Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Basic Exam Qustion Set
Basic Exam Qustion Set
1. SNT – TC – 1A is
a. Will be helpful in solving the dispute between the customer and the
supplier.
b. Will be helpful in establishing the acceptance standard for a product.
c. To get the concurrence of any company's written practice.
d. Will clarify the questions relating to the document.
e. Only c & d.
4. Level III certification through examination was introduced by ASNT only after the
year.
a. 1975. b.1968. c. 1970. d. 1984. e. 1980.
5. The third revision (1984) of SNT – TC – 1A contains which of the following.
a. The definition of outside agency is given in this only and not in the 2 nd
revision ( 1980 – out side agency provision is provided ).
b. Eddy current testing is renamed as Electromagnetic testing.
c. Re-certification duration is changed for level III from 3 years to 5 years.
d. a & c only.
e. All of the above.
6. ASNT conducts certification examinations for
a. Level – I only. b. Level – II only.
c. Level – III only. d. For all the three levels.
e. None of the above.
7. As per SNT – TC – 1A, the outside agency means
a. A level III individual.
b. An engineering organization.
c. Either a or b.
d. Anybody other than ASNT.
a. ASNT has been providing certification examination for level III personnel
since the late 1960's.
b. SNT - TC – 1A was first published in the late 1960's.
c. SNT – TC – 1A requires that level III personnel be qualified and certified
by ASNT.
d. SNT – TC – 1A was developed to satisfy requirements for NDT personnel
qualification and certification set forth in parts of the ASME boiler and
pressure vessel code.
e. All of the above statements are true.
1
9. In practical usage, the recommendation of SNT – TC – 1A :
a. ASNT.
b. The individual's employer.
c. The government regulatory agency.
d. The customer's auditor.
e. None of the above.
a. Visual testing.
b. Holographic testing.
c. Acoustic emission testing.
d. Only a & c above.
e. None of the above.
14. Certification is
2
15. Use of SNT – TC – 1A is mandatory when
a. Yes, the intent in SNT – TC – 1A is that the level – I may perform the
above functions provided they are in accordance with written procedures
and so documented in the employer written practice.
b. No, the level – I may perform the above functions in accordance with
written procedures, but must be under constant supervision and guidance
of a level – I or level – III.
c. No, the level – I may not sign for test results.
d. Yes, provided that the level – I receives detailed verbal instructions from
the level – II or III and demonstrates his capability to follow the
instructions.
a. May conduct on the job training and guidance of level – I personnel, with
the level – I, training and guiding trainees.
b. Is responsible for the training and examination of level – I personnel for
certification.
c. Must be capable of and responsible for establishing techniques.
d. All of the above are true.
e. None of the above are true.
20. According to SNT – TC – 1A, which of the following is true for a level – III ?
3
21. According to SNT – TC – 1A, which of the following is not true for a level III ?
22. In accordance with SNT – TC – 1A, who is responsible for establishing a written
practices for the control and administration of NDT personnel training,
examination, and certification.
4
27. The recommended number of training hours in particular method are
5
33. Which of the following statements is true concerning re-certification?
a. Surface laminations.
b. Internal forging bursts.
c. Surface cracks.
d. Sub-Surface cracks.
35. Water washable liquid penetrants differ from post emulsification penetrants in
that water-washable penetrants
38. The sensitivity of two penetrants for crack detection is best compared by :
6
40. In magnetic particle testing the factors which must be considered when
interpreting an indication are :
a. Longitudinal magnetization.
b. Circular magnetization.
c. Vector magnetization.
d. Parallel magnetization.
42. The input current requirements for MT equipment in part depend upon the :
43. When testing by eddy current method discontinuities will be most easily detected
when eddy currents are :
a. U-shaped coil.
b. Gap coils.
c. Encircling coils.
d. None of the above.
a. Magnetostriction.
b. Electromagnetic induction.
c. Piezoelectric energy conversion.
d. Magneto motive force.
46. Which of the following methods may be used to improve signal – to noise ratio of
an eddy current test system?
a. Filtering or differentiation.
b. Phase discrimination.
c. Integration.
d. All of the above.
7
47. At a fixed frequency, in which of the following materials will the eddy current
penetration be greatest?
48. In Eddy Current testing, the theoretical maximum testing speed is determined by
the :
a. Hydrogenous material.
b. Water.
c. Lead.
d. Boron carbide.
a. A Cf252 source.
b. An accelerator.
c. A nuclear reactor.
d. A Cf252 source plus a multiplier.
8
55. In AET the location of the defect is done by :
a. Triangulation technique.
b. The rectangular technique.
c. The circular technique.
d. None of the above.
56. Placing the snifter probe or gun of a halogen diode leak detector in a stream of
pure refrigerant.
60. Which one of the following is the major disadvantage of thermography testing :
a. Quartz.
b. Liquid nitrogen.
c. Indium antimonite.
d. Barium titan ate.
9
62. The total radiant power emitted by a black body can be obtained from :
a. Planck’s law.
b. Stefan boatzman relation.
c. Wein’s law.
d. None of the above.
a. Planck’s law.
b. Stefan broltzman relation.
c. Wein’s law.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.
64. Infrared measurements for NDT are normally carried out in the wavelength
region.
a. 2 – 5.6 microns.
b. 8 – 14 microns.
c. 16 – 32 microns.
d. a & c above.
e. All of the above.
a. Intensity only.
b. Intensity and phase.
c. Intensity, transmit time, phase and echo.
d. Transmit time only.
68. In optical holography the light source used in :
a. Transmitters only.
b. Receivers only.
c. Both transmitter and receiver.
d. a, b and c.
a. Near Zone.
b. Far Zone.
c. Irregular Zone.
d. Free field.
a. rough surfaces.
b. Small grain structure.
c. Coarse grain structure.
d. Irregular shape.
72. Which of the following frequencies would probably result in the greatest
ultrasonic attenuation losses?
a. 1.0 mHz.
b. 2.25 mHz.
c. 10 mHz.
d. 25 mHz.
73. Beam divergence is a function of the dimensions of the crystal and the
wavelength of the beam transmitted through medium and :
74. When using a part with a rough surface, it is generally advisable to use :
a. A lower frequency search unit and more viscous couplant than is used on
parts with a smooth surface.
b. Higher frequency search unit and a more viscous couplant than is used
on parts with a smooth surface.
c. A lower frequency search unit and a less viscous couplant than is used
on parts with a smooth surface.
d. A lower frequency search unit and a less viscous couplant than is used
on parts with a smooth surface.
75. Irrelevant or false indications from contoured surfaces are likely to result in a :
11
76. A couplant is used in Ultrasonic testing to :
a. 6.35 feet.
b. 3.10 inches.
c. 6.35 millimeters.
d. 30,000 angstrom units.
a. Gray.
b. Rem.
c. Roentgen.
d. Becquerel.
82. The inverse square law as applied to radiation protection states that :
a. Radiation intensity varies inversely as the square of the time spent near
the focal spot.
b. Radiation intensity varies proportionally with distance from the focal spot.
c. Radiation intensity varies inversely as the square of distance from the
focal spot.
d. None of the above.
12
83. What is the one requirement that every radiographic film base must have ?
a. Flexibility.
b. Transparency.
c. Toughness.
d. Fine grains.
88. Which of the following statements best differentiates between a defect and a
discontinuity?
13
91. An important basis for the success of fracture control design procedures is :
a. That all flaws are detected by NDT or proof testing before the component
enters service.
b. Is the use of large factor of safety?
c. Is the use of a value of strength that the material used in the design is
presumed to possess?
d. The need to assure that unexpected flaws of some critical size are not
present when the component enters service.
e. All of the above.
92. If properly utilized, NDT can assist in fracture control by :
a. Accurately measuring the tensile strength of design materials providing
an accurate evaluation of the number and type of discontinuities that exist
in a material.
b. Providing an accurate evaluation of the number and type of
discontinuities that exist in a material.
c. Predicting the time it will take a given size discontinuity to grow to a
critical size.
d. All of the above.
93. Even at the early stages of product planning, nondestructive testing should be
considered because :
a. Indirect tests.
b. Physical properties.
c. Destructive tests.
d. Proof tests.
96. On the diagram below, point B is called the:
a. Elastic range.
b. Elastic limit.
c. Yield point.
d. Modulus of elasticity.
14
97. In the preceding figure, which of the following ranges indicate the effect of work-
hardening (to its maximum) caused by plastic flow of the material during a
tensile load?
a. A – B.
b. B – C.
c. C – D.
d. D – E.
e. E – F.
98. The modulus of elasticity, or young’s modulus, is measure of the material’s
relative :
a. Tensile strength.
b. Compressive strength.
c. Resistance to stress.
d. Stiffness.
e. Yield strength.
99. A fatigue failure can often be prevented by utilizing NDT to :
100. Many metals exhibit an increase in strength caused by plastic flow beyond
the elastic limit. This effect is called.
a. Different size grains that can exist at the same time in a metallic
structure.
b. Sequence of crystalline growth in typical mild steel.
c. Lattice structures that make up unit cells in a solid metallic structure.
d. Change in a metallic structure as it undergoes plastic deformation.
103. The terms “precipitation hardening” and “solution heat treatment” are often
used interchangeably with the term
a. Age hardening.
b. Recrystallization.
c. Annealing.
d. Work hardening.
e. Plasticizing.
15
104. An NDT method that has the ability to measure changes in electrical
conductivity caused by the effects of heat treatment is :
105. When a steel has been quench-hardened and is reheated to some point
below the lower transformation temperature for the purpose of reducing
brittleness, this is called:
a. Austenitization.
b. Thermal slip deformation.
c. Allotropic change.
d. Tempering.
106. Annealing is usually performed to:
a. Decrease hardness.
b. Increase ductility.
c. Relieve stress.
d. Both (a) and (b) above.
e. All of the above.
107. The reduction of iron are by mixing with coke, limestone, and oxygen for
combustion of the coke is accomplished in :
a. A blast furnace.
b. An open-hearth furnace.
c. A bessemer converter.
d. A basic oxygen furnace.
108. Typically, the highest quality of steel is produced in :
a. An electric furnace.
b. An open-hearth furnace.
c. A bessermer furnace.
d. A basic oxygen furnace.
109. What percentage of carbon is found in steel?
a. Between 3 and 4 %.
b. Between 2 and 3 %.
c. Less than 0.2 %.
d. Less than 2 %.
110. An undesirable by-product of steel-making processes is :
a. Coke.
b. Low carbon steel.
c. Low alloy steel.
d. Slag.
111. Low carbon steel contains approximately :
16
112. Corrosion-resistant steels having relatively high percentages of nickel and
chromium are called:
a. Wright Iron.
b. Low alloy steels.
c. Stainless steels.
d. Nonferrous steels.
113. Brass and bronze are alloys of zink tin, and a large percentage of :
a. Beryllium.
b. Copper.
c. Lead.
d. Nickel.
a. Nickel alloys.
b. Steel alloys.
c. Magnesium alloys.
d. Aluminum alloys.
e. Copper alloys.
115. A high strength, low density, corrosion resistant metal alloy of significance in
the aircraft, marine, and chemical processing industries is :
a. Tungsten.
b. Zinc.
c. Titanium.
d. Magnesium.
a. The metal cools at a constant rate, thus providing fine equiaxed grains
throughout.
b. Cooling takes place in phases having different rates that produce different
types of grain structure in different sections of the casting.
c. Solidification occurs at a constant rate, beginning at the interior of the
casting and progressing outward.
d. Thick sections tend to cool more rapidly than thin sections consist mostly
of fine equiaxed grains.
118. Large voids or porosity in a casting results from :
17
d. Gas evolution before and during solidification.
119. The term used to describe a discontinuity in a casting that occurs when molten
metal interfaces with already solidified metal with failure to fuse at the interface
is :
a. Hot tear.
b. Cold shut.
c. Lack of fusion.
d. Segregation.
120. A casting process used to produce hollow products like large pipes
and hollow shafts is :
a. Investment casting.
b. Blow casting.
c. Core casting.
d. Central casting.
a. Forgings.
b. Castings.
c. Extrusions.
d. Central fungal casting.
122. After welding, many steel weldments are heat treated to obtain more
uniform properties between the weld and base metal and to relieve
stress. Which heat treatment method is often used following
welding ?
a. Tempering.
b. Martensitic.
c. Normalizing.
d. Spheroidizing.
123. Welds and weldments have been known to develop cracks long after
cooling but prior to being used in service what is the principal cause
for such cracks ?
a. The three consecutive stages that the metal goes through during the
production of products such as angle iron and channel iron.
b. The shapes that the ingot is rolled into prior to a variety of secondary
operations.
c. Types of defects that occurs during the hot rolling of steel.
d. The three different shapes produced during typical cold rolling operations.
132. The mill working process performed principally on flat products and
bars that improves hardness, strength, surface finish and dimensional
accuracy is :
a. Cold rolling.
b. Hot rolling.
c. Forging.
19
d. Extrusion.
e. Sintering.
a. Drawing.
b. Welding.
c. Extrusion.
d. Casting.
e. Pressing.
20