
R

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Effectiveness. Efficiency. Convenience

Theory of Structures – Influence Lines


ENGR. CHRISTIAN E. BALDO

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the


following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by 5. Truss 2
shading the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on
the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES
ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 2 only.

Situation 1: Classify each of the beams shown as externally


unstable, statically determinate, or statically indeterminate.
If the structure is statically indeterminate externally, then
determine the degree of external indeterminacy.
a. Statically unstable
1. Beam 1 b. Statically determinate
c. Statically indeterminate to 3rd degree
d. Statically indeterminate to 4th degree

Situation 3: Classify each of the frames shown as statically


a. Externally unstable unstable, statically determinate, or statically indeterminate.
b. Statically determinate If the structure is statically indeterminate externally, then
c. Statically indeterminate to 2nd degree determine the degree of external indeterminacy.

w
d. Statically indeterminate to 3rd degree
6. Frame 1
2. Beam 2
ie
ev
R

a. Externally unstable
E

b. Statically determinate
c. Statically indeterminate to 2nd degree a. Statically unstable
EL

d. Statically indeterminate to 3rd degree b. Statically determinate


c. Statically indeterminate to 4th degree
d. Statically indeterminate to 5th degree
C

3. Beam 3

7. Frame 2
EO

a. Externally unstable
b. Statically determinate
R

c. Statically indeterminate to 2nd degree


d. Statically indeterminate to 3rd degree

Situation 2: Classify each of the trusses shown as statically


unstable, statically determinate, or statically indeterminate.
If the structure is statically indeterminate externally, then
determine the degree of external indeterminacy. a. Statically unstable
b. Statically determinate
4. Truss 1
c. Statically indeterminate to 6th degree
d. Statically indeterminate to 7th degree

Situation 4: The beam shown below will be subjected to a


concentrated live load of 100 kN, a uniformly distributed live
load of 50 kN/m and a uniformly distributed dead load of 20
kN/m.
a. Statically unstable
b. Statically determinate
c. Statically indeterminate to 2nd degree
d. Statically indeterminate to 3rd degree

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Theory of Structures – Influence Lines


ENGR. CHRISTIAN E. BALDO

8. Determine the length of the beam that must be subjected b. 814 kN-m d. 304 kN-m
to the uniformly distributed live load so that the 16. Which of the following most nearly gives the maximum
maximum positive shear at 𝐶 will be induced. reaction that may develop?
a. 8 m c. 6m a. 77 kN c. 59 kN
b. 10 m d. 4m b. 95 kN d. 130 kN
9. Find the maximum positive shear at 𝐶 due to the given
loads. Situation 7: A continuous beam with 4 spans carries a
uniformly distributed dead load and live load of 20 kN/m and
a. 137.5 kN c. 92.5 kN
35 kN/m. Apply appropriate live load positions in order to
b. 112.5 kN d. 117.5 kN determine extreme values of reactions, moments and shear
forces. The length of each span is 5 m. Use the following load
10. Determine the length of the beam that must be subjected combination:
to the uniformly distributed live load so that the 𝑈 = 1.2𝐷 + 1.6𝐿
maximum positive moment at 𝐶 will be induced.
a. 8 m c. 6m
b. 10 m d. 4m

17. In what span/spans must the beam be fully loaded so that


11. Find the maximum positive moment at 𝐶 due to the given

w
the vertical reaction at 𝐴 is upward and maximum?
loads.
a. AB & DE c. BD & EF
a. 380 kN-m c. 760 kN-m

ie
b. AB d. AB & BD
b. 740 kN-m d. 610 kN-m
18. In what span/spans must the beam be fully loaded so that
ev
the vertical reaction at 𝐴 is downward and maximum?
12. Find the maximum reaction at 𝐵.
a. AB c. AB & BD
a. 562.5 kN c. 405.0 kN
R
b. BD & EF d. AB & DE
b. 450.0 kN d. 380.0 kN
19. In what span/spans must the beam be fully loaded so that
the vertical reaction at B is upward and maximum?
E

Situation 5: The truss shown will be subjected to a


concentrated live load of 160 kN, a uniformly distributed live a. AB, BD c. AB, BD, EF
EL

load of 56 kN/m and a uniformly distributed dead load of 28 b. DE d. BD, DE


kN/m. 20. In what span/spans must the beam be fully loaded so that
the moment at 𝐵 is negative and maximum?
C

a. AB, BD c. AB, BD, EF


b. DE d. BD, DE
EO

21. In what span/spans must the beam be fully loaded so that


the moment at 𝐵 is positive?
a. AB, BD c. DE
13. Find the max tensile force in member 𝐷𝐼 due to the loads. b. AB, BD, EF d. BD, DE
R

a. 647.14 kN c. 800.82 kN 22. In what span/spans must the beam be fully loaded so that
b. 766.67 kN d. 920.34 kN the maximum positive shear will be induced at 𝐶?
a. AB, EF c. AB, BD, EF
14. Find the maximum compressive force in member 𝐷𝐼 due b. BD d. AB, BD, DE
to the loads. 23. In what span/spans must the beam be fully loaded so that
a. 302.23 kN c. 358.57 kN the maximum positive moment will be induced at 𝐶?
b. 529.32 kN d. 443.95 kN a. AB, DE c. BD
b. BD, EF d. AB, BD, DE
Situation 6: A 15.25 m simply supported beam will be 24. Find the maximum positive moment within span 𝐵𝐷.
subjected to moving loads with a specific arrangement as a. 135 kN-m c. 161 kN-m
shown. b. 186 kN-m d. 73 kN-m

25. Determine the maximum reaction at 𝐴.


a. 172 kN c. 371 kN
b. 241 kN d. 255 kN

15. Which of the following most nearly gives the absolute END OF HANDOUT
maximum bending moment that may develop?
a. 426 kN-m c. 608 kN-m “Stay positive, work hard, make it happen”

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Theory of Structures – Cables and Arches


ENGR. CHRISTIAN E. BALDO

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the 6. Which of the following most nearly gives the maximum
following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by tension in the cable?
shading the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on a. 21 kN c. 30 kN
the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES
b. 36 kN d. 25 kN
ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 2 only.

Situation 1: A cable is attached to supports at 𝐴 and 𝐵 having 7. Determine the length of the cable.
the same elevation. It is subjected to a uniformly distributed a. 112 m c. 100 m
load of 16 kN/m as shown. b. 109 m d. 121 m

Situation 3: The cable is subjected to concentrated loads as


shown. If 𝑃 = 80 𝑙𝑏,

w
ie
1. Which of the following most nearly gives the minimum
tension?
ev
a. 431 kN c. 411 kN
b. 400 kN d. 421 kN 8. Determine tension in cable 𝐴𝐶.
R
a. 75 lb c. 78 lb
2. Which of the following most nearly gives the maximum b. 44 lb d. 57 lb
tension in the cable?
E

a. 431 kN c. 411 kN 9. Determine tension in cable 𝐶𝐷.


b. 400 kN d. 421 kN
EL

a. 75 lb c. 78 lb
b. 44 lb d. 57 lb
3. Which of the following most nearly gives the tension in
C

the cable at a point 4 m from point A? 10. Determine tension in cable 𝐷𝐵.
a. 431 kN c. 411 kN a. 75 lb c. 78 lb
b. 400 kN d. 421 kN b. 44 lb d. 57 lb
EO

4. Determine the length of the cable. Situation 4: The cable is subjected to concentrated loads as
a. 2000 cm c. 2052 cm shown. Loads 𝑃 and 𝑄 are applied in order to maintain the
R

b. 2035 cm d. 2025 cm cable’s shape.

Situation 2: A cable supports a load of 50 kg/m uniformly


distributed with respect to the horizontal and is suspended
from the two fixed points located as shown.

11. Find the magnitude of the force 𝑃.


a. 60 kN c. 80 kN
b. 40 kN d. 100 kN
5. Which of the following most nearly gives the minimum
tension? 12. Find the magnitude of the force 𝑄.
a. 21 kN c. 30 kN a. 60 kN c. 80 kN
b. 36 kN d. 25 kN b. 40 kN d. 100 kN

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Theory of Structures – Cables and Arches


ENGR. CHRISTIAN E. BALDO

Situation 5: A uniform cable weighing 3 lb/ft is suspended 21. Which of the following most nearly gives the reaction at
between two points 𝐴 and 𝐵 as shown. point 3?
a. 226 kips c. 262 kips
b. 160 kips d. 320 kips

Situation 8: For the three-hinged arched roof truss shown,


13. Determine the minimum tension in the cable.
a. 984 lb c. 938 lb
b. 1284 lb d. 1201 lb

14. Determine the maximum tension in the cable.


a. 984 lb c. 938 lb
b. 1284 lb d. 1201 lb

15. Determine the length of the cable.


a. 525 ft c. 550 ft
b. 594 ft d. 505 ft 22. Which of the following is the resultant reaction at 𝐴?

w
a. 10.83 kN c. 6.77 kN

ie
Situation 6: A 90-m wire is suspended between two points at b. 11.68 kN d. 9.53 kN
the same elevation that are 60 m apart. The maximum tension
is 300 N.
ev
23. Which of the following is the resultant reaction at 𝐵?
a. 10.83 kN c. 6.77 kN
16. Find the minimum tension in the wire.
b. 11.68 kN d. 9.53 kN
R
a. 141 N c. 67 N
b. 134 N d. 114 N
24. Which of the following is the resultant reaction at 𝐶?
E

a. 10.83 kN c. 6.77 kN
17. Find the weight of the wire.
b. 11.68 kN d. 9.53 kN
EL

a. 573 N c. 555 N
b. 804 N d. 537 N
C

18. Determine the magnitude of the sag at its midpoint.


a. 30.1 m c. 30.0 m
EO

b. 30.3 m d. 30.2 m

Situation 7: For the three-hinged arch shown,


R

19. Which of the following most nearly gives the resultant


END OF HANDOUT
reaction at point 1?
a. 226 kips c. 262 kips
b. 160 kips d. 320 kips “Success consists of going
20. Which of the following most nearly gives the resultant from failure to failure without
reaction at point 2?
a. 226 kips c. 262 kips
loss of enthusiasm”
b. 160 kips d. 320 kips
-Winston Churchill

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Theory of Structures – Approximate Analysis


ENGR. CHRISTIAN E. BALDO

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the


following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by 4. Which of the following most nearly gives the maximum
shading the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on bending moment in beam 𝐵𝐸?
the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES a. 12.74 kN-m c. 23.04 kN-m
ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 2 only.
b. 14.72 kN-m d. 20.43 kN-m
Situation 1: The floor of a building is subjected to a uniformly
distributed load of 3.5 kPa over its surface area. Beams 𝐶𝐷 5. Which of the following most nearly gives the maximum
and 𝐸𝐹 are simply supported. Likewise, girders 𝐴𝐵, 𝐵𝐻, 𝐻𝐺 bending moment in girder 𝐴𝐶?
and 𝐴𝐺 are simply supported on columns 𝐴, 𝐵, 𝐻 and 𝐺. a. 12.74 kN-m c. 23.04 kN-m
b. 14.72 kN-m d. 20.43 kN-m

6. Which of the following most nearly gives the resulting


axial load at column at 𝐶?
a. 5.76 kN c. 7.68 kN
b. 3.84 kN d. 11.52 kN

Situation 3: The diagonals of the truss shown can support

w
either a tensile or a compressive force. 𝐶 is for compression
while 𝑇 is for tension. Use valid assumptions in approximate

ie
analysis of truss.
ev
R

1. Which of the following most nearly gives the maximum


bending moment in girder 𝐴𝐵?
E

a. 86 kN-m c. 172 kN-m


EL

b. 71 kN-m d. 142 kN-m

2. Which of the following most nearly gives the maximum


C

bending moment in girder 𝐴𝐺?


a. 252 kN-m c. 126 kN-m
7. Which of the following most nearly gives the force in
EO

b. 71 kN-m d. 142 kN-m


member 𝐵𝐹?
a. 10.0 kN (T) c. 14.14 kN (T)
3. Which of the following most nearly gives the resulting
b. 10.0 kN (C) d. 14.14 kN (C)
axial load at column at 𝐵?
R

a. 86.0 kN c. 63.0 kN
8. Which of the following most nearly gives the force in
b. 71.0 kN d. 94.5 kN
member 𝐸𝐹?
Situation 2: The roof of a single-story storage building shown a. 10.0 kN (T) c. 14.14 kN (T)
is subjected to a uniformly distributed load of 0.96 kPa over b. 10.0 kN (C) d. 14.14 kN (C)
its surface area. Beam 𝐵𝐸 is simply supported. Likewise,
girders 𝐴𝐶, 𝐶𝐹, 𝐹𝐷 and 𝐴𝐷 are simply supported on columns 9. Which of the following most nearly gives the force in
𝐴, 𝐶, 𝐹 and 𝐷.
member 𝐴𝐵?
a. 10.0 kN (T) c. 14.14 kN (T)
b. 10.0 kN (C) d. 14.14 kN (C)

Situation 4: The diagonals of the truss shown are long and


slender. 𝐶 is for compression while 𝑇 is for tension. Use valid
assumptions in approximate analysis of truss.

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ENGR. CHRISTIAN E. BALDO

16. Determine the moment reaction at 𝐴.


10. Which of the following most nearly gives the force in
a. 7.0 kN-m c. 8.1 kN-m
member 𝐵𝐹?
b. 6.3 kN-m d. 9.2 kN-m
a. 0 kN c. 20.0 kN (C)
17. Determine the axial force in girder 𝐼𝐽.
b. 28.3 kN (T) d. 28.3 kN (C)
a. 7.5 kN c. 6.5 kN
b. 8.5 kN d. 5.5 kN
11. Which of the following most nearly gives the force in

w
member 𝐴𝐵?
18. Determine the axial force in column 𝐽𝐹.
a. 0 kN c. 20.0 kN (C)

ie
a. 0 c. 1.2 kN
b. 28.3 kN (T) d. 28.3 kN (C)
b. 4.5 kN d. 7.5 kN
ev
12. Which of the following most nearly gives the force in Situation 6: Use cantilever method to analyze the statically
member 𝐸𝐹? indeterminate frame shown.
R
a. 0 kN c. 20.0 kN (C)
b. 28.3 kN (T) d. 28.3 kN (C)
E

Situation 5: The following statically indeterminate frame is


subjected to loads as shown. Use valid assumptions in
EL

approximate analysis of frames.


C
EO

19. Determine the moment reaction at 𝐴.


R

a. 7.0 kN-m c. 8.1 kN-m


b. 6.3 kN-m d. 9.2 kN-m

20. Determine the shear force in column 𝐴𝐸.


13. Determine the internal moment at joint 𝐴. a. 4.86 kN c. 3.15 kN
a. 4.86 kN-m c. 6.48 kN-m b. 3.51 kN d. 4.68 kN
b. 3.78 kN-m d. 7.38 kN-m
21. Determine the axial force in column 𝐴𝐸.
14. Determine the internal moment at joint 𝐵. a. 4.86 kN c. 3.15 kN
a. 4.86 kN-m c. 6.48 kN-m b. 3.51 kN d. 4.68 kN
b. 3.78 kN-m d. 7.38 kN-m

15. Determine the maximum positive moment in girder 𝐹𝐺.


a. 4.86 kN-m c. 15.36 kN-m
b. 3.78 kN-m d. 7.38 kN-m END OF HANDOUT

Situation 6: Use portal method to analyze the statically


indeterminate frame shown.
“What comes easy wont’ last and
what lasts won’t come easy”

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Theory of Structures
ENGR. RONALD MIGUEL G. DAVID

DEFLECTIONS

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the Situation 3:


following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by For the beam shown in the figure, Modulus of Elasticity E =
shading the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on 200 GPa, I1 = 100 x 106 mm4 and I2 = 50 x 106 mm4:
the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES
ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 2 only.

Situation 1:
For the beam shown in the figure:

7. Determine the vertical deviation of the tangent at A with


respect with respect to the tangent at B.
a. 22.5 mm b. 27.0 mm
c. 13.5 mm d. 11.25 mm
8. Determine the slope at point A.
a. -0.00225 rad. b. -0.00188 rad.
Determine the following. (EI = 200 x 1011 N.mm2) c. -0.00375 rad. d. -0.00450 rad.

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9. Determine the vertical deflection at mid span.
1. The Vertical deflection at point C located at mid span.
a. 9.750 mm. b. 3.750 mm.

ie
a. -2.482 mm b. -3.012 mm c. 4.875 mm. d. 1.875 mm.
c. -1.563 mm d. -2.941 mm
ev
2. The location of maximum deflection of the beam from Situation 4:
point B. For the beam shown in the figure:
a. 1.596 m. b. 1.386 m.
R

c. 1.404 m. d. 1.614 m.
3. The maximum deflection of the beam.
E

a. -3.024 mm. b. -2.953 mm.


c. -1.575 mm. d. -2.494 mm.
EL

Situation 2:
For the beam shown in the figure, assume EI is constant:
C

10. Determine the displacement at the free end.


a. -18/EI b. 18/EI
c. 95/EI d. 108/EI
EO

11. Determine the rotation at the roller support.


a. -18/EI b. 18/EI
c. 95/EI d. 108/EI
12. Determine the rotation at the pin support.
R

a. -18/EI b. 18/EI
c. 95/EI d. 108/EI
4. The vertical deflection at free end.
a. 200/3EI b. -184/EI Situation 5:
c. -200/3EI d. 184/EI The beam shown in the figure is subjected to a 5 kN.m
5. The rotation at free end. clockwise moment at the right most end. (EI is constant)
a. 200/3EI b. -184/EI
c. -200/3EI d. 184/EI
6. The vertical deflection at point 1.5 m from free end.
a. -88.22/EI b. -71.29/EI
c. -106.16/EI d. -98.33/EI

13. Determine the slope just to the left of the internal hinge.
a. 25/2EI b. -25/6EI
c. 485/9EI d. -875/6EI

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ENGR. HANS LAWRENCE E. DELA CRUZ

14. Determine the slope just to the right of the internal Situation 8:
hinge. For the propped cantilever beam shown, determine the
a. 25/2EI b. -25/6EI reaction at the supports, assume EI is constant.
c. 485/9EI d. -875/6EI
15. Determine the vertical deflection at the free end.
a. 25/2EI b. -25/6EI
c. 485/9EI d. -875/6EI

Situation 6:
For the Beam shown in the figure, determine the vertical
deflection and rotation at the free end. E = 200 GPa, I1 = 21. What is the reaction at the right end?
75(10)6 mm4 and I2 = 135(10)6 mm4
a. 8.105 kN b. 3.265 kN
c. 16.735 kN d. 11.895 kN
22. What is the reaction at the fixed end?
a. 8.105 kN b. 3.265 kN
c. 16.735 kN d. 11.895 kN
23. What is the moment reaction at the fixed end?

w
a. 8.105 kN.m b. 3.265 kN.m
c. 16.735 kN.m d. 11.895 kN.m

ie
24. Location of maximum deflection.
16. Deflection: a. 4.217 m. b. 3.895 m.
ev
a. 70.33 mm. ↑ b. 39.07 mm. ↓ c. 2.783 m. d. 3.105 m.
c. 70.33 mm. ↓ d. 39.07 mm. ↑ 25. Maximum Deflection.
17. Rotation: a. -40.23/EI b. -35.69/EI
R

a. 13.06x10-3 rad. b. -13.06x10-3 rad. c. -47.25/EI d. -47.95/EI


c. 7.25x10-3 rad. d. -7.25x10-3 rad.
E

Situation 9:
Situation 7: For the continuous beam shown, determine the reaction at
EL

For the structure shown in the figure, Determine the the supports, assume EI is constant.
following: (Note: EI is constant)
C
EO
R

26. The Reaction at the right most support.


18. The horizontal deflection at roller support. a. 78.75 kN b. -3.125 kN
c. 49.375 kN d. 125.0 kN
a. -5245.3/EI b. -2068.1/EI
27. The Reaction at the left most support.
c. 7916.8/EI d. 1767.9/EI
19. The slope at roller support. a. 78.75 kN b. -3.125 kN
c. 49.375 kN d. 125.0 kN
a. 5245.3/EI b. 2068.1/EI
28. The Reaction at the middle support.
c. 7916.8/EI d. 1767.9/EI
20. The slope at pin support. a. 78.75 kN b. -3.125 kN
c. 49.375 kN d. 125.0 kN
a. -5245.3/EI b. -2068.1/EI
c. 7916.8/EI d. 1767.9/EI

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Theory of Structures
ENGR. RONALD MIGUEL G. DAVID

ANALYSIS OF STATICALLY INDETERMINATE STRUCTURES

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the Situation 3: For the fully restrained beam shown, determine
following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by the following:
shading the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on
the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES
ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 2 only.

Situation 1: Consider the structure shown in the figure below.


Assume all the members are pin connected at their ends. Use
A = 500 mm2 and E = 200 GPa for each member.
9. Fixed end moment at the right support.
a. 50 kN.m b. 95 kN.m
c. 60 kN.m d. 110 kN.m
10. Vertical reaction at the right support.
a. 90 kN b. 22.5 kN
c. 30 kN d. 97.5 kN
11. Beam deflection at point three meters from the left end.
a. -160/EI b. 495/4EI

w
c. 160/EI d. -495/4EI

ie
1. Determine the Vertical displacement of point A. Situation 4: For the continuous beam shown in the figure
a. 3.788 mm b. 4.125 mm below, determine the following:
ev
c. 7.392 mm d. 3.771 mm
2. Determine the Horizontal displacement of point A.
a. 0.82 mm b. 0.72 mm
R

c. 0.96 mm d. 1.02 mm
3. Determine the Vertical displacement of point A if
E

member AB and BC experience a temperature increase


of 90°C. Use α = 11.7 μm/(m.⁰C)
EL

a. 17.32 mm b. 15.68 mm
c. 14.33 mm d. 16.85 mm
4. Determine the Vertical displacement of point A if 12. The three-moment factor (6Aa̅/L) of the 25 kN/m load
C

member AE is fabricated 5 mm too short. on segment AB.


a. 12.14 mm b. 11.96 mm a. 300 kN.m2 b. 400 kN.m2
EO

c. 11.18 mm d. 12.52 mm c. 500 kN.m2 d. 600 kN.m2


13. The three-moment factor (6Ab̅/L) of the 10 kN load on
Situation 2: Determine the fixed end moments of the segment BC.
following structures shown. a. 80/3 kN.m2 b. 130/3 kN.m2
R

c. 100/3 kN.m 2 d. 50/3 kN.m2


14. Moment at A.
a. -22.50 kN.m b. 22.62 kN.m
c. -43.09 kN.m d. -13.82 kN.m
15. Moment at B.
a. -22.50 kN.m b. 22.62 kN.m
c. -43.09 kN.m d. -13.82 kN.m
16. Moment at C.
5. Fixed end moment of structure (A) at Left restraint. a. -22.50 kN.m b. 22.62 kN.m
a. -37.596 kN.m b. 35.099 kN.m c. -43.09 kN.m d. -13.82 kN.m
c. 33.345 kN.m d. -36.592 kN.m 17. Vertical Reaction at A.
6. Fixed end moment of structure (A) at Right restraint. a. 46.45 kN b. 42.68 kN
a. -37.596 kN.m b. 35.099 kN.m c. 21.23 kN d. 57.32 kN
c. 33.345 kN.m d. -36.592 kN.m 18. Vertical Reaction at B.
7. Fixed end moment of structure (B) at Left restraint. a. 46.45 kN b. 42.68 kN
a. 8.333 kN.m b. 13.333 kN.m c. 21.23 kN d. 57.32 kN
c. -10.333 kN.m d. -11.333 kN.m 19. Vertical Reaction at C.
8. Fixed end moment of structure (B) at Right restraint. a. 46.45 kN b. 42.68 kN
a. 8.333 kN.m b. 13.333 kN.m c. 21.23 kN d. 57.32 kN
c. -10.333 kN.m d. -11.333 kN.m

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Situation 5: Consider the continuous beam structure shown


in the figure, determine the following required:

20. The Slope at point B.


a. 256/22EI b. 3015/44EI
c. 2060/33EI d. 200/11EI
21. The Slope at point C.
a. 256/22EI b. 3015/44EI
c. 2060/33EI d. 200/11EI
22. The moment reaction at A.

w
a. 65/11kN.m b. 35/3 kN.m

ie
c. 80/3 kN.m d. 365/11 kN.m
23. The internal moment at point B.
ev
a. 65/11kN.m b. 35/3 kN.m
c. 80/3 kN.m d. 365/11 kN.m
R
Situation 6: From the frame shown in the figure, EI = 15x1011
N.mm2, determine the following:
E
EL
C
EO
R

24. The Moment at point B.


a. 4.46 kN.m b. 6.71 kN.m
c. 5.33 kN.m d. 2.23 kN.m
25. The Moment at point D.
a. 4.46 kN.m b. 6.71 kN.m
c. 5.33 kN.m d. 2.23 kN.m
26. The rotation at point C.
a. 0.33 deg b. 0.42 deg.
c. 0.16 deg. d. 0.29 deg.

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Reinforced Concrete Design - 1


ENGR. RONALD MIGUEL G. DAVID

ALLOWABLE STRESS DESIGN

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the Situation 3: The Beam shown in the figure is subjected to a
following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by positive bending moment of 72 kN.m, use f’c = 28 MPa and fy
shading the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on = 420 MPa. Determine the following:
the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES
ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 2 only.

Situation 1: A rectangular beam has a dimension of b = 250


mm, h = 650 mm, and d = 600 mm and is reinforced with 3-
25 mm bars. Use f’c = 28 MPa, fy = 420 MPa.

1. Determine the uncracked transformed moment of


inertia of the section.
a. 5825(10)6 mm4 b. 6454(10)6 mm4
c. 5721(10) mm6 4 d. 6481(10)6 mm4
2. What is the stress in Steel reinforcement caused by a
bending moment of 55 kN.m?
a. 2.91 MPa b. 23.28 MPa

w
6. Cracked Transformed Moment of inertia of the Section.
c. 17.63 MPa d. 2.20 MPa
3. What is the maximum stress in concrete caused by a a. 1825(10)6 mm4 b. 3457(10)6 mm4

ie
c. 1337(10)6 mm4 d. 2604(10)6 mm4
bending moment of 55 kN.m?
7. Maximum stress in concrete.
a. 2.91 MPa b. 2.63 MPa
ev
a. 127.68 MPa b. 63.53 MPa
c. 2.52 MPa d. 2.20 MPa
c. 170.65 MPa d. 7.47 MPa
8. Stress in Tension steel.
R
Situation 2: The figure shows a precast plain concrete beam
simply supported at a span of 5m. (all dimensions are in mm) a. 127.68 MPa b. 63.53 MPa
c. 170.65 MPa d. 7.47 MPa
E

9. Stress in Compression steel.


a. 127.68 MPa b. 63.53 MPa
EL

c. 170.65 MPa d. 7.47 MPa

Situation 4: A simply supported concrete beam 8 m long is


C

400 mm wide and 650 mm deep and carries a dead load of 13


kN/m including its own weight and a live load of 18 kN/m.
The beam is reinforced for tension only with five 25-mm
EO

diameter bars with an effective depth to tension bars of 580


mm. f’c = 27.6 MPa, fy = 415 MPa, and ES = 200 GPa.

10. Determine the Value of Cracking Moment.


R

Given: a. 583.58 kN.m b. 147.98 kN.m


γCONC. = 23.5 kN/m3 c. 91.74 kN.m d. 103.58 kN.m
fc’ = 28 MPa 11. Effective moment of Inertia at midspan.
fy = 420 MPa a. 9154.17 x 106 mm4 b. 4165.03 x 106 mm4
c. 3899.02 x 10 mm
6 4 d. 4281.93 x 106 mm4
4. What is the Cracking moment of the beam? 12. Determine the maximum instantaneous deflection of the
a. 51.87 kN.m b. 34.00 kN.m beam due to dead load and live load at midspan.
c. 33.57 kN.m d. 52.60 kN.m a. 9.08 mm b. 16.07 mm
5. If the beam is reinforced with 3-25mm diameter bars c. 4.54 mm d. 6.56 mm
placed at 435mm from the top, what additional load can 13. Determine the long-term deflection after 6 years
the beam carry? assuming 25% of the live load is sustained.
a. 26.58 kN/m b. 30.17 kN/m a. 30.14 mm b. 13.12 mm
c. 22.64 kN/m d. 26.23 kN/m c. 25.15 mm d. 20.18 mm

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Reinforced Concrete Design - 1


ENGR. RONALD MIGUEL G. DAVID

Situation 5: The continuous reinforced concrete beam shown


in the figure is subjected to a uniform service dead load of 16
kN/m and service live load of 32 kN/m, resulting to a bending
moment diagram shown. 20% of the Live load will be
sustained. Use f’c = 28 MPa and fy = 420 MPa.

w
ie
ev
R
E
EL
C
EO
R

14. Which of the following most nearly gives the effective


moment of inertia at the supports?
a. 7356 x 106 mm4 b. 5805 x 106 mm4
c. 8908 x 106 mm4 d. 6372 x 106 mm4
15. Which of the following most nearly gives the effective
moment of Inertia for the continuous member?
a. 7356 x 106 mm4 b. 5805 x 106 mm4
c. 8908 x 106 mm4 d. 6372 x 106 mm4
16. If the instantaneous deflection of the beam due to dead
load and live load at midspan is 5mm, determine the
additional deflection after 5 years under the sustained
loadings.
a. 5.00 mm b. 2.33 mm
c. 4.67 mm d. 10.00 mm

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Reinforced Concrete Design - 2


ENGR. RONALD MIGUEL G. DAVID

BEAM FLEXURE ANALYSIS - USD

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the Situation 3: For the
following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by rectangular beam shown in
shading the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the figure, use f’c = 35 MPa,
the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES and fy = 420 MPa.
ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 2 only.
8. Determine the depth of
Situation 1: A rectangular beam made using f’c = 20, fy = 415 compression block.
MPa, b = 250 mm, h = 500 mm, and 3-25 mm bars. Use 65 a. 133.7 mm
mm for the effective cover of the reinforcement. Determine
b. 145.3 mm
the following:
c. 152.5 mm
1. Depth of compression block. d. 138.6 mm
a. 125.27 mm b. 143.78 mm 9. What is the stress on the 2nd Layer of reinforcement?
c. 169.17 mm d. 145.53 mm a. 420 MPa b. 386.5 MPa
2. Nominal Moment Capacity. c. 600 MPa d. 276.4 MPa
a. 224.04 kN.m b. 221.91 kN.m 10. What is the Ultimate Moment Capacity of the beam?
c. 199.71 kN.m d. 194.43 kN.m a. 313.3 kN.m b. 299.7 kN.m

w
3. Ultimate Moment Capacity. c. 199.71 kN.m d. 194.43 kN.m
a. 224.04 kN.m b. 221.91 kN.m

ie
c. 199.71 kN.m d. 194.43 kN.m Situation 4: A singly reinforced rectangular beam with b =
4. Required tension steel area for balance condition. 350 mm, h = 900 mm, d = 835 mm, is to carry a service live
ev
a. 2238 mm2 b. 1473 mm2 load of 20 kN/m and service dead load of 30 kN/m including
c. 1963 mm2 d. 1651 mm2 its own weight. Use f’c = 28 MPa, fy = 415 MPa, Design the
beam for maximum positive moment induced by the given
R
Situation 2: For the triangular beam cross section shown, f’c loads.
= 28 MPa, fy = 415 MPa. The beam is reinforced with 3-20
mm diameter bars.
E
EL
C

11. What is the maximum Positive moment induced by the


EO

given loads?
a. 918 kN.m b. 1062 kN.m
c. 1151 kN.m d. 603 kN.m
12. Required Area of steel reinforcement.
R

5. Determine the depth of compression block. a. 3847 mm2 b. 5342 mm2


a. 261.22 mm b. 222.04 mm c. 4102 mm 2 d. 4518 mm2
c. 253.31 mm d. 215.31 mm 13. Maximum area of steel reinforcement for tension
6. What is the Ultimate moment capacity of the beam? controlled singly reinforced beam action.
a. 110.64 kN.m b. 122.93 kN.m a. 3847 mm2 b. 5342 mm2
c. 134.46 kN.m d. 113.80 kN.m c. 4102 mm 2 d. 4518 mm2
7. What is the required tension steel area for balance
condition? Situation 5: A reinforced concrete beam with a cross section
a. 1511 mm2 b. 1356 mm2 of 250 mm x 500 mm is reinforced with 4-25mm diameter
c. 1105 mm2 d. 1299 mm2 tension bars and 2-16mm diameter compression bars, allow
60 mm center of bars from face of beam. Use fc’= 21 MPa, and
fy = 415 MPa, determine the following:

14. Maximum steel ratio for singly reinforced action


a. 0.0222 b. 0.0217
c. 0.0157 d. 0.0167
15. Depth of compression block
a. 147.3 mm b. 170.8 mm
c. 145.2 mm d. 173.2 mm

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16. Ultimate moment capacity Situation 9: Determine the Ultimate Moment Capacity of the
a. 270.62 kN.m b. 300.69 kN.m T-beam given by the figure below.
c. 261.08 kN.m d. 310.71 kN.m
17. Stress in compression reinforcement
a. 415.0 MPa b. 324.5 MPa
c. 392.2 MPa d. 275.0 MPa f’c = 21 MPa
fy = 420 MPa
Situation 6: Design the reinforcement for a RC beam section
300 mm wide and 500 mm deep to resist a factored moment
of 400 kN.m. Use f’c = 21 MPa, fy = 275 MPa, and effective
concrete cover of 65 mm for both tension and compression.

18. Determine the maximum steel ratio allowed for tension-


controlled singly reinforced beam action.
a. 0.0345 b. 0.0378
c. 0.0259 d. 0.0207 24. Ultimate moment Capacity.
19. Determine the required compression steel area.
a. 1152 kN.m b. 781 kN.m
a. 1700 mm2 b. 1800 mm2

w
c. 1037 kN.m d. 857 kN.m
c. 1600 mm 2 d. 1900 mm2
20. Determine the stress of compression steel.

ie
Situation 10: For the given reinforced concrete beam in the
a. 360 MPa b. 275 MPa figure, f’c = 28 MPa, fy = 420 MPa, AS = 6000 mm2, and A’S =
c. 254 MPa d. 415 MPa
ev
1000 mm2.

Situation 7: A rectangular concrete beam of width b = 600


R
mm is limited by architectural considerations to a maximum
depth of h = 400 mm. It must carry a total factored moment
Mu = 540 kN.m. Allow 75 mm center of bars from the face of
E

the beam, use f’c = 28 MPa, fy = 420 MPa. Determine the


following:
EL

21. What is the required Tension reinforcement of the


beam?
C

a. 6044 mm2 b. 2018 mm2


c. 4026 mm2 d. 3060 mm2
EO

22. If necessary, what is the required compression


reinforcement of the beam? 25. Determine the Maximum Tension Reinforcement for
a. 6044 mm2 b. 2018 mm2 Tension Controlled Singly Reinforced action.
c. 4026 mm2 d. 3060 mm2
R

a. 5001 mm2 b. 6050 mm2


c. 6233 mm 2 d. 5310 mm2
Situation 8: Determine the Ultimate Moment Capacity of the 26. Determine the Ultimate moment Capacity.
T-beam given by the figure below. a. 868 kN.m b. 781 kN.m
c. 771 kN.m d. 857 kN.m

Situation 11: A reinforced concrete T -beam with bf = 813


mm, d = 300 mm, bw = 200 mm, t = 102 mm, f’c = 20.7 MPa,
and fy = 414 MPa is to be designed to carry a factored
f’c = 21 MPa moment of 221 kN-m.
fy = 420 MPa
27. Determine the depth of compression block.
a. 75.36 mm b. 88.42 mm
c. 64.06 mm d. 75.16 mm
28. Determine the required area of tension reinforcements.
a. 3304 mm2 b. 3940 mm2
c. 2213 mm 2 d. 3586 mm2

23. Ultimate moment Capacity.


a. 868 kN.m b. 781 kN.m
c. 771 kN.m d. 525 kN.m

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29. What is the area of reinforcement for Balance


Condition?
a. 3304 mm2 b. 3940 mm2
c. 2213 mm 2 d. 3586 mm2

Situation 12: Design a T-beam for a floor system for which bw


= 300 mm and d = 650 mm. The beams are 4.8 m long and
spaced at 3 m O.C. The slab thickness is 100 mm. MD = 450
kN-m (including its own weight), ML = 550 kN-m. f’c = 28
MPa, fy = 414 MPa.

30. Determine the effective flange width.


a. 1900 mm b. 1200 mm
c. 3000 mm d. 1800 mm
31. Determine the required area of tension reinforcements.
a. 7235 mm2 b. 8110 mm2
c. 8526 mm2 d. 6306 mm2

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32. Determine the Asmax for tension-controlled section.
a. 7235 mm2 b. 8110 mm2

ie
c. 8747 mm 2 d. 9257 mm2 ev
R
E
EL
C
EO
R

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SHEAR AND TORSION

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the Situation 3: A rectangular beam having b = 250 mm and d =
following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by 450 mm spans 4.5 m face to face of simple supports. It is
shading the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on reinforced for flexure with 3-28 mm bars that continue
the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES uninterrupted to the ends of the span. It is to carry service
ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 2 only. dead load of 18.5 kN/m (including self-weight) and service
live load of 54.0 kN/m, both are uniformly distributed along
Situation 1: A simply supported rectangular beam 400 mm the span. Use f’c = 28 MPa and fyt = 420 MPa.
wide having an effective depth of 550 mm carries a total
factored load of 137 kN/m on a 6 m clear span. It is reinforced 6. What is the factored shear at critical section?
with 4914 mm2 of tensile steel, which continues a. 244.35 kN b. 173.98 kN
uninterrupted into the supports. Use f’c = 28 MPa c. 185.33 kN d. 195.48 kN
7. What is the nominal shear strength provided by the
1. What is the factored shear at critical section?
concrete at critical section? Use Detailed method for
a. 616.50 kN b. 335.65 kN
calculating Vc.
c. 541.15 kN d. 411.00 kN
a. 172.64 kN b. 126.65 kN
2. What is the Ultimate shear strength provided by
c. 123.16 kN d. 101.20 kN
concrete only?

w
8. Determine the require spacing of shear reinforcements,
a. 148.4 kN b. 180.2 kN
use 10 mm vertical U stirrups.

ie
c. 178.1 kN d. 197.9 kN
a. 200 mm b. 210 mm
3. Throughout what part of the beam is web reinforcement
c. 230 mm d. 220 mm
ev
required?
a. 3.00 m b. 1.50 m Situation 4: A beam of 280 mm width with effective depth of
c. 2.46 m d. 0.65 m 400 mm carries a factored uniformly distributed load of 77
R

kN/m (including its own weight) in addition to a


Situation 2: For the Section shown in the figure: concentrated factored load of 53 kN at midspan. The span is
E

5.5 m and restraining end moments at full factored load are


185 kN.m each support. It is reinforced with 3-28mm bars for
EL

f’c = 28 MPa both positive and negative bending. Use f’c = 28 MPa and fyt
fyt = 275 MPa = 420 MPa.
Ast = 10-32 mm Ø
Øt = 12 mm
C

9. Through what portion of the beam is web reinforcement


s = 100mm theoretically required? Use approximate method for Vc.
Cover = 40 mm
a. 2.460 m b. 2.604 m
EO

c. 2.705 m d. 2.750 m
10. What is the Nominal shear strength provided by the
Concrete at critical section? Use detailed method for Vc.
R

4. What is the Ultimate Shear strength provided by the a. 136 kN b. 105 kN


section in x-direction, Vux? Use simplified calculation for c. 122 kN d. 128 kN
Vc . 11. If the beam is subjected to a factored axial compression
a. 607.10 kN b. 621.35 kN load of 390 kN on the 280 x 500 mm gross section, what
c. 642.55 kN d. 655.46 kN is the Nominal shear strength provided by the Concrete
5. What is the Ultimate Shear strength provided by the at critical section?
section in y-direction, Vuy? Use simplified calculation for (a) Use approximate method for Vc.
Vc . a. 205.6 kN b. 231.1 kN
a. 607.10 kN b. 621.35 kN c. 136.2 kN d. 120.8 kN
c. 642.55 kN d. 655.46 kN (b) Use detailed method for Vc
a. 205.6 kN b. 231.1 kN
c. 136.2 kN d. 120.8 kN
12. If the beam is subjected to a factored axial tension load
of 195 kN on the 280 x 500 mm gross section, what is
the Nominal shear strength provided by the Concrete at
critical section?
a. 60.7 kN b. 75.8 kN
c. 120.8 kN d. 45.9 kN

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Situation 5: For the column shown in the figure: 17. What is the Threshold Torsion, ØTh, of the Section?
a. 3.55 kN.m b. 6.18 kN.m
c. 4.73 kN.m d. 4.63 kN.m
18. If the section is subjected to a Compressive axial force,
Nu = 150 kN, determine the Threshold Torsion, ØTh.
a. 6.18 kN.m b. 4.63 kN.m
c. 5.81 kN.m d. 7.75 kN.m
19. What is the Cracking Torsion, Tcr, of the section?
a. 25.46 kN.m b. 26.54 kN.m
c. 23.65 kN.m d. 24.56 kN.m
Ast = 8-32 mm Ø bars
Clear cover = 40 mm 20. If the transverse reinforcements are spaced at 150mm,
Lateral Ties = 12 mm Ø bars what is the minimum required area of transverse
f'c = 28 MPa (Normal Weight Concrete) reinforcement, [(Av+2At) min]?
fy = 415 MPa a. 60 mm2 b. 50 mm2
c. 70 mm 2 d. 40 mm2
Load Case: 21. If the transverse reinforcements are spaced at 150mm,
Load Case A: Pu = 1400 kN

w
what is the required minimum area of Longitudinal
Mu = -400 kN
Reinforcement, Al?

ie
Vu = 350 kN
Load Case B: Pu = 500 kN a. 900 mm2 b. 800 mm2
Mu = 400 kN
ev
c. 1000 mm2 d. 700 mm2
Vu = -350 kN
R
13. What is the nominal concrete shear strength of the Situation 7: Refer to the figure shown:
section considering Load Case A and Simplified Method
of calculation?
E

a. 271 kN b. 265 kN
EL

c. 249 kN d. 220 kN
14. What is the nominal concrete shear strength of the
section considering Load Case B and Simplified Method
C

of calculation?
a. 271 kN b. 265 kN
c. 249 kN d. 220 kN
EO

15. Determine the required spacing of Shear


reinforcements.
a. 280 mm b. 260 mm
R

c. 250 mm d. 270 mm f’c = 28 MPa


fy = fyt = 415 MPa
16. If the spacing of Lateral Ties is 150mm, determine the
Concrete cover, cc = 40 mm
shear strength capacity of the section if the section is Øt = 12 mm
subjected to a factored Axial Tensile Load of 400 kN. Transverse reinforcement spacing, s = 150 mm
a. 450 kN b. 500 kN AS = 4 – 20
c. 600 kN d. 550 kN A’S = 2 – 20 mm
Al = 6 – 16 mm
Situation 6: For the Section
shown in the figure, 22. Determine the cracking torsion of the section.
a. 22.13 kN.m b. 5.57 kN.m
c. 20.55 kN.m d. 7.85 kN.m
f'c = 28 MPa
23. What is the Nominal Torsional Strength of the Section?
fy = fyt = 275 MPa
Concrete cover = 40 mm a. 48.47 kN.m b. 34.29 kN.m
c. 36.35 kN.m d. 25.72 kN.m

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Situation 8: The 8.0 m span beam shown in the figure carries


a monolithic slab cantilevering 1.8 m past the beam
centerline. The resulting L-beam supports a live load of 13
kN/m along the beam centerline plus 2.4 kN/m 2 uniformly
distributed over the upper slab surface, allow 45mm distance
from beam face to stirrups center. Use γconc. = 24 kN/m3

f'c = 35 MPa

w
fy = fyt = 420 MPa
d = 535 mm

ie
ev
R

24. Determine the factored Shear, Vu, at critical section.


a. 48.77 kN b. 162.75 kN
E

c. 55.43 kN d. 140.68 kN
EL

25. Determine the factored Torsion, Tu, at critical section.


a. 48.77 kN.m b. 162.75 kN.m
c. 55.43 kN.m d. 140.68 kN.m
C

26. Determine if the cross-sectional dimension is adequate


for the given loads, use simplified calculation for Vc.
EO

27. What is the required spacing of 10 mm Ø 2-leg


stirrups?
a. 100 mm b. 110 mm
c. 120 mm d. 130 mm
R

28. What is the required Additional Longitudinal


Reinforcement, Al?
a. 1100 mm2 b. 1200 mm2
c. 1400 mm2 d. 1300 mm2

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ENGR. RONALD MIGUEL G. DAVID

SLABS

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the Situation 3: Refer to the figure below. The unfactored
following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by uniformly distributed loads for beams FGHIJ and KLMNO are
shading the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on as follows:
the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES
ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 2 only.

Situation 1: For the solid one-way slab shown in the figure,


determine the minimum thickness for each span. The
concrete used has a normal weight of 2400 kg/m 3 and the
reinforcement used has a strength of 345 MPa.

Given: pDL = 10 kPa (Including self-wt.)


pLL = 12 kPa
L=6m
S = 2.5 m

w
1. Minimum thickness for B1.
Column Dimension = 300 mm x 300 mm
a. 256 mm b. 224 mm
U = 1.2DL + 1.6LL

ie
c. 150 mm d. 358 mm
2. Minimum thickness for B2.
9. What is the factored uniform load action on beams
ev
a. 256 mm b. 224 mm
KLMNO and FGHIJ?
c. 150 mm d. 358 mm
3. Minimum thickness for B3. a. 87 kN/m b. 89 kN/m
R
c. 85 kN/m d. 78 kN/m
a. 256 mm b. 224 mm
10. What is the maximum ultimate negative moment (kN.m)
c. 150 mm d. 358 mm
at beam KLMNO?
E

Situation 2: A three-span continuous slab shown in the figure a. 271.54 b. 230.40


EL

carries a uniform dead load of 3.4 kN/m and a uniform live c. 253.42 d. 260.87
load of 2.5 kN/m. Determine the following required using the 11. What is the maximum ultimate positive moment (kN.m)
shear and moment coefficient, Columns are typical with 500 at beam KLMNO?
C

mm x 500 mm dimension. a. 181.02 b. 149.69


c. 158.39 d. 111.55
12. What is the maximum ultimate shear(kN) at beam
EO

KLMNO?
a. 222.3 b. 265.7
c. 255.6 d. 230.5
R

Situation 4: A reinforced concrete slab is built integrally with


4. Factored Moment at point C. its supports and consists of two equal spans, each with a clear
a. 24.38 kN.m b. 21.34 kN.m span of 3.5m. The service live load is 4.8 kPa and f’c = 28 MPa
c. 35.99 kN.m d. 39.59 kN.m concrete is specified for use with fy = 420 MPa for steel
5. Factored Moment at point E. reinforcements. Use γconc. = 23.5 kN/m3.
a. 28.41 kN.m b. 32.32 kN.m
13. What is the required minimum thickness of the slab?
c. 24.38 kN.m d. 37.33 kN.m
6. Factored Moment at point F. a. 256 mm b. 224 mm
c. 150 mm d. 358 mm
a. 24.38 kN.m b. 21.34 kN.m
14. Determine the factored load carried by the slab.
c. 35.99 kN.m d. 39.59 kN.m
7. Factored Shear at point A. a. 8.33 kPa b. 11.91 kPa
c. 10.26 kPa d. 9.17 kPa
a. 29.28 kN b. 30.20 kN
15. What is the required reinforcement of the slab for
c. 26.26 kN d. 33.67 kN
8. Factored Shear at point G. positive moment?
a. 29.28 kN b. 30.20 kN a. 270 mm2 b. 250 mm2
c. 26.26 kN d. 33.67 kN c. 360 mm 2 d. 320 mm2
16. What is the required reinforcement of the slab for
Negative moment?
a. 270 mm2 b. 250 mm2
c. 360 mm2 d. 320 mm2

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17. What is the required minimum Shrinkage and 20. Determine the total factored pressure load acting on the
Temperature reinforcements per meter strip of the slab.
slab? a. 11.00 kPa b. 7.00 kPa
a. 270 mm2 b. 250 mm2 c. 10.53 kPa d. 14.23 kPa
c. 360 mm 2 d. 320 mm2 21. For the slab FGKJ, determine the total factored static
moment, Mo, acting on long direction.
Situation 5: For the floor framing plan shown, qu = 10 kPa, L a. 118.92 kN.m b. 64.01 kN.m
= 5.0m and S = 3.0m. c. 215.23 kN.m d. 158.32 kN.m
22. Determine the Column strip Negative moment for the
long direction of slab FGKJ.
a. 118.92 kN.m b. 64.01 kN.m
c. 215.23 kN.m d. 158.32 kN.m
23. Determine the Column strip Positive moment for the
long direction of slab FGKJ.
a. 118.92 kN.m b. 64.01 kN.m
c. 215.23 kN.m d. 158.32 kN.m

w
ie
ev
18. Determine the equivalent uniformly distributed load on
beams CHMR
R
a. 10.0 kN/m b. 26.4 kN/m
c. 13.2 kN/m d. 20.0 kN/m
19. Determine the equivalent uniformly distributed load on
E

beams FGHIJ (26.4 kN/m)


EL

a. 10.0 kN/m b. 26.4 kN/m


c. 13.2 kN/m d. 20.0 kN/m

Situation 6: For the floor framing plan shown, consider the


C

following:
EO

Columns = 500 x 500 mm


Beams = 300 x 500 mm (Slab included)
Slab = 150 mm thick
γconc. = 23.5 kN/m3
R

S = 4.0 m
L = 6.0 m
qDL = 3.0 kPa
qLL = 4.0 kPa

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SHORT COLUMNS

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the Situation 3: The section shown in the figure is reinforced with
following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by 8-20 mm diameter bars, locate its plastic centroid from the
shading the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on right face of the section. Use f’c = 35 MPa, and fy = 420 MPa,
the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES all dimensions are in mm.
ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 2 only.

Situation 1: An axially loaded column is to be designed for the


following service loads:
PDL = 1600 kN
PLL = 900 kN
Ø = 0.65 (Compression controlled section)
Effective cover to centroids of reinforcement is 70mm, use f’c
= 28 MPa and fy = 420 MPa

1. Determine the factored axial load.


a. 2240 kN b. 3360 kN
c. 3770 kN d. 2500 kN

w
2. If the column is to be a square tied column, what is the
required column dimension? Use 4% longitudinal steel 8. Geometric Centroid from the left face.

ie
ratio. a. 254.54 mm b. 326.52 mm
a. 400 mm b. 420 mm c. 195.46 mm d. 225.00 mm
ev
c. 410 mm d. 430 mm 9. Plastic Centroid from the right face.
3. What is the required maximum spacing of 10 mm Ø ties a. 195.78 mm b. 225.00 mm
R
if the column is tied? Use the dimension obtained from c. 254.22 mm d. 375.28 mm
previous problem. Assume the longitudinal bar is 28 10. Determine the Moment, Mu, induced by an Axial Load,
mm Ø.
E

Pu, of 811 kN applied 500 mm from the left face of the


a. 480 mm b. 440 mm section.
EL

c. 410 mm d. 520 mm a. 199.33 kN.m b. 199.07 kN.m


4. If the column is to be a circular spiral column, what is the c. 246.98 kN.m d. 246.72 kN.m
required column diameter if it is reinforced with 8-28
C

mm longitudinal bars? Situation 4: The short column shown in the figure will be
a. 425 mm b. 475 mm subjected to an eccentric load causing uniaxial bending about
EO

c. 500 mm d. 450 mm the y-axis. Use the graph in Figure A, material Strengths are
f’c = 28 MPa and fy = 420 MPa.
Situation 2: A 600 mm diameter concrete column is to be
reinforced with 8-28mm Ø longitudinal bars and 10 mm Ø
R

spiral. Use f’c = 28 MPa, fy = 420 MPa, and 40 mm concrete


cover.

5. Determine the maximum nominal axial strength of the


column.
a. 8371 kN b. 7379 kN
c. 7091 kN d. 5122 kN
6. What is the minimum Volumetric spiral reinforcement
ratio, ρs? (0.010)
a. 0.003 b. 0.010 11. What is the section Nominal Axial strength, Pn, if e =
c. 0.005 d. 0.020 200 mm?
7. What is the recommended pitch of the spiral a. 2730 kN b. 2036 kN
reinforcement? (50 mm) c. 1775 kN d. 3132 kN
a. 25 mm b. 75 mm 12. What is the corresponding Nominal Moment strength,
c. 50 mm d. 100 mm Mn?
a. 626.35 kN.m b. 551.25 kN.m
c. 407.13 kN.m d. 358.31 kN.m

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ENGR. RONALD MIGUEL G. DAVID

Situation 5: An architectural consideration requires a column


to have a dimension of b = 500 mm and h = 625 mm, the
column is to carry a service dead load of 998 kN and a
maximum service live load of 1320 kN, the corresponding
service moment are 180 kN.m and 260 kN.m for dead load
moment and live load moment, respectively. Use f’c = 28 MPa
and fy = 420 MPa.

13. What is the factored Axial Load?


a. 2318 kN b. 3310 kN
c. 3641 kN d. 1397 kN
14. What is the factored moment? 19. Stress of bars AS1.
a. 440 kN.m b. 252 kN.m a. 515.22 MPa b. 45.65 MPa
c. 632 kN.m d. 694 kN.m c. 189.13 MPa d. 280.43 MPa
15. Assume an effective cover of 62.5 mm from the face of 20. Stress of bars AS2.
the column, find the required column reinforcements a. 515.22 MPa b. 45.65 MPa
c. 189.13 MPa d. 280.43 MPa
using the Interaction Diagram in the FIGURE B.
21. Stress of bars AS3.

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a. 7813 mm2 b. 8105 mm2
a. 515.22 MPa b. 45.65 MPa
c. 7255 mm 2 d. 6945 mm2

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c. 189.13 MPa d. 280.43 MPa
22. Stress of bars AS4.
Situation 6: A 400x600 mm column is reinforced with 4-
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a. 515.22 MPa b. 45.65 MPa
32mm bars as shown in the figure below, use f’c = 28 MPa c. 189.13 MPa d. 280.43 MPa
and fy = 420 MPa. Consider a balance failure, determine the 23. Nominal Axial Load capacity, Pn
following:
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a. 1224 kN b. 3480 kN
c. 5354 kN d. 796 kN
24. Nominal Moment capacity, Mn
E

a. 1224 kN.m b. 3480 kN.m


EL

c. 5354 kN.m d. 796 kN.m

SLENDER/LONG COLUMNS
C

Situation 8: For the frame


shown in the figure, the
EO

16. Balanced Load, Pb at failure. columns are 500 x 500 mm,


a. 2523 kN b. 3155 kN and the beams are 300 x 450
mm, refer to Figure C for the
c. 2010 kN d. 5589 kN
alignment charts.
17. Balanced Moment, Mb at failure.
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a. 477 kN.m b. 733 kN.m 25. What is the effective


c. 660 kN.m d. 805 kN.m length factor of Column
18. Corresponding balanced eccentricity, eb. AC?
a. 237.3 mm b. 144.0 mm a. 1.00
c. 209.2 mm d. 290.7 mm b. 0.84
c. 0.76
Situation 7: The Column shown in the figure is reinforced d. 0.92
with 10-36 mm Ø bars distributed around the perimeter as 26. What is the effective
shown. Load Pn will be applied with eccentricity e about the
length factor of Column BD?
strong axis, find the Load Pn and Moment Mn corresponding
to a failure point with neutral axis c = 460 mm from the right a. 1.0 b. 0.84
face. Use f’c = 42 MPa, and fy = 550 MPa, dimensions are in c. 0.76 d. 0.92
mm. 27. Determine the effective length factor of Column AC
considering the reduction of Section properties from
Table 406.6.3.1.1(a) of NSCP 2015.
a. 0.50 b. 0.86
c. 0.98 d. 0.74

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Reinforced Concrete Design - 5


ENGR. RONALD MIGUEL G. DAVID

28. Determine the effective length factor of Column BD 34. Solve for (EI)eff about the weak axis using equation
considering the reduction of Section properties from (406.6.4.4.4b) of NSCP-2015, use βdns = 0.45.
Table 406.6.3.1.1(a) of NSCP 2015.
a. 0.50 b. 0.86 𝟎. 𝟐𝐄𝐂 𝐈𝐠 + 𝐄𝐬 𝐈𝐬𝐞
(𝐄𝐈)𝐞𝐟𝐟 =
c. 0.98 d. 0.74 𝟏 + 𝛃𝐝𝐧𝐬

Situation 9: A column braced against sidesway has a a. 7208x109 b. 6899x109


dimension of 400 mm x 600 mm, the column supports a c. 6946x10 9 d. 7188x109
factored axial load of 1150 kN, a factored end moment of 391 35. Determine the critical buckling load, Pc using the (EI)eff
kN-m and 185 kN-m, about its strong axis, causing a single from the previous question.
curvature for the column along its unsupported length of 6.0 a. 1900 kN b. 2100 kN
m. Use k = 0.9 for both directions, f’c = 28 MPa, and fy = 420
c. 2200 kN d. 2000 kN
MPa.

29. What is the slenderness ratio of the column about its Situation 11: For the Column shown in the figure, f’c = 28
MPa, fy = 420 MPa, Flexural rigidity EI = 1025000 N-m2, and
strong axis?
the effective length factor, k = 0.85.
a. 34.64 b. 31.18

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c. 51.97 d. 46.77 Factored Loads: Axial = 490 kN
30. What is the slenderness ratio of the column about its Mtop = 350 kN-m

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weak axis? Mbot = 215 kN-m
a. 34.64 b. 31.18 (Double Curvature)
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c. 51.97 d. 46.77
31. Determine the Euler’s Critical Buckling load, Pc, of the
R
column if (EI)eff = 12.714x1012 N-mm2.
a. 5365 kN b. 3487 kN
c. 2797 kN d. 4303 kN
E

32. What is the moment magnification factor, δ, for the


EL

column?
a. 1.00 b. 1.52
c. 1.23 d. 0.95
C

Situation 10: The rectangular tied column shown in the figure


has an unsupported length, Lu = 8.5 m and has an effective
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length factor, k = 0.70. Use f’c = 28 MPa, fy = 420 MPa, E S =


200,000 MPa and EC = 24870 MPa.
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36. What is the unsupported length of the column?


a. 5.00 m b. 5.25 m
c. 4.70 m d. 3.90 m
37. What is the Euler’s critical buckling load, Pc?
33. Solve for (EI)eff about the weak axis using equation a. 905 kN b. 892 kN
(406.6.4.4.4a) of NSCP-2015, use βdns = 0.45. c. 850 kN d. 921 kN
38. What is the Moment magnification factor, δ?
𝟎. 𝟒𝐄𝐂 𝐈𝐠 a. 1.12 b. 1.35
(𝐄𝐈)𝐞𝐟𝐟 =
𝟏 + 𝛃𝐝𝐧𝐬 c. 1.00 d. 1.22

a. 7208x109 b. 6899x109
c. 6946x109 d. 7188x109

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Reinforced Concrete Design - 5


ENGR. RONALD MIGUEL G. DAVID

Situation 12: The 375 x 375 mm column shown in the figure


must extend from the footing level to the second floor of a
braced frame structure with an unsupported length of 6.15
m. Use f’c = 28 MPa, fy = 420 MPa, Effective Length factor k =
0.9, and Clear cover, cc = 50mm

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Factored Loads:
Dead Loads Live Loads
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P = 733 kN P = 430 kN
MTop = 39 kN-m MTop = 67.5 kN-m
MBot = 19.5 kN-m MBot = 33.5 kN-m
E

39. Solve for (EI)eff about the weak axis using equation
EL

(406.6.4.4.4a) of NSCP-2015.

𝟎. 𝟒𝐄𝐂 𝐈𝐠
C

(𝐄𝐈)𝐞𝐟𝐟 =
𝟏 + 𝛃𝐝𝐧𝐬
EO

a. 9825x109 N-mm2
b. 10502x109 N-mm2
c. 10926x109 N-mm2
d. 11326x109 N-mm2
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40. What is the Column’s critical buckling load, Pc?


a. 3450 kN b. 3270 kN
c. 3380 kN d. 3305 kN
41. What is the Moment magnification factor, δ?
a. 1.05 b. 1.00
c. 1.15 d. 1.23

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Reinforced Concrete Design - 5


ENGR. RONALD MIGUEL G. DAVID

FIGURE A: Column Strength Interaction diagram for


rectangular section with bars on end faces. (γ = 0.70)

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E
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C
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ENGR. RONALD MIGUEL G. DAVID

FIGURE B: Column Strength Interaction diagram for


rectangular section with bars on four faces. (γ = 0.80)

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E
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C
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ENGR. RONALD MIGUEL G. DAVID

FIGURE C: Alignment Chart for Non-sway (Braced)


Frames and Sway (Unbraced) Frames

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E
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C
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Reinforced Concrete Design - 6


ENGR. RONALD MIGUEL G. DAVID

BOND, ANCHORAGE AND DEVELOPMENT LENGTH

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the 5. Find the minimum length of embedment of the hook
following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by past the column face.
shading the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on a. 385 mm b. 412 mm
the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES c. 441 mm d. 482 mm
ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 2 only.
Situation 3: Determine the development length required for
Situation 1: A reinforced concrete beam has the following the epoxy-coated bars of the cantilever beam shown, use f’c
given: = 28 MPa and fy = 420 MPa:
Beam Depth, h = 70 mm
Tension Reinforcements, As
6-32 mm in 2 layers with 3 each layer
Clear Cover, cc = 40 mm
Stirrups diameter = 12 mm

1. What is the minimum beam width required?


a. 264 mm b. 250 mm
c. 314 mm d. 282 mm

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2. If the beam width is 350 mm, what is the horizontal
clear spacing of the Tension reinforcement?

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a. 60 mm b. 65 mm
c. 70 mm d. 75 mm
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Situation 2: Refer to the figure shown:
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6. The Development length if the bars straight, assume K tr
= 0.
a. 2750 mm b. 3320 mm
E

c. 2950 mm d. 3160 mm
7. If 180° hook is used.
EL

a. 500 mm b. 550 mm
c. 450 mm d. 650 mm
8. If 90° hook is used, assume cover on bar extension
C

beyond hook equals 50 mm.


a. 500 mm b. 550 mm
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c. 450 mm d. 650 mm
9. If Headed bars are used.
a. 500 mm b. 550 mm
c. 450 mm d. 600 mm
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Given: Required As base on analysis = 1870 mm2


Provided As = 2 – 36 mm bars
Stirrups:
Diameter =10 mm
Spacing = 4 @ 75mm and rest @ 125 mm
Concrete cover = 40 mm
f'c = 28 MPa (Normal wt. concrete)
fy = 420 MPa

3. Determine the required development length of the


Tension bar using the simplified formula.
a. 1820 mm b. 1890 mm
c. 1950 mm d. 2010 mm
4. Determine the required development length of the
Tension bar using the more accurate formula.
a. 1360 mm b. 1420 mm
c. 1500 mm d. 1580 mm

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Steel Design – Load Combinations


ENGR. CHRISTIAN E. BALDO

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the Alternate ASD Load Combinations
following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by 𝑅𝑎 = 𝐷 + 𝐻 + 𝐹 + 0.75𝐿 + 0.75(0.6𝑊) + 0.75(𝐿𝑟 𝑜𝑟 𝑅)
shading the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on 𝑅𝑎 = 𝐷 + 0.75𝐿 ± 0.75(𝐸/1.4)
the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES 𝑅𝑎 = 0.6𝐷 ± 0.6𝑊 + 𝐻
ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 2 only. 𝑅𝑎 = 0.6𝐷 ± 𝐸/1.4 + 𝐻
1. The value which is determined by dividing the nominal 7. Determine the factored load (LRFD).
or theoretical strength by a factor of safety. a. 679 kN c. 923 kN
a. Yield Strength c. Ultimate Strength b. 952 kN d. 932 kN
b. Allowable Strength d. Rupture Strength
8. If the resistance factor 𝜙 is 0.90, what is the required
2. Working loads are also known as nominal strength?
a. Required loads c. Ultimate Loads a. 754 kN c. 1026 kN
b. Allowable loads d. Service Loads b. 1058 kN d. 1036 kN

3. This type of design is based on a consideration of failure 9. Determine the required service load strength (ASD).
conditions rather than working load conditions. a. 570 kN c. 702 kN
a. Elastic Design c. ASD b. 690 kN d. 609 kN

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b. Working Stress Design d. Plastic Design

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10. If the safety factor Ω is 1.67, what is the required nominal
4. A condition wherein an entire cross section becomes strength based on the required service strength?
plastic at enough locations leading to formation of plastic
ev
a. 951 kN c. 1172 kN
hinges. b. 1152 kN d. 1017 kN
a. Large Deformation c. Strain-hardening
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b. Collapse Mechanism d. Yielding Situation 2: Structural steel buildings frequently are designed
with diagonal bracing systems to resist lateral loads (horizontal
E

5. A design method similar to plastic design wherein the forces resulting from wind or earthquake loadings). A certain
theoretical strength of the member is reduced by the bracing system is subjected to the following loads:
EL

Dead load: 59 kN, Occupancy live load: 31 kN


application of a resistance factor. Roof live load: 6 kN
a. ASD c. WSD Wind load: 670 kN, Earthquake load: 717 kN
b. LRFD d. DSWD
C

11. Determine the required factored load capacity (LRFD).


6. It is the term used to denote the factored resistance. a. 819 kN c. 770 kN
EO

a. Allowable Strength c. Elastic Strength b. 723 kN d. 775 kN


b. Design Strength d. Plastic Strength
12. If the resistance factor 𝜙 is 0.90, what is the required
Situation 1: A column (compression member) in the upper nominal strength?
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story of a building is subject to the following loads: a. 803 kN c. 856 kN


Dead load: 485 kN compression
b. 910 kN d. 861 kN
Floor live load: 205 kN compression
Roof live load: 85 kN compression
13. Determine the required service load capacity (ASD).
LRFD Load combinations a. 571 kN c. 90 kN
𝑅𝑢 = 1.4(𝐷 + 𝐹) b. 461 kN d. 715 kN
𝑅𝑢 = 1.2(𝐷 + 𝐹) + 1.6𝐿 + 0.5(𝐿𝑟 𝑜𝑟 𝑅)
𝑅𝑢 = 1.2𝐷 + 1.6(𝐿𝑟 𝑜𝑟 𝑅) + (𝐿 𝑜𝑟 0.5𝑊)
14. If the safety factor Ω is 1.67, what is the required nominal
𝑅𝑢 = 1.2𝐷 ± 1.0𝑊 + 𝐿 + 0.5(𝐿𝑅 𝑜𝑟 𝑅)
𝑅𝑢 = 1.2𝐷 ± 1.0𝐸 + 𝐿 strength based on the required service strength?
𝑅𝑢 = 0.9𝐷 ± 1.0𝑊 a. 770 kN c. 954 kN
𝑅𝑢 = 0.9𝐷 ± 1.0𝐸 b. 150 kN d. 1194 kN

ASD Load Combinations END OF HANDOUT


𝑅𝑎 = 𝐷 + 𝐹
𝑅𝑎 = 𝐷 + 𝐻 + 𝐹 + 𝐿 + 𝑇
𝑅𝑎 = 𝐷 + 𝐻 + 𝐹 + (𝐿𝑟 𝑜𝑟 𝑅)
“Hard work beats talent when
𝑅𝑎 = 𝐷 + 𝐻 + 𝐹 + 0.75𝐿 + 0.75(𝐿𝑟 𝑜𝑟 𝑅)
𝑅𝑎 = 𝐷 + 𝐻 + 𝐹 + (0.6𝑊 𝑜𝑟 𝐸/1.4)
talent fails to work hard.”
-Tim Notke

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Steel Design – Tension Members


ENGR. CHRISTIAN E. BALDO

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the


following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by
shading the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on
the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES
ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 2 only.
Figure 3.
Situation 1: A 12.7 mm thick by 127 mm wide plate of A36
steel (𝐹𝑦 = 248 𝑀𝑃𝑎, 𝐹𝑢 = 400 𝑀𝑃𝑎) is used as a tension
5. Which of the following most nearly gives the design
member. It is connected to a gusset plate with four 15.875
mm – diameter bolts as shown in figure 1. Assume that the tensile strength (𝑘𝑁) for LRFD?
effective net area 𝐴𝑒 equals the actual net area 𝐴𝑛 and that a. 586 c. 694
the hole-diameter is 3.175 mm greater than the bolt- b. 463 d. 391
diameter.
6. Which of the following most nearly gives the design
tensile strength (𝑘𝑁) for ASD?
a. 586 c. 694
b. 463 d. 391

Situation 4: An A36 single-angle shape is shown in figure 4.

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The hole-diameter is 19.05 mm. The gross area of one
Figure 1. 𝐿6 × 6 × 1⁄2 is 3722.5732 mm2.

1. Determine the design strength (𝑘𝑁).


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a. 360 c. 339
b. 240 d. 226
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2. Determine the allowable strength (𝑘𝑁).


a. 360 c. 339
E

b. 240 d. 226 Figure 4.


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Situation 2: A single-angle A36 steel tension member, an 7. Which of the following most nearly gives the effective net
𝐿3 1⁄2 × 3 1⁄2 × 3⁄8, is connected to a gusset plate with area (mm2) of the tension member?
a. 3239 c. 2133
C

22.225 mm-diameter bolts as shown in figure 2. The gross


b. 1934 d. 2323
area of the angle is 1612.9 mm2.
EO

8. Which of the following most nearly gives the design


strength (kN) of the tension member?
a. 831 c. 697
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b. 554 d. 465

9. Which of the following most nearly gives the allowable


Figure 2. strength (kN) of the tension member?
a. 831 c. 697
3. Determine the DCR for LRFD.
b. 554 d. 465
a. 0.834 c. 1.199
b. 0.948 d. 1.055 Situation 5: An A36 single-angle is welded to the gusset plate
as shown in figure 5.
4. Determine the DCR for ASD.
a. 0.834 c. 1.199
b. 0.948 d. 1.055

Situation 3: An A36 double-angle shape is shown in figure 3.


The hole-diameter is 15.875 mm. Assume that the effective
area is 75% of the net area. The gross area of one
𝐿5 × 3 × 5⁄16 is 1554.8356 mm2. Figure 5.
10. Which of the following most nearly gives the effective
area (mm2) of the tension member?
a. 3239 c. 2133

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ENGR. HANS LAWRENCE E. DELA CRUZ

b. 2550 d. 2323

11. Which of the following most nearly gives the design


strength (kN) of the tension member?
Figure 7.
a. 831 c. 765
b. 554 d. 510

12. Which of the following most nearly gives the design


strength (kN) of the tension member?
a. 831 c. 765
b. 554 d. 510

Situation 6: The diameter of the holes for the 20 mm thick


plate shown in figure 6 is 28.575 mm.
17. Which of the following most nearly gives the smallest
effective net area (mm2) for the tension member?
a. 2632 c. 3561

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b. 3752 d. 3311
18. Which of the following most nearly gives the design

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strength(kN) for LRFD?
a. 979 c. 653
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b. 993 d. 662
Figure 6.
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13. Which of the following most nearly gives the net area 19. Which of the following most nearly gives the design
(mm2) considering the path 𝑎𝑏𝑐𝑑𝑒? strength(kN) for ASD?
E

a. 8086 c. 8000 a. 979 c. 653


b. 6857 d. 7757 b. 993 d. 662
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Situation 8: An A36 angle is used as a tension member as


14. Which of the following most nearly gives the net area
shown in figure 8. The diameter of the holes is 25 mm. The
(mm2) considering the path 𝑎𝑏𝑑𝑒?
C

gross area of 𝐿89 × 89 × 9.5 is 1600 mm2. The centroid of the


a. 8086 c. 8000 cross-section is located at a distance of 25.4 mm from the
b. 6857 d. 7757 leg’s outer surface.
EO

15. Which of the following most nearly gives the net area
(mm2) considering the path 𝑎𝑏𝑐𝑔?
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a. 8086 c. 8000 Figure 8.


b. 6857 d. 7757 20. Which of the following most nearly gives the effective net
area (mm2) for the tension member?
16. Which of the following most nearly gives the net area a. 1131 c. 818
(mm2) considering the path 𝑎𝑏𝑐𝑓ℎ? b. 1326 d. 1360
a. 8086 c. 8000
b. 6857 d. 7757 21. Which of the following most nearly gives the nominal
block shear strength(kN) of the member?
Situation 7: An A36 angle with staggered fasteners in each leg a. 391 c. 294
is shown in figure 7. The diameter of the holes is 25 mm. The
b. 369 d. 196
gross area of the angle is 4387.088 mm2.

22. Which of the following most nearly gives the design


strength(kN) for LRFD?
a. 357 c. 277
b. 340 d. 294

23. Which of the following most nearly gives the design


strength(kN) for ASD?
a. 238 c. 185

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b. 226 d. 272

Situation 9: A 10 mm-thick A242 steel plate is connected to a


gusset plate of same thickness and material as shown in
figure 9. The diameter of the holes is 22 mm. For A242 steel,
𝐹𝑦 = 345 𝑀𝑃𝑎, 𝐹𝑢 = 483 𝑀𝑃𝑎.

30. Which of the following most nearly gives the required


strength (kN) of rod 𝐴𝐵 for LRFD?
a. 107 c. 104
b. 208 d. 214

Figure 9.
31. Which of the following most nearly gives the required
24. Calculate the nominal block shear strength of the plate. diameter as per LRFD?
a. 391 kN c. 990 kN a. 36 c. 20
b. 369 kN d. 739 kN b. 48 d. 25

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25. Which of the following most nearly gives the design 32. Which of the following most nearly gives the required

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strength(kN) for LRFD? diameter as per ASD?
a. 366 c. 450 a. 36 c. 20
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b. 340 d. 739 b. 48 d. 25
26. Which of the following most nearly gives the design
END OF HANDOUT
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strength(kN) for ASD?
a. 244
b. 300
c.
d.
397
370 “Your chances of getting
E

something if you don’t try is 0%”


EL

Situation 10: An A36 threaded rod is to be used as a bracing


member that must resist a service tensile load of 8.9 kN dead
load and 26.7 kN live load. -Christine Ha
C

27. Which of the following most nearly gives the required


strength(kN) for LRFD?
EO

a. 53 c. 43
b. 35 d. 39
R

28. Which of the following most nearly gives the required


diameter as per LRFD?
a. 12 c. 20
b. 16 d. 25

29. Which of the following most nearly gives the required


diameter as per ASD?
a. 12 c. 20
b. 16 d. 25

Situation 11: A W410x60 A36 girder carrying a stationary


live load of 130 kN is supported by two tension rods 𝐴𝐵 and
𝐶𝐷 which are 6 m apart, as shown in figure 10. The length of
each overhang is 1.5 m. Neglect the mass of the rods.

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INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the 4. Determine the maximum load 𝑃 that may be applied
following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by without exceeding the allowable strength based on
shading the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on shearing of the bolts.
the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES
a. 127 kN c. 278 kN
ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 2 only.
b. 361 kN d. 233 kN
Situation 1: The 13-mm thick plates of the lap joint shown is
made of A36 steel whose yield strength and tensile strength 5. Determine the maximum load 𝑃 that may be applied
is 248 MPa and 400 MPa, respectively. The bolts are A325-
without exceeding the allowable strength based on
M22. The holes are standard sizes and the threads are
excluded from the shear plane. Assume that deformation at bearing capacity.
bolt holes is a design consideration. a. 127 kN c. 278 kN
b. 361 kN d. 233 kN

6. Which of the following most nearly gives the maximum


load 𝑃 at the required strength level that may be applied
without exceeding the allowable slip-critical strength?
a. 127 kN c. 278 kN
b. 361 kN d. 233 kN

w
Situation 3: A butt joint has 9-M20 A325 bolts as shown. The

ie
threads are excluded from the shear planes. The yield
strength and tensile strength of the plates are 248 MPa and
ev
400 MPa, respectively.
R

1. Determine the nominal strength of the lap joint based on


bearing strength of the bolts on the plate.
E

a. 318 kN c. 274 kN
b. 1272 kN d. 1098 kN
EL

2. Determine the nominal strength of the lap joint based on


the shear strength of the bolts.
C

a. 424 kN c. 566 kN
b. 695 kN d. 521 kN
EO

3. Determine the design strength of the lap joint.


a. 870 kN c. 274 kN 7. Determine the nominal strength (kN) based on shearing
R

b. 521 kN d. 926 kN strength of the bolts.


a. 1435 c. 1292
Situation 2: The connection shown uses A325 - M20 bolts b. 2871 d. 2584
with threads in the shear plane and with class A faying
surfaces. No slip is permitted. Both the 13 mm-thick tension 8. Determine the nominal strength (kN) based on the
member and the 10 mm-thick gusset plate are of A36 steel. bearing strength of the bolts on the plate.
Assume a standard hole size. a. 4212 c. 2106
b. 5391 d. 2695

Situation 4: A 6 mm-fillet weld is formed by the shielded


metal arc process (SMAW) and E70 electrodes with a
minimum tensile strength of 483 MPa. Assume that load is to
be applied parallel to the weld length.

9. Determine the LRFD design strength of a 1 mm length of


weld.
a. 1292 N/mm c. 1229 N/mm
b. 922 N/mm d. 992 N/mm

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10. Determine the allowable strength (ASD) for a 500 mm a. 368 c. 956
length of weld. b. 736 d. 478
a. 921 kN c. 307 kN 16. If the length of weld in each side is 400 mm, determine
b. 460 kN d. 615 kN the (ASD) allowable strength (kN) of the welds.
a. 245 c. 318
11. Determine the LRFD design strength for a 750 mm length b. 637 d. 492
of weld.
a. 922 kN c. 875 kN 17. If the length of weld in each side is 700 mm, determine
b. 691 kN d. 656 kN the (ASD) allowable strength (kN) of the welds.
a. 1116 c. 2159
Situation 5: The connection shown consists of A572 Grade 50 b. 1079 d. 558
steel having a yield strength of 345 MPa and a tensile strength
of 450 MPa. By SMAW process, an 11 mm-thick fillet welds Situation 7: An 8 mm-thick SMAW fillet welds formed with
were made using E70 electrodes. E70 electrodes will resist a load passing through the center of
the weld group.

w
ie
ev
R

12. Which of the following most nearly gives the nominal


E

strength of the connection based on strength of the


welds?
EL

18. Which of the following most nearly gives the nominal


a. 1126 kN c. 3888 kN
strength (kN) of the welds?
b. 2254 kN d. 804 kN
a. 1065 c. 1270
C

b. 1171 d. 737
13. Which of the following most nearly gives the (LRFD)
design strength (kN) of the connection?
19. Which of the following most nearly gives the (LRFD)
EO

a. 845 c. 2254
design strength (kN) of the welds?
b. 1690 d. 1582
a. 553 c. 799
b. 952 d. 878
14. Which of the following most nearly gives the (ASD)
R

allowable strength (kN) of the connection?


20. Which of the following most nearly gives the allowable
a. 1126 c. 1054
strength (kN) of the welds?
b. 1291 d. 563
a. 368 c. 532
Situation 6: A 6 mm-thick SMAW fillet welds formed with E70 b. 635 d. 585
electrodes will resist a load at angle of 45° passing through
the center of the weld group. Situation 8: The angle shown has a gross area of 2419.35 mm2
and is subjected to repeated stress variations which makes
any connection eccentricity undesirable. The yield strength
and tensile strength of the members are 345 MPa and 450
MPa, respectively. E70 electrodes and the SMAW process
should be used in designing the fillet welds. Assume that the
WT chord member has adequate strength to develop the weld
strengths and that the thickness of its web is 12.7 mm. The
centroid of the angle is at a distance of 18.9 mm from the
outer surface of the longer leg.

15. If the length of weld in each side is 300 mm, determine


the (ASD) allowable strength (kN) of the welds.

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21. Which of the following most nearly gives the (LRFD)


design strength of the angle based on yielding of gross
area?
a. 834 kN c. 1669 kN

w
b. 1502 kN d. 751 kN

22. According to NSCP 2015, which of the following most


nearly gives the maximum thickness allowed for the
ie
ev
welds shown above?
a. 9 c. 11
R
b. 12 d. 10
E

23. Using the maximum thickness allowed in the previous


number, which of the following most nearly gives the
EL

required total length of the welds to achieve full


capacity?
a. 489 mm c. 543 mm
C

b. 451 mm d. 346 mm
EO

24. Which of the following most nearly gives the appropriate


value for 𝐿1 ?
a. 360 mm c. 160 mm
R

b. 320 mm d. 190 mm

25. Which of the following most nearly gives the appropriate


value for 𝐿2 ?
a. 360 mm c. 170 mm
b. 320 mm d. 190 mm

26. Considering the answer in #24 for 𝐿1 and the answer in


#25 for 𝐿2 , which of the following most nearly gives the
nominal block shear strength for the WT shape?
a. 1935 kN c. 2171 kN
b. 1567 kN d. 1451 kN

END OF HANDOUT
“The bitterness of failure sweetens the
success.”

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Steel Design – Eccentric Connections


ENGR. CHRISTIAN E. BALDO

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the 5. Which of the following most nearly gives the design shear
following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by strength of one bolt if the threads are excluded from
shading the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on shear planes?
the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES
a. 141 kN c. 130 kN
ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 2 only.
b. 106 kN d. 173 kN
Situation 1: The bracket connection is subjected to a service
load 𝑃 = 220 𝑘𝑁 at a slope of 1H:2V. 6. Which of the following most nearly gives the maximum
load 𝑃𝑢 that may be applied?
a. 244 kN c. 219 kN
b. 237 kN d. 291 kN

7. If the dead load is 70 kN, which of the following most


nearly gives the service live load that can be applied?
a. 84 kN c. 100 kN
b. 95 kN d. 129 kN

Situation 3: The tension member is subjected to a service

w
axial load 𝑃 consisting of 350 kN dead load and 440 kN live
load as shown. It is connected to a bearing type-connection

ie
having 8-M22 A325M high-strength bolts having threads that
are excluded from the shear planes. Use ASD.
ev
R

1. Which of the following most nearly gives the service


shear force in each bolt due to force alone?
E

a. 55 kN c. 44 kN
EL

b. 27 kN d. 22 kN
2. Which of the following most nearly gives the developed
torque in the bolt group? 8. Which of the following most nearly gives the (ASD)
C

a. 49 kN-m c. 65 kN-m allowable shear strength (kN) of one bolt?


b. 66 kN-m d. 56 kN-m a. 141 c. 86
b. 70 d. 173
EO

3. Which of the following most nearly gives the critical bolt


load?
a. 45 kN c. 62 kN 9. Which of the following most nearly gives the (ASD)
b. 67 kN d. 74 kN actual shear stress in one bolt?
R

4. If the nominal shear stress of the bolts to be used is 168 a. 130 MPa c. 260 MPa
MPa, which of the following bolt diameter should be b. 116 MPa d. 232 MPa
used?
a. 32 mm c. 22 mm 10. Are the bolts adequate?
b. 25 mm d. 36 mm a. Yes c. No, use M27
b. No, use M24 d. No, use M30
Situation 2: Four M22 A325M bolts of the bearing-type
connection shown will be used to carry the ultimate load 𝑃𝑢 . Situation 4: A group of twelve M22 A325M bolts with
standard holes is used in a lap joint for a slip-critical joint
Assume that the bearing strength of the bolts is adequate.
designed to prevent slip. The connection is to resist the
Also, the member is adequate for all other modes of failure. service shear loads consisting of 178 kN dead load and 222
kN live load, as well as the tensile service loads consisting of
222 kN dead load and 222 kN live load. The faying surface is
Class B. Use LRFD.

11. Which of the following most nearly gives the factored


shear load to be resisted by the connection?
a. 568 kN c. 444 kN
b. 621 kN d. 400 kN

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ENGR. CHRISTIAN E. BALDO

12. Which of the following most nearly gives the factored Situation 7: The bracket connection shown is to be made with
tensile load to be resisted by the connection? E70 electrodes fillet welds (hatched) through SMAW process.
a. 568 kN c. 444 kN The plate is 10 mm thick. The connection is subjected to an
eccentric factored load 𝑃𝑢 = 110 𝑘𝑁.
b. 621 kN d. 400 kN

13. Which of the following most nearly gives the nominal slip
resistance of the connection considering the combined
shear and tensile loads?
a. 2084 kN c. 1193 kN
b. 1563 kN d. 882 kN

Situation 6: A beam-to-column connection is made with a


structural tee as shown. Eight M20 A325M fully tightened 18. Which of the following most nearly gives the ultimate
bearing type bolts whose threads are in the plane of shear load on the welds per unit length considering no
were used to attach the flange of the tee to the column flange. eccentricity?
The connection is subjected to a service dead load of 88 kN a. 314 N/mm c. 489 N/mm
and a live load of 177 kN at an eccentricity of 70 mm. All
b. 244 N/mm d. 629 N/mm
structural steel is A992 having a yield strength of 345 MPa

w
and a tensile strength of 450 MPa. Use LRFD. 19. Which of the following most nearly gives the equivalent
Section 𝑊𝑇265 × 46 𝑊250 × 73 torque applied on the weld group?

ie
𝐴 5890 mm2 9290 mm2 a. 33 kN-m c. 22 kN-m
𝑑 267 mm 254 mm b. 31 kN-m d. 27 kN-m
ev
𝑡𝑤 10.2 mm 8.64 mm 20. Which of the following most nearly gives the required
𝑏𝑓 209 mm 254 mm weld size or nominal thickness?
𝑡𝑓 15.6 mm 14.2 mm
R
a. 7 mm c. 8 mm
b. 9 mm d. 10 mm
E

Situation 8: The welds shown are subjected to a combination


of shear and bending. The dead load and live load to be
EL

carried are 44 kN and 88 kN respectively. The length of the


vertical welds is 𝐿 = 200 𝑚𝑚 with end returns at the top of
the connection and the load 𝑃 is applied at an eccentricity of
C

𝑒 = 60 𝑚𝑚. Use ASD.


EO
R

14. Which of the following most nearly gives the (LRFD)


design shear strength of one bolt?
a. 107 kN c. 117 kN 21. Which of the following most nearly gives the resulting
b. 143 kN d. 87 kN moment due to the total service load applied?
15. Which of the following most nearly gives the DCR for a. 834 c. 7.92 kN-m
shear strength of the bolts? b. 1502 d. 11.62 kN-m
a. 0.34 c. 0.45 22. Which of the following most nearly gives the maximum
b. 0.55 d. 0.42 load per unit length experienced by the welds due to
16. Which of the following most nearly gives the (LRFD) combined shear and tension?
design tensile strength of the bolt that is subjected to the a. 679 N/mm c. 330 N/mm
most critical load due to combined shear and tension? b. 494 N/mm d. 594 N/mm
a. 194 kN c. 145 kN 23. Which of the following most nearly gives the required
b. 176 kN d. 108 kN weld size or nominal thickness?
17. Which of the following most nearly gives the maximum a. 4 mm c. 6 mm
DCR for tensile strength of a single bolt? b. 7 mm d. 5 mm
a. 0.37 c. 0.50
END OF HANDOUT
b. 0.28 d. 0.31

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Steel Design – Beams


ENGR. CHRISTIAN E. BALDO

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the IV. Elastic Web local buckling (𝑊𝐿𝐵)
following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by V. Inelastic Lateral-torsional buckling (𝐿𝑇𝐵)
shading the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on VI. Inelastic Flange local buckling (𝐹𝐿𝐵)
the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES VII. Inelastic Web local buckling (𝑊𝐿𝐵)
ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 2 only. a. I, II, III, IV c. I to VII
Situation 1: The built-up section shown will be subjected to b. I, III, IV, IV, VII d. I, V, VI, VII
bending about the 𝑥 − axis. The thickness of the vertical web
is 12 mm. The yield strength of the steel used is 345 MPa. Situation 3: NSCP 2015 classifies cross-sectional shapes as
compact, non-compact or slender, depending on the values of
the width-to-thickness ratios. For hot-rolled 𝐼 shapes in
flexure,

Element 𝜆 𝜆𝑝 𝜆𝑟
Flange 𝑏𝑓 𝐸 𝐸
0.38√ 1.0√
(unstiffened element) 2𝑡𝑓 𝐹𝑦 𝐹𝑦
1. Determine the elastic section modulus of, 𝑆𝑥 (𝑚𝑚3 ).
Web ℎ 𝐸 𝐸
a. 1589000 c. 1807500 3.76√ 5.70√
(stiffened element) 𝑡𝑤 𝐹𝑦 𝐹𝑦
b. 760417 d. 1687500

w
2. Which of the following most nearly gives the plastic

ie
modulus, 𝑍𝑥 , with respect to 𝑥 − axis? 𝜆 − width-thickness ratio, 𝜆𝑝 − upper limit for compact
a. 1589000 c. 1807500 category, 𝜆𝑟 − upper limit for non-compact category,
ev
b. 760417 d. 1687500 ℎ −overall depth, 𝑏𝑓 − flange width, 𝑡𝑓 − flange thickness,
3. Which of the following most nearly gives the yield 𝑡𝑤 − web thickness
R
moment (kN) about the 𝑥 − axis?
a. 262 c. 624 The category is based on the worst width-to-thickness ratio
b. 548 d. 582 of the cross-section. For example, if the web is compact and
E

the flange is non-compact, the shape is classified as non-


4. Which of the following most nearly gives the plastic compact.
EL

moment (kN) about the 𝑥 − axis?


a. 262 c. 624 A 9 m simply supported beam supports a service dead load of
b. 548 d. 582 6.6 kN/m. The service live load is 8 kN/m. The beam is
C

laterally supported continuously. The properties of the


Situation 2: The properties of two 𝑊 sections are shown W410x46.1 (𝐹𝑦 = 345 𝑀𝑃𝑎) used for the beam are shown:
below. All dimensions are in millimeters. The yield strength
EO

of the steel used is 345 MPa. Overall depth (ℎ) 404.00 mm


Flange Width (𝑏𝑓 ) 140.00 mm
Section
11.20 mm
R

(𝑚𝑚 × 𝑘𝑔/𝑚) (𝑑) (𝑏𝑓 ) (𝑡𝑓 ) (𝑡𝑤 ) Flange Thickness (𝑡𝑓 )


W310x143 323 310 22.9 14.0 Web Thickness (𝑡𝑤 ) 6.99 mm
W250x101 264 257 19.6 11.9
8. Classify the cross-section of the beam.
5. Determine the plastic modulus (mm3) of 𝑊310 × 143 a. compact c. partially non-compact
with respect to strong axis. b. slender d. non-compact
a. 2939349 c. 2399349 9. Which of the following most nearly gives the nominal
b. 1318433 d. 1381433 flexural strength (kN-m) of the beam?
6. Which of the following most nearly gives the plastic a. 300 c. 270
moment (kN-m) for a 𝑊310 × 143 with respect to strong b. 216 d. 152
axis? 10. Which of the following most nearly gives the design
a. 828 c. 882 flexural strength of the beam?
b. 477 d. 447 a. 300 c. 270
7. Which of the following steel beam failure/failures is/are b. 216 d. 152
possible? 11. Which of the following most nearly gives the factored
I. The beam will reach its plastic moment and moment (kN-m) to be carried by the beam?
will become fully plastic. a. 300 c. 270
II. Elastic Lateral-torsional buckling (𝐿𝑇𝐵) b. 216 d. 152
III. Elastic Flange local buckling (𝐹𝐿𝐵)

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12. Is the beam adequate to resist the loadings? DCR means distributed load if the unbraced length is equal to half of
Demand Capacity Ratio. the beam’s length?
a. No, DCR = 1.778 c. No, DCR = 1.252
b. Yes, DCR = 0.562 d. Yes, DCR = 0.799

Situation 4: A W360x101 made of A242 steel is used as a


laterally supported beam. The yield strength of A242 steel is
345 MPa. a. 1.00 c. 1.14
Properties of 𝑊360𝑋101 b. 1.67 d. 1.30
𝐴𝑔 12900 mm2
18. Which of the following most nearly gives the value of 𝐶𝑏
𝑑 356 mm
for a simply supported steel beam subjected to a
𝑏𝑓 254 mm concentrated load at midspan if the unbraced length is
𝑡𝑓 18.3 mm equal to half of the beam’s length?
𝑡𝑤 10.5 mm
𝐼𝑥 301 × 106 𝑚𝑚4
𝑍𝑥 1880 × 103 𝑚𝑚4

w
𝐼𝑦 50.4 × 106 𝑚𝑚4 a. 1.32 c. 1.14

ie
𝑍𝑦 605 × 103 𝑚𝑚4 b. 1.67 d. 1.30
𝐽 1250 × 103 𝑚𝑚4
ev
Situation 5: A 13.7 m simply supported steel beam is laterally
𝐶𝑤 1440 × 109 𝑚𝑚6 supported at its ends and is subjected to a dead of 5.9 kN/m
153 mm which includes self-weight. The steel section used is a
𝑟𝑥
R
𝑊360 × 134 with a yield strength of 345 MPa.
𝑟𝑦 62.5 mm
Properties of 𝑊360𝑋134
E

𝑟𝑡𝑠 71.1 mm
𝑘 33.3 mm 𝐴𝑔 17100 mm2
EL

13. If the beam is laterally supported continuously, calculate 𝑑 356 mm


its nominal flexural strength. 𝑏𝑓 368 mm
a. 464 kN-m c. 516 kN-m
C

𝑡𝑓 18.0 mm
b. 397 kN-m d. 649 kN-m
14. If the unbraced length of the beam is 6.1 m and it is 𝑡𝑤 11.2 mm
EO

subjected to uniform moment throughout its length, 𝐼𝑥 416 × 106 𝑚𝑚4


calculate its nominal flexural strength. 𝑍𝑥 2570 × 103 𝑚𝑚3
a. 464 kN-m c. 516 kN-m
𝑆𝑥 2340 × 103 𝑚𝑚3
R

b. 397 kN-m d. 345 kN-m


15. If the unbraced length of the beam is 9.1 m and it is 𝐼𝑦 151 × 106 𝑚𝑚4
subjected to uniform moment throughout its length, 𝑍𝑦 1240 × 103 𝑚𝑚3
calculate its nominal flexural strength.
𝑆𝑦 818 × 103 𝑚𝑚3
a. 464 kN-m c. 516 kN-m
𝐽 1690 × 103 𝑚𝑚4
b. 397 kN-m d. 345 kN-m
16. Which of the following most nearly gives the value of 𝐶𝑏 𝐶𝑤 4300 × 109 𝑚𝑚6
for a simply supported steel beam subjected to uniformly 𝑟𝑥 156 mm
distributed load if the unbraced length is equal to the 𝑟𝑦 94 mm
beam’s length?
𝑟𝑡𝑠 104 mm
𝑘 33.3 mm

19. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?


I. The flange is compact.
a. 1.00 c. 1.14
II. The web is compact.
b. 1.67 d. 1.30
III. The flange is non-compact.
IV. The web is non-compact.
17. Which of the following most nearly gives the value of 𝐶𝑏
a. I and II c. II and III
for a simply supported steel beam subjected to uniformly

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b. III IV d. I and IV
20. Which of the following most nearly gives the nominal Properties of 𝑀250 × 13.4
flexural strength of the section? 𝐴𝑔 1710 mm2
a. 569 c. 887 𝑑 254 mm
b. 864 d. 798
𝑡𝑤 3.99 mm
21. Which of the following most nearly gives the maximum
𝑘 14.3 mm
service live load that the beam can carry using LRFD load
combinations?
25. Determine the nominal shear strength (kN) of the section
a. 21 kN/m c. 10 kN/m
shown.
b. 11 kN/m d. 20 kN/m
a. 319 c. 354
Situation 6: The properties of 𝑆610 × 180 is shown. The yield b. 189 d. 210
strength of steel used is 450 MPa.
26. Which of the following most nearly gives the design shear
strength (kN) of the section (LRFD)?
a. 319 c. 354
b. 189 d. 210

w
27. Which of the following most nearly gives the allowable

ie
shear strength (kN) of the section (ASD)?
a. 236 c. 177
ev
b. 140 d. 105
Properties of 𝑆610 × 180 Situation 8: A 9.1 m simply supported floor beam carries a
R

𝐴𝑔 22900 mm2 dead load (including self-weight) of 7.3 kN/m and a live load
𝑑 622 mm of 8 kN/m. A 𝑊460 × 52 made of A36 steel is used.
E

𝑡𝑤 20.3 mm Properties of W460× 52


EL

𝑘 50.8 mm 𝐴 6650 mm2


𝑑 450 mm
22. Determine the nominal shear strength (kN) of the section
𝐼𝑥 212 × 106 𝑚𝑚4
C

shown.
a. 6183 c. 3068 𝐼𝑦 6.37 × 106 𝑚𝑚4
EO

b. 5565 d. 3409
28. Which of the following most nearly gives the maximum
23. Which of the following most nearly gives the design shear permissible deflection due to live load?
strength (kN) of the section (LRFD)? a. 20 mm c. 25 mm
R

a. 6183 c. 3068 b. 37 mm d. 32 mm
b. 5565 d. 3409
29. Which of the following most nearly gives the maximum
24. Which of the following most nearly gives the allowable permissible deflection due to dead and live load?
shear strength (kN) of the section (ASD)? a. 20 mm c. 25 mm
a. 1704 c. 4122 b. 37 mm d. 32 mm
b. 2273 d. 3091
30. Which of the following most nearly gives the maximum
Situation 7: The properties of 𝑀250 × 13.4 is shown. The deflection at midspan?
yield strength of steel used is 345 MPa. a. 20 mm c. 25 mm
b. 37 mm d. 32 mm

31. Does the beam satisfy the deflection requirements?


a. no c. for live load only
b. can’t be solved d. yes

END OF HANDOUT

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Effectiveness. Efficiency. Convenience

Bearing Plates and Base Plates


ENGR. CHRISTIAN E. BALDO

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the is applied at a distance of at least half the beam depth from
following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by the support. The yield strength of the steel beam is 345 MPa.
shading the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on Use LRFD.
the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES
Properties of 𝑊360 × 91
ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 2 only.
𝐴𝑔 11500 mm2
Situation 1: A 𝑊530 × 101 steel beam with a span length of 𝑑 353 mm
4.8 m center-to-center of supports carries a total dead load,
including the beam weight, of 65 kN/m and a live load of 65 𝑏𝑓 254 mm
kN/m. The beam is to be supported at its ends by a bearing 𝑡𝑓 16.4 mm
plate concentrically mounted on a 200 mm thick reinforced 𝑡𝑤 9.53 mm
concrete wall with 𝑓′𝑐 = 24.15 𝑀𝑃𝑎. For the beam, 𝐹𝑦 = 𝑘 31.5 mm
345 𝑀𝑃𝑎, and for the plate, 𝐹𝑦 = 248 𝑀𝑃𝑎. Use LRFD.
Properties of 𝑊530𝑋101
6. Determine the length of bearing required to prevent web
𝐴𝑔 12900 mm2 yielding.
𝑑 536 mm a. 338 mm c. 214 mm
𝑏𝑓 210 mm b. 248 mm d. 169 mm
𝑡𝑓 17.4 mm

w
𝑡𝑤 10.9 mm 7. Determine the length of bearing required to prevent web
𝑘 30.2 mm crippling.

ie
a. 338 mm c. 214 mm
1. Which of the following most nearly gives the reaction due b. 248 mm d. 169 mm
ev
to factored load?
a. 312 kN c. 437 kN 8. Which of the following most nearly gives the appropriate
R
b. 218 kN d. 182 kN length of the bearing plate (nearest multiple of 25 mm)
to be used?
2. Which of the following most nearly gives the required a. 250 mm c. 350 mm
E

length (along the direction of the beam’s length) of the b. 225 mm d. 175 mm
EL

bearing plate to prevent yielding of the web at the


support? Situation 3: A bearing plate is necessary to support a beam
reaction consisting of 90 kN dead load and a 220 kN live load.
a. 140 mm c. 90 mm
The bearing plate will rest on concrete (𝑓′𝑐 = 20.7 𝑀𝑃𝑎) with
C

b. 65 mm d. 45 mm a surface area larger than the bearing area by an amount


equal to 25 mm of concrete on all sides of the plate. The beam
EO

3. Which of the following most nearly gives the required is 𝑊690 × 140 with 𝐹𝑦 = 345 𝑀𝑃𝑎. Use ASD.
length (along the direction of the beam’s length) of the Properties of 𝑊690 × 140
bearing plate to prevent crippling of the web at the 𝐴𝑔 17800 mm2
support? 𝑑 683 mm
R

a. 140 mm c. 90 mm 𝑏𝑓 254 mm
b. 65 mm d. 45 mm
𝑡𝑓 18.9 mm
𝑡𝑤 12.4 mm
4. If the width of the bearing plate (perpendicular to the
𝑘 34.0 mm
wall’s thickness) is 225 mm, which of the following most
nearly gives the required length of the bearing plate to
9. Determine the length of bearing required to prevent web
prevent the bearing failure of the concrete support?
yielding.
a. 200 mm c. 85 mm
a. 197 mm c. 8 mm
b. 165 mm d. 75 mm
b. 1 mm d. 24 mm

5. If the width of the bearing plate is 225 mm and its length


10. Determine the length of bearing required to prevent web
projected along the beam’s length is 200 mm, which of
crippling.
the following most nearly gives the required thickness of
a. 197 mm c. 8 mm
the bearing plate?
b. 1 mm d. 24 mm
a. 20 mm c. 32 mm
b. 25 mm d. 16 mm
11. If the width of the bearing plate (parallel to the beam’s
Situation 2: A 𝑊360 × 91 must support a concentrated flange) is 275 mm, which of the following most nearly
service live load of 670 kN applied to the top flange. The load gives the required length of the bearing plate?

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Effectiveness. Efficiency. Convenience

Bearing Plates and Base Plates


ENGR. CHRISTIAN E. BALDO

a. 150 c. 125 17. Find the dimensions (mm) of the base plate assuming
b. 175 d. 100 equal cantilever moments in the two directions.
12. Using the dimensions in the previous number, which of a. 436 by 436 c. 616 by 616
the following most nearly gives the required thickness of b. 650 by 575 d. 656 by 581
the bearing plate? Use 𝐹𝑦 = 248 𝑀𝑃𝑎.
a. 25 mm c. 32 mm 18. Using the dimensions in the previous number, determine
b. 20 mm d. 40 mm the required thickness of the plate. Use 𝐹𝑦 = 248 𝑀𝑃𝑎.
a. 65 mm c. 45 mm
Situation 4: A 𝑊250 × 73 is used as a column and is b. 55 mm d. 60 mm
supported by a base plate mounted on a 450 mm by 450 mm
square concrete pier (𝑓′𝑐 = 20.7 𝑀𝑃𝑎). The column carries a
dead load of 430 kN and a live load of 640 kN. Use LRFD.

Properties of 𝑊250𝑋73
𝐴𝑔 9290 mm2
𝑑 254 mm
𝑏𝑓 254 mm

w
𝑡𝑓 14.2 mm
𝑡𝑤 8.64 mm

ie
𝑘 26.9 mm
ev
13. Determine the required bearing area of the base plate.
a. 202500 mm2 c. 67327 mm2
R
b. 134654 mm 2 d. 89539 mm2

14. If the base plate is square, determine its required


E

dimension.
EL

a. 275 mm c. 300 mm
b. 375 mm d. 450 mm
C

15. Using the dimension in the previous number, determine


the required thickness of the base plate made of A36
EO

(𝐹𝑦 = 248 𝑀𝑃𝑎) steel.


a. 16 mm c. 12 mm
b. 25 mm d. 32 mm
R

Situation 5: A base plate made of A36 plate is to be designed


for a 𝑊310 × 226 column (𝐹𝑦 = 345 𝑀𝑃𝑎) that supports a
dead load of 890 kN and a live load of 2000 kN. It is required
that the base plate covers the entire area of a concrete
(𝑓′𝑐 = 20.7 𝑀𝑃𝑎) pedestal underneath. Use ASD.

Properties of 𝑊310𝑋226
𝐴𝑔 28800 mm2
𝑑 348 mm
𝑏𝑓 318 mm
𝑡𝑤 22.1 mm
𝑡𝑓 35.6 mm
𝑘 50.8 mm

16. Determine the required bearing area of the base plate.


END OF HANDOUT
a. 379456 mm2 c. 189711 mm2
b. 373183 mm 2 d. 379421 mm2
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Effectiveness. Efficiency. Convenience

Steel Design – Compression Members


ENGR. CHRISTIAN E. BALDO

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the b. 2754 kN d. 2663 kN
following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by
shading the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on 5. Determine the design compressive strength for LRFD.
the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES
a. 2479 kN c. 2663 kN
ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 2 only.
b. 3037 kN d. 2397 kN
Situation 1: A 𝑊310 × 74 is used as a column to support an
axial compressive load of 640 kN. The length of the column is 6. Determine the allowable compressive strength for ASD.
6 m and its ends are pinned.
a. 1595 c. 1772
b. 1649 d. 2020

Situation 3: A 4.5 m-long 𝑊310 × 107 steel column having a


yield strength of 345 MPa is fixed at its base and is pinned at
the other end.
Properties of 𝑊310 × 107
Gross Area (𝐴𝑔 ) 13600 mm2

Properties of 𝑊310 × 74 Depth (𝑑) 311 mm


Mass 74 kg/m Web Thickness (𝑡𝑤 ) 10.90 mm

w
Area (𝐴𝑔 ) 9420 mm2 Flange Width (𝑏𝑓 ) 306 mm
Depth (𝑑) Flange Thickness (𝑡𝑓 )

ie
310 mm 17 mm
Web Thickness (𝑡𝑤 ) 9.4 mm Radius of Gyration (𝑥 − 𝑥) 135 mm
ev
Flange Width (𝑏𝑓 ) 205 mm Radius of Gyration (𝑦 − 𝑦) 77.3 mm
𝑘 35 mm
Flange Thickness (𝑡𝑓 ) 16.3 mm
R
Moment of Inertia (𝑥 − 𝑥) 16300 cm4 7. Which of the four statements is/are true?
Moment of Inertia (𝑦 − 𝑦) 2340 cm4 I. The column has a non-slender unstiffened flange
E

element.
1. Which of the following most nearly gives the critical II. The column has a non-slender stiffened web element.
EL

buckling load for the column? III. The column has a slender unstiffened flange element.
a. 8937 kN c. 1283 kN IV. The column has a slender stiffened web element.
b. 2336 kN d. 894 kN a. I and IV c. I and II
C

b. III and IV d. II and III


2. What is the resulting factor of safety against buckling?
EO

a. 14.0 c. 1.4 8. Which of the following most nearly gives the nominal
b. 3.7 d. 2.0 compressive strength of the column?
a. 1085 c. 1238
Situation 2: A 𝑊360 × 122 of A992 steel has a length of 6 m
b. 4223 d. 4004
R

and pinned ends. The yield strength and ultimate tensile


strength of A992 steel are 345 MPa and 450 MPa respectively.
9. Which of the following most nearly gives the design
Properties of 𝑊360 × 122
compressive strength (kN) of the column for LRFD?
Mass 122 kg/m
a. 3801 c. 3603
Gross Area (𝐴𝑔 ) 15500 mm2
b. 977 d. 1114
Depth (𝑑) 363 mm
Web Thickness (𝑡𝑤 ) 13 mm 10. Which of the following most nearly gives the design
Flange Width (𝑏𝑓 ) 257 mm compressive strength (kN) of the column for LRFD?
Flange Thickness (𝑡𝑓 ) 21.7 mm a. 2398 c. 2397
Radius of Gyration (𝑥 − 𝑥) 154 mm b. 650 d. 2529
Radius of Gyration (𝑦 − 𝑦) 63 mm
Situation 4: An HSS 406 × 406 × 12.7 with a yield strength of
3. Calculate the nominal compressive strength for LRFD. 320 MPa is used for a 5.5 m-long column with simple end
supports.
a. 3374 kN c. 2959 kN
Properties of HSS 406 × 406 × 12.7
b. 2754 kN d. 2663 kN
Gross Area (𝐴𝑔 ) 18300 mm2
4. Calculate the nominal compressive strength for ASD. Depth (𝑑) 406 mm
a. 3374 kN c. 2959 kN Nominal Thickness (𝑡𝑛𝑜𝑚 ) 12.7 mm

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Steel Design – Compression Members


ENGR. CHRISTIAN E. BALDO

Design Thickness (𝑡𝑑𝑒𝑠 ) 11.8 mm Situation 6: A 7.2 m-long 𝑊310 × 86 column made of A992
Radius of Gyration (𝑥 − 𝑥) 160 mm steel is pinned at both ends and braced in the weak direction
Radius of Gyration (𝑦 − 𝑦) 160 mm at the third points as shown below.

11. Which of the following statements is/are true?


I. The section has no slender elements.
II. The section has slender flanges.
III. The section has slender webs.
a. I c. III
b. II d. II and III

12. Which of the following most nearly gives the nominal


compressive strength (kN) of the column?
a. 2681 c. 2413 Properties of 𝑊310 × 86
b. 5405 d. 5856 Gross Area (𝐴𝑔 ) 11000 mm2
Radius of Gyration (𝑥 − 𝑥) 134 mm
13. Which of the following most nearly gives the design Radius of Gyration (𝑦 − 𝑦) 63.8 mm

w
compressive strength (kN) of the column? 𝑘 31.5 mm
a. 2413 c. 2172 18. Which of the following most nearly gives the slenderness

ie
b. 4864 d. 5270 ratio of the column with respect to the strong-axis?
a. 83 c. 54
ev
14. Which of the following most nearly gives the allowable b. 45 d. 38
compressive strength (kN) of the column?
R
a. 3236 c. 1445 19. Which of the following most nearly gives the slenderness
b. 3507 d. 1605 ratio of the column with respect to the weak-axis?
a. 83 c. 54
E

Situation 5: An HSS 203.2 × 101.6 × 3.2 steel column has an b. 45 d. 38


EL

effective length of 4.5 m with respect to each principal axis.


The yield strength of the steel column is 320 MPa.
20. Which of the following most nearly gives the nominal
Properties of HSS 203.2× 101.6 × 3.2
compressive strength (kN) of the column?
C

Gross Area (𝐴𝑔 ) 1740 mm2


a. 3072 c. 3422
Depth (𝑑) 203.2 mm b. 2765 d. 3080
Nominal Thickness (𝑡𝑛𝑜𝑚 )
EO

3.18 mm
Design Thickness (𝑡𝑑𝑒𝑠 ) 2.95 mm 21. Which of the following most nearly gives the design
Radius of Gyration (𝑥 − 𝑥) 74.2 mm compressive strength (kN) of the column?
Radius of Gyration (𝑦 − 𝑦) 43.4 mm a. 3072 c. 3422
R

b. 2765 d. 3080
15. Which of the following statements is/are true?
I. The section has no slender elements.
22. Which of the following most nearly gives the allowable
II. The section has slender elements.
compressive strength (kN) of the column?
a. I c. I and II
a. 1656 c. 2049
b. II d. None
b. 1840 d. 1844

16. Which of the following most nearly gives the design Situation 7: Each member of the unbraced frame shown is
strength (kN) of the tension member? oriented so that its web is in the plane of the frame. The
a. 280 c. 231 dimensions shown are in millimeters. Use the Jackson-
b. 252 d. 263 Mooreland Alignment Charts.

17. Which of the following most nearly gives the allowable


compressive strength (kN) of the column?
a. 154 c. 168
b. 145 d. 131

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Steel Design – Compression Members


ENGR. CHRISTIAN E. BALDO

25. Which of the following most nearly gives the required


stiffness reduction factor, 𝜏𝑏 using LRFD combinations?
a. 0.952 c. 0.762
b. 0.986 d. 0.789
26. Which of the following most nearly gives the required
stiffness reduction factor, 𝜏𝑏 using ASD combinations?
a. 0.952 c. 0.762
b. 0.986 d. 0.789

Situation 9: A 𝑊𝑇305 × 120.5 of A992 steel is used as a


column with effective lengths of 7.8 m, 6.1 m and 6.1 m with
respect to the 𝑥 −axis, 𝑦-axis and 𝑧 −axis. The shear modulus
of steel is 77.28 GPa. Note that the shear center of a tee is
located at the intersection of the centerlines of the flange and
the stem.
Section 𝐴(𝑚𝑚2 ) 𝐼𝑥 (× 106 𝑚𝑚4 ) 𝐼𝑦 (× 106 𝑚𝑚4 )
W310X79 10100 177 39.9
W310X143 18200 347 112

w
W310X179 22700 445 144
W610X82 10500 562 12.1
W610X101 13000 762 29.3

ie
ev
Properties of 𝑊𝑇305𝑋120.5
R

𝐴𝑔 15400 mm2
𝐼𝑥 122 × 106 𝑚𝑚4
E

𝐼𝑦 92 × 106 𝑚𝑚4
3840 × 103 𝑚𝑚4
EL

𝐽
𝑟𝑥 88.9 mm
𝑟𝑦 77.5 mm
C

𝑟̅0 129 mm
𝑦 68.6 mm
EO

𝑡𝑓 31.0 mm
𝑘 43.7 mm

27. Which of the following most nearly gives the column’s


R

nominal flexural buckling strength with respect to the


axis of no symmetry?
a. 3254 kN c. 3025 kN
b. 3039 kN d. 3377 kN
23. Determine the effective length (mm) of column 𝐵𝐶.
28. Which of the following most nearly gives the column’s
a. 6919 c. 3700
nominal flexural-torsional buckling strength with
b. 4600 d. 4925
respect to the axis of symmetry?
24. Which of the following most nearly gives the effective
a. 3254 kN c. 3025 kN
length (mm) of column 𝐴𝐵?
b. 3039 kN d. 3377 kN
a. 6919 c. 8700
29. Which of the following most nearly gives the design
b. 4600 d. 4925
compressive strength (LRFD) of the column?
Situation 8: A 𝑊250 × 80 of A992 steel is used as a column a. 2929 kN c. 2723 kN
and is expected to behave inelastically. It is subjected to a b. 2735 kN d. 3039 kN
service dead load of 450 kN and service live load of 890 kN. 30. Which of the following most nearly gives the design
Properties of 𝑊250 × 80 compressive strength (ASD) of the column?
Gross Area (𝐴𝑔 ) 10200 mm2 a. 2929 kN c. 1820 kN
Radius of Gyration (𝑥 − 𝑥) 111 mm b. 2022 kN d. 1811 kN
Radius of Gyration (𝑦 − 𝑦) 65 mm
𝑘 28.4 mm END OF HANDOUT

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Effectiveness. Efficiency. Convenience

Steel Design – Biaxial Bending


ENGR. CHRISTIAN E. BALDO

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the 𝑑 528 mm


following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by 𝑏𝑓 209 mm
shading the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on
𝑡𝑓 13.3 mm
the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES
ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 2 only. 𝑡𝑤 9.52 mm
𝐼𝑥 475 × 106 𝑚𝑚4
Situation 1: A 𝑊530𝑋101 is used as a simply supported beam
with a span length of 3.7 m. Lateral support of the 𝑍𝑥 2060 × 103 𝑚𝑚3
compression flange is provided only at the ends. Loads act 𝑆𝑥 1800 × 103 𝑚𝑚3
through the shear center, producing moments about the 𝑥 𝐼𝑦 20.1 × 106 𝑚𝑚4
and 𝑦 axes. The service load moments about the 𝑥 − axis are 𝑍𝑦 302 × 103 𝑚𝑚3
𝑀𝐷𝑥 = 65 𝑘𝑁 − 𝑚 and 𝑀𝐿𝑥 = 195 𝑘𝑁 − 𝑚. Service load
moments about the 𝑦 − axis are 𝑀𝐷𝑦 = 8 𝑘𝑁 − 𝑚 and 𝑀𝐿𝑦 = 𝑆𝑦 193 × 103 𝑚𝑚3
25 𝑘𝑁 − 𝑚. Assume that all moments are uniform over the 𝐽 516 × 103 𝑚𝑚4
length of the beam. Use 𝐹𝑦 = 345 𝑀𝑃𝑎 and 𝐹𝑢 = 450 𝑀𝑃𝑎. 𝐶𝑤 1340 × 109 𝑚𝑚6
Use LRFD. 𝑟𝑥 213 mm
𝑟𝑦 43.9 mm
Properties of 𝑊530𝑋101
𝑟𝑡𝑠 53.6 mm
𝐴𝑔 12900 mm2
𝑘 25.9 mm

w
𝑑 536 mm
𝑏𝑓 210 mm
𝑡𝑓 17.4 mm
ie
ev
𝑡𝑤 10.9 mm
𝐼𝑥 616 × 106 𝑚𝑚4
𝑍𝑥 2620 × 103 𝑚𝑚3
R

𝑆𝑥 2290 × 103 𝑚𝑚3


𝐼𝑦 26.9 × 106 𝑚𝑚4
E

4. Find the total service load moment about the major axis.
𝑍𝑦 400 × 103 𝑚𝑚3
a. 81 kN-m c. 31.2 kN-m
EL

𝑆𝑦 257 × 103 𝑚𝑚3


b. 162 kN-m d. 15.6 kN-m
𝐽 1020 × 103 𝑚𝑚4
𝐶𝑤 1820 × 109 𝑚𝑚6 5. Find the total service load moment about the minor axis.
C

𝑟𝑥 218 mm a. 81 kN-m c. 31.2 kN-m


𝑟𝑦 45.7 mm b. 162 kN-m d. 15.6 kN-m
EO

𝑟𝑡𝑠 55.1 mm
𝑘 30.2 mm 6. Find the interaction value due to bi-axial bending.
a. 0.934 c. 0.889
1. Determine the factored moment about 𝑥 − axis.
R

b. 0.913 d. 0.621
a. 50 kN-m c. 421 kN-m
b. 412 kN-m d. 390 kN-m Situation 3: The trusses of the roof are 5.6 m on center, and
sag rods are used at the midpoints between trusses. Full
lateral support is assumed to be supplied from the roof above.
2. Determine the factored moment about 𝑦 − axis.
Use 𝐹𝑦 = 345 𝑀𝑃𝑎 and 𝐹𝑢 = 450 𝑀𝑃𝑎. Use LRFD. The roofing
a. 50 kN-m c. 421 kN-m
material approximately weighs 0.29 kPa while the estimated
b. 412 kN-m d. 390 kN-m purlin weight is 0.14 kPa. The live load is considered to be 0.6
kPa. The wind pressure acting perpendicular to the wind
3. Determine the interaction value due to bi-axial bending. surface is assumed to be 0.72 kPa. The section used as the
a. 0.879 c. 0.985 purlin is 𝑊6 × 9. Assume that the loads act through the shear
b. 0.586 d. 0.887 center of the purlins. In determining the moment capacity in
the minor direction, consider only half of the capacity since
Situation 2: A 𝑊530 × 82 is loaded as shown, with forces at sag rod is attached to the top of the purlin.
midspan that cause bending about both the strong and weak
axes. The loads shown are service loads, consisting of equal
parts dead load and live load. Lateral bracing is provided only
at the ends. Use 𝐹𝑦 = 345 𝑀𝑃𝑎 and 𝐹𝑢 = 450 𝑀𝑃𝑎. Use ASD.
Properties of 𝑊530𝑋82
𝐴𝑔 10500 mm2

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Steel Design – Biaxial Bending


ENGR. CHRISTIAN E. BALDO

Properties of 𝑊530𝑋101
𝐴𝑔 1730 mm2
𝑑 150 mm
𝑏𝑓 100 mm
𝑡𝑓 5.46 mm
𝑡𝑤 4.32 mm
𝐼𝑥 6.83 × 106 𝑚𝑚4
𝑍𝑥 102 × 103 𝑚𝑚3
𝑆𝑥 91.1 × 103 𝑚𝑚3

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𝐼𝑦 0.916 × 106 𝑚𝑚4

ie
𝑍𝑦 28.2 × 103 𝑚𝑚3
𝑆𝑦 18.2 × 103 𝑚𝑚3
ev
𝐽 16.9 × 103 𝑚𝑚4
𝐶𝑤 4.75 × 109 𝑚𝑚6
R
𝑟𝑥 62.7 mm
𝑟𝑦 23 mm
𝑟𝑡𝑠 26.9 mm
E

𝑘 11.8 mm
EL

7. Determine the factored moment about the strong axis


carried by an interior purlin.
C

a. 9.7 kN-m c. 8.8 kN-m


b. 0.9 kN-m d. 10.9 kN-m
EO

8. Considering the interior purlin, determine the


interaction value due to biaxial bending.
a. 0.910 c. 0.811
R

b. 0.955 d. 0.477

9. Which of the following most nearly gives the required


diameter of the sagrod? Use 𝐹𝑢 = 400 𝑀𝑃𝑎.
a. 10 mm c. 20 mm
b. 16 mm d. 12 mm

10. Which of the following most nearly gives the required


diameter of the tie-rod? Use 𝐹𝑢 = 400 𝑀𝑃𝑎.
a. 10 mm c. 20 mm
b. 16 mm d. 12 mm

END OF HANDOUT

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Timber Design
ENGR. CHRISTIAN E. BALDO

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the 6. Which of the following gives the depth of notches at the
following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by bottom and top faces of the beam at quarter point if the
shading the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on allowable bending stress of the wood is 10 MPa?
the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES
a. 24 mm c. 27 mm
ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 2 only.
b. 29 mm d. 31 mm
Situation 1: A masonry terrace of 75 mm concrete surface
deck with 25 mm thick cement tiles rest on a 75 𝑚𝑚 × Situation 3: A simple span beam having an unsupported
200 𝑚𝑚 lumber spaced at 300 mm on centers acting as length of 8 m has a cross-section of 200 mm by 350 mm. It
simple beam with an effective span of 3.6 m. Weight of wood carries a uniformly distributed load throughout its span. The
is 7.5 kN/m3 and masonry to be 24 kN/m3. The modulus of wood has an allowable bending stress of 9.6 MPa and
elasticity of the wood is 13800 MPa. The allowable stresses modulus of elasticity of 13800 MPa.
are 14 MPa for bending and 0.8 MPa for shear parallel to
grain. The allowable deflection is 𝐿/360. 7. Compute the allowable bending stress considering size
factor adjustment.
1. Which of the following most nearly gives the uniform a. 9.44 MPa c. 9.03 MPa
load it could support if bending stress controls? b. 9.95 MPa d. 9.54 MPa
a. 3.61 kN/m c. 3.49 kN/m
b. 2.94 kN/m d. 2.32 kN/m 8. Which of the following most nearly gives the slenderness

w
ratio of the beam?
2. Which of the following most nearly gives the uniform a. 12.9 c. 14.8

ie
load it could support if shearing stress controls? b. 16.0 d. 11.1
a. 3.61 kN/m c. 3.49 kN/m
ev
b. 2.94 kN/m d. 2.32 kN/m 9. If the lateral support to compression side of beam may
permit beam to buckle laterally, which of the following
R
3. Which of the following most nearly gives the uniform most nearly gives the beam stability factor?
load it could support if deflection controls? a. 12.9 c. 14.8
a. 3.61 kN/m c. 3.49 kN/m
E

b. 16.0 d. 11.1
b. 2.94 kN/m d. 2.32 kN/m
EL

10. What is the uniform load that the beam could carry?
Situation 2: A 150 mm by 350 mm wooden beam carries
a. 4.61 kN/m c. 5.08 kN/m
uniformly distributed load of 3.8 kN/m including its own
b. 4.80 kN/m d. 4.97 kN/m
C

weight. It has a simple span of 8 meters, allowable shearing


stress is 0.85 MPa. Situation 4: A wooden section consists of a plank 250 mm by
EO

50 mm in cross section and bolted by a 20 mm diameter bolt


4. Which of the following most nearly gives the depth of by means of two wooden planks with same size as the
notches at the tension side of the support if notching is sandwich plank. The wood is 80% stress grade Yakal. Assume
allowed? diameter of hole is 22 mm.
R

a. 248 mm c. 70 mm Stress Kind Allowable Stresses


Compressive Stress
b. 101 mm d. 279 mm 15.80 MPa
Parallel to Grain
Compressive Stress
5. Which of the following most nearly gives the depth of 6.27 MPa
Perpendicular to Grain
notches at the compression side of the support if Tensile Stress Parallel to Grain 24.50 MPa
notching is allowed? Use 𝑒 = 650 𝑚𝑚. Shear Parallel to Grain 2.49 MPa

a. 85 mm c. 265 mm
b. 73 mm d. 277 mm

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Timber Design
ENGR. CHRISTIAN E. BALDO

11. Which of the following gives the value of 𝑃 if the a. 12 mm c. 20 mm


allowable compressive stress parallel to grain will not be b. 16 mm d. 25 mm
exceeded?
a. 78 kN c. 145 kN 16. If the failure occurred in the main member, which of the
b. 197 kN d. 57 kN following most nearly gives the minimum diameter of the
bolts?
12. Which of the following gives the value of 𝑃 if the a. 12 mm c. 20 mm
allowable compressive stress perpendicular to grain will b. 16 mm d. 25 mm
not be exceeded?
a. 78 kN c. 115 kN Situation 6: The force on the 100 mm by 100 mm strut that
makes an angle of 30° with the horizontal is 𝑃. The angle that
b. 156 kN d. 57 kN
the side 𝐵𝐶 makes with horizontal is 12°. The wood is 80%
stress grade Yakal, use the given tables of the different
13. Which of the following gives the value of 𝑃 if the species of wood.
allowable tensile stress parallel to grain will not be
exceeded?
a. 112 kN c. 306 kN
b. 225 kN d. 153 kN

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Situation 5: A timber connection is composed of two 250 mm

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wide and 50 mm thick secondary member inclined at 30°
with the horizontal plane, it is connected to 100 mm thick
ev
main member by 6 bolts as shown in the figure. It can be
assumed that the bolt capacity is the critical parameter, the
load 𝑃 = 44 𝑘𝑁 applied in each secondary member.
R
Allowable
Stress Kind
The allowable compressive load 𝐹 at an angle to grain is Stresses
given by: Compressive Stress Parallel to Grain 15.80 MPa
E

Compressive Stress Perpendicular to


6.27 MPa
EL

𝑃𝑄 Grain
𝐹=
𝑃(sin 𝜃)2 + 𝑄(cos 𝜃)2 Tensile Stress Parallel to Grain 24.50 MPa
Shear Parallel to Grain 2.49 MPa
𝑃 is the allowable load parallel to the grain and 𝑄 is the 17. Determine the allowable stress on plane 𝐴𝐵.
C

allowable load perpendicular to the grain. a. 6.438 MPa c. 14.826 MPa


b. 8.675 MPa d. 10.326 MPa
EO

Allowable
Stress Kind
Stresses
18. Determine the allowable stress on plane 𝐵𝐶.
Compressive Stress Parallel to Grain 9.56 MPa
Compressive Stress Perpendicular to a. 6.438 MPa c. 14.826 MPa
R

2.20 MPa b. 8.675 MPa d. 10.326 MPa


Grain
Tensile Stress Parallel to Grain 16.50 MPa
19. Determine the safe load 𝑃.
a. 64 kN c. 71 kN
b. 407 kN d. 125 kN

14. Which of the following most nearly gives the minimum


required capacity of one bolt?
a. 7.42 kN c. 8.47 kN
b. 7.33 kN d. 8.53 kN
END OF HANDOUT
15. If failure occurred in the secondary member, which of the
following most nearly gives the minimum diameter of the
bolts?
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Seismic Analysis
ENGR. CHRISTIAN E. BALDO

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the 2. Which of the following most nearly gives the strength
following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by design axial load (kN) at column top 𝐶?
shading the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on a. 1195, -129 c. 625, -192
the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES
b. 849, -129 d. 849, -192
ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 2 only.
3. Which of the following most nearly gives the strength
Situation 1: Beam 𝐴𝐵 and Column 𝐶𝐷 are elements of the design moment (kN-m) at 𝐶?
special moment-resisting frame. Structural analysis has a. 251, -220 c. 329, -202
provided the following individual beam moments at 𝐴 and
b. 299, -220 d. 299, -202
the column axial loads and moments at 𝐶 due to dead load,
office building live load, and lateral seismic forces. All
Situation 2: Bahay Toro, Quezon City is at a distance of 6.5 km
moments are in kN-m and all forces are in kN.
from West Valley Fault which is capable of producing large
𝐷𝑒𝑎𝑑, 𝐷 𝐿𝑖𝑣𝑒, 𝐿 𝐿𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑎𝑙 𝑆𝑒𝑖𝑠𝑚𝑖𝑐, 𝐸ℎ magnitude events and have a high rate of seismic activity. A
Beam 7-storey residential reinforced concrete building having
Moment 136 68 163 Special Moment Resisting Frame in both directions is
at 𝐴 proposed to be constructed on a soil profile having a
Column combination of very dense soil and soft rock. The building has
𝐶𝐷 Axial 400 178 489 a typical story height of 3 m and have no structural
Load

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irregularities present.
Column
Moment 54 27 217
at 𝐶

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ev
Seismic Parameters
Zone 4
R
𝐶𝑎 0.44
𝐼 1.0
𝜌 1.1
E

𝑓1 0.5
EL
C

Table 208-5 Near-Source Factor, 𝑁𝑎

Seismic Closest Distance to Known Seismic Source


EO

Source Type ≤ 2 𝑘𝑚 ≤ 5 𝑘𝑚 ≥ 10 𝑘𝑚
A 1.5 1.2 1.0
B 1.3 1.0 1.0
R

C 1.0 1.0 1.0

Table 208-6 Near-Source Factor, 𝑁𝑣


The earthquake load 𝐸 consists of two components as shown
below in equation 208-18.
Seismic Closest Distance to Known Seismic Source
𝐸 = 𝜌𝐸ℎ + 𝐸𝑣 , 𝐸𝑣 = 0.5𝐶𝑎 𝐼𝐷 Source
≤ 2 𝑘𝑚 5 km 10 km ≥ 15 𝑘𝑚
Type
The applicable equations for the basic load combinations for A 2.0 1.6 1.2 1.0
strength design (LRFD) are B 1.6 1.2 1.0 1.0
C 1.0 1.0 1.0 1.0
1.2𝐷 + 1.0𝐸 + 𝑓1 𝐿

0.9𝐷 ± 1.0𝐸 The total design base shear in a given direction shall be
determined from the following equation:
1. Which of the following most nearly gives the strength
design moment (kN-m) at beam end 𝐴? 𝐶𝑣 𝐼
𝑉= 𝑊
a. 406, -41 c. 209, -14 𝑅𝑇
b. 285, -14 d. 406, -285
The total design base shear need not exceed the following:

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Seismic Analysis
ENGR. CHRISTIAN E. BALDO

2.5𝐶𝑎 𝐼 height of the columns at the ground floor is 6.1 m while the
𝑉= 𝑊
𝑅 rest is 3.7 m. The design base shear is 1040 kN.

The total design base shear shall not be less than the Seismic Parameters
following: Zone 4
𝑉 = 0.11𝐶𝑎 𝐼𝑊 𝐶𝑉 0.56
𝑇 1.06s
𝐼 1.0
In addition, for Seismic zone 4, the total base shear shall also 𝑅 8.5
not be less than the following:
Level Story Weight (kN)
0.8𝑍𝑁𝑣 𝐼 10th 952
𝑉= 𝑊
𝑅 9th 1802
8th 1802
4. Which of the following most nearly gives the appropriate 7th 1802
value of 𝑁𝑎 ? 6th 2598
a. 1.00 c. 1.10 5th 1878
b. 1.20 d. 1.14 4th 1878
3rd 1958

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5. Which of the following most nearly gives the appropriate
2nd 2069
value of 𝐶𝑣 ?
Base -

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a. 0.8960 c. 0.6160
b. 0.8288 d. 0.6384 10. Which of the following most nearly gives the
ev
6. If the total seismic weight of the building is 3000 kN, concentrated force, 𝐹𝑡 at the top which is in addition to
which of the following most nearly gives the design base 𝐹𝑛 ?
R
shear? The fundamental period of vibration (𝑇) is given a. 95 kN c. 260 kN
by: b. 952 kN d. 77 kN
𝑇 = 0.0731(ℎ𝑛 )0.75
E

11. Which of the following most nearly gives the lateral force
a. 388 kN c. 408 kN at level 7?
EL

b. 543 kN d. 441 kN a. 148 kN c. 158 kN


b. 129 kN d. 94 kN
Situation 3: A five-story steel special moment-resisting frame
12. Which of the following most nearly gives the overturning
C

building has a total seismic weight of 7233 kN. It has a typical


story height of 3.6 m. The seismic parameters are shown moment (kN-m) at the base due to seismic loads?
below: a. 3399 c. 6287
EO

Seismic Parameters b. 33986 d. 25724


Zone 4
Seismic Source Type B Situation 5: The five-story special moment frame office
Soil Profile Type C building has a heavy utility equipment installation at level 2.
R

Distance to seismic source 5 km This results in the floor weight distribution shown.
𝐼 1.0
𝑅 8.5

7. Calculate the structure period.


a. 0.745s c. 0.426s
b. 0.639s d. 0.631s
8. Which of the following most nearly gives the seismic
coefficient, 𝐶𝑎 ?
a. 0.56 c. 0.44
b. 0.40 d. 0.48
9. Which of the following most nearly gives the design base
shear (kN)? 13. Which of the following most nearly gives the required
a. 639 c. 767 reduction in weight (kN) for level 2 to prevent the
b. 693 d. 850 vertical irregularity to exist?
a. 23 kN c. 0, no vertical irregularity
Situation 4: A nine-story building has a moment resisting
b. 306 d. 82 kN
steel frame for a lateral force-resisting system. The seismic
parameters and the weight of each story are shown. The
END OF HANDOUT

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Wind Loading Analysis


ENGR. RONALD MIGUEL G. DAVID

WIND LOADING

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the Situation 2: For the building from the previous situation,
following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by consider the wind direction to be Parallel to the ridge of the
shading the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on roof.
the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES
ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 2 only. 8. What is the maximum Velocity Pressure at Windward
wall?
Situation 1: For the building shown in the figure: a. 1.98 kPa b. 1.76 kPa
c. 2.15 kPa d. 1.05 kPa
9. What is the Design wind pressure at Leeward wall? Use
GCpi = 0.
a. -0.45 kPa b. -0.33 kPa
c. -0.39 kPa d. -0.52 kPa
10. Determine the Design wind pressure at the (0 to h/2)
region of the roof for Load Case A. Use GCpi = 0.
a. -2.16 kPa b. -1.29 kPa
c. -1.98 kPa d. -2.55 kPa

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11. Determine the Design wind pressure at the (> 2h)
region of the roof for Load Case A. Use GCpi = 0.

ie
Basic wind speed, V = 260 kph a. -0.56 kPa b. -0.43 kPa
Exposure Category B c. -0.39 kPa d. -0.65 kPa
ev
Kzt = 1.0
The Building is Partially enclosed Situation 3: If the building in Situation 1 is an “Open
MWFRS Building”, Determine the following:
R

1. What is the maximum Velocity Pressure at Windward 12. The design wind pressure at Windward side of roof for
E

wall? Load Case A considering Clear Wind Flow.


a. 1.69 kPa b. 2.05 kPa a. 2.11 kPa b. 1.58 kPa
EL

c. 1.73 kPa d. 1.59 kPa c. 1.79 kPa d. 1.17 kPa


2. What is the Velocity Pressure at Leeward wall? 13. The design wind pressure at Leeward side of roof for
a. 1.69 kPa b. 2.05 kPa Load Case A considering Clear Wind Flow.
C

c. 1.73 kPa d. 1.59 kPa a. -0.398 kPa b. -0.458 kPa


3. What is the maximum Design wind pressure at c. -0.178 kPa d. -0.245 kPa
EO

windward wall? Use GCpi = 0.


a. 1.08 kPa b. 1.23 kPa
c. 1.00 kPa d. 0.72 kPa
4. What is the Design wind pressure at Leeward wall? Use
R

GCpi = 0.
a. -1.08 kPa b. -1.23 kPa
c. -1.00 kPa d. -0.72 kPa
5. What is the Design wind pressure at Side wall? Use GCpi
= 0.
a. -1.08 kPa b. -1.23 kPa
c. -1.00 kPa d. -0.72 kPa
6. What is the Design wind pressure at roof windward
side Load case A? Use GCpi = 0.
a. -1.16 kPa b. -0.71 kPa
c. -1.02 kPa d. -0.85 kPa
7. What is the Design wind pressure at roof Leeward side?
Use GCpi = 0.
a. -0.72 kPa b. -1.09 kPa
c. -0.98 kPa d. -0.85 kPa

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Prestressed Concrete Design


ENGR. RONALD MIGUEL G. DAVID

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the 6. Which of the following gives the upper limit of the kern
following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by region?
shading the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on a. 83.18 mm b. 166.78 mm
the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES c. 433.70 mm d. 216.30 mm
ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 2 only. 7. Which of the following gives the lower limit of the kern
region?
Situation 1: A 300mm x 600mm prestress beam 8m long is
tensioned with Draped tendons placed at a maximum a. 83.18 mm b. 166.78 mm
eccentricity of 200mm below the neutral axis of the section c. 433.70 mm d. 216.30 mm
at midspan and zero eccentricity at support, if the beam
carries a total uniformly distributed load of 38.75 kN/m Situation 4: The double-tee concrete section shown in the
including its own weight, determine the following: figure is used as floor joist and is subjected to a prestressing
force of 1000 kN. Unit weight of concrete is 25 kN/m3, simple
1. The stress at the top fiber at midspan, use Pe = 1000 kN span of 10 m.
a. 5.556 MPa b. -11.667 MPa
Double-Tee section properties:
c. 0.556 MPa d. -16.667 MPa
2. The stress at the bottom fiber at midspan, use Pe = 1000
y1 = 217.2 mm b = 1500 mm
kN y2 = 468.6 mm A = 375117.72 mm2

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a. 5.556 MPa b. -11.667 MPa y3 = 110.0 mm IX = 1.4107x1010 mm4
c. 0.556 MPa d. -16.667 MPa

ie
Service Loads on the floor:
Situation 2: The beam shown DL = 2.5 kPa
ev
has a 12-m simple span: f‘c= 35 LL = 6.0 kPa
MPa, fpu = 1.725 GPa, and the
initial prestress is 1.10 GPa. Use
R

unit weight of concrete = 23.5


kN/m3
E
EL

3. Calculate the concrete stresses at top and bottom of the


beam at midspan immediately after the tendons are cut.
C

a. Ftop = 1.77 MPa, Fbot = -12.09MPa 8. Determine the initial stress at the bottom fibers due to
b. Ftop = 2.85 MPa, Fbot = -11.17MPa
prestressing force alone.
c. Ftop = 0.96 MPa, Fbot = -12.94 MPa
EO

d. Ftop = 3.84 MPa, Fbot = -10.06 MPa a. -12.45 MPa b. -13.94 MPa
4. Recalculate the stresses after assumed losses in the c. -15.63 MPa d. -14.58 MPa
9. Determine the stress at the bottom fibers due to service
tendons of 18%.
loads and prestress force. Assume that there is a
a. Ftop = 0.94 MPa, Fbot = -8.93 MPa
R

b. Ftop = 1.02 MPa, Fbot = -8.76MPa prestress loss of 18.5% at service loads.
c. Ftop = 0.715 MPa, Fbot = -10.01 MPa a.- 2.69 MPa b. -5.32 MPa
d. Ftop = 0.617 MPa, Fbot = -9.08 MPa c. -3.05 MPa d. -1.54 MPa
5. What maximum service uniform live load can the beam 10. Calculate the additional load the floor can carry so that
support in addition to its own weight if allowable the stress at the bottom fibers at the midspan is zero.
stresses of 0.60f’c in compression and 0.5√f′c in tension a. 3.62 kPa b. 2.59 kPa
c. 4.31 kPa d. 1.94 kPa
are permitted?
a. 4.68 kN/m b. 10.12 kN/m
c. 2.35 kN/m d. 5.61 kN/m

Situation 3: A prestress
concrete beam has a cross
section shown in the given
figure, it has a simple span
of 10 meters and pretressed
with tendons located at
200mm from the bottom of
the section. If the effective
prestress force of 1500 kN
is applied at the tendons.

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Prestressed Concrete Design


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Situation 5: The hollow core slab for a building is 1200 mm Initial prestress = 70% fpu
wide and is simply supported on a 12 m. span, it is Instantaneous Prestress loss = 5%
prestressed with an initial force of 1250 kN. Consider Total Prestress Loss at service = 23%
concrete unit weight = 25 kN/m3, Super imposed Dead Load
= 3 kPa, and Live Load = 4 kPa. 14. Determine the top and bottom stress of the I-girder
section due to prestressing force alone at Transfer Stage.
Hollow core slab section properties: a. ftop = 1.816 MPa, fbot = -8.844 MPa
b. ftop = 1.025 MPa, fbot = -8.76MPa
c. ftop = 5.675 MPa, fbot = -27.638 MPa
d. ftop = 0.618 MPa, fbot = -9.08 MPa
15. What is the maximum moment due to the design truck?
a. 712.75 kN.m b. 650.45 kN.m
A = 400537 mm2 e = 153.6 mm c. 701.25 kN.m d. 688.95 kN.m
Stop = Sbot = 39.37x106 mm3 16. Determine the top and bottom stresses of the I-girder
section at Service stage due to prestress, DL and Max LL
11. Which of the following gives the stress in MPa at the moment.
bottom of the section at the support due to the initial a. ftop = -7.61 MPa, fbot = -4.69 MPa
b. ftop = -4.69 MPa, fbot = -7.61 MPa

w
prestressing force?
a. -6.388 MPa b. -7.998 MPa c. ftop = -7.02 MPa, fbot = -3.56 MPa

ie
c. -8.451 MPa d. -9.013 MPa d. ftop = -3.56 MPa, fbot = -7.02 MPa
12. Which of the following gives the stress in MPa at the top
Situation 7: Design a 500mm x 1100mm Prestress concrete
ev
of the section at midspan due to the initial prestressing
section to carry a total Moment (DL+SDL+LL) of 2500 kN.m
force and total dead load if the loss of prestress is 15%? at Service given the following properties and assumptions:
a. -4.731 MPa b. -0.153 MPa
R

c. -3.099 MPa d. -0.301 MPa Concrete properties:


13. What maximum additional uniform floor live load the Concrete cylindrical strength, f'c = 35 MPa
E

beam could support to produce a tensile stress of 6 MPa Allowable Compressive stress at Service, fc = 20.7 MPa
on the section? Allowable Tensile stress at Service, ft = 2.937 MPa
EL

a. 10.658 kPa b. 7.986 kPa


c. 15.965 kPa d. 9.579 kPa Prestress properties:
Tensile strength of prestress, fpu = 1860 MPa
C

Situation 6: A 15.0 m simple span bridge is composed of 5 Yield strength of prestess, fpy = 1620 MPa
1
prestressed concrete I – Girders spaced at 1800 mm center to in. – dia. Seven-wire Strands:
2
center, the thickness of deck slab is 220 mm. The bridge is
EO

Nominal diameter = 12.7 mm


subjected to the following loading: Nominal Area = 98.7 mm2
Assumptions:
Dead Loads: Initial prestress, fpi = 0.75fpu
R

Self-Weight = 25 kN/m3 Total prestress loss at service = 20%


Super Imposed Dead Load = 5 kPa
17. Without exceeding the allowable stresses at Service
Live Load: stage, determine the approximate value of the effective
Design Truck
prestressing force at service.
a. 4516.56 kN b. 4055.98 kN
c. 4884.83 kN d. 4315.45 kN
18. Without exceeding the allowable stresses at Service
stage, given the prestressing force from the previous
required, determine the value of its eccentricity.
a. 326 mm b. 304 mm
I – Girder and Prestressing tendon properties: c. 290 mm d. 268 mm
19. Given the values of prestressing force and eccentricity
A = 238000 mm2 from the previous required, determine the Ultimate
ycg = 402 mm moment capacity of the prestress concrete section.
e = 250 mm a. 3254.3 kN.m b. 3051.5 kN.m
total depth = 914.4 mm c. 2338.3 kN.m d. 3290.7 kN.m
Ix = 2.1219x1010 mm4
fpu = 1860 MPa
Area of prestress = 2500 mm2

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Footings and Foundations Design


ENGR. RONALD MIGUEL G. DAVID

FOOTINGS AND FOUNDATIONS

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the 9. Which of the following gives the design moment at
following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by critical section?
shading the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on a. 505 kN.m b. 462 kN.m
the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES c. 517 kN.m d. 485 kN.m
ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 2 only. 10. Which of the following gives the design shear for one-
way/wide beam action at critical section?
Situation 1: A 200 mm thick masonry wall is supported by a a. 505 kN b. 462 kN
strip footing and carries a uniformly distributed DL = 130 c. 517 kN d. 485 kN
kN/m and LL = 90 kN/m. the strip footing has a width of 700 11. Which of the following gives the design shear for two-
mm and an effective depth of 150 mm. way action at critical section?
a. 2065 kN b. 384 kN
1. Determine the ultimate bearing pressure caused by the c. 2448 kN d. 1051 kN
given loads.
a. 326.0 kPa b. 428.6 kPa Situation 4: A column 450 mm x 500 mm, with f’c = 28 MPa
c. 465.7 kPa d. 300.0 kPa is reinforced with 8-25mm bars of fy = 420 MPa, supports a
2. What is the ultimate shear at critical section of the strip dead load of 1000 kN and live load of 800 kN. The soil fill has
a unit weight of 16 kN/m3 and the allowable soil pressure qa
footing per meter strip?

w
= 320 kPa. Determine the following required if the footing
a. 64.3 kN b. 128.6 kN base that will carry these loads are 1.5 m below grade, use
c. 42.9 kN d. 107.1 kN

ie
concrete unit weight of 23.5 kN/m3, f’c = 28 MPa and fy = 420
3. What is the ultimate moment at critical section of the MPa.
strip footing per meter strip?
ev
a. 22.3 kN.m b. 19.3 kN.m 12. Required square footing dimension, assume an average
c. 25.7 kN.m d. 38.6 kN.m unit weight of concrete and soil of 20 kN/m3.
R
a. 2.6 m b. 2.7 m
Situation 2: A continuous strip footing is to be located c. 2.5 m d. 2.8 m
concentrically under a 300mm wall that delivers service 13. Required effective depth of the footing.
E

loads DL = 360 kN/m and LL = 220 kN/m to the top of the


a. 380 mm b. 450 mm
footing. The bottom of the footing will be 1.2 m below the
EL

c. 410 mm d. 340 mm
final ground surface. Use γSoil = 20 kN/m3, γconc = 23.5 kN/m3,
14. Required flexural area.
allowable bearing capacity, qa = 380 kPa. f'c = 21 MPa and fy
= 420 MPa a. 3141 mm2 b. 3543 mm2
C

c. 3750 mm2 d. 3360 mm2


4. Determine the required width of the footing.
Situation 5. A 400 mm square
a. 1.6 m b. 1.7 m
EO

column shown is supported by


c. 1.5 m d. 1.8 m
square footing on 5 piles as
5. Determine the required total depth of the footing base
shown. Dimensions are a = 0.75
on shear. m., b = 2 m., effective footing
R

a. 200 mm b. 400 mm depth = 0.6 m., Ultimate pile


c. 300 mm d. 500 mm capacity = 320 kN
6. The required flexural steel area.
a. 800 mm2 b. 900 mm2 Column axial loads:
c. 1000 mm2 d. 1100 mm2 D = 420 kN
L = 360 kN
Situation 3: A column 450 x 450 mm square supports a dead E = 210 kN
load of 1000 kN and a live load of 780 kN. The allowable soil Column moment, ME due to earthquake = 160 kN.m
bearing pressure is 350 kPa. The base of the footing is 1.5 m Required strength of the footing is based on.:
below the grade. Assume weight of concrete to be 24 kN/m3 U = 1.32D + 1.1L + 1.1E
and that of soil to be 18 kN/m3 . The total depth of footing is
600 mm with an effective steel cover of 100 mm. Use fc’ = 28 15. Compute the critical beam shear stress at ultimate loads.
MPa and fy = 420 MPa a. 0.525 MPa b. 0.356 MPa
c. 0.267 MPa d. 0.394 MPa
7. Which of the following gives the effective soil bearing
16. Compute the ultimate punching shear stress.
capacity?
a. 335.5 kPa b. 329.6 kPa a. 0.525 MPa b. 0.356 MPa
c. 319.4 kPa d. 350.0 kPa c. 0.267 MPa d. 0.394 MPa
8. Which of the following gives the dimension of the 17. Compute the maximum design moment.
square footing? a. 378.05 kN.m b. 448.45 kN.m
a. 2.6 m b. 2.3 m c. 224.22 kN.m d. 307.65 kN.m
c. 2.5 m d. 2.4 m

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Footings and Foundations Design


ENGR. RONALD MIGUEL G. DAVID

Situation 6: A footing, with one side limited to 2.10 m, Situation 8: A footing supports a 250 mm thick wall. It has a
supports concentrically a 310 x 310 mm column that carries thickness of 350 mm. The allowable soil bearing pressure is
a Dead Load of 580 kN and a Live load of 690 kN. The base of 192 kPa. fc' = 28 MPa, fy = 420 MPa.
the footing is located 1.30 m below ground and the allowable
bearing pressure of the soil is 200 kPa. Use f’c = 21 MPa, fy = 26. The footing is subjected to a moment of 126 kN.m and a
420 MPa and an average unit weight of concrete and soil of total vertical load of 280 kN. Find the minimum width of
20 kN/m3. the footing to prevent uplift.
a. 2.6 m b. 2.7 m
18. Determine the required footing dimension. c. 2.8 m d. 2.9 m
a. 2.1 x 2.1 m b. 2.1 x 3.5 m 27. Find the minimum width of the footing to prevent uplift.
c. 2.1 x 2.8 m d. 2.1 x 4.2 m Given:
19. Determine the required total depth of the footing. Resisting moment = 440 kN.m
a. 520 mm b. 430 mm Overturning Moment = 260 kN.m
c. 575 mm d. 480 mm Total Vertical Load = 265 kN
20. Determine the required flexural steel area on long
a. 3.8 m b. 3.9 m
direction.
c. 4.0 m d. 4.1 m
a. 3360 mm2 b. 3772 mm2 28. Which of the following gives the maximum soil bearing
c. 2750 mm2 d. 2955 mm2

w
pressure?
21. Determine the required flexural steel area on short Given:
direction.

ie
Footing width = 3 m
a. 1917 mm2 b. 4300 mm2 Resisting moment = 500 kN.m
c. 4582 mm 2 d. 5600 mm2
ev
Overturning moment = 265 kN.m
Total Vertical Load = 335 kN
Situation 7: A rectangular footing 0.70 m thick 2.5m wide
R
along the y –axis and 3m long along the x – axis, supports a. 315.6 kPa b. 384.5 kPa
concentrically a column 0.40 m square subjected to the c. 258.3 kPa d. 279.7 kPa
following service loads.
E

Situation 9: Refer to the figure below.


Axial load = 1200 KN
EL

Moment acting about y – axis, My = 360 kN.m


Height of backfill on top of the footing = 0.8m
Concrete unit weight = 24KN/m3
C

Soil unit weight = 17 KN/m3


22. Calculate the maximum net soil pressure.
a. 326.0 kPa b. 428.6 kPa
EO

c. 256.0 kPa d. 286.4 kPa


23. Calculate the minimum net soil pressure.
a. 94.4 kPa b. 88.6 kPa
R

c. 64.0 kPa d. 110.1 kPa

If the factored loads are 1780 kN and 534 kN.m, and the Given: Column Dimension = 500 x 500 mm
footing effective depth is 0.60 m, determine the following: Total Service axial load = 1250 kN
f'c = 28 MPa
24. Design shear for one-way action on long direction of fy = 420 MPa
the footing.
a. 243 kN b. 458 kN 29. Which of the following gives the pressure at point A?
c. 553 kN d. 607 kN a. 13.1 kPa b. 135.5 kPa
25. Design moment on long direction of the footing. c. 272.7 kPa d. 150.2 kPa
a. 606 kN.m b. 695 kN.m 30. Which of the following gives the pressure at point B?
c. 658 kN.m d. 715 kN.m a. 13.1 kPa b. 135.5 kPa
c. 272.7 kPa d. 150.2 kPa
31. Which of the following gives the pressure at point C?
a. 13.1 kPa b. 135.5 kPa
c. 272.7 kPa d. 150.2 kPa
32. Which of the following gives the pressure at point D?
a. 13.1 kPa b. 135.5 kPa
c. 272.7 kPa d. 150.2 kPa

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Footings and Foundations Design


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Situation 10: An exterior 600x450mm column with D = 750 Situation 11: For the reinforced concrete retaining wall
kN, L = 600 kN, and an interior 600x600mm column with D shown in the Figure:
= 1100 kN, L = 900 kN are to be supported on a combined
rectangular footing whose outer end cannot protrude beyond γConc. = 24 kN/m3
the outer face of the exterior column, see given figure. γSoil = 16 kN/m3
ka = 1/3
Coefficient of Friction between soil and concrete = 0.50

The allowable bearing pressure of the soil is 300 kPa and the
bottom of the footing is 1.8m below grade with a specified 5

w
kPa surcharge on surface. Use f’c = 21 MPa, fy = 420 MPa and
an average unit weight of 20 kN/m3 for the backfill and
concrete.

ie
ev
33. What is the required length, L of the combined footing?
R
a. 7.02 m b. 7.20 m
c. 7.12 m d. 7.35 m
34. What is the required width, B of the combined footing?
E

a. 1.6 m b. 1.7 m
c. 1.8 m d. 1.9 m 38. Determine the Factor of Safety against overturning.
EL

35. What is the required effective depth of the footing base a. 1.31 b. 1.86
on One-Way Shear? c. 2.05 d. 2.33
a. 480.5 mm b. 532.6 mm 39. Determine the Factor of Safety against sliding.
C

c. 967.3 mm d. 1051.9 mm a. 1.31 b. 1.86


36. What is the required effective depth of the footing base c. 2.05 d. 2.33
40. The location of resultant force from the Toe.
EO

on Two-Way Shear?
a. 480.5 mm b. 532.6 mm a. 1.99 m b. 0.49 m
c. 1.01 m d. 0.51 m
c. 967.3 mm d. 1051.9 mm
41. Maximum pressure under the foundation.
37. What is the required steel area for the longitudinal
R

a. 213 kPa b. 167 kPa


direction of the footing? c. 149 kPa d. 180 kPa
a. 6127 mm2 b. 6297 mm2 42. Minimum pressure under the foundation.
c. 5014 mm2 d. 6571 mm2 a. 0 kPa b. -3.23 kPa
c. 2.30 kPa d. 1.81 kPa

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Construction Engineering
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CONSTRUCTION ENGINEERING Concrete Components by Voids


Five elements of Construction Organizations mass per bag of cement
1. Manpower/Labor
2. Materials Cement 𝑚𝑠 = 𝑠𝑝𝑔 ∙ 𝜌𝑤 ∙ [𝑣𝑏 (1 − 𝑒𝑐 )] × 𝑓𝑐
3. Machines, Tools, and Equipment’s
4. Methodology / Procedures
5. Money / Finances Sand 𝑚𝑠 = 𝑠𝑝𝑔 ∙ 𝜌𝑤 ∙ [𝑣𝑏 (1 − 𝑒𝑠)] × 𝑓𝑠

There are three constraints in construction project Gravel 𝑚𝑠 = 𝑠𝑝𝑔 ∙ 𝜌𝑤 ∙ [𝑣𝑏 (1 − 𝑒𝐺 )] × 𝑓𝐺


1. Cost
2. Time
3. Quality Water 𝑉𝑤

Three Stakeholder in a Construction Project Sample Problem:


1. The Owner/Client 1. 1:2:3 mix is required for a 75m3 volume of
2. The Designer/Planner concrete. Assume 1 bag of cement is 0.0278m3.
3. The Builder/Constructor/General Contractor Using 25L of water per bag of cement.

w
Material spg. 𝜌 (kg/m3)
ESTIMATES AND QUANTITY SURVEYING Cement 3.1 1510

ie
Sand 2.65 1651
Direct Cost
Gravel 2.5 1633
Materials
ev
Using the data above,
Most common construction material in the Philippines is the
Determine the total number of bags required.
concrete. Concrete is commonly composed of Cement, Sand,
a. 586 bags c. 678 bags
Gravel and mixed with water. Sometimes, if needed, some
R
b. 658 bags d. 574 bags
additives are added to lower cost, increase strength or
workability of the concrete.
2. Determine the total volume of sand required
E

In the common components of concrete, it is typically in a


a. 20.27 m3 c. 20.83 m3
ratio of:
b. 21.53 m 3 d. 30.58 m3
EL

Cement ∶ Sand ∶ Gravel


fc : fs : fG
3. Determine the total volume of the gravel required.
Notation:
a. 40.37 m3 c. 31.93m3
C

Vc = volume of cement required


b. 41.33 m 3 d. 31.73 m3
Vs = volume of sand required
VG = volume of gravel required
4. Determine the quantity of water required, in liters.
EO

Vw = volume of water required


a. 14,648 L c. 23,870 L
ρc = density of cement
b. 17,430 L d. 27,839 L
ρs = density of sand
ρG = density of gravel
5. 1:3:5 mix is required for a 12m3 volume of
R

ρw = density of water
concrete. Assume 1 bag of cement is 0.0278m3.
vb = volume per bag of cement
Using 25L of water per bag of cement.
e = void ratio
Material spg. e
mc = mass of cement required
ms = mass of sand required Cement 3.1 51.3%
mG = mass of gravel required Sand 2.65 37.1%
Gravel 2.5 35%
Concrete Components by Volume Using the data above,
Determine the total number of bags required.
Volume per bag of cement
a. 67 c. 71
𝜌𝑐 × 𝑣𝑏 × 𝑓𝑐 b. 59 d. 50
Cement 𝑉𝑐 =
𝑠𝑝𝑔 × 𝜌𝑤
6. Compute the total mass of sand required
𝜌𝑠 × 𝑣𝑏 × 𝑓𝑠 a. 9,200 kg c. 2,500kg
Sand 𝑉𝑠 =
𝑠𝑝𝑔 × 𝜌𝑤 b. 2,777kg d. 14,946kg
𝜌𝐺 × 𝑣𝑏 × 𝑓𝐺 7. Determine the total mass of gravel required
Gravel 𝑉𝐺 =
𝑠𝑝𝑔 × 𝜌𝑤 a. 9,199kg c. 14,950 kg
b. 2,500kg d. 2,777kg
Water 𝑉𝑤

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8. Determine the total volume of water required e.g.



a. 1,654L c. 3,101L – usually for steelworks
𝑘𝑔
b. 2,651L d. 2,532L ₱
– usually for formworks
𝑚2

𝑚3
– usually for concreting

Labor & Equipment


qty = number of manpower Indirect Cost
UHR = unit hourly rate Some other indirect cost that maybe mentioned in a
THR = total hourly rate problem are:
∑LEC = total labor and equipment cost per unit of time 1. Profit
∑Q = total accomplished work 2. Contingency
THR = Qty × UHR 3. Overhead
Sample:
qty Manpower UHR THR Total Unit Cost
1 Foreman ₱100.00/hr. ₱100.00/hr. 𝑇𝑈𝐶 = 𝑀𝑈𝐶 + 𝐿𝐸𝑈𝐶 + 𝐼𝐷𝑈𝐶
9 Skilled men ₱93.75/hr. ₱843.75/hr. TUC is the total unit cost summarizing the cost of both
9 Unskilled men ₱81.25/hr. ₱731.25/hr. material and labor with indirect cost. Sometimes IDUC are
1 Machine/Tool ₱80.00/hr. ₱80.00/hr. included in the TUC but some other private institution
consider IDUC in the end of the construction estimates but

w
∑𝑳𝑬𝑪 = ₱1,755.00/hr.
concerning the licensure exam apply necessary cost if stated
in the problem and apply as stated in the problem.

ie
Total Labor & Equipment Unit Cost,
∑𝐿𝐸𝐶 ₱
ev
𝐿𝐸𝑈𝐶 = ;
𝐿𝐸𝑃 unit material Sample Problem:
LEQ is the measure of how much cost per unit of material to
9. A team of paver will work on a 2,400 sqm of
be accomplished.
R
sidewalk. It is assumed that they can finish 20 sqm
e.g. in one hour.

– usually for steelworks qty Manpower Unit Hourly
𝑘𝑔
E


– usually for formworks Rate
𝑚2 1 Foreman ₱120.83/hr.
EL


𝑚3
– usually for concreting 5 Skilled Worker (Mason) ₱87.26/hr.
11 Unskilled Worker ₱67.13/hr.
Labor & Equipment Productivity (Labor-helper)
C

∑𝑄 accomplishment 1 Concrete Mixer ₱4500/hr.


𝐿𝐸𝑃 = ;
∑𝑡 hr Using the data above determine the cost of labor
and equipment per square meter of pavement.
EO

LEP is the measure of how much work is accomplished per a. 249.84 c. 289.78
unit of time. b. 256.75 d. 271.42
e.g.
R

𝑘𝑔 10. The thickness of the pavement is 150mm and each


– usually for steelworks
ℎ𝑟 cubic meters of ready-mix concrete costs ₱4,500.
𝑚2
ℎ𝑟
– usually for formworks The value added tax is 12% of the material cost
𝑚3 and for other indirect costs such as contingency
– usually for concreting
ℎ𝑟 assume 35% of the material and labor costs.
Determine the total unit cost per square meter of
Total Material Unit Cost pavement.
∑𝑀𝐶 a. 1346.45 c. 1304.70
𝑀𝑈𝐶 = × (1 + 𝑉𝐴𝑇)
∑𝑄 b. 1648.42 d. 1245.87
∑Q = total accomplished work
∑MC = total material cost
11. In a project, it was estimated that a team can install
Depending on the given MUC can be: 180kg of reinforcements per hour. Using the
following data:
𝑀𝑈𝐶 = ∑𝑀𝐶 ′ × (1 + 𝑉𝐴𝑇)
∑MC = sum of of component material unit cost qty Manpower Unit Hourly Rate
VAT= value added tax, usually 12% (0.12) 1 Foreman ₱ 93.75/hr.
9 Skilled ₱ 84.34/hr.
MUC is the measure of how much cost of materials per unit Steelmen
materials. It has similar unit with LEUC but with a different 9 Unskilled Labor ₱ 75.00/hr.
context. LEUC concerns with the cost of labor per unit 1 Bar Bender and ₱175.00/hr.
material while MUC is the cost of material per unit material. Cutter

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Determine the cost of labor & equipment per AON AOA


kilogram.
a. 9.46 c. 7.28 B cannot
b. 10.03 d. 6.33 start until
A is done
12. The current cost of corrugated reinforcing steel
bars is ₱38.75/kg and tie wire is ₱45.50/kg C cannot
(0.02kg of tie wire per 1 kg of reinforcing steel). start until
The value added tax is 12% of the material cost. A and B
Other indirect cost such us contingency and are done
overhead is 30% of the labor and material costs. B and C
Determine the total unit cost per kilogram of
cannot
reinforcing steel.
a. 51.14 c. 45.77 start until
b. 93.60 d. 68.32 A is done
Both B
and D
cannot

w
SCHEDULING AND PLANNING start until
PERT-CPM A and B

ie
PERT – Project Evaluation and Review Technique
are done
CPM – Critical path method
ev
C cannot
PERT and CPM are two different techniques in scheduling start if A
and planning. and B is
R

not yet
Main difference of PERT and CPM done
E

PERT CPM while D


Definition Technique used to Technique that cannot
EL

manage uncertainty manages well defined


start if B
of activities activities
Model Probabilistic Deterministic is not yet
done
C

Managing Unpredictable Predictable Activities


activities
Activity – the task to be completed
EO

Event – a point in time denoting either the start or the finish


of an activity.
Fundamentals in Network Diagram Early Start – earliest time for an activity to start
Network diagram or precedence diagram shows sequence of Early Finish – earliest time for an activity to be done
R

activities by using arrows and nodes to depict preceding and Late Start – latest time to start without affecting the
succeeding activities. duration of the project
Late Finish – latest finish time without affecting the duration
Network Diagram Conventions of the whole project.
● Activity on Arrow – use arrows to indicate activity
Example below activity A Crashing and Cost Planning
It is a technique of crunching series of activities to shorten
the duration of project but with additional crashing cost.

Other Scheduling Tools


There are other scheduling tools that can help to effectively
manage time schedule of a project.
1. Gantt Chart
● Activity on Nodes – uses nodes to indicate activity 2. S-Curve
Example below activity A, B and C 3. Time Scaled Network Diagram
4. Line-of-Balance

Effectiveness. Efficiency. Convenience


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REAL EXCELLENCE ONLINE CIVIL ENGINEERING REVIEW
Effectiveness. Efficiency. Convenience

Construction Engineering
ENGR. CARL EDGAR AMBRAY

Sample Problem: 1 ∑ 𝑅. 𝐵𝑖𝑑𝑑𝑒𝑟𝑠


13. Given a project with the given schedule. 𝐴𝐺𝐸 = (𝐴𝐴𝐸 + )
2 𝑛
Activity Duration Cost Predecessor
A 4 ₱ 2,200 - Step 3: Eliminate higher than the largest of AGE and AAE,
B 6 ₱ 1,900 A eliminate also those bid lower than 70%AGE.
C 8 ₱ 1,600 -
D 8 ₱ 3,800 B, C Step 4: Award to Bidder with the lowest of the remaining
E 6 ₱ 5,000 F Bid.
F 20 ₱ 4,700 A
G 5 ₱ 7,500 D, E RA9184
H 10 ₱ 3,900 E Also known as
I 16 ₱ 7,200 E “An Act Providing for the Modernization, Standardization
and Regulation of the Procurement Activities of the
Determine the duration of the project. Government and for other Purposes”
a. 56 c. 35 Signed in to law by former Pres. Gloria Macapagal-Arroyo on
b. 40 d. 46 January 10, 2003

14. Determine the critical path of the project. AAE and AGE limitations is no longer found in the 2016
a. AFEHI c. CDG Revised IRR of the RA 9184 to further simplify the bidding

w
b. ABG d. AFEH process.

ie
15. Determine the total cost of the project. 16. ₱343,000,000 is the approved agency estimate of a
a. 37,800 c. 38,700 given government project. The following are the
ev
b. 34,560 d. 39,500 bids of company participated:

Bidder A 346M Bidder E 242M


R

Bidder B 200M Bidder F 341M


GOVERNMENT PROCUREMENT
Bidder C 961M Bidder G 608M
E

Bidder D 294M Bidder H 266M


EL

Determine are the responsive bidder.


a. A D E F H c. ABDFH
Eligibility Prebid Bidding
Screening Conference Process b. A E F H H d. ACDEF
C

17. Determine the value of Allowable Government


Estimate.
EO

a. 320.4M c. 205.8M
Award of the Post- b. 224.3M d. 411.6M
Contract Qualification
18. Which among the bidder should the project be
R

awarded?
a. Bidder D c. Bidder B
PD1594 b. Bidder C d. Bidder E
Also known as:
“Prescribing Policies, Guidelines, Rules and Regulations for
Government Infrastructure Contracts”
It was sign into law by the late Pres. Ferdinand E. Marcos on
June 11, 1978.

According to IRR of PD1594:


“No award of contract shall be made to a bidder whose bid
price is higher than the Allowable Government Estimate
(AGE) or the Approved Agency Estimate (AAE), whichever
is highr, or lower than 70% of the AGE. Bids higher that
120% AAE or lower than 60% AAE shall not be considered.”

Step 1: Eliminate Bids higher than 120% of AAE and lower


than 60% AAE

Step2: Compute AGE

Effectiveness. Efficiency. Convenience


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