POST-TESTS

Inorganic Chemistry
MODULE 1
Organic Medicinal

[N/A] Organic Chem

Pharmacognosy
MODULE 2
[N/A] Biochemistry

Dispensing

MODULE 3 Hospital Pharmacy

Clinical Pharmacy

Pharmaceutical Calculations
 INORGANIC CHEMISTRY

ANSWER QUESTION

Technetium Tc 99 Injection
Preparations used for brain scanning to determine the presence and location of
neo-plastic lesions:
Gold Au 198 Injection
Sodium Phosphate P32 Solution
Technetium Tc 99 Injection
Chlormerodrin Hg 197 Injection

Mottled enamel When too much fluoride is present in the tissue fluid, it can develop condition
known as dental fluorosis which is manifested by
Mottled enamel
Mottled dentin
Dental carries
Mottled teeth

Sb Metal used for the treatment of schistosomiasis

Ta
Sb
Bi
As

A black precipitate
The reaction between lead nitrate and hydrogen sulfide will yield
A white precipitate
A blue solution
A yellow precipitate
A black precipitate

Antimony sodium tartrate USP Which is not a protein precipitant?

Silver nitrate
Hypochlorous acid
Antimony sodium tartrate USP
Zinc Undecylenate

Bentonite Native colloidal, hydrated silicate is also known as:

Bentonite
Siliceous earth
Kaolin
Talc

CH3COO - Which anion evolves a gas with fruity odor when treated with concentrated
sulfuric acid and ethanol?
ClO4 -
CH3COO -
SO4 ^2-
BrO3 -

Sorensen phosphate buffer A buffer system that has been modified to include NaCl to make it isotonic with
physiological fluid:
Feldman’s Buffer
 Sorensen phosphate buffer
Giffords buffer
Acid phthalate buffer

Strontium This element can replace calcium in bone formation and has been used to hasten
bone remineralization in diseases such as osteoporosis.
Strontium
Beryllium
Magnesium
Barium

astringent These are substances that act as anti-perspirant, styptic and caustic.
irrigation solution
none of the choices
antiseptic
astringent

Ice cold Epsom salt, parenterally used as anticonvulsant drug and orally is administered in
this manner to lessen its bitter taste.
Warm
Ice cold
Hot
Cool

Saline cathartic Increases osmotic load of the GIT:

Stimulant laxative
Bulk-forming laxative
Emollient laxative
Saline cathartic

AgCl A white, curdy precipitate insoluble in HNO3 but soluble in an excess of

ammonium hydroxide is
NaCl
BaSO4
CaCO4
AgCl

Gold Au 198 Radiopharmaceutical agent for scanning the liver and neoplastic suppressant.
Sodium chromate Cr51
Gold Au 198
Sodium phosphate P32
Carbon C11

high temperature, low pressure
Which of the following conditions would decrease the solubility of a gas in a
liquid?
low temperature, high pressure
high temperature, low pressure
high temperature, high pressure
low temperature, low pressure

Emollient laxative A type of laxative that acts as lubricant to facilitate the passage of compacted
fecal material.
 Bulk former laxative
Stimulant laxative
Saline cathartic
Emollient laxative

Directly proportional What is the relationship between the oxidation number and acidity of the
oxyacids of a given element in the case of the elements in Group VI?
Directly proportional
Inversely proportional
Acidity and oxidation number have no relation at all
None of the choices

Double salt Potassium alum is an example of a:

Double salt
Normal salt
Mixed salt
Hydrogen salt

Nitrogen This is used to provide an inert atmosphere to retard oxidation in cod liver oil,
olive oil, and multiple vitamin preparations.
Hydrogen
Nitrogen
Helium
Carbon dioxide

Goulard’s cerates Lead subacetate preparation is done by incorporating an ointment base containing
wool fat, white wax, white petrolatum, and camphor.
Goulard’s extract
Sugar of Lead
White Lead
Goulard’s cerates

All of the choices An example of an efflorescent substance is

All of the choices
Epsom salt
Glauber's salt
Blue vitriol

Negatron Emitted when neutrons exceed protons beyond a stable ratio that occurs mainly in
the elements of atomic numbers above 63
Alpha particles
Positron
Cyclotron
Negatron

Type II Which of the following glass types makes use of water test type?
Type III
Type II
Type I
Type IV or NP

solubilizing agent Potassium iodide in strong iodine solution is the

 solubilizing agent
active ingredient
colorant
antioxidant

Selenium Which of the following minerals is important in the antioxidant capabilities of

Vitamin E?
Zinc
Iron
Silicon
Selenium

Chalybeate water A type of water that contains iron in solution or suspension and are characterized
by a ferruginous taste
Carbonated water
Lithia water
Alkaline water
Chalybeate water

Nickel This metal produces a bright red crystalline precipitate insoluble in ammonia with
dimethylglyoxime reagent.
Nickel
Cobalt
Copper
Citrate

5 An ion with 5 protons, 6 neutrons, and a charge of +3 has an atomic number of

6
8
5
11

Tantalum It is used in surgical repairs of bones, nerves and muscles for it attaches itself to
bones and is unaffected by the body fluids.
Tin
Tantalum
Iron
Aluminum

bicarbonate Temporary hard water is caused by the presence in solution of calcium or

magnesium ____.
sulfates
hydroxides
bicarbonate
chlorides

Silver The black precipitate produced in Marsh's test is

Silver
Lead
Hydrogen sulfide
Arsenic
Sodium citrate This is used both as a diuretic and in the treatment of chronic acidosis to restore
bicarbonate reserve.
Potassium bicarbonate
Sodium citrate
Sodium bicarbonate
Sodium lactate

Allotropes Oxygen and ozone are:

Polymorphs
Isobars
Allotropes
Isotopes

Atkins and Pantin buffer This buffer system is useful at alkaline pH and can be used in ophthalmic
solutions, contact lens solution and as solvent for soluble fluorescein.
Feldman's buffer
Atkins and Pantin buffer
Gifford's buffer
Sorensen phosphate buffer

Ag+ A solution that yields a white precipitate with dilute HCl and dissolves in ammonia
solution indicates the presence of
Hg ^2+
Pb 2+
Hg2 ^+2
Ag+

+2 What is the oxidation number of sulfur in sodium thiosulfate (Na2S2O3)?

+4
+2
+1
+6

Iodophor Complexes of iodine with carrier organic molecules serving as solubilizing agent to
liberate iodine in solution.
Iodates
Iodide
Starch-iodoform
Iodophor

Cobaltous ions Vogel reaction is used to test for:

Ferrous ions
Ammonium ions
Cobaltous ions
Nickel ions

Radiopaques Compounds which are capable of interfering with the passage of X rays are used
as Enema
Radioisotopes
Radiopaques
NOTA
Chemotherapeutic agents
4 mEq Ringer's injection contains_____ mEqs of potassium
130 mEq
2.7 mEq
147 mEq
4 mEq

Ferric oxide Pharmaceutical ingredient of Calamine that is responsible for the pink color.
Talc
Ferric oxide
Zinc stearate
Zinc oxide

Cupric sulfate Bordeaux Mixture contains what salt?

Silver nitrate
Magnesium sulfate
Selenium sulfide
Cupric sulfate

Boron This element decreases the coefficient of expansion in glass.

Potassium
Boron
Iron
Titanium

Cobalt meta-aluminate Thenard's blue is chemically known as:

Aluminum carbonate
Sodium cobalt nitarate
Cobalt meta-aluminate
Cupric sulfate

anti-flatulence Simethicone is used as

antacid
anti-flatulence
digestive
anti-ulcer

It is not soluble in the GIT
The reason for BaSO4 being internally taken without any toxic effect is:
It is not soluble in the GIT
It dissociates in the GIT
The GI fluids can neutralize it.
It does not reach the GIT

Group IV cations
A solution that yields a white precipitate with excess reagent of ammonium
carbonate indicates the presence of
Group II cations
Group III cations
Group I cations
Group IV cations

Iodide An ion that shows expectorant action

Fluorine
Sodium
 Chlorine
Iodide

CH3COO Which of the following is a Bronsted base?

HCl
H3O+
CH3COO-
NH4+

Phosphate The principal anion of the intracellular fluid compartment is

Phosphate
Bicarbonate
Chloride
Sulfate
 ORGANIC MEDICINAL

ANSWER QUESTION

Sedative - Hypnotic “Pharmacologic use of a compound containing 5,5-disubstituted derivatives of

barbituric acid, a saturated triketopyramidine."
Sedative - Hypnotic
Anticonvulsant
Antidepressant
Intravenous anesthetic
Antipsychotic

carboxylic acid Functional group of most non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs.

amino group
sulfamoyl group
carboxylic acid
sulfonyl group

Nitric oxide Which of the following gases is associated with the mechanism of action of
drugs like Sildenifil and Nitroglycerin?
Nitrous oxide
Nitric oxide
Oxygen
Carbon dioxide

Valproic acid Which of the following drugs has the following structure:
CH3CH2CH2C(CH3CH2CH2)HCOOH
Ethacrynic acid
Carbamazepine
Valproic acid
Primadone

Atropine It is the antidote for organophosphates

Nicotine
Acetylcholine
Atracurium
Atropine

2 Omeprazole should be taken ____ hour/s before cimetidine administration due

to its ability to decrease cimetidine absorption?
1
2
3
4

Pure agonist Classification of an opioid analgesic that activates the mu and kappa receptor
Pure agonist
Partial agonist
Pure antagonist

Penicillin Which of the following drugs is poorly absorbed in the stomach due to
acid-catalyzed degradation?
 Cloxacillin
Penicillin
Amoxicillin
Ampicillin

lipophilic center - ester/amide
- bridge - hydrophilic center
Which of the following choices correctly illustrates the general structure of local
anesthetics?
lipophilic center - ester/amide - bridge - hydrophilic center
lipophilic center - bridge - ester/amide - hydrophilic center
hydrophilic center- bridge - ester/amide - lipophilic center
bridge - lipophilic center - hydrophilic center - ester/amide

phenyl The analgesic property of drugs containing phenanthrene ring is attributed to

which ring system?
phenyl
tetrahydrofuran
cyclohexene
piperidine

Tolbutamide "Insulin is a peptide hormone, with the human form comprising of 51 amino
acids. It is synthesized in the beta cells of the islet Langerhans in the pancreas
with the alpha cells producing glucagon, a second peptide hormone. Which of
the drugs given below can enhance the release of insulin from the pancreas"
Pioglitazone
Metformin
Acarbose
Tolbutamide

All of the choices It is a competitive inhibitor of para-aminobenzoic acid

All of the choices
Sulfadiazine
Sulfanilamide
Sulfathiazole

Mercury Thimerosal is an anti-infective agents patented by Eli Lilly and Company under
the trade name Merthiolate. Thiomersal is a compound used as a preservative
in vaccines since the 1930s to prevent bacterial and fungal contamination, but it
was later found to contribute to the development of autism and other brain
development disorders in children. What is the metal ion component of
thimerosal that may cause these adverse effects?"
Mercury
Phosphorus
Sodium
Sulfur

Iodine Common element found in drugs used thyroid replacement therapy.

Hide answer choices
Iodine
Chlorine
Nitrogen
Sulfur
Furosemide Which of the following compounds is a 5-sulfamoylanthranilic acid derivative?
Indapamide
Furosemide
Cocaine
Sulfadiazine

Pantoprazole Drug than inhibit the secretion of acid in the stomach by blocking the pumping
of the protons in the lumen of the stomach.
Famotidine
Pantoprazole
Cimetidine
All of the choices

it promotes broader volume "Tubocurarine has a complex structure with 2 amine functions, one being
of distribution quaternary and the other tertiary and both are thought to be involved in the
mechanism of tubocurarine. What is the mechanism of action of the tertiary
nitrogen in tubocurarine?"
increases urine output
it promotes broader volume of distribution
it reduces passage to the blood brain barrier
increases muscle contraction

aryloxypropanolamine Structure of Propranolol contains

ethylenediamine
quinazoline
aryloxypropanolamine
tropane

benzimidazoles The proton pump inhibitors are chemically known as?

ethenediamines
propanimidamides
hydropropanes
benzimidazoles

Tetracycline An octahydronaphthacene containing antibiotic can make your skin more

sensitive to sunlight and sunburn may result. Which of the following drugs is
likely to cause photosensitivity?
Penicillin
Erythromycin
Tetracycline
Amikacin

Which of the following histamine H2 receptor antagonist is not affected by

food?
Cimetidine
Famotidine
Ranitidine
Omeprazole

Bacitracin "The following drugs are classified as a macrolide, except:"

Bacitracin
Azithromycin
 Erythromycin
Klarithromycin

Diazoxide Diuretic chemically classified as a hormone.

Furosemide
Chlorothiazide
Acetazolamide
Diazoxide

imidazole Responsible for the side effect of gynecomastia of Histamine-2 blocking agents.
pyrrole
imidazole
indole
thiazole

20 "Prostaglandins are a group of lipids made at sites of tissue damage or infection

that are involved in dealing with injury and illness. They control processes such
as inflammation, blood flow, the formation of blood clots and the induction of
labour. This compound is consists of ____ carbon atoms and 5 membered ring."
10
30
40
20

Diltiazem Which of the following Calcium channel blockers is a benzothiazepine?

Diltiazem
Verapamil
Amlodipine
Nifedipine

trifluoromethyl group Functional group present in inhalation anesthetic

thiobarbiturate
trifluoromethyl group
cyclohexyl amine
imidazoline

OH at Carbon 3 Dictates the duration of activity of Benzodiazepines:

OH at Carbon 4
OH at Carbon 5
OH at Carbon 3
OH at Carbon 2

Lipophilic center Which portion of the general structure of the local anesthetics is important in
the ability of the drug to penetrate through the cell membrane of the axon?
Amide group
Ester group
Hydrophilic center
Lipophilic center

Montelukast Asthma triggered by allergic rhinitis can be best treated with ____________.
Sumatriptan
Salbutamol
 Omeprazole
Montelukast

None of the choices "Angina is a discomfort caused when your heart muscle doesn't get enough
oxygen-rich blood. It is a symptom of an underlying heart problem, usually
coronary heart disease (CHD). The following drugs can be best prescribed for
patients with angina, except:"
Isosorbide dinitrate
Nifedipine
Nitroglycerin
None of the choices

2 Paracetamol is essentially metabolized in the liver by conjugation with

glucuronic acid and sulfuric acid. Thus, its metabolism is classified under Phase
"
2
4
1
3

Ultra short acting Barbiturates containing a sulfur atom are usually:

Ultra short acting
Short acting
Intermediate acting
Long acting

Muscarine Blockade of this receptor can be useful for inducing muscle relaxation during
surgery.
Acetylcholine
Muscarine
Nicotine

Lipid solubility The onset and duration of barbiturate action is mainly a function of its:
Renal excretion
Plasma binding
Lipid solubility
Method of administration

Beta 2 "Slight modification of the ring substitution pattern and modification of the
substituent on the secondary amine group, most commonly to substituent
larger that isopropyl, lead to selective agonist of the ____ receptor."
Beta 2
Alpha 2
Beta 1
Alpha 1

Ranitidine Which of the following agents is an example of an H2 antihistamine?

Hydroxyzine
Ranitidine
Omeprazole
Terfenadine
Losartan First non-peptide imidazole to be introduced as an orally active angiotensin II
antagonist
Captopril
Propanolol
Losartan
Nifedipine

sulfamoyl group Primary structure of diuretic drugs.

sulfonyl group
sulfamoyl group
All of the choice

Sulfur Common element found in drugs used for the treatment hyperthyroidism.
Chlorine
Iodine
Sulfur
Nitrogen

Chlorpromazine A drug that will lose its basicity to form a water-soluble salt without amino side
chain.
Benzodiazepine
Thioxanthene
Haloperidol
Thioridazine
Chlorpromazine

Trimethylammonium group Which of the following group is present in a parasympathomimetic drug?

Phenylethylamine
Catecholamine
Trimethylammonium group
Ethyl ester

Which of the following drugs can be classified as a cardioselective beta-blocker

that is widely used for the treatment of CHF?

Non-selective beta Classify the adrenergic agonist drug given below according to receptor affinity:

Selective beta 1
Selective alpha 1
Non-selective alpha 1
Non-selective beta
 Metabolic transformation can occur with secondary and tertiary amines or
amides, where tertiary amines will produce secondary amines and secondary
amines will produce primary amines. Which of the drugs below will most likely
produce a primary amine after oxidative N-dealkylation.

M1 Which of the following muscarinic receptors associated with the secretions in

the salivary glands and stomach?
M5
M1
M2
M3
M4

Which of the following drugs are contraindicated for patients suffering from
asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?

A drug is a substrate of COMT if it has ____________________.

Thioxanthene It lacks the ring nitrogen of phenothiazine and have side chain attached by a
double bond.
Thioridazine
Chlorpromazine
Haloperidol
Benzodiazepine
Thioxanthene

Hydrophobic Functional groups that enhances the lipid solubility of a drug molecule are
often referred to as ________________.
All of the above
Hydrophilic
Hydrophobic
Hydrolytic
 DISPENSING

ANSWER QUESTION

Boric acid A solution of Physostigmine salicylate which has lost potency should not be
dispensed. To prevent this from occurring, what should be added in small amount?
Boric acid
Sodium hydroxide:
Sodium carbonate
Sodium chloride

both physical and chemical Precipitation can be:

incompatibility adverse drug reaction
both physical and chemical incompatibility
physical incompatibility
chemical incompatibility

essential information is missing A prescription should be refused when:

patient is terribly sick
essential information is missing
it is not signed by the pharmacist
there is no available delivery service

motion sickness Transdermal Scopolamine is a drug used to prevent:

coronary insufficiency
diabetes
hypertension
motion sickness

violative Rx A prescription where the generic name is not written:

violative Rx
erroneous Rx
impossible Rx
yellow DDB Rx

decreased effectiveness of the
antifungal agent
Administration of ketoconazole to a patient who is currently taking Ranitidine
would likely result to:
increased activity of the antihistamine
enhanced activity of antifungal agent
decreased effectiveness of the antifungal agent
decreased activity of the histamine H2 receptor antagonist

potential toxicity
A primary disadvantage of ethylene glycol as a solvent in an oral preparation is its:
lack of solvent action
high viscosity
very limited miscibility
potential toxicity

Riopan Which one of the following antacid products is not a chemical combination of
aluminum and magnesium hydroxides?
Riopan
Gelusil
 Mylanta
Maalox

homergic This describe drugs that elicit the same quality of effect and are mutually
interactive, regardless of whether there is anything in common between the
separate response systems.
homodynamic
heterergic
homergic
synergistic

patient compliance
Type F ADRs can occur as a result of the following, except:
patient compliance
counterfeit drugs
antimicrobial drug resistance
drug instability

hyperthyroidism Factors that tend to reduce stomach contraction and gastric emptying rate, except:
hyperthyroidism
patient lying on left side
consumption of meals high in fat
depression

Side-effect These information should be indicated on the label of an extemporaneously

compounded prescription, except
Side-effect
Date of filling
Direction for use
Name & quantity of ingredient

Psyllium What laxative should be recommended to pregnant patients?

Bisacodyl
Mineral oil
Psyllium
Castor oil

dispensing The supply of medicine to an individual patient in accordance in the prescription

given by the physician.
compounding
dispensing
formulation
manufacturing

decreased effectiveness of the
drug
A smoker was prescribed with Diazepam. What would likely to happen if he
continuously smokes while on drug therapy?
decreased effectiveness of the drug
no effect
delayed elimination
enhanced effect of the drug

A Extensive sedation caused by decreased clearance of a usual dose of a

benzodiazepine is an example of what type of ADR?
 E
A
B
D

Narcotic analgesic and drugs
with anticholinergic properties
Which of the following drugs most commonly cause/s constipation?
Drugs with anticholinergic properties
Narcotic analgesics
Ampicillin
Narcotic analgesic and drugs with anticholinergic properties

hydrolysis The degradation reaction of ASA involves:

photolysis
hydrolysis
oxidation
racemization

adverse drug event
Any drug reaction which does not necessarily have a causal relationship with the
treatment is called an:
adverse drug event
adverse drug reaction
therapeutic incompatibility
side effects

Type D ADR Teratogenicity is a/an:

Type B ADR
Type A ADR
Type D ADR
Type C ADR

Signa For the guidance of the patient, the prescription needs

Signa
Subscription
Inscription
Superscription

alternative Complementary list is a list of _____ drugs when there is no response to the core
essential list.
substitute
alternative
additional
supplementary

I and III Which of the following is/are true of a prescription?

I. Inscription: Amoxicillin 500mg capsule
II. Subscription: Amoxil 1 bottle for infection
III. Transcription: 5mL once a day for 5 days
I only
I and II
I and III
I, II and III
Steven-Johnson's syndrome A drug-induced hypersensitivity reaction caused by sulfonamides:
Steven-Johnson's syndrome
Contact dermatitis
Hypertension
Parkinson's disease

physical incompatibility Failure to mix or dissolve when two or more ingredients are combined may be
termed as:
physical incompatibility
adverse reactions
drug precipitation
complexation

amber bottle UV light-sensitive substances are best protected using:

amber bottle
carbon box
flint glass
plastic container

Ethanol Patients taking chlorpropamide should avoid products containing:

Ethanol
Vitamin A
Penicillin
Acetaminophen

I only In the stomach, In the stomach, which of the following would exist in its
non-ionized form?
I. aspirin
II. Dextroamphetamine
III. Chlorpheniramine
I only
III only
I and II
I, II, and III

tolerance This is a phenomenon in which the physiological and/or psychological response to

a substance is decreased with continuous use of the same dose of that substance.
insanity
withdrawal
tolerance
dependence

I only Multivitamins if taken concomitantly by a patient on Tetracycline therapy would

likely result to:
I. decreased effectiveness of the antibiotic
II. increased effectiveness of the antibiotic
III. increased metabolism of the multivitamins
I only
II only
I and II
II and III
Alkaloids Water is most likely to cause instability on the following, except:
Cephalosporins
Benzodiazepines
Alkaloids
Penicillins

Paracetamol Which of the following analgesics is safe and effective for pregnant patients?
Ibuprofen
Narcotic analgesics
Naproxen
Paracetamol

All of the above Teratogenic drugs cause physical defects in developing fetus and this risk is highest
during the first trimester. Which of the following is/are teratogenic drug/s?
Tretinoin
ACE inhibitor
Warfarin
All of the above

pharmacokinetic interactions
Drug-drug interactions that occur when one drug alters the absorption,
distribution, metabolism and excretion of the other drug:
adverse drug events
pharmacologic interactions
pharmacodynamic interactions
pharmacokinetic interactions

sorption Term migration of the drug into the container.

permeation
sorption
vaporization
leaching

I, II and III These are factors responsible for the higher prevalence of ADRs in the geriatric
populations:
I. polypharmacy
II. multiple disease states
III. reduced drug elimination
I and II
II and III
I and III
I, II and III

Aplastic anemia The most serious drug-induced blood disorder:

Aplastic anemia
Thrombocytopenia
Leukemia
Agranulocytosis

Indicated for Fe poisoning The following are true about Dimercaprol except:
Chemical antagonist
British anti-Lewisite
Indicated for As poisoning
 Indicated for Fe poisoning

eutectic combination Camphor, menthol, acetophenetidin, phenol will form:

chemical incompatibility
eutectic combination
physical incompatibility
adverse drug reaction

on an empty stomach Mineral oil as a laxative should be given:

Two of the choices
dysphagic patients
on an empty stomach
to children less than 6 years old

II and III In filling the prescription, the pharmacist may select a container from among
various shapes, color, sizes, mouth openings and composition. Which of the
following are true regarding his selection?
I. Prescription bottles are used to dispense viscous liquids
II. Dropper bottles are used for dispensing ophthalmic, nasal, otic, or oral liquids to
be administered by drop.
III. Sifter-top containers are used for powders to be applied by sprinkling
II and III
I, II and III
I and III
I and II

preparation of medicine Compounding is concerned with:

order for medicine
supply of a medicine
preparation of medicine
preparation and distribution of drugs

all of the above Auxiliary and cautionary labels should be utilized for the purposes of:
Ensuring proper usage
Warning against concomitant use of certain drugs or foods
all of the above
Informing of storage requirements

C Cardiotoxicity caused by Doxorubicin is classified as what type of ADR?

B
D
C
A

I, II and III Which of the following drugs are more than 90% bound to plasma proteins?
I. Warfarin
II. Phenylbutazone
III. Penicillin
I and II
I, II and III
II and III
I and III
antioxidants These are added to drug formulations to prevent or reduce oxidation:
complexing agents
surfactants
antioxidants
additives

I and II In a prescription:
I. The full name and address of the patient are necessary for identification
purposes
II. The date is important to the pharmacist in filling prescriptions for controlled
substances
III. The name of the physician is necessary mainly for litigation purposes.
I, II, and III
I and II
I and III
I only

I, II and III Which of the following substances or compounds would tend to form a liquid or
soft mass when brought in contact with camphor?
I. Chloral hydrate
II. Phenol
III. Salicylic acid
I and II
II and III
I and III
I, II and III

I, II and III In aqueous solutions, alcohol may precipitate in:

I. agar
II. Tragacanth
III. acacia
I and III
I and II
I, II and III
II and III
 HOSPITAL PHARMACY

ANSWER QUESTION

Active Type of medical staff involved in regular patient care

Consultant
Honorary
Resident
Active

rashes due to sudden change
in temperature
Which may not lead to an adverse drug reaction?
use of the wrong drug
overdose
rashes due to sudden change in temperature
error in compounding

Pathology Which hospital service is in-charge of the cytological and gross anatomical
analysis?
Radiology
Pathology
Blood bank
Anesthesia

Atropine The following are regimen for emergency management of anaphylaxis (Type B
ADR), except
Ranitidine
Atropine
Epinephrine
Hydrocortisone

continuing education
A process of lifelong learning availed of by pharmacists for maintaining and
improving
post-graduate studies
undergraduate studies
intensive program
professional competence
continuing education

Type C-Withdrawal effects The following are CORRECT PAIRS, except

Type D- Teratogenicity
Type B-Anaphylactic reactions
Type A-Side Effects
Type C-Withdrawal effects

All of the choices Pyrogenic contamination may cause the patients to have
Fever
Chills
Infection
All of the choices

basement Not suitable for the hospital pharmacy department

near the information area
 first floor
basement
near the ER

minimized return of Advantage/s of the floor stock system of drug distribution

medication inc. nursing time in medication activities
minimized return of medication
decreased potential for drug misadventure
all of the above

Catheter A rubber, plastic, or glass tube inserted into the bladder in order to withdraw urine
from patients unable to urinate naturally
Rectal tube
Urinal tube
Catheter
Bladder alternative

Drug Product Listing Heart of the formulary

Procedure Concerning Drugs
Special Information
Information of Hospital Policies
Drug Product Listing

Dr. Jose Fabella Hospital: Which of the following is incorrectly paired?

Pediatric Conditions Quezon Institute: Tuberculosis
Philippine Heart Center: Cardiovascular conditions
San Lazaro Hospital L Infectious Diseases
Dr. Jose Fabella Hospital: Pediatric Conditions

Library The following are general section of a Pharmacy Procedural Manual, except:
Services and activities
Facilities
Personnel
Library

I, II, III and IV The following are risk factors for ADR
I. Age
II. Gender
III. Co-morbidities
IV. Genetics
V. Patient Compliance
I, II, III and IV
I, II, IV, and V
I, II, III and V
I,II and III only

1962 PSHP was established in what year?

1942
1930
1962
1970
Research Which of the following is not part of the drug process management
Research
Distribution
Procurement
Selection

I and III When do we choose a drug in the complimentary list

I. When the drug in the core list is not available
II. When the drug in the core list is to expensive
III. When a patient encountered a severe ADR from the drug in the core list
None of the choices
I only
I, II and III
I and III

Departmental service This division in the hospital pharmacy is in-charge of the control and dispensing of
IV fluids
Purchasing and Inventory control
Departmental service
Central Supply Service Division
Drug information service

Quality of Drug Therapy The MAJOR reason for D.U.R.

Drug Cost
Drug Administration
Quality of Drug Therapy
Patient Drug History

Marketing Which of the following is not a function of a hospital

Patient care
Marketing
Public health
Teaching and education

Maintains literature files Which of the following is not a responsibility of the Departmental Service
Control and Dispense IV Fluids
Coordinate and control all drug delivery
Control and Dispense controlled substance
Maintains literature files

IV admixture Review IV admixture incompatibility

Education and Training
Administrative Service
IV admixture
Assay and Quality Control

Security What is the most important storage condition for NARCOTIC DRUGS?
Temperature
Moisture and Light
Security
Sanitation
Specialty hospital
Type A
6 Minimum number of hospital beds to be considered a hospital
single unit package
I only
Anesthesiology
Approval of duplicate
preparation to be listed in the
Formulary
custodial hospital
National Children's Hospital is an example of a
General Hospital
Specialty hospital
Custodial Hospital
2 of the choices
Hypotensive effect of Losartan can be classified as what type of ADE?
Type B
Type A
Type D
Type C
20
6
10
5
A package that contains one discrete pharmaceutical dosage form
single unit package
unit dose dispensing system
all of the above
unit dose dispensing system
Which of the following is the responsibility of an ambulatory care pharmacist?
I. Counsel patient on the proper use of medication
II. Provides proper record keeping
III. Ensures personnel are trained
IV. Provides drug information to physician
I, II and III
I and IV
I only
I, II and IV
Which of the following services is not provided by a level 1 hospital?
General Medicine
Obstetrics
Gynecologic
Anesthesiology
Functions of PTC, except
Review reported adverse rxns to drugs administered
To serve as advisory to medical staffs and pharmacist
To recommend addition and deletion of drugs
Approval of duplicate preparation to be listed in the Formulary
Psychiatric, AIDS and leprosy victims must be attended by
non-accredited hospital
general hospital
short-term hospital
custodial hospital
Vitamins
Nifedipine - Hypotension
Drug information Service
NOTA
lipids, vitamins, electrolytes,
amino acids
American Society of
Health-system Pharmacists
Advice the doctor what brand
of drug to be used
Administrative Services
Drug Information Services
Purchasing and Inventory
Control
Sterile Products
TPN should be protected from light because it contains
Electrolyte
Vitamins
Proteins
Antibiotics
The following pair of drug side effect, except
Simvastatin - Rhabdomyolysis
Pioglitazone - Hearth failure
Nifedipine - Hypotension
Morphine - Constipation
Department responsible for preparing hospital newsletter
Drug information Service
Pharmaceutical Research
Departmental Services
Assay and Quality Control
The hospital pharmacy department generally closes
during lunch break
during Christmas
NOTA
at 12 midnight up to 2 am
Total parenteral nutrition contains the following compounds:
Carbohydrates, lipids, antibiotics
lipids, vitamins, electrolytes, amino acids
Water and Antibiotics
None of the choices
ASHP
American Society of Hospital Pharmacists
Asian Society of Healthcare Providers
Asian Social and Health Provision
American Society of Health-system Pharmacists
Purposes of PTC, except:
Develops a formulary of accepted drugs for use in the hospital
Advice the doctor what brand of drug to be used
Evaluate clinical data concerning drug for use in a hospital
To add or delete from the least of drugs accepted for use in the hospital
MATCHING TYPE.
Develops policies
Maintains literature files
Receives, stores and distributes drugs
Manufacture ophthalmic solution
In-patient services Maintains prescription record

Hospital Pharmacy Institutional Pharmacy is basically

Extended Care Pharmacy
Departmental Pharmacy
Hospital Pharmacy
Manufacturing Pharmacy

Concurrent Type of DUR that uses current data

Concurrent
Prospective
Retrospective

Jonathan Roberts The first person recognized as a hospital pharmacist:

Charles Rice
Robert Price
Martin I Wilbert
Jonathan Roberts

Medical doctor The chairperson of the PTC

CEO
Pharmacist
Medical doctor
Nurse

Closed Formulary Most common type of formulary used in the Philippines

Negative Formulary
Restricted Formulary
Closed Formulary
Correct answer
Open Formulary

Type D ADR Fetal Hydantoin Syndrome

Type B ADR
Type D ADR
Type E ADR
Type C ADR

Drug Dependence Type C ADR would include which of the following?

Drug Dependence
Blood Transfusion Reaction
Neural Tube Defect
Withdrawal Symptoms
PHARMACEUTICAL CALCULATIONS

ANSWER QUESTION

0.50 mL Digoxin injection is available in a concentration of 0.1 mg per mL. How many
milliliters of the injection will provide a dose of 50 microgram?
5.0 mL
10.0 mL
50.0 mL
0.50 mL
1.0 mL

1.180 Five pints of HCl weigh 2.79 kg. Calculate its specific gravity
0.810
3.180
1.180
2.180
3.850

600 How many milligrams of procaine HCl should be used in preparing 120
suppositories each weighing 2 g and containing 1/4 % of procaine HCl?
60
0.25
120
240
600

461.5 g From the following formula, calculate the quantity of sodium carbonate required
to make 1500g of the powder. Rx Calcium carbonate 5 parts Magnesium oxide 1
part Sodium carbonate 4 parts Bismuth subcarbonate 3 parts
235.6 g
461.5 g
346.2 g
576.9 g
115.4 g

5.25 What is the percentage of iodine in a mixture of 3 liters of 7% (w/v) iodine

solution, 10 pints of 5% (w/v) solution and 2270 mL of 3.5% (w/v) solution?
10.0
7.15
5.25
5.0
6.17

0.0005% Express 5 ppm of iron in water in percentage strength.

0.005%
0.05%
0.0005%
0.5%
5%

1:1250; 1:5000; 1:1000 A tetracycline syrup is preserved with 0.08% (w/v) of methylparaben, 0.02% (w/v)
 of propylparaben and 0.10% (w/v) of sodium metabisulfite. Express these
concentrations as ratio strength
1:8000; 1:2000; 1:1000
1:1000; 1:2500; 1:5000
1:1000; 13245; 1:0002
1:0001; 1:1234; 1:14567
1:1250; 1:5000; 1:1000

44,688 A pharmacist receives a bill of goods amounting to P48,000.00, less 5% discount for
quantity buying and a 2% cash discount for paying the invoice within 10 days.
What is the net amount of the bill?
44,688
44,640
33,600
4,800
3,360

25 mEq A potassium supplement tablet contains 2.5 g of potassium bicarbonate (MW of

KHCO3 = 100). How many milliequivalents of potassium are supplied by the tablet?
30 mEq
25 mEq
20 mEq
35 mEq
15 mEq

1000 How many mL of 1:500 (w/v) stock solution should be used to make 5 liters of a
1:2500 (w/v) solution?
1500
900
1200
1000
1700

48 How many wine gallons of 95% (v/v) alcohol would contain 91.2 proof gallons?
115
52
173
48
96

4.8 Rx
4.8 Salicylic acid 4%
Menthol ½% T
alc ad 120g
How many grams of salicylic acid should be used in compounding the
prescription?
5.0
3.8
4.0
4.8
3.0
882.1 How many grams of sucrose must be dissolved in 475 mL of water to make a 65%
(w/w) solution?
882.1
782.1
582.1
822.1
681.1

64.0 If a gallon of 30% (w/v) solution is to be evaporated so that the solution will have a
strength of 60% (w/v), what will be its volume in fluidounces?
74.8
64.0
76.8
70.8
32.0

210 A drug company uses the following formula to make 100 capsules
Ephedrine sulfate 35 g
Amaranth 1.25 g
Lactose 225 g
What is the weight in grams of Ephedrine sulfate needed to prepare 1.5 kg of the
the formula?
120
233
210
150
225

30.0 If a cough syrup contains 0.24 g of codeine in 120 mL, how many milligrams are
contained in each tablespoonful dose?
50.0
3.0
0.03
5.0
30.0

9.6 mg How much Methylene Blue is needed to make 480 mL of a 1:50,000 solution?
9.6 mg
4.8 mg
4.4 mg
7.1 mg
5.2 mg

136 A bottle of mouthwash cost P96.00. At what price must it be sold to yield a gross
profit of 40% on the selling price?
136
160
186
148
130

3.237 If a solution weighs 84.62 g in air and 58.48 g when immersed in water, what is its
 specific gravity?
3.732
3.237
7.323
2.327
4.327

700 How many mL of water should be added to 300 mL of a 1:750 (w/v) solution of
benzalkonium chloride to make a 1:2500 (w/v) solution
750
800
700
1000
650

1:10,000 Express 0.01% as a ratio strength

1:100,000
1:10,000
1:10
1:100
1:1,000

4.848 g Subtract 2.5 mg from 4.850g

2.53 g
48.48g
4.848 g
4.8525 g
2.35 g

0.2% If a patient is determined to have a serum cholesterol level of 200 mg/dL, express
the cholesterol level in percentage.
0.02%
20 %
2%
200%
0.2%

0.025 Express 250 mcg/mL Warfarin sodium as percentage (w/v).

0.10
0.0025
0.025
0.0001
0.25

120 How many mL of a liquid medicine would provide a patient with one teaspoonful
thrice a day for 8 days?
60
480
360
120
240
 CLINICAL PHARMACY

ANSWER QUESTION

(A) Spironolactone, (B) Which of the following diuretics are contraindicated in patients with
Eplerenone, and (D) hyperkalemia? Select all that applies
Triamterene Spironolactone
Eplerenone
Ethacrynic acid
Triamterene
Hydrochlorothiazide
Furosemide

It reduces airway inflammation
What is the main consequence of using corticosteroids in the treatment of
asthma?
It reduces the risk of developing allergies
It reduces airway inflammation
Provide bronchodilation effect
All of the choices

(A) Amlodipine, (B) Felodipine, Which of the following CCBs are classified as Dihydropyridine and considered 1st
and (E) Nifedipine line for treatment of HTN? Choose 2
Amlodipine
Felodipine
Verapamil
Diltiazem
Nifedipine

Antibiotic Which of the following is NOT a causative agent for a peptic ulcer?
Antibiotic
Helicobactor pylori
Physiological Stress
NSAIDS

Phosphorus Which of the electrolytes should be monitored in patients taking ACEI + Thiazides
(as ADR) that may cause cardiac toxicities?
Phosphorus
Potassium
3 of the choices
All of the choices
Sodium
Calcium
Magnesium
2 of the choices

Alpha 1 Antagonists Stimulation of beta-2 sympathetic receptors can alleviate bronchoconstriction.

Drugs that stimulate these receptors are called all of the following except:
Alpha 1 Antagonists
Catecholamines
Beta-2 agonist
Adrenergics
Sympathomimetics
ALT/AST Which of the following laboratory tests is an indicator of statin toxicity?
Creatinine
ALT/AST
LD
CK MB
Troponin

CAD Which of the compelling indication of HTN are the major indications of Beta
blockers? Choose 3
Post Myocardial Infarction Stroke
CAD
Heart Failure Post Myocardial Infarction
Heart Failure
Diabetes
CKD

Oropharyngeal candidiasis Which of the following is an adverse effect of ICS that patients can minimize with
proper inhaler use and education?
Dysphonia
Oropharyngeal candidiasis
Osteoporosis
Growth suppression
all of the choices

All of the choices The patient was tested for H. pylori. Which of the following statements is/are true
regarding H. pylori?
- H. pylori eradication includes triple or quadruple therapy (PPI + antibiotics)
- H. pylori eradication can cure peptic ulcer disease and reduce ulcer
recurrence.
- All of the choices
- An active duodenal ulcer is best managed with a combination of
antisecretory therapy plus appropriate antibiotic(s).
- 2 of the choices

None, all are routes of Beta-2-agonists can be administered in all of the following mechanisms of action
administration of beta 2- except:
agonists Intravenous agents
Inhaled dry powders
Inhalation solutions
Long-acting, oral agents
None, all are routes of administration of beta 2- agonists

Triglycerides Which of the following components is most greatly reduced by fibric acid
derivatives?
All of the choices
VLDL
Triglycerides
LDL
HDL

MATCHING TYPE. Match drug to its mechanism of action

 Statin Decrease cholesterol synthesis in the liver

Niacin Inhibit lipolysis in adipose tissue to disrupt mobilization of free fatty acids

Fibrates Inhibit lipolysis in adipose tissue to disrupt mobilization of free fatty acids

Ezetimibe Decrease absorption of cholesterol in the intestine

MATCHING TYPE. Match the disease to its drug

Donepezil Alzheimer's

Lamotrigine Seizures

Levodopa Parkinson's Disease

Memantine Alzheimer's

Valproate Seizures

All of the choices According to the American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association
(ACC/AHA) Prevention Guidelines, which of the following is true about the
management of dyslipidemia?
- Weight management and lifestyle changes are still recommended
- There are "Four Statin Benefit Groups"
- None
- All of the choices
- 2 of the choices
- Emphasis is now placed on assessing cardiovascular risks rather than
cholesterol goals
- Patients over 75 should receive high-intensity statin therapy
- 3 of the choices

(A) Probenecid and (E) Which of the following drugs is used to lower uric acid? Select all that apply.
Allopurinol are correct Probenecid
Corticosteroid
NSAIDs
Colchicine
Allopurinol

Niacin Flushing is one of the major side effects of what drug?

Cholestyramine
Statins
Fibrates
Ezetimibe
Niacin

Decreased absorption of other Which of the following is the common adverse effect of bile acid sequestrants?
drugs Choose two.
Myopathy
Abdominal discomfort Flushing
Decreased absorption of other drugs
 Rhabdomyolysis
Systemic toxicities
Abdominal discomfort

Creatinine Kinase (CK) Which of the following laboratory tests is an indicator of myopathy, a major issue
of statin?
BNP
Troponin
Creatinine Kinase (CK)
LD
ASL/AST

It has a relatively short half-life
Which of the following is a TRUE statement regarding simvastatin?
It has a relatively short half-life
Simvastatin should be taken at any time of the day
All
80 mg should be the starting dose
None

(B) Spironolactone and (E) Which of the following statements are not first-line drugs for HTN based on the
Metoprolol are correct treatment algorithm by practice guidelines? Choose 2
Amlodipine
Spironolactone
Hydrochlorothiazide
Lisinopril
Metoprolol

None of the choices
Which of the following is false regarding the uses of niacin?
It decreases triglycerides
It increases HDL
All of the choices
It decreases VLDL and LDL
None of the choices

LAMA + LABA + ICS What is used during triple therapy in patients with severe COPD?
LABA + LAMA
LAMA + LABA + ICS
LABA + ICS
ICS + LAMA

Fluvastatin Which of the following statins is NOT metabolized by CYP3A4?

Atorvastatin
Fluvastatin
Lovastatin
Simvastatin

It is recommended for patients
who are intolerant to statin
therapy and develop CVD
despite the maximum
tolerated statin.
Which are correct statements about PCSK 9 inhibitors? Choose 2.
- It is recommended for patients who are intolerant to statin therapy and
develop CVD despite the maximum tolerated statin.
- It inhibits the synthesis of cholesterol
- It increases the number and activity of LDL_R.
It is as injectable as a shot
every 2 or 4 weeks in the
upper arm, stomach, or upper
thigh.
PDE4
Hyperphosphatemia
Hyperkalemia
Hypocalcemia are correct
Cure asthma/COPD
Lungs-Pulmonary Edema
Levodopa
- It is as injectable as a shot every 2 or 4 weeks in the upper arm, stomach, or
upper thigh.
- It bound to LDLR on the liver cell surface and mediated the lysosomal
degradation of LDLR
Roflumilast is an example PDE inhibitor of which of the following specific isoform?
Roflumilast is not a specific PDE inhibitor.
PDE4
PDE3
PDE5
Indication of Calcium Salts in treatment of renal disease. Select all that apply.
Anemia
Hyperphosphatemia
Hyponatremia
hypercalcemia
Hypercalcemia
Hyperkalemia
Hypophosphatemia
Hypocalcemia
Drug treatment for asthma and COPD aim to do all of the following except:
Prevent airway remodeling
Inhibit airway inflammation
Relieve/prevent bronchoconstriction
Cure asthma/COPD
Manage asthma/COPD
Which of the following is not considered HMOD?
Renal –Azotemia & Hematuria
Cerebrovascular– Stroke
Retinopathy –Papilledema
Lungs-Pulmonary Edema
Which of the following drug the first line and the most potent drug for Parkinson's
Disease?
Levodopa
Selegiline
Phenytoin
Amantadine