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MODEL MCQS

CHAPTER 1
1. Amoeba reproduces asexually by
a) buds b) Binary fission c) Zoospores d) Gemmules
2. Conidia are asexual reproductive structures of
a) Penicillium b) Hydra c) Sponge d) Potato
3. Vegetative propagules of Hyacinth is:
a) Eyes b) Rhizome c) Offset d) Bulbil
4. If syngamy occurs outside the bidy, it is called
a) Internal fertilization b) External fertilization c) Parthenogenesis d) None of these
5. Oestrus cycle is observed in:
a) monkeys b) apes c) humans d) Rats
6. Which of the following is a unisexual species?
a) sponge b) tapeworm c) Cockroach d) leech
7. Life span of Crocodile is
a) 140 years b) 60 years c) 100 years d) 20 years
8. Bulbils are the vegetative propagules of
a) Bryophyllum b) Water Hyacinth c) Potato d) Agave
9. Haploid plant body is observed in which group of plants?
a) Pteridophytes b) gymnosperms c) angiosperms d) Algae
10. The number of chromosomes in a meiocyte of House fly is 12. The number of chromosomes in its gametes is:
a) 12 b) 24 c) 6 d) 18
11. The fertilised eggs are covered by hard calcareous shell in:
a) Birds b) Frogs c) Bony fishes d) All of these

CHAPTER 2
1. The correct sequence of parts of anther wall from outside to inside is:
a) Epidermis-endothecium-middle layers-tapetum
b) Tapetum- middle layers- endothecium- Epidermis
c) Epidermis-endothecium-middle layers-tapetum
d) Endothecium- epidermis- -middle layers-tapetum
2. If there are many pistils in a flower and are free then, they are describes as:
a) Apocarpous b) Syncarpous c) Mono carpellary d) Multicarpellary
3. The cells of which of the following have abundant reserve food materials?
a) Integuments b) Hilum c) Funicle d) Nucellus
4. The number of megaspores formed from a single megaspore mother cell is:
a) One b) Two c) Four d) Sixteen
5. Filiform apparatus is found in:
a) Antipodal cells b) Synergids c) Central cells d) All of these
6. The embryo sac of an angiosperm is made up of
(1) 8 cells (2) 7 cells and 8 nuclei (3) 8 nuclei (4) 8 cells and 7 nuclei
7. The correct sequence of stages of embryogenesis in plants is:
1) Proembryo-Heart shaped embryo-Globular embryo-Mature embryo
2) Proembryo-Globular embryo-Heart shaped embryo-Mature embryo
3) Heart shaped embryo- Globular embryo- Mature embryo-Proembryo
4) Globular embryo- Heart shaped embryo-Mature embryo-Proembryo
8. In angiosperms, functional megaspore develops into :
(1) Pollen sac (2) Embryo sac (3) Ovule (4) Endosperm
9. Megasporangium is equivalent to :
(1) Embryo sac (2) Fruit (3) Nucellus (4) Ovule

10. Geitonogamy involves

(1) Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from another flower of the same plant
(2) Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from another same flower.
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(3) Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from a flower of another plant in the same population
(4) Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from a flower of another plant belonging to a distant population

CHAPTER NO.3
1. Interstitial cells of testis secrete
1) progesterone 2) estrogen 3) testosterone 4) none of these
2. Fertilization of egg by sperm in the female genital tract occurs in:
1) Uterus 2) Ovary 3) Vagina 4) Fallopian tube

3. Which part of sperm provides energy for its movement?

1) Tail 2) Middle piece 3) Head 4) Acrosome
4. Which of the following is primary sex organ?
1) Vagina 2) Ovary 3) Uterus 4) Fallopian tubes

5. The hormome involved in parturition is

1) Oxytocin 2) Vasopressin 3) FSH 4) None of the above

6. The physiological connection between mother and foetus is called

1) Placenta 2) Ovary 3) Uterus 4) Embryo

7. The undifferentiated cells of inner cell mass of Blastocyst consists of

a) Ectoderm b) Trophoblast c) Stem cells d) Chorionic villi

8. Progesterone is secreted by
1) Corpous Luteum 2) Ovarian follicles 3) Leydig’s cells 4) None of the above.
9. The correct sequence of spermatogenetic stages leading to the formation of sperms in a mature human testis is:
(1) spermatogonia --- spermatocyte --- spermatid ---sperms
(2) spermatid --- spermatocyte --- spermatogonia --- sperms
(3) spermatogonia --- spermatid --- spermatocyte --- sperms
(4) spermatocyte --- spermatogonia --- spermatid --- sperms

10. The inner cell mass of blastocyst becomes:

1) extraernbryonic membranes 2) differentiated into embryo 3) chorionic villi 4) placenta

CHAPTER 4
1. IUDs like Multiload 375 prevent conception by:
a) By suppressing sperm motility and fertilizing capacity of spems
b) Make uterus unsuitable for implantation
c) Make cervix hostile to sperms
d) Bringing about stillbirth
2. Which of the following statements is incorrect with reference to ‘Saheli’?
a) It is ‘once a week’ pill
b) It contains Progestogen and Estrogen in proper ratio
c) It is non-steroidal
d) All the above statements are correct
3. The contraceptive device that cannot be self inserted is:
a) Diaphragms b) Female condoms c) Lippe’s loop d) vaults
4. Which of the following does the combination of estrogen and progestogen in a pill form not cause?
a) Prevents implantation.
b) Stops ovulation.
c) Prevents follicular growth
d) Improves the quality cervical mucus.
5. Coitus interruptus involves
a) having coitus at different times.
b) not having coitus during fertile days.
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c) having coitus at the middle of the month.

d) not ejaculating inside of the vagina.
6. The technique in which early embryos upto 8 blastomeres are transferred into Fallopian tube is:
a) ZIFT b) GIFT c) IUT d) ICSI

7. There is a statutory ban of Amniocentesis in India because it was misused in the past for:
a) Detection of genetic disorders b) Detection of gender of the foetus
c) Detection of Chromosomal disorders d) All of these
8. Choose the incorrect statement/s with reference to vasectomy and tubectomy.
a) Both are permanent methods of contraception
b) Both ends of vas deferens and fallopian tube are cut and tied
c) They cannot be reversed
d) They block gamete transport

Chapter 5: Principles of Inheritance and Variation

1. The chromosomal complement of individuals with Turner’s syndrome is
1) 44A+X 2) 44A+XY 3) 44A+XO 4) 44A+XXY
2. Sickle cell anaemia is caused due to the substitution of ____________.
1) Valine at the 6th position of alpha globin chain by glutamic acid
2) Glutamic acid at the 6th position of beta globin chain by valine
3) Valine at the 6th position of beta globin chain by glutamine
4) Glycine at the 6th position of alpha globin chain by glutamic acid
3. Down's syndrome is an example for:
1) Aneuploidy of sex chromosome
2) Aneuploidy of autosomes
3) Syndrome caused due to gene mutation
4) Loss of one sex - chromosome from the diploid set
4. Double lines in pedigree analysis show
1) Sex unspecified 2) Consaguineous marriage 3) Unaffected offspring 4) Normal Mating
5. The gene disorder phenylketonuria is an example for
1) Polygenic inheritance 2) Pleiotropy 3) Multiple allelism 4) Multiple factor

6. The type of sex determination in honey bee is:

1) Haplo-diploidy 2) Haploidy 3) Diploidy 4) ZZ-ZW
7. Point mutation involves:
(1) Change in single base pair (2) Duplication (3) Deletion (4) Insertion
8. The genotype of a plant showing the dominant phenotype can be determined by –
(1) Test cross (2) Dihybridcross (3) Pedigree analysis (4) Back cross
9. Select the correct statement–
(1) Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show higher recombinations
(2) Genes far apart on the same chromosome show very few recombinations
(3) Genes loosely linked on the same chromosome show similar recombinations as the tightly linked ones
(4) Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show very few recombination
10. The fruit fly Drosophila melanogaster was found to be very suitable for experimental verification of chromosomal theory of
inheritance by Morgan and his colleagues because
(1) It completes life cycle in about two weeks
(2) It reproduces parthenogenetically
(3) A single mating produces two young flies
(4) Smaller female is easily recognisable from larger male

CHAPTER 6:
1. What is not true for genetic code?
(1) It is nearly universal (2) It is degenerate
(3) It is unambiguous (4) A codon in mRNA is read in a non-contiguous fashion
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2. Removal of introns and joining the exons in a defined order in a transcription unit is called:
(1) Tailing (2) Transformation (3) Capping (4) Splicing
3. Semiconservative replication of DNA was first demonstrated in:
(1) Escherichia coli (2) Streptococcus pneumoniae (3) Salmonella typhimurium (4) Drosophila melanogaster
4. Whose experiments cracked the DNA and discovered unequivocally that a genetic code is a “triplet”?
(1) Hershey and Chase (2) Morgan and Sturtevant (3) Beadle and Tatum (4) Nirenberg and Mathaei
5. Satellite DNA is useful tool in –
(1) Organ transplantation (2) Sex determination (3) Forensic science (4) Genetic engineering
6. Which one of the following does not follow the central dogma of molecular biology?
(1) Pea (2) Mucor (3) Chlamydomonas (4) HIV
7. The region/sequence of Transcription unit that undergoes transcription is
a) Promoter b) Structural gene c) Terminator d) All of these
8. If one strand of DNA has the nitrogenous base sequence as ATCTG, what would be the complementary RNA strand sequence?
(1) AACTG (2) ATCGU (3) TTAGU (4) UAGAC
9. Which of the following is required as inducer(s) for the expression of Lac operon?
(1) lactose and galactose (2) glucose (3) galactose (4) lactose
10. Which one of the following is the start codon?
(1) UAG (2) AUG (3) UGA (4) UAA

CHAPTER 7
1. One of the following is also called Sewall Wright effect.
(1) Isolation (2) Gene pool
(3) Genetic drift (4) Gene flow
2. Which compounds were used by Miller in his experiment for obtaining amino acids and other organic substances?
(1) Carbon dioxide, water vapour and methane
(2) Methane, ammonia water vapour and hydrocyanide
(3) Ammonia, methane, hydrogen and water vapour
(4) Ammonia, methane and carbon dioxide
3. Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita are examples for
(1) Convergent evolution (2) Divergent evolution (3) Adaptive radiation (4) Co-evolution
4. The ancestors of Modern day frogs and salamanders are
1) Jawless fish 2) Coelocanth 3)Ichthyophis 4) Amphioxus
5. Identify the correct equation for Hardy-Weinberg law.
(1) p+q=1 (2) p — q = 1 (3) (p+q)2= 1 (4) (p — q)2 = 1
6. Evolution of different species in a given area starting from a point and spreading to other geographical areas is known as
(1) Migration (2) Divergent evolution (3) Adaptive radiation (4) Natural selection
7. Adaptive radiation of both Marsupials and placental mammals of Australia have occurred in isolated geographical area. Hence, it can
be called
a) Divergent evolution b) Convergent evolution c) Adaptive radiation d) Co-incidence
8. Which one of the following are analogous structures?
(1) Wings of Bat and Wings of Pigeon
(2) Gills of Prawn and Lungs of Man
(3) Thorns of Bougainvillea and Tendrils of Cucurbita
(4) Flippers of Dolphin and legs of Horse.
9. Industrial melanism is an example of :
(1) Natural selection (2) Mutation (3) Neo Lamarckism (4) Neo Darwinism
10. The chronological order of human evolution from early to the recent is
(1) Australopithecus Homo habilis Ramapithecus Homo erectus
(2) AustraloPithecus Ramapithecus Homo habilis Homo erectus
(3) Ramapithecus Australopithecus Homo habilis Homo erectus
(4) Ramapithecus Homo habilis Australopithecus Homo erectus

CHAPTER 8:
1. Which of the following is not a character of cancerous tissues in our body?
1) Contact inhibition 2) Neoplasia 3)Metastasis 4) Inability for differentiation
2. Interferons are the protein molecules produced from the
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(1) Normal cells (2) Infected host cells (3) Macrophage (4) B Lymphocytes
3. Internal bleeding, muscular pain, blockage of the intestinal passage and anaemia are some of the symptoms caused due to infection
by
(1) Wuchereria (2) Trichophyton (3) Ascaris (4) Plasmodium
4. The mature infective stages of malarial parasite which are transferred from mosquito to man are:
(1) Sporozoites (2) Merozoites 3) Trophozoites (4) Gametocytes
5. Heroin is ____________ .
(1) A cannabinoid 2) Diacetylmorphine (chemically)
3) Commonly called 'coke' or 'crack' 4) Used to treat mental illnesses like depression and insomnia
6. Natural killer lymphocytes are an example for
1) Cytokine barrier 2) Physiological barrier 3) Physical barrier 4) Cellular barrier
7. Smack and Crack are produced from
1) Cannabis sativa and Atropa belladonna
2) Papaver somniferum and Erytrhroxylum coca
3) Cannabis sativa and Papaver somniferum
4) Erythroxylum coca and Atropa belladona
8. A person who has allergy, the type of antibody produced in his body is
(1) IgA (2) lgG (3) IgE (4) IgM
9. In humans, common cold is caused by:
(A) Retrovirus (B) Bacculovirus (C) Rhinovirus (D) Rhabdovirus
10. Which of the following vector-borne diseases caused by Aedes mosquitoes ?
A) Ascariasis and Filariasis B) Malaria and Sleeping sickness C) Dengue and Chikungunya C) Kala azar and Filariasis

CHAPTER 9:
1. Mating of two varieties of a cattle breed like Red Dane which have no common ancestors on either side of their pedigree
upto 4-6 generations is an example for ____________.
1) Inbreeding 2) Cross breeding 3) Outcrossing 4) Interspecific hybridization

2. Parbhani Kranti, a variety of Bhindi (lady’s finger), is resistant to ________.

1) Bacterial blight 2) Yellow mosaic virus 3) Black rot 4) Leaf curl

3. Sonalika and Kalyan Sona are high yielding varieties of

1) Rice 2) Maize 3) Sugarcane 4) Wheat
4. Plants obtained through tissue culture are genetically identical and they are obtained by somatic cells. What do you call
them?
(1) Somaclones (2) Monoclones (3) Somatic hybrids (4) Cross hybrids
5. One of the breeding techniques useful to eliminate harmful recessive genes by selection is
(1) Artificial insemination (2) Out-breeding (3) In-breeding (4) MOET
6. Inbreeding depression occurs due to continuous
(A) Intra-breeding (B) Inter-breeding C) Inter-generic breeding D) Inter-specific breeding
7. Which of the following is a fresh water fish?
a) Mackerel b) Sardine c) Hilsa d) Common carp
8. 'Himgiri' developed by hybridization and selection for disease resistance against rust pathogens is a variety of
1. Wheat 2. Chilli 3. Maize 4. Sugarcane
9. "Jaya" and "Ratna" developed for green revolution in India are the varieties of
1. Bajra 2. Maize 3. Rice 4. Wheat
10. Which part would be most suitable for raising virus-free plants for micropropagation?
(1) Meristem (2) Node (3) Bark (4) Vascular tissue

CHAPTER 10
1. 'Flocks' is ____________.
1) The Primary sludge produced in sewage treatment
2) A type of biofortified food
3) A mesh-like structure formed by the association of bacteria and fungal filaments in sewage treatment
4) The effluent in primary treatment tank obtained during sewage treatment
2. 'Roquefort cheese' is ripened by using a__________ .
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1) Type of yeast 2) Fungus 3) Bacterium 4) Cyanobacteria

3. Identify a micro-organism that can produce biomass of protein.
1) Monoscus purpureus 2) Aspergillus niger
3) Methylophilus methylotrophus 4) Trichoderma polysporum
4. The puffed-up appearance of dough is due to fermentation by bacteria. Identify the gas liberated during the process.
(1) Methane (2) Carbon dioxide (3) Hydrogen sulphide (4) Ammonia
5. The primary treatment of sewage water involves
(1) Sludge digestion (2) aerobic bacterial activity (3) anaerobic bacterial activity (4) filtration and sedimentation
6. A person admitted to hospital as he had myocardial infarction. A cardiologist injecting him `streptokinase', why ?
1) It reduces hypertension.
2) It reduces the level of blood cholesterol
3) It stimulates heart beat.
4) It acts as clot buster.
7. A genus of symbiotic fungus that forms mycorrhiza is
a) Azospirillum b) Rhizobium c) Glomus d) Oscillatoria
8. A common biocontrol agent for the control of plant diseases is –
(1) Baculovirus (2) Bacillus thuringiensis (3) Glomus (4) Trichoderma
9. Secondary sewage treatment is mainly a
1. Biological process 2. Physical process
3. Mechanical process 4. Chemical process
10. Ethanol is commercially produced through a particular species of
1. Aspergillus 2. Saccharomyces 3. Clostridium 4. Trichoderma

CHAPTER 11 AND 12
1. The enzymes which are absolutely necessary for recombinant DNA technology are:
1) Restriction endonucleases and topoisomerases
2) Endonucleases and polymerases
3) Restriction endonucleases and ligases
4) Peptidases and ligases
2. ECORI cleaves the DNA strands to produce
(1) Blunt ends (2) Sticky ends (3) Satellite ends (4) Ori replication end
3. EcoRI is _________.
1) Restriction enzyme 2) a plasmid
3) used to join two DNA fragments 4) the abbreviation for bacterium Escheretia coli

4. The function of a selectable marker is

1) Identify ori site
2) To destroy recognition sites
3) Eliminating transformants and permitting non-transformants
4) Eliminating non-transformants and permitting transformants

5. Most suitable method of introducing alien DNA into a plant cell is

(1) biolistics (2) microinjection (3) lipofection (4) heat shock method

6. Which one of the following statements is not correct about a plasmid?

1) It is a circular DNA.
2) It has antibiotic resistant gene.
3) It has the ability of autonomous replication.
4) Its DNA is as long as chromosomal DNA.
7. The enzymes that join sticky ends of foreign gene and vector are:
a) RENs b) Ligases c) Lyases d) Polymerases
8. This is not a GMO.
1) Bt Brinjal 2) Golden rice 3) Tracy 4) Dolly
9. RNA interference which is employed in making tobacco plant resistant to Meloidegyne incognita is essentially involved in
(1) preventing the process of translation of mRNA
(2) preventing the process of transcription
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(3) preventing the process of replication of DNA

(4) preventing the process of splicing of hnRNA
10. ADA deficiency results in
1) Increased risk of infertility
2) Inability of the immune system to function normally
3) Chromosomal disorders
4) Decrease in the yield of crop plants

11. Given below is a sample of a portion of DNA strand giving the base sequence on the opposite strands. What is so special shown in it?
5' ______ GAATTC ________ 3'
3' ________CTTAAG ________ 5'
1. Palindromic sequence of base pairs 2. Replication completed
3. Deletion mutation 4. Start codon at the 5' end
12. There is a restriction endonuclease called EcoRI. What does "co" part in it stand for?
1. coli 2. colon 3. coelom 4. coenzyme
13. In genetic engineering, the antibiotic resistance genes are used :
(1) as selectable markers (2) to select healthy vectors
(3) as sequences from where replication starts (4) to keep the cultures free of infection
14. Which one is a true statement regarding DNA polymerase used in PCR?
(1) It is isolated from a virus (2) It remains active at high temperature
(3) It is used to ligate introduced DNA in recipient cells (4) It serves as a selectable marker
15. For transformation, micro-particles coated with DNA to be bombarded with gene gun are made up of For transformation, micro-
particles coated with DNA to be bombarded with gene gun are made up of
(1) Silicon or Platinum (2) Gold or Tungsten (3) Silver or Platinum (4) Platinum or Zinc
16. The DNA molecule to which the gene of interest is integrated for cloning is called:
(1) Vector (2) Template (3) Carrier (4) Transformer
17. Which of the following is not a feature of the plasmids?
(1) Single stranded (2) Independent replication
(3) Circular structure (4) Transferable

18. Which of the following is a restriction endonuclease?

(1) RNase (2) Hind II (3) Protease (4) DNase I

19. A foreign DNA and plasmid cut by the same restriction endonuclease can be joined to form a recombinant plasmid using
(1) ligase (2) Eco RI (3) Taq polymerase (4) polymerase II
20. Which of the following is not a component of downstream processing?
(1) Expression (2) Separation (3) Purification (4) Preservation

CHAPTER 13
1. One of the following refers to Allen's rule
1) If the stressful conditions are localized or remain only for a short duration, an organism either migrates or suspends itself.
2) Mammals from colder climates have shorter ears and limbs to minimize heat loss
3) An organism can move from a stressful habitat to a more hospitable area and return when the stressful period is over.
4) Low atmospheric pressure in higher altitudes results in altitude sickness.
2. The interaction between the organisms of one of the following pairs is an example for commensalism:
(1) Wasps and fig tree (2) Cuckoo and crow
(3) Cattle or sheep and grass (4) Orchid and mango tree
3. In which type of interactions, both the interacting organisms do not live close together ?
(1) Predation (2) Parasitism (3) Mutualism (4) Competition

4. Connell’s field experiment on the rocky sea coast of Scotland, where larger Barnacle Balanus dominates the intertidal area and
removes the smaller Barnacle Cathamalus. This happened due to
(1) Predation (2) Competition (3) Parasitism (4) Mutualism
5. Mac Arthur’s vision of 5 closely related species of warblers living on same tree were able to avoid competition and co-exist by
behavioural difference. This is an example for:
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A) Competitive release (B) Resource partitioning (C) Competitive exclusion principle (D) Adaptive radiation

6. The logistic population growth is expressed by the equation:

7. ‘r’ value of Flour Beetle is

a) 0.12 b) 0.012 c) 0.015 d) 0.15
8. Gause's principle of competitive exclusion states that:
(1) Larger organisms exclude smaller ones through competition.
(2) More abundant species will exclude the less abundant species through competition.
(3) Competition for the same resources excludes species having different food preferences.
(4) No two species can occupy the same niche indefinitely for the same limiting resources.

9. Asymptote in a logistic growth curve is obtained when:

1) The value of ‘r’ approaches zero 2) K=N
3) K>N 4) K<N

CHAPTER 14
Ecosystem

2. Identify the incorrect statement from the following :

1) Pyramid of energy is mostly upright, but sometimes it may be inverted.
2) Pyramid of number and biomass may be either upright or inverted.
3) Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally inverted as the biomass of fish far
exceeds that of phytoplanktons.
4) Food chains are generally short with few trophic levels as only 10% of the energy is transferred to each trophic level from the
lower trophic level.
3. The pioneer species in Xerarch and Hydrarch succession are respectively
1) Lichens and Sedges 2) Lichens and rooted hydrophytes
3) Lichens and phytoplanktons 4) Phytoplanktons and lichens
4. One of the following area is an example for secondary succession, if the succession takes place in/on
1) Abandoned farm land 2) newly cooled lava
3) Newly created pond 4) bare rock
5. The rate of formation of new organic matter by deer in a forest ecosystem is called
(1) Primary productivity (2) Secondary productivity
(3) Standing crop (4) Net Primary productivity
6. Climax community is a state of:
(A) non-equilibrium (B) near equilibrium
C) pioneer species D) changing community
7. The precipitation of soluble inorganic substances into the soil from detritus is called
a) Catabolism b) Leaching
c) Mineralization d) Humification
8. Mass of living matter at a trophic level in an area at any time is called
1. Standing state 2. Standing crop 3. Detritus 4. Humus
9. If 20 J of energy is trapped at producer level, then how much energy will be available to peacock as food in the following chain?

Plant mice snake peacock

(1) 0.02 J (2) 0.002 J (3) 0.2 J (4) 0.0002 J

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CHAPTER 15
Biodiversity and its conservation
1. One of the chief reasons among the following for the depletion in the number of species
making it endangered is .
(1) Greenhouse effect (2) Habitat destruction
(3) Over-hunting and poaching (4) Competition and predation
2. Find the wrongly matched pair:
1) Endemism -------- Species confined to one region and also found in other regions
2) Alien species --------- Clarius gariepinus
3) Lungs of the planet -------- Amazon rain forest
4) Hot spots ------------ Regions with species richness
3. Which one of the following has maximum genetic diversity in India?
(1) Mango (2) Wheat (3) Tea (4) Teak
4. In the History of earth, how many episodes of mass extinction of species were witnessed?
a) Five b) Six c) Three d) None
5. Which one of the following is an example of ex situ conservation?
(1) Wild life sanctuary (2) Seed bank (3) Sacred groves (4) National park

CHAPTER 16
Environmental issues
1. Carbon dioxide is called a “greenhouse” gas, because
1) It is involved in photosynthesis 2) It emits light
3) It traps infrared radiations 3) It traps ultraviolet radiations
2. Which of the following is true for eutrophicated water body?
(1) High mineral content 2) High oxygen content (3) Rich species diversity (4) Low organic content

3. BOD refers to
1) The amount of oxygen consumed if all the organic matter in 1000 ml of water were oxidised by bacteria
2) The amount of oxygen released when all the organic matter was consumed by bacteria in 1 litre of water
3) The oxygen required for bacteria to grow in 1 litre of effluent
4) The amount of oxygen released if all the organic matter in 1000 ml water were oxidized by bacteria
4. A scrubber in the exhaust of a chemical industrial plant removes
1) Gases like sulphur doxide
2) Particulate matter of the size 5 micrometers or above
3) Gases like ozone or methane
4) Gases like nitrous oxide
5. Snow blindness is caused due to
(1) Ozone hole (2) Nuclear winter
(3) Acid rain (4) Green house effect
6. As the organic matter increases in a water body, the BOD:
(A) increases (B) decreases
(C) remains unchanged (D) not a parameter
7. The thickness of the ozone in a column of air from the ground to the top of the atmosphere is measured in terms of
a) Dobson units b) decibel c) ppm d) mg/liter
8. In India, the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act came into force in
a) 1981 b) 1980 c) 1982 d) 1990
9. The two gases making highest relative contribution to the green house gases are –
(1) CO2 and CH4 (2) CH4 and N2O (3) CFCs and N2O (4) CO2 and N2O
10. ''Good ozone'' is found in the :
(1) Ionosphere (2) Mesosphere (3) Troposphere (4) Stratosphere