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JEE (Advanced)-2023
TEST No. 2A (Paper-1)
1. Read each question carefully. (ii) Section-1: This section contains 6 multiple choice
2. It is mandatory to use blue/black ballpoint pen to darken questions, each question has only one correct answer.
the appropriate circle in the answer sheet. Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer
3. Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle. and –1 mark for wrong answer.
4. Rough work must not be done on the answer sheet. (iii) Section-2: This section contains 6 multiple choice
5. Do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on questions, each question has one or more than one
answer sheet. correct answer(s). Each question carries +4 marks for
correct answer and –2 marks for wrong answer.
6. Student cannot use log table and calculator or any other
+3 marks if all the four options are correct but only
material in the examination hall.
three options are chosen, +2 marks if three or more
7. Before attempting the question paper, student should
options are correct but only two options are chosen,
ensure that the test paper contains all pages and no
both of which are correct. +1 mark if two or more
page is missing.
options are correct but only one option is chosen and
8. Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator, it is a correct option.
candidate should check that Roll No., Centre Code and (iv) Section-3: This section contains 6 questions. The
Date of Birth have been filled and marked correctly. answer to each of the questions is a NUMERICAL
9. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is VALUE. For each question, mark the correct
over, the answer sheet to be returned to the invigilator. numerical value of the answer. If the numerical value
10. Pattern of the questions are as under: has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off
(i) The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, the value to two decimal places. Each question carries
Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part has 3 +4 marks for correct answer and there is no negative
sections. marking.
Note : It is compulsory to fill Roll No. and Test Booklet Code on answer sheet, otherwise your answer sheet will not be considered.
1. A uniform sphere of mass m and radius r will behave like a black hole, if [G is gravitational constant and
c is speed of light]
m c2 m c2
(A) (B)
r 2G r 2G
m c2 m c2
(C) (D)
r G r G
2. Assume that Earth is moving around the Sun in a circular orbit with the sun at rest at the centre. If suddenly
mass of Sun reduces to half of the initial value while distance of the Earth from centre of Sun unchanged,
3. Uniform rod of mass M, length 2L is suspended with the help of two ideal strings as shown. Complete
arrangement is in equilibrium in vertical x–y plane. Find value of F0 so that string 1 remains vertical
3Mg 3Mg
(A) (B)
10 8
Mg 2Mg
(C) (D)
2 5
1/13
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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2023 Test-2A (Paper-1) (Code-A)
4. For an elastic oblique collision between two point sized bodies of equal masses when one among them is
initially at rest, which of the following is incorrect?
(A) Final velocity vectors of two masses are perpendicular to each other
(B) Neither body is scattered in backward direction
(C) Only the mass at rest before collision has velocity along line of impact after the collision
(D) Only the colliding mass will have velocity along line of impact after the collision
5. A mass m moving with a speed u as shown hits another mass 2m lying on a smooth floor completely
inelastically. The mass system collides with a spring and compresses it. The maximum compression in
spring is
m 2m
(A) u (B) u
k k
3m m
(C) u (D) u
k 3k
a
6. A square plate of side length is removed from a uniform square plate of mass m and side length a as
2
shown. The co-ordinates of its centre of mass will be
a a a a
(A) + , − (B) + , −
4 4 12 12
a a a a
(C) + , − (D) + , −
3 3 6 6
SECTION - 2
One or More Options Correct Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which
ONE OR MORE is/are correct.
7. A round body kept on a smooth horizontal surface is pulled by a constant horizontal force applied at the
topmost point of the body. Which of the following shapes can the body have if it rolls purely without slipping?
(A) A hollow cylinder (B) A solid cylinder
(C) A uniform sphere (D) A thin ring
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Test-2A (Paper-1) (Code-A) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2023
8. A cylinder of radius R is floating in a stationary vessel containing two immiscible liquids of densities and 2
namely liquid A and liquid B as shown. Neglect the atmospheric pressure. Choose the correct statements
from following.
9. A cart of mass M is kept on a smooth horizontal surface. As shown in figure a horizontal smooth massless
rod AB of length L is threaded through a bead of mass m, whose radius r is very small in comparison to L.
Initially the bead is at end A of the rod. Now cart is given an impulse such that it starts moving with speed v0.
If all the collisions between bead and cart’s walls are elastic, then choose the correct statement(s).
mv 0
(A) After first collision the speed of cart in frame of centre of mass of system is
m+M
L
(B) Time spent between first and second collision is
v0
2L
(C) Time spent between first and second collision is
v0
(D) The distance that cart travelled from the moment it was struck with impulse till the second collision with
2M
bead is L
m + M
10. Two rubber threads of force constant 100 N/m each are connected to a mass of 1 kg kept on a horizontal
frictionless surface as shown. The rubber threads are initially stretched by a length of l = 1 cm and then the
mass is displaced by a distance of 2l towards one of the fixed points and is released from there. Choose
the correct statements.
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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2023 Test-2A (Paper-1) (Code-A)
(A) Initial acceleration of the mass is 4 m/s2 (B) Initial acceleration of the mass is 3 m/s2
7 5
(C) Speed at the equilibrium position is m/s (D) Speed at the equilibrium position is m/s
10 2
11. A stone of mass m is thrown vertically upwards with a speed u. Due to air friction, it experiences a drag force
of constant magnitude F throughout its journey. Choose the correct statement(s).
mu 2
(A) The maximum height reached by the stone is
2(mg + F )
mu 2
(B) The maximum height reached by the stone is
(mg + F )
mg – F
(C) Speed of stone on reaching the ground is u
(mg + F )
mg – 2F
(D) Speed of stone on reaching the ground is u
mg + 2F
12. A uniform rod AB of mass 3m and length 2a has a point mass 2m attached at B. The rod is free to rotate in
vertical plane about a smooth horizontal axis passing through point A. An impulse of J = m 21ag is given
(A) Moment of inertia of whole assembly about the axis through point A is 12ma2
7
(B) Distance of centre of mass of the system from point A is a
5
(C) The rod turns an angle of 60° before coming to instantaneous rest for first time
SECTION - 3
This section contains 6 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question,
enter the correct numerical value of the answer using the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the
place designated to enter the answer. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off
the value to TWO decimal places.
4/11
Test-2A (Paper-1) (Code-A) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2023
5l
13. A rod of length as shown in diagram has a section of varying diameter from 2a to a, and length l and
3
2l
another section of uniform diameter a and length . Both the sections are made up of same material of
3
Young’s modulus Y. When a force of magnitude F is applied on free end as shown, the net elongation in the
xFl
rod is given by . Find value of x, if all quantities are in S.I. units.
3a2Y
14. A solid uniform sphere of mass m is slid on a rough surface () as shown with velocity v and without any
angular velocity at point A. The sphere stops sliding at point B. The distance between A and B is given as AB
x v2
= , where x, y are co-prime. Find value of x + y .
y g
15. The external forces are acting on a d mm diameter bar at different points as shown in the figure. If Young’s
modulus of elasticity of material of bar is 2.15 × 1011 Pa, then total elongation (in mm) of the bar will
d 2
be_______. Given = 8 10 –6 m2
4
16. A particle moving with constant speed parallel to a smooth wall over a smooth horizontal plane is acted upon
by an impulse of 2 N-s perpendicular to its motion. The particle of mass 0.5 kg consequently changes its
speed to 5 m/s and undergoes a collision with the wall such that after collision the speed becomes
3 2 m/s. Find the value of coefficient of restitution between the particle and the wall.
17. A piston of surface area 1200 mm2 moves inside a cylinder with a velocity of 6 m/s. The piston has a
diameter of 50 mm and the cylinder has a diameter of 50.2 mm. The space between symmetrically
positioned piston and cylinder is filled with lubricant of coefficient of viscosity 2.5 × 10 –2 Pa.s. What is the
power loss (in watts)?
18. A satellite moving in elliptical orbit with semi-major axis a has v1 and v2 as maximum and minimum velocities
respectively. If the satellite takes time T to complete one full revolution in its orbit, then
T v1v 2
a= . Find the value of k. (use = 3.14)
k
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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2023 Test-2A (Paper-1) (Code-A)
PART - II : CHEMISTRY
SECTION - 1
Only One Option Correct Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
20. Hydrogen peroxide in its reaction with HOCl in acidic medium and Mn2+ in basic medium respectively, is
acting as
21. A 10.00 mL sample of aqueous ethanol solution was diluted to 1.00 L in a volumetric flask. The ethanol
(C2H5OH) in a 25.00 mL aliquot of the given diluted solution was distilled into 50.00 mL of acidified
0.02 M K2Cr2O7 and oxidized to acetic acid on heating.
What is the percent (w/v) C2H5OH (46.00 g mol–1) in the original aqueous ethanol solution?
22. What is the correct order of reactivity in electrophilic substitution reaction of the following compounds?
(A) I > II > III > IV (B) II > III > IV > I
(C) IV > III > II > I (D) I > III > II > IV
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Test-2A (Paper-1) (Code-A) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2023
23. Which of the following compounds can show tautomerism and can lead to the formation of maximum enol
content?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
SECTION - 2
One or More Options Correct Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), for its
answer, out of which ONE or MORE is/are correct.
25. In which case rearrangement does(do) not occur(s) to form the major product?
H+ H O H+ H O
(A) ⎯⎯⎯⎯
2
→ (B) ⎯⎯⎯⎯
2
→
H+ H O H+ H O
(C) ⎯⎯⎯⎯
2
→ (D) ⎯⎯⎯⎯
2
→
26. If all sulphur present in 2 mmol of FeS2 is converted into SO2 and finally into H2SO3, how many ml of a given
concentration of NaOH is required to completely neutralize the H 2SO3?
1
(A) 20 mL of 0.4 M solution (B) 24 mL of M solution
3
(C) 20 mL of 0.1 M solution (D) 11 mL of 0.2 M solution
27. On reductive ozonolysis, a hydrocarbon gives 3-ethyl-2-methylpentanedial. The hydrocarbon is(are)
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2023 Test-2A (Paper-1) (Code-A)
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
30. Select the option(s) containing correct decreasing order of acidic strength.
SECTION - 3
Integer Value Correct Type
This section contains 6 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question,
enter the correct numerical value of the answer using the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the
place designated to enter the answer. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off
the value to TWO decimal places.
31. How many of the following is(are) correct decreasing order(s) of oxidation state of nitrogen?
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Test-2A (Paper-1) (Code-A) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2023
32. How many structural isomers of the product formed in the following reaction?
33. A solution contains both Fe2+ and Fe3+ ions. 25.0 ml of this solution required 45.0 ml of 0.01 M acidified
permanganate solution. In a separate analysis 25.0 ml of the original solution is treated with Zn powder
which reduces Fe3+ into Fe2+ and it then required 3.76 ml of 0.2 M acidified KMnO 4 solution to reach the end
point. Determine the molarity of Fe3+ is the original solution.
34. A sample of hydrazine (N2H4) was dissolved in 100 ml of water. 10 ml portion of this solution requires
10 mL, of 0.6 M FeCl3 solution. The molarity of N2H4 is ________.
35. 2Cr2O72– + H+ + Ni ⎯⎯→ aCr 3+ + bNi2+ + cH2O , the value of (a + b + c) is, (if the coefficient of Cr2O72–
is 2)
36. A 5 ml of solution of H 2O2 liberates 1.016 g of iodine from acidified solution of KI. Calculate the strength of
H2O2 solution in terms of volume strength at STP. (Atomic mass of iodine = 127 u)
37. The number of different terms in the binomial expansion of (1 + x)10 + (1 – x)10 is
(A) 11 (B) 21
(C) 5 (D) 6
38. The equation of the circle passing through the point of intersection of the circle x2 + y2 – 2x – 4y + 4 = 0 and
the line x + 2y = 4, which touches the line x + 2y = 0 is
(A) x2 + y2 – 2x – y = 0 (B) x2 + y2 + x + 2y = 0
(C) x2 + y2 + x – 2y = 0 (D) x2 + y2 – x – 2y = 0
39. Number of positive integers not exceeding 2021 that are multiple of 3 or 4 but not of 5 is equal to
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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2023 Test-2A (Paper-1) (Code-A)
40. Tangents are drawn to parabola y2 = 4x from the point (–1, 2). The centroid of the triangle formed by these
two tangents and the line x = 2 is
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) –1 (D) 180
x
1– tan 2 (1– sin x )
42. The value of lim is equal to
x → 1 + tan x – 2 x 3
2 ( )
2
1 1
(A) – (B)
256 512
1 1
(C) (D)
32 256
SECTION - 2
One or More Options Correct Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), for its
answer, out of which ONE or MORE is/are correct.
43. The equation of an ellipse is 4x2 + 9y2 = 54. Then, which of the following is/are correct?
5 4
(A) Eccentricity of ellipse is (B) Length of latus rectum is
3 15
3 3
(C) Centre of ellipse is (0, 0) (D) Length of major axis is
10
1 –1
(A) tanC = (B) cosC =
3 2
3
(C) sinC = (D) cotC = 3
2
n
45. If 50
C6 + 4.50 C7 + 6.50 C8 + 4.50C9 + 50
C10 = Cm , then possible value(s) of m + n can be
(A) 64 (B) 50
(C) 40 (D) 98
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Test-2A (Paper-1) (Code-A) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2023
46. If the line 2x – y + c = 0 touches the hyperbola 16x2 – 9y2 = 144, then possible value(s) of c is/are
(A) 5 2 (B) 2 5
(C) –2 5 (D) –5 2
47. The number of ways in which four identical red chips and two identical white chips can be arranged
48. For a line passing through the point of intersection of angle bisectors of coordinate axes and parallel to line
3x – 5y + 17 = 0, which of the following is/are correct?
SECTION - 3
This section contains 6 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question,
enter the correct numerical value of the answer using the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the
place designated to enter the answer. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off
the value to TWO decimal places.
18 x 4 – 57 x 3 – 3 x 2 + 5 x + 2
49. The value of lim is equal to
x→ – 4 x 4 – 17 x 3 + 2x – 18
50. The value of 128 3 sin .cos .cos .cos .cos is equal to
48 48 24 12 6
51. The area of the triangle formed by an arbitrary tangent of the hyperbola xy = 25 with coordinate axes is equal
to square units, then is equal to
52. A circle of radius 2 lies in the first quadrant and touches both the axes of coordinates. Then, the radius of the
circle with the centre at (6, 5) which touches the given circle externally is
27cosec 6 + 8 sec 6
53. If 10sin4 + 15 cos4 = 6, then is equal to
10
54. The number of ways in which the letters of the word ‘GARDEN’ can be arranged, so that consonants are in
alphabetical order is
❑ ❑ ❑
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Answers & Solutions
for
JEE (Advanced)-2023
Test No. 2A (Paper-1)
www.aakash.ac.in
Test - 2A (Paper-1) (Code-A)_(Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2023
ANSWERS
PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS
1. (B) 19. (B) 37. (D)
2. Answer (B)
Hint : K.E. of earth will remain unaltered while
its potential energy will reduce to half
Sol. : Total energy = K.E + P.E. of earth
GMm 1 GMm
T.E. = + –
r
=0 5. Answer (D)
2r 2
Hint : Loss in KE = Gain in PE
Total energy being zero indicates a parabolic
2
1 U 1
path Sol. : (3m) = kx 2
2 3 2
3. Answer (B)
6. Answer (B)
Hint : At equilibrium, T = 0
m1x1 + m2 x2 + m3 x3 ...
Sol. : Hint : X cm =
m1 + m2 + m3 .....
a a a
+ –
a
Sol. : X cm = 4 4 4 =
3 12
7. Answer (A, D)
3T Hint : The body should roll without slipping
F0 = 2 ...(i)
5 without friction.
4T2
T1 + = Mg ...(ii)
5
A = 0
(Mg)L = T1 × 2L
Sol. : F = ma …(i)
Mg
T1 = ...(iii)
2 FR = I …(ii)
2/9
Test - 2A (Paper-1) (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2023
M–m Mv 0 –m v0 1 2 7
vM com = v0 – = I = 5mg (1 – cos ) a cos = 1/2
M+m M +m M +m 2 5
Distance travelled by cart till second collision Sol. : Elongation in section with varying
diameter
L M – m L
= v0 × + v0 4Fl 2Fl
v0 M + m v0 = =
(2a )(a )Y Ya2
M – m 2M
= L 1 + = L Elongation in section with uniform diameter
M + m M +m
2
4Fl
10. Answer (B, C) = 3 = 8Fl
Hint : F = kx (a )2Y 3 a 2Y
3/9
All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2023 Test - 2A (Paper-1) (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)
F
Hint : l = 2 1 2 1
AY v1 = GM – v2 = GM –
r1 a r2 a
Sol. : Total elongation Δl = lAB + lBC + lCD
Where r1 and r2 are minimum and maximum
10 2 103 8 103 1 5 103 3
= + + distance from planet.
AY AY AY
4/9
Test - 2A (Paper-1) (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2023
Molarity of diluted solution = 0.06 M Sol. : 4FeS2 + 11O2 ⎯⎯→ 2Fe2O3 + 8SO2
2m mole 4m mole
Moles of C2H5OH in 10ml of original solution is
0.06. SO2 + H2O ⎯⎯→ H2SO3
w 4m mole 4m mole
%C2H5OH = 27.6%
v 27. Answer (A, C)
22. Answer (D) Hint : 3-ethyl-2-methyl-pentanedial is
Hint : Greater the number of hyperconjugation
structures, higher will be the reactivity towards
electrophilic substitution reactions.
Sol.:
Sol. :
Sol. : Sol.:
Sol. :
26. Answer (A, B)
5/9
All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2023 Test - 2A (Paper-1) (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)
m mol of Fe2+ obtained from Fe3+ ion Hint: Equation of family of circles through point
of intersection of circle S = 0 and line L = 0 is
= 3.76 – 2.25 = 1.51
S + L = 0 where is arbitrary constant.
(
M Fe 3+
) =
1.51
25
= 0.06 M Sol. : The equation of the required circle is
(x2 + y2 – 2x – 4y + 4) + (x + 2y – 4) = 0
34. Answer (00.15)
x2 + y2 + ( – 2)x + (2 –4)y
Hint : MEq of Fe3+ = mEq of N2H4 – 4( – 1) = 0 …(i)
Sol. : (10 × 0.6) mEq of Fe3+ = (M × 10 × 4) 2–
Centre of circle = , 2 –
mEq of N2H4 2
6/9
Test - 2A (Paper-1) (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2023
Sol. : Let set A denote the integer multiple of 3 42. Answer (C)
but not divisible by 5 and set B denote the
integers multiple of 4 but not divisible by 5. Hint : Find the value of L.H.L. i.e. lim f – h
h →0 2
2021 2021 x
n(A) = –
3 15
= 539, where [.] is 1 – tan 2 (1– sin x )
Sol. : lim
x
2 1 + tan ( – 2 x )
greatest integer function. x→ 3
2
2021 2021
and n(B) = – = 505 – 101 = 404 h
4 20 1– tan – 1 – sin – h
4 2 2
= lim
1
Required number of positive integer = n(A) + 2 h →0
3
– 2 – h
n(B) – n(A B) 2
2021 2021 h
= 539 + 404 – –
1– tan
2 (1– cos h )
12 60 1–
h
1 + tan
= lim 2
1
= 943 – 168 + 33 = 808
2 h → 0 8h 3
40. Answer (B)
h . 2 h
2 tan 2 2sin 2
lim
Hint: Equation of tangents from (–1, 2) to 1
=
parabola y2 = 4x is SS1 = T2.
16 h→0 h3
2
Sol. : Equation of path of tangents is : (y2 – 4x) h h
tan sin
1 2 . 2 . 2.2
(22 – 4(–1)) = (2y – 2(x –1))2 = lim
16 h→0 h h 8
2y2 – 8x = y2 + x2 – 2xy – 2x + 2y + 1 2 2
1
x2 – y2 – 2xy + 6x + 2y + 1 = 0 …(i) =
32
When x = 2, equation (i) gives : 4 – y2 – 4y + 12
43. Answer (A, C)
+ 2y + 1 = 0
7/9
All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2023 Test - 2A (Paper-1) (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)
tanC =
1
, cotC = 3 18 x 4 – 57 x 3 – 3 x 2 + 5 x + 2
Sol. : lim
3 x→ – 4 x 4 – 17 x 3 + 2x – 18
45. Answer (A, D)
57 3 5 2
Hint : nC = nCn – m 18 – – 2 + 3 + 4
m x
= lim x x x
50
C6 + 4.50 C7 + 6.50 C8 + 4.50C9 + 50 x →– 17 2 18
Sol.: C10 4– + 3 – 4
x x x
= Coefficients of x10 in (x + 1)4 (1 + x)50
18
= 54C10 = 54C44 = = 04.50
4
46. Answer (B, C) 50. Answer (12.00)
Hint : If line y = mx + c be tangent to hyperbola Hint : cos.cos2.cos22 …cos2n–1 =
x 2
–
y 2
= 1 then c2 = a2m2 – b2
sin 2 ( )
n
a 2
b 2
2 sin
n
Hint : Arrangement of objects not all different Hint : The parametric coordinates of a point on
5
along line and circle. hyperbola xy = 25 is 5t , .
t
Sol.: The total arrangement along line =
Sol. : Equation of tangent to hyperbola is
6!
= 15 5
4!.2! x. + 5ty = 50
t
The arrangements around circle = 3
The arrangements along a line when white x
+ ty = 10 …(i)
t
chips are not together = 5C2 = 10
The arrangement along a circle when white 1 10
Required area of triangle = = 10t .
chips are together = 1 2 t
= 50 square units.
48. Answer (A, B, C)
52. Answer (03.00)
Hint : The point of intersection of lines which
Hint : If two circles touch externally, then sum
are angle bisectors of coordinate axes is (0, 0)
of their radii is equal to distance between their
Sol. : The equation of required line is
centres.
3x – 5y = 0
which passes through (5, 3) and (–5, –3) Sol.: The centre of circle touching both
coordinate axes in first quadrant and of radius 2
49. Answer (04.50)
units is (2, 2).
Hint : Divide numerator and denominator by x4.
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8/9
Test - 2A (Paper-1) (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2023
27cosec6 + 8sec6
( 6 – 2)2 + (5 – 2)2 =2+r
( ) ( )
3 3
= 27 1 + cot 2 + 8 1 + tan2
r=3
3 3
2 3
53. Answer (25.00) = 27 1 + + 8 1 + = 250
3 2
Hints : 1 + tan2 = sec2 and 1 + cot2 =
27cosec 6 + 8 sec 6
cosec2 = 25
10
Sol.: 10sin4 + 15cos4 = 6 54. Answer (30.00)
❑ ❑ ❑
9/9
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in JEE (Main) 2021 FROM CLASSROOM PROGRAMS in JEE (Adv.) 2021 FROM CLASSROOM PROGRAMS
25 28 35 84 75 89
RANJIM PRABAL DAS GOUTAM DAS VAIBHAV BAJAJ ISHAV SINGLA VINAY TAYAL HARDIK GARG
5 Year Classroom 2 Year Classroom 5 Year Classroom 5 Year Classroom 2 Yr. Classroom 2 Yr. Classroom
st
1700
1560 Classroom
JEE (Advanced) 2020 + 140 Digital
& Distance
JEE (Adv.)
2020
AIR 4 YEAR CLASSROOM
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