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ALLEN
NTA - IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
1. Which of the following set shows convergent 1. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkuS lk lewg vfHklkjh fodkl dks n'kkZrk g\
S
evolution? (1) phaVh [kksj rFkk uEcSj
(1) Anteater and numbat
(2) yhej rFkk ckscdVS
(2) Lemur and Bobcat
(3) /kCcsnkj dldl rFkk HksfM+;k
(3) Spotted cuscus and wolf
(4) Mole and flying phalanger (4) NNqanj rFkk mM+u QSysUtj
2. Sometimes the change in allele frequency is so 2. dHkh&dHkh vyhy vko`fÙk dk ;g ifjorZu lef"V ds u;s
different in the new sample of the population uewus esa bruk fHkUu gks tkrk gS fd og uwru iztkfr gh cu tkrh
that they become a different species. The
gAS ekfS yd viokfgr lef"V ,d ubZ lef"V dks cukrh gAS
original drifted population create a different
bls dgk tkrk gAS
population. This is called :
(1) laLFkkid izHkko
(1) Founder effect
(2) Bottleneck effect (2) cksVyusd izHkko
(3) Metapopulation effect (3) esVk vkcknh izHkko
(4) Gene migration (4) thu iyk;u
3. A change in the relative abundance of an allele 3. ,d ih<+h ds vuqØe.k ds nkjS ku] ,d lef"V ds vanj vyhy
(the allelic frequency) within a population, over (vyhy vko`fÙk) esa lkisf{kr izpjq rk esa ifjorZu dks dgk tkrk
a succession of generation, is called : gSA
(1) Micro evolution (1) lw{e fodkl (ekbØks fodkl)
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6. Which of the following is not the example of 6. fuEu esa ls dkSulk mnkgj.k lkbuksfo;y laf/k dk ugha g\
S
synovial joint? (1) áewjl vkjS val es[kyk ds chp
(1) Between humerus and pectoral girdle
(2) Between atlas and axis (2) ,Vyl vkjS v{k ds chp
(3) Between carpal and metacarpal of thumb (3) vaxqBs ds dkiZy vkSj esVk dkiZy ds chp
(4) Between the skull bones
(4) djksfV dh vfLFk;ksa ds chp
7. The female mosquito is the vector for which of 7. fuEufyf[kr eas ls dkSuls jksx ds fy, eknk ePNj okgd gksrk
the following diseases? gS\
(1) Typhoid and polio (1) Vk;QkWbM o iksfy;ks
(2) Plague and rabies (2) Iysx o jscht
(3) Common cold and ringworm (3) lkekU; tqdke o fjax oeZ
(4) Filariasis and malaria (4) Qkbysfj,fll o eysfj;k
8. Barr body is absent in : 8. fuEu esa ls fdlesa ckj&ckWMh vuqifLFkr gksrh g\ S
(1) Klinefelter's syndrome (1) DykbuQsYVj flUMªkWe
(2) Turner's syndrome (2) VuZj flUMªkWe
(3) Normal female (3) lkekU; eknk
(4) Down syndrome in female (4) eknk esa Mkmu flUMªkWe
9. A person suffering from cancer is treated with 9. ,d dSalj ls ihfM+r jksxh dk mipkj jsfM;ksFksjsih }kjk fd;k
radiotherapy. Which of the following technique tkrk gAS bl mipkj esa fuEu esa ls dkuS lh rduhdh dk bLrseky
is used in this treatment?
fd;k tkrk g\S
(1) All tumour cells and surrounding normal
(1) lHkh vcqnZ&dksf'kdk,sa o muds vklikl dh lkekU;
cells get killed
dksf'kdk,sa ej tkrh gAS
(2) It is meant to cure damaged DNA
(2) ;s {kfrxzLr Mh- ,u- ,- dks Bhd djus ds fy, gAS
(3) Radiations activates P gene of tumour cell
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(3) fofdj.ks] vcqnZ dksf'kdkvksa ds P53 thu dks lfØ; dj nsrh gAS
(4) Tumour cells are irradiated lethally (4) vcqnZ&dksf'kdkvksa dks ?kkrd :i ls fofdjf.kr fd;k tkrk gS
10. How many of the following diseases are 10. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdrus jksx nwf"kr Hkkstu o ty }kjk QSyrs
transmitted by contaminated food and water? gS\
[Typhoid, Ringworms, Pneumonia, Common [Vk;QkW ; M] fja x oeZ ] U;w eksf u;k] lkekU; tq dke] Ms a x w ]
cold, Dengue, Amoebiasis, Chickungunya]
vehch;rk] fpdquxqfu;k]
(1) One (2) Two
(1) ,d (2) nks (3) rhu (4) pkj
(3) Three (4) four
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18. Which one of the following pairs of hormones 18. uhps fn;s x;s gkWeksZu ;qXeksa esa dkSu ,sls gkWeksZuksa dk mnkgj.k gS
are examples of those, that can easily pass tks y{; dksf'kdk dh dksf'kdk f>Yyh dks vklkuh ls ikj
through the cell membrane of the target cell and djds vUnj ik;s tkus okys xzkgh ls tqM + tkrs g\ S
bind to a receptor inside it : (1) bUlqfyu rFkk FSH
(1) Insulin and FSH
(2) Fkk;jkfDlu rFkk ,YMksfLVjkWu
(2) Thyroxin and aldosterone
(3) GnRH and cortisol (3) GnRH rFkk dkWVhZlky
(4) Testosterone and somatostatin (4) VsLVksfLVjku rFkk lkseVs ksLVsfuu
19. In the wall of alimentary canal, what is the 19. vkgkjuky dh fHkÙkh esa] ckgj ls Hkhrj dh vksj ijrks dk
actual sequence of layers from outer to inner?:
okLrfod Øe D;k g\
S
(1) Serosa, longitudinal muscle, mucosa,
submucosa (1) fljkslk] vuqnS/;Z is'kh] E;wdkslk] lcE;wdkslk
(2) Serosa, circular muscle, mucosa, submucosa
(2) fljkslk] orqZy is'kh] E;wdkslk] lcE;wdkslk
(3) Serosa, longitudinal muscle, circular
muscles, submucosa, mucosa (3) fljkslk] vuqn/S ;Z is'kh] orqZy is'kh] lcE;wdkslk] E;wdkslk
(4) Serosa, longitudinal muscle, circular
(4) fljkslk] vuqn/S ;Z is'kh] orqZy is'kh] E;wdkslk] lcE;wdkslk
muscle, mucosa, submuscosa
20. A type of granulocyte (i) and agranulocyte (ii) 20. df.kdk.kq (xszU;wykslkbV) dk ,d izdkj (i) vkSj vd.k
are phagocytic cells that destroy foreign dksf'kdk (,xzsU;wyklkbV) (ii) Hk{k.k dksf'kdk;ssa gksrh gS tks
organisms entering the body (iii) secrete vanj izos'k djus okys cká thoksa dks lekIr djrh gAS (iii)
histamine, serotonin, heparin etc. and are
fgLVkehu fljksVksfuu] fgifS ju vkfn dk L=ko djrh gS rFkk
involved in inflammatory reactions (iv) resist
'kksFkdkjh fØ;kvksa esa lfEefyr gksrh gAS (iv) laØe.k ls cpko
infections and are also associated with allergic
reactions (v) are responsible for the immune djrh gS rFkk ,ythZ izfrfØ;k esa lfEefyr jgrh gAS (v) 'kjhj
responses of the body: dh izfrj{kk ds fy;s mÙkjnk;h g\ S
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (1) eksukslkbV U;wVªksfQy cslksfQy bvksfluksfQy fyaQkslkbV
(1) Monocytes Neutrophils Basophils Eosinophils Lymphocyte
(2) Neutrophils Monocytes Basophils Eosinophils Lymphocyte (2) U;wVªksfQy eksukslkbV cslksfQy bvksfluksfQy fyaQkslkbV
(3) Neutrophils Monocytes Eosinophils Basophils Lymphocyte (3) U;wVªksfQy eksukslkbV bvksfluksfQy cslksfQy fyaQkslkbV
(4) Monocytes Neutrophils Eosinophils Basophils Lymphocyte
(4) eksukslkbV U;wVªksfQy bvksfluksfQy cslksfQy fyaQkslkbV
21. In which disease does a symptom of acute chest 21. fdl jksx esa] ân; is'kh esa] i;kZIr vkWDlhtu uk igq¡pus ds
pain appears due to, enough oxygen not dkj.k lhus esa nnZ (o{k ihM+k ) ds y{k.k mRiUu gksrs gAS
reaching the heart museles?
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22. Match the column with their respective matches 22. LrEHkksa dks lqefs yr dhft;sA
LrEHk-I LrEHk-II
Column-I Column-II
(P) var% 'olu {kerk (I) ERV + RV
(P) Inspiratory capacity (I) ERV + RV
(Q) Expiratory capacity (II) TV + ERV (Q) fu%'olu {kerk (II) TV + ERV
(R) Functional residual capacity (III) ERV + TV + IRV (R) fØ;k'khy vof'k"V {kerk (III) ERV + TV + IRV
(S) Vital capacity (IV) TV + IRV
(S) tSo {kerk (IV) TV + IRV
(1) P-III, Q-II, R-IV, S-I
(1) P-III, Q-II, R-IV, S-I
(2) P-IV, Q-I, R-III, S-II
(2) P-IV, Q-I, R-III, S-II
(3) P-III, Q-IV, R-I, S-II
(3) P-III, Q-IV, R-I, S-II
(4) P-IV, Q-II, R-I, S-III
(4) P-IV, Q-II, R-I, S-III
23. Why is carbon monoxide (CO) poisonous for 23. dkcZu eksuksvkWDlkbM (CO) ekuo ds fy;s fo"ksyh D;ksa gAS
man?
(1) ;g QsaQM+ksa dh raf=dkvksa dks izHkkfor djrh gS
(1) It affects the nerves of the lungs
(2) If affects the diaphragm and intercostal (2) ;g Mk;kÝke ,oa varjki'kqZd isf'k;ksa dks izHkkfor djrh
muscles gS
(3) It reacts with the oxygen, reducing (3) ;g vkWDlhtu ls fØ;k djds ok;q esa vkWDlhtu dk izfr'kr
percentage of oxygen in air de dj nsrh gS
(4) Haemoglobin combines with carbon (4) gheksXyksfcu vkWDlhtu ds LFkku ij] dkcZu eksuksvkDlkbM
monoxide instead of oxygen and the ls tqM+ tkrh g]S vkjS cuk gqvk mRikn fo;ksftr ugha gks
product cannot be dissociated ikrk
24. The mode of excretion in which animal excrete 24. mRltZu dk ,d izdkj] ftlesa izk.kh eq[;r% ;wfj;k dk mRltZu
urea as major excretory waste is called?
djrs g]S dgykrk gAS
(1) Ureotelism (1) ;wfj;kmRlthZ (;wfj;ksVsfyd)
(2) Uricotelism (2) ;wfjd vEy mRlthZ (;wfjdksVsfyd)
(3) Ammonotelism (3) veksfu;k mRlthZ (veksuksVSfyd)
(2) 1 to 1.5 litres of slightly acidic pH(pH - 6.0) ,oa ftlesa 25-30 gm ;wfj;k gksrh gS
and having 25-30 gm of urea
(3) 0 ls 1 yhVj tks FkksM+k {kkjh; gksrk gS (pH - 7.3) ,oa
(3) 0 to 1 litres of slightly alkaline pH(pH - 7.3) ftlesa 25-30 gm ;wfj;k gksrh gS
and having 25-30 gm of urea
(4) 1 ls 1.5 yhVj tks FkksM+k {kkjh; gksrk gS (pH - 7.3)
(4) 1 to 1.5 litres of slightly alkaline pH(pH - ,oa ftlesa 45-60 gm ;wfj;k gksrh gS
7.3) and having 45-60 gm of urea
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26. The _A_ leaves the eye and the retinal blood 26. _A_ u=
S rFkk n`f"V iVy dks u=S xksyd ds e/; rFkk FkksM+h
vessels enter it at a point medial to and slightly
i'p /kzqo ds Åij NksM+rh gS rFkk jDr okfguh ;gk¡ izo's k djrh
above the posterior pole of the eyeball. _B_ is
gAS _B_ ml Hkkx esa ugha gksrh gS vr% bls _C_ dgrs gAS
not present in this region and hence it is called
_C_ ds ik'oZ esa vk¡[k ds fiNys /kzqo ij ihyk o.kZd fcUnq
as _C_. At the posterior pole of eye lateral to
_C_. There is yellowish pigmented spot called gksrk gS ftls _D_ dgrs gAS vkjS ftlds dsUnz esa ,d xrZ
as _D_ with a central pit called as _E_ . gksrk gS ftls _E_ dgrs gAS
27. Which one of the following groups of animals 27. fuEu esa ls dkuS lk tUrq lewgksa esa ls dkuS mlds nks vfHkyk{kf.kd
are correctly matched with their two vdkfjdh xq.kksa ls feyk;k x;k g\
S
characteristic morphological features?
(1) dksyEck] bDol] o csyus ksIVsjk&i`"B [kks[kyh rfU=dk jTtq
(1) Columba, Equus and Balaenoptera-dorsal
o vlerkih
hollow nerve cord and poikilothermous
(2) Vsjksil] ikoks] esØksil o flVkdqyk&4 d{kh; ân; o
(2) Pteropus, pavo, macropus and psittacula-4
chamberd heart and homeothermy lerkih
(3) Ascaris, wuchereria and pheretima- (3) ,Ldsfjl] owphjsfj;k o Qsjfs Vek&dwVnsgxqgh;] o fo[k.Mh
pseudocoelomate and metamerism Hkou
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28. Consider the diagram below and choose the 28. uhps fp= dks ns[ks o lajpukvksa (a – d) ds lUnHkZ esa lgh
correct option regarding the structures, (a – d): fodYi pqus :
(a) (a)
(b) (b)
(c) (c)
(d) (d)
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30. Fibroblast, macrophage and mast cells are 30. rUrq dksjd dks'kk,sa] o`gn Hk{kdk.kq o ekLV dksf'kdk,sa mifLFkr
present in : gksrh gAS
(1) Cartilage tissue (1) mikfLFky Ård
(2) Skeleton tissue (2) dadkyh; Ård
(1) Move from stroma to thylakoid lumen by (1) LVªksek ls FkkbysdkWbM vodkf'kdk esa ljy folj.k }kjk
simple diffusion tkrs gaSA
(2) Move from stroma to thylakoid lumen by (2) LVªkes k ls FkkbysdkWbM vodkf'kdk esa lqlk/; folj.k }kjk
fascilitated diffusion tkrs gaSA
(3) Move from thylakoid lumen to stroma by
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36. Consider the following :- 36. fuEu ij fopkj djsa %&
(I) For a solution at atmospheric pressure (I) fdlh foy;u ds fy;s okrkoj.kh; nkc ij y w = y s
y w = y s. (II) fdlh dksf'kdk dk y w (ty foHko) ek= foys; foHko
(II) y w (water potential) of a cell is affected by ls gh izHkkfor gksrk gAS
solute potential only. (III) y p (nkc foHko) fnu ds le; tk;ye esa lkekU;r%
(III) y p (pressure potential) is usually positive /kukRed gksrk gAS
in xylem during the day. mijksDr esa dkSulk@dkuS ls dFku lgh gAS
Which of the statements given above is/are (1) II rFkk III
correct? (2) ek= I
(1) II and III (2) I only (3) ek= II
(3) II only (4) I, II and III (4) I, II rFkk III
37. Which of the following statement is correct 37. izfrLi/kkZRed laneu ds ckjs esa fuEu esa ls dkSulk dFku lgh
about competitive inhibitors ?
gS\
(1) The inhibitor does not resembles the
(1) laned fØ;k/kkj ls lekurk ugha j[krs gSaA
substrate.
(2) The inhibitor competes with the substrate (2) laned ,yksLVsfjd LFky ij tqM+us ds fy, fØ;k/kkj ls
for the allosteric sites. izfrLi/kkZ djrs gaAS
(3) Inhibition of succinic hydrogenase by (3) lDlfud gkbMªkfs tust dk esyksuVs }kjk laneu] tks lajpuk
malonate which closely resembles the esa fØ;k/kkj lDlhusV ls fudV dh lekurk j[krk g]S bldk
substrate succinate in structure is an example
,d mnkgj.k gAS
of it.
(4) bl fØ;kfof/k dk mi;ksx thokf.od jksxtudks ds
(4) This mechanism is used in the control of
bacterial pathogens. fu;=a.k esa fd;k tkrk gAS
38. Liberation of oxygen when green cells in water 38. mi;qZDr xzkgh dh mifLFkfr esa tc ty esa gjh dksf'kdkvksa dks
are exposed to sunlight in presence of suitable lw;Z ds izdk'k ls mtkxj djrs gaS rks vkWDlhtu foeqDr gksrh
acceptor is called :- g]S dgykrh gS &
(1) Arnon's reaction (1) vkjukWu vfHkfØ;k
39. The habit of a cabbage or acaulescent plant can 39. iÙkkxksHkh vFkok LraHkjfgr (,dkWyslsaV) ikni ds LoHkko esa
be changed drastically by the application of :- tcjnLr :i ls ifjorZu vkrk g]S iz;ksx ls %&
(1) IAA (2) GA3 (1) IAA ds (2) GA3ds
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40. Mark out the number of incorrect statement/s:- 40. xyr dFkuksa dh la[;k dks fpfUgr djsa %&
(I) Some essential elements can alter the
osmotic potential of a cell. (I) dqN vfuok;Z rRo dksf'kdk ds ijklj.kh foHko dks cny
(II) Nitrogen is required by the meristematic ldrs gaAS
tissues and the metabolically active cells
(II) ukbVªkstu dh vko';drk dsoy foHkT;ksÙkdh ÅÙkdksa]
only.
,oa lfØ; mikip;h dksf'kdkvksa esa gksrh gSA
(III) Mg +2 is needed by several respiratory
enzymes. (III) Mg+2 dh t:jr dbZ 'oluh; ,atkbeksa }kjk gksrh gAS
(IV) Mo is essential for the water-splitting (IV) Mo dh vfuok;Zrk izdk'k la'ys"k.k ds nkjS ku ty ds
reaction in photosynthesis, a reaction that v.kqvksa dks fo[kf.Mr djus esa gS tks fd vkWDlhtu
leads to oxygen evolution. mRlftZr djus okyh vfHkfØ;k gAS
(V) Sulphur is the main constituent of several
(V) xa / kd vus d foVkfeuks a (Fkk;ehu] ck;ks V hu]
coenzymes, vitamins (thiamine, biotin,
dks,atkbe&,) ,oa QsjsMkWfDlu dk eq[; la?kVd gAS
coenzyme-A) and ferredoxin.
(1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) Five (1) nks (2) rhu (3) pkj (4) ik¡p
41. Number of oxygen atoms required for 41. bysDVªkuW ifjogu Ükà[kyk esa 2NADH2 v.kqvksa ds vkWDlhdj.k
oxidation of 2NADH2 molecule in ETS is :- ds fy, fdrus vkWDlhtu ijek.kqvksa dh vko';drk gksrh g%S &
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
42. Which of the following in sewage treatment 42. eyty mipkj esa fuEu esa fdl esa izy afcr Bksl inkFkZ
remove suspended solids ? fu"dkflr djrs ga\ S
(1) Tertiary treatment (1) r`rh;d mipkj
(2) Secondary treatment (2) f}rh;d mipkj
(3) Primary treatment (3) izkFkfed mipkj
(4) Sludge treatment (4) vkiad mipkj
43. Human population growth in India :- 43. Hkkjr esa ekuo lef"V
(1) Tends to follow a sigmoid curve as in case (1) dbZ lkjs tUrq iztkfr;ksa tl
S s flXeksbM oØ ikyu djrk
of many other animal species gSA
(2) Tends to reach a zero population growth as (2) dqN iztkfr;ksa tl
S k 'kwU; lfe"V o`f¼ igqap ldrk gAS
in case of some species
(3) izkÏfrd foink,a ,oa tUe fu;a=.k ds mik;ksa dks ykxw
(3) Can be reduced by natural calamities and
enforcing birth control measures
djds de fd;k tk ldrk gAS
(4) Can be regulated by following the national (4) ifjokj fu;kstu dk jk"Vªh; dk;ZØe dk ikyu dj ds
programme of family planning fu;af=r fd;k tk ldrk gAS
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(3) It can be 3'-end specific or 5'-end specific (3) 5'-fljs ;k fQj 3'-fljs ds fy, fof'k"V gks ldrs gaSA
(4) Primers are not needed in PCR (4) ih-lh-vkj esa izkbelZ dh vko';drk ugha gksrh gAS
59. The mRNA consisting of 282 nucleotides can 59. 282 U;wfDy;ksVkbM~l ;qDr mRNA fdrus vehuksa vEyksa
produce a polypeptide chain of :- dh iksyhisIVkbM Üka`[kyk fufeZr gksxh \
(1) 282 amino acids (1) 282 vehuksa vEy
(2) 120 amino acids (2) 120 vehuksa vEy
(3) 93 amino acids (3) 93 vehuksa vEy
(4) 94 amino acids (4) 94 vehuksa vEy
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60. The vector must also have one unique 60. rDNA v.kq fuEkkZ.k ds nkjS ku ckg~; DNA dks laokgd esa
recognition site to enable foreign DNA to be tksM+us ds fy, laokgd esa ,d fof'k"V igpku LFky gksrk gAS
inserted into the vector during the generation
lkekU;r% mi;ksx esa fy, tkus okys laokgdksa esa muds DNA
of an rDNA molecule. Most of the commonly
ds ,d NksV&s ls [kaM esa cgqr lkjs izfrca/ku ,atkbe ds fy,
used vectors contain unique recognition sites
igpku LFky gksrs gaS ftUgsa ikWyhfyadj ;k cgq&Dyksfuax LFky
for several restriction enzymes in a small region
dgrs gaSA ;g cgq&Dyksfuax LFky D;k enn nsrk g\
S
of DNA which is referred to as a polylinker or
multiple cloning site (MCS). An MCS provides:- (1) DNA [kaM+ksa dks i`Fkd djus dh {kerk
(1) Ability to separate DNA fragments
(2) izfrca/ku&,atkbeksa ds p;u esa fodYi dh lqfo/kk
(2) Flexibility in the choice of restriction
enzyme (3) p;ukRed ekdZjksa esa fodYi dh lqfo/kk
(3) Flexibility in selectable marker
(4) DNA ds Lor% mRifjofrZr gksus dh {kerkA
(4) Ability of DNA to mutate itself
61. A total of 512 seeds are collected from the cross 61. AbBb × AaBb ladj.k ls 512 cht izkIr gq,A thuizk:i
between AbBb × AaBb. Find the number of AAbb o Aabb okys ikniksa dh la[;k crkb,A
plants produced with the genotype AAbb and
(1) 35 (2) 350
Aabb :-
(3) 96 (4) 285
(1) 35 (2) 350 (3) 96 (4) 285
62. One strand of the given segment of DNA codes 62. fn, x, DNA [kaM dk ,d jTtqd mRNA ftldk vuqØe
for mRNA having the sequence 5'-AUCGCGUCA-3' gS mldk dwV djrk gS ftlls fd
5'-AUCGCGUCA-3' needed for the synthesis of
izksVhu la'ys"k.k gks ldsA mijksDr mRNA vuqØe ds fy,
protein. Identify the DNA molecule which will
mÙkjnk;h DNA v.kq dks igpkfu, %&
be responsible for the above mRNA sequence:-
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63. Analyze the given pedigree chart and select the 63. nh xbZ isMhxzh dks tk¡fp, o blds lanHkZ esa lgh mÙkj nsaA
option that is correct regarding it :-
66. Which one of the following is not a technique 66. fuEu esa ls dkSulh ,d rduhd ikniksa dh ubZ fdLe ugha
by which new varieties of plants can be cukrh g\ S
produced ? (1) ladj.k o p;u
(1) Hybridization and selection
(2) mRifjorZu iztuu
(2) Mutation breeding
(3) lksekDyksuy ofS j,aV esa p;u
(3) Selection amongst somaclonal variants
(4) Micropropagation (4) lw{e izo/kZu
67. Which one of the following is a fermented 67. fuEu esa ls dkuS fdf.or is; g\
S
beverage ? (1) pht (2) cz M
s (3) okbu (4) bMyh
(1) Cheese (2) Bread (3) Wine (4) Idli
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68. Which of the followings techniques are 68. fuEu esa ls dkSulh rduhdsa toS izks|ksfxdh ds varxZr vkrh
included under the applications of gS\
biotechnology ? (A) ihM+d uk'kd ikni cukus gsrq thu dh lkbysaflax
(A) Silencing of gene to develop pest resistant
(B) thu dk la'ys"k.k o mudk mi;ksx
plants.
(B) Synthesizing gene and using it. (C) DNA oDS lhu dk fodkl
(C) Developing a DNA vaccine.
(D) mRifjofrZr ;k foÏr thu esa lq/kkj
(D) Correcting a defective gene.
(1) C and D only (2) B, C and D (1) C o D dsoy (2) B, C o D
(3) A and B (4) A, B, C, D (3) A o B (4) A, B, C, D
69. Identify a correct match :- 69. lgh esy igpkfu, %&
(1) Clostridium - Citric acid (1) DykslVªhfM;e - flfVªd
(2) Aspergillus - Cyclosporin-A (2) ,LijftZyl - lkbDyksLiksfju
(3) Trichoderma - Butyric acid (3) VªkbdksMekZ - C;wVkbfjd vEy
(4) Monascus - Statins (4) eksusldl - LVsfVu
70. Which of the following is correct abo ut 70. e/;koLFkk-I (esVkQst I) ds lanHkZ esa fuEu esa ls dkuS lk lgh
metaphae-I ? gS ?
(1) Bivalents are arranged at equator (1) ckbosysaV (f}la;ksth) v{kka'k ij O;ofLFkr gksrs gaAS
(2) Univalents are arranged at equator (2) ;wfuosysaV (,dla;ksth) v{kka'k ij O;ofLFkr gksrs gaAS
(3) Non-homologous chromosomes forms pair (3) vletkr xq.klw= tksM+s cukrs gaSA
(4) Spindle fibers are attached at chromomere (4) rdqZ rarq Økseksfe;j ij tqM+rs gaSA
71. The main organelle involved in modification 71. uola'ysf"kr izksVhu ds :ikUrj.k rFkk Xykbdkslk;ys'ku ds
and glycosylation of newly synthesized fy;s eq[; dksf'kdkax gksrk gS %&
proteins is :-
(1) gfjryod (DyksjksIykLV)
(1) Chloroplast
(2) XykW;vkWfDttkse
(2) Glyoxysomes
(3) vUr% iznzO; tkfydk
(3) Endoplasmic reticulum
(4) xkWYth midj.k
(4) Golgi apparatus
72. Which one of the following structures is not 72. mPp ikniksa dh lelw=h dksf'kdkvksa esa fuEu esa ls dkSulh
common to mitotic cells of higher plants ? lajpuk lkekU;r% ugha gksrh gS \
(1) Cell plate (1) dksf'kdk ifêdk
(2) Centriole (2) rkjddsanz
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74. Analyze the diagram given below and select 74. fuEukafdr fn;s x;s fp= dk fo'ys"k.k djds C ukekafdr Hkkx
the correct option regarding part labelled as C:- ds lanHkZ esa lgh fodYi crkb;s :-
Large
subunit
Large
subunit
Small
subunit (A)
Small
subunit (A)
(C)
(B)
(C)
(1) 70s ribosome, formed during eukaryotic (B)
translation
(2) 70s ribosome, formed during prokaryotic
translation (1) ;wdfS j;ksfVd vuqoknu ds le; fufeZr 70s jkbckslkse
(3) 80s ribosome, formed during prokaryotic
(2) izksdsfj;ksfVd vuqoknu ds le; fufeZr 70s jkbckslkse
translation
(4) 80s ribosome, formed during eukaryotic (3) izksdsfj;ksfVd vuqoknu ds le; fufeZr 80s jkbckslkse
transcription (4) ;wdfS j;ksfVd vuqys[ku ds le; fufeZr 80s jkbckslkse
75. Select the incorrect statement with respect to 75. ofxZdh lgk;rk lk/ku ds lanHkZ esa vlR; dFku pqus %&
taxonomic aids :- (1) dqath foi;kZlh y{k.kksa ds ;qXe ij vk/kkfjr gksrh gS ftls
(1) Key is based on pair of contrasting f}d dgrs gAS
characters known as couplet. (2) gjcsfj;e ds O;ofLFkr djus dk dksbZ varjkZ"Vªh; ekU;
(2) There is no universal accepted system for fu;e ugha gAS
the arrangement of herbarium sheets
(3) ¶yksjk fdlh {ks= fo'ks"k esa ikniksa ds okLrfod forj.k
(3) Flora contains actual account of habitat and
rFkk vkokl dks n'kkZrk gSA
distribution of plants of a given area
(4) eksuksxzkQ fdlh ,d VSDlksu ds lanHkZ esa lEiw.kZ lwpuk
(4) Monograph contain information of any one
taxon
j[krk gAS
76. Antherozoids of both Funaria and Pteris were 76. ¶;wusfj;k rFkk Vsfjl ds uj ;qXed Vsfjl dh L=h/kkuh ds eq[k
released together near the archegonia of Pteris. ds ikl eqDr fd;s tkrs gaS dsoy Vsfjl ds uj ;qXed gh
Only Pteris sperms enter in archegonia as :- L=hèkkuh esa izos'k djrs gaS D;ksafd %&
(1) Vsfjl L=h/kkuh] ¶;wusfj;k uj;qXed dks izfrdf"kZr djrk
(1) Pteris archegonia repel Funaria sperms
gSA
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(2) Funaria sperms get killed by Pteris sperms (2) ¶;wusfj;k ds uj ;qXed] Vsfjl uj ;qXed }kjk ekj fn;s
(3) Funaria sperms are less mobile tkrs gaSA
(4) Pteris archegonia release chemical to (3) ¶;wusfj;k uj ;qXed de xfr'khy gksrs gaAS
(4) Vsfjl dh L=h/kkuh vius uj ;qXed dks vkdf"kZr djus
attaract its sperms ds fy, jlk;u òkfor djrk gAS
77. The orderly arrangement of taxonomic category 77. ofxZdh laoxZ dh Øec¼ O;oLFkk dgykrh gAS
is known as :-
(1) oxhZdj.k foKku (2) oxhZdj.k
(1) Systematics (2) Classification
(3) Hierarchy (4) Taxonomy (3) inkuqØe (4) ofxZdh
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78. Which of the following statement is correct 78. ekbdksjkbtk ds lanHkZ esa dkSulk lgh dFku gS %&
about mycorrhiza ? (1) ;g dod rFkk mPp ikniksa ds tM+ksa ds e/; lgthoh
(1) It is a symbiotic association between fungi laca/k gAS
and the root of higher plants (2) budh vuqifLFkfr esa ikbul ds uoksn~fHkn ikni o`f¼ ugha
(2) Pinus seedling cannot grow in their absence dj ldrs
(3) Plants having such association shows (3) ,sls lgthoh laca/k okys ikni yo.krk ds izfr izfrjksèkh
resistance to salinity gksrs gaSA
(4) More than one option is correct (4) ,d ls T;knk mÙkj lgh
79. From the point of evolution complexity, which 79. m}fodklh; tfVyrk ds vk/kkj ij fuEufyf[kr esa lcls
one of the following is most advanced :- tfVy@fodflr tho gS %&
(1) Chlamydomonas (2) Funaria (1) DysekbMkseksukl (2) ¶;wusfj;k
(3) Selaginella (4) Pinus (3) flySftusyk (4) ikbul
80. Coprophillous fungi belongs to :- 80. 'keyjkxh dod lEcfU/kr gksrk gS %&
(1) Ascomycetes only (1) dsoy ,LdksekbflfVt
(2) Phycomycetes only (2) dsoy QkbdksekbflfVt
(3) Both (1) and (2) (3) (1) rFkk (2) nksuksa
(4) Only basidiomycetes (4) dsoy csflfM;ksekbflfVt
81. Cork cambium results in the formation of cork 81. dkx ,/kk] dkx mRiUu djrh gS tks fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdldh
which become impermeable to water due to the
accumulation of :-
otg ls ty ds fy, vikjxE; gks tkrk gS %&
(1) Resins (2) Suberin (1) jsftu (2) lqcsfju
(3) Lignin (4) Tannins (3) fyxfuu (4) Vsfuu
82. Bulliform cells are found in :- 82. vko/kZRod dksf'kdk ikbZ tkrh gS %&
(1) Grasses - Adaxial epidermis of dorsiventral
leaves (1) ?kkl % i` " Bk/kkjh i.kZ dh vH;{k vf/kpeZ
(2) Grasses - Abaxial epidermis of dorsiventral
leaves (2) ?kkl % i` " Bk/kkjh i.kZ dh vik{k vf/kpeZ
(3) Grasses - Adaxial epidermis of isobilateral
(3) ?kkl % lef}ik'foZ d i.kZ dh vH;{k vf/kpeZ
leaves
(4) Grasses - Abaxial epidermis of isobilateral
(4) ?kkl % lef}ik'foZ d i.kZ dh vik{k vf/kpeZ
leaves
83. Analyze the given life cycle of plants and select 83. ikniksa ds uhps fn;s x;s thou pØ dk fo'ys"k.k dhft;s rFkk
the plant which represent such a life cycle :- ikni dk p;u dhft, tks bl thoupØ dks n'kkZrs gaS %&
Sporophyte
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Sporophyte
(2n) (2n)
A A
Zygote (2n) y Gametogenesis Zygote (2n) y Gametogenesis
am B am B
y ng y ng
S Meiosis S Meiosis
(n) (n)
(b) (b)
(1) Volvox (2) Fucus (1) okWYokWDl (2) ¶;wdl
(3) Spirogyra (4) Chlamydomonas (3) Likbjksxk;jk (4) DysekbMkseksukl
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84. Bacteria that are saprotrophs but can be parasite 84. thok.kq tks e`rksithoh gksrs gaS ysfdu ijthoh Hkh gks ldrs gS
and cause disease upon introduction to host rFkk iks"kh dk; esa izo's k ds i'pkr~ jksx mRiUu dj ldrs gSa
body are called as :- dgykrs gaS %&
(1) Obligate saprotroph (1) vfodYih e`rksithoh
(2) Obligate parasite (2) vfodYih ijthoh
(3) Facultative parasite (3) fodYih ijthoh
(4) Facultative saprotroph (4) fodYih e`rksithoh
85. Geitonogamy doesn't occur in :- 85. ltkriq"ih; ijkx.k ugha ik;k tkrk gS %&
(1) Dioecious plant (1) ,dfyaxkJ;h ikniksa esa
(2) Monoecious plant (2) mHk;fyaxkJ;h ikniksa esa
(3) Both of the above (3) nksuksa ikni esa
(4) Annual monoecious plant (4) ,do"khZ; mHk;fyaxkJ;h ikni esa
86. The end of juvenile phase mark the begining of:- 86. ckY;koLFkk dk var fdldh 'kq:vkr gS %&
(1) Vegetative phase (2) Reproductive phase (1) dkf;d voLFkk (2) tufud voLFkk
(3) Senescence phase (4) Ageing (3) th.kZrk voLFkk (4) tjkoLFkk
87. Pollen tube at the time of entering in embryo 87. ijkxufydk ds Hkzw.kdks"k esa izos'k ds le; ijkxufydk esa gksrs
sac has :- gaS %&
(1) Four gametes (1) pkj ;qXed
(2) Two non motile gametes (2) nks vpy ;qXed
(3) Two motile gametes (3) nks py ;qXed
(4) One gametic nucleus (4) ,d ;qXedh dsUnzd
88. Analyze the floral formula given below : 88. uhps fn;s x;s iq"ilw= dk fo'ys"k.k djsA
Br Å + P(3+3)A 3+3G (3) Br Å + P(3+3)A 3+3G (3)
The floral formula corresponds to the ;g iq"i lw= fuEu ls lEcfU/kr gS %&
following:-
(1) ØksVksysfj;k
(1) Crotollaria
(2) vkbcsfjl
(2) Iberis
(3) Allium (3) ,fy,e
(4) Triticum (4) Vª kbfVde
89. Which type of placentation shown in the given 89. fuEu fp= ls dkSuls chtk.MU;kl dk irk pyrk gS %&
diagram.
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