Cell Division-Merged

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The correct answer for each question is indicated by a .
Cells can permanently stop midway in the cell cycle and not
1 CORRECT
complete the cycle.
A)True
B)False
Feedback: Correct Answer

2 CORRECT DNA must replicate after cell division occurs.
A)True
B)False

The diploid chromosome number for the house fly is 12. The
3 CORRECT haploid number of chromosomes found in their gametes would be
______.
A)1
B)3
C)6
D)12
E)24

Each duplicated chromosome prior to division will be held together
4 CORRECT
at a region called the ______ .
A)tetrad
B)synapsis
C)cross-over
D)chromatid
E)centromere

Prior to division, each chromosome is composed of two genetically
5 CORRECT
identical parts called ______ .
A)dyads
B)nucleosomes
C)chromatin
D)sister chromatids
E)centromeres

6 CORRECT During mitosis, homologous chromosomes pair up and separate.
A)True
B)False

7 CORRECT Which of the following is NOT a function of cell division?
A)growth of multicellular organisms
B)repair of multicellular organisms
C)reproduction of single-celled organisms
D)reproduction of multicellular organisms
E)aerobic cellular respiration of multicellular organisms

The greater the complexity of the organism, the greater the
8 INCORRECT
number of chromosomes within the cell.
A)True
B)False
Feedback: The number of chromosomes is unrelated to the

complexity of the organism; human cells contain 46 while a
crayfish cell has 200.
Which of the following statements is NOT correct in regard to cell
9 INCORRECT
division?
A)Chromatin uncoils to form chromosomes.
B)Chromatin is found within the nucleus.
C)
Chromatin is made up of the DNA double helix and associated
proteins.
D)Chromosomes can be seen just as cell division is about to occur.
E)
Each species generally has a characteristic number of
chromosomes.
Feedback: Chromatin folds and coils to form chromosomes;
however chromatin is found within the nucleus, made of
DNA and chromosomes can be seen as cell division is about
to occur.
Which of the following statements is NOT correct about eukaryotic
10 CORRECT
chromosomes?
A)
Many proteins, termed histones, appear to play primarily a
structural role.
B)A human cell contains at least two meters of DNA.
C)
The packing unit, termed a nucleosome, gives chromatin a
beaded appearance.
D)
The DNA double helix is wound around a core of histone
molecules in a nucleosome.
E)
Diffuse chromatin is easier to move about during cell division
than compact chromosomes.
11 CORRECT During the cell cycle, interphase lasts longer than mitosis.
A)True
B)False

12 CORRECT Microtubules, once formed, will always remain together.
A)True
B)False

13 CORRECT During interphase, the cell is resting.
A)True
B)False

14 CORRECT Which of the following statements about mitosis is NOT correct?
A)Mitosis is cell division that produces two daughter cells.
B)
Each daughter cell formed by mitosis has the same number of
chromosomes as the parent cell.
C)
Each daughter cell formed by mitosis has the same kinds of
D)The parent cell and the daughter cells are genetically identical.
E)
During mitosis, the centromeres divide and the sister
chromatids stay together.
What is each chromatid called after the centromeres divide and the
15 CORRECT
sister chromatids separate during mitosis?
A)daughter chromosome
B)offspring chromatin
C)polar centriole
D)dyad
E)tetrad

16 CORRECT Which of the following characteristics of mitosis is NOT correct?
A)Mitosis occurs in somatic cells.
B)2N --> 2N
C)2N --> N
D)
Mitosis is important for growth and repair of multicellular
organisms.
E)Mitosis occurs when unicellular organisms reproduce asexually.

Which spindle fiber will lengthen, thereby pushing the
17 CORRECT
chromosomes apart during anaphase?
A)polar spindle fibers
B)centromeric spindle fibers
C)centrosomes (MTOC)
D)aster fibers
E)centriolar fibers

Which spindle fiber will shorten during anaphase, thereby pulling
18 CORRECT
the chromosomes apart?
A)polar spindle fibers
B)centromeric spindle fibers
C)centrosomes (MTOC)
D)aster fibers
E)centriolar fibers

19 CORRECT Name the protein subunit that is found within microtubules.
A)actin
B)myosin
C)tubulin
D)collagen
E)DNA

20 CORRECT When does DNA replication occur in the cell cycle?
A)interphase
B)prophase
C)metaphase
D)anaphase
E)telophase

21 CORRECT ______ consists of mitosis and interphase.
A)Cell division
B)The cell cycle
C)The life cycle
D)Oogenesis
E)Spermatogenesis

Where are centrosomes (microtubule-organizing-centers) located
22 CORRECT
in an animal cell?
A)mitochondria
B)Golgi apparatus
C)chromatids
D)centromeres
E)centrioles

Which part of a cell probably organizes microtubules, including
23 CORRECT
those of the spindle?
A)dyads
B)centrosomes (MTOC)
C)centromeres on a chromosome
D)chromatids on a chromosome
E)Golgi apparatus

Which structure within a cell brings about chromosomal
24 CORRECT
movement?
A)mitochondria
B)Golgi apparatus
C)centromeres
D)mitotic spindle
E)nuclear membrane

If a cell is to divide, when do the organelles, such as centrioles,
25 CORRECT
duplicate?
A)interphase
B)prophase
C)metaphase
D)anaphase
E)telophase

Which of the following stages has a distinct nuclear envelope and
26 CORRECT
nucleoli and indistinct chromatin threads?
A)interphase
B)prophase
C)metaphase
D)anaphase
E)telophase

27 CORRECT Which of the following is the correct sequence of mitotic phases?
A)metaphase, anaphase, telophase, prophase
B)anaphase, prophase, metaphase, telophase
C)prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase
D)prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
E)prophase, metaphase, telophase, anaphase

28 CORRECT During ______ , the chromosomes first become visible.
A)interphase
B)prophase
C)metaphase
D)anaphase
E)telophase

During ______ , spindle fibers attach to the centromeres of each
29 CORRECT
chromosome.
A)prophase
B)prometaphase
C)metaphase
D)anaphase
E)telophase

At the start of ______ , the sister chromatids separate and the
30 CORRECT
daughter chromosomes move up to the poles of the spindle.
A)interphase
B)prophase
C)metaphase
D)anaphase
E)telophase

During ______ , the nuclear envelope begins to fragment and the
31 CORRECT
nucleolus begins to disappear.
A)interphase
B)prophase
C)metaphase
D)anaphase
E)telophase

During prophase, spindle fibers appear between the separating
32 CORRECT centriole pairs. They become attached to the ______ of a
chromosome.
A)chromatids
B)chromatin
C)centromere
D)aster
E)centrosomes (MTOC)

During ______ , the chromosomes are now at the equator of the
33 CORRECT
spindle.
A)interphase
B)prophase
C)metaphase
D)anaphase
E)telophase

Before the close of _____________, the centromere's split and the
34 CORRECT
chromatids migrate toward the poles.
A)interphase
B)prophase
C)metaphase
D)anaphase
E)telophase

35 CORRECT Which of the following is NOT a component of a spindle?
A)spindle poles
B)asters
C)fibers
D)chromosomes

Which part of a spindle consists of arrays of short microtubules
36 CORRECT
that radiate from the spindle pole?
A)asters
B)centrioles
C)spindle fibers
D)microtubule organizing center
E)centromere

During which stage will daughter chromosomes move toward the
37 CORRECT
poles of the spindle?
A)interphase
B)prophase
C)metaphase
D)anaphase
E)telophase

38 CORRECT ______ begins when the chromosomes arrive at the spindle poles.
A)Interphase
B)Prophase
C)Metaphase
D)Anaphase
E)Telophase

39 CORRECT Which of the following comparisons is NOT correct?
A)prophase--chromosomes appear
B)telophase--spindle appears
C)metaphase--chromosomes aligned at the equator
D)anaphase--daughter chromosomes move toward the poles
E)interphase--DNA replicates

During ______ , chromosomes become indistinct but the nucleoli
40 CORRECT
and the nuclear envelope reappear.
A)interphase
B)prophase
C)metaphase
D)anaphase
E)telophase

41 CORRECT Cytoplasmic division of a cell is called ______.
A)mitosis
B)cytokinesis
C)cleavage furrowing
D)cell plate formation
E)synapsis

42 CORRECT Which type of cell will form a cleavage furrow during cell division?
A)animal cells
B)plant cells
C)bacterial cells
D)fungal cells

43 CORRECT What causes the cleavage furrow in animal cells to constrict?
A)tubulin filaments
B)myosin filaments
C)actin filaments
D)microtubules

Which of the following comparisons is NOT correct regarding
44 CORRECT
mitosis?
A)animal cells--cleavage furrow
B)plant cells--cell plate
C)animal cells--centrioles and asters
D)plant cells--centrioles but no asters

Which of the following statements is NOT correct about mitosis in
45 CORRECT
plant and animal cells?
A)Spindle fibers appear in both plant and animal cell mitosis.
B)Centrioles are seen in animal but not plant cell mitosis.
C)Asters are seen in animal but not plant cell mitosis.
D)Cell furrowing occurs in animal but not plant cell mitosis.
E)
A cell plate is formed in animal cells but not in plant cells
during cytokinesis.
Vesicles that fuse to form a cell plate during cytokinesis in plant
46 CORRECT
cells come from the ______ .
A)Golgi apparatus
B)mitochondrion
C)lysosomes
D)ribosomes
E)nucleus

Which of the following sequences shows the correct life cycle for
47 CORRECT
humans?
A)
diploid egg + diploid sperm --> haploid zygote --> mitosis -->
haploid adult --> meiosis --> diploid gametes
B)
diploid egg + diploid sperm --> haploid zygote --> meiosis --
> haploid adult --> mitosis --> diploid gametes
C)
haploid egg + haploid sperm --> diploid zygote --> mitosis --
> diploid adult --> meiosis --> haploid gametes
D)
haploid egg + haploid sperm --> diploid zygote --> meiosis --
> diploid adult --> mitosis --> haploid gametes
48 CORRECT Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
A)
Gametes contain half the number of chromosomes found in
somatic cells.
B)Somatic cells have the diploid number of chromosomes.
C)The haploid number of chromosomes in humans is 23.
D)The diploid number of chromosomes in humans is 23 pairs.
E)
Each human parent contributes eleven and a half pairs of
chromosomes to the zygote.
49 CORRECT In which organ will meiosis occur for the human female?
A)ovary
B)testes
C)liver
D)pancreas
E)kidney

In animals, ______ occurs during the production of the egg and
50 CORRECT
the sperm.
A)fragmentation
B)mitosis
C)meiosis
D)regeneration
E)budding

Which of the following statements is NOT correct when cells
51 CORRECT
undergo meiosis?
A)
Meiosis ensures that the chromosome number remains
constant generation after generation.
B)
Meiosis ensures that each generation has a different genetic
makeup than the previous one.
C)
Meiosis ensures that each newly formed daughter cell receives
the same number and kinds of chromosomes.
D)Meiosis results in four daughter cells.
E)Meiosis occurs in the production of egg and sperm cells in animals.

52 CORRECT Which of the following statements is NOT correct about meiosis?
A)Meiosis involves one duplication of chromosomes.
B)Meiosis requires two divisions.
C)Meiosis results in four daughter cells.
D)The four daughter cells have one of each pair of chromosome.
E)
The four daughter cells have the same number of
Prior to meiosis I, DNA replication occurs, and each chromosome
53 CORRECT has two sister chromatids. Therefore, each chromosome can be
called a ______ .
A)homologous chromosome
B)daughter chromosome
C)dyad
D)tetrad
E)synapsis

When homologous chromosomes come together and line up side
54 CORRECT
by side, it is termed ______ .
A)crossing-over
B)synapsis
C)replication
D)meiosis
E)mitosis

55 CORRECT When does synapsis and crossing-over occur in meiosis?
A)prophase I
B)prophase II
C)metaphase I
D)metaphase II
E)anaphase I
Feedback: Correct Answer.

In ______ , pairs of homologous chromosomes line up at the
56 CORRECT
equator of the spindle.
A)prophase I
B)prophase II
C)metaphase I
D)metaphase II
E)anaphase I

What is the exchange of genetic material between nonsister
57 CORRECT
chromatids called?
A)cell cycle
B)DNA replication
C)synapsis
D)crossing-over
E)synapsis

Replication of DNA occurs before the start of meiosis I and again
58 CORRECT
before meiosis II.
A)True
B)False

Following synapsis during meiosis I, the homologous chromosomes
59 CORRECT
separate. This separation means that ______ .
A)
both chromosomes of each homologous pair reach each
haploid daughter cell
B)
both chromosomes of each homologous pair reach each
diploid daughter cell
C)
one chromosome from each homologous pair reaches each
haploid daughter cell
D)
one chromosome from each homologous pair reaches each
diploid daughter cell
During ______ , homologous chromosomes separate and dyads
60 CORRECT
move to opposite poles of the spindle.
A)prophase I
B)prophase II
C)metaphase I
D)anaphase I
E)anaphase II

During _______ , daughter cells will form, each containing only
61 CORRECT
one chromosome from each homologous pair.
A)metaphase II
B)anaphase II
C)anaphase I
D)telophase I
E)telophase II

62 CORRECT During ______ , the sister chromatids are lined up at the equator.
A)prophase I
B)prophase II
C)metaphase I
D)metaphase II
E)anaphase II

During ______ , a spindle appears while the nuclear envelope
fragments and the nucleolus disappears. Only one set of sister
63 CORRECT
chromosomes from each pair of homologous chromosomes is
present.
A)prophase I
B)prophase II
C)telophase I
D)telophase II
E)metaphase II

During ______ , the sister chromatids separate and move toward
64 CORRECT
the poles.
A)metaphase I
B)metaphase II
C)anaphase I
D)anaphase II
E)telophase II

In ______ , the spindle disappears as the nuclear envelopes form.
The plasma membrane furrows to give two complete cells, each of
65 INCORRECT
which has the haploid, or N, number of chromosomes. Each
chromosome has one chromatid.
A)prophase I
B)prophase II
C)anaphase II
D)telophase I
E)telophase II
Feedback: In telophase II , the spindle disappears as the

nuclear envelopes form. The plasma membrane furrows to
give two complete cells, each of which has the haploid, or
N, number of chromosomes. Each chromosome has one
chromatid.
66 CORRECT The production of sperm in males is called ______ .
A)spermatogenesis
B)oogenesis
C)mitosis
D)meiosis
E)reductional division

67 CORRECT Which of the following statements about oogenesis is NOT correct?
A)Oogenesis, once started, continues to completion.
B)
Oogenesis will form one large egg cell and three smaller polar
bodies.
C)Oogenesis produces only one cell that goes on to become an egg.
D)
Oogenesis will not continue unless the secondary oocyte is
fertilized.
E)
In humans, the egg that is formed by oogenesis will have 23
chromosomes.
Which cell during oogenesis must be fertilized by a sperm if it is to
68 CORRECT
become a mature egg?
A)primary oocyte
B)secondary oocyte
C)ootid
D)primary spermatocyte
E)secondary spermatocyte

How many chromosomes are present in the human secondary
69 CORRECT
spermatocyte?
A)15
B)30
C)11.5
D)23
E)46

Which of the following cells represents a way to discard
70 CORRECT unnecessary chromosomes while retaining much of the cytoplasm
in the egg?
A)primary oocyte
B)secondary oocyte
C)ootid
D)egg
E)polar bodies

Which of the following cells, when combined, will result in a diploid
71 CORRECT
fertilized egg?
A)sperm cell plus a polar body
B)sperm cell plus a primary oocyte
C)sperm cell plus an egg cell
D)spermatid plus an egg cell
E)spermatid plus a primary oocyte

Which of the following statements is NOT correct about human
72 CORRECT
spermatogenesis?
A)Spermatogenesis only occurs in the testes of males.
B)Spermatogenesis undergoes two cell divisions.
C)
Spermatogenesis results in four haploid cells, each with 46
chromosomes.
D)Spermatogenesis, once started, goes to completion.
E)Spermatogenesis results in four sperm, all of equal size.

Which of the following comparisons of mitosis versus meiosis is
73 CORRECT
NOT correct for animal cells?
A)occurs in somatic cells<---->occurs in the gonads
B)two daughter cells<---->four daughter cells
C)diploid daughter cells<---->haploid daughter cells
D)one cell division<---->two cell divisions
E)
homologous chromosomes pair up<---->homologous
chromosomes do not pair up
Which of the following comparisons of Mitosis to Meiosis I is NOT
74 CORRECT
correct for animal cells?
A)no chromosome pairing<---->homologous chromosomes pair
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Chapter 13
Flashcards
1 CORRECT The three major types of blood vessels are _______.
A)cardiac, smooth, and striated
B)arteries, capillaries, and veins
C)afferent, efferent, and divergent
D)diastolic, systolic, and peristaltic

The vessel that lies deepest in the body, with the thickest wall and
2 CORRECT
carrying blood under greatest pressure is the _______.
A)artery
B)vein
C)capillary
D)pulmonary

An artery can expand to accommodate the sudden increase in blood
3 CORRECT
volume after each heartbeat.
A)True
B)False

4 CORRECT Small arteries are called _______.
A)arteriettes
B)venules
C)capillaries
D)pulmonary arteries
E)arterioles

Whether you blush or turn pale is determined by dilation or
5 CORRECT
constriction of the _____.
A)valves in the veins
B)venules
C)capillaries
D)major arteries
E)arterioles

An exchange of nutrients and wastes takes place across ________
6 CORRECT
walls.
A)artery
B)vein
C)capillary
D)heart
Feedback: Correct Answer.

All of the capillaries in the body are open to blood flow all of the
7 CORRECT
time.
A)True
B)False

8 CORRECT Valves allow blood to flow _______.
A)away from the heart and limit high blood pressure in tissues
B)to those capillary beds that need the blood at that moment
C)toward the heart in veins that lack significant blood pressure
D)to the lungs when the blood lacks enough oxygen
E)
from the liver when the intestine lacks nutrient molecules and
the liver must deliver glucose, stored as glycogen, to the tissues
9 CORRECT Valves prevent the backward flow of blood when closed.
A)True
B)False

The heart lies within the pericardium, a membranous sac that
10 CORRECT
secretes a small quantity of ________.
A)blood
B)lubricating liquid
C)glucose

11 CORRECT The heart contains chambers called the ______.
A)atria and ventricles
B)septa
C)AV nodes
D)lunar valves

The valves that lie between the atria and the ventricles are called
12 CORRECT
the ________ valves.
A)atrioventricular
B)varicose
C)semilunar
D)lunar

The atrioventricular valves are supported by strong fibrous strings
13 CORRECT
called ________.
A)AV nodes
B)chordae tendineae
C)cardiac fibers
D)myocardium

14 CORRECT The ________ valves resemble half moons.
A)atrioventricular
B)varicose
C)semilunar
D)lunar

When the heart beats, the familiar lub-dup sound occurs as the
15 CORRECT
valves of the heart _____.
A)open
B)close
C)expand
D)contract

16 CORRECT A heart murmur is caused by ______.
A)smoking which weakens the action of the valve
B)ineffective valves allowing blood to leak back through the valve
C)stress from higher blood pressure
D)ineffective signals from the AV node

17 CORRECT Nodal tissue has ________ characteristics.
A)muscular and nervous
B)muscular and connective
C)connective and nervous
D)sensory and muscular

18 CORRECT The SA node is found in ________.
A)the base of the right atrium
B)the upper wall of the right atrium
C)each valve unit
D)the tip of the heart

19 CORRECT The SA node ________.
A)initiates the heartbeat
B)regulates the action of the heart valves
C)signals the ventricles to relax
D)signals the ventricles to contract

20 CORRECT The AV node ________.
A)initiates the heartbeat
B)regulates the action of the heart valves
C)signals the ventricles to relax
D)signals the ventricles to contract

21 CORRECT The SA node is called the ________.
A)master regulator
B)diastolic initiator
C)pacemaker
D)systolic suppressor

22 CORRECT Blood pressure is the pressure of blood against ________.
A)a stethoscope
B)the skin of the upper arm
C)the capillaries of the lung
D)the wall of a blood vessel

23 CORRECT The highest arterial pressure is called _______.
A)diastolic pressure
B)systolic pressure
C)hypotension
D)hypertension

24 CORRECT Diastolic pressure occurs while the heart ventricles are _______.
A)relaxing
B)contracting
C)motionless

25 CORRECT The greater the number of blood vessels dilated, the ________ .
A)higher the blood pressure
B)lower the blood pressure
C)faster the heartbeat
D)slower the heartbeat

26 CORRECT Blood pressure is lower in the arteries than in the arterioles.
A)True
B)False

There is a sharp drop in blood pressure when the arterioles reach
27 CORRECT
the capillaries.
A)True
B)False

Blood pressure alone accounts for the movement of blood through
28 CORRECT
the veins.
A)True
B)False

29 CORRECT The cardiovascular system consists of _______ circuits.
A)pulmonary and systemic
B)arterial and venous
C)renal and hepatic
D)cardiac and cerebral

The chamber of the heart that receives oxygen-rich blood from the
30 CORRECT
pulmonary veins is the ______.
A)right atrium
B)left atrium
C)right ventricle
D)left ventricle

31 CORRECT The pulmonary trunk divides into the ________.
A)pulmonary arteries
B)pulmonary veins
C)venae cavae
D)dorsal aorta

The ________ and ________ serve as the major vessels for blood in
32 CORRECT
the systemic circuit.
A)aorta and pulmonary artery
B)pulmonary artery and venae cavae
C)venae cavae and femoral artery
D)aorta and venae cavae

The inferior vena cava collects blood from the head, the chest, and
33 CORRECT
the arms.
A)True
B)False

In the systemic circuit, like the pulmonary system, arteries contain
34 CORRECT
deoxygenated blood.
A)True
B)False

The _______ arteries are extremely important because they serve
35 CORRECT
the heart muscle itself.
A)cardiac
B)coronary
C)pulmonary
D)pericardial

36 CORRECT The coronary arteries are the first branch off the ________.
A)pericardium
B)vena cava
C)pulmonary arteries
D)aorta

At the arterial end of a capillary, blood pressure is lower than the
37 CORRECT
osmotic pressure of the blood.
A)True
B)False

38 CORRECT Blood brings ______ to cells.
A)amino acids and glucose
B)carbon dioxide
C)wastes
D)ATP

39 CORRECT Blood removes wastes, such as _______ from the cell.
B)carbon dioxide
C)oxygen
D)ATP

Osmotic pressure is created by the presence of salts and plasma
40 CORRECT
proteins.
A)True
B)False

The blood always has less water concentration compared to tissue
41 CORRECT fluid because of the presence of ______, whose size prevents
passage across the capillary wall.
B)carbon dioxide
C)albumin and other plasma proteins
D)white blood cells

______________ in the blood help(s) guard the body against
42 CORRECT
invasion by microbes.
A)Red blood cells
B)White blood cells
C)Platelets
D)Albumin

43 CORRECT The main mechanism to prevent loss of blood is ________.
A)the hemoglobin in red blood cells forms a network
B)white blood cells fuse together
C)platelets participate in clotting
D)albumin dries and hardens

If blood is transferred to a test tube and is prevented from clotting,
44 CORRECT
it separates into ___.
A)formed elements and plasma
B)granular leukocytes and agranular leukocytes
C)red blood cells and white blood cells
D)inorganic and organic substances

45 CORRECT The plasma protein ________ transports bilirubin.
A)fibrinogen
B)prothrombin
C)hemoglobin
D)albumin
E)globulin

The lipoproteins that transport cholesterol are a type of protein
46 CORRECT
called _________.
A)fibrinogens
B)prothrombins
C)hemoglobins
D)albumins
E)globulins

47 CORRECT The plasma protein ________ is necessary to blood clotting.
A)fibrinogen
B)globulin
C)hemoglobin
D)albumin

The hormone _________ produced in the kidney stimulates the
48 CORRECT
maturation of more red blood cells.
A)fibrinogen
B)erythropoietin
C)cortisone
D)leukoactin

49 CORRECT Stem cells __________.
A)initiate the rate of heartbeat
B)initiate the formation of blood clots
C)
continuously divide and produce cells that differentiate into
blood cells
D)
spread in the bloodstream to all parts of the body to repair any
damaged tissues
50 CORRECT Human red blood cells lack ________.
A)hemoglobin
B)iron
C)metabolism
D)a nucleus

51 CORRECT Red blood cells are destroyed chiefly in the ______.
A)liver and spleen
B)heart and lungs
C)bone marrow
D)kidney

52 CORRECT Forms of white blood cells include _________.
A)neutrophils
B)macrophages
C)monocytes
D)lymphocytes
E)All of the above are varieties of white blood cells.

________ are the most abundant of the white blood cells that
53 CORRECT
function to phagocytize bacteria.
A)Neutrophils
B)Macrophages
C)Monocytes
D)Lymphocytes

54 CORRECT The largest of the white blood cells are the _________.
A)neutrophils
B)monocytes
C)macrophages
D)lymphocytes

Macrophages phagocytize microbes and stimulate other white blood
55 CORRECT
cells to defend the body.
A)True
B)False

56 CORRECT Neutrophils are unable to phagocytize and digest bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Feedback: Correct answer!

57 CORRECT Causes of anemia include ___________.
A)insufficient number of red blood cells
B)not enough hemoglobin per red blood cell
C)a lack of iron in the diet
D)All of the above can cause anemia.

__________ is a form of cancer characterized by uncontrolled
58 CORRECT
production of abnormal white blood cells.
A)Leukemia
B)Anemia
C)Artherosclerosis
D)Hypertension
E)Pulmonary embolism

___________ develop(s) when valves become weak and ineffective
59 CORRECT
due to the backward pressure of blood.
A)Hemorrhaging
B)Varicose veins
C)Atherosclerosis
D)Hypertension

__________ occurs when a blood clot lodges in a lung blood vessel
60 CORRECT
and can cause death.
A)Hemorrhaging
B)Varicose veins
C)Artherosclerosis
D)Stroke
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27 correct (84%)
Chapter 26
Flashcards
1 CORRECT A/An ______ is used to introduce recombinant DNA into cells.
A)clone
B)PCR machine
C)probe
D)vector
E)antisense molecule

2 CORRECT ______ are small accessory rings of DNA found in bacteria.
A)Plasmids
B)Probes
C)Restriction enzymes
D)GEMs (genetically engineered microbes)
E)Organoids

3 INCORRECT ________ is used to produce gene copies in a test tube.
A)Exons and introns
B)Antisense DNA
C)Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
D)Ex vivo therapy
E)Angiogenesis
Feedback: Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is used to

produce gene copies in a test tube.
4 CORRECT Making recombinant DNA is a process requiring __________.
A)restriction enzyme
B)DNA ligase
C)a vector
D)foreign DNA
E)all of the above

______ enzymes cut a DNA molecule into discrete pieces at a
5 CORRECT
distinct cleavage site.
A)DNA ligase
B)Restriction
C)Vector
D)Polymerase
E)Antisense

6 CORRECT ______ seal(s) any breaks in a DNA molecule.
A)Restriction enzymes
B)Polymerase
C)DNA probes
D)Plasmids
E)DNA ligase

Transgenic bacteria can produce proteins they never produced
7 CORRECT
before.
A)True
B)False

8 CORRECT Biotechnology products include __________.
A)insulin
B)human vaccines
C)human growth hormones and clotting factors
D)plants resistant to pests
E)all of the above

Biotechnology can produce insulin and growth hormones in
9 CORRECT quantity from bacteria without harvesting the glands of animals or
humans.
A)True
B)False

10 CORRECT PCR takes its name from DNA ______.
A)primer-copying ribosomes
B)probe complement reaction
C)protein complement reaction
D)DNA polymerase chain reaction
E)production of copies by restriction enzymes

11 CORRECT PCR provides more copies of a gene than cloning.
A)True
B)False

A critical breakthrough that made automated PCR possible was
12 CORRECT
______.
A)the discovery that bacteria did not use codons
B)a method to convert exons into introns
C)
the discovery of a temperature-insensitive stable DNA
polymerase in a hot springs bacterium
D)the use of atomic energy to produce the chain reaction
E)smaller test tubes

13 CORRECT DNA polymerase needs primers to start the replication process.
A)True
B)False

14 CORRECT PCR can create millions of copies of a single gene in a test tube.
A)True
B)False

15 INCORRECT As a result of cloning __________.
A)multiple copies of a gene may be secured
B)the gene product may be retrieved
C)both multiple genes and gene products are produced
Feedback: As a result of cloning both multiple genes and

gene products are produced.
16 CORRECT A single gene can be copied using PCR.
A)True
B)False

When the genome is treated with restriction enzymes, it produces
17 CORRECT a collection of different-sized sections that can be separated by
__________________.
A)PCR
B)restriction enzymes
C)gel electrophoresis
D)cloning

18 CORRECT Biotechnology medical products include _______.
A)insulin
B)growth hormone
C)tPA (tissue plasminogen activator)
D)hepatitis B vaccine
E)all of the above

DNA fingerprinting can only be used on cells from living specimens.
19 INCORRECT
Responses:
A)True
B)False
Feedback: DNA fingerprinting can only be used on any cells,

living or preserved, as long as DNA is intact.
20 CORRECT Transgenic organisms are organisms __________.
A)created completely in the laboratory
B)with a foreign gene inserted in them
C)crossed by the reproduction of animals of two different species
D)suffering from defective genes
E)
with their original genes removed and all new foreign genes
inserted in them
Bioengineered bacteria can be used to promote the health of
21 CORRECT
plants.
A)True
B)False

22 CORRECT Genetic engineering can improve the ability of oil-eating bacteria.
A)True
B)False

23 CORRECT Bacteria can be bioengineered to produce phenylalanine.
A)True
B)False

Bacteria are being used to "mine" various metals from the ground
24 CORRECT
when the metal is in very low amounts.
A)True
B)False

Organisms that receive DNA from sources outside their natural
25 CORRECT
species are called _______.
A)plasmids
B)transgenic
C)organoids
D)clones
E)vectors

26 INCORRECT Bioengineered bacteria __________.
A)clean up pollutants
B)make gene products in huge vats called bioreactors
C)process minerals and produce chemicals
D)provide plants with insect toxins from other organisms
E)do all of the above
Feedback: Bioengineered bacteria clean up pollutants, make

gene products in huge vats called bioreactors, process
minerals and produce chemicals, and provide plants with
insect toxins from other organisms.
27 CORRECT Bioengineering can alter the phenotype of plants and animals.
A)True
B)False

Because animal cells will not take up bacterial plasmids, they
28 CORRECT
cannot be genetically engineered.
A)True
B)False

New biotechnology applications, such as corn resistant to insects,
29 CORRECT are breakthroughs that have been proven to pose no ecological
dangers.
A)True
B)False

Gene therapy is a theoretical idea for replacing defective genes
30 CORRECT
with healthy ones but it has not yet been used.
A)True
B)False

A/an ______ is used as a vector to carry normal genes into the
31 INCORRECT cells of a patient where they become incorporated into the
genome.
A)antisense molecule
B)plasmid
C)retrovirus
D)GEM (genetically engineered microbe)
E)DNA probe
Feedback: A retrovirus is used as a vector to carry normal

genes into the cells of a patient where they become
incorporated into the genome.
When research or medical procedures are done in an organism or
32 CORRECT patient rather than in tissue culture or test tube, it is called
_________.
A)genetic
B)realistic
C)in vitro
D)in vivo
E)malignant
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77 correct (92%)
Chapter 3
Flashcards
1 CORRECT The fundamental unit of life is the ______.
A)organism
B)organ system
C)organ
D)tissue
E)cell

Which type of microscope uses electrons to provide a three-
2 CORRECT
dimensional view of the surface of the object?
A)light microscope
B)transmission electron microscope
C)scanning electron microscope
D)scanning-probe microscope

Which type of microscope has a useful magnification limit of about
3 CORRECT
1,000X?
A)light microscope
B)transmission electron microscope
D)scanning-probe microscope

4 CORRECT ______ is the capacity to distinguish between two adjacent points.
A)Magnification
B)Resolving power
C)Ionization
D)Emulsification
E)Multiplication

Electrons have a shorter wavelength than visible light and
5 CORRECT
therefore will have a lower resolving power.
A)True
B)False

6 CORRECT "TEM" refers to a photomicrograph taken by a ______.
A)light microscope
B)triple emission microscope
D)transmission electron microscope
E)telephoto electroplating machine

7 CORRECT A picture taken by a scanning electron microscope is called a SEM.
A)True
B)False

8 CORRECT Multicellular organisms are composed of many cells.
A)True
B)False

9 CORRECT The cell theory states that all living things are composed of atoms.
A)True
B)False

10 CORRECT Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)Cell walls are found in plants but not in animals.
B)Cell walls are found inside the plasma membrane of a cell.
C)The main constituent of a primary cell wall is cellulose molecules.
D)
Secondary cell walls contain lignin, a substance that makes
them stronger than primary cell walls.
Feedback: Correct Answer However, cell walls are found
outside the plasma membrane of a cell.
The ______ membrane separates the contents of the cell from the
11 CORRECT
surrounding environment.
A)plasma
B)nuclear
C)Golgi
D)mitochondrial
E)lysosomal

Which of the following organelles has a double membrane with
12 CORRECT
pores?
A)lysosome
B)Golgi apparatus
C)mitochondria
D)nucleus
E)chloroplast

13 CORRECT The information center of the cell is the ______.
A)mitochondria
B)chloroplast
C)nucleoli
D)nucleus
E)lysosome

A threadlike material called chromatin is located within the
14 CORRECT
______.
A)nucleus
B)nucleolus
C)mitochondria
D)lysosome
E)Golgi apparatus

15 CORRECT Where is ribosomal RNA produced?
A)mitochondria
B)chloroplasts
C)lysosomes
D)Golgi apparatus
E)nucleoli

16 CORRECT ______ is the site of protein synthesis in the cytoplasm.
A)Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
B)Golgi apparatus
C)Ribosomes
D)Lysosomes
E)Mitochondria

17 CORRECT Ribosomes are small, dense granules composed of three subunits.
A)True
B)False

Polyribosomes are groups of ribosomes occurring free within the
18 CORRECT
cytoplasm.
A)True
B)False

At the time of cell division, rodlike structures called chromatin will
19 CORRECT
form within the nucleus.
A)True
B)False

Which type of organelle forms a membranous system of tubular
20 CORRECT canals, which is continuous with the nuclear envelope and
branches throughout the cytoplasm?
A)lysosome
B)mitochondria
C)Golgi apparatus
D)endoplasmic reticulum
E)microtubules

Which organelle produces steroid hormones in the testes and
21 CORRECT
adrenal cortex while detoxifying alcohol in the liver?
A)lysosomes
B)ribosomes
C)smooth endoplasmic reticulum
D)rough endoplasmic reticulum
E)Golgi apparatus

22 CORRECT Which organelle contains enzymes that modify proteins and lipids?
A)lysosomes
B)peroxisomes
C)Golgi apparatus
D)mitochondria
E)rough endoplasmic reticulum

Which organelle synthesizes proteins for export or repackaging
23 CORRECT
elsewhere?
A)smooth endoplasmic reticulum
B)rough endoplasmic reticulum
C)free ribosomes
D)lysosomes
E)Golgi apparatus

What is the correct organelle sequence for the export of material
24 CORRECT
out of a cell?
A)rough ER --> smooth ER --> Golgi apparatus
B)smooth ER --> rough ER --> Golgi apparatus
C)rough ER --> Golgi apparatus --> smooth ER
D)smooth ER --> Golgi apparatus --> rough ER
E)Golgi apparatus --> rough ER --> smooth ER

25 INCORRECT Which organelle looks like a stack of hollow pancakes?
A)lysosomes
B)mitochondria
C)chloroplast
D)Golgi apparatus
Feedback: The Golgi apparatus looks like a stack of hollow

pancakes; the mitochondria are long, lysosomes are round
and the rough ER is sheet-like.
The ______ functions in the packaging, storage, and distribution of
26 CORRECT
molecules produced by the ER.
A)Golgi apparatus
B)lysosome
C)nucleus
D)mitochondria
E)centrioles

Which plant organelles function as storage areas for water, sugars,
27 CORRECT
salts, pigments, and toxic substances?
A)lysosomes
B)vesicles
C)vacuoles
D)Golgi apparatuses
E)mitochondria

28 INCORRECT Which plant organelle will provide added support to the cell?
A)vacuole
B)vesicle
C)chloroplast
D)lysosomes
E)Golgi apparatus
Feedback: In plants, the large central vacuole fills with

water and provides added support to the cell.
29 CORRECT Lysosomes are vesicles formed by the ______.
A)endoplasmic reticulum
B)nucleus
C)mitochondria
D)ribosomes
E)Golgi apparatus

Which organelle contains hydrolytic enzymes that can digest
30 CORRECT
macromolecules?
A)rough endoplasmic reticulum
B)mitochondria
C)centrioles
D)lysosomes
E)Golgi apparatus

Which organelle is used when the fingers of a human embryo are
31 CORRECT
at first webbed but later freed from one another?
A)rough ER
B)microtubules
C)Golgi apparatus
D)mitochondria
E)lysosome

A metabolic disorder involving a missing or inactive enzyme is
32 CORRECT
found in the ______ produced by the _______.
A)Golgi apparatus, endoplasmic reticulum
B)ribosomes, nucleolus
C)rough endoplasmic reticulum
D)lysosomes, Golgi apparatus
E)mitochondria, plasma membrane

33 CORRECT Vacuoles are more prominent in plant cells than in animal cells.
A)True
B)False

A vesicle is a large membrane-enclosed sac; a vacuole a small
34 CORRECT
membrane-enclosed sac.
A)True
B)False

The inner face of the Golgi apparatus is directed toward the
35 INCORRECT
nucleus and receives incoming molecules for export.
A)True
B)False
Feedback: The inner face of the Golgi apparatus is directed

toward the endoplasmic reticulum and receives incoming
molecules that bud from the ER.
Study this reaction: carbohydrate + oxygen ----> carbon dioxide +
36 CORRECT
water + energy. This chemical transformation is called ______.
A)photosynthesis
B)aerobic cellular respiration
C)anaerobic cellular respiration
D)hydrolysis
E)the endosymbiotic theory

Study this reaction: energy + carbon dioxide + water ---->
37 CORRECT carbohydrate + oxygen. This chemical transformation is called
______.
A)photosynthesis
D)hydrolysis
E)the endosymbiotic theory

Which organelle is responsible for this chemical transformation:
38 CORRECT
energy + carbon dioxide + water ----> carbohydrate + oxygen?
A)lysosome
B)Golgi apparatus
C)nucleus
D)mitochondria
E)chloroplast

39 CORRECT Which organelle is responsible for the process of photosynthesis?
A)mitochondria
B)chloroplasts
C)centrioles
D)cilia
E)lysosomes

40 CORRECT Which process produces carbohydrates and releases oxygen?
A)photosynthesis
D)hydrolysis
E)autodigestion

Which process burns carbohydrates and releases carbon dioxide
41 CORRECT
and water?
A)autodigestion
B)hydrolysis
C)aerobic cellular respiration
D)photosynthesis

A picture from an electron microscope showed a structure that had
a double membrane, flattened sacs piled up like stacks of coins,
42 CORRECT
and a fluid-filled space. Such an organelle would be called a
______.
A)mitochondrion
B)nucleus
C)chloroplast
D)lysosome
E)Golgi apparatus

The fluid-filled space that surrounds the cristae within a
43 CORRECT
mitochondrion is called a ______.
A)thylakoid
B)stroma
C)matrix
D)grana
E)vacuole

44 CORRECT Which of the following is an energy-related organelle?
A)Golgi apparatus
B)centriole
C)lysosome
D)nucleolus
E)chloroplast

45 CORRECT Cristae are structures found in the ______.
A)Golgi apparatus
B)chloroplast
C)mitochondria
D)lysosome
E)centriole

Which organelle would be called the powerhouse of the cell
46 CORRECT
because of its role in cellular respiration?
A)chloroplast
B)mitochondrion
C)Golgi apparatus
D)lysosome
E)actin fiber

The fluid-filled space about the grana in chloroplasts is called the
47 CORRECT
______.
A)thylakoid
B)stroma
C)matrix
D)cristae
E)vacuole

______ is a green pigment found within grana that makes
48 CORRECT
chloroplasts and leaves green.
A)Cellulose
B)Ribosomal RNA
C)Actin
D)Hemoglobin
E)Chlorophyll

Which molecule absorbs solar energy so that chloroplasts can
49 CORRECT
convert the solar energy into ATP molecules?
A)oxygen
B)carbon dioxide
C)chlorophyll
D)glucose
E)DNA

50 INCORRECT The flattened sacs within a chloroplast are called ______.
A)matrix
B)cristae
C)grana
D)thylakoids
E)filaments
Feedback: The flattened sacs within a chloroplast are called

grana.
The equation for photosynthesis is roughly the opposite of aerobic
51 CORRECT
cellular respiration.
A)True
B)False

Which of the following organelles and functions are NOT correctly
52 CORRECT
related?
A)endoplasmic reticulum--photosynthesis
B)Golgi apparatus--secretions
C)vacuoles--storage
D)lysosomes--enzymes
E)mitochondria--cellular respiration

The ______ helps to maintain the cell's shape, anchors the
53 CORRECT
organelles, and allows the cell and its organelles to move.
A)cytoskeleton
B)nucleus
C)nucleolus
D)Golgi apparatus

Microtubules are cylinders that contain a globular protein called
54 CORRECT
______.
A)actin
B)tubulin
C)glucose
D)rRNA
E)cellulose

55 CORRECT What is the function of the centrosome?
A)to control the nucleus
B)to regulate the assembly of microfilaments
C)to regulate the assembly of microtubules
D)to control the Golgi apparatus
E)to control the movement of cilia

Which cytoskeletal structure is found in muscle cells that helps to
56 CORRECT
bring about contraction?
A)smooth endoplasmic reticulum
B)rough endoplasmic reticulum
C)centrioles
D)actin filaments
E)microtubules

57 CORRECT Which of the following statements is NOT correct about centrioles?
A)Centrioles are found in animal cells but not in plant cells.
B)Animal cells have two centrioles.
C)The two centrioles lie parallel to each other.
D)Centrioles lie within the centrosome.
E)Before an animal cell divides, the centrioles replicate.

58 CORRECT Centrioles have a ______ microtubular pattern.
A)6 + 2
B)6 + 0
C)9 + 2
D)9 + 1
E)9 + 0

What are the likely microtubule organizing centers for the
59 CORRECT
formation of cilia and flagella called?
A)centrioles
B)microvilli
C)basal bodies
D)lysosomes
E)mitochondria

Which cytoskeletal structures are short cylinder structures that
60 CORRECT
form a 9 + 0 constriction ring that functions during cell division?
A)actin filaments
B)microtubules
C)smooth endoplasmic reticulum
D)rough endoplasmic reticulum
E)centrioles

Which of the following structures will have a 9 + 2 pattern of
61 CORRECT
microtubules?
A)mitochondria
B)flagella
C)centriole
D)basal bodies
E)chloroplasts

62 CORRECT The structure of flagella is most similar to that of ______.
A)cilia
B)basal bodies
C)centrioles
D)microvilli

Which organelle is composed of a single, hairlike extension of the
63 CORRECT
cell that allows the cell to move?
A)centriole
B)microtubule
C)cilia
D)flagella
E)mitochondria

Which of the following comparisons is NOT correct? Both plant and
64 CORRECT
animal cells have ______.
A)plasma membranes
B)nuclear membranes
C)mitochondria
D)chloroplasts
E)vacuoles

65 CORRECT Which comparison between plant and animal cells is NOT correct?
A)plants: cell wall; animals: no cell wall
B)plants: large, single vacuole; animals: many, small vacuoles
C)plants: chloroplasts; animals: no chloroplasts
D)plants: centrioles; animals: no centrioles
E)plants: no basal bodies; animals: have basal bodies

A)plasma membrane--phospholipid bilayer and protein
B)centrioles--microtubules
C)ribosomes--protein and DNA
D)chromatin--DNA
E)chloroplasts--chlorophyll

67 CORRECT Sperm cells move by means of _____.
A)cilia
B)flagella
C)centrioles
D)mitochondria
E)microtubules

68 CORRECT _____ are organelles that line our upper respiratory tract.
A)cilia
B)flagella
C)centrioles
D)mitochondria
E)microtubules

69 CORRECT Which of the following is NOT correctly paired?
A)nucleus--control of protein synthesis
B)nucleolus--protein synthesis
C)mitochondrion--aerobic cellular respiration
D)chloroplast--photosynthesis
E)centriole--microtubule organization

A)mitochondrion--cristae
B)chloroplast--thylakoids
C)centriole--9 + 0 pattern of microtubules
D)cilia--9 + 2 pattern of microtubules
E)lysosome--stack of membranous saccules

A)lysosome--energy-converting organelle
B)smooth endoplasmic reticulum--membranous canals
C)chloroplast--energy-converting organelle
D)actin filaments--cytoskeleton
E)ribosome--granule-like organelle

Which of the following organelles is the largest and most easily
72 CORRECT
observed with the light microscope?
A)mitochondria
B)chloroplast
C)nucleus
D)ribosomes
E)lysosomes

A)rough endoplasmic reticulum--protein synthesis
B)smooth endoplasmic reticulum--lipid synthesis
C)Golgi apparatus--processing, packaging, secretion
D)lysosome--production of ATP
E)nucleus--cellular reproduction

74 CORRECT Which of the following cells have a nucleoid region?
A)muscle cell
B)bacterial cell
C)fungus cell
D)leaf cell
E)liver cell

Which of the following structures are found in plant cells but NOT
75 CORRECT
in bacteria?
A)plasma membrane
B)cell wall
C)DNA
D)ribosomes
E)mitochondria

76 CORRECT Prokaryotic cells have a well-defined nucleus.
A)True
B)False

Organisms in which of the following kingdoms do NOT have a well-
77 CORRECT
defined nucleus?
A)protists
B)fungi
C)plants
D)animals
E)monerans

78 CORRECT Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of prokaryotic cells?
A)chromosome is composed of a single circular DNA macromolecule
B)unicellular organisms
C)DNA enclosed by a nuclear envelope
D)lack most of the organelles found in eukaryotic cells
E)more metabolically varied than other types of organisms

______ are the most abundant and diverse organisms found on
79 CORRECT
earth.
A)Bacteria
B)Fungi
C)Protists
D)Plants
E)Animals

Due to a lack of organelles, prokaryotic cells are less metabolically
80 CORRECT
varied than eukaryotic cells.
A)True
B)False

Because prokaryotic cells lack many of the organelles found in
81 INCORRECT eukaryotic cells, prokaryotic cells do NOT carry out as many of the
functions as seen in eukaryotic cells.
A)True
B)False
Feedback: Although prokaryotic cells lack many organelles,

they are highly adapted and do carry out a wide variety of
metabolic functions compared with eukaryotic cells
Both plants and bacteria have cell walls, which are composed of
82 CORRECT
cellulose.
A)True
B)False

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Chapter 12
Flashcards
1 INCORRECT Which of the following is NOT a function of the digestive system?
A)ingest food
B)digest food to small molecules
C)absorb nutrient molecules
D)eliminate non-digestible wastes
E)transport nutrients to other organs
Feedback: The circulatory system transports nutrients to

other organs; the digestive system does ingest food and
digest it to small molecules, absorbing nutrients and
eliminating non-digestible wastes.
2 CORRECT "Digestion" of food refers to
A)allowing the liver to produce bile for digestion.
B)allowing the pancreas to release digestive enzymes.
C)
allowing small molecules to cross cell membranes and be
absorbed by the tract lining.
D)
allowing large molecules to cross cell membranes and be
absorbed by the tract lining.
E)allowing the meat that is eaten to nourish our body.

Strictly speaking, ____ refers to the breakdown of food by
3 CORRECT
enzymatic action.
A)ingestion
B)digestion
C)excretion
D)metabolism
E)mastication

A)Digestion only takes place within the digestive tract.
B)The digestive tract begins with the mouth and ends with the anus.
C)Digestion of food in humans is a process that occurs inside of cells.
D)
Digestive enzymes are secreted into the tract by glands
located either in the tract or nearby.
E)
Food is never found within accessory glands, only within the
tract itself.
5 CORRECT Taste is due solely to stimulation of receptors in the nose.
A)True
B)False

Which of the following sequences does NOT trace the path of food
6 CORRECT
through the digestive tract in the correct order?
A)mouth, esophagus, stomach
B)esophagus, stomach, duodenum
C)stomach, large intestine, small intestine
D)stomach, duodenum, large intestine
E)ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon

7 CORRECT ____ are chisel-shaped teeth used for biting.
A)Incisors
B)Canines
C)Premolars
D)Molars
E)Wisdom teeth

8 CORRECT Nerves and blood vessels are found within the ____ of a tooth.
A)enamel
B)dentin
C)pulp
D)crown
E)periodontal membrane

A)caries--tooth decay
B)gingivitis--inflammation of the gums
C)periodontitis--inflammation of the periodontal membrane
D)mumps--viral infection of the tonsils
E)heartburn--stomach acid in the esophagus

10 INCORRECT Which of the following comparisons is NOT correct?
A)stomach--food storage and grinding
B)esophagus--food conduction
C)pharynx--voice box
D)small intestine--nutrient absorption
E)large intestine--water and salt absorption
Feedback: The pharynx is the cross passage where air from

the nasal cavities crosses to the trachea and food from the
mouth crosses to the esophagus. All other associations
listed are correct.
A)bolus--food mixed with saliva in the mouth
B)chyme--food mixed with gastric secretions leaving the stomach
C)gastric juice--secretions from intestinal glands
D)feces--nondigestible remains, bile, and bacteria
E)peristalsis--rhythmic contractions to move food

12 CORRECT Sphincters are muscles that encircle tubes and act as valves.
A)True
B)False

Which of the following hormones will cause the stomach to churn
13 CORRECT
and increase secretory activity of the gastric glands?
A)GIP
B)gastrin
C)secretin
D)CCK
E)insulin

Which of the following hormones is/are produced by cells of the
14 CORRECT
duodenal wall?
A)gastrin alone
B)GIP alone
C)secretin alone
D)CCK alone
E)secretin and CCK

If hydrochloric acid penetrates the mucus on the stomach wall,
15 CORRECT
autodigestion of the wall begins, and an ulcer results.
A)True
B)False

Which of the following substances will cause the release of secretin
16 CORRECT
from the duodenal wall?
A)carbohydrates
B)fats
C)partially digested protein
D)hydrochloric acid in chyme
E)sodium hydroxide in chyme

17 CORRECT What allows chyme to enter the small intestine?
A)a sphincter between the esophagus and the stomach
B)a sphincter between the stomach and the small intestine
C)the anal sphincter
D)lacteal
E)ileocecal valve

Which organ will secrete sodium bicarbonate to neutralize the
18 CORRECT
acidity of chyme in the small intestine?
A)pancreas
B)gallbladder
C)duodenum
D)esophagus
E)stomach

19 CORRECT Where are the brush-border enzymes found?
A)villi
B)microvilli
C)columnar epithelial cells
D)goblet cells
E)lacteal

The end products of lipid, protein, and carbohydrate digestion
20 CORRECT
enter the blood capillaries of the villi.
A)True
B)False

A)
Microvilli increase the surface area of the small intestine for
absorption of nutrients.
B)Enzymes located on the brush-border finish the digestion of chyme.
C)Absorption is an active process in the small intestine.
D)
Sugars and amino acids cross columnar epithelial cells to
enter the lacteal.
E)
Fat components rejoin in epithelial cells and are packaged as
lipoprotein droplets, which enter the lacteals.
22 CORRECT Which of the following organs will contain villi?
A)esophagus
B)stomach
C)small intestine
D)liver
E)pancreas

23 CORRECT Most bacteria that live in the colon are facultative bacteria.
A)True
B)False

24 CORRECT Which of the following organs is NOT part of the large intestine?
A)cecum
B)colon
C)rectum
D)anal canal
E)duodenum

Which of the following organs functions to absorb water, salts, and
25 CORRECT
store nondigestible material?
A)esophagus
B)stomach
C)small intestine
D)large intestine
E)liver

26 CORRECT The ____ is the blind end of the ascending colon.
A)cecum
B)vermiform appendix
C)transverse colon
D)anal canal
E)rectum

A)constipation--hard and dry feces
B)ulcer--open sore in the wall of the stomach
C)peritonitis--inflammation of the cecum
D)
cirrhosis--liver first becomes fatty and then replaced by
fibrous scar tissue
E)
jaundice--abnormally large amount of bilirubin in the skin and
the whites of the eyes
A)
A high coliform bacterial count indicates a significant amount
of feces has entered the water.
B)
When the appendix bursts, a generalized infection of the
serosa of the abdominal cavity can occur.
C)
If colon cancer is detected while still confined to a polyp, the
outcome is expected to be a complete cure.
D)Fiber in the diet promotes the development of colon cancer.
E)
Bacteria in the colon break down nondigestible material and
produce some vitamins that can be absorbed and used by our
bodies.
29 CORRECT Which of the following statements is false?
A)
Diarrhea can be caused by eating contaminated food, which
causes the intestinal wall to become irritated and peristalsis to
increase.
B)
In nervous diarrhea, the nervous system stimulates the
intestinal wall and diarrhea results.
C)Prolonged diarrhea can lead to constipation.
D)Constipation can be alleviated by increasing water intake.
E)
Constipation can be alleviated by increasing the fiber content
of our diet.
In diarrhea, too little water has been absorbed by the large
30 CORRECT
intestine; in constipation, too much water has been absorbed.
A)True
B)False

Milk of magnesia acts as a laxative because it makes the colon
31 CORRECT
slippery.
A)True
B)False

Which of the following organs is considered an accessory organ of
32 CORRECT
digestion?
A)liver
B)stomach
C)esophagus
D)ascending colon
E)rectum

Which of the following organs has both an endocrine and an
33 CORRECT
exocrine function?
A)pancreas
B)liver
C)stomach
D)duodenum
E)esophagus

34 CORRECT Which of the following organs produces bile?
A)gallbladder
B)liver
C)duodenum
D)stomach
E)large intestine

35 CORRECT Which component in bile helps to emulsify fat in the duodenum?
A)bilirubin
B)biliverdin
C)bile salts
D)cholesterol

Which blood vessel will transport nutrient molecules that have
36 INCORRECT
been absorbed by the small intestine to the liver?
A)hepatic artery
B)renal vein
C)hepatic portal artery
D)hepatic portal vein
E)inferior vena cava
Feedback: The hepatic portal vein transports nutrient

molecules that have been absorbed by the small intestine to
the liver.
Which of the following organs functions to remove poisonous
37 CORRECT
substances and works to keep the contents of blood constant?
A)esophagus
B)stomach
C)duodenum
D)pancreas
E)liver

Before amino acids can be converted to glucose molecules in the
38 INCORRECT
liver, deamination must take place.
A)True
B)False
Feedback: The liver converts glycogen to glucose and makes

plasma proteins, not sugar, from amino acids.
39 INCORRECT Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver?
A)
converts hemoglobin from red blood cells to bile pigments that
are excreted along with bile salts in bile
B)detoxifies blood by removing poisonous substances
C)produces urea from the breakdown of amino acids
D)produces enzymes for digestion of food in the duodenum
E)makes plasma proteins from amino acids
Feedback: Although the liver produces bile salts, it does not

produce any enzymes for digestion of food in the
duodenum. It does perform the other listed functions.
In which of the following diseases will liver tissue be replaced by
40 CORRECT
inactive fibrous scar tissue?
A)hemolytic jaundice
B)obstructive jaundice
C)viral hepatitis
D)cirrhosis
E)lactose intolerance

Red blood cells are broken down in abnormally large amounts in
41 CORRECT
____.
A)hemolytic jaundice
B)obstructive jaundice
C)viral hepatitis
D)cirrhosis
E)lactose intolerance

Which of the following statements is NOT true about digestive
42 CORRECT
enzymes?
A)Digestive enzymes are hydrolytic enzymes.
B)
Digestive enzymes are carbohydrates that have a particular
shape that fits their substrate.
C)
Digestive enzymes have an optimum pH which maintains their
shape.
D)Digestive enzymes speed up a chemical reaction.
E)Each digestive enzyme speeds up a specific reaction.

Which of the following organs will NOT produce any digestive
43 CORRECT
enzymes?
A)salivary glands
B)stomach
C)esophagus
D)duodenum
E)pancreas

Which of the following enzymes will have an optimum pH that is
44 CORRECT
acidic?
A)salivary amylase
B)pepsin
C)pancreatic amylase
D)trypsin
E)lipase

Which of the following statements is NOT correct about fat
45 CORRECT
digestion?
A)Bile salts are needed to emulsify fat into fat droplets.
B)
Lipase digests the fat droplets into glycerol and fatty acid
molecules while removing water molecules.
C)Glycerol and fatty acids enter the cells of the villi.
D)
Glycerol and fatty acids, after entering the cells of the villi,
rejoin and are packaged as lipoprotein droplets.
E)
Lipoprotein droplets, which are formed in the cells of the villi,
enter the lacteals.
Pepsinogen is converted to pepsin in the stomach when exposed to
46 CORRECT
____.
A)trypsin
B)hydrochloric acid
C)peptides
D)peptidases
E)lipase

Which of the following enzymes is found on the mucosa of the
47 CORRECT
intestinal villi?
A)amylase
B)trypsin
C)peptidase
D)lipase
E)pepsin

Which of the following enzymes is released from the gastric glands
48 CORRECT
to break down proteins into peptides?
A)lipase
B)pancreatic amylase
C)trypsin
D)pepsin
E)peptidase

49 CORRECT Which enzyme breaks down starch to maltose in the duodenum?
A)lipase
B)trypsin
C)maltase
D)salivary amylase
E)pancreatic amylase

50 CORRECT Which of the following relationships is NOT correct?
A)pepsin--gastric glands
B)maltase--pancreas
C)salivary amylase--salivary glands
D)trypsin--pancreas
E)peptidases--villi of small intestine

When starch is broken down by pancreatic amylase, ____ will be
51 INCORRECT
formed.
A)glycerol + fatty acids
B)amino acids
C)peptides
D)maltose
E)glucose
Feedback: When starch is broken down by pancreatic

amylase, maltose is formed.
When peptides are broken down by peptidases, ____ will be
52 CORRECT
formed.
A)amino acids
B)fatty acids and glycerol
C)glucose
D)proteins
E)maltose

Which of the following substances is NOT a product formed in the
53 CORRECT
small intestine?
A)glucose
B)maltose
C)amino acids
D)peptides
E)proteins

Which enzyme is missing in the small intestine if a person has
54 CORRECT
lactose intolerance?
A)pancreatic amylase
B)dipeptidase
C)lipase
D)lactase
E)maltase

55 CORRECT When fats are broken down by lipase, ____ will be formed.
A)amino acids
B)fatty acids and glycerol
C)glucose
D)proteins
E)maltose

A)fats -- lipase
B)starch -- salivary amylase
C)maltose -- lactase
D)protein -- trypsin
E)peptides -- dipeptidases

Which of the following enzymes would NOT be used to break down
57 CORRECT
spaghetti into its end products for absorption?
A)salivary amylase
B)pancreatic amylase
C)maltase
D)lipase

Five test tubes, listed below, were incubated at body temperature
58 CORRECT for one hour. Which of the following test tubes would have the
appropriate environmental conditions for digestion to occur?
A)H2O + a small sliver of egg white (protein)
B)Pepsin + H2O + a small sliver of egg white
C)HCl + H2O + a small sliver of egg white
D)Pepsin + HCl + H2O + a small sliver of egg white
E)Pepsin + NaOH + H2O + a small sliver of egg white

Five test tubes, listed below, were incubated at body temperature
59 CORRECT for one hour. Which of the following test tubes would be considered
the control?
A)H2O + a small sliver of egg white (protein)
B)Pepsin + H2O + a small sliver of egg white
C)HCl + H2O + a small sliver of egg white
D)Pepsin + HCl + H2O + a small sliver of egg white
E)Pepsin + NaOH + H2O + a small sliver of egg white

Which of the following statements is NOT correct about protein
60 CORRECT
nutrition?
A)
Foods rich in protein include red meat, fish, poultry, dairy
products, legumes, nuts, and cereals.
B)
Ordinarily, amino acids are not used as an energy source but
are incorporated into structural proteins.
C)Each vegetable or grain alone is an incomplete protein source.
D)
Because some amino acids are not produced in the body, a
daily supply is needed.
E)We should derive all of our dietary protein from meat.

The quickest, most readily available source of energy for the body
61 CORRECT
is ____.
A)protein
B)carbohydrate
C)lipid
D)vitamins
E)minerals

Which of the following is NOT considered to contain simple
62 CORRECT
carbohydrates?
A)regular (non-diet) soft drinks
B)ice cream
C)candy
D)bread

63 CORRECT Some dieticians label _____ as "empty calories."
A)simple carbohydrates
B)complex carbohydrates
C)fats
D)essential amino acids
E)proteins
Feedback: correct answer

Which of the following types of food may reduce the risk of colon
64 CORRECT
cancer?
A)simple carbohydrates
B)polyunsaturated fats
C)fiber
D)cholesterol
E)protein

A)
High-density lipoprotein (HDL) carries cholesterol from cells to
the liver.
B)
Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) protects against the
development of clogged arteries.
C)
A diet low in saturated fat and cholesterol decreases the blood
cholesterol level in some individuals.
D)
White fish, poultry, and shellfish are recommended protein
sources to lower blood cholesterol levels; cheese, egg yolks,
and liver are not.
E)
Soluble fiber is believed to combine with cholesterol in the
digestive tract and carry it out of the body.
____ are organic compounds (other than carbohydrate, fat, and
66 CORRECT protein) that the body is unable to produce but uses for metabolic
purposes.
A)High-density lipoproteins
B)Low-density lipoproteins
C)Minerals
D)Vitamins
E)Soluble fibers

67 CORRECT Which vitamin is a part of the coenzyme NAD?
A)vitamin D
B)riboflavin
C)niacin
D)vitamin K
E)vitamin A

Citrus fruits and other fresh fruits and vegetables are natural
68 CORRECT
sources of ____.
A)vitamin A
B)vitamin C
C)vitamin D
D)vitamin B

69 CORRECT Sunshine and irradiated milk are primary sources of ____.
A)vitamin A
B)vitamin C
C)vitamin D
D)vitamin B

70 CORRECT Too much of ____ can cause kidney stones.
A)vitamin C
B)vitamin A
C)vitamin B
D)vitamin D
E)niacin

71 CORRECT Vitamin D deficiency can lead to ____.
A)scurvy
B)fissures of lips
C)dermatitis
D)rickets (decalcification and weakening of bone)

72 CORRECT Vitamin C deficiency can lead to ____.
A)scurvy
B)fissures of lips
C)dermatitis
D)rickets

73 CORRECT Which of the following is NOT considered a macromineral?
A)sodium
B)magnesium
C)potassium
D)calcium
E)iron

Which of the following macrominerals is needed for the
74 CORRECT construction of bones and teeth and for nerve conduction and
muscle contraction?
A)sodium
B)magnesium
C)potassium
D)calcium
E)chlorine
CORRECT
Which of the following statements is NOT correct in regards to
Course-wide Content
(See related pages)
BioLabs
Acronym Flashcards
Animation Quizzes
78 correct (95%)
Chapter 14
Flashcards
1 CORRECT The lymphatic system consists of _______.
A)lymphatic vessels and lymphoid organs
B)all of the plasma component of the bloodstream
C)all fluids inside the body's cells
D)
all liquids in the body whether inside cells or in spaces
between tissues
2 CORRECT The lymphatic system _______.
A)takes up excess tissue fluid and returns it to the bloodstream
B)
absorbs fats in the intestinal villi and transports them to the
bloodstream
C)defends the body against disease
D)All of the above are correct.

The movement of lymph within lymphatic vessels is dependent
3 CORRECT
upon _______.
A)
residual blood pressure forcing the plasma through the blood
vessels
B)suction from the contracting lymph nodes
C)skeletal muscle contraction and the action of one-way valves
D)active transport of lymph by cilia lining the lymphatic system
E)
ameboid movement of the cellular component of the lymph,
primarily the T-cells that "travel"
4 CORRECT Lymph is prevented from flowing backwards by _______.
A)blood pressure
B)suction from the contracting lymph nodes
C)one-way valves
D)cilia lining the lymphatic system

5 CORRECT The lymphatic system is _________.
A)
a two-way transport system with fluids and cells moving both
directions
B)
a continuous closed circulation running parallel to the arteries
and veins
C)
a one-way system collecting the lymph from body tissues and
spaces and reintroducing it to the bloodstream
D)
a one-way system collecting lymph from body spaces and
soaking it into the body cells
6 CORRECT Tissue fluid in the lymphatic system is called ________.
A)plasma
B)hemoplasma
C)Ringer's solution
D)lymph
E)universal solvent

7 CORRECT The thoracic duct serves
A)the lower extremities.
B)the abdomen.
C)the left arm.
D)all of the above.

The thoracic and right lymphatic ducts return lymph to the
8 CORRECT
________.
A)dorsal aorta
B)abdominal cavity
C)heart ventricles
D)peritoneal cavities
E)subclavian veins

9 CORRECT The subclavian veins are cardiovascular veins in the abdomen.
A)True
B)False

________ is localized swelling caused by accumulation of tissue
10 CORRECT
fluid.
A)Immune deficiency disease
B)Allergies
C)Autoimmune disease
D)Edema
E)Hemolytic disease

Lymph flows from lymphatic capillaries into ever-larger lymphatic
11 CORRECT
vessels and finally to a lymphatic duct.
A)True
B)False

12 CORRECT Each nodule of a lymph node contains a sinus filled with _______.
A)lymphocytes and macrophages
B)red marrow
C)red blood cells
D)lymph causing edema

13 CORRECT Which of the following is NOT a lymphoid organ:
A)red bone marrow
B)adenoids
C)spleen
D)tonsils
E)kidney

14 CORRECT Only red blood cells originate in the red bone marrow.
A)True
B)False

15 CORRECT All bones in an adult have red bone marrow.
A)True
B)False

The red bone marrow consists of a network of connective tissue
16 CORRECT
fibers called reticular fibers.
A)True
B)False

The tonsils and adenoids (pharyngeal tonsils) are composed of
17 INCORRECT
partly encapsulated lymph nodules.
A)True
B)False
Feedback: The tonsils and adenoids (pharyngeal tonsils) are

composed of partly encapsulated lymph nodules.
The spleen is located in the lower right thoracic cavity just above
18 CORRECT
the diaphragm.
A)True
B)False

19 CORRECT The spleen's sinuses are filled with _______.
A)lymph
B)blood
C)water
D)salts

20 CORRECT A spleen nodule contains ________.
A)the factory that produces platelets
B)red pulp and white pulp
C)a reservoir of glucose stored as glycogen
D)hormone-producing islets

21 CORRECT Red pulp contains only red blood cells.
A)True
B)False

Lymph is cleansed in lymph nodes and blood is cleansed in the
22 CORRECT
spleen.
A)True
B)False

23 CORRECT White pulp contains mostly _______.
A)lymphocytes
B)red blood cells
C)macrophages
D)osteoblasts

24 CORRECT The thymus is located _______.
A)in the neck
B)in the upper left abdominal cavity just beneath the diaphragm
C)along the trachea behind the sternum
D)along the intestinal wall

25 CORRECT The thymus is smaller in children than in adults.
A)true
B)false
Feedback: correct answer

26 INCORRECT The thymus secretes ________.
A)antibodies
B)hormones that mature the red blood cells
C)macrophages
D)lymph and is the main "lymph factory"
E)thymosin, a hormone thought to aid in maturation of T lymphocytes
Feedback: The thymus secretes thymosin, a hormone

thought to aid in maturation of T lymphocytes.
27 CORRECT T lymphocytes mature in the ________.
A)spleen
B)red bone marrow
C)thymus
D)lymph nodes throughout the body
E)thyroid

Immunity is the ability of the body to defend itself against
28 CORRECT
________.
A)infectious agents including bacteria and viruses
B)foreign cells
C)cancer cells
D)all of the above

29 CORRECT The nonspecific defenses are ___________.
A)
barriers to entry, the inflammatory reaction, natural killer
cells, and protective proteins
B)antibodies, antigens, and antimatter
C)the spleen and thymus
D)allergies, edema and regurgitation

30 CORRECT Barriers to entry of microbes include __________.
A)oil skin secretions and stomach acids
B)
normal harmless bacteria that prevent pathogens from taking
up residence
C)
mucous membranes that line the respiratory, digestive and
urinary tracts
D)skin that lines the outer surface of the body
E)all of the above help bar entry by microbes

31 CORRECT The stomach has a basic pH inhibiting growth of bacteria.
A)True
B)False

The ________ reaction is a series of events occurring whenever
32 CORRECT
the skin is broken due to a minor injury.
A)allergic
B)antibody
C)complement fixation
D)inflammatory
E)suppressor T-cell

33 CORRECT ________ are molecules initiating nerve impulses resulting in pain.
A)Analgesics
B)Immunoglobulins
C)Kinins
D)Histamines
E)Suppressins

Histamine and kinins cause capillaries to constrict and become less
34 CORRECT
permeable.
A)True
B)False

35 CORRECT Any break in the skin can allow microbes to enter the body.
A)True
B)False

How can neutrophils and monocytes reach an infection site from
36 CORRECT
the bloodstream?
A)the blood vessels rupture at a site of infection
B)
neutrophils and monocytes are amoeboid and can pass
through capillary walls
C)
they are small and diffuse across membranes just like food
and gas molecules.
D)they move upstream in the lymph system
E)
the portable T lymphocyte differentiates into neutrophils and
monocytes when it arrives at the site of infection
What can happen to a bacterium that crosses the skin barrier and
37 CORRECT
enters tissues?
A)histamine will poison bacteria
B)neutrophils phagocytize the bacteria
C)
bacteria liberate a growth factor that in turn increases the
numbers of white blood cells that attack bacteria
D)
all human tissues reject the bacterium and destroy it with
lysosomes
When monocytes leave the bloodstream, they differentiate into
38 CORRECT
________.
A)complement proteins
B)antibodies
C)interferon
D)macrophages
E)suppressor T-cells

Some tissues have ______ that routinely act as scavengers,
39 CORRECT
devouring old blood cells and other debris.
A)resident macrophages
B)suppressor T-cells
C)backup neutrophils
D)complimentary B-cells

40 CORRECT Pus indicates that ______________.
A)body tissues are dying
B)the body is trying to overcome infection
C)too much lymph has built up
D)
the inflammatory response has failed to defend against
bacterial invasion
41 CORRECT Complement is activated when ________ .
A)
the inflammatory response has failed to defend against
bacterial invasion
B)antibodies have failed to defend against bacterial invasion
C)microbes enter the body
D)interferon is produced by viruses

Complement proteins bind to the surface of microbes already
42 CORRECT coated with antibodies, and release chemicals that attract
phagocytes to the scene.
A)True
B)False

43 CORRECT A virus-infected cell produces and secretes _______.
A)allergin
B)antigen
C)antibody
D)complement
E)interferon

A/an ________ is usually a protein or polysaccharide chain of a
44 CORRECT
glycoprotein molecule that the body recognizes as "non-self."
A)allergin
B)antigen
C)antibody
D)complement
E)interferon

The immune system is chemically able to tell "self" from "non-self"
45 CORRECT
based on a lock-and-key receptor-antigen fit.
A)True
B)False

46 INCORRECT B lymphocytes mature in the bloodstream.
A)True
B)False
Feedback: B lymphocytes mature in the bone marrow.

47 CORRECT T lymphocytes mature in the ________ .
A)bone marrow
B)lymph in the general lymphatic system
C)thymus gland
D)thyroid gland
E)spleen

48 CORRECT B cells give rise to plasma cells which produce ________.
A)allergin
B)antigen
C)antibody
D)complement
E)interferon

49 CORRECT Antibodies bind with antigens in a lock-and-key manner.
A)True
B)False

50 CORRECT T cells produce antibodies.
A)True
B)False

51 CORRECT Certain T cells attack and destroy antigen-bearing cells.
A)True
B)False

52 CORRECT There is a different lymphocyte type for each possible antigen.
A)True
B)False

53 CORRECT A plasma cell is a mature B cell that mass produces ________.
A)allergens
B)antigens
C)antibodies
D)complement
E)interferon

54 CORRECT A B cell does not clone until its antigen is present.
A)True
B)False

When B cells undergo clonal expansion, they produce plasma cells
55 CORRECT
and memory B cells.
A)True
B)False

56 CORRECT Defense by T cells is called antibody-mediated immunity.
A)True
B)False

Humoral immunity is so called because antibodies are present in
57 CORRECT
the ________.
A)tissues
B)red blood cells
C)blood and lymph
D)upper arm bone or "humerus"
E)cranium

The most common type of antibody is a protein molecule with two
58 CORRECT
arms.
A)True
B)False

59 CORRECT The main antibody type in circulation is _______.
A)IgG
B)IgM
C)IgD
D)IgA
E)IgE

60 CORRECT ________ is the largest antibody.
A)IgG
B)IgM
C)IgD
D)IgA
E)IgE

61 CORRECT IgA antibodies are found in _______.
A)body secretions such as saliva and milk
B)blood and on mast cells in tissues
C)lymph
D)general plasma

62 CORRECT IgG antibodies _________.
A)are responsible for allergic reactions
B)stimulate complement production
C)bind to pathogens their toxins
D)trigger inflammation

63 CORRECT IgM antibodies _________.
A)attack microbes
B)activate complement and clump cells
C)attack bacterial toxins
D)are responsible for allergic reactions

64 CORRECT IgA antibodies attack microbes and bacterial toxins.
A)True
B)False

65 CORRECT ________ antibodies are responsible for allergic reactions.
A)IgG
B)IgM
C)IgD
D)IgA
E)IgE

66 INCORRECT There is/are ________ main types of T cell(s).
A)one
B)two
C)three
D)four
E)five
Feedback: There are two main types of T cells, cytotoxic and

helper T cells.
67 CORRECT Which of the following is NOT a type of T cell?
A)cytotoxic T cells
B)helper T cells
C)memory T cells
D)plasma T cell

68 CORRECT Cytotoxic T cells attack and destroy ________.
A)bacteria
B)viruses
C)cells that produce toxins or poisons
D)antigen-bearing cells

69 CORRECT Cytotoxic T cells storage vacuoles contain _______.
A)antibodies
B)perforin molecules
C)complement
D)IgG

70 CORRECT Perforin molecules function to ________.
A)perforate a cell membrane
B)stimulate production of complement
C)trigger production of interferon
D)label a cell for attack by cytotoxic T cells

Perforin molecules form holes in plasma membranes, allowing
71 CORRECT
_________.
A)water and salt to enter a cell
B)vital cell contents to leak out
C)macrophages to phagocytize cells
D)IgG to bind with foreign proteins

________ T cells are the only T cells involved in cell-mediated
72 CORRECT
immunity.
A)Cytotoxic
B)Helper
C)Memory
D)Suppressor

73 CORRECT HIV that causes AIDS infects _______.
A)helper T cells
B)cytotoxic T cells
C)suppressor T cells
D)memory T cells

Helper T cells regulate immunity by increasing the response of
74 CORRECT
other immune cells.
A)True
B)False

When exposed to an antigen, helper T cells enlarge and secrete
75 CORRECT
messenger molecules called ________.
A)antibodies
B)perforin
C)complement
D)IgG
E)cytokines

76 CORRECT Cytokines _________.
A)stimulate white blood cell formation
B)trigger inflammation
C)depress antibody production
D)make the body more susceptible to cancer

________ are antibodies of one specific type, all produced by
77 CORRECT plasma cells derived from the same B cell, and capable of
identifying unique cells and infectious agents.
A)Lymphokines
B)Inflammatory reactions
C)Complement fixations
D)Antibody-mediated immunity
E)Monoclonal antibodies

With the human ABO blood types in the below transfusions, which
78 CORRECT
person would safely receive blood lacking foreign antigens?
A)a type A person received type B blood
B)a type B person received type A blood
C)a type O person received type B blood
D)a type A person received type AB blood
E)a type A person received type O blood

Why is hemolytic disease of the newborn (Rh-conflict) described as
79 CORRECT a likely problem only when the mother is Rh-negative and the
father is Rh-positive?
A)a type Rh-negative father is not possible since it is sex-linked
B)
the type Rh-negative is so rare that Rh-negative fathers are
too uncommon
C)
a type Rh-negative fetus in an Rh-positive mother does not
expose the mother to any new antigens and therefore does
not trigger any immune response
D)
this was just the way the textbook gave the possible example
and the reverse situation is just as much a problem
When an immune system overreacts to an antigen or forms
80 CORRECT antibodies to substances that are usually NOT recognized as
foreign, it results in _______.
A)immune deficiency disease
B)allergic response
C)autoimmune disease
D)edema
E)hemolytic disease

Myasthenia gravis, multiple sclerosis, lupus erythematosus, and
81 CORRECT
rheumatoid arthritis are examples of ________.
A)immune deficiency diseases
B)normal inflammatory reactions
C)autoimmune diseases
D)failure of the B cells to defend the body
E)failure of the T cells to defend the body

Thanks to new biotechnology, there are now cures for all
82 CORRECT
autoimmune diseases.
A)True
B)False
Routing Information
Date: Sun Aug 07 23:08:51 EDT 2022
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Chapter 4
Flashcards
1 CORRECT What is the outer boundary of the cell?
A)cell wall
B)plasma membrane
C)nuclear membrane
D)endoplasmic reticulum
E)nucleolus

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an animal plasma
2 CORRECT
membrane?
A)provides mechanical strength
B)provides mechanical shape
C)responsible for the synthesis of ATP
D)maintains cellular homeostasis
E)regulates passage of molecules into and out of the cell

Which of the following describes the fluid-mosaic model of the
3 CORRECT
plasma membrane structure?
A)phospholipid monolayer with embedded proteins
B)phospholipid bilayer with embedded proteins
C)phospholipid trilayer with embedded proteins
D)triglyceride bilayer with embedded proteins
E)triglyceride monolayer with embedded proteins

Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding the
4 CORRECT
plasma membrane structure?
A)Protein molecules may be partially or wholly embedded.
B)Protein molecules are localized toward one side of the cell.
C)Phospholipids form a bilayer.
D)Phospholipids have a fluid consistency.
E)The head of the phospholipid molecule is attracted toward water.

Which of the following statements is NOT correct about the
5 CORRECT
phospholipid molecules in the plasma membrane?
A)Each phospholipid molecule has four nonpolar tails.
B)Each phospholipid molecule has one polar head.
C)The phospholipid heads are attracted to water.
D)The phospholipid tails are not attracted to water.
E)The phospholipid heads face outward.

Which of the following statements is NOT correct about the
6 CORRECT
phospholipid molecules in the plasma membrane?
A)The polar heads face outward.
B)The nonpolar tails face inward.
C)The polar heads are hydrophobic.
D)The nonpolar tails are hydrophobic.
E)The phospholipids form a bilayer.

Which of the following molecules would NOT be found in animal
7 CORRECT
plasma membranes?
A)proteins
B)phospholipids
C)glycolipids
D)cholesterols
E)nucleic acids

Which molecule in animal plasma membranes reduces the
8 CORRECT
permeability of the membrane to most biological molecules?
A)proteins
B)phospholipids
C)glycolipids
D)cholesterol
E)nucleic acid

All proteins located on the external surface of the plasma
9 CORRECT
membrane are solidly held in place by cytoskeleton filaments.
A)True
B)False

The various functions of the plasma membrane are largely
10 CORRECT
determined by the plasma membrane proteins.
A)True
B)False

The basic structure of the plasma membrane is determined by the
11 INCORRECT
proteins present.
A)True
B)False
Feedback: The basic structure of the plasma membrane is

determined by the phospholipid bilayer.
12 CORRECT Phospholipids have hydrophilic and hydrophobic regions.
A)True
B)False

13 CORRECT The phospholipid bilayer has a solid consistency.
A)True
B)False

Which type of protein in the plasma membrane has carbohydrate
14 CORRECT
attached to it so that cells can be recognized from each other?
A)carrier protein
B)channel protein
C)cell-recognition protein
D)receptor protein
E)enzymatic protein

If a particular protein was identified in the plasma membrane to
15 CORRECT cause organ transplant rejection, such a protein would be
considered a(an) ______ protein.
A)carrier
B)channel
C)cell-recognition
D)receptor
E)enzymatic

16 CORRECT Which protein is used to identify the cell?
A)adenylate cyclase
B)MHC (major histocompatibility complex) protein
C)sodium-potassium pump protein
D)chloride ion channel protein
E)hemoglobin

17 CORRECT A failure of the ______ protein can result in cystic fibrosis.
A)cell-recognition
B)channel
C)carrier
D)receptor
E)enzymatic

A ______ protein allows a particular molecule or ion to freely cross
18 CORRECT
the plasma membrane as it enters or exits the cell.
A)cell-recognition
B)carrier
C)receptor
D)enzymatic
E)channel
Feedback: A channel protein allows a particular molecule or

ion to freely cross the plasma membrane as it enters or
exits the cell.
A ______ protein combines with a substance and helps to move it
19 CORRECT
across the membrane.
A)carrier
B)channel
C)cell-recognition
D)receptor
E)enzymatic

A ______ protein has a specific shape such that only a particular
20 CORRECT
molecule can bind to it.
A)enzymatic
B)receptor
C)cell-recognition
D)channel
E)carrier

A hormone such as insulin acts by attaching to _____ proteins in
21 CORRECT
the plasma membrane and increasing the glucose carriers present.
A)receptor
B)enzymatic
C)carrier
D)channel
E)cell-recognition

Sodium and potassium ions are transported across the plasma
22 CORRECT
membrane by a ______ protein.
A)cell-recognition
B)channel
C)carrier
D)receptor
E)enzymatic

23 CORRECT Pygmies are short because
A)they do not produce enough growth hormone.
B)they produce too much growth hormone.
C)
their plasma membrane growth hormone channel proteins
cannot interact with the hormone.
D)
their plasma membrane growth hormone carrier proteins
cannot interact with the hormone.
E)
their plasma membrane growth hormone receptors cannot
interact with the hormone.
A(An) ______ protein in the plasma membrane carries out
24 CORRECT
metabolic reactions.
A)carrier
B)receptor
C)enzymatic
D)channel
E)cell-recognition

25 CORRECT Which statement best describes the plasma membrane?
A)It is freely permeable to all substances.
B)It is selectively permeable to certain substances.
C)It is nonpermeable to all substances.

Which of the following statements is NOT correct about the plasma
26 CORRECT
membrane?
A)Small noncharged molecules easily cross the membrane.
B)
Lipid molecules have little difficulty in crossing the plasma
membrane.
C)
Charged molecules and ions readily move from inside the cell
to outside the cell.
D)Carbon dioxide follows its concentration gradient as it exits a cell.
E)Oxygen readily follows its concentration gradient as it enters a cell.

Which of the following is NOT an active method where molecules
27 CORRECT
pass across the plasma membrane?
A)simple diffusion
B)active transport
C)endocytosis
D)exocytosis

Lipid-soluble molecules, such as alcohols, cannot diffuse through
28 CORRECT
the plasma membrane.
A)True
B)False

The greater the amount of lipid in a molecule, the easier it is for
29 CORRECT
that molecule to pass through a plasma membrane.
A)True
B)False

The plasma membrane, because of the channel proteins, is said to
30 CORRECT
be freely permeable.
A)True
B)False

31 CORRECT Macromolecules can freely cross a plasma membrane.
A)True
B)False

32 CORRECT Pinocytosis is a type of ______.
A)endocytosis
B)exocytosis
C)active transport
D)simple diffusion
E)facilitated diffusion

______ is the net movement of any type of molecule from a region
33 CORRECT
of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration.
A)Osmosis
B)Diffusion
C)Facilitated diffusion
D)Active transport
E)Pinocytosis

34 CORRECT Which of the following conditions does NOT apply to diffusion?
A)Diffusion continues even after the molecules are distributed equally.
B)Diffusion is a physical process.
C)Diffusion is a passive process.
D)Molecules move from higher to lower concentration.
E)Diffusion does not necessarily require a membrane.

Crystals of dye, when placed in a beaker of water, eventually
35 CORRECT
spread evenly throughout the water. This is an example of ______.
A)pinocytosis
B)phagocytosis
C)osmosis
D)facilitated diffusion
E)simple diffusion

A dye is dissolved in water. The ______ is the solute and the
36 CORRECT
solvent is the ______ molecules.
A)water, dye
B)dye, water
C)dye, dye
D)water, water

37 CORRECT Lipid-soluble molecules and gases enter the cell by ______.
A)diffusion through the channel proteins
B)osmosis through the channel proteins
C)diffusion through the lipid bilayer
D)osmosis through the lipid bilayer
E)active transport through the lipid bilayer

Oxygen enters the blood from the alveoli in the lungs by the
38 CORRECT
process of ______.
A)phagocytosis
B)active transport
C)osmosis
D)diffusion
E)facilitated diffusion

Oxygen ______ the air sacs(alveoli) of the lungs (relative to the
39 CORRECT surrounding blood) whereas carbon dioxide ______ the air sacs
from the blood supplying the lungs.
A)enters, leaves
B)leaves, enters
C)enters, enters
D)leaves, leaves

40 INCORRECT Water passes into and out of cells through the ______.
A)phospholipid bilayer
B)water carrier proteins
C)special water channel proteins
D)water receptor proteins
E)cell-recognition proteins
Feedback: Water passes into and out of cells through the

phospholipid bilayer itself.
The diffusion of water across a differentially permeable membrane
41 CORRECT
is called ______.
A)simple diffusion
B)facilitated diffusion
C)osmosis
D)exocytosis
E)endocytosis

Suppose a thistle tube containing a 10% sugar solution is covered
at one end by a membrane and is placed in a beaker containing a
42 INCORRECT
5% sugar solution. Which of the following conditions must NOT
exist for water to enter the tube by osmosis?
A)
A differentially permeable membrane must separate the two
solutions.
B)The beaker must have less water per unit volume than in the tube.
C)The membrane must not permit passage of the solute.
D)The membrane must permit the passage of water.
E)An osmotic pressure must be present.
Feedback: A beaker must have more water per unit volume

than in the tube for water to pass across to the tube; the
other factors are all correct.
at one end by a differentially permeable membrane and is placed
43 CORRECT
in a beaker containing a 5% sugar solution. What will happen to
the water?
A)Water will only enter the thistle tube.
B)Water will only leave the thistle tube.
C)Their will be no net water movement.
D)More water will enter the thistle tube than leave the thistle tube.
E)More water will leave the thistle tube than enter the thistle tube.

A thistle tube containing a 5% sugar solution is covered at one end
by a differentially permeable membrane and is placed in a beaker
44 CORRECT
containing a 10% sugar solution. What will happen to the volume
in the thistle tube?
A)It will decrease in volume.
B)It will increase in volume.
C)It will remain the same.
D)It will initially decrease in volume and then increase.
E)It will initially increase in volume and then decrease.

45 CORRECT A 10% sugar solution will contain ______.
A)0.10 grams of sugar in 100 mL of water
B)1.0 grams of sugar in 100 mL of water
C)10.0 grams of sugar in 100 mL of water
D)1.0 grams of sugar in 1000 mL of water
E)10.0 grams of sugar in 1000 mL of water

at one end by a differentially permeable membrane and is placed
46 CORRECT
in a beaker containing a 5% sugar solution. Which of the following
statements is NOT correct?
A)
As water enters the thistle tube, fluid pressure builds up
inside the tube.
B)
Given enough time, the net movement of water entering the
thistle tube will cease.
C)
Given enough time, the fluid pressure will become greater
than the osmotic pressure inside the thistle tube.
D)
Initially, the concentration of water molecules is greater per
volume outside the thistle tube than inside the thistle tube.
47 CORRECT Tonicity refers to the ______.
A)air pressure in an experiment
B)strength of a muscle contraction
C)strength of a solution in relationship to pinocytosis
D)strength of a solution in relationship to osmosis
E)strength of a solution in relationship to active transport

Which type of solution will have the same solute concentration on
48 CORRECT
both sides of the cell membrane?
A)isotonic
B)hypertonic
C)hypotonic
D)hygrotonic solution

49 CORRECT Which type of solution will cause cells to swell, or even to burst?
A)isotonic solution
B)hypotonic solution
C)hypertonic solution
D)hygrotonic solution

Which type of solution will have a higher percentage of solute than
50 CORRECT
the cell?
A)isotonic solution

Which type of solution has a lower percentage of solute than the
51 CORRECT
cell?
A)isotonic solution

52 CORRECT Which type of solution will cause cells to shrink or to shrivel?
A)isotonic solution

53 CORRECT Which type of solution will cause an increase in turgor pressure?
A)isotonic solution

Which type of pressure is responsible for the maintenance of a
54 CORRECT
plant's erect position?
A)turgor pressure
B)osmotic pressure
C)active transport pressure
D)pinocytotic pressure
E)plasmolysis

Which organelle in a plant cell fills with water as turgor pressure
55 CORRECT
develops?
A)nucleus
B)endoplasmic reticulum
C)Golgi apparatus
D)lysosome
E)central vacuole

Which structure prevents the plant cell from bursting when placed
56 CORRECT
in a hypotonic solution?
A)central vacuole
B)lysosome
C)Golgi apparatus
D)cell wall
E)plasma membrane

Which term describes the condition of red blood cells when placed
57 INCORRECT
in a hypertonic solution?
A)hemolysis
B)plasmolysis
C)crenation
D)turgor pressure
E)osmotic pressure
Feedback: Crenation describes the shrunken condition of

red blood cells when placed in a hypertonic solution.
Hemolysis is the rupturing of red blood cells.
Which term best describes the condition of red blood cells when
58 CORRECT
placed in a hypotonic solution?
A)hemolysis
B)plasmolysis
C)crenation
D)turgor pressure
E)osmotic pressure

Which term best describes the condition of plant cells when placed
59 CORRECT
in a hypertonic solution?
A)hemolysis
B)plasmolysis
C)crenation
D)turgor pressure
E)osmotic pressure

Which of the following conditions results in chloroplasts being seen
60 CORRECT
in the center of a plant cell rather than at the periphery?
A)hemolysis
B)plasmolysis
C)crenation
D)turgor pressure
E)hypotonic solution

61 CORRECT Which of the following solutions is isotonic to red blood cells?
A)0.5% NaCl
B)0.9% NaCl
C)1.5% NaCl
D)2.5% NaCl
E)5.5% NaCl

62 CORRECT Which of the following solutions is hypotonic to red blood cells?
A)0.5% NaCl
B)0.9% NaCl
C)1.5% NaCl
D)2.5% NaCl
E)5.5% NaCl

63 CORRECT Which of the following solutions is hypertonic for red blood cells?
A)0.010% NaCl
B)0.10% NaCl
C)0.5% NaCl
D)0.9% NaCl
E)1.0% NaCl

A)hypertonic--10% NaCl solution for RBC
B)hypotonic--0.10% NaCl solution for RBC
C)osmosis--salt crosses the membrane
D)turgor pressure--central vacuole
E)diffusion--carbon dioxide crosses the membrane

Which of the following conditions does NOT apply to facilitated
65 CORRECT
transport?
A)carrier proteins bind to molecules irreversibly
B)transports molecules down the concentration gradient
C)does not require ATP
D)
transports molecules from one side of the membrane to the
other side
E)
transports molecules through the membrane much faster than
simple diffusion
Which of the following conditions does NOT apply to facilitated
66 CORRECT
transport?
A)requires specific carrier proteins
B)transports molecules down the concentration gradient
C)requires the expenditure of energy
D)
transports molecules from one side of the membrane to the
other side
E)
transports molecules through the membrane much faster than
simple diffusion
The greater the possible osmotic pressure, the more likely water
67 CORRECT
will diffuse in that direction.
A)True
B)False

Regarding osmosis, the amount of liquid increases on the side of
68 CORRECT
the membrane with the greater percentage of solute.
A)True
B)False

Diffusion will cease once both solute and solvent molecules are
69 CORRECT
evenly distributed.
A)True
B)False

Passage of molecules across the plasma membrane by passive
70 CORRECT
ways involves the use of energy.
A)True
B)False

71 CORRECT Which of the following processes uses a carrier protein and ATP?
A)simple diffusion
B)osmosis
C)facilitated diffusion
D)active transport
E)endocytosis

Which of the following conditions does NOT apply to active
72 CORRECT
transport?
A)requires ATP
B)transports molecules from a high to low concentration area
C)requires a carrier protein
D)carrier proteins bind reversibly to transported substances

Upon observation of an electron micrograph, a scientist noted a
large number of mitochondria near a plasma membrane within a
73 CORRECT
particular cell. The scientist would probably hypothesize that the
cell used energy for ______ purposes.
A)diffusion
B)osmosis
C)facilitated diffusion
D)active transport
E)phagocytosis

74 CORRECT Why are proteins involved in active transport often called "pumps"?
A)
They use energy to move a substance against its
concentration gradient.
B)
They use energy to move a substance with its concentration
gradient.
C)They use energy to bind the substance to the carrier.
D)They use energy to dislodge the substance from the carrier.
E)
They cause the plasma membrane to invaginate like a pump
that pulls up water against the force of gravity.
Which process will transport sodium ions to the outside of the cell
75 CORRECT
and potassium ions to the inside of the cell?
A)simple diffusion
C)osmosis
D)active transport
E)pinocytosis

The sodium-potassium pump is considered to be a(an) ______
76 CORRECT
process.
A)simple diffusion
C)osmosis
D)pinocytotic
E)active transport

The passage of salt (Na+Cl-) across a plasma membrane is of
77 CORRECT primary importance in cells. Which of the following statements is
NOT correct?
A)Sodium ions are first pumped across the membrane.
B)
Chloride ions then diffuse through a channel toward the
sodium ions.
C)
The negatively charged chloride ions are attracted toward the
positively charged sodium ions.
D)
Chloride ions are first pumped across the membrane and then
the sodium ions diffuse through a channel.
Which of the following processes does NOT use a carrier protein to
78 CORRECT
transport substances across the plasma membrane?
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Readings and References The correct answer for each question is indicated by a .
1 CORRECT Energy is defined as the capacity to do work.
A)True
B)False

2 CORRECT Energy of motion is referred to as __________ energy.
A)potential
B)heat or thermal
C)kinetic
D)electrical
E)pure

The ______ law of thermodynamics states that energy can neither
3 CORRECT
be created nor destroyed.
A)first
B)second
C)third
D)fourth
E)fifth

Sam, a biologist, was told by a friend that the electric power
4 CORRECT company was able to create electricity to be used in homes. Sam
said that this was impossible because ______.
A)energy can be created but not destroyed
B)energy can be destroyed but not created
C)energy can be created and destroyed
D)
energy cannot be created or destroyed but only converted
from one form to another form
E)
energy cannot be created, destroyed, or converted from one
form to another form
The study of energy relationships and their exchanges is called
5 CORRECT
______.
A)photosynthesis
B)metabolism
C)thermodynamics
D)aerobic cellular respiration
E)oxidation

Living systems continually take usable energy from the
6 CORRECT
environment and eventually return it as heat.
A)True
B)False

A cell can take in energy from its surroundings without losing
7 CORRECT
energy to its surroundings.
A)True
B)False

8 CORRECT Energy cannot be created within a system.
A)True
B)False

When muscles contract, chemical energy is converted to
9 CORRECT mechanical energy with the loss of heat. This is an example of the
______ law of thermodynamics.
A)first
B)second
C)third
D)fourth
E)fifth

10 CORRECT The second law of thermodynamics says that ______.
A)energy can be created but not destroyed
B)energy can be created and destroyed
C)energy can neither be created nor destroyed
D)
one usable form of energy can be completely converted into
another usable form
E)
one usable form of energy cannot be completely converted
into another usable form
11 CORRECT _______ is a measure of randomness or disorder.
A)Metabolism
B)Synthesis
C)Entropy
D)A coupled reaction
E)Thermodynamics

The sum of all chemical reactions occurring inside a living cell is
12 CORRECT
called ______.
A)metabolism
B)synthesis
C)dehydration synthesis
D)hydrolysis
E)thermodynamics

The average human male uses about 8,000 grams of ATP per hour.
13 CORRECT However, the body has on hand only 50 grams at any given time.
This paradox can be explained by understanding that ______.
A)ATP is recycled
B)some cells use more ATP than other cells
C)some organs use more ATP than other organs
D)more ATP is broken down than synthesized
E)more ATP is synthesized than broken down

14 CORRECT The letters ATP stand for ______.
A)a structure within a cell
B)any energy in a biological form
C)adenosine monophosphate
D)adenosine diphosphate
E)adenosine triphosphate

15 CORRECT ATP is composed of ______.
A)adenine, hexose sugar, three phosphate groups
B)adenine, hexose sugar, two phosphate groups
C)adenine, ribose sugar, two phosphate groups
D)adenine, ribose sugar, three phosphate groups
E)thymine, ribose sugar, three phosphate groups

Which of the following molecules is the immediate source of energy
16 CORRECT
in cells?
A)glucose
B)ADP
C)ATP
D)lipids
E)amino acids

The energy that is released from ATP when ATP is broken down
17 CORRECT
comes from the ______.
A)ribose sugar
B)hexose sugar
C)adenine nucleotide
D)thymine nucleotide
E)phosphate group

18 CORRECT ATP is NOT used for which of the following processes?
A)diffusion of oxygen into cells
B)synthesis of molecules
C)active transport of molecules from one site to another
D)conduction of nerve impulses
E)muscle contraction

19 CORRECT What will form when ATP is initially broken down?
A)just ADP
B)just ADP + energy
C)ADP + phosphate + energy
D)AMP + phosphate + energy
E)AMP + two phosphates + energy

20 CORRECT Which statement is NOT correct in the cycling of ATP?
A)Input of energy is required to produce ATP.
B)Phosphate is added to ADP to make ATP.
C)Mitochondria are the site of ATP synthesis.
D)
Because we need ATP for all cell energy needs, huge amounts
of ATP are stored.
E)
About 7.3 kcal per mole of energy is released when ATP is
hydrolized to ADP + P.
21 CORRECT Which molecule is considered to be the energy currency of cells?
A)glucose
B)lipids
C)proteins
D)ATP
E)oxygen

When ADP is rejoined with a phosphate group in the ATP cycle,
22 CORRECT
energy input is NOT required.
A)True
B)False

Adenosine, a component of ATP, is made up of the nitrogenous
23 CORRECT
base adenine and the sugar ribose.
A)True
B)False

There is a conversion of usable energy during cellular respiration
24 CORRECT
and photosynthesis but eventually all ATP energy becomes heat.
A)True
B)False

Glucose is the common energy currency for the synthesis of
25 CORRECT
molecules.
A)True
B)False

26 CORRECT Every reaction in a cell requires a specific enzyme.
A)True
B)False

A cell must produce large quantities of each enzyme in order to
27 CORRECT
survive.
A)True
B)False

A(An) ______ begins with a particular reactant, terminates with an
28 CORRECT
end product, and has many minute steps in between.
A)thermodynamic law
B)metabolic pathway
C)synthetic reaction
D)hydrolytic reaction
E)energy of activation

Until reaching a point where the enzyme is denatured, an increase
29 CORRECT in temperature will cause molecules to move faster, thereby
decreasing the chance of the reactants colliding.
A)True
B)False

An enzymatic reaction can bring about only synthesis, i.e., two
30 CORRECT
smaller molecules joined to form a larger molecule.
A)True
B)False

31 CORRECT All enzymes are proteins.
A)True
B)False

The reactants in an enzymatic reaction are called the substrates
32 CORRECT
for that enzyme.
A)True
B)False

Which of the following statements is NOT correct for a metabolic
33 CORRECT
pathway?
A)One reaction leads to the next reaction.
B)
They begin with a particular reactant and terminate with an
end product.
C)
One pathway may lead to other pathways if there are several
molecules in common.
D)
Metabolic energy is captured more easily if it is released in
large amounts rather than in small increments.
E)Metabolic pathways are highly organized and structured.

Study this metabolic pathway: A -E1 -> B -E2 -> C -E3 -> D.
34 CORRECT
Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
A)A is the substrate for enzyme E1 and B is the product.
B)A is the product for enzyme E1 and B is the substrate.
C)
Enzyme E2 can catalyze the substrate B but not substrates A,
C, and D.
D)
B is the product formed by enzyme E1 but the substrate for
enzyme E2.
E)A is a reactant in the first reaction that forms the product B.

35 CORRECT Which of the following statements is NOT correct about enzymes?
A)Most enzymes are protein molecules.
B)Every reaction in a cell requires a specific enzyme.
C)Enzymes speed up a chemical reaction.
D)Enzymes are named for the products formed.
E)
Enzymes are absolutely necessary to the continued existence
of a cell.
36 CORRECT Which of the following is NOT an enzyme?
A)lipase
B)urease
C)maltose
D)ribonuclease
E)dehydrogenase

Which of the following enzymes will remove hydrogen atoms from
37 CORRECT
its substrate?
A)lipase
B)urease
C)maltose
D)ribonuclease
E)dehydrogenase

38 CORRECT Lactase is an enzyme that breaks down ______.
A)lipids
B)lactose
C)maltose
D)sucrose
E)urea

Each enzyme can speed up only one particular reaction. This
39 CORRECT
specificity is due to the ______.
A)shape of both the enzyme and the substrate
B)lowering of the energy of activation
C)pH of the surrounding medium
D)temperature of the surrounding medium
E)permanent binding of the enzyme-substrate complex

The amount of energy (e.g., heat) needed for a reaction to occur is
40 CORRECT
called the ______.
A)kinetic energy
B)potential energy
C)synthetic energy
D)energy of deactivation
E)energy of activation

41 CORRECT Which of the following statements is NOT correct about enzymes?
A)Enzymes allow reactions to occur at moderate temperature.
B)
Enzymes bind with their substrates in such a way that the
reaction can occur more readily.
C)Enzymes raise the energy of activation for a reaction.
D)
Enzymes bring together particular molecules and cause them
to react with one another.
E)Enzymes can be used over and over again.

The ______ is a place where the substrates fit onto the enzyme in
42 CORRECT
such a way that they are oriented to react.
A)active site
B)inhibitory site
C)enzyme-substrate complex
D)metabolic pathway
E)coenzyme

43 CORRECT Which of the following statements about enzymes is NOT correct?
A)Enzymes speed up a chemical reaction.
B)
The active site on the enzyme may undergo a slight change in
shape when the substrate binds.
C)Enzymes are very specific in their action.
D)The presence of an enzyme will change the outcome of a reaction.
E)Enzymes lower the energy of activation for a reaction to occur.

44 CORRECT Which of the following statements about enzymes is NOT correct?
A)Substrates fit onto the enzyme at the active site.
B)
No permanent change in the enzyme occurs when it combines
with the substrate.
C)
Once the enzyme has combined with the substrate, the
enzyme cannot be used again.
D)
Enzymes decrease the amount of heat needed by a cell for a
chemical reaction to occur.
E)Enzymes are named often for their substrates.

When the substrate binds to the enzyme, the active site undergoes
45 CORRECT a slight alteration to achieve the best fit. This is known as the
______ model.
A)lock-and-key
B)induced-fit
C)deduced-fit
D)reduced-fit
E)fit-to-be-tied

A)Catalase converts hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen.
B)
Generally, enzyme activity increases as substrate
concentration increases.
C)
Generally, enzyme activity decreases as substrate
concentration decreases.
D)
The enzyme's rate of activity can increase even after all the
active sites have been filled.
E)A denatured enzyme cannot form an enzyme-substrate complex.

A)Catalase converts hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen.
B)
Generally, enzyme activity increases as substrate
concentration increases.
C)
Generally, enzyme activity decreases as substrate
concentration decreases.
D)
The enzyme's rate of activity can increase even after all the
active sites have been filled.
E)A denatured enzyme cannot form an enzyme-substrate complex.

48 CORRECT Enzymes can only be denatured by high temperatures.
A)True
B)False

Too high or low a pH disrupts the hydrogen bonding and
49 CORRECT interactions between ______ of a protein and cause the enzyme to
become denatured.
A)amino acids
B)R group side chains
C)nucleic acids
D)monosaccharides
E)fatty acids

A denatured enzyme has lost its normal shape and therefore its
50 CORRECT
ability to form an enzyme-substrate complex.
A)True
B)False

Pepsin, an enzyme found in the stomach, acts best at a pH of
51 CORRECT
about 2, but it is not active at a pH of 7. Why?
A)The optimal pH helps to maintain the enzyme's tertiary structure.
B)The optimal pH helps to maintain the enzyme's primary structure.
C)
The optimal pH disrupts the normal interactions of the R
groups within the protein molecule.
D)A pH of 2 causes denaturation to occur but not at pH of 7.

Within limits, the rate of enzymatic reaction doubles with every
52 CORRECT
______ C rise in temperature.
A)5°
B)10°
C)20°
D)30°
E)40°

In an enzymatic reaction, more product can be obtained if there is
53 CORRECT
______.
A)enough substrate to fill all the active sites
B)optimum pH
C)optimum temperature
D)
enough substrate to fill all the active sites and there are
optimal pH and optimal temperature conditions
A(An) ______ is any organic, nonprotein molecule that binds with
54 INCORRECT
an enzyme other than its substrate.
A)reactant
B)product
C)inhibitor
D)coenzyme
Feedback: A coenzyme is any organic, nonprotein molecule

that binds with an enzyme other than its substrate.
______ inhibition is the normal way by which metabolic pathways
55 CORRECT
are regulated in cells.
A)Feedback
B)Competitive
C)Noncompetitive
D)Psychological

In ______ inhibition, another molecule is so close in shape to an
56 CORRECT enzyme's substrate that this molecule can compete with the true
substrate for the active site of the enzyme.
A)noncompetitive
B)competitive
C)reversible
D)irreversible
E)feedback

If an inhibitor binds to an enzyme at a site other than the active
57 CORRECT
site, it is called ______ inhibition.
A)competitive
B)noncompetitive
C)reversible
D)irreversible
E)feedback

Cyanide is an inhibitor of the enzyme cytochrome oxidase, which is
58 CORRECT
used to make ATP in mitochondria. Cyanide acts as a(an) _______.
A)cofactor
B)enzyme inhibitor
C)denaturing agent
D)substrate complex

59 CORRECT Penicillin causes the death of bacteria by ______.
A)blocking the active site of an enzyme unique to humans
B)blocking the active site of an enzyme unique to bacteria
C)denaturing the bacteria
D)substituting a cofactor
E)removing the substrate for an enzyme unique to bacteria

A(An) ______ is generally a larger molecule that the body is
60 CORRECT
incapable of synthesizing without the ingestion of a vitamin.
A)ion
B)cofactor
C)coenzyme
D)enzyme
E)inhibitor

61 CORRECT Which of the following is considered to be a coenzyme?
A)magnesium ion
B)riboflavin
C)pantothenic acid
D)niacin
E)NAD+

62 CORRECT Which of the following is considered a vitamin?
A)FAD
B)NAD+
C)thiamine pyrophosphate
D)coenzyme A (CoA)
E)niacin

______ are organic dietary requirements needed in small amounts
63 CORRECT
only.
A)Cofactors
B)Coenzymes
C)Vitamins
D)Minerals
E)Enzymes

Which of the following cell organelles convert one form of energy
64 CORRECT
into another?
A)ribosomes
B)Golgi apparatus
C)chloroplast
D)lysosome
E)endoplasmic reticulum

65 CORRECT Which organelle converts energy stored in carbohydrates into ATP?
A)lysosome
B)Golgi apparatus
C)chloroplast
D)mitochondria
E)nucleolus

Which organelle will convert solar energy into the energy of a
66 CORRECT
carbohydrate?
A)lysosome
B)chloroplast
C)Golgi apparatus
D)mitochondria
E)nucleolus

67 INCORRECT Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
A)Carbon dioxide given off by mitochondria is used by chloroplasts.
B)
Carbohydrates produced by chloroplasts may be used by
mitochondria.
C)Oxygen released by chloroplasts may be used by mitochondria.
D)
Carbon dioxide given off by chloroplasts may be used by
mitochondria.
E)
Heat is released by reactions occurring in the chloroplast and
mitochondria.
Feedback: Carbon dioxide is not given off by chloroplasts.
However, the other statements follow the metabolic
chemistry of photosynthesis and cellular respiration.
A)
metabolism--sum of all chemical reactions occurring inside a
living cell
B)ATP--energy currency
C)energy--constantly cycled back and forth through living things
D)
first law of thermodynamics--energy can neither be created
nor destroyed
E)enzyme--organic catalyst that speeds up a chemical reaction

A)Chemicals and energy can cycle through living things.
B)Energy can neither be created nor destroyed.
C)
One usable form of energy cannot be completely converted
into another usable form.
D)
Metabolism is the sum of all chemical reactions occurring
inside a living cell.
E)Every reaction in a cell requires a specific enzyme.

In general, cellular respiration permits a flow of energy from the
70 CORRECT
sun through all living things.
A)True
B)False
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Readings and References The correct answer for each question is indicated by a .
The smallest unit of matter that can enter into chemical reactions
1 CORRECT
and is nondivisible by chemical means is called a(an) ______.
A)nucleus
B)atom
C)element
D)molecule
E)compound

2 CORRECT What does the nucleus of an atom contain?
A)electrons
B)protons
C)neutrons
D)protons and electrons
E)protons and neutrons

The atomic weight of an atom is equal to the number of ______
3 CORRECT
plus the number of ______.
A)electrons, protons
B)electrons, neutrons
C)protons, neutrons
D)protons, isotopes
E)isotopes, ions

4 CORRECT Atomic weights have a single exact value for each element.
A)True
B)False

5 CORRECT Which of the following statements is true?
A)
Electrons have a negative charge and equal the number of
neutrons.
B)Electrons have a negative charge and equal the number of protons.
C)Protons have a positive charge and equal the number of neutrons.
D)
Protons have a positive charge and are the main unit that
helps bond atoms to each other.
Electrons that have the greatest amount of energy are located in
6 CORRECT
shells farthest from the nucleus.
A)True
B)False

7 CORRECT What determines the chemical properties of an atom?
A)the number of electrons in the first shell
B)the number of electrons in the outer shell
C)the number of protons in the first shell
D)the number of protons in the outer shell
E)the number of neutrons in the outer shell

In an electrically neutral atom, the number of ______ is equal to
8 CORRECT
the number of ______.
A)neutrons, electrons
B)protons, neutrons
C)protons, electrons
D)electrons, ions
E)electrons, isotopes

The carbon atom has an atomic number of 6 and an atomic weight
9 CORRECT
of 12. Therefore, a carbon atom has ______ protons.
A)2
B)4
C)6
D)8
E)12

______ are atoms that have the same number of protons but
10 CORRECT
differ in the number of neutrons.
A)Emulsifiers
B)Isotopes
C)Molecules
D)Compounds
E)Salts

Chlorine has an atomic number of 17 and an atomic weight of 35.
11 CORRECT
When chlorine becomes the chloride ion, its charge is ______.
A)plus 1
B)plus 7
C)negative 1
D)negative 7
E)negative 8

Chlorine has an atomic number of 17. How many electrons are in
12 CORRECT
the outermost shell?
A)1
B)7
C)8
D)2
E)5

The sodium atom has an atomic number of 11 and an atomic
13 INCORRECT number of 23. Therefore, there are two electrons in the outermost
orbit.
A)True
B)False
Feedback: An atomic number of 11 indicates 11 protons

attracting 11 electrons; the first shell holds two, the second
shell holds eight, leaving 1 electron in the outer shell.
14 CORRECT The molecule, K+Cl-, is held together by ______ bonds.
A)ionic
B)covalent
C)polar
D)hydrogen
E)James

Atoms such as sodium, potassium, calcium or hydrogen, all gain
15 CORRECT
electrons and become negatively charged.
A)True
B)False

If an atom either gains or loses an electron, the atom is called
16 CORRECT
a(an) ______.
A)element
B)nucleus
C)molecule
D)compound
E)ion

Double and triple bonds are ionic bonds where two or three
17 CORRECT
electrons are lost or gained.
A)True
B)False

Atoms react with one another in order to achieve four electrons in
18 CORRECT
their outer shell.
A)True
B)False

19 CORRECT Which type of bond will share electrons between atoms?
A)ionic
B)covalent
C)hydrogen
D)peptide

When two nonmetal oxygen atoms (atomic number = 8) react with
20 CORRECT
each other, they ______.
A)each give up two electrons
B)each take two electrons
C)each need six electrons
D)each need eight electrons
E)share electrons

21 CORRECT Complete this chemical reaction: HCl + NaOH ---------->
A)NaOH + HCl
B)HCl + NaCl
C)NaOH + NaCl
D)NaCl + HOH
E)NaCl + HCl

In this reaction, K + Cl -----> K+Cl-, which element has been
22 CORRECT
reduced?
A)potassium
B)chlorine
C)both potassium and chlorine
D)sodium

23 INCORRECT Oxidation refers to the ______.
A)loss of electrons and/or hydrogen atoms
B)loss of electrons and the gain of hydrogen atoms
C)gain of electrons and/or hydrogen atoms
D)gain of electrons and the loss of hydrogen atoms
Feedback: Oxidation refers to loss of electrons and/or

hydrogen atoms; when a molecule has lost a hydrogen atom
it has lost an electron.
If there are three pairs of electrons that are shared between two
24 CORRECT
atoms, a(an) ______ is formed.
A)single bond
B)double bond
C)triple bond
D)ionic bond
E)hydrogen bond

Suppose that you have this chemical formula: 5 H2O. Which of the
25 CORRECT
following statements is FALSE?
A)There are five molecules of water.
B)Water is composed of three different kinds of atoms.
C)
There are two atoms of hydrogen for every one atom of
oxygen in one water molecule.
D)There is a total of five oxygen atoms present.
E)There is a total of 10 hydrogen atoms present.

26 CORRECT An individual water molecule is held together by ______.
A)ionic bonds
B)covalent bonds
C)hydrogen bonds
D)peptide bonds

27 CORRECT Many water molecules are weakly held together by ______.
A)ionic bonds
B)covalent bonds
C)hydrogen bonds
D)peptide bonds

Which of the following statements is NOT a true characteristic of
28 INCORRECT
water?
A)Hydrogen bonding causes water molecules to be cohesive.
B)
Without hydrogen bonding, water would be gaseous at room
temperature.
C)Water absorbs a great deal of heat before it evaporates.
D)Water keeps an animal's body temperature within normal limits.
E)Because of hydrogen bonding, liquid water is less dense than ice.
Feedback: Without hydrogen bonding, water would be

gaseous at room temperature.
29 CORRECT Water, being a nonpolar molecule, acts as a solvent.
A)True
B)False

Bases, when added to water, increase the hydrogen ion
30 CORRECT
concentration.
A)True
B)False

______ are molecules that dissociate in water, releasing hydrogen
31 CORRECT
ions.
A)Bases
B)Acids
C)Salts
D)Buffers
E)Carbohydrates

If the concentration of hydrogen ions was 1 x 10-6,, the pH is
32 CORRECT
______.
A)one
B)10
C)14
D)6
E)4

At which pH will the concentration of hydrogen ions be equal to the
33 CORRECT
concentration of hydroxide ions?
A)pH 1
B)pH 5
C)pH 7
D)pH 9
E)pH 14

As the pH scale decreases, there is a two-fold increase in hydrogen
34 INCORRECT
ion concentration for every pH unit.
A)True
B)False
Feedback: As the pH scale decreases, there is a ten-fold

increase in hydrogen ion concentration for every pH unit.
When hydrochloric acid, a strong acid, is added to water, the pH of
35 CORRECT
water ______.
A)goes up
B)stays the same
C)goes down
D)goes first up and then down

______ are chemicals or combinations of chemicals that take up
36 CORRECT excess hydrogen ions or hydroxide ions in order to keep the pH
constant.
A)Acids
B)Bases
C)Salts
D)Buffers
E)Carbohydrates

Acids have a pH that is greater than 7, whereas bases have a pH
37 CORRECT
that is less than 7.
A)True
B)False

If the hydrogen ion concentration in water was 0.0000001, the pH
38 CORRECT
is ______.
A)one
B)10
C)6
D)7
E)8

39 CORRECT Which atoms are always found in organic molecules?
A)carbon and hydrogen
B)carbon and oxygen
C)carbon and nitrogen
D)oxygen and nitrogen
E)oxygen and hydrogen

40 INCORRECT Which of the following is NOT an organic molecule?
A)glucose
B)triglyceride
C)protein
D)water
E)DNA
Feedback: DNA contains carbon and hydrogen atoms and is

an organic molecule.
Which of the following statements is NOT correct about organic
41 CORRECT
molecules?
A)Organic molecules are often associated with living organisms.
B)Organic molecules always have ionic bonding between atoms.
C)Organic molecules always contain carbon and hydrogen.
D)Organic molecules may be quite large, with many atoms.
Feedback: Correct Answer. Carbon shares atoms covalently

with other atoms.
Carbohydrates are macromolecules composed of ______
42 CORRECT
monomers.
A)amino acid
B)monosaccharide
C)glycerol and fatty acid
D)nucleotide

______ is the process of splitting of a bond within a larger
43 INCORRECT
molecule by the addition of water.
A)Emulsification
B)Ionization
C)Dissociation
D)Condensation synthesis
E)Hydrolysis
Feedback: Hydrolysis is the process of splitting of a bond

within a larger molecule by the addition of water.
Condensation is the reverse of hydrolysis.
______ is the process in which water is removed when two
44 CORRECT
monomers join to form a macromolecule.
A)Emulsification
B)Ionization
C)Dissociation
D)Condensation synthesis
E)Hydrolysis

When dipeptide, disaccharide, and a triglyceride molecules are
45 INCORRECT formed, water molecules are released during the condensation
synthesis reaction of each.
A)True
B)False
Feedback: When dipeptide, disaccharde, and a triglyceride

molecules are formed, water molecules are released during
the condensation synthesis reaction of each.
Glucose, fructose, and galactose are all monosaccharides with the
46 CORRECT
same molecular formula C6H12O6.
A)True
B)False

47 CORRECT Glucose is the immediate energy source of the body.
A)True
B)False

48 CORRECT Pentoses are sugars that have six carbon atoms.
A)True
B)False

49 CORRECT Glycogen is the storage form of glucose in plants.
A)True
B)False

50 CORRECT Maltose is a disaccharide composed of glucose and fructose.
A)True
B)False

Which type of organic molecule has the ratio of hydrogen atoms to
51 CORRECT
oxygen atoms of approximately 2:1?
A)carbohydrates
B)lipids
C)proteins
D)nucleic acids
E)cholesterol

52 CORRECT Glucose, fructose, and galactose are all classified as ______.
A)fatty acids
B)amino acids
C)polysaccharides
D)disaccharides
E)monosaccharides

Which type of organic macromolecule is used primarily for energy
53 INCORRECT
and structure?
A)proteins
B)carbohydrates
C)lipids
D)nucleic acids
E)NaCl
Feedback: Carbohydrates, such as sugar and cellulose, are

used for energy and structural functions, respectively.
Lipids do store energy and form the plasma membrane.
54 CORRECT Which of the following molecules is NOT a polysaccharide?
A)starch
B)glycogen
C)sucrose
D)cellulose
Feedback: Correct Answer. Sucrose, or table sugar, is a

disaccharide made from glucose and fructose; a
polysaccharide is larger.
Which type of carbohydrate is found in plant cell walls and
55 CORRECT
accounts in part for the strong nature of these walls?
A)glycogen
B)starch
C)cellulose
D)galactose
E)ribose
Feedback: Correct Answer. Cellulose is a common

polysaccharide of plants used to form cell walls for
structure.
56 CORRECT At room temperature, fats are liquids and oils are solids.
A)True
B)False

57 CORRECT Glycerol and fatty acid are the monomers for most ______.
A)proteins
B)carbohydrates
C)lipids
D)nucleic acids
E)steroids

58 CORRECT ______ occurs when an oil droplet is dispersed in water.
A)Ionization
B)Saturation
C)Emulsification
D)Dissociation
E)Oxidation

A saturated fatty acid contains more ______ atoms than the same
59 CORRECT
unsaturated fatty acid.
A)carbon
B)oxygen
C)nitrogen
D)phosphorus
E)hydrogen

When glycerol combines with three fatty acids, a (an) ______
60 CORRECT
molecule results.
A)steroid
B)phospholipid
C)monoglyceride
D)triglyceride
E)tripeptide

______ are lipids containing phosphorus that are very important in
61 CORRECT
cell membranes.
A)Glycerol
B)Fatty acids
C)Triglycerides
D)Steroids
E)Phospholipids

62 CORRECT A soap is a salt formed from an amino acid and an inorganic base.
A)True
B)False

Which type of organic molecule is used for long-term energy
63 CORRECT storage, insulation against heat loss, and forms a protective
cushion around major organs?
A)carbohydrates
B)proteins
C)fats
D)nucleic acids
E)salts

64 CORRECT Which type of lipid has four fused carbon rings?
A)cholesterol
B)triglyceride
C)phospholipid
D)DNA
E)maltose
Feedback: Correct Answer. Cholesterol is an example of a

steroid lipid with four fused carbon rings.
65 CORRECT Fats do not mix with water because they are polar molecules.
A)True
B)False

66 CORRECT Which of the following molecules is NOT a steroid?
A)cholesterol
B)aldosterone
C)testosterone
D)estrogen
E)phospholipid

Which type of organic macromolecule represents a source of cell
67 CORRECT
steroids and yet is found within membranes?
A)proteins
B)carbohydrates
C)cholesterol
D)nucleic acids
E)water

The polar portion of the phospholipid molecule (head) is soluble in
68 CORRECT
water, whereas the two hydrocarbon chains (tails) are not.
A)True
B)False

A (An) ______ has a hydrocarbon chain (a string of carbon atoms
69 INCORRECT with hydrogen atoms attached) and ends with the acid group -
COOH.
A)amino acid
B)fatty acid
C)steroid
D)phospholipid
E)monosaccharide
Feedback: An amino acid has a hydrocarbon chain (a string

of carbon atoms with hydrogen atoms attached) and ends
with the acid group -COOH. A steroid has carbon rings.
70 CORRECT Proteins are polymers of ______.
A)amino acids
B)nucleotides
C)glycerol and fatty acid
D)monosaccharides
E)disaccharides

71 CORRECT Amino acids are the same except for their R group.
A)True
B)False

72 CORRECT What is the name of this functional group: -COOH ?
A)amino group
B)acidic group
C)hydrogen bond
D)peptide bond
E)saturated group

The bond that occurs between the acid group of one amino acid
73 CORRECT and the amino group of another amino acid is termed a (an)
______ bond.
A)hydrogen
B)weak
C)peptide
D)ionic
E)covalent

A ______ is a string of 100-1000 amino acids joined by peptide
74 CORRECT
bonds.
A)dipeptide
B)tripeptide
C)polypeptide
D)protein
E)nucleotide

Which of the following types of organic molecules have their
75 CORRECT
monomers joined by a peptide bond?
A)proteins
B)lipids
C)carbohydrates
D)nucleic acids
E)salts

Oxygen and hydrogen atoms associated with a peptide bond share
76 CORRECT electrons in such a way that the oxygen carries a partial positive
charge and the hydrogen carries a partial negative charge.
A)True
B)False

Which type of organic molecule sometimes has a structural role
77 CORRECT
and may act as an enzyme?
A)proteins
B)lipids
C)carbohydrates
D)DNA

When a strong acid is added to milk, the milk curdles. This is an
78 CORRECT
example of protein denaturation.
A)True
B)False

When proteins are exposed to extreme pH, they can undergo an
79 CORRECT
irreversible change in shape.
A)True
B)False

80 CORRECT What is the final three-dimensional shape of a protein called?
A)quaternary structure
B)tertiary structure
C)secondary structure
D)primary structure
E)molecular structure
Feedback: Correct Answer. The final three-dimensional

shape of a protein is called its tertiary structure.
The _______ structure of a protein is the linear sequence of the
81 CORRECT
amino acids joined by peptide bonds.
A)quaternary
B)tertiary
C)secondary
D)primary
E)molecular

82 CORRECT Hemoglobin is a complex protein having a quaternary structure.
A)True
B)False

The ______ structure of a protein comes about when the
83 CORRECT
polypeptide chain takes a particular orientation in space.
A)quaternary
B)tertiary
C)primary
D)secondary
E)ionized

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Acronym Flashcards
Animation Quizzes
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Chapter 17
Flashcards
1 CORRECT Which of the following are the parts of neurons?
A)brain, spinal cord, and vertebral column
B)dendrite, axon, and cell body
C)sensory and motor
D)cortex, medulla and sheath
E)sympathetic and parasympathetic

2 CORRECT A dendrite conducts nerve impulses ________ the cell body.
A)away from
B)toward
C)both toward and away from
D)around, bypassing
E)only inside

3 CORRECT An axon conducts nerve impulses _________ the cell body.
A)away from
B)toward
C)both toward and away from
D)around, bypassing
E)only inside

4 CORRECT Which of the following is/are type(s) of neurons?
A)sensory
B)motor
C)interneurons
D)all of the above

Sensory nerve cells act as the decision-making cells to sum up all
5 CORRECT
signals for certain stimuli.
A)True
B)False

6 CORRECT Neuroglial cells support and provide nutrition for the ________.
A)muscle cells
B)glands
C)neurons
D)nephrons

7 CORRECT Neurons often have many short dendrites and a long axon.
A)True
B)False

A sensory neuron of the peripheral nervous system take nerve
8 CORRECT
impulses from sensory receptors to the ________ .
A)motor neurons
B)interneurons
C)autonomic nervous system
D)central nervous system

Nerve impulses go from sensory neurons in sense organs directly
9 CORRECT
to the muscles and glands that respond.
A)True
B)False

10 INCORRECT An interneuron has _____________.
A)long dendrites and a short axon
B)long dendrites and a long axon
C)short dendrites and a long axon
D)short dendrites and a long or short axon
Feedback: An interneuron has short dendrites and a long or

short axon.
11 INCORRECT Schwann cells are the main neurons of the spinal cord.
A)True
B)False
Feedback: Schwann cells wrap around long axons to form

the myelin sheath; they are not neurons.
Schwann cells are one of several types of ________ cells in the
12 INCORRECT
nervous system.
A)sensory
B)motor
C)association
D)neuroglial
Feedback: Schwann cells are one of several types of

neuroglial cells in the nervous system.
Schwann cells produce layers of membrane containing myelin,
13 CORRECT
which provides nutrition for the dendrites.
A)True
B)False

14 CORRECT Gaps in the myelin sheath are called _______.
A)nodes of Ranvier
B)the synapse
C)axonal interstices
D)myelinoids

15 CORRECT _______ is a disease of the myelin sheath.
A)Leprosy
B)Alzheimer disease
C)Multiple sclerosis
D)Polio

16 INCORRECT A nerve impulse is the way a sensory neuron receives information.
A)True
B)False
Feedback: A nerve impulse is the way all neurons transmit

information.
Nerve impulses create a change in voltage which is measured by
17 CORRECT
and can be seen on a(n) ________.
A)stethoscope
B)electrocardiogram
C)oscilloscope
D)laparoscope

18 CORRECT Axoplasm is the ________ .
A)blood plasma that nourishes a nerve
B)fluid external to the axon but inside the myelin sheath
C)cytoplasm of the dendrite
D)cytoplasm of the axon

When the axon is conducting an impulse, the oscilloscope records a
19 INCORRECT
constant membrane potential, equal to about -65mV.
A)True
B)False
Feedback: When the axon is conducting an impulse, the

oscilloscope records a rapid change in potential as both Na+
and K+ gates open.
The resting potential indicates that the inside of the neuron is
20 CORRECT
________ compared to the outside.
A)under ionic pressure
B)positive
C)negative
D)inactive

21 INCORRECT The "sodium-potassium pump" pumps ___________.
A)sodium ions out and potassium ions in
B)sodium ions in and potassium ions out
C)sodium and potassium ions in
D)sodium and potassium ions out
Feedback: The "sodium-potassium pump" pumps sodium

ions out and potassium ions in.
The action potential pattern that appears on the oscilloscope
22 CORRECT
screen is caused by rapid ________.
A)polarity changes
B)pH changes
C)breakdown of the membrane structure
D)all of the above

The action potential is measured in millivolts (mV) and is ranged
23 INCORRECT
from:
A)-90mV to +20mV
B)-70mV to +30mV
C)-65mV to +40mV
D)-30mV to +60mV
Feedback: The action potential is measured in millivolts

(mV) and is ranged from -65mV to +40mV.
With an action potential, depolarization of the axomembrane is
24 CORRECT recorded as the gates open, allowing ________ to flow into the
axon.
A)potassium ions
B)H+ ions
C)sodium ions
D)all of the above

The action potential changes the charge inside the axon from
25 CORRECT
positive to negative.
A)True
B)False

A nerve fiber obeys an all-or-none law insofar as it either fires or
26 INCORRECT does not fire depending on whether the stimulus is above a
threshold.
A)True
B)False
Feedback: A nerve fiber obeys an all-or-none law insofar as

it either fires or does not fire depending on whether the
stimulus is above a threshold.
27 INCORRECT As the action potential swings down,
A)potassium ions move out of the axon.
B)potassium ions move into the axon.
C)sodium ions move into the axon.
Feedback: As the action potential swings down, potassium

ions move out of the axon.
As the potassium ions move out of the axon, the oscilloscope
28 INCORRECT
records a ________.
A)depolarization
B)repolarization
C)equalizing of negative and positive ions
D)shutdown of the membrane pumps
Feedback: As the potassium ions move out of the axon, the

oscilloscope records a repolarization.
29 INCORRECT A refractory period is___________.
A)a brief time when a neuron is unable to conduct an impulse
B)
the period during which potassium and sodium ions are
completely stable
C)the same as the resting potential
D)
the short time the myelin sheath provides insulation from
another impulse
E)is a reverse impulse that resets the sodium and potassium balance
Feedback: A refractory period is a brief time when a neuron

is unable to conduct an impulse.
In humans, transmission of nerve impulses across a synaptic cleft
30 CORRECT
is carried out by ________.
A)sodium ions
B)potassium ions
C)neurotransmitter molecules
D)the nodes of Ranvier

31 CORRECT Transmission across a synapse is achieved mainly by a________ .
A)ionic bonding
B)diffusion of neurotransmitter across the cleft
C)
physical contact of axon to dendrite allowing the nerve
impulse to continue onward
D)diffusion of sodium ions across the cleft

32 CORRECT Acetylcholine and norepinephrine are two well-known _________.
A)postsynaptic receptors
B)enzymes that rapidly inactivate neurotransmitters
C)drugs of abuse
D)neurotransmitters

Acetylcholine and norepinephrine act because of their affect on
33 CORRECT
receptors at the ________ membrane.
A)axonal
B)cell body
C)presynaptic
D)postsynaptic

Which of the following is an enzyme that breaks down a
34 CORRECT
neurotransmitter?
A)acetylcholine
B)serotonin
C)dopamine
D)acetylcholinesterase

35 INCORRECT _________ is the summing up of excitatory and inhibitory signals.
A)Acting potential
B)Reticular formation
C)Neurotransmission
D)Synapse
E)Integration
Feedback: Integration is the summing up of excitatory and

inhibitory signals.
36 CORRECT Excitatory signals have a ________ effect.
A)hyperpolarizing
B)neutral
C)depolarizing
D)positive
E)negative

37 CORRECT What are the main divisions of the nervous system?
A)the sensory system and the motor system
B)the peripheral nervous system and central nervous system
C)the dendritic and the axonal systems
D)the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems

The peripheral nervous system includes the nerves, which are
38 CORRECT
neurons with cell bodies that occur in the ________.
A)sympathetic nervous system
B)brain, spinal cord, or in ganglia
C)motor system
D)autonomic system

The peripheral nervous system (PNS) lies outside the central
39 CORRECT
nervous system (CNS).
A)True
B)False

The PNS nerves are part of either the somatic system or the
40 INCORRECT
________ .
A)motor system
B)central nervous system
C)sympathetic system
D)parasympathetic system
E)autonomic system
Feedback: The PNS nerves are part of either the somatic

system or the central nervous system.
41 INCORRECT The somatic system contains nerves that control _________.
A)skeletal muscles
B)internal organs, joints, and glands
C)skeletal muscles, skin, and glands
D)smooth muscles, cardiac muscles and glands
Feedback: The somatic system contains nerves that control

skeletal muscles.
42 CORRECT How many pairs of cranial nerves do humans have?
A)4
B)12
C)16
D)21
E)31

43 INCORRECT Humans have 12 pairs of spinal nerves.
A)True
B)False
Feedback: Humans have 31 pairs of spinal nerves.

Nerves are structures that contain many short fibers joined end-to-
44 INCORRECT
end.
A)True
B)False
Feedback: Nerves are bundles of long axons.

The peripheral nervous system includes mixed nerves that
45 INCORRECT
_________.
A)serve the muscular and skeletal system
B)serve the sympathetic system
C)serve the parasympathetic system
D)contain both sensory and motor fibers
E)do not always know how to respond
Feedback: The peripheral nervous system includes mixed

nerves that contain both sensory and motor fibers.
The sensory neurons that come from internal organs send impulses
46 INCORRECT
to the CNS where reflex actions _____________.
A)are critical to conscious decision making
B)help maintain homeostasis
C)trigger all neurotransmitters
D)control our emotional moods
Feedback: The sensory neurons that come from internal

organs send impulses to the CNS where reflex actions help
maintain homeostasis.
Which of the following are characteristic of the sympathetic
47 CORRECT
system?
A)inhibits the digestive tract
B)dilates the bronchi
C)accelerates the heartbeat
D)all of the above

The parasympathetic system is called the "housekeeper system"
48 CORRECT
because it keeps us alert and ready for "fight or flight."
A)True
B)False

Which of the following is/are characteristic of the parasympathetic
49 CORRECT
system?
A)causes the pupil to contract
B)promotes digestion of food
C)retards the heartbeat
D)all of the above

50 CORRECT The central nervous system consists of the ____________.
A)
combination of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous
systems
B)brain and spinal cord
C)combined sensory and motor systems
D)cranial and spinal nerves
E)sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems

The part of the body that integrates the information it receives
51 CORRECT from all over the body in order to make decisions is called the
________.
A)peripheral nervous system
B)sympathetic nervous system
C)parasympathetic nervous system
D)central nervous system

52 CORRECT The central nervous system consists only of the brain.
A)True
B)False

The brain and spinal cord are protected by membranes known as
53 CORRECT
the ________.
A)nodes of Ranvier
B)meninges
C)axomembranes
D)myelin sheath

54 CORRECT Cerebrospinal fluid is found only in the brain.
A)True
B)False

Higher thought processes for learning and memory are primarily in
55 CORRECT
the ________.
A)medulla oblongata
B)cerebellum
C)cerebrum
D)pons

The ________ contains centers for heartbeat, breathing, and blood
56 CORRECT
pressure.
A)cerebellum
B)cerebrum
C)spinal cord
D)medulla oblongata

The medulla oblongata contains reflex centers for
57 CORRECT
_______________.
A)vomiting, coughing, sneezing, hiccuping, and swallowing
B)kneejerk and blinking
C)sexual response
D)fast responses on test questions

58 CORRECT The main function of the cerebellum is ___________.
A)consciousness
B)muscle coordination
C)homeostasis
D)sense reception

Which of the following areas of the cerebral cortex have been
59 CORRECT
mapped in detail?
A)motor
B)sensory
C)association
D)all of the above

The two halves of the brain, the left brain and the right brain, are
60 CORRECT
NOT connected and share no communication.
A)True
B)False

61 INCORRECT Alcohol is primarily metabolized in the_________.
A)brain, which accounts for its mental effects
B)muscles, which accounts for its effect on movement
C)liver, where it disrupts glycolysis and the Krebs cycle
D)bloodstream, which is why it has widespread effects
Feedback: Alcohol is primarily metabolized in the liver,

where it disrupts glycolysis and the Krebs cycle.
62 CORRECT The biological effects of excess alcohol include(s) ____________.
A)lactic acid builds up and the blood becomes more acidic
B)
excess active acetate cannot be broken down and the liver
becomes fatty
C)fibrous scar tissue forms and liver cells die
D)
high levels of calories, but too few amino acids, vitamins or
minerals
E)all of the above are correct

63 CORRECT The nicotine in cigarette smoke_________.
A)has been found to be perfectly harmless
B)causes an excess of dopamine which leads to drug dependence
C)decreases heartbeat rate and blood pressure
D)increases urine flow
E)all of the above

64 INCORRECT A person does not become physically dependent on marijuana.
A)True
B)False
Feedback: Although a person does not become physically

dependent on marijuana, it does produce psychological
dependence.
65 CORRECT The active ingredient in marijuana is____________.
A)nicotine
B)cocaine from Erythroxylum cocoa
C)dopamine
D)THC or tetrahydrocannabinol from the Cannabis sativa resin
E)an alkaloid of opium

66 CORRECT The active ingredient in cocaine is ____________.
A)nicotine
B)a plant alkaloid from the Erythroxylum cocoa shrub
C)dopamine
D)THC or tetrahydrocannabinol from the Cannabis sativa resin
E)an alkaloid of opium

High doses of cocaine can cause death from cardiac and
67 CORRECT
respiratory arrest.
A)True
B)False

Cocaine affects the mood by interfering with the uptake of
68 INCORRECT
________ from synaptic clefts.
A)nicotine
B)oxygen
C)dopamine
D)acetylcholine
E)epinephrine
Feedback: Cocaine affects the mood by interfering with the

uptake of dopamine from synaptic clefts.
When a person needs more of a drug to feel the same high, it is
69 CORRECT
called ________.
A)dependence
B)compensation
C)tolerance
D)withdrawal
E)dysphoria

Withdrawal from drugs is a safe procedure and does NOT cause
70 CORRECT
any longterm physical harm.
A)True
B)False

"Ice" is a form of methamphetamine that is used as a substitute
71 CORRECT
for cocaine.
A)True
B)False

72 CORRECT Called "ice," methamphetamine is _____________.
A)a chemical that uses frozen water in its production, hence its name
B)a pure, crystalline hydrochloride salt
C)a new plant alkaloid extracted from marijuana
D)a mixture of heroin and cocaine

Methamphetamine is different from cocaine in that its effects are
73 CORRECT
temporary.
A)True
B)False

74 INCORRECT MPPP is an analogue of the narcotic fentanyl.
A)True
B)False
Feedback: MPPP is an analogue of the narcotic fentanyl and

can be toxic or fatal.
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1 CORRECT During inspiration the pressure in the lungs increases.
A)True
B)False

During expiration, ________ pressure in the thoracic cavity causes
2 CORRECT
air to leave the lungs.
A)increased
B)decreased
C)vacuum
D)hydraulic

3 CORRECT Air passing along the respiratory tract is ________.
A)filtered
B)warmed
C)moistened with water
D)all of the above

4 CORRECT In the nose, the cilia beat upward carrying mucus and dust.
A)True
B)False

5 CORRECT As air moves out during expiration, it cools and loses its moisture.
A)True
B)False

6 CORRECT The human nose contains _____ nasal cavities.
A)one
B)two
C)four
D)eight

7 CORRECT The nasal cavities empty into the _________.
A)larynx
B)glottis
C)trachea
D)nasopharynx
E)epiglottis

The moist membranes of the respiratory tract are protected by
8 CORRECT
________.
A)a dry epidermal surface
B)cartilage rings
C)mucus and cilia
D)roving macrophages from the lymphatic system
E)acidic glands

9 CORRECT The ________ lead(s) from the nasopharynx to the middle ears.
A)larynx
B)glottis
C)trachea
D)epiglottis
E)auditory tubes

10 CORRECT The trachea lies behind or dorsal to the esophagus.
A)True
B)False

11 CORRECT The esophagus opens only during ________.
A)inhaling
B)exhaling
C)speaking
D)swallowing

12 CORRECT The epiglottis prevents food from entering the larynx.
A)True
B)False

13 CORRECT The ________ is the voice box.
A)larynx
B)glottis
C)trachea
D)epiglottis
E)eustachian or auditory tubes

14 CORRECT The ________ is held open by cartilaginous rings.
A)larynx
B)glottis
C)trachea
D)epiglottis
E)eustachian tubes

Inserting a tube by way of an incision made in the trachea is called
15 CORRECT
a ________.
A)tonsillectomy
B)hysterectomy
C)tracheostomy
D)lobotomy
E)appendectomy

16 CORRECT The trachea divides into two ________.
A)turbinates
B)nasal passages
C)subtrachea
D)bronchi
E)auditory or eustachian tubes

17 CORRECT The bronchi lead into the right and left ________.
A)larynx
B)glottis
C)trachea
D)lungs

18 CORRECT The bronchi branch into smaller passages called ________.
A)alveoli
B)bronchioles
C)microtrachea
D)bronchiettes

Each bronchiole terminates in a space enclosed by a multitude of
19 CORRECT
air pockets called ________.
A)alveoli
B)bronchioles
C)microtrachea
D)pleural membranes

20 CORRECT During an asthma attack the bronchioles dilate.
A)True
B)False

The right lung has ________ lobes and the left lung has ________
21 CORRECT
lobe(s).
A)two, one
B)two, three
C)three, two
D)four, three

22 CORRECT Each alveolar sac is surrounded by ________.
A)arteries
B)veins
C)capillaries
D)primarily lymphatic ducts

Vital capacity is the maximum volume of air that can be moved in
23 CORRECT
and out during a single breath.
A)True
B)False

24 CORRECT Respiration includes _____________.
A)breathing
B)external respiration
C)internal respiration
D)cellular respiration
E)all of the above

The amount of air moved in and out with each breath is called the
25 CORRECT
__________.
A)vital capacity
B)tidal volume
C)residual volume
D)dead space
E)ventilation rate

Air remaining in the lungs after very deep breathing is called the
26 CORRECT
________.
A)vital capacity
B)tidal volume
C)residual volume
D)dead space
E)ventilation rate

27 CORRECT Residual volume is vital in providing a reservoir for gas exchange.
A)True
B)False

The maximum volume of air that can be moved in and out during a
28 CORRECT
single breath is called the _________.
A)vital capacity
B)tidal volume
C)residual volume
D)dead space
E)ventilation rate

Most of the ribs are hinged to the vertebral column at the back and
29 CORRECT
to the ________ at the front.
A)ventricles
B)sternum
C)pleural membranes
D)diaphragm

30 CORRECT The ________ forms the floor of the thoracic cavity.
A)ventricle
B)sternum
C)pleural membrane
D)diaphragm

31 CORRECT The lungs are enclosed by the ________ .
A)alveolar integument
B)bronchiole membranes
C)pleural membranes
D)diaphragm
E)sternum

32 CORRECT In its relaxed state, the diaphragm is _____________.
A)horizontally flattened
B)vertically flattened
C)folded like a map
D)V-shaped like a set mousetrap
E)dome-shaped.

As the thoracic cavity increases in size, the lungs expand and air
33 CORRECT
rushes in.
A)True
B)False

34 CORRECT Inspiration is the passive phase of breathing.
A)True
B)False

35 CORRECT During inspiration the following occurs:
A)diaphragm muscles contract.
B)rib muscles contract.
C)the lungs expand and air rushes in.
D)all of the above.

36 CORRECT Humans breathe by negative pressure.
A)True
B)False

The diaphragm and external intercostal muscles are ________
37 CORRECT
when expiration occurs.
A)contracted
B)relaxed
C)flexed
D)both relaxed (diaphragm) and flexed (intercostal muscles)

38 CORRECT The respiratory center is located in the ________.
A)individual body muscles that use up oxygen
B)alveoli
C)medulla oblongata
D)diaphragmatic center
E)pleural center

The primary stimulus or stimuli for the respiratory center is/are
39 CORRECT
_________.
A)carbon dioxide and hydrogen ions
B)oxygen gas levels in the blood
C)oxygen gas levels in the hemoglobin
D)conscious feeling for the need for more oxygen

40 CORRECT The respiratory center is directly affected by low oxygen levels.
A)True
B)False

41 CORRECT Chemical receptors in carotid bodies respond to _____.
A)hydrogen ion concentration
B)levels of carbon dioxide in the blood
C)levels of oxygen in the blood
D)all of the above

When blood levels of carbon dioxide rise, the rate and depth of
42 CORRECT
breathing _________.
A)decreases
B)increases
C)stays the same
D)stops

The respiratory center sends out nerve impulses to the _________
43 CORRECT
.
A)control center in the brain
B)muscles of the body that regulate use of oxygen
C)diaphragm and rib cage
D)carotid and aortic bodies

During ________ respiration, the respiratory pigment hemoglobin
44 CORRECT
combines with oxygen in the lungs.
A)internal
B)external
C)aerobic cellular
D)circulatory

During internal respiration, hemoglobin gives up carbon dioxide to
45 CORRECT
the cells.
A)True
B)False

A small amount of hemoglobin aids in the transport of carbon
46 INCORRECT
dioxide from the tissue to the lungs.
A)True
B)False
Feedback: A small amount of hemoglobin aids in the

transport of carbon dioxide from the tissue to the lungs.
________ refers to the exchange of gases between blood in
47 CORRECT
systemic capillaries and tissue fluid.
A)Internal respiration
B)External respiration
C)Aerobic cellular respiration
D)Circulatory respiration

The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between alveolar air
48 CORRECT
and blood is governed by ________.
A)gravity
B)blood pressure
C)diffusion
D)active transport

Blood flowing into lung capillaries has a higher concentration of
49 CORRECT
_________ than atmospheric air.
A)oxygen
B)both carbon dioxide and oxygen
C)water
D)carbon dioxide

50 CORRECT Carbon dioxide diffuses out of blood into the alveoli.
A)True
B)False

Blood comes into the pulmonary capillaries as oxygenated and
51 CORRECT
alveolar air is deoxygenated.
A)True
B)False

Most of the carbon dioxide is being carried as ________ ions as
52 INCORRECT
blood enters the pulmonary capillaries.
A)deoxyhemoglobin
B)carbaminohemoglobin
C)bicarbonate
D)oxyhemoglobin
Feedback: Most of the carbon dioxide is being carried as

bicarbonate ions as blood enters the pulmonary capillaries.
53 CORRECT Hb is called reduced hemoglobin.
A)True
B)False

Hemoglobin retains oxygen and tends to release it in the
54 INCORRECT
________.
A)bloodstream
B)lungs
C)heart
D)tissues
Feedback: Hemoglobin retains oxygen and tends to release

it in the tissues.
Hemoglobin takes up oxygen more readily in the warm
55 INCORRECT
temperatures and acidic pH of the lungs.
A)True
B)False
Feedback: Hemoglobin takes up oxygen more readily in the

cooler temperatures and slightly more basic pH of the
lungs.
________ refers to the exchange of gases between air in the
56 INCORRECT
alveoli and blood in the pulmonary capillaries.
A)Internal respiration
B)External respiration
C)Aerobic cellular respiration
D)Circulatory respiration
Feedback: External respiration refers to the exchange of

gases between air in the alveoli and blood in the pulmonary
capillaries.
57 CORRECT During external respiration in the lungs ___________.
A)carbon dioxide leaves the blood
B)oxygen enters the blood
C)both carbon dioxide leaves the blood and oxygen enters the blood
D)both carbon dioxide enters the blood and oxygen leaves the blood

58 CORRECT Blood in systemic capillaries is bright red because ________.
A)red cells lack oxyhemoglobin
B)red cells contain oxyhemoglobin
C)red cells contain carbon dioxide
D)oxyhemoglobin in plasma is redder

59 CORRECT Oxygen diffuses out of blood into tissues because ___________.
A)oxygen concentration of tissue fluid is lower
B)carbon dioxide concentration of tissue fluid is lower
C)carbon dioxide concentration of tissue fluid is higher
D)the oxygen concentration of blood is lower

60 CORRECT Cells continuously use up oxygen in aerobic cellular respiration.
A)True
B)False

61 CORRECT ________ is formed when hemoglobin takes up carbon dioxide.
A)Deoxyhemoglobin
B)Carbaminohemoglobin
C)Sodium bicarbonate
D)Oxyhemoglobin

Most of the carbon dioxide combines with ________ forming
62 CORRECT
carbonic acid.
A)hemoglobin
B)oxygen
C)water
D)sodium bicarbonate

63 CORRECT Carbonic acid dissociates into ________.
A)carbon dioxide and water
B)bicarbonate and hydrogen ions
C)carbon and acid
D)sodium and bicarbonate salts

HHb occurs when the globin portion of hemoglobin combines with
64 CORRECT
excess ________ ions.
A)carbon dioxide
B)bicarbonate
C)hydrogen
D)sodium

65 CORRECT HHb is called ________ hemoglobin.
A)oxidized
B)hydrated
C)reduced
D)hyper

66 CORRECT Bicarbonate ions are carried mostly __________.
A)by red blood cell membranes
B)in the plasma
C)by white blood cells
D)by hemoglobin

Blood leaving the tissue capillaries is bright red because red blood
67 CORRECT
cells contain reduced hemoglobin.
A)True
B)False

Acute bronchitis usually is caused by a secondary bacterial
68 CORRECT
infection of the bronchi.
A)True
B)False

69 CORRECT Chronic bronchitis is caused by __________.
A)a bacterial infection
B)a viral infection
C)constant irritation of the lining of the bronchi

70 CORRECT Strep throat is a viral infection.
A)True
B)False

71 CORRECT Tuberculosis CANNOT be treated by antibiotics.
A)True
B)False

72 CORRECT Smoking destroys the cilia and is one cause of chronic bronchitis.
A)True
B)False

73 CORRECT Pneumonia is caused by ________.
A)bacteria
B)viruses
C)the protozoan Pneumocystis carinii in AIDS patients
D)all of the above can cause pneumonia

Pneumonia in AIDS patients who have a compromised immune
74 CORRECT
system is caused by a protozoan.
A)True
B)False

Tuberculosis causes the alveoli to burst and the alveoli are replaced
75 CORRECT
by connective tissue.
A)True
B)False

76 CORRECT Lack of oxygen to the brain can make the person feel ________.
A)sleepy
B)depressed, sluggish and irritable
C)hyperactive
D)like gasping for air

Inhaling particles such as silica, coal dust and asbestos can lead to
77 CORRECT
________.
A)pneumonia
B)tuberculosis
C)pulmonary fibrosis
D)all of the above

The event(s) involved in the formation of lung cancer is/are
78 CORRECT
_________.
A)callusing of cells lining the bronchi
B)loss of cilia
C)formation of cells with atypical nuclei
D)all of the above
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1 CORRECT Excretion rids the body of ________.
A)excess food
B)cellular metabolic wastes
C)nondigestible ingested material
D)all of the above

2 CORRECT The organ(s) of excretion is/are _______.
A)skin
B)lungs
C)liver
D)kidneys
E)all of the above

3 CORRECT Excretion refers to the elimination of feces from the body.
A)True
B)False

4 CORRECT ________ contain(s) nitrogen.
A)Amino acids
B)Nucleotides
C)Creatine phosphate
D)all of the above

5 CORRECT In humans, the liver _________.
A)removes carbon dioxide from the body
B)stores creatine phosphate
C)converts ammonia to urea
D)regulates the body temperature
E)all of the above are liver functions

________ is/are produced in the liver by a complicated series of
6 CORRECT
reactions.
A)Amino acids
B)Nucleotides
C)Creatine phosphate
D)Ammonia
E)Urea

Crystals of uric acid sometimes collect in the joints, producing a
7 CORRECT
painful ailment called gout.
A)True
B)False

8 CORRECT Creatinine is an end product of ________ metabolism.
A)lung
B)nucleotide
C)muscle
D)ammonia
E)anaerobic

9 CORRECT Kidney function(s) include ____________.
A)water and salt balance
B)removal of metabolic wastes
C)acid-base balance
D)hormone secretion
E)all of the above

10 CORRECT The urinary system consists of _____.
A)kidneys
B)ureters
C)urinary bladder
D)all of the above

The kidneys lie above the membranous lining of the abdominal
11 INCORRECT
cavity.
A)True
B)False
Feedback: The kidneys are embedded beneath the

peritoneum, the membranous lining of the abdominal
cavity.
The ________ are muscular tubes that convey the urine from the
12 CORRECT
kidneys to the bladder.
A)urethras
B)ureters
C)urinary bladders
D)nephrons

The ureters are muscular tubes that convey the urine from the
13 CORRECT
kidneys to the bladder by ________.
A)beating of cilia
B)active transport
C)peristalsis
D)hypotonic pressure

14 CORRECT The urinary bladder can hold up to 600 ml of urine.
A)True
B)False

There is a connection between the genital and urinary systems in
15 CORRECT
females.
A)True
B)False

Only the urinary system, consisting of the kidneys, the urinary
16 CORRECT
bladder, the ureters, and the urethra, ever holds urine.
A)True
B)False

On the concave side of each kidney there is a depression where
17 CORRECT
(the) ________ enter(s) or exits(s).
A)renal artery
B)ureter
C)renal vein
D)all of the above

18 CORRECT The kidney consists of ____________.
A)the renal cortex
B)the renal medulla
C)the renal pelvis
D)all of the above

The renal cortex contains cone-shaped tissue masses called renal
19 CORRECT
pyramids.
A)True
B)False

A kidney contains many collecting ducts, which enter the renal
20 CORRECT
________.
A)cortex
B)medulla
C)pelvis
D)loop of the nephron

Microscopically, the kidney is composed of over one million
21 CORRECT
nephrons.
A)True
B)False

22 CORRECT Nephrons are sometimes called __________.
A)convoluted tubules
B)renal or kidney tubules
C)loops of the nephron
D)glomerular capsules

Each nephron in the kidney is made up of several parts, including
23 CORRECT
____________.
A)glomerular capsule
B)the proximal convoluted tubule
C)the distal convoluted tubule
D)the loop of the nephron
E)all of the above

The glomerular capsule and the convoluted tubule lie outside the
24 CORRECT
renal cortex.
A)True
B)False

25 CORRECT The ________ is a capillary knot inside the glomerular capsule.
A)proximal convoluted tubule
B)peritubular capillary
C)loop of the nephron
D)glomerulus
E)distal convoluted tubule

26 CORRECT The peritubular capillary surrounds most of the nephron.
A)True
B)False

27 CORRECT Urine formation consists of ___________.
A)glomerular filtration
B)tubular reabsorption
C)tubular secretion
D)all of the above

The pattern of blood flow about the nephron is critical to urine
28 CORRECT
formation.
A)True
B)False

The filterable components of the blood that move across from the
29 CORRECT
glomerulus are________.
A)water, nitrogenous wastes, nutrients, and salts
B)blood cells and platelets and proteins
C)albumin, fats and other proteins
D)mainly blood cells

30 CORRECT The filterable components form ________.
A)the glomerular filtrate
B)tubular secretions
C)large molecular complexes
D)bile salts

31 CORRECT The nonfilterable components stay inside the glomerular capsule.
A)True
B)False

The cells lining the proximal convoluted tubule are anatomically
32 CORRECT
adapted for ________ reabsorption.
A)passive
B)active
C)both active and passive
D)no

Reabsorption is called ________ reabsorption because only
33 CORRECT
molecules recognized by carrier molecules are actively reabsorbed.
A)general
B)indiscriminate
C)selective
D)reverse

34 CORRECT The loop of the nephron is made up of ________ limb(s).
A)a descending
B)an ascending
C)both ascending and descending
D)convoluted

Water cannot leave the ascending limb of the loop of the nephron
35 CORRECT
because the limb is impermeable to water.
A)True
B)False

Drinking alcohol causes diuresis because it inhibits the secretion of
36 CORRECT
________.
A)ANH
B)ADH
C)angiotensin
D)cortisone
E)aldosterone

________ is a hormone that primarily maintains sodium ion
37 CORRECT
balance.
A)ANH
B)ADH
C)Angiotensin
D)Cortisone
E)Aldosterone

38 CORRECT The juxtaglomerular apparatus secretes renin.
A)True
B)False

39 CORRECT If the kidneys fail to function, _________.
A)other organs can carry on all the excretion functions for some time
B)renal failure becomes a life-threatening event
C)they rapidly regenerate their nephrons
D)
cells store their own metabolic wastes until the kidneys
function again
40 CORRECT Infection of the bladder is called ________.
A)pyelonephritis
B)urethritis
C)cystitis
D)hemodialysis

The accumulation of waste substances in the blood is called
41 CORRECT
________.
A)pyelonephritis
B)urethritis
C)cystitis
D)hemodialysis
E)uremia

42 CORRECT Modern hemodialysis involves ___________.
A)an all day process twice a week
B)
a anticoagulant to prevent the blood from coagulating inside
the machine
C)
a complex nutrient solution with substances to be added to
the blood
D)methods to allow regular hookup to the patient's bloodstream
E)regular blood transfusions from healthy donors

43 CORRECT Continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis involves ___________.
A)being confined to a hemodialysis machine several times a week
B)
a anticoagulant to prevent the blood from coagulating inside
the machine
C)an ambulance crew to administer the dialysis
D)methods to allow regular hookup to the patient's bloodstream
E)
placing the dialyzing fluid inside the peritoneal cavity to
operate during normal activity
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49 correct (61%)
Chapter 21
Flashcards
1 CORRECT The testes lie within the __________.
A)urinary bladder
B)erectile tissue
C)scrotum
D)prostate gland
E)ejaculatory duct

2 INCORRECT The testes first begin to develop in the abdominal cavity.
A)True
B)False
Feedback: The testes first begin to develop in the abdominal

cavity.
3 INCORRECT Normal sperm production is highest at regular body temperature.
A)True
B)False
Feedback: Normal sperm production must occur several

degrees below regular body temperature.
4 CORRECT Sperm mature within the epididymis.
A)True
B)False

5 CORRECT An erection of the penis is caused by __________.
A)semen pressure from the testes and vas deferens
B)muscle flexion of the penile muscles
C)increased secretions of lymph into the spongy tissue
D)
an increase in arterial blood flow to the penis and
compression of the veins
E)ejaculatory muscles

When the penis fails to become erect, this condition is called
6 INCORRECT
__________.
A)a hernia
B)infertility
C)impotency
D)cryptorchidism
E)orgasm
Feedback: When the penis fails to become erect, this

condition is called impotency. Cryptorchidism is the
situation caused when the testes fail to descend and are
"hidden."
7 INCORRECT The vas deferens ____________.
A)empties into the urinary bladder
B)bypasses the urethra to directly fuse with the ureters
C)joins to become the ejaculatory duct that enters the urethra
D)fuses with the prostate gland which bathes the sperm in milky fluid
E)extends all the way to the tip of the penis
Feedback: The vas deferens joins to become the ejaculatory

duct that enters the urethra.
_________ type(s) of accessory gland(s) add(s) secretions to
8 CORRECT
seminal fluid.
A)one
B)two
C)three
D)four
E)five

9 CORRECT Seminal fluid is composed of ____________.
A)sperm
B)prostate gland secretions
C)seminal vesicle secretions
D)bulbourethral gland secretions
E)all of the above

Following ejaculation, a male may typically experience a period of
10 INCORRECT time, called ________, during which stimulation does not bring
about an erection.
A)orgasm
B)post-ejaculatory trauma syndrome
C)a refractory period
D)spermatogenesis time
E)the plateau phase
Feedback: Following ejaculation, a male may typically

experience a period of time, called a refractory period,
during which stimulation does not bring about an erection.
11 CORRECT Each lobule of a testis contains one to three coiled ___________.
A)sperm
B)prostate glands
C)seminal vesicles
D)bulbourethral glands
E)seminiferous tubules

In the testes are __________ which support, nourish, and regulate
12 CORRECT
the spermatogenic cells of the seminiferous tubules.
A)sperm
B)prostate glands
C)seminal vesicles
D)bulbourethral glands
E)sustentacular (Sertoli) cells

13 CORRECT Spermatogenesis occurs in the seminiferous tubules.
A)True
B)False

14 CORRECT The sperm's nucleus is in the _________.
A)head
B)middle piece
C)tail
D)whole sperm, distributed evenly

15 CORRECT The acrosome contains ___________.
A)a haploid set of chromosomes
B)enzymes allowing the sperm to penetrate the egg
C)mitochondria wrapped around microtubules to provide movement
D)interstitial cell-stimulating hormone
E)testosterone

16 CORRECT The middle piece of a sperm ___________.
A)carry the food necessary to nourish the head of the sperm
B)carry the enzymes necessary to penetrate the egg's outer layers
C)
contain mitochondria that provide energy to propel the
flagellum tail
D)secrete testosterone
E)do all of the above

17 CORRECT The interstitial cells produce __________.
A)GnRH or gonadotropic-releasing hormone
B)estrogens
C)testosterone
D)sperm
E)all of the above

The hypothalamus has ultimate control of the testes' sexual
18 INCORRECT
functions.
A)True
B)False
Feedback: The hypothalamus has ultimate control of the

testes' sexual functions.
19 INCORRECT Gonadotropic hormones are released by the ___________.
A)hypothalamus
B)anterior pituitary
C)interstitial cells
D)ovaries
E)thyroid
Feedback: Gonadotropic hormones are released by the

anterior pituitary.
20 INCORRECT There are two gonadotropic hormones: ______________.
A)testosterone and estrogen
B)FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone) and LH (luteinizing hormone)
C)
ICSH (interstitial cell-stimulating hormone) and ECSH
(extrastitial cell-stimulating hormone)
D)GnRH and anti-GnRH
Feedback: There are two gonadotropic hormones: FSH

(follicle-stimulating hormone) and LH (luteinizing
hormone).
21 CORRECT FSH and LH occur ____________.
A)only in females
B)only in males
C)in both males and females
D)only in males, and females after menopause

22 INCORRECT FSH promotes production of testosterone.
A)True
B)False
Feedback: FSH promotes production of sperm in

seminiferous tubules.
23 CORRECT Testosterone ______________.
A)stimulates growth of male genitalia
B)is needed for sperm maturation
C)is needed for development of secondary sex characteristics
D)causes greater muscle development
E)includes all of the above characteristics

24 CORRECT The ovaries lie in the __________ cavity.
A)upper abdominal
B)lower thoracic
C)upper pelvic
D)external scrotal
E)scrotal

25 CORRECT The oviducts totally enclose the ovaries.
A)True
B)False

The external genitals of the female are known collectively as the
26 CORRECT
__________.
A)mons pubis
B)labia
C)vagina
D)vulva
E)ectometrium

27 CORRECT The clitoris is especially sensitive for initiating sexual sensations.
A)True
B)False

28 CORRECT Each follicle contains an immature egg.
A)True
B)False

29 CORRECT A human female is born with as many as two million follicles.
A)True
B)False

As the follicle undergoes maturation, it develops from a primary
30 CORRECT
follicle to a secondary follicle to a/an ______ follicle.
A)tertiary
B)oocyte
C)terminal
D)Graafian

31 INCORRECT The rupturing of the follicle is referred to as __________.
A)Graafian termination
B)endometriosis
C)oogenesis
D)menstruation
E)ovulation
Feedback: The rupturing of the follicle is referred to as

ovulation.
32 CORRECT After the egg leaves the ovary, it goes to the ___________.
A)oviducts
B)uterus
C)vagina
D)vulva

Once a follicle has lost its egg, it develops into a corpus luteum,
33 INCORRECT
which _________.
A)develops into the endometrium
B)triggers menstruation
C)develops more eggs
D)
secretes the hormone progesterone, which maintains the
uterine lining
E)triggers ovulation
Feedback: Once a follicle has lost its egg, it develops into a

corpus luteum, which secretes the hormone progesterone to
maintain the uterine lining.
The follicle and the corpus luteum secrete the female sex
34 INCORRECT
hormones.
A)True
B)False
Feedback: The follicle and the corpus luteum secrete the

female sex hormones. follicle and the corpus luteum secrete
the female sex hormones.
35 CORRECT Fertilization normally occurs in the __________.
A)uterus
B)vagina
C)ovary follicle
D)cervix
E)oviduct

36 CORRECT The inner lining of the uterus is called the ___________.
A)endometrium
B)vagina
C)oviduct
D)cervix
E)fimbriae

37 CORRECT The endometrium participates in the formation of the placenta.
A)True
B)False

38 INCORRECT The hypothalamus secretes _________.
A)FSH
B)LH
C)gonadotropic-releasing hormone (GnRH)
D)all of the above
Feedback: The hypothalamus secretes gonadotropic-

releasing hormone (GnRH).
___________ is mainly responsible for secondary sex
39 CORRECT
characteristics and egg maturation.
A)Estrogen
B)Progesterone
C)Testosterone
D)Prolactin
E)Oxytocin

40 INCORRECT The end of the __________ is marked by ovulation.
A)fertile phase
B)menstruation
C)proliferative phase
D)secretory phase
E)intercourse
Feedback: The end of the proliferative phase is marked by

ovulation.
During the last half of the ovarian cycle, the corpus luteum
41 INCORRECT
secretes progesterone.
A)True
B)False
Feedback: During the last half of the ovarian cycle, the

corpus luteum secretes progesterone.
42 CORRECT As the luteal phase ends, menstruation occurs.
A)True
B)False

During days 1-5 of the uterine cycle, there is a high level of female
43 CORRECT
sex hormones in the body.
A)True
B)False

During days 6-13 of the uterine cycle, increased ______
44 INCORRECT production causes the endometrium to thicken and become
vascular and glandular.
A)estrogen
B)progesterone
C)testosterone
D)prolactin
E)oxytocin
Feedback: During days 6-13 of the uterine cycle, increased

estrogen production causes the endometrium to thicken and
become vascular and glandular.
During days 15-28 of the uterine cycle, increased production of
45 CORRECT
progesterone causes the endometrium to double in thickness.
A)True
B)False

During the _________ phase of the uterine cycle, the
46 INCORRECT
endometrium is prepared to receive the developing embryo.
A)ovulation
B)menstrual
C)proliferative
D)secretory
Feedback: During the secretory phase of the uterine cycle,

the endometrium is prepared to receive the developing
embryo.
HCG (human chorionic gonadotropin) maintains the corpus luteum
47 CORRECT until the placenta begins its own production of progesterone and
estrogen.
A)True
B)False

48 INCORRECT The placenta originates only from the maternal endometrium.
A)True
B)False
Feedback: The placenta originates from both maternal

endometrium and fetal tissues.
49 INCORRECT Maternal and fetal blood freely mix in the placenta.
A)True
B)False
Feedback: Maternal and fetal blood do not freely mix in the

placenta.
50 INCORRECT The placenta produces _________.
A)HCG
B)progesterone and estrogen
C)anti-estrogen hormones to shut off the uterine cycle
D)fetal blood cells
E)
pro-menstruation hormones to prepare for shedding of the
afterbirth
Feedback: The placenta produces progesterone and
estrogen.
______ is the phase in a woman's life during which the ovarian
51 CORRECT
and uterine cycles cease.
A)Menopause
B)Menstruation
C)Ovulation
D)Puberty

52 CORRECT A vasectomy has an effectiveness rate of almost 100%.
A)True
B)False

The use of a male condom is as effective as oral contraceptives for
53 INCORRECT
birth control.
A)True
B)False
Feedback: Condom use is about 85% effective while oral

contraceptives are almost 100% if taken correctly.
54 CORRECT An IUD is inserted into the ___________.
A)ovaries
B)vagina
C)oviducts
D)uterus
E)breast tissue

After menopause the anterior pituitary no longer produces FSH and
55 CORRECT
LH.
A)True
B)False

56 INCORRECT The __________ fits over the cervix.
A)male condom
B)intrauterine device
C)douche
D)diaphragm
E)tubal ligation
Feedback: The diaphragm fits over the cervix.

The birth control pill works by using estrogen and progesterone
57 CORRECT levels to shut down the pituitary production of both FSH and LH so
that no follicles begin to develop.
A)True
B)False

58 CORRECT "Morning-after" pills work to prevent ovulation.
A)True
B)False

RU-486 (mifepristone) blocks the _________ receptors in the
59 INCORRECT
uterine lining.
A)estrogen
B)oxytocin
C)prolactin
D)progesterone
E)testosterone
Feedback: RU-486 (mifepristone) blocks the progesterone

receptors in the uterine lining.
RU-486, taken in conjunction with a prostaglandin, induces uterine
60 INCORRECT
contractions.
A)True
B)False
Feedback: RU-486, taken in conjunction with a

prostaglandin, induces uterine contractions.
When a couple cannot have any children they are termed
61 INCORRECT
_______.
A)infertile
B)sterile
C)impotent
D)incontinent
E)non-conceptive
Feedback: When a couple cannot have any children they are

termed sterile.
The two major causes of infertility in females are blocked oviducts
62 CORRECT
and failure to ovulate due to low body weight.
A)True
B)False

63 CORRECT Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) may cause ____________.
A)endometriosis
B)blocked oviducts
C)multiple pregnancies
D)overstimulation
E)syphilis

Treatment of infertility with HCG and gonadotropins can sometimes
64 CORRECT
result in multiple pregnancies.
A)True
B)False

The most frequent cause(s) of infertility in males is low sperm
65 CORRECT
count and/or a large proportion of abnormal sperm.
A)True
B)False

With gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT), only the sperm are
66 INCORRECT
placed into the oviducts.
A)True
B)False
Feedback: With gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT), a

fertilized egg is immediately placed back into the oviducts
in one procedure.
A/An _________ mother is a woman who has a baby for someone
67 CORRECT
else.
A)adoptive
B)artificial
C)surrogate
D)donor

68 CORRECT Viral sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) include ___________.
A)AIDS
B)genital herpes
C)genital warts
D)hepatitis
E)all of the above

69 CORRECT Viral diseases are easy to treat with standard antibiotics.
A)True
B)False

70 CORRECT The stages of an HIV infection include __________.
A)infective and non-infective
B)fatal and benign
C)opportunistic and casual
D)all of the above
E)Category A, B and C that increase in severity

Opportunistic infection(s) that occur(s) primarily in AIDS patients
71 INCORRECT
with weakened immune systems include(s):___________.
A)
Kaposi's sarcoma, Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia,
tuberculosis and cervical cancer
B)genital herpes types 1 and 2
C)gonorrhea and syphilis
D)pelvic inflammatory disease
E)all of the above
Feedback: Opportunistic infections that occur primarily in

AIDS patients with weakened immune systems include
Kaposi's sarcoma, Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia,
tuberculosis and cervical cancer.
AIDS treatments and experimental treatments include
72 CORRECT
_____________.
A)
proteinase inhibitors that block the action of another viral
enzyme called proteinase.
B)
nucleotide analogs such as AZT that reverse transcriptase
selects instead of a normal nucleotide
C)vaccines made from weakened viruses
D)vaccines made from virus segments
E)all of the above

Due to the upsurge in AIDS cases, genital herpes is has become a
73 CORRECT
fairly rare STD today.
A)True
B)False

74 INCORRECT Genital warts are caused ____________.
A)as a surface infection by the HIV retrovirus
B)by the human papillomaviruses
C)by Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D)by Chlamydia trachomatis
E)by Treponema pallidum
Feedback: Genital warts are caused by the human

papillomaviruses.
75 CORRECT Gonorrhea is caused _____________.
A)as a surface infection by the HIV retrovirus
B)by the human papillomaviruses
C)by Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D)by Chlamydia trachomatis
E)by Treponema pallidum

New infections by _______ are higher than any other sexually
76 INCORRECT
transmitted disease.
A)the HIV retrovirus
B)human papillomaviruses
C)Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D)Chlamydia trachomatis
E)Treponema pallidum
Feedback: New infections by Chlamydia trachomatis are

higher than any other sexually transmitted disease.
A newborn exposed to syphilitic bacteria during delivery may suffer
77 INCORRECT
from ___________.
A)inflammation of the eyes or pneumonia
B)herpes complex
C)Candida albicans fungus infection
D)blindness or numerous anatomical malformations
Feedback: A newborn exposed to syphilitic bacteria during

delivery may suffer from blindness or numerous anatomical
malformations.
78 INCORRECT The stages of syphilis are _____________.
A)infectious and noninfectious stages
B)internal and external stages
C)primary, secondary, and tertiary stages
D)pre-syphilis and full-blown syphilis
Feedback: The stages of syphilis are primary, secondary,

and tertiary stages.
Secondary sexual characteristics, such as the beard of a male, are
79 CORRECT
probably controlled by the balance of hormones.
A)True
B)False

Baldness is believed to be caused by the male sex hormone
80 CORRECT
______.
A)estrogen
B)insulin
C)steroid
D)testosterone
E)aldosterone
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