DEPARTMENT OF ARCHITECTURE

MEENAKSHI COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING

BUILDING SERVICES -2

MCQ

1. What is the formula to determine Ohms law?

A) I = V/R

B) V = I X R

C) I = V X R

D) Both A&B

2. What is the Domestic voltage in India?

A) 420

B) 110

C) 230

D) 140

3. How many wire does a three phase wiring system consist of ?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

4. Use of ______ for insulation and sheating is preferred as it gives smoother and neater
cables.

A) Plastic

B) Wood

C) PVC

D) UPVC

5. Which type of earthing reduces interference and maintains supply voltage ?

A) Equipment Earth
B) Lighting Earth

C) Telecom Earth

D) Computer Earth

6. Among the benefits likely to arise from energy efficiency investments in buildings,
which of the following options is incorrect ?

A) Reduced electricity use for lighting, office machinery and domestic type appliances.

B) Enhanced property value.

C) Cheaper installation cost.

D) Low maintainance requirements.

7. Among these which is not a source of renewable energy.

A) Solar energy.

B) Nuclear energy.

C) Wind energy.

D) Hydro power.

8. Which is the widely used material in wiring ?

A) Aluminium.

B) Copper.

C) Stainless steel.

D) Mild steel.

9. The sum of currents entering any point in a circuit is equal to the sum of currents
leaving that point is ________ law.

A) Ohms law

B) Kirchoffs current law

C) Thevinins theorm

D) Junction rule

10. ___________is the unit for measuring electricity.

A) Amp

B) Volt
C) Watt

D) Kelvin

11. The three phase supply carries the voltage up to _____.

A) 230V

B) 240V

C) 415V

D) 440V

12. The Substations are mainly used to convert _______.

A) Direct Current to Alternating Current.

B) Alternating Current to Direct Current.

C) Transmitting current

D) Blocking current

13. Is the reserved generating capacity available for service under emergency conditions
which is not kept in operation but in working order,

(A) Hot reserve

(B) Cold reserve
(C) Spinning reserve
(D) Firm power
14. Out of the following which one is not a unconventional source of energy ?
(A) Tidal power
(B) Geothermal energy
(C) Nuclear energy
(D) Wind power.

15.Which of the following generation station has minimum running cost?

a) Thermal power station

b) Hydro-electric power station
c) Nuclear power station
d) None of these
16. Which of the following method of generating electric power from sea water is
more advantageous?

a) Wave power
b) Ocean Currents
c) Tidal power
d) None of these

17. The EHV(extra high voltage) system in one operating beyond

a) 11 kV
b) 132 kV
c) 200 kV
d) 400 kV

18.The principal type of failure in wind power generation is in

a) Aerodynamic system
b) Electrical system
c) Mechanical system
d) Both (b) and (c) above

19.The magnitude of power constant in wind mill depends on

a) Shape of rotor blades

b) Wind velocity
c) Orientation of rotor blades
d) Both (a) and (b) above

20. Wind energy

a) Is clean, almost free and domestically produced

b) Has higher cost comparatively
c) Develops power proportional to the power of the wind
d) All of these

21. For high voltage transmission lines, why are conductors suspended from towers?
a. Increase the clearance from ground.
b. Reduce clearance from ground.
c. Take care of increase in length.
d. Reduce the environmental effects.

22. In India, which types of poles are commonly used for distribution?
a. Wooden poles
b. RCC poles
c. Steel poles
d. Both (b) and (c)

23. Which among these are the properties for the line supports?
a. Higher mechanical strength
b. Light in weight
c. Easy accessibility of conductors for maintenance
d. All of these

24. What is the maximum permissible limit of voltage for the line supports?
a. 30 kV
b. 20 kV
c. 11 kV
d. 44 kV

25. To prevent rotting oil the wooden poles which oil is impregnated to it?
a. Kerosene oil
b. Mineral oil
c. Creosote oil
d. All of these

26. Steel poles are painted so as to prevent it from ____________.

a. Corrosion
b. Borer
c. Termites
d. All of these

27. Which among these is not a type of steel poles?

a. Rail poles
b.Tubular poles
c. Rolled steel joints
d. None of these

28. What is the usual span of the RCC poles?

a. 250 – 400 m.
b. 80 – 150 m.
c. 50 – 105 m.
d. 10 – 75 m.

29) What is the minimum clearance of HV(high-voltage) lines from ground across
the streets?
a. 3 m.
b. 6 m.
c. 5 m.
d. 8 m.

30) What is the minimum horizontal clearance of a LV(low-voltage) line from a

residential building?
a. 0.6 m.
b. 0.9 m.
c. 1.2 m.
d. 1.6 m.

31.The ability of organisms to produce light is called as

A) Luminescence

B) Monoluminescence

C) Bioluminescence

D) Trioluminescence

32.The unit of light intensity is

A) Lumen

B) Lux

C) Candela

D) Candela/metre square

33. What are the directions where it is difficult to control glare and get consistent
daylight ?

A) East and West

B) North and South

C) West and North

D) East and south

34. What is the full form for IRC ?

A) Internally Reflected Component.

B) Integrated Reflecting Component.

C) International Reference Council.

D) Integrated Refraction Component.

35. Which one of these is not a design variable IRC

A) Size of the room.

B) Reflectance of indoor surfaces.

C) Source of light.

D) The ratio of wall

36. Which rays have shortest wavelength in Electromagnetic spectrum ?

A) Gamma Rays.

B) Infrared Rays.

C) X-Rays.

D) Microwaves

37. The type of lighting used to create interest on a particular object is called as

A) Diffuse lighting.

B) Specific lighting.

C) Task Lighting.

D) Accent Lighting.

38. What is the wavelength of visible light ?

A) 0.4 - 0.5 micrometer
B) 0.4 - 0.6 micrometer
C) 0.4 - 0.7 micrometer
D) 0.4 - 0.8 micrometer
39. The things which give off light are called

a) light sources
b) stores of light
c) lamps
d) solar energy

40. Mirror and diamond are considered

a) light sources
b) not as light sources
c) primary source of light
d) light generators

41. Man-made sources of light includes

e) oil lamp
f) burning wood
g) fireworks
h) all of them

42. Energy savers such as florescent bulbs require less energy than a

i) filament bulb
j) zero bulb
k) sparkler
l) oil lamp

43. There are sources of light which run on electricity they include

a) traffic light
b) sunlight
c) fire
d) Lightning

44. Radiant efficiency of the luminous source depends on

(A) shape of the source
(B) temperature of the source
(C) wavelength of light rays
(D) all of the above.
45. Light waves travel with a velocity of
(A) 3 x 10 to the power of 10cm/s
(B) 3 x 10 to the power of 12cm/s
(C) 3 x 10 to the power of 15 cm/s
(D) 3 x 10 to the power of 18 cm/s.

46. Carbon arc lamps are commonly used in

(A) domestic lighting
(B) street lighting
(C) cinema projectors
(D) photography.

47. The unit of solid angle is

(A) solid angle
(B) radian
(C) steradian
(D) candela.

48. Candela is the unit of

(A) Luminous flux
(B) Luminous intensity
(C) Wavelength
(D) None of the above.

49. The unit of luminous flux is

(A) steradian
(B) candela
(C) lumen
(D) lux.

50. The illumination is directly proportional to the cosine of the angle made by the
normal to the illuminated surface with the direction of the incident flux. Above
statement is associated with
(A) Planck's law
(B) Macbeth's law of illumination
(C) Bunsen's law of illumination
(D) Lambert's cosine law.

51. Illumination level required for precision work is around

(A) 50 lm/m2
(B) 100 lm/m2
(C) 200 lm/m2
(D) 500 lm/m2.

52. Which of the following will need the highest level of illumination ?
(A) Proof reading
(B) Bed rooms
(C) Hospital wards
(D) Railway platforms.

53. Which of the following will need lowest level of illumination ?

(A) Displays
(B) Fine engraving
(C) Railway platform
(D) Auditoriums.

54. Which of the following lamp gives nearly monochromatic light ?

(A) Sodium vapor lamp
(B) GLS lamp
(C) Tube light
(D) Mercury vapor lamp.

55. The illumination level in houses is in the range

(A) 10-20 lumen/m2
(B) 30 - 50 lumen/m2
(C) 40-75 lumen/m2
(D) 100-140 lumen/m2.

57. Luminous efficiency of a fluorescent tube is

(A) 5- 10 lumens/watt
(B) 15-20 lumens/watt
(C) 30 - 40 lumens/watt
(D) 60 - 65 lumens/watt.

56. One lumen per square meter is the same as

(A) One lux
(B) One candela
(C) One foot candle
(D) One lumen meter.

57. Inexhaustible energy sources are known as

a) commercial Energy
b) renewable Energy
c) primary energy
d) secondary energy
58. “The judicious and effective use of energy to maximise profits and enhance
competitive positions”. This can be the definition of:
a) Energy conservation
b) Energy management
c) Energy policy
d) Energy Audit
59. The objective of energy management includes
a) Minimising energy costs
b) Minimising waste
c) Minimising environmental degradation
d) All the above
60. One unit of electricity is equivalent to kcal heat units.
a) 800
b) 860
c) 400
d) 680
61. The outdoor light level is approximately ______ lux on a clear day.

A) 1000
B) 10000

C) 100000

D) 1000000

62. What is the illuminance level for classrooms?

A) 250 lumen/metre square.

B) 300 lumen/metre square.

C) 500 lumen/metre square.

D) 750 lumen/metre square.

63. Illumination, I = Ll Cu LLF / Al, in this what does LLF mean..

A) Light Luminance Factor.

B) Light Less Factor.

C) Light Loss Factor.

D) Luminance loss faction.

64. __________ is the ratio of effective luminous flux to the total luminous flux of light
sources.

A) Maintainance Factor.

B) Room Reflections.

C) Utilization Factor.

D) Lumen Factor.

65. Radioactive Flux Transfer is as called as _________.

A) Radiosity

B) Radioactivity

C) Radio Flux

D) Radio Flexibility

66. What is the formula for Room Index ?

A) RI = L X B / Hwc (L + B)
B) RI = W X B / Hwc (L + B)

C) RI = L X B / Hwc (W + B)

D) RI = L X I / Hwc (L + I)

67. Illuminance is measured in

A) Lumens.

B) Lux.

C) Luminous Intensity

D) Both B & C.

68. Which is not the factor that affect the effectiveness of illumination are

A) Quantity and quality of light.

B) Amount of Flicker.

C) Material of the object on which light is incident.

D) Amount of glare.

69. A rock concert can be about..

A) 85 decibels.

B) 100 decibels.

C) 120 decibels.

D) 160 decibels.

70. Among the following where acoustics of multipurpose is not applicable..

A) Multipurpose hall.

B) Opera house.

C) Theatre
D) School prayer Grounds.

71. What is the recommended NC level / Noice Criteria Curves Restaurants ?

A) 25 - 35

B) 30 - 35

C) 35 - 40

D) 40 - 45

72. When the Noice Reduction Coefficient (NRC) value is 1, then it indicates

A) Perfect Reflection.

B) Perfect Refraction.

C) Perfect Absorption.

D) Imperfect Reflection.

73. When the surface is topped with hard-wood flooring what is the value of Impact
Insulation Class (IIC) ?

A) 30 - 35.

B) 35 - 40.

C) 40 - 45.

D) 45 - 50.

74. What is the custom panel size of Acoustic - bourd ?

A) 2feet X 4feet.

B) 4feet X 8feet.

C) 4feet X 12feet
D) Both A & B.

75. What is the formula for Absorption Coefficient α ?

A) α = 1

B) α = IR/II

C) α = 1 - IR/II

D) α = 1 - II/IR

76. What is the Permissible noise level standards in daytime for Industrial Zone ?

A) 55 dB

B) 65 dB

C) 75 dB

D) 85 dB

77. Among this which is not a process of Structure Borne noise.

A) Generation

B) Absorption

C) Transmission

D) Radiation

78. Classrooms should have a Reverberation time of …

A) 0.3 - 0.4 seconds

B) 0.3 - 0.6 seconds

C) 0.4 - 0.6 seconds

D) 0.4 - 0.8 seconds

79. Among this which is the most preferred Architectural Acoustic Shape.

A) Sphere

B) Cube

C) Dome

D) Pentagon

80. In case for Conference Rooms and according to Acoustic considerations the
reverberation time is..

A) 0.5 - 0.6 sec

B) 0.6 - 0.7 sec

C) 0.7 - 0.8 sec

D) 0.8 - 0.9 sec

81. What is the full form of EDT ?

A) Easy Decay Time

B) Early Decay Time

C) Energy Decay Time

D) Energy Development time

82. Sound is created when something ______.

A) Reflects

B) Collide

C) Vibrates

D) Resonates
83. The range of frequencies that could be considered for Acoustical Design of
Recording Studio is

A) 63Hz - 5000Hz

B) 63Hz - 6000Hz

C) 63Hz - 7000Hz

D) 63Hz - 8000Hz

84. The mechanical systems supporting general purpose classrooms should generate a
background noice of not more than..

A) NC 35

B) NC 45

C) NC 55

D) NC 65

85. An instrument designed to measure a frequency-weighted value of the sound

pressure level.

a. Sound-level meter

b. Transducer

c. Sound pressure meter

d. Sound analyzer

86. The frequency of free vibration

a. Resonant frequency

b. Natural frequency

c. Center frequency

d. Normal frequency
87. The transmission of sound from one room to an adjacent room, via common walls,
floors or ceilings.

a. Flanking transmission

b. Refraction

c. Reflection

d. Reverberation

88. Speaker is a device that

a. Converts sound waves into current and voltage

b. Converts current variations into sound waves

c. Converts electrical energy to mechanical energy

d. Converts electrical energy to electromagnetic energy

89. Noise reduction system used for film sound in movie.

a. Dolby

b. dBa

c. dBx

d. dBk

90. What is the sound energy per unit area at right angles to the propagation direction per unit
time?

a. Loudness

b. Coherence

c. Sound pressure

d. Sound intensity
91. Sound wave has two main characteristics which are

a. Highness and loudness

b. Tone and loudness

c. Pitch and loudness

d. Rarefraction and compression

92. Speed that is faster than speed of sound.

a. Ultrasonic

b. Supersonic

c. Subsonic

d. Transonic

93. Tendency of a sound energy to spread.

a. Diffraction

b. Rarefraction

c. Reflection

d. Refraction

94 When waves bend away from straight lines of travel, it is called _________.

a. Reflection

b. Diffraction

c. Rarefraction

d. Refraction

95. Required time for any sound to decay to 60 dB.

a. Echo time

b. Delay time

c. Reverberation time

d. Transient time

96. The intensity needed to produce an audible sound varies with __________.

a. Frequency

b. Noise

c. Amplitude

d. Tone

97. Sound that vibrates too high for the human ear to hear (over 20 kHz).

a. Subsonic

b. Transonic

c. Ultrasonic

d. Stereo

98 What is the audio frequency range?

a. 20 kHz to 20 MHz

b. 0 Hz to 20 kHz

c. 300 Hz to 400 Hz

d. 20 Hz to 20 kHz

99. What is the bass frequency range?

a. 2500 Hz to 5000 Hz

b. 5000 Hz to 10 kHz

c. 40 kHz to 160 kHz

d. 10 Hz to 20 kHz

100. High frequency range of audio signals.

a. 2500 Hz to 5000 Hz

b. 5000 Hz to 10 kHz

c. 10 kHz to 20 kHz

d. 20000 Hz to 30 kHz