Test ID : 165

GREEN PARK INTERNATIONAL SENIOR SECONDARY SCHOOL, NAMAKKAL

HALF TEST - 1 A
Std : XII (CBSE) Marks : 720
Date : 11.11.2022 ZOOLOGY Time : 2.30 Hrs.
Human reproduction, Reproductive health, Genetics, Evolution
Choose the correct answer : 180 x 4 = 720
Note :
For every correct answer four marks will be awarded. For every wrong answer one mark
will be reduced. For unanswered questions zero mark.
1. The seminiferous tubules open into 6. Which of the following are haploid cells?
1) rete testis 2) vasa efferentia a) Secondary oocyte
3) vas deferens 4) epididymis b) Secondary spermatocyte
2. Vasa efferentia leave the A and open into c) Spermatozoa
B. d) Spermatids
1) A. Vas deferens, B. Rete testis 1) a and d only 2) b and c only
2) A. Rete testis, B. Vas deferens 3) a, c and d only 4) a, b, c and d
3) A. Testis, B. Epididymis 7. Number of sperms formed from 8 primary
4) A. Epididymis, B. Seminiferous tubules spermatocytes.
3. Urethral meatus is the external opening of 1) 16 2) 32
1) urinary bladder 2) urethra 3) 8 4) 24
3) penis 4) testis 8. Each seminiferous tubule is lined on its inside by
4. Assertion (A): The testes are present outside 1) spermatogonia 2) spermatocytes
the abdominal cavity in a pouch called 3) sertoli cells 4) both 1 and 3
scrotum. 9. The process of transformation of spermatids
Reason (R): Scrotum can store large amount into spermatozoa is called
of sperms. 1) spermiogenesis 2) spermatogenesis
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 3) spermatolysis 4) spermiation
explanation of A 10. For normal fertility, the ejaculate during coitus
2) Both A and R are true and R is the not must contain atleast _____ % of sperms with
correct explanation of A normal shape and size.
3) A is true but R is false 1) 60 2) 40
4) Both the A and R are false 3) 80 4) 20
5. Which of the following is correct description 11. Identify A and B in the given diagram.
of leydig cells?
1) Present in seminiferns tubules and secrete
androgens
2) Present in interstitial spaces and help in
formation of ova
3) Present in regions outside seminiferous
tubules and secrete androgens
4) Present in interstitial spaces and help in ova
maturation
 2 Test ID : 165
1) A. Spermatozoa, B. Sertoli cells
2) A. Spermatozoa, B. Interstitial cells
3) A. Spermatogonia, B. Interstitial cells
4) A. Spermatogonia, B. Sertoli cells
12. Statement – I: Secretions of male accessory
glands constitute the seminal plasma.
Statement – II: Seminal plasma is rich in
glucose, fructose, sodium and certain
enzymes.
1) Both statements I and II are incorrect
2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is
incorrect
3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is
correct
4) Both Statements I and II are correct
13. Match the following and choose the correct
option.
List - I List - II
A) Epididymis i) Seminiferous tubules
B) Leydig cells ii) Male sex accessory duct
C) Male germ iii) Meiosis and sperm
cells formation
D) Testicular iv) Male secondary sex
lobules characters
1) A - iv, B - iii, C - i, D - ii
2) A - ii, B - iv, C - iii, D - i
3) A - i, B - ii, C - iv, D - iii
4) A - iii, B - i, C - ii, D - iv
14. Identify the false statement/s.
a) Androgens are produced by sertoli cells
b) Leydig cells are present in ovary
c) Oogenesis takes place in corpus luteum
d) Release of ovum occurs during menstrual
cycle
1) d only 2) d and c only
3) a and b only 4) a, b, c only
15. Which of the following is correct w.r.t sertoli
cells?
1) Secretes testosterone
2) Concentrates and stores spermatozoa
3) Provides nutrition for differentiating
spermatozoa
4) Secretes spermatozoa activating substances
A
16. Which of the following cells during
gametogenesis is normally diploid?
1) First polar body 2) Spermatid
3) Spermatogonia 4) 2nd polar body
17. Match column I with column II.
Column - I Column - II
A) Ovary i) Androgens
B) Placenta ii) Estrogen
C) Corpus luteum iii) Relaxin
D) Leydig cells iv) Progesterone
1) A - i, B - iv, C - iii, D - ii
2) A - iii, B - ii, C - iv, D - i
3) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv
4) A - ii, B - i, C - iv, D - iii
18. Division of primary oocyte result in
1) unequal cells - a small haploid secondary
oocyte and a 1st diploid polar body
2) unequal cells - a large haploid secondary
oocyte and a 2nd diploid polar body
3) unequal cells - a large haploid secondary
oocyte and a tiny 1st haploid polar body
4) unequal cells - a large haploid secondary
oocyte and a tiny 2nd haploid polar body
19. Statement – I: In females, oogenesis is
initiated during embryonic development with
oogonia formation till puberty.
Statement – II: At puberty upto 60,000 to
80,000 primary follicles are left in each ovary.
1) Both statements I and II are incorrect
2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is
incorrect
3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is
correct
4) Both Statements I and II are correct
 3 Test ID : 165
20. The following diagram is a sectional view of 1) A - iii, B - i, C - ii, D - iv
female reproductive system. Identify A, B and 2) A - ii, B - iii, C - iv, D - i
C. 3) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i
4) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv
25. Statement – I: In females a large number of
follicles are formed from birth to till puberty.
Statement – II: Spermatogenesis starts at the
age of puberty.
1) Both statements I and II are incorrect
2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is
1) A - Oogonia, B - Isthmus, C - Endometrium incorrect
2) A - Cervix, B - Ampulla, C - Uterus 3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is
3) A - Uterus, B - Fallopian tube, C - Cervix correct
4) A - Cervical canal, B - Ampulla, C - Ovary 4) Both Statements I and II are correct
21. Which of the following ensures that only one 26. Choose the incorrect match.
sperm can fertilize the ovum? 1) Endometrium - site of implantation
1) Corona radiata 2) Theca 2) Fallopian tube - site of copulation
3) Zona pellucida 4) Theca interna 3) Menopause - stopping of menstrual cycles
22. Primary oocyte within the ____ follicle grows 4) Menarche - first menstruation
in size and complete it’s ___ meiotic division. 27. Mammary lobes contain clusters of cells
1) secondary, first 2) tertiary, second called
3) secondary, second 4) tertiary, first 1) leydig cells 2) acinar cells
23. Statement-I: Antrum cavity is the 3) alveoli 4) sertoli cells
characteristic feature of secondary follicle 28. Assertion (A): Remarkable differences
with primary oocyte. between the reproductive events in the male
Statement-II: The membrane Zona pellucida and in the female are seen.
is formed by secondary oocyte. Reason (R): Sperm formation continues even
1) Both statements I and II are incorrect in old men and ovum formation ceases in
2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is women around the age of 50 years.
incorrect 1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true and R is the not
correct
correct explanation of A
4) Both Statements I and II are correct
3) A is true but R is false
24. Match the following and choose the correct
4) Both the A and R are false
answer from the options below.
29. Identify the correct sequence of phases of
Column - I Column - II menstrual cycle.
i) Undergoes cyclical 1) Menstrual → Proliferative → Luteal →
A) Ampulla changes during menstrual Ovulatory
cycle
2) Menstrual → Luteal → Ovulatory →
B) Labia majora ii) Site of fertilization Secretory
iii) Fleshy folds surrounding 3) Ovulatory → Luteal /Secretory →
C) Fimbriae
vaginal opening Menstrual
iv) Help in collection of 4) Menstrual → Proliferative /Follicular →
D) Endometrium
ovum Luteal
A
 4 Test ID : 165
30. Assertion (A): All copulations do not lead to 36. Process of embryonic development is called
fertilization and pregnancy. 1) Gametogenesis 2) implantation
Reason (R): Fertilisation can only occur if 3) gestation 4) parturition
ovum and sperm are transported simultaneously 37. Match the following and choose the correct
to the cervix. answer from the options below.
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct Column - I Column - II
explanation of A A) Chorionic villi i) Outer layer of blastocyst
2) Both A and R are true and R is the not
ii) Inner cell mass of
correct explanation of A B) Placenta
blastocyst
3) A is true but R is false
C) Trophoblast iii) Finger like projections
4) Both the A and R are false
31. The main function of corpus luteum is to iv) Structural and functional
produce D) Embryo unit between foetus and
mother
1) hPL 2) progesterone
3) hCG 4) androgen 1) A - iii, B - iv, C - i, D - ii
32. The cyclical changes during menstrual cycle 2) A - ii, B - i, C - iii, D - iv
are induced due to changes in 3) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i
1) pituitary hormones 4) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv
2) ovarian hormones 38. Statement – I: Parturition is due to stronger

3) progesterone uterine contractions because of oxytocin.

4) both 1 and 2 Statement – II: Foetal ejection reflex triggers
release of oxytocin from maternal pituitary.
33. Ovulation occurs on ____ day of menstrual
cycle. 1) Both statements I and II are correct
1) 10th day 2) 14th day 2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is
incorrect
3) 12th day 4) 5th day
3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is
34. Statement – I: During pregnancy all events of
the menstrual cycle stop and there is no correct
menstruation. 4) Both Statements I and II are incorrect
Statement – II: In the absence of fertilisation 39. In the figure given below find the incorrectly

corpus luteum degenerates. labelled structure.

1) Both statements I and II are incorrect
2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is
incorrect
3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is
correct
4) Both Statements I and II are correct
35. Which of the following represents the path of
sperm in female reproductive tract?
1) Cervix, vagina, ovary, oviduct
2) Vagina, cervix, uterus, oviduct
3) Uterus, cervix, vagina, oviduct 1) a - umbilical cord 2) b - yolk sac
4) Vagina, uterus, cervix, oviduct 3) c - cavity of uterus 4) d - embryo

A
 5 Test ID : 165
40. How many of the following hormones are 1) Both statements I and II are incorrect
secreted by placenta during pregnancy? 2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is
hPL, Estrogen, Progestogen, FSH, HCG, incorrect
Prolactin, LH 3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is
1) 5 2) 4 correct
3) 6 4) 7 4) Both Statements I and II are correct
41. Assertion (A): Embryo differentiates to gives 44. Match the term of pregnancy with the
rise to all tissues in adults. development in foetus.
Reason (R): Inner cell mass has the potency
Column - I Column - II
to give rise to all tissues and organs.
A) 1st month i) Eye lashes
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A B) 2nd month ii) Heart
2) Both A and R are true and R is the not C) 1st trimester iii) First movements
correct explanation of A nd
D) 2 trimester iv) Organ system
3) A is true but R is false E) 5th month v) Digits and limbs
4) Both the A and R are false
1) A - i, B - ii, C - iv, D - iii, E - v
42. Identify the stages W, X, Y, Z as the embryo
2) A - v, B - iv, C - ii, D - i, E - iii
passes through fallopian tube.
3) A - ii, B - v, C - iv, D - i, E - iii
4) A - ii, B - iv, C - iii, D - i, E - v
45. The permissible use of amniocentesis
technique is for
1) detecting fetal infections
2) detecting sex of unborn foetus
3) identification of genetic abnormalities
4) both 1 and 3
46. Which among the following is not a in-vitro
technique?
1) GIFT 2) IVF-ET
3) ZIFT 4) ICSI
1) W - Ovum, X - Blastocyst, Y - Morula, 47. RCH stands for
Z - Endometrium 1) Respiratory and Cardiovascular Health Care
2) W - Ovum, X - Morula, Y - Blastocyst,
2) Regenerative and Complimentary Health
Z - Blastocyst implantation
Care
3) W - Oocyte, X - Blastocyst, Y - Ovum,
3) Regenerative and Child Health Care
Z - Blastocyst implantation
4) W - Ovum, X - Morula, Y - Blastula, 4) Reproductive and Child Health Care
Z - Gastrula 48. Statement – I: In natural methods of
43. Statement – I: The process of feeding the contraception side effects and chances of
newborn baby with milk of mother called failure are nil.
lactation is not recommended. Statement – II: An ideal contraceptive should
Statement – II: The colostrum is rich in antigens be effective and irreversible with no side
which help the newborn in developing resistance. effects.

A
 6 Test ID : 165
1) Both statements I and II are incorrect 54. Measures taken to tackle the problem of
2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is population growth rate are
incorrect 1) contraceptive methods against unwanted
3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is pregnancies
correct 2) raising of marriageable age
4) Both Statements I and II are correct 3) incentives given to couples with small
families
49. Central Drug Research Institute is located in
4) all of the above
1) Delhi 2) Mumbai
55. Match the following.
3) Lucknow 4) Kolkata
Column - I Column - II
50. Statement – I: Building up of a socially
responsible and healthy society is possible by A) IMR i) Intra uterine device
creating awareness on controlled population B) MMR ii) Infant mortality rate
growth. iii) Medical termination of
C) IUD
Statement – II: Surgical methods of pregnancy
contraception are highly ineffective and poorly D) MTP iv) Maternal mortality rate
reversible. 1) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv
1) Both statements I and II are incorrect 2) A - ii, B - iv, C - i, D - iii
2) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is 3) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i
correct 4) A - ii, B - iv, C - iii, D - i
3) Statement I is correct, Statement II is 56. Infertility in humans can be corrected by
incorrect 1) MTP 2) STI
4) Both Statements I and II are correct 3) IUD 4) Infertility clinics
51. Pick the correct option w.r.t Saheli. 57. Which of the following is a hormone releasing
1) has high side effects IUD?
2) combination pill 1) Cu-7 2) LNG - 20
3) Multiload 375 4) Lippes loop
3) inhibits ovulation
58. One of the most widely accepted methods of
4) weekly pill
contraception in India is
52. Identify the correct statement.
1) Tubectomy 2) Pills
1) As no devices are used in natural method of
3) Condoms 4) IUDs
contraception the chances of failure are nil
59. Possible ill-effects of contraceptive methods
2) IUDs can be self inserted and there by gives are
privacy to the user a) Breast cancer
3) Use of contraceptives is not a regular b) Abdominal pain
requirement for maintenance of c) Breakthrough bleeding
reproductive health d) Induced abortions
4) Lactational amenorrhea is effective till the 1) a only 2) b and c only
female desires to prevent conception 3) a, b and c only 4) a, b, c and d
53. MTPs are discouraged in case of 60. Assertion (A): The prime consideration under
1) female foeticide reproductive health-care programmes is
2) unprotected coitus prevention of STIs.
3) failure of contraceptive Reason (R): STIs are a major threat to a
4) maternal mortality healthy society.
A
 7 Test ID : 165
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 67. Emergency contraceptives are used to avoid
explanation of A possible pregnancy, within
2) Both A and R are true and R is the not 1) a period of 21 days
correct explanation of A 2) 72 hrs of ovulation
3) A is true but R is false 3) 72 hrs of coitus
4) Both the A and R are false 4) first 5 days of menstrual cycle
61. Which is not a preventive measure of STIs?
68. Which of the following statements is
1) Sex with multiple partners
incorrect with regard to surgical method of
2) Use of condoms during coitus
contraception?
3) Going for timely detection
1) Also called sterilization
4) Getting proper complete treatment
2) Terminal method to prevent further
62. Which of the following venereal disease
pregnancies
cannot be cured completely?
1) Genital warts 2) Syphilis 3) In males vasectomy and in females
3) Hepatitis B 4) Gonorrhoea tubectomy is advised
63. The following is the complication due to STIs 4) Surgical intervention blocks implantation
1) Breast cancer and increases phagocytosis of sperms
2) Abortions 69. Mode of action of pill is by which of the
3) Itching following ways?
4) Swelling in the genital region 1) Increase phagocytosis of sperms
64. The incidence of STIs is reported to be high in 2) Suppress fertilizing capacity of sperms
the age group of 3) Inhibit ovulation
1) 10 - 14 yrs 2) 24 - 35 yrs 4) Promote gamete transport
3) 40 - 60 yrs 4) 15 - 24 yrs 70. The period during which the chances of
65. Match the following. fertilisation are high called the fertile period is
List - I List - II from
A) STI i) Human immunodeficiency virus 1) 7 days during which menstruation occurs
B) PID ii) Reproductive tract infection 2) day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle
C) RTI iii) Pelvic inflammatory disease 3) first 5 days of the menstrual cycle
D) HIV iv) Sexually transmitted infection 4) period of 21 days starting from 1st day of
1) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i menstrual cycle
2) A - iii, B - ii, C - i, D - iv 71. Which of the following statement is correct
3) A - iv, B - iii, C - i, D - ii about the mode of action of implants?
4) A - i, B - iv, C - ii, D - iii 1) Implants exhibit high risk of conception
66. Natural methods of contraception work on the 2) Implants inhibit fertilizing capacity of
principle of sperms
1) preventing fertilisation 3) Implants have longer effective periods
2) preventing ovulation 4) Implants make the uterus suitable for
3) preventing implantation implantation
4) preventing embryogenesis
A
 8 Test ID : 165
72. Recognize the diagram given below and 77. Among the following find the legal method of
choose the correct option. birth control.
1) MTP
2) periodic abstinence
a) b) 3) lactational amenorrhea
4) sterilization
78. Assertion (A): As per MTP amendment act
1) a - vasectomy, b - tubectomy 2017, pregnancy can be terminated on certain
2) a - tubectomy, b - vasectomy grounds.
3) small incision is made in abdomen for Reason (R): Considered grounds for MTP
performing ‘a’ include substantial risk to the pregnant mother
4) small incision is made on the scrotum for or her baby.
performing ‘b’ 1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
73. Which is true about vasectomy? explanation of A
1) Inhibit sperm production 2) Both A and R are true and R is the not
2) Prevents sperms from entering the semen correct explanation of A
3) Inhibit semen production 3) A is true but R is false
4) Interfere with male sexual desire 4) Both the A and R are false
74. Which of the following is the main function of 79. Reason for infertility among the given list of
copper ions in copper releasing IUDs? factors is
1) They inhibit gametogenesis 1) social 2) psychological
2) They suppress the fertilizing capacity of 3) religious 4) economical
sperms
80. Match column I with column II.
3) They make the uterus unsuitable for
implantation Column - I Column - II
4) They block entry of sperms through cervix A) Sperm injected into i) Artificial
75. Choose the incorrect statement. ovum insemination
a) Surgical methods of contraception prevent B) Sperm introduced into
ii) ICSI
gamete formation uterus
b) Early detection of STIs facilitate their C) Transfer of embryo iii) Intra uterine
better cure into the uterus transfer
c) Pills are well accepted among females D) Embryo formed by in
because of their effectiveness vivo fertilisation can be iv) Embryo transfer
d) In embryo transfer technique embryos are used for
always transferred into uterus
1) A - i, B - iii, C - iv, D - ii
1) a and d 2) b only
2) A - ii, B - i, C - iii, D - iv
3) a, b and d 4) b, c and d
3) A - iii, B - i, C - iv, D - ii
76. Find the correct statement w.r.t tubectomy.
1) Small part of fallopian tubes are cut and tied 4) A - i, B - ii, C - iv, D - iii
up 81. Which of the following technique involves in

2) Ovaries are excised and removed vitro fertilization?

3) Oviducts are removed 1) ZIFT 2) GIFT
4) Uterus is removed 3) IUT 4) Both 1 and 3

A
 9 Test ID : 165
82. Expand GIFT. 90. Statement – I: The options for assisted
1) Gamete Inseminated Fallopian Transfer reproductive technologies are many for
2) Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer childless couple.
3) Gamete Internal Fertilisation and Transfer Statement – II: The benefits of ART are
4) Gamete In vitro Fertilisation and Transfer affordable to a vast number of people.
83. Which of the following barriers made of rubber 1) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is
are inserted into female reproductive tract? correct
1) IUDs 2) Diaphragms 2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is
3) Lippes loop 4) Implants incorrect
84. Which of the following statements supports 3) Both Statements I and II are correct
statutory ban on amniocentesis? 4) Both statements I and II are incorrect
1) It is very expensive 91. The origin of universe was explained by
2) It is an invasive procedure and carries high 1) Darwinism 2) Big Bang theory
risk of abortions 3) Mutation theory 4) Lamarckism
3) It can be used for pre-natal sex determination 92. Which of the following is not true w.r.t
increasing menace of female foeticides theory of Panspermia?
4) It can determine the survivability of foetus 1) Spores are the units of life
85. Find the mismatch from the following. 2) This was the thought of early Greek
1) Intra uterine devices - increase phagocytosis thinkers
of sperms
3) Spores were transferred to different planets
2) Hormonal IUD - prevent entry of sperm except earth
3) Vasectomy - prevents spermatogenesis
4) It is still liked by some astronomers
4) Barrier method - prevents fertilisation
93. Which of the following gases was not taken
86. Test tube baby programme is
into electric discharged flask by Miller for his
1) developing baby in test tube experimental verification of origin of life from
2) designing baby under stimulated conditions chemicals?
in laboratory
1) CH4 2) H2O
3) in vitro fertilization followed by transfer of
3) H2S 4) H2
embryo into female genital tract
94. Bhimbetka rock shelter in Raisen district of
4) in vivo fertilization followed by transfer of
Madhya Pradesh is famous for
ovum into uterus
1) the discovery of Java man’s fossils
87. Risk of failure of contraception is high in
2) the pre-historic cave art
1) hormonal implants
2) use of IUDs 3) the space where Alfred Wallace worked
3) withdrawal method 4) frequent volcanic eruptions
4) sterilization technique 95. Dinosaurs are the animals of
88. Which of the following techniques allows 1) early mammals 2) existing reptiles
transfer of embryos? 3) early birds 4) extinct reptiles
1) IVF, GIFT 2) ZIFT, GIFT 96. The evidence of evolution of organisms are
3) ICSI, IUI 4) ZIFT, IUT 1) homologous organs
89. Family planning was initiated in the year. 2) analogous organs
1) 1951 2) 1952 3) embryos of vertebrates
3) 1953 4) 1954 4) all of these
A
 10 Test ID : 165
97. Select the correct option from the following. 100. Ramapithecus was existing about
i) According to Hugo de Vries saltation 1) 150 mya 2) 15 mya
causes speciation. 3) 1.5 mya 4) 1500 ya
ii) According to Darwin evolution was gradual. 101. Select the correct match from the following.
iii) DeVries believed that minor variations do 1) Neanderthal man - 900 cc
not cause evolution 2) Homo erectus - 1400 cc
iv) Saltation refers to single step large mutation 3) Homo habilis - 650 - 800 cc
1) i and ii are only incorrect 4) Australopithecines - 1200 cc
2) i, ii and iv are only incorrect 102. Find the correct pair(s) of homologous organs
3) except iii all are correct from the following.
4) i, ii, iii and iv are correct 1) Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of
98. Match the given columns and choose the Cucurbita
correct option. 2) Forelimbs of man and whale
Column - I Column - II 3) Hearts of birds and mammals
4) all of these
103. All existing living forms share similarities to
A) i) Baby chimpanzee varying degrees not only among themselves
but also with the organisms that existed
millions of years ago
The above conclusion was made by
1) Ernst Heckel 2) Charles Darwin
B) ii) Adult human 3) Karl Ernst Von Baer 4) Hugo de Vries
104. Australopithecines probably lived in
1) Europe 2) South Asia
3) East Africa 4) Australia
105. Homologous structures are a result of
C) iii) Adult chimpanzee 1) divergent evolution 2) common ancestry
3) convergent evolution 4) both 1 and 2
106. Industrial melanism supports
1) A - ii, B - iii, C - i
1) Lamarck theory of use and disuse
2) A - i, B - iii, C - ii
2) evolution by natural selection
3) A - iii, B - ii, C - i
3) mutation theory
4) A - ii, B - i, C - iii
4) importance of industrial development
99. Statement – I: Homo erectus probably ate
107. The first non-cellular forms of life could have
meat.
originated
Statement – II: Homo habilis probably did
1) 4.5 bya 2) 3 bya
not eat meat.
3) 2 bya 4) 15 mya
1) Both statements I and II are incorrect
108. The event(s) of the history of universe is/are
2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is
1) origin of life
incorrect
2) origin of earth
3) Both Statements I and II are correct
3) evolution of living organisms
4) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is
4) all of these
correct
A
 11 Test ID : 165
109. Choose the incorrect statement from the 1) stabilizing selection
following. 2) directional selection
1) Early earth had no atmosphere 3) disruptive selection
2) Life appeared 500 million years after the 4) centripetal selection
formation of earth 116. In a disruptive selection organisms acquire

3) Life appeared almost 4 bya on the earth
4) Oxygen was released from molten mass
covered the early earth surface
110. Theory of spontaneous generation explains
that
1) life suddenly came from outer space
2) life comes from pre-existing living
organisms
3) life came out of decaying and rotting matter
4) life could have come from pre-existing
living organic molecules
111. The contemporary of Charles Darwin, Alfred
Wallace worked in
1) Malay Archipelago 2) Galapagos Islands
3) African grasslands 4) South Africa
112. The first life originated
1) in water 2) on land
3) in molten mass 4) in damp soil
113. Louis Pasteur by his careful experimentation
1) showed that in closed pre-sterilized flask
life did not come from killed yeast
2) In flask open to air has new living
organisms had come from killed yeast
3) Could not answer how the first life form
came on earth
4) all are correct
114. Change of gene frequencies by chance is
called
1) genetic drift 2) gene flow
3) genetic recombination 4) gene migration
115. The given figure depicts
A
1) peripheral character value at both ends
2) mean character value
3) the value other than mean character value
4) both 1 and 3
117. Statement – I: Some of the fossils appear
similar to modern organisms.
Statement – II: The study of fossils showed
that certain life forms are restricted to certain
geological time spans.
1) Both statements I and II are incorrect
2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is
incorrect
3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is
correct
4) Both Statements I and II are correct
118. Total genes and their alleles in a population is
called as
1) gene pool 2) gene frequency
3) genetic drift 4) gene bank
119. Which of the following are examples of
anthropogenic evolution?
1) Antibiotic resistant microbes
2) Dark winged moths in industrial area
3) New breeds of domesticated dogs
4) all of these
120. Embryological support for evolution was
given by
1) Ernst Heckel 2) Thomas Malthus
3) Charles Darwin 4) Lamarck
121. Select the correct statement w.r.t natural
selection.
i) It effects the Hardy - Weinberg equilibrium
ii) It can lead to stabilization in a population
iii) In this process the heritable variations
enabling better survival are enabled to
reproduce and leave greater number of
progeny
iv) Can bring a directional change in a
population
 12 Test ID : 165
2
1) except i all are incorrect 127. In the Hardy - Weinberg equation q
2) except iv all are correct represents
3) i and ii only correct 1) frequency of recessive allele
4) all are correct 2) frequency of dominant allele
122. The first non-cellular forms would have been 3) frequency of recessive genotype
1) simple inorganic molecules 4) frequency of dominant genotype
2) complex inorganic compounds 128. Which of the following does not affect H.W
3) complex organic molecules equilibrium?
4) simple organic molecules 1) Genetic load 2) Genetic drift
123. Theory of chemical evolution was proposed 3) Random mating 4) All of these
by 129. Select the genotypes of homozygous recessive
1) Oparin and Haldane and heterozygous dominant genotypes of a
2) Miller and Urey population respectively.
3) Haldane and Heckel 1) aa, Aa 2) AA, Aa
4) Von Baer and Heckel
3) Aa, aa 4) AA, aa
124. Match the following and choose the correct
130. Spontaneous generation theory was finally
option.
disproved by
Column - I Column - II
1) Karl Ernst Von Baer 2) Darwin
i) Convergent
A) Homology 3) Louis Pasteur 4) Oparin
evolution
131. Potato and sweet potato are
B) Analogy ii) Russia
1) examples of analogous organs
C) Oparin iii) Milky way galaxy
2) evolved due to convergent evolution
D) Solar system iv) England 3) stem and root modifications respectively
v) Common ancestry 4) all of these
1) A - v, B - i, C - iv, D - iii 132. If the 4% of a population shows a recessive
2) A - i, B - v, C - iv, D - iii trait, what will be the percentage of carriers in
3) A - i, B - v, C - ii, D - iii that population?
4) A - v, B - i, C - ii, D - iii 1) 62% 2) 32%
125. Paleontological evidences explain that
3) 18% 4) 42%
1) fossils represent extinct organisms 133. Assertion (A): Hardy - Weinberg principle
2) life forms are similar over time without any explains the variations occurring in population
changes and species over a number of generations.
3) the similarities between various vertebrate
Reason (R): Hardy Weinberg principle is
embryos
applicable only when genetic drift occurs.
4) the biochemical similarities between
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
different organisms
explanation of A
126. Which is not a divergent evolution?
2) Both A and R are true and R is the not
1) Vertebrate hearts
correct explanation of A
2) Vertebrate brains
3) A is true but R is false
3) Wings of insect and birds
4) Forelimb bones for mammals 4) Both the A and R are false

A
 13 Test ID : 165
134. Mutations as per Hugo de vries 139. In which of the following diseases the affected
1) random and directional offsprings may have unaffected parents?
2) random and directionless 1) Haemophilia
3) non - random and directional 2) Sickle cell anaemia
3) Thalassemia
4) non - random and directionless
4) all of these
135. Match the given columns and choose the
140. A marriage between a colourblind man and a
correct option.
carrier woman produces
Column - I Column - II 1) all carrier daughters and colourblind sons
A) Darwin i) Abiogenesis 2) 50% colourblind daughters, 50%
B) Lamarck ii) Use and disuse of organs colourblind sons
C) Oparin iii) Natural selection 3) All carrier daughters and normal sons
4) All the male and female progeny are colour
1) A - iii, B - ii, C - i 2) A - i, B - iii, C - ii
blind
3) A - i, B - ii, C - iii 4) A - ii, B - iii, C - i 141. Assertion (A): The possibility of a female
136. The heterozygous genotypes of blood groups becoming haemophilic is extremely rare.
A and B respectively are Reason (R): Because mother of such a female
1) IAIB and IAIB 2) IAi and IBi has to be at least carrier and father should be
3) IBi and IAi 4) IAIB and IAi haemophilic.
137. Statement – I: In birds, females are 1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
heterogametic and males are homogametic. explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true and R is the not
Statement – II: In birds the total number of
correct explanation of A
chromosomes is not same in both males and
3) A is true but R is false
females.
4) Both the A and R are false
1) Both statements I and II are incorrect
142. Find the X-linked recessive trait from the
2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is following.
incorrect 1) Colour blindness
3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is 2) Sickle cell anaemia
correct 3) Cystic fibrosis
4) Both Statements I and II are correct 4) Phenylketonuria
138. Assertion-(A): Turner’s syndrome is caused 143. Number of allosomes present in a pancreatic

due to the absence of one of the X-chromosomes. cell of a human female is

Reason-(R): Such individuals show 1) 22 2) 3
gynaecomastia. 3) 2 4) 23
144. ZW type of sex determination is an example
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
of
explanation of A
1) male heterogamety
2) Both A and R are true and R is the not
2) female homogamety
correct explanation of A
3) female heterogamety
3) A is true but R is false 4) both 1 and 3
4) Both the A and R are false

A
 14 Test ID : 165
145. Matchthe following columns and choose the 149. Polygenic traits are
correct option. 1) common in both male and female humans
Column - I Column - II 2) controlled by three or more genes
A) Trisomy of 21 i) Rudimentary ovaries 3) reflected by the contribution of each allele
B) Trisomy of 23 ii) Sterile male 4) all of these
150. Select the possible genotypes for a carrier and
C) Monosomy of 23 iii) Palm crease
affected individuals for haemophilia.
D) Polyploidy iv) Failure of cytokinesis
1) XHXH, XHXh 2) XHXh, XhY
1) A - iv, B - iii, C - i, D - ii
3) XHXh, XHY 4) XhXh, XHY
2) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i rd
151. 23 chromosome of a male human is
3) A - ii, B - iv, C - i, D - iii
1) X or Y
4) A - iii, B - ii, C - i, D - iv
2) helps in sex determination
146. The chromosomes which are different in two
3) present in all sperm cells
sexes are called as
4) all of these
1) autosomes 2) allosomes
152. AA + XY karyotype is observed in
3) sex chromosomes 4) both 2 and 3
1) male human 2) male Drosophila
147. In humans a normal adult female has
3) human male gamete 4) both 1 and 2
1) 23 pairs of chromosomes in every cell of
153. X-chromosome was discovered by
her body
1) Langdon down 2) CE.Mc Clung
2) 22 pairs of autosomes in every cell of her
body 3) Henking 4) G.J. Mendel
154. In honey bees, fertilized eggs are developed
3) A pair of sex chromosomes in every cell of
her body into
4) 22 pairs of autosomes and a pair of 1) males 2) worker bees
allosomes in every cell of her body except 3) queen bee 4) both 2 and 3
gametes 155. In which of the following set of organisms

148. Study the given statements and select the

same number of chromosomes is not
correct option. observed?
A. The carrier female for haemophilia cannot 1) Male and female humans
transmit the mutant gene to her female 2) Drone and Queen bee
progeny. 3) Male and female birds
B. Sex linked recessive diseases are very 4) Male and female Drosophila
common in female humans 156. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t sex

C. A female child has 50% chance of being determination of humans.

colour blind if her mother is carrier for 1) Two types of gametes are produced by
colour blind and father is colour blind males during spermatogenesis
D. The individual for HbsHbs genotype shows 2) Fertilised ovum contains only one
the sickle cell anaemia phenotype. X-chromosome in addition to autosomes
1) A and C are incorrect 3) In each pregnancy there is always 50%
2) C and D are incorrect probability of either a male or a female
3) A and B are correct child
4) C and D are correct 4) Female is homogametic

A
 15 Test ID : 165
157. Matchthe following columns and choose the 162. A pleiotropic gene
correct option. 1) controls a trait only in combination with
Column - I Column - II another gene
i) Regulate somatic 2) controls multiple traits in an individual
A) Drones
characters 3) is expressed only in male humans
B) Female bird ii) A + X/Y karyotype 4) is expressed only in plants
C) Human sperm iii) AA + ZW karyotype 163. A ‘O’ blood group child has ‘A’ group father
D) Autosomes iv) AA + ZZ karyotype and mother. Select the correct genotypes of
v) Parthenogenesis both the parents.
1) A - v, B - iv, C - ii, D - i 1) IAi and IAi 2) IAIA and IAi
2) A - iii, B - v, C - ii, D - iv 3) IAIA and IAIA 4) ii and IAIA
3) A - ii, B - v, C - i, D - iv 164. Select the possible genotypes for B blood
4) A - v, B - iii, C - ii, D - i group.
158. Assertion (A): ABO blood group system 1) IBIB and IAIB 2) IBi and IBIB
provides a good example of multiple alleles. 3) IBi and IAIB 4) IBIB and ii
Reason (R): In ABO blood group system, 165. Which of the following pair of donor and
when IA and IB alleles are present together, recipient is correct for blood transfusion?
they both express their own types.
i) O+ve → A-ve ii) AB+ve → O-ve
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
iii) B-ve → B+ve iv) O-ve → AB+ve
explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true and R is the not v) AB-ve → B+ve
correct explanation of A 1) Except iii and iv all 2) ii, iii and iv
3) A is true but R is false 3) iii, iv and v 4) only iii and iv
4) Both the A and R are false 166. Antibodies present in AB group individuals
159. Find the mismatched pair. are
1) Haemophilia - sex linked recessive disease 1) A and B 2) Only A
2) Thalassemia - Autosomal dominant disease 3) only B 4) none
3) Colour blindness - Sex linked recessive 167. Highest and least number of antigens
disease containing blood groups respectively are
4) Turner’s syndrome - Aneuploidy 1) AB-ve and O-ve 2) AB-ve and O+ve
160. If both parents are carriers for thalassemia,
3) O+ve and AB+ve 4) AB+ve and O+ve
what are the chances of pregnancy resulting in
168. Anti-Rh antibodies are injected to (w.r.t
an affected child?
erythroblastosis foetalis)
1) 50% 2) 100%
1) 1st Rh+ child 2) 2nd Rh+ child
3) 25% 4) 75%
161. A marriage between a haemophilic man and a
3) mother (Rh-ve) 4) mother (Rh+ve)
normal woman produces 169. ‘B’ blood group individuals

1) all the normal sons 1) have antigen - B

2) all the carrier daughters 2) have antibodies - A
3) 50% progeny will get the mutant gene 3) can receive blood from B and O groups
4) all of these 4) all are correct

A
 16 Test ID : 165
170. Select the correct option from the following. 176. Human skin colour is an example of

1) I = IB < i
A
2) IA > IB < i 1) pleiotropy
3) IA = i < IB 4) IA = IB > i 2) multiple allelism
171. Which of the following is not a haploid? 3) polygenic inheritance
4) co-dominance
1) Drone 2) Human sperm
177. AaBbCc genotype is responsible for ____ skin
3) Worker bee 4) Male bee
colour in humans.
172. Find the correct groups of parents and their 1) Darkest 2) intermediate
offsprings from the given options.
3) very light 4) dark
1) A x AB − A and B only 178. Statement – I: In humans dominant alleles are
2) AB x AB − A, B, AB and O responsible for dark skin colour.
3) O x B − O and B Statement – II: The genotype AABBCC is
responsible for dark skin colour.
4) A x A − A, B, AB
1) Both statements I and II are incorrect
173. ‘AB’ blood group child is not possible if one
2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is
of the parents blood group is incorrect
1) AB 2) O 3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is
3) A 4) B correct
174. Erythroblastosis foetalis occurs due to the 4) Both Statements I and II are correct
production of anti Rh antibodies in 179. Individual with α - Thalassemia has how many

1) Rh positive foetus maximum genes for the disease in his/her

genotype?
2) Rh negative foetus
1) 4 2) 2
3) Rh positive mother
3) 8 4) 16
4) Rh negative mother
180. The similarity between haemophilia and
175. Inwhich of the following conditions a child is colour blindness is/are
affected with erythroblastosis foetalis? 1) pattern of inheritance
1) Mother - AB-ve, father A-ve 2) both are blood disorders
2) Father - AB+ve, mother AB-ve 3) both are autosomal disorders
3) Mother - AB+ve, father O-ve 4) both are chromosomal disorders
4) Father - B+ve, mother A+ve
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