CESSNA 172

1) What is the length of the wingspan of CESSNA 172?

a) 34’1”
b) 36’1”
c) 33’1”
d) 32’1”

2) Propeller diameter is:

a) 65”
b) 75”
c) 78”
d) None of the above

3) Wheelbase length is:

a) 65”
b) 56”
c) 75”
d) 76”

4) Propeller ground clearance is:

a) 14 ¼”
b) 11 ¼”
c) 14 ½”
d) 11 ½”

5) On normal ground attitude, the nose strut should be approximately:

a) 4”
b) 3”
c) 2”
d) 5”

6) Wing loading of CESSNA 172 is:

a) 14.1 lbs/sq.ft
b) 14 lbs/sq.ft
c) 15 lbs/sq.ft
d) 15.1 lbs/sq.ft

7) Vs is:
a) Stalling speed at which the airplane is controllable in the landing configuration at the most forward C.G.
b) Stalling speed at which the airplane is controllable
c) Minimum speed at which the airplane is controllable
d) Both b and c
8) VFE is:
a) Maximum flap extended speed
b) Minimum flap extended speed
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above

9) What is ‘STATION’ in weight & balance terminology:

a) The location along the airplane fuselage given in terms of the distance from the reference datum.
b) The point at which an airplane would balance if suspended.
c) The horizontal distance from the reference datum to the C.G. of an item.
d) None of the above.

10) 1 Litre = __USG?

a) 4.4546
b) 0.22
c) 0.833
d) 3.785

11) VNE is:

a) 163 KIAS
b) 129 KIAS
c) 160 KIAS
d) 130 KIAS

12) VNO is:

a) Never exceed speed
b) Maximum structural cruising speed
c) Maximum window open speed
d) Maximum flap extended speed

13) In the airspeed indicator markings, white arc range is:

a) 129-163 Knots
b) 44-129 Knots
c) 33-85 Knots
d) None of the above

14) In the airspeed indicator markings, red arc range is:

a) 129-163 Knots
b) 44-129 Knots
c) 33-85 Knots
d) 163 Knots
15) Abrupt use of the controls [in a normal category] is prohibited above:
a) 163 Knots
b) 99 Knots
c) 44 Knots
d) 129 Knots

16) Maximum slip or skid duration with one tank dry is:
a) 60 seconds
b) 40 seconds
c) 30 seconds
d) 20 seconds

17) Approved flap limitation in take-off range is:

a) 0 to 30 degrees
b) 0 to 20 degrees
c) 0 to 10 degrees
d) None of the above

18) What is the immediate action in an engine failure immediately after take-off?
a) Master switch OFF
b) Fuel shut off valve OFF
c) Wing flaps RETRACT
d) Airspeed – 65KIAS (Flaps UP)
Airspeed – 60KIAS (Flaps DOWN)

19) In case of an erroneous instrument reading suspected by a static source blockage :

a) Static pressure alternate source valve – PULL ON
b) Static pressure alternate source valve – PULL OFF
c) Static pressure alternate source valve – PUSH ON
d) Static pressure alternate source valve – PUSH OFF

20) If vacuum is not within normal operating limits:

a) A failure has occurred in the vacuum system and partial panel procedures may be required for a continued
flight.
b) No failure occurred in the vacuum system and flight can be continued relying on it.
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above

21) Maximum demonstrated crosswind velocity is:

a) Take-off or landing – 15 Knots
b) Take-off or landing – 50 Knots
c) Take-off or landing – 25 Knots
d) Take-off or landing – 10 Knots
22) Best rate of climb (Vy) at sea level is:
a) 79 KIAS
b) 71 KIAS
c) 60 KIAS
d) 65 KIAS

23) During taxiing, if experienced a strong quartering tailwind from the right:
a) Use up aileron on LH wing and neutral elevator
b) Use up aileron on RH wing and neutral elevator
c) Use down aileron on LH wing and down elevator
d) Use down aileron on RH wing and down elevator

24) Normal cruise is performed at:

a) 65%
b) Between 65% and 80%
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above

25) Stall warning horn sounds at:

a) Between 5 and 10 knots above the stall in all configurations
b) At 20 knots above the stalling speed
c) Between 5 and 10 knots below the stall in all configurations
d) None of the above

26) Flap setting limitation speed is:

a) 10 degrees – 110Kts & 20 degrees – 85kts
b) 10 degrees – 85Kts & 20 degrees – 110kts
c) 10 degrees – 50Kts & 20 degrees – 60kts
d) None of the above

27) CESSNA 172 THIELERT is installed with:

a) Wet sump
b) Dry sump
c) Both
d) None of the above

28) A Lucite Rod’s purpose is:

a) To check whether strobe lights are working
b) To visually check from the cockpit whether NAV lights are working
c) To check landing lights
d) None of the above
29) The usable fuel C.G. arm for integral tanks is located at station:
a) 48.0”
b) 37”
c) 73”
d) 123”

30) The skin design of the fuselage of a CESSNA-172 is referred as:

a) Monocoque
b) Semi-monocoque
c) Camber
d) Mean Camber

31) The flaps of CESSNA-172 is:

a) Conventional hinged
b) Single slotted type
c) Double slotted type
d) All of the above

32) The control surfaces of CESSNA-172 are operated by control wheel through:
a) Cables and mechanical linkage
b) Electrically operated
c) Hydraulically operated
d) Both a and b

33) Forward rotation of the trim wheel will:

a) Trim nose UP
b) Trim nose DOWN
c) Both a and b
d) All of the above

34) If the airplane is to be towed by a vehicle, turning more than ___ either side of centre of the nose gear could
result to structural damage.
a) 40 degrees
b) 60 degrees
c) 20 degrees
d) 30 degrees

35) Minimum turning radius of the airplane, using differential braking and nose wheel steering during taxi:
a) 29’
b) 27’
c) 28’
d) 30’
36) Shock absorption is provided by:
a) Tubular spring steel main landing gear struts and the air/oil nose gear shock strut.
b) Air/oil main landing gear strut and tubular spring steel nose gear shock strut.
c) Both are air/oil.
d) Both nose gear and landing gear are tubular spring steel strut.

37) The rear passenger seat consists of:

a) Fixed, two piece seat bottom and a two position reclining back.
b) Non-fixed, one piece seat bottom and a two position reclining back.
c) Fixed, one piece seat bottom and a three position reclining back.
d) Non-fixed, two piece seat bottom and a three position reclining back.

38) The control lock and any other type of locking device should be removed:
a) Prior refueling
b) After the engine starts
c) Prior to starting the engine
d) All of the above

39) The CESSNA-172 THIELERT is equipped with a propeller of:

a) 2 blades
b) 3 blades
c) 4 blades
d) Both a and b

40) From the wings tanks to a three position selector valve, fuel flows by:
a) Electrically
b) Gravity
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above

41) If the annunciator shows L LOW FUEL. It means:

a) Low fuel in right tank
b) Low fuel in left tank
c) Both tanks, left and right, are in low fuel
d) All of the above

42) A transducer mounted near the fuel manifold to measure the fuel pressure produces an electrical signal for the
cockpit-mounted indicator in:
a) Litres/hour
b) Kg/hour
c) Gallons/hour
d) Litres/minute
43) The airplane’s brake on each main landing gear is:
a) Hydraulically actuated, single-disc
b) Double disc, electrically operated
c) Electrically operated, single disc
d) Hydraulically operated, double disc

44) The brake system is in need of immediate attention if it has the following symptoms of impending brake failure:
a) Gradual decrease in braking action after brake application
b) Noisy or dragging brakes
c) Soft or spongy pedals, excessive travel and weak braking action
d) All of the above

45) The airplane is equipped with electrical system:

a) 28V DC electrical system, 24V Battery
b) 24V DC electrical system, 28V Battery
c) 24V AC electrical system, 28V Battery
d) 28V AC electrical system, 24V Battery

46) All CB’s inside the airplane are of:

a) Pull to reset
b) Push to reset
c) Switch/breaker type
d) Both b and c

47) The strobes and flashing beacon ON when flying through clouds should be avoided. It may leads to:
a) Vertigo
b) Loss of orientation
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above

48) The exterior NAV light on RH wing is in:

a) Green
b) Red
c) Yellow
d) White

49) For cabin ventilation:

a) Pull cabin air knob OUT
b) Push cabin air knob IN
c) Pull cabin HT knob OUT
d) Push cabin HT knob IN
50) For cabin temperature to raise:
a) Pull the cabin air
b) Push the cabin HT
c) Pull the cabin HT
d) Push the cabin air

51) What air pressure is supplied to the pitot-static systems?

a) Ventilated air pressure
b) Blended air pressure
c) Heated air pressure
d) Ram air pressure

52) Airspeed Indicator instrument works on:

a) Pitot only
b) Both pitot and static
c) Static only
d) None of the above

53) The compass card (DGI) should be set with thje magnetic compass:
a) During the flight
b) Prior to the take-off
c) Readjusted as required throughout the flight
d) Both b and c

54) To reduce interference from precipitation static, what should be installed on aircraft?
a) Static wicks
b) Static dischargers
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above

55) The ELT emits an omni-directional signal on:

a) 121.5MHz
b) 243.0MHz
c) 121.1MHz
d) Both a and b

56) What type of fire extinguisher is installed on the floorboard near the pilot’s seat?
a) A portable chemical extinguisher (Argon)
b) A portable Halon 1211 (Bromochlorodifluoromethane)
c) Carbon dioxide
d) All of the above
57) The identification plate of the airplane should include:
a) Only serial number and model number
b) Serial number, model number and production certificate number(PCN)
c) Serial number, model number, production certificate number(PCN) and type certification number
d) None of the above

58) When parking the airplane:

a) Tail into the wind, do not set parking brakes
b) Head into the wind, do not set parking brakes
c) Head into the wind and set the parking brakes
d) Head into the wind and set the parking brakes, install control locks and chock the wheels

59) The fuel used in CESSNA-172 THIELERT is:

a) 100LL AVGAS
b) 100LL BLUE
c) 100LL GREEN
d) JET A1/Diesel

60) On FADEC backup battery power engine will operate for

a) 45 minutes
b) 60 minutes
c) 30 minutes
d) 40 minutes

61) Model of propeller

a) MT-6-A/187-129
b) MTV-6-A/187-129
c) TV-6-A/187-129
d) None of the above

62) Propeller diameter

a) 1m
b) 2m
c) 1.67m
d) 1.87m

63) Number of propeller blades

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) None of the above
64) Engine oil
a) Diesel ultra
b) Aero shell oil diesel ultra
c) Shell 5w-40
d) Shell 5w-30

65) Fuel
a) 100ll
b) Avgas
c) Jet A 1
d) None of the above

66) Gear box oil

a) Shell spirax ep 75w-90
b) Shell spirax gsx 75w-80 gl4
c) Shell spirax s4 g 75w-90
d) All of the above

67) Total fuel capacity

a) 160.2 litre
b) 170 litre
c) 180.2 litre
d) None of the above

68) Usable fuel in each tank

a) 84.4 liters
b) 23.8 USG
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above

69) Maximum ramp weight

a) 2452 lbs
b) 1112 kg
c) Both and b
d) None of the above

70) Engine model

a) TAE 125-01
b) TAE 125-02-99
c) Both a and b
d) Only b
71) Maximum continuous rpm
a) 2400 rpm
b) 2200 rpm
c) 2300 rpm
d) None of the above

72) Minimum oil pressure

a) 1 bar
b) 2 bar
c) 3 bar
d) 1.2 bar

73) Max oil consumption

a) 0.1 l/h
b) 0.1 quart/h
c) Only a
d) Both a and b

74) Minimum fuel temp before t/o in fuel tank

a) -35 c
b) -30 c
c) 35 c
d) 30 c

75) Minimum oil temp

a) -30 c
b) 30 c
c) -32 c
d) -35 c

76) Max gear box temp

a) 150 c
b) 140 c
c) 130 c
d) 120 c

77) Max oil pressure

a) 5 bar
b) 4 bar
c) 6 bar
d) 7 bar
78) Caution light are
a) Yellow
b) Red
c) Both a and b
d) Only a

79) Propeller manufacturer

a) MT propeller Ent wicklung Gmbh
b) MT propeller wicklung Gmbh
c) MT propeller wicklung
d) None of the above

80) Coolant of water and radiator is at a ratio of

a) 40:60
b) 30:70
c) 50:50
d) 60:40

81) The freezing point of the coolant is

a) -36 c
b) -30 c
c) -35 c
d) -20 c

82) Total usable fuel

a) 160 liter
b) 168.8 liter
c) B and 44.6 USG
d) Only b

83) Max continuous power

a) 100 KW
b) 135 hp
c) 99 KW
d) Both b and c

84) Max coolant temp

a) 100 c
b) 105 c
c) 120 c
d) 140 c
85) Tachometer green range
a) 0-2300
b) 1800-2300
c) 0-2400
d) 1800-2400

86) Oil pressure green range

a) 2-5
b) 2.3-5.2
c) 3-6
d) None of the above

87) Oil temp green range

a) 100-125
b) 50-125
c) 0-125
d) 0-120

88) Fuel consumption with 70% power is

a) 18 l/h
b) 19 l/h
c) 20 l/h
d) 18.6 l/h

89) Start up of the engine

a) Only internal power
b) Only external power
c) Both a and b
d) none of the above

90) Fuel L or fuel R warning lights illuminates when fuel level is below
a) 20 liter
b) 19 liter
c) 25 liter
d) 30 liter

91) Total fuel capacity in each tank

a) 60 liter
b) 80 liter
c) 90.1 liter
d) 90.1 USG
92) Nose wheel tyre pressure is
a) 32 psi
b) 28 psi
c) 34 psi
d) 29 psi

93) Main wheel tyre pressure is

a) 29 psi
b) 28 psi
c) 34 psi
d) 32 psi

94) ELT test should only conducted within the first_____ of each hour
a) 10 minutes
b) 2 minutes
c) 5 minutes
d) 3 minutes

95) Max speed at sea level

a) 121 kts
b) 123 kts
c) 100 kts
d) 163 kts

96) Stall speed:

a) Flaps up, power off-44 kcas
Flaps down, power off-33 kcas
b) Flaps up, power off-33 kcas
Flaps down, power off-44 kcas
c) Flaps up, power off-51 cas
Flaps down, power off-47 kcas
d) Flaps up, power off-47 cas
Flaps down, power off-51 kcas

97) Max useful load

a) 120 lbs
b) 163 lbs
c) 818 lbs
d) None of the above

98) Baggage allowance

a) 130 lbs
b) 180 lbs
c) 818 lbs
d) None of the above
99) Tail wing( elevator ) span
a) 11’4”
b) 14’11”
c) 14’1”
d) 11’44”

100) Minimum turning radius

a) 25’5.5”
b) 27’7.5”
c) 27’5.5”
d) 25’7.5”

101) What is engine speed RPM?

a) Revolutions per minute
b) Rotations per minute
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above

102) To apply the parking brakes

a) Set the brakes with rudder pedals
b) As in a, and pull the handle after
c) As in b and rotate handle 90 degree anticlockwise
d) All wrong

103) The VSI depicts

a) Rate of climb in ft/min
b) Rate of descent in ft/min
c) Both a and b
d) Indicates vertical accelerations