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STARS ACADEMY LAHORE

Head office: 198-L Khokhar Chowk, Johar Town Lahore, 042-35298052, www.stars.edu.pk

 
                              Prof. Kashif Jamil  
0332‐1450095 

STARS ENTRY TEST SYSTEM-2017

Test Code: C8  (Organic unit 1+2)      Session-MDCAT                   

1. Pentane has isomers

A) 1 C) 2
B) 3 D) 4
2. Ethanol and dimethyl ether are isomers
A) Chain Isomers C) Functional Group
B) Metamers D) Cis-Trans Isomers
3. The First inorganic compound to be converted artificially to Organic compound
A) Urea C) Ammunium Cyanide
B)Amunium cyanate D) Ammunia
4. The mechanism in which one of the group gets the whole electron pair during fission
A) polar C) homolytic mechanism
B)free radical mechanism D) heterolytic fission
5. The free radical produced in Chlorination of methane
A) Cl-1 C)R+1
B)Cl . D) Cl2
6. Which one will have greater rate of reaction
A) Polar C) non polar
B) Free radical D) non polar free radical
7. Which one is the polar mechanism involving Heterolytic fission
A) Addition of halogen in alkenes C) halogenation of alkanes
B) Catalytic halogenations of benzene D) A and B
8. The Fuctional group that does not contain Oxygen in it
A) Carboxyl C) Nitro
B) Nitrile D) Hydroxyl
9. Which is not derivative of carboxyl group
A) Acid amide C) Acid halide
B) Carbide D) ester
10. The Functional group present in Amino acids is
A) Amide C) Carboxyl
B) Amino D) Amino and carboxyl
11. The Group CO2H is called
A) fatty acid C) carbonyl
B) carboxylic acid group D) Hydroxy carbonyl
12. The compounds containing >C=O Group are called
A) Carbonyl compounds C) Alcohols
B) carboxylic compounds D) ethers
13. The group C-O-C is called
A) ether C) carbonyl
B) ester D) Carboxy
14. The functional group found in more than one group of organic compounds is
A) Hydroxy C) nitro
B) Carboxy D) none of these
15. The functional group responsible for joining Alcohols and carboxylic acids together is
A) ether C) carbonyl
B) ester D) cyanide
16. The functional group in open chain form of glucose is
A) OH C) Ketonic
B) HCO D) ether
17. geometrical isomerism is a result of
A) single bond C)triple bond
B) double bond D)Quadrupled bond
18. CH3-O-CH2-CH2-CH3 is _____ of CH3-CH3-O-CH2-CH3
A) Chain Isomer C) Position Isomer
B) Functional group Isomer D) Metamer
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19. Which of the following cannot show metamerism
A) Ketone C) Ether
B) Esters D) Carboxylic acids
20. Isopropyl alcohol is named by IUPAC as
A) 1 – propanol C) 3 – propanol
B) 2 – propanol D) 1- Butanol
21. Functional group isomer of propanol is
A) acetone C) Methyl ethyl ether
B) Dimethyl ether D) Diethyl ether
22. The Number of amide groups in urea
A) 1 C) 3
B) 2 D) 4
23. Which formula could represent Cis-trans isomerism
A)C2H6O2 C) C2H3Cl
B)C2H2O4 D)C2H2Cl2
24. Which of the following cannot exhibit Cis-trans isomerism?
A) 2-Pentene C) 2-butene
B) 2-butyne D) 2-Hexene
25. Carboxylic acids may show functional group isomerism with
A) Aldehydes C)ethers
B) Ketone D)esters
26. Physical and chemical properties are different is
A) metamerism C) Cis-trans isomerism
B) functional group isomersm D) all of these
27. The compound C2H2Cl2 has ------- number of structural isomers
A) 1 C) 3
B) 2 D) 4
28. 1,3-hexadiene has how many Cis trans isomers
A) 1 C) 3
B) 2 D) 0
29. Position isomers of C6H12 are
A)1 C) 3
B) 2 D) 4
30. Inertness of alkanes is due to
A)inertness of sigma bond
B)non polarity
C)compact structure
D)Inertness of sigma bonds and non polar nature
31. Combustion of alkanes requires a flame or a spark, it is a ______ reaction
A) endothermic C)zerothermic
B)exothermic D) spontaneous exothermic
32. Combustion of alkanes in excess air produces
A) CO2 C)heat
B)water D)all of these
33. Carbon black is produces during_____________ of alkanes
A)catalytic oxidation C)Combustion in limited air
B)combustion in excess air D) reaction with Iron oxide
34. The major reaction that occours in internal combustion engines is
A)Combustion C)Substitution
B)Catalytic oxidation D) decomposition
35. Catalytic oxidation of alkanes is used in industry to produce
A)fatty acids C)vegetable oils
B)soaps D)Alkenes
36. Essential condition for clorination of Alkanes are
A)Presence of High temperature C)light
B)presence of UV D)Intense cold
37. The reaction between Alkanes and Fluorine results in
A)Carbon C)HF
B)Fluorinated Alkanes D) Fluoro-alkanes and HF
38. The mechanism of Chlorination is of alkanes
A) Free radical addition C) SN
B)Free radical substitution D) Elimination
39. The sequence of steps in free radical mechanism is
A) Propagation,termination,initiation C)Reverse of A
B) Termination,propagation,initiation D)reverse of B
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40. Which does not happen in the propagation step of chlorination of methane
A) Formation of methyl radical
B)formation of Cl. Free radical
C)production of CH3Cl
D)combination of methyl free radical with Cl free radical
41. The action of UV radiations on Cl2 produces Cl. This is
A)Initiation C)Termination
B)Propagation D) Elongatin
42. The application of Chlorination of alkanes is to produce
A) Mono halo alkanes C) Tri-haloalkanes
B)Dihalo-alkanes D) All of these
43. How many different compounds can be produced by chlorination of methane
A) 2 C)4
B)3 D)5
44. How many different products can be produced by chlorination of ethane
A)2 C)7
B)5 D)9
45. The most violent reaction of methane is with
A) O2 C) Cl2
B) F2 D)Br2
46. Carbon black finds its uses in
A)paints C)tyres
B) printing inks D)All of these
47. reaction of methyl free radical with Cl2 molecule is a/an
A) Initiation step C) termination step
B)Propagation step D) Elongation
48. catalytic oxidation of Alkanes produces
A) aldehydes C) Alkenes
B)Ketones D)Alkynes
49. Extent of Halogenation of alkanes depends on
A) Solvent C)Temperature
B) Amount of halogen D)Nature of alkane
50. CO is the product of incomplete oxidation of
A)Methane C)propane
B)ethane D)All the alkanes
51. Catalyst for catalytic oxidation of Alkanes is
A) Cu C)Ni
B)Au D)Pd
52. Markownikoff,s rule is applied on addition of ______ in Propene
A)HBr C) Br2
B) Cl2 D) H2
53. Bayer,s reagent is ________ alkaline KMnO4
A)1% C) 1.5 %
B) 10% D) 5%
54. Markownikoff’s rule is applied for addition of ------compounds in unsaturated asymmetrical
hydrocarbons
A)symmetrical C)polar
B)asymmetrical D)non polar
55. Which of the following reaction will yield 2, 2 dibromopropane?
A) HC ≡ CH + 2HBr C) CH3 – CH = CH2 + HBr
B) H3C – C ≡ CH + 2HBr D) CH3 – CH ≡ CH – Br + HBr
56. Which compound will show geometrical isomerism?
A) CH 2  CH 2 C) CH 2  CH  Cl
B) CH 2  CCl2 D) ClHC  CHCl
57. Which is not the nucleuphile
A) NH 3 C) F

B) BF3 D) N 2 H5
58. Gasoline is the major product of ________ cracking
A) Thermal cracking C) Steam cracking
B) Catalytic cracking D) Reforming
59. Ethane- 1,2-diol is commonly known as
A) Ethylene Glycol C) Propylene Glycol
B) Glycerol D) Glycolic Acid
60. Which of the following is cannot be used for dehydration of alcohols?
A) Al2O3 C) Conc. H2SO4
B) P2O5 D) SiO2
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STARS ACADEMY LAHORE

Head office: 198-L Khokhar Chowk, Johar Town Lahore, 042-35298052, www.stars.edu.pk

 
                              Prof. Kashif Jamil  
0332‐1450095 

STARS ENTRY TEST SYSTEM-2017

Session-MDCAT
Test Code :C9                      
 
1. Primary secondary and tertiary alcohols can be identify by ______ test.
A) Ring test C) Lucas
B) Fumigation D) Acetal formation
2. Trivial name of 2-propanol is________
A) Hydrenol C) To-propanol
B) Isopropyl alcohol D) Primary propanol
3. Oxidation of_____ alcohols give ketones.
A) Po-alcohol C) Secondary
B) Tertiary D) Quaternary
4. Po primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols can be prepared by reacting Grignard’s Reagent with
A) Formaldehyde C) Dimethyl ether
B) 2-butanol D) Phenol
5. Alcohols are classes of organic compounds which one much closer to _______in structure.
A) Ketones C) Oils
B) Carboxylic acids D) Water
6. Monohydric alcohols are classified into______ classes
A) Two C) Four
B) Three D) Five
7. Alcohols have _______ boiling points than ether
A) Higher C) Resemblance in
B) Lower D) Two times greater
8. Oxidatoin of tertiary alcohols produces._________
A) Ketones C) Malonic acid
B) Aldehydes D) Oxidation does not happen
9. _______ has more acidic strength among following
A) Water C) Ethanol
B) Methanol D) Propanol
10. Alcohols of low molecular weight are soluble in _______
A) Fats C) Water
B) Oils D) Emulsion
11. The trivial name of 2-hydroxy propanoic acid is_______
A) Lactic acid C) Tartaric acid
B) Palmitic acid D) Spirit
12. Formerly methanol was prepared by _________
A) Crystallization C) The reaction of acetone
B) Rectifying D) Distillation of wood
13. First of all, __________ is purified the preparation process of methanol.
A) Carbon dioxide and water C) Water and Carbondioxide
B) Glucose and water D) Water gas
14. Optimum temperature for the preparation is ethyl alcohols in fermentation process is _______
A) 15-200C C) 25-350C
0
B) 20-40 C D) 40-450C
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15. Oxidation of Sec. Alcohols by acidified k2Cr2O7 produces_________
A) Aldehydes C) Carboxylic acids
B) Ketones D) Ethers
16. When ethyl alcohol reacts with PCl5 it produces all of the followings except
A) PO Cl3 C) H3PO3
B) HCl D) C2H5Cl
17. When the dehydration of ethyl alcohol in the presence of con H2SO4 at 1400C is
A) Ethanol C) Dimethyl ether
B) Diethyl ether D) Acetic acid
18. _________ reacts with HCl in the presence of ZnCl2 immediately
A) Primary alcohol C) Tertiary alcohol
B) Secondary alcohol D) Only monohydric alcohols
19. _________ is used as antifreeze is radiators of automobiles.
A) Methanol C) Propanol
B) Ethanol D) Butanol
20. ________ does not give yellow ppt after reacting with alkaline aqueous iodine.
A) Methanol C) Acetone
B) Ethanol D) Ethanal
21. The dissociation constant value (ka) of phenol is__________
A) 2.9 x 10-10 C) 1.3 x 10-10
B) 1.9 x 10-10 D) 2.3 x 10-10
22. When phenol reacts with _________ it produces ortho and para nitro phenol
A) Dilute HNO3 C) Dilute H2SO4
B) Concentrated HNO3 D) Concentrated H2SO4
23. When aqueous phenol reacts with bromine water it gives _______precipitates.
A) Red C) Orange
B) White D) Yellow
24. The trivial name of 2,4,6-trinitro phenol is________
A) Lactic acid C) Picric acid
B) Tartaric acid D) Sulphuric acid
25. Phenol Is acidic in nature the reason is________
A) Stability of phenoxide ion C) Pressure of OH in
B) Very low value of dissociation D) Constant
26. The pH of phenol solution is around__________
A) 3 to 4 C) 5 to 6
B) 2 to 3 D) 1 to 4
27. The hydrolysis of sugar is called_______
A) Condensation C) Inversion
B) Polymerization D) Reduction
28. Which alcohol is not reactive toward sodium metal.
A) ter.Butyl alcohol C) n- propyl alcohol
B) isopropyl alcohol D) Have same reactivity
29. When ethyl alcohol is prepared by fermentation it is_______ percent pure.
A) 98% C) 12%
B) 76% D) 14%
30. Ethanol reacts with sodium metal to liberate,
A) CO2 gas C) CO gas
B) H2 gas D) Steam
31. Mostly aldehydes are naturally present in
A) Oils C) Sugars
B) Fats D) Minerals
32. Ketonic group are present in
A) Acetophenone C) Maltose
B) Glucose D) Risbose
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33. Which of the following will undergo nucleo philic addition reaction more easily
A) Aldehyde C) Aldehyde and ketones equally
B) Alkene D) Neither aldehyde nor alkenes
34. Aldehydes are easily oxidized by mild oxidizing agent like________
A) Acidified K2 Cr2 O7 C) Conc. HNO3
B) Acidified KMnO4 D) Fehling solution
35. Acetone can be oxidized by
A) Acetic acid C) Acetal
B) Aldehydes D) Acidified K2Cr2O7
36. Phenol produces salt when reacts with.
A) Aldehydes C) HNO3
B) Ketones D) NaOH
37. Formaldehyde is prepared in laboratory by passing a mixture of methyl alcohol and air in the
presence of catalyst.
A) Dil H2SO4 C) pt- asbestos
B) Dil H2SO4 + Na2Cr2O7 D) Pd Cl2 + CuCl2
38. Methanol is oxidized to gaseous formaldehyde which is absorb in water, which is called
as________
A) Ethanol C) Aniline
B) Formalin D) Aldol
39. Acetaldehyde formed in liquid state is immediately distilled of because
A) It deteriorates immediately C) It oxidized into ketone
B) It converted into acetic acid D) It evaporates quickly
40. Acetone reacts with 2,4-DNPH, we get.
A) Acetal
B) Acetone 2,4 dinitrophenyl hydrazine
C) Acetone- 2,4- dinitro phenyl hydrazone
D) Acetaldehyde 2,4 dinitro phenyl hrdrzone
41. The compound with maximum boiling point is
A) Mathanal C) Propanal
B) Ethanal D) 2-Hexanone
42. Sodium borohydride is a__________
A) Lewis base C) Lowry bronsted acid
B) Lewis acid D) Lowry browsted base
43. Sodium borohydride reduces the ______double bond is aldehyde and ketones
A) Carbon-oxygen C) Lowry bronsted acid
B) Carbon – carbon D) Lowry bronsted base
44. Ketone do not oxidized with ________ oxidizing agents.
A) K2Cr2O7/ H2SO4 C) Conc. HNO3
B) KMnO4/ H2SO4 D) Benedict solution
45. _________ donnot give Iodoform test.
A) Acetaldehyde C) Acetone
B) Methanol D) Methyl ketone
46. Fehling solution is a complex of__________
A) Cupric and oxalate C) Cyprous tartarate
B) Cupric amine D) Cupric tartarate
47. Acetaldehyde cyanohydrin upon hydrolysis produces.
A) Tartaric acid C) Malonic acid
B) Formic acid D) Lactic acid
48. Cyanohydrin of which of the following will yield lactic acid_________
A) HCHO C) CH3CH2CHO
B) CH3COCH3 D) CH3CHO
49. Which one of the following is resistant to oxidation under normal conditions.
A) Methyl alcohol C) Acetal dehyde
B) Ethyl alcohol D) Acetone
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50. Formalin contains_______% alcohol.
A) 80% C) 8%
B) 37% D) 52%
51. Acetone reacts with HCN to form a cyanohydrin. It is an example of
A) Electrophilic addition C) Electro philic substitution
B) Nucleo philic addition D) Nucleo philic substitution
52. Which of the following will undergo nucleo philic addition
A) Aldehyde C) Alkene
B) Aldehyde and ketone D) Alkanes
53. The general formula of Homologous series of both aldehyde and ketone is
A) C2nHnO C) CnH2nO
B) CnH2nOH D) CnHnO24
54. The reduction of a ketone always gives a _________ alcohol.
A) Primary C) Tertiary
B) Secondary D) Quaternary
55. Aldehydes gives a_________ possible with fehling solution on boiling.
A) Yellow C) Brick red
B) White D) Black
56. Acetone on reduction with NaBH4 gives
A) 2-Propanol C) Propane
B) 1-Propanol D) Propene
57. Zymase is specific for
A) Fructose C) Glucose
B) Galactose D) Mannose
58. Which of the following compounds will give Benedict’s test
A) Acetaldehyde C) Butanone
B) Acetone D) 3-pentanone
59. The carbon atom joined to the ________ is preferentially oxidized in case of unsymmetrical
ketones.
A) Smaller number of Hydrogen atom C) Oxygen
B) Larger number of Hydrogen atom D) Double bond with another carbon
60. Aldehyde and ketones form ________ ppt with 2,4-DNPH solution.
A) Yellow C) Violet
B) Black D) White

TESTS ARE THE BEST FOR YOUR TEST

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STARS ACADEMY LAHORE

Head office: 198-L Khokhar Chowk, Johar Town Lahore, 042-35298052, www.stars.edu.pk

 
                              Prof. Kashif Jamil  
0332‐1450095 

STARS ENTRY TEST SYSTEM-2017

Session-MDCAT
 

Test Code: C10                                    

1. If a hydrogen atom is attached to carboxylic group then the resulting compound will be
A) An aldehyde C) Acetic acid
B) Formic acid D) An alcohol
2. Which of the following acids does not have a carboxyl group
A) Acetic acid C) Aspirin
B) Benzoic acid D) Picric acid
3. In the conversion of wine to vinegar:
A) Ethanol is oxidized to acetic acid C) Methanol is mixed with ethanol
B) Ethanol is reduced to acetic acid D) Methanol is mixed with ethanol
4. The compound in which hydrogen bonding is not possible is:
A) CH3OCH3 C) CH3CH2OH
B) H2O D) CH3COOH
5. Acetic acid undergoes reduction with LiAiH4 to give:
A) Ethane C) Ethanal
B) Ethanol D) Ethyne
6. Which one of the following compounds form zwitterions?
A) Carbonyl compounds C) Phenols
B) Amino acids D) Heterocyclic compounds
7. The linear arrangement of amino acid units in proteins constitute
A) Primary Structure C) Tertiary structure
B) Secondary structure D) Quaternary structure
8. The process of acid hydrolysis may be used to obtain
A) Starch from glucose C) Ethene from polyethylene
B) Amino acid from proteins D) Vinyl Chloride from polyvinyl chloride
9. By convention a peptide having molecular mass up to 10,000 is called:
A) Peptide C) Protein
B) Polypeptide D) Dipeptide
10. Acetic acid is manufactured commercially by:
A) Distillation C) Ozonolysis
B) Fermentation D) Esterification
11. Which of the following is not a fatty acid:
A) Oleic acid C) Phthalic acid
B) Stearic acid D) Butanoic acid
12. Which of the following derivative cannot be prepared directly from acetic acid:
A) Acetic anhydride C) Acetamide
B) Acetyl chloride D) Ethylethanoate
13. Which of the following is neutral amino acid:
A) Glycine C) Lysine
B) Histidine D) Aspartic acid
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14. Carboxylic acid in non polar solvent like benzene forms cyclic dimmer, the correct number of atoms
in a ring is:
A) Six C) Eight
B) Four D) Ten
15. Which acid is used in the manufacturing of synthetic fibre:
A) Formic acid C) Carbonic acid
B) Acetic acid D) Benzoic acid
16. The IUPAC name of terephthalic acid is
A) 1,2 Benzendicarboxylic acid C) 1-4 Benzendicarboxylic acid
B) 1,3 Benzenedicarboxylic acid D) Benzoic acid
17. Carboxylic acid are produced by the acid hydrolysis of
A) Alcohols C) Alkyl nitril
B) Aldehyde D) All
18. Which of the following is strongest acid
A) CH3COOH C) Cl2CHCOOH
B) ClCH2OOH D) Cl3CCOOH
19. Action of PCl5 on acetic acid produces
A) LiAlH 4 / H 2 O C) K 2 Cr2 O7
B) CO / H 2 O D) CH COCl
3

20. Dilute solution of acetic acid is known as__________

A) Molasses C) Amino acid
B) Peptide bond D) Vinegar
21. Jasmine flavour is due to ester
A) Octyl acetate C) Amylacetate
B) Ethyl butyrate D) Benzyl acetate
22. Glycine is the only amino acid that
A) Has Acidic nature C) Does not involve in protein formation
B) That does not form zwitter ion D) has no chiral carbon
23. In the formation of peptide bond water is removed, the H is provided by
A) Amino group C) Alcohols
B) Carboxylic acid D) Side chain
24. Carboxylic acid evolves CO2 with
A) PCl5 C) NaHCO3
B) SOCl2 D) NaOH
25. Ethanoic acid reacts with PCl5 to give ethanoyl chloride, HCl and a third compound. What is the
third compound
A) H 3 PO3 C) SO2
B) POCl 3 D) COCl2

26. The first step in esterification mechanism is ?

A) Nucleophilic addition C) Tautomeric proton transfer
B) Protonation D) Elimination
27. Acid hydrohysis of acetamide will produce _______
A) HCOOH C) CH3COOH
B) ClCH2COOH D) CH3CO)2O
28. Which of the following is different from other structurally
A) Glycine C) Aspartic acid
B) Proline D) Valine
29. A polysaccharide which gives blue color with iodide solution
A) Amylose C) Glycogen
B) Amylopectin D) Cellulose
30. Three dimentional folding of a polypeptide chain gives
A) Primary Structure C) Tertiary structure
B) Secondary structure D) Quaternary structure
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31. Which is homopolymer
A) Polyethylene C) Nylon 6,6
B) Polyester D) Epoxy resins
32. Which is not a macromolecule
A) Polyethylene C) PVC
B) Sand D) Amino acid
33. The pair of macromolecules having same type of linkage
A) Proteins and nylons C) Nylon and polyethylene
B) Protein and PVC D) PVC and Bakelite
34. Nylon 6.6 polymer is formed by reacting
A) Adipic acid and hexamethylene diamine
B) Terphthalic acid and ethylene glycol
C) Hydrogen cyanide and acetylene
D) Vinyl chloride and Ethyl chloride
35. Which one of the following is inorganic polymer
A) Graphite C) DNA
B) Rubber D) Protein
36. Thrombin is locally used to stop
A) Heart disease C) Blood
B) Bleeding D) Eye diseases
37. All are synthetic except
A) PVC C) PVA
B) Starch D) Polyester
38. Which of the following is a molecular formula of vinyl acetate
A) C 4 H 6 O2 C) C 4 H 6 O3
B) C2 H 4 O2 D) CH3COOH
39. Which of following is not use of polyvinylacetate (PVA)
A) An adhesive material C) Used as gramophone
B) Binder for emulsion D) Chewing gum
40. The primary building blocks of DNA are
A) Fatty acid and Glycerol C) Sterols only
B) Glycerol only D) Nucleotides
41. A zwitterions is
A) A negatively charged ion without a metal atom in it
B) A positively charged ion without a metal atom in it
C) An ion with positive and negative charges at different points in it
D) A heavy ion with a small charge in it
42. Which is not true about polymers?
A) They have low Molecular weight C) They have high viscosity
B) They do not carry any charge D) They scatter light
43. Polyester is a polymer of
A) Ethylene glycol + vinyl acetate C) Ethylene glycol + malic anhydride
B) Glycol + pathalic anhydride D) Ethylene glycol + Terephthalic acid
44. CF =CF is the monomer of
2 2
A) PVC C) Polythene
B) Bakelite D) Teflon
45. Which sugar is present in DNA?
A) Purine only C) Ribose
B) Deoxyribose D) Pyrimidine only
46. Peptides are formed from
A) Aliphatic amines C)  -amino acid
B) Carbohydrates D) Glycine
47. The polymer having amide linkage is
A) PVC C) Bakelite
B) Terylene D) Nylon-66
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O
||
48. Which of the polymers has ester linkage  C  O   ?
A) Urea-formaldehyde C) Terylene
B) Alkyl resin D )Bakelite
49. Consider the following reaction
CH 3COOH  Mg 
?
A) Magnesium formate C) Magnesium Ion
B) Magnesium Acetate D) Carboxlate Ion
50. What is the compound whose structure is shown

A) a nucleotide C) a product of a saponification reaction

B) a triglyceride D) an unsaturated fatty acid
51. At intermediate value of pH, amino acids form Zwitterions containing
(A) NH3+1 and COO-1 (C) NH2 and COOH
(B) NH2 and COO-1 (D) NH3+ and COOH
52. The skeletal formula of dipeptide formed between aspartic acid and phenylalanine is given below

How many functional groups are present is its formula?

(A) 1 (C) 4
(B) 2 (D) 3
53. In basic conditions, amino acid exists in which of the following forms?
(A) H3N+ – CH2 – COOH (C) H3N+ – CH2 – COO-
(B) H2N – CH2 – COOH (D) H2N – CH2 – COO-
54. Structure of a dipepetide is
O
||
H2N – CH2 – C – NH – CH – COOH
|
CH3
This is called:
(A) Glycyl glycine (C) Alaninyl alanine
(B) Glycyl alanine (D) Alaninyl glycine
55. Deoxyribonucleic acid
(A) acts as energy storage for the cell.
(B) determines the primary structure of proteins.
(C) forms peptide bonds with the amine group of amino acids.
(D) provides structure and support in the nucleus of the cell.
56. The secondary and tertiary structures of proteins
(A) are a result of hydrogen bonding between the ribose–phosphate backbone of the polymer chains.
(B) are determined by the primary structure, the sequence of nucleic acids in the protein.
(C) indicate the position of the hydroxyl groups in the carbon chain of the polymer.
(D) result in the protein being globular, as in some enzymes, or fibrous, as in muscle fibres.
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57. There is an enormous variety of proteins because
(A) DNA consists of at least 20 amino acids which code for proteins.
(B) DNA consists of 4 different amino acids which code for proteins.
(C) proteins are made up of 20 different amino acids that can combine to form millions
of sequences.
(D) proteins are synthesized from groups of three amino acids for each nucleotide.
58. The reaction
O H H H
|| | | ||
H2N – CH – C – OH + H – N – C – C – OH 
| |
H H
Gives a product called dipeptide molecule represented by

O H H O H H O
|| | | || | | ||
(A) H2N – CH – C – O – N – C – C - OH (C) H2N – CH2 – C – O – N – C – C – OH
| | | | |
H H H H H

H H O O H O
| | || || | ||
(B) HN – CH2 – C – O – N – C – C - OH (D) H2N – CH – C – N – C – C – OH
| | | | | |
H H H H H H

59. Collagen is a fibrous protein present most abundantly in

(A) Arteries (C) Nail
(B) Hair (D) Tendons
60. The formula of ‘zwitterion’ is represented by
+ -
NH3 CH CO R
+ -
(A) R (C) NH3 CH CO2

+ - + -
NH4 CH CO2 NH2 CH COO

(B) R (D) R

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 Page # 1  

STARS ACADEMY LAHORE

Head office: 198-L Khokhar Chowk, Johar Town Lahore, 042-35298052, www.stars.edu.pk

 
                              Prof. Kashif Jamil  
0332‐1450095 

STARS ENTRY TEST SYSTEM-2017

Test Code : C11            Session-MDCAT                        
(Alkyl halides+ environmental chemistry) 

 
1. IUPAC name of CHCl2-CF3
A) 1,1,1-Trifluoro,-2,2-dichloroethane C) 1,1-Trifluoro,-2,2-dichloroethane
B) 2,2,2-Trifluoro,-1,1-dichloroethane D) 2,2-Dichloro,-1,1,1-trifluoroethane
2. Bond energy of C–Cl bond is
A) 467 KJ mol– 1 C) 346 KJ mol– 1
B) 413 KJ mol– 1 D) 228 KJ mol– 1
3. In nucleophilic substitution bimolecular reaction the order of reaction with respect to substrate
A) 2nd order C) 1st order
rd
B) 3 order D) Zero order
4. The number of molecules taking part in the rate determining step is called
A) Order of reaction C) Molecularity of a reaction
B) Rate of reaction D) Extent of a reaction
5. Rate of SN1 reaction depends upon Conc of
A) Catalyst C) Leaving group
B) Attacking nucleophile D) Substrate
6. Which of the following reactants will be required to form ethene from ethyl chloride
A) Alcoholic KOH C) Alkaline KMnO4
B) Aqueous KOH D) Aqueous NaOH
7. When an Alkyl halide reacts with excess of ammonia Which of the following is produced
A) Primary Amine C) Tertiary amine
B) Secondary amine D) Quaternary ammonium halide
8. Which of the following is not a nulceophile

A) OH  C) C 2 H 5O 
B) NH 3 D) Br+
9. The reactivity order of alkyl halides for a particular alkyl group is
A) Fluoride > chloride > bromide > iodide C) Iodide > bromide > chloride > fluoride
B) Chloride > bromide > fluoride > iodide D) Bromide > iodide > chloride >fluoride
10. For which mechanisms, the first step involved is the same
A) E1 and E2 C) E2 and E1
B) E2 and SN2 D) E1 and SN1
11. The rate of E1 reaction depends upon
A) The concentration of substrate
C) The concentration of substrate as well as nucleophile
B) the concentration of nucleophile
D) 2nd step
12. Reduction of alkyl halides give
A) Alkanes C) Ketones
B) Alkenes D) Ether
13. Alkyl halides on treatment with KCN alcoholic give
A) Alkynes C) Alkyl Nitriles
B) Alkenes D) Alcohols
14. Ethyl bromide is formed by the reaction of HBr with
A) Ethane C) Ethyne
B) Ethene D) Propane
15. Each of the following compounds is effective as refrigerant. The release of which one of these
causes the greatest depletion of the ozone layer
A) CCl2 F2 C) CH 3CHF2
B) CH 3OCH 3 D) CH 3CH 2CH 3
 Page # 2  

C 2 H 5 Br 
 C 2 H 5 OH
step 1
16. Chloro ethane can be formed from bromoethane in two steps

  C2 H 5Cl
step 2

Which statement about these steps are correct

A) Step 1 uses alcoholic KOH C) Step 2 uses hot aqueous NaCl
B) Step 1 involves a nuceophilic substitution D) Step 2 is electrophilic substitution
17. Which halide is hydrolysed faster
A) CH 3CH 2 F C) CH 3CH 2 Br
B) CH 3CH 2 Cl D) CH 3CH 2 l
18. Action of Na with alkyl halides in the presence of an inert solvent forms higher alkanes. This
reaction is known as
A) Wurtz reaction C) Cannizaro reaction
B) Frankland’s reaction D) Kolbe’s reaction
19. Thionyl chloride reacts with alcohol to form alkyl halide reaction takes place in the presence of
A) Zinc chloride C) Aniline
B) Pyridine D) Amines
20. PCl5 reacts with alcohol to form alkyl halide. In this reaction by products are
A) H3PO4+H2O C) POCl2 + HCl
B) POCl3 + HCl D) POCl3 + H2O
21. Statement correct about Nucleophillic subtitution bimolecular is
A) Transition state is formed C) It is two step reaction
B) No Inversion takes place D) Rate is independent of substrate
22. During SN2 mechanism, carbon atom changes it state of hybridization from
A) sp  sp C) sp  sp
2 3

B) sp 2  sp 3 D) sp 3  sp 2
23. C  Cl bond of CH3Cl in comparison to C  Cl bond in tertiary butyl chloride is
A) Easily dissociated in water C) More reactive
B) Less easily dissociated in water D) Allowes easy attack
24. The alkyl halide is converted into an alcohol by
A) Substitution C) Elimination
B) Addition D) Dehydrohalogenation
25. Halogenoalkanes can be produced by addition of halogen in all except
A) CH 2  CH 2 C) CH  CH
B) CH 3CH  CH 2 D) CH3-CH3

26. 50% inversion of configuration takes place in

A) E1 C) E2
B) SN1 D) SN2
27. Which of the following reactants will be required to form ethene from ethyl chloride
A) Alcoholic KOH C) Alkaline KMnO4
B) Aqueous KOH D) Aqueous NaOH
28. Strongest nucleophile among the following is
A) CH 3 C) OH
B) NH2 D) F
29. An environmental pollutant affects the quality of life and the natural functioning of ecosystem.
Which of the following is not an environmental pollutant
A) CO C) NO2
B) NO D) CO2
30. Surface and ground water sources are contaminated by various human activities. Which of the
followings is not human activity that causes contamination in fresh water.
A) Live stock waste C) Disposal of industrial effluents
B) Oil leaks and spills D) Rain
31. Tertiary butyl chloride reacts with aqueous KOH the reaction follows
A) SN1 mechanism C) E1 mechanism
B) SN2 mechanism D) E2 mechanism
32. Which is good leaving nucleophile as well as attacking group
A) F- C) Cl-
B) Br- D) I-
33. 2,2-Dichloro,-1,1,1-trifluoroethane is used as
A) Antknocking agent C) Disinfectant
B) Solvent D) Anesthetic
34. CCl4 is used as
A) Solvent C) Denaturing of alcohol
B) Aerosol propellant D) Fuel
 Page # 3  
35. CF2=CF2 on polymerization gives
A) PTFE C) PVA
B) PET D) Polyethylene
36. Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) is the capacity of organic matter in natural water to consume
oxygen
A) 2 days C) 6 days
B) 5 days D) 7 days
37. Which process reduces volume of solid waste by considerable factor
A) Aeration C) Treatment with chlorine
B) Coagulation D) Incineration
38. The disposal of domestic refuse, commercial and industrial solid wastes are studied under the title
A) Solid waste management C) Solid management
B) Waste management D) Semisolid management
39. Solid waste of the city is disposed off by dumping in a landfill. Which of the following gas is
produced in the landfill
A) Oxygen C) Hydrogen sulphide
B) Chlorine D) Hydrogen chloride gas
40. Incineration is a process in which Domestic solid waste is burned at high temperature at
A) 650 to 900 oC C) 1000 oC to 1100 oC
B) 900 to 1000 oC D) 600 to 700 oC
41. The pH range of the acid rain is
A) 8 – 7 C) 6.5 – 6
B) 7 – 6.5 D) Less than 5
42. Peroxyacetylnitrate (PAN) is an irritant to human beings and it effects
A) Eyes C) Stomach
B) Ears D) Nose
43. The main pollutant of leather tanneries in the waste water is due the salt of
A) Lead C) Copper
B) Chromium (VI) D) Chromium (III)
44. Pesticides are the chemicals that control
A) Weeds only C) All pests
B) Fungi only D) Micro-organisms only
45. The temperature in the incineration of industrial and hazardous waste process has arrange(in
rotator kiln)
A) 900 to 1000 oC C) 950 to 1300 oC
o
B) 650 to 900 C D) 500 to 900 oC
46. Which gas is colourless and has pungent smell
A) SO2 C) NO2
B) CO D) CO2
47. To avoid the formation of toxic compounds with chlorine, the substance used for disinfecting water is:
A) KMnO4 C) Alkenes
B) Ozone D) Chloramines
48. Ozone in most of the tropical regions acts as a pollutant and causes
A) Damages to eyes C) Chest discomfort
B) Aggravates asthma D) All of these
49. When synthetic organic chemicals are ingested though food or drinking water, they can
A) Improve health C) Cause water pollution
B) Cause health problems D) Cause air pollution
50. Which is silent killer
A) CO C) CO2
B) NH3 D) HCL
51. Which smog create suffocation
A) Oxidizing C) Reducing as well as oxidizing
B) Reducing D) Neither oxidizing nor reducing
52. The element that can cause suffocation to fish
A) Mn C) Ca
B) Al D) Fe
53. All are secondary pollutants except one that is:
A) Ozone C) Ammonia
B) PAN D) H2SO4
54. CFC’s are known to cause depletion of ozone layer therefore their use has been banned in
refrigerators and air conditioners. Which alternate compound may be suitable to replace CFC
A) CCl4 C) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH3
B) CHCl3 D) CHF2 – CHF2
55. Why a C – Cl bond breaks by uv light
A) Cl is most electronegative
C) C – Cl bond energy is smaller than that of C – H bond energy
B) Cl is volatile
D) uv light provides energy which is sufficient to break C – Cl bond and not C – H bond
 Page # 4  
56. Which is needed to be in high value in order to make water healthy:
A) DO C) BOD
B) COD D) DOD
57. The causes of water pollution is:
A) NOx C) Detergents
B) SOx D) NH3
58. Which of the following gases is a main cause of acid rain:
A) COx C) SOx
B) NOx D) CH4
59. Live stock waste can cause the spread of:
A) Cancer C) AIDS
B) Infectious diseases D) Skin eruptions
60. The process in which plastic is decomposed into original monomers is
A) Transformation C) Reprocessing
B) Deformation D) Depolymerization

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STARS ACADEMY LAHORE

Head office: 198-L Khokhar Chowk, Johar Town Lahore, 042-35298052, www.stars.edu.pk

 
                              Prof. Kashif Jamil  
0332‐1450095 

STARS ENTRY TEST SYSTEM-2017

Test Code : C12  (periods + groups)         Session-MDCAT         
 
1. Which of the following does not belong to 3rd period
A) Ne C) Si
B) Na D) Al
2. Which element of 2nd period has higher ionization among the followings
A) B C) N
B) C D) O
3. Correct order of ionization energy is
A) B<Be>Na C) B<Be<Na
B) B>Be>Na D) B>Be<Na
4. Correct order of atomic radius is
A) B<Be>Na C) B>Be>Na
B) B<Be<Na D) B>Be<Na
5. Which element has the lowest ionization energy:
A) B C) O
B) C D) N
6. Which has smallest cationic radius
A) Li+ C) K+
B) Na+ D) Rb+
7. Ionic radius of F- ion is
A) 77pm C) 133pm
B) 181pm D) 122pm
8. The graph shows the trend of

A) Atomic radius C) Electrical conductance

B) Ionization energy D) Boiling points

9. The periodic table provides a basis framework to study:
A) physical properties only
B) chemical properties only
C) physical and chemical properties of elements and their compounds
D) metal and non – metals
10. Alkaline earth metals act as:
A) Reducing agent C) Bleaching agent
B) Oxidizing agent D) Dehydrating agent
11. The first ionization energy is smallest for the atom of configuration
A) ns2 np3 C) ns2 np5
2
B) ns np 4 D) ns2 np6
 Page # 2  
12. The trend show in graph is for

A) Atomic size C) Ionization energy

B) Electrical conductance D) Boiling point

13. The trend shown by the following graph is

A) Electrical conductivity C) Boiling point

B) Ionization energy D) Atomic size
14. When we move from 2nd to 3rd period of the modern periodic table, the recurrence of properties
occur after:
A) 8 elements C) 32 elements
B) 18 elements D) 2 elements
15. Which of the followings is conductor of electricity
A) Graphite C) Nitrogen
B) Phophorous D) Ne
16. Highest melting point is shown by the element:
A) P C) Cl
B) S D) Ar
17. Highest boiling point in 2nd period is of
A) B C) N
B) C D) F
18. Lowest boiling point amongst the followings in 3rd period
A) Si C) S
B) P D) Al
19. Which of the following oxides is amphoteric?
A) B2O3 C) MgO
B) BeO D) CaO
20. Which of the group IIA metal forms peroxide when heated in air at 600oC
A) Mg C) Sr
B) Ca D) Ba
21. The reaction of Mg with steam produces
A) Mg(OH)2 + H2 C) MgO2 + H2
B) MgO + H2 D) Mg2O3
22. Which of the following hydroxide is used in antacid suspensions
A) Mg(OH)2 C) Sr(OH)2
B) Ca(OH)2 D) Ba(OH)2
23. Zero oxidation state is the characteristic of?
A) Halogens C) Alkali metals
B) Transition elements D) Noble gases
 Page # 3  
24. Which of the following oxides is water insoluble
A) BeO C) CaO
B) SrO D) BaO
25. Ionic radius of Na+ is
A) 95pm C) 181pm
B) 157pm D) 191pm
26. Keeping in view the size of atoms which order is correct
A) C1 > I C) Ba > Mg
B) Mg > Sr D) Li > Na
27. Which is a misfit pair
A) Ca, Ba C) Ca, Mg
B) Na, K D) Na, Be
28. Beryllium becomes passive on reaction with conc: HNO3 because:
A) It is non-reactive metal C) Forms stable oxide layer
B) The non-reactive nature of the acid D) It has small size
29. The first ionization energy of Al is smaller than that of Mg because:
A) Atomic size of A1 is larger than Mg C) Atomic size of A1 is smaller than Mg
B) Al has one electron in P-orbital D) Across the period IE decreases
30. Second ionization potential of alkali metals is very high because:
A) These are s-block elements C) Of inert gas configurations
B) Of ns2 electronic configuration D) They are metals
31. In silicon dioxide structure:
A) One silicon is bonded with three oxygen atoms
B) One oxygen atom is bonded with three silicon atoms
C) One silicon atom is bonded with four oxygen atoms
D) One silicon atom is bonded with one silicon and two oxygen atoms
32. The basic oxide out of the following is
A) BaO C) N2O5
B) Sb2O3 D) P2O5
33. Which has greater size
A) Al+3 C) Si+4
B) Mg+2 D) Na+1
34. Keeping in view the size of atoms, which order is correct?
A) N > C C) Ar>Cl
B) P>Si D) Li>Be
35. Which one of the following is not a property of vitreous silica?
A) Transparent C) Insulator
B) Brittle D) High thermal expansion
36. On the basis of oxidizing power of halogens, which reaction is possible?
A) I 2  2Cl  
 Cl 2 + 2I  C) Cl 2 + 2F    F2 + 2Cl 
B) Br2 + 2I  
 I 2 + 2Br  D) I 2 +2Br  
 Br2 + 2I 
37. The highest ionization energy is possessed by the given VA elements is
A) N C) Sb
B) P D) Bi
38. The highest melting and boiling points is shown by which of VIA elements
A) Te C) S
B) Se D) O
39. Which halogen causes sever burns which heal slowly
A) F2 C) Br2
B) Cl2 D) I2
40. Which of the following compounds contain both chlorine and fluorine?
A) Teflon C) Freon
B) Bleaching powder D) Cryolite
 Page # 4  
41. The noble gas used in the treatment of cancer is
A) Ne C) Ar
B) He D) Rn
42. The noble gas which is used in nuclear reactor for cooling is:
A) Freon C) Xenon
B) Helium D) Krypton
43. For earth quake predication we use:
A) Ne C) Kr
B) Ar D) Rn
44. In advertising signs we usually used the gas
A) He C) Ar
B) Ne D) Xe
45. The halogen used in toothpastes and builds a protective coating on teeth is
A) F C) Br
B) Cl D) I
46. The noble gas which is used in high speed photography is:
A) He C) Ne
B) Kr D) Xe
47. Which of the following statements is correct about halothane
A) It is an anesthetic substance C) Used as pain killer
B) It is Used a cooling agent D) Used as protective coating
48. Which is incorrect
A) F2 can oxidize Cℓ, Br and I C) I2 can oxidize Br-
B) Cℓ2 can oxidize Br- and I- D) HI is the strongest reducing agent
49. Chlorine is used as a bleaching agent, which of the following properties is related to its bleaching
action:
A) Oxidizing agent C) Chlorinating agent
B) Reducing agent D) Dehydrating agent
50. Cl2 reacts with cold aqueous NaOH to produce:
A) NaClO C) NaClO3
B) Hydrated calcium sulphate D) NaClO2.
51. Which one of the following has minimum melting point
A) Fluorine C) Iodine
B) Chlorine D) Bromine
52. The gas used in bactericidal lamps is
A) Ne C) Kr
B) Ar D) Xe
53. The structure of carbon monoxide is
 
A) C  O C) C   O
B) C O D) C   O
54. The elements which belong to IIIA group and IVA group belong to
A) s-block elements C) d-block elements
B) p-block elements D) f-block elements
55. Which one of the following species has maximum number of unpaired electrons?
2 
A) O2 C) O 2
B) O21 D) O2
56. Which electronic configuration corresponds to an element of group VIA of the periodic table?
2 2 6 2 1 2 2 6 2 6 2
A) 1s ,2 s ,2 p ,3s ,3 p C) 1s ,2 s ,2 p ,3s ,3 p ,4 s
B) 1s 2 ,2 s 2 ,2 p 6 D) 1s 2 , 2 s 2 , 2 p 6 ,3s 2 ,3 p 4

57. In network of silica (SiO2 ) , one silicon atom is surrounded by ________atoms of oxygen
A) 4 C) 1
B) 2 D) 6
58. The alkali metals are chemically similar because
 Page # 5  
A) For each element, the atomicity is one
C) They have same valence electronic configuration
B) Their outermost electrons have the same principal quantum number
D) Their outermost electrons have the same Energy
59. When elements of group II –A are exposed to air, they quickly become coated with a layer of
oxide. What is The purpose of this oxide layer
A) The oxide layer exposes the metal to atmospheric attack
B) The oxide layer increases the reactivity of metal
C) The oxide layer protects the metal from further attack
D) The oxide layer gives metal silvery shining appearance
60. The diagram below is a plot of melting points of elements of second period against their atomic
numbers. Lithium and fluorine are placed at the extreme ends on the basis of melting point
where would you place carbon among the empty slots of graph.

A) 1 C) 4
B) 2 D) 3

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STARS ACADEMY LAHORE

Head office: 198-L Khokhar Chowk, Johar Town Lahore, 042-35298052, www.stars.edu.pk

 
                              Prof. Kashif Jamil  
0332‐1450095 

STARS ENTRY TEST SYSTEM-2017 

Test Code : C13 (unit 3+4 inorganic)    Session-MDCAT  
 
1. The variable valency is the characteristic of?
A) Halogens C) Transition elements
B) Alkali metals D) Noble gases
2. Which of the following does not belong to 3d-series
A) Ti C) Cu
B) Zn D) Sn
3. The catalyst used in the contact process is:
A) V2O5 C) Fe3O4
B) P2O5 D) Ni
4. Oil of vitriol is:
A) H2SO4 C) ZnSO4 7H2O
B) CuSO4 5H2O D) FeSO4 7H2O
5. Sulphur is not present in:
A) Onion C) Egg
B) Garlic D) Fat
6. Which of the following element has 2 electron in 4s and belongs to 3d-series?
A) Fe C) Cr
B) Aℓ D) Cu
7. Which one of these can contribute to acid rain:
A) N2 C) PbO
B) SO2 D) CO
8. In contact process absorption unit SO3 is dissolved in :
A) H2O C) H2SO4
B) H2S D) HNO3
9. Which is not an application of sulphuric acid:
A) Electrolyte in batteries C) Desulphurization of petroleum
B) Calico printing D) Manufacturing of paints
10. In contact process temperature is kept at
A) 200oC C) 450oC
B) 300oC D) 700oC
11. All are the characteristics of sulphuric acid except:
A) Sulphonating agent C) Reducing agent
B) Highly viscous D) Oxidizing agent
12. Which one of the following is most paramagnetic in nature
A) Cr+3 C) Fe+2
B) Mn +2 D) Co+2
13. Colour of transition metal ion is due to
A) Small sized metal ions C) Complete ns sub shell
B) Absorption of light in UV region D) d-d transition
14. The correct formula of Tetrammine aqua bromocobalt (III) nitrate is
A) [Co Br (NH3)4 (H2O] (NO3)2 C) [Co Br (NH3)4 (H2O)Br] (NO3)2
B) [Co Br (H2O] (NH3)4(NO3)2 D) [Co (NO) (NH3)4 (H2O)Br] (NO3)2
 Page # 2  
15. Which of the following is a chelating ligand?
A) Cl- C) NH3
B) OH- D) C2O42-
16. Among Transition elements 3d-series does not contain:
A) Ti C) Mn
B) B D) Cd
17. NH3 is an example of ________ligand:
A) Anionic C) Neutral
B) Cationic D) Bidentate
18. The oxidation state of Pt in K2[Pt(CN)4]
A) +4 C) +6
B) +2 D) Zero
19. Electronic configuration of Cu+2 is:
A) 4s2 3d9 C) 4so 3d9
B) 4s1 3d10 D) 5so 4d9
20. Which one of the following has minimum melting point
A) V C) Cr
B) Mn D) Fe
21. [Fe(CO)5] shows one of the following geometry:
A) Octahedral C) Tetrahedral
B) Square planer D) Trigonal-bipyramidal
22. Which pair is not typical transition?
A) Cr, Mn C) Cu, Cr
B) Cr, Fe D) Sc, Zn
23. The characteristic properties NOT shown by transition elements will be
A) Variable oxidation state C) Colored compound
B) Formation of complex ions D) These are brittle
24. The strength of binding energy of transition elements depend upon
A) Number of electron pair C) Number of neutron
B) Number of unpaired electron D) Number of proton
25. Group VIB of transition elements contains
A) Zn, Cd, Hg C) Mn, Te, Re
B) Cu, Ag, Au D) Cr, Mo, W
26. The electron pairs accepted by the central atom in a transition metal complex is
A) Coordination sphere C) Coordination number
B) Coordination complex D) Chelate
27. f-block elements are also called
A) Non-typical transition elements C) Normal transition elements
B) Outer transition elements D) Inner-transition elements
28. The atomic number of iron is 26. What is the electronic configuration of
A) [Ar] 3d3 4s2 C) [Ar] 3d6 4s2
6
B) [Ar] 3d 4s o D) [Ar] 3d5 4s1
29. In which one of the following complexes the oxidation state of the central atom is three
A) [Fe (CO)5] C) K2 [MnCl4]
B) K3 [Fe (CN)6] D) [Cu (NH3)4] SO4
30. Bond energy of N2 is
A) 495kj/mole C) 954 kj/mole
B) 549 kj/mole D) 945kj/mole
31. Number of unpaired electrons in Mn+3 are
A) 1 C) 4
B) 3 D) 7
32. Percentage of Carbon in Wrought iron is
A) 2.5-4.5% C) 0.25-2.5%
B) 0.12-0.25% D) 0.25-0.45%
 Page # 3  
33. Nitrogen when reacts with air in electric arc, produces
A) NO C) N2O
B) NO2 D) N2O5
34. Not a nitrogenous firtilizer
A) HNO3 C) Urea
B) NH3 D) NH4NO3
35. Which is not suitable as a fertilizer in paddy fields
A) NH3 C) NH4NO3
B) Urea D) KNO3
36. NH3 reacts with CO2 to produce
A) Ammonium carbonate C) Ammonium Carborate
B) Ammonium carbide D) Ammonium carbamate
37. Which of the following produces Urea on dehydration
A) Ammonium Nitrate C) Ammonium Carbamate
B) Ammonium Carbonate D) Ammonium Cyanate
38. Which of the followings is decomposed by bacteria in flooded paddy fields
A) NH3 C) NH4NO3
B) Urea D) KNO3
39. Which is monodentate ligand.
A) C2 O42 C) EDTA
B) H2O D) Tartarate
40. Radii of transition elements decreases
A) At end C) At start
B) At middle D) At start and end
41. Substances attracted by applied magnetic field are called
A) Diamagnetic C) Good conductor
B) Paramagnetic D) Transition elements
42. Transition elements usually shows
A) Para-magnetism C) Low melting points
B) Diamagnetism D) Lack of unpaired electrons
43. When a compound of transition element is dissolved in a solution, then it produces
A) Simple ions C) Double salts
B) Complex ions D) Strong anions
44. The central atom along with ligands is called
A) Complex ion C) Ligand
B) Coordination sphere D) Complex compound
3 2
45. For sp d hybridization, the expected geometry will be
A) Tetrahedral C) Octahedral
B) Trigonal bipyramidal D) Square planar
46. Which of the following is a typical transition metal?
A) Sc C) Ra
B) Y D) Co
47. Potassium hexacyanoferrate (II) has the formula

A) K 4 Fe(CN ) 6  C) K 2 Fe(CN )6 
B) K 3 Fe(CN ) 6  D) K Fe(CN ) 6 
48. E.D.T.A is
A) Mono-dentate C) Hexadentate
B) Bi-dentate D) Having three lone pairs of electrons
49. Geometry of complex compounds depends upon
A) No. of ligands C) Hybridization of central metal
B) No. of chelates D) Oxidation state
50. The Scrubber in Contact process removes dust particles by
A) Steam C) Sulphuric acid
B) Washing with liquid water D) Nitric acid
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51. Sulphuric acid is a strong
A) Monobasic acid C) Tribasic acid
B) Dibasic acid D) Monoprotic acid
52. Sulphuric acid is non conductor of electricity in
A) Pure state C) 98 % solution state
B) Aqueous state D) 67 % solution
53. In the electronic configuration of Cr one electron from 4s sub-shell is transfered to 3d sub-shell
because
A) The 3d orbital is of lower energy than 4s
B) The half filled d-subshell is more stable than incomplete d-subshell
C) The 4s orbital is of equal energy to 3d orbital
D) 6 unpaired electron make Cr more paramagnetic
54. For K 2 [Cu (CN ) 4 ] which one is correct
A) Potassium tetra cyano copperate C) Ligand is positively charge
B) Co-ordination number is 2 D) Central atom present in negative sphere
55. The co-ordination number in tetra ammine chloro nitro platinum IV sulphate is
A) 2 C) 6
B) 4 D) 8
56. Non-stoichiometric compounds are called
A) Hydrates C) Hydrides
B) Binary compounds D) Interstitial compounds
57. The elements in which d and f orbitals are in the process of completion are
A) Alkali metal C) Halogens
B) Alkaline metals D) Transition elements
58. The specie which donates electrons to central metal atom in co-ordination sphere is called
A) Anion C) Cation
B) Ligand D) Acid
59. Hydrogenation of unsaturated oil is done by using
A) Finely divided Nickel C) Finely divided Iron
B) Vanadium pentaoxide D) Copper
60. Pick the correct statement:
A) Chelates are usually more stable than ordinary complexes
B) Ordinary complexes are more stable than chelates
C) Monodentate ligands form chelates
D) Chelates have no ring structure

  
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