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Pre-Medical : Biology

ALLEN
NTA - IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
1. Which of the following set shows convergent 1. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkuS lk lewg vfHklkjh fodkl dks n'kkZrk g\
S
evolution? (1) phaVh [kksj rFkk uEcSj
(1) Anteater and numbat
(2) yhej rFkk ckscdVS
(2) Lemur and Bobcat
(3) /kCcsnkj dldl rFkk HksfM+;k
(3) Spotted cuscus and wolf
(4) Mole and flying phalanger (4) NNqanj rFkk mM+u QSysUtj
2. Sometimes the change in allele frequency is so 2. dHkh&dHkh vyhy vko`fÙk dk ;g ifjorZu lef"V ds u;s
different in the new sample of the population uewus esa bruk fHkUu gks tkrk gS fd og uwru iztkfr gh cu tkrh
that they become a different species. The
gAS ekfS yd viokfgr lef"V ,d ubZ lef"V dks cukrh gAS
original drifted population create a different
bls dgk tkrk gAS
population. This is called :
(1) laLFkkid izHkko
(1) Founder effect
(2) Bottleneck effect (2) cksVyusd izHkko
(3) Metapopulation effect (3) esVk vkcknh izHkko
(4) Gene migration (4) thu iyk;u
3. A change in the relative abundance of an allele 3. ,d ih<+h ds vuqØe.k ds nkjS ku] ,d lef"V ds vanj vyhy
(the allelic frequency) within a population, over (vyhy vko`fÙk) esa lkisf{kr izpjq rk esa ifjorZu dks dgk tkrk
a succession of generation, is called : gSA
(1) Micro evolution (1) lw{e fodkl (ekbØks fodkl)

(2) Macro evolution (2) xq:fodkl (esØks fodkl)

(3) Co-evolution (3) lg fodkl

(4) Phylogenetic evolution (4) tkfro`rh;rk fodkl


4. Which is incorrect regarding Hisardale? 4. fgljMyS ds lanHkZ esa dkuS lk xyr g\
S
(1) It is developed through cross-breeding (1) bls ladj.k ds ek/;e ls fodflr fd;k tkrk gAS
(2) It is a hybrid breed (2) ;g ladj uLy gS
(3) It is a milk breed (3) ;g nq/k nsus okyh uLy gS
(4) it is a high wool-producing cross breed (4) ;g mPp Åu inS k djus okyh ladj uLy gS
5. During muscle contraction, what could be the 5. is'kh; ladqpu ds nkjS ku D;k lgh Øe gks ldrk g\ S
correct sequence? (A) lkdksZIykTe esa dSfY'k;e vk;u eqDr gksrs gS
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(A) Release of calcium ion into the sarcoplasm


(B) ,flfVydksyhu dk eqDr gksuk
(B) Release of acetylcholine
(C) ,fDVu rarqvksa dk ljduk
(C) Sliding of actin filament
(D) Break down of ATP to form a cross bridge (D) ØkWl fczt cukus ds fy, ATP dk VwVuk
(1) A D B C (1) A D B C
(2) A B D C (2) A B D C
(3) B A C D (3) B A C D
(4) B A D C (4) B A D C

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Pre-Medical : Biology
ALLEN
6. Which of the following is not the example of 6. fuEu esa ls dkSulk mnkgj.k lkbuksfo;y laf/k dk ugha g\
S
synovial joint? (1) áewjl vkjS val es[kyk ds chp
(1) Between humerus and pectoral girdle
(2) Between atlas and axis (2) ,Vyl vkjS v{k ds chp
(3) Between carpal and metacarpal of thumb (3) vaxqBs ds dkiZy vkSj esVk dkiZy ds chp
(4) Between the skull bones
(4) djksfV dh vfLFk;ksa ds chp
7. The female mosquito is the vector for which of 7. fuEufyf[kr eas ls dkSuls jksx ds fy, eknk ePNj okgd gksrk
the following diseases? gS\
(1) Typhoid and polio (1) Vk;QkWbM o iksfy;ks
(2) Plague and rabies (2) Iysx o jscht
(3) Common cold and ringworm (3) lkekU; tqdke o fjax oeZ
(4) Filariasis and malaria (4) Qkbysfj,fll o eysfj;k
8. Barr body is absent in : 8. fuEu esa ls fdlesa ckj&ckWMh vuqifLFkr gksrh g\ S
(1) Klinefelter's syndrome (1) DykbuQsYVj flUMªkWe
(2) Turner's syndrome (2) VuZj flUMªkWe
(3) Normal female (3) lkekU; eknk
(4) Down syndrome in female (4) eknk esa Mkmu flUMªkWe
9. A person suffering from cancer is treated with 9. ,d dSalj ls ihfM+r jksxh dk mipkj jsfM;ksFksjsih }kjk fd;k
radiotherapy. Which of the following technique tkrk gAS bl mipkj esa fuEu esa ls dkuS lh rduhdh dk bLrseky
is used in this treatment?
fd;k tkrk g\S
(1) All tumour cells and surrounding normal
(1) lHkh vcqnZ&dksf'kdk,sa o muds vklikl dh lkekU;
cells get killed
dksf'kdk,sa ej tkrh gAS
(2) It is meant to cure damaged DNA
(2) ;s {kfrxzLr Mh- ,u- ,- dks Bhd djus ds fy, gAS
(3) Radiations activates P gene of tumour cell
53
(3) fofdj.ks] vcqnZ dksf'kdkvksa ds P53 thu dks lfØ; dj nsrh gAS
(4) Tumour cells are irradiated lethally (4) vcqnZ&dksf'kdkvksa dks ?kkrd :i ls fofdjf.kr fd;k tkrk gS
10. How many of the following diseases are 10. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdrus jksx nwf"kr Hkkstu o ty }kjk QSyrs
transmitted by contaminated food and water? gS\
[Typhoid, Ringworms, Pneumonia, Common [Vk;QkW ; M] fja x oeZ ] U;w eksf u;k] lkekU; tq dke] Ms a x w ]
cold, Dengue, Amoebiasis, Chickungunya]
vehch;rk] fpdquxqfu;k]
(1) One (2) Two
(1) ,d (2) nks (3) rhu (4) pkj
(3) Three (4) four
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11. Blastula lacks : 11. CykLVqyk esa ugha feyrk g%S


(1) Blastomeres (2) Blastoderm (1) CykLVksf e;j (2) CykLVksMeZ
(3) Blastocoel (4) Blastopore (3) CykLVkslhy (4) CykLVksiksj
12. Which set of hormones are secreted during 12. fuEu esa ls gkWeksZUl dk dkSulk lewg flQZ xHkkZoLFkk ds nkjS ku
pregnancy only : L=kfor gksrk g\ S
(1) Estrogen, hPL relaxin
(1) ,LVªkstu] ,p-ih-,y-] fjysfDlu
(2) Progesterone, cortisol, hCG
(2) izkt
s fs LVjkWu] dkWfVZlksy] ,p-lh-th-
(3) hCG, hPL, relaxin
(4) Cortisol, progesterone, relaxin (3) ,p-lh-th-] ,p-ih-,y- fjysfDlu
(4) dkWfVZlksy] izkt
s fs LVjkWu] fjysfDlu
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Pre-Medical : Biology
ALLEN
13. Extrusion of second polar body from egg 13. v.Ms esas ls f}rh;d /kzqoh; dk; ckgj fudyrk g%S
occurs:
(1) 'kqØk.kq ds izos'k ds ckn rFkk fu"kspu ds iw.kZ gksus ls igys
(1) After the entry of sperm, before the
completion of fertilization (2) fu"kspu ds iw.kZ gksus ds i'pkr~
(2) After the completion of fertilization (3) 'kqØ.kq ds izos'k ls iwoZ
(3) Before the entry of sperm
(4) 'kqØk.kq izos'k ls dksbZ lEcU/k ugha gS
(4) Has no relation to sperm entry
14. Which of the following statement is false? 14. fuEufyf[kr esa xyr dFku dkSulk g\
S
(1) Insulin stimulates cellular glucose uptake (1) bUlqfyu dksf'kdh; Xywdkst vUrZxzg.k rFkk miHkksx ,oa
and utilisation and glycogenesis Xykbdkstsusfll dks c<+krk gS
(2) Insulin deficiency result in a disease called (2) bUlqfyu dh deh ls jksx Mk;fcVht esykbVl@e/kqes ;
diabetes mellitus jksx gksrk gS
(3) Glucogon inhibits glycogenolysis and (3) XywdsxkWu Xykbdksftuksykbfll rFkk Xywdksfu;kstsusfll
gluconeogenesis dks lanfer djrk gSA
(4) Thymosin promotes the production of (4) Fkkbeksflu nzoh; izfrj{kk ds fy, ,.VhckWMht ds fuekZ.k
antibodies to provide humoral immunity dks izsfjr djrk gS
15. Which of the following statement is correct for 15. raf=dkvksa esa ^jsfUo;j ds uksM* ds fy, fuEu esa dkSu lk dFku
the 'Nodes of Ranvier' in nerves? : lgh g\S
(1) Neurilemma is discontinuous
(1) U;wjhysek vlr~r gksrh gAS
(2) Myelin sheath is discontinuous
(3) Myelin sheath is continuous (2) ek;yhu vkPNn vlr~r gksrh gAS
(4) Both myelin sheath and neurilemma are (3) ek;yhu vkPNn lr~r gksrh gAS
discontinuous (4) ek;fyu vkPNn rFkk U;wjhysek nksuksa gh vlr~r gksrh gAS
16. Which one of the following pairs of food 16. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkuS lk HkksT; inkFkksZ dk ;qXe ekuo vkek'k;
components in human reaches the stomach esa iw.kZr;k% vifpr :i ls igq¡prk gS\
totally undigested? :
(1) izksVhu rFkk LVkpZ
(1) Protein and starch
(2) lsywykst rFkk LVkpZ
(2) Cellulose and starch
(3) Protein and nucleic acid (3) izksVhu rFkk U;wfDyd vEy
(4) Fat and starch (4) olk rFkk LVkpZ
17. uhps fn;s x;s dFkuksa esa ls fdrus lgh g\ S
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17. How many of the given statement/s are correct?


(A) Hypothalamus is the centre for regulation (A) gkbiksFksysel esa [kkus vkSj ihus ds fu;a=.k ds dsUæ gksrs
of eating and drinking gSaA
(B) Corpus callosum is madeup of elastic fibres (B) dkiZl dSyksle izR;kLFk rarqvksa dk cuk gksrk gS
(C) ADH is synthesized by posterior pituitary
(C) ADH dks i'p ih;w"k la'ysf"kr djrk gS
(D) Balancing of body is done by cochlea
(1) one (2) two (D) dksfDy;k }kjk 'kjhj ds larqyu dk dk;Z fd;k tkrk gAS
(3) three (4) four (1) ,d (2) nks (3) rhu (4) pkj

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Pre-Medical : Biology
ALLEN
18. Which one of the following pairs of hormones 18. uhps fn;s x;s gkWeksZu ;qXeksa esa dkSu ,sls gkWeksZuksa dk mnkgj.k gS
are examples of those, that can easily pass tks y{; dksf'kdk dh dksf'kdk f>Yyh dks vklkuh ls ikj
through the cell membrane of the target cell and djds vUnj ik;s tkus okys xzkgh ls tqM + tkrs g\ S
bind to a receptor inside it : (1) bUlqfyu rFkk FSH
(1) Insulin and FSH
(2) Fkk;jkfDlu rFkk ,YMksfLVjkWu
(2) Thyroxin and aldosterone
(3) GnRH and cortisol (3) GnRH rFkk dkWVhZlky
(4) Testosterone and somatostatin (4) VsLVksfLVjku rFkk lkseVs ksLVsfuu
19. In the wall of alimentary canal, what is the 19. vkgkjuky dh fHkÙkh esa] ckgj ls Hkhrj dh vksj ijrks dk
actual sequence of layers from outer to inner?:
okLrfod Øe D;k g\
S
(1) Serosa, longitudinal muscle, mucosa,
submucosa (1) fljkslk] vuqnS/;Z is'kh] E;wdkslk] lcE;wdkslk
(2) Serosa, circular muscle, mucosa, submucosa
(2) fljkslk] orqZy is'kh] E;wdkslk] lcE;wdkslk
(3) Serosa, longitudinal muscle, circular
muscles, submucosa, mucosa (3) fljkslk] vuqn/S ;Z is'kh] orqZy is'kh] lcE;wdkslk] E;wdkslk
(4) Serosa, longitudinal muscle, circular
(4) fljkslk] vuqn/S ;Z is'kh] orqZy is'kh] E;wdkslk] lcE;wdkslk
muscle, mucosa, submuscosa
20. A type of granulocyte (i) and agranulocyte (ii) 20. df.kdk.kq (xszU;wykslkbV) dk ,d izdkj (i) vkSj vd.k
are phagocytic cells that destroy foreign dksf'kdk (,xzsU;wyklkbV) (ii) Hk{k.k dksf'kdk;ssa gksrh gS tks
organisms entering the body (iii) secrete vanj izos'k djus okys cká thoksa dks lekIr djrh gAS (iii)
histamine, serotonin, heparin etc. and are
fgLVkehu fljksVksfuu] fgifS ju vkfn dk L=ko djrh gS rFkk
involved in inflammatory reactions (iv) resist
'kksFkdkjh fØ;kvksa esa lfEefyr gksrh gAS (iv) laØe.k ls cpko
infections and are also associated with allergic
reactions (v) are responsible for the immune djrh gS rFkk ,ythZ izfrfØ;k esa lfEefyr jgrh gAS (v) 'kjhj
responses of the body: dh izfrj{kk ds fy;s mÙkjnk;h g\ S
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (1) eksukslkbV U;wVªksfQy cslksfQy bvksfluksfQy fyaQkslkbV
(1) Monocytes Neutrophils Basophils Eosinophils Lymphocyte
(2) Neutrophils Monocytes Basophils Eosinophils Lymphocyte (2) U;wVªksfQy eksukslkbV cslksfQy bvksfluksfQy fyaQkslkbV
(3) Neutrophils Monocytes Eosinophils Basophils Lymphocyte (3) U;wVªksfQy eksukslkbV bvksfluksfQy cslksfQy fyaQkslkbV
(4) Monocytes Neutrophils Eosinophils Basophils Lymphocyte
(4) eksukslkbV U;wVªksfQy bvksfluksfQy cslksfQy fyaQkslkbV
21. In which disease does a symptom of acute chest 21. fdl jksx esa] ân; is'kh esa] i;kZIr vkWDlhtu uk igq¡pus ds
pain appears due to, enough oxygen not dkj.k lhus esa nnZ (o{k ihM+k ) ds y{k.k mRiUu gksrs gAS
reaching the heart museles?
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(1) ân'kwy (,atkbuk)@,atkbukisDVksfjl (ân;'kwy isDVksfjl)


(1) Angina pectoris
(Angina pectoris)
(2) Atherosclerosis
(2) ,fFkjksdkafB; (,fFkjksllDysjksfll)(Atherosclerosis)
(3) Arteriosclerosis
(3) vkjVsfjvksLDysjksf ll (Arteriosclerosis)
(4) Hypertension
(4) mPp jDr nkc (vfr ruko) (Hypertension)

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ALLEN
22. Match the column with their respective matches 22. LrEHkksa dks lqefs yr dhft;sA
LrEHk-I LrEHk-II
Column-I Column-II
(P) var% 'olu {kerk (I) ERV + RV
(P) Inspiratory capacity (I) ERV + RV
(Q) Expiratory capacity (II) TV + ERV (Q) fu%'olu {kerk (II) TV + ERV
(R) Functional residual capacity (III) ERV + TV + IRV (R) fØ;k'khy vof'k"V {kerk (III) ERV + TV + IRV
(S) Vital capacity (IV) TV + IRV
(S) tSo {kerk (IV) TV + IRV
(1) P-III, Q-II, R-IV, S-I
(1) P-III, Q-II, R-IV, S-I
(2) P-IV, Q-I, R-III, S-II
(2) P-IV, Q-I, R-III, S-II
(3) P-III, Q-IV, R-I, S-II
(3) P-III, Q-IV, R-I, S-II
(4) P-IV, Q-II, R-I, S-III
(4) P-IV, Q-II, R-I, S-III
23. Why is carbon monoxide (CO) poisonous for 23. dkcZu eksuksvkWDlkbM (CO) ekuo ds fy;s fo"ksyh D;ksa gAS
man?
(1) ;g QsaQM+ksa dh raf=dkvksa dks izHkkfor djrh gS
(1) It affects the nerves of the lungs
(2) If affects the diaphragm and intercostal (2) ;g Mk;kÝke ,oa varjki'kqZd isf'k;ksa dks izHkkfor djrh
muscles gS
(3) It reacts with the oxygen, reducing (3) ;g vkWDlhtu ls fØ;k djds ok;q esa vkWDlhtu dk izfr'kr
percentage of oxygen in air de dj nsrh gS
(4) Haemoglobin combines with carbon (4) gheksXyksfcu vkWDlhtu ds LFkku ij] dkcZu eksuksvkDlkbM
monoxide instead of oxygen and the ls tqM+ tkrh g]S vkjS cuk gqvk mRikn fo;ksftr ugha gks
product cannot be dissociated ikrk
24. The mode of excretion in which animal excrete 24. mRltZu dk ,d izdkj] ftlesa izk.kh eq[;r% ;wfj;k dk mRltZu
urea as major excretory waste is called?
djrs g]S dgykrk gAS
(1) Ureotelism (1) ;wfj;kmRlthZ (;wfj;ksVsfyd)
(2) Uricotelism (2) ;wfjd vEy mRlthZ (;wfjdksVsfyd)
(3) Ammonotelism (3) veksfu;k mRlthZ (veksuksVSfyd)

(4) Aminotelism (4) ,feuks vEy mRlthZ (,feuksVfs yd)


25. The amount of urine released by humans in a 25. ,d euq"; izfrfnu ew= mRlftZr djrk g&S
day is :
(1) 1 ls 1.5 yhVj tks FkksM+k vEyh; gksrk gS (pH - 6.0)
(1) 1 to 1.5 litres of slightly acidic pH(pH - 6.0) ,oa ftlesa 45-60 gm ;wfj;k gksrh gS
and having 45-60 gm of urea
(2) 1 ls 1.5 yhVj tks FkksM+k vEyh; gksrk gS (pH - 6.0)
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(2) 1 to 1.5 litres of slightly acidic pH(pH - 6.0) ,oa ftlesa 25-30 gm ;wfj;k gksrh gS
and having 25-30 gm of urea
(3) 0 ls 1 yhVj tks FkksM+k {kkjh; gksrk gS (pH - 7.3) ,oa
(3) 0 to 1 litres of slightly alkaline pH(pH - 7.3) ftlesa 25-30 gm ;wfj;k gksrh gS
and having 25-30 gm of urea
(4) 1 ls 1.5 yhVj tks FkksM+k {kkjh; gksrk gS (pH - 7.3)
(4) 1 to 1.5 litres of slightly alkaline pH(pH - ,oa ftlesa 45-60 gm ;wfj;k gksrh gS
7.3) and having 45-60 gm of urea

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Pre-Medical : Biology
ALLEN
26. The _A_ leaves the eye and the retinal blood 26. _A_ u=
S rFkk n`f"V iVy dks u=S xksyd ds e/; rFkk FkksM+h
vessels enter it at a point medial to and slightly
i'p /kzqo ds Åij NksM+rh gS rFkk jDr okfguh ;gk¡ izo's k djrh
above the posterior pole of the eyeball. _B_ is
gAS _B_ ml Hkkx esa ugha gksrh gS vr% bls _C_ dgrs gAS
not present in this region and hence it is called
_C_ ds ik'oZ esa vk¡[k ds fiNys /kzqo ij ihyk o.kZd fcUnq
as _C_. At the posterior pole of eye lateral to
_C_. There is yellowish pigmented spot called gksrk gS ftls _D_ dgrs gAS vkjS ftlds dsUnz esa ,d xrZ
as _D_ with a central pit called as _E_ . gksrk gS ftls _E_ dgrs gAS

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)


(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
Optic Photoreceptor Macula Blind nd izdk'k lao snh esD;wyk
(1) Fovea
nerve cell lutea spot (1) Qksfo;k va/k fcUnq
raf=kdk dksf'kdk,¡ Y;wfV;k
Optic Photoreceptor Macula Blind nd izdk'k lao snh esD;wyk
(2) Fovea (2) va/k fcUnq Qksfo;k
nerve cell lutea spot raf=kdk dksf'kdk,¡ Y;wfV;k

Optic Photoreceptor Blind Macula nd izdk'k lao snh esD;wyk


(3) Fovea (3) va/k fcUnq Qksfo;k
nerve cell spot lutea raf=kdk dksf'kdk,¡ Y;wfV;k

nd izdk'k lao snh esD;wyk


Optic Photoreceptor Blind Macula (4) va/k fcUnq Qksfo;k
(4) Fovea raf=kdk dksf'kdk,¡ Y;wfV;k
nerve cell spot lutea

27. Which one of the following groups of animals 27. fuEu esa ls dkuS lk tUrq lewgksa esa ls dkuS mlds nks vfHkyk{kf.kd
are correctly matched with their two vdkfjdh xq.kksa ls feyk;k x;k g\
S
characteristic morphological features?
(1) dksyEck] bDol] o csyus ksIVsjk&i`"B [kks[kyh rfU=dk jTtq
(1) Columba, Equus and Balaenoptera-dorsal
o vlerkih
hollow nerve cord and poikilothermous
(2) Vsjksil] ikoks] esØksil o flVkdqyk&4 d{kh; ân; o
(2) Pteropus, pavo, macropus and psittacula-4
chamberd heart and homeothermy lerkih
(3) Ascaris, wuchereria and pheretima- (3) ,Ldsfjl] owphjsfj;k o Qsjfs Vek&dwVnsgxqgh;] o fo[k.Mh
pseudocoelomate and metamerism Hkou
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(4) Dentalium, octopus, apis and Bombyx-open


(4) MsUVsfy;e] vkWDVksil] ,fil o ckWfEcDl&[kqyk ifjlapj.k
circulatory system and dorsal nerve cord
rU=] i`"B rfU=dk jTtq

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28. Consider the diagram below and choose the 28. uhps fp= dks ns[ks o lajpukvksa (a – d) ds lUnHkZ esa lgh
correct option regarding the structures, (a – d): fodYi pqus :

(a) (a)

(b) (b)
(c) (c)

(d) (d)

(1) (a) collateral gland (1) (a) 'ys"kd xzfUFk


(b) vas deferens (b) 'kqØ okfgdk
(c) ejaculatory (c) L[kyu ufydk
(d) anal cercus (d) xqnk ywe
(2) (a) Phallic gland (2) (a) f'k'uh; xzfUFk
(b) vas deferens (b) 'kqØ okfgdk
(c) ejaculatory duct (c) L[kyu ufydk
(d) anal cercus (d) xqnk ywe
(3) (a) Phallic gland (3) (a) f'k'uh; xzfUFk
(b) ejaculatory deferens (b) L[kyu ufydk
(c) vas duct (c) 'kqØ ufydk
(d) Caudal style (d) dkWMy LVkby
(4) (a) Phallic gland (4) (a) f'k'uh; xzfUFk
(b) vas deferens (b) 'kqØ okfgdk
(c) ejaculatory duct (c) L[kyu ufydk
(d) titillator (d) fVVhysVj
29. Which animal and phylum is represented in the 29. fn;s x;s fp= esa dkuS lk tUrq o la?k dks iznf'kZr fd;k g\
S
given figure?
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(1) ,lhfM;k & gsehdkMsZVk


(1) Ascidia – Hemichordata
(2) ,lhfM;k & dkWMsZVk
(2) Ascidia – Chordata
(3) ,lhfM;k & V~;wuhdsVk
(3) Ascidia – Tunicata
(4) Ascidia – Urochordata (4) ,lhfM;k & ;wjksdkWMsZVk

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30. Fibroblast, macrophage and mast cells are 30. rUrq dksjd dks'kk,sa] o`gn Hk{kdk.kq o ekLV dksf'kdk,sa mifLFkr
present in : gksrh gAS
(1) Cartilage tissue (1) mikfLFky Ård
(2) Skeleton tissue (2) dadkyh; Ård

(3) Areolar tissue (3) xfrZdk Ård


(4) xzfUFky midyk
(4) Glandular epithelium
31. Which of the following statement is incorrect 31. fuEu esa ls dkuS lk dFku la?k gsehdkWMsZVk ds fy, xyr gS\
about phylum hemichordata? (1) izkscksfll xzfUFk }kjk mRltZu
(1) Excretion by proboscis gland (2) Dykse }kjk 'olu
(2) Respiration by gills
(3) f}fya xkJ;h
(3) Monoecious
(4) dkWyj Hkkx esa ,d vYifodflr lajpuk ftls LVkseksdkMZ
(4) Have a rudimentary structure in the collar
region called stomochord dgrs gS
32. Which of the following animals have different 32. fuEu esa ls fdl ,d tUrq esa vU; rhuksa ls fHkUu lefefr g\
S
symmetry in comparison to other three?
(1) ikbyk (2) Iywjkscszfd;k
(1) Pila (2) Pleurobrachia
(3) Sycon (4) Asterias (3)lkbdu (4) ,LVsfj;kl
33. The layer of cells forming tissue, that appears 33. og Ård ftldks cukus okyh dksf'kdkvksa dh ijr cgqLrjh;
to be multilayered but actually some of the cells
izrhr gksrh g]S fdUrq okLro esa dqN dksf'kdk,sa vk/kkjh; f>Yyh
extend from the basement membrane to the
ls lrg rd ik;h tkrh gS &
surface, is :
(1) simple columnar epithelium (1) ljy LrEHkkdkj midyk
(2) pseudostratified epithelium (2) dwVLrfjr midyk
(3) stratified columnar epithelium (3) Lrfjr LrEHkkdkj midyk
(4) stratified cuboidal (4) Lrfjr ?kukdkj
34. According to chemiosmotic hypothesis, ATP 34. jlksijkljh ifjdYiuk ds vuqlkj ,Vhih flaFksVt s ,Vhih cukrk
synthetase form ATP when protons (H+) :- gS tc izkVs ksu (H ) :-
+

(1) Move from stroma to thylakoid lumen by (1) LVªksek ls FkkbysdkWbM vodkf'kdk esa ljy folj.k }kjk
simple diffusion tkrs gaSA
(2) Move from stroma to thylakoid lumen by (2) LVªkes k ls FkkbysdkWbM vodkf'kdk esa lqlk/; folj.k }kjk
fascilitated diffusion tkrs gaSA
(3) Move from thylakoid lumen to stroma by
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(3) FkkbysdkWbM vodkf'kdk ls LVªke s k esa lfØ; ifjogu }kjk


active transport tkrs gaSA
(4) Move from thylakoid lumen to stroma by (4) FkkbysdkWbM vodkf'kdk ls LVªke s k esa lqlk/; folj.k }kjk
facilitated diffusion tkrs gaSA
35. In a single process of kreb's cycle, 35. ØsCl pØ ds ,d izØe esa fodkcksZfDlyhdj.k fdrus inksa
decarboxylation takes place in how many steps? esa gksrk g\S
(1) Five (2) Four (1) ik¡p (2) pkj
(3) Three (4) Two (3) rhu (4) nks

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36. Consider the following :- 36. fuEu ij fopkj djsa %&
(I) For a solution at atmospheric pressure (I) fdlh foy;u ds fy;s okrkoj.kh; nkc ij y w = y s
y w = y s. (II) fdlh dksf'kdk dk y w (ty foHko) ek= foys; foHko
(II) y w (water potential) of a cell is affected by ls gh izHkkfor gksrk gAS
solute potential only. (III) y p (nkc foHko) fnu ds le; tk;ye esa lkekU;r%
(III) y p (pressure potential) is usually positive /kukRed gksrk gAS
in xylem during the day. mijksDr esa dkSulk@dkuS ls dFku lgh gAS
Which of the statements given above is/are (1) II rFkk III
correct? (2) ek= I
(1) II and III (2) I only (3) ek= II
(3) II only (4) I, II and III (4) I, II rFkk III

37. Which of the following statement is correct 37. izfrLi/kkZRed laneu ds ckjs esa fuEu esa ls dkSulk dFku lgh
about competitive inhibitors ?
gS\
(1) The inhibitor does not resembles the
(1) laned fØ;k/kkj ls lekurk ugha j[krs gSaA
substrate.

(2) The inhibitor competes with the substrate (2) laned ,yksLVsfjd LFky ij tqM+us ds fy, fØ;k/kkj ls
for the allosteric sites. izfrLi/kkZ djrs gaAS
(3) Inhibition of succinic hydrogenase by (3) lDlfud gkbMªkfs tust dk esyksuVs }kjk laneu] tks lajpuk
malonate which closely resembles the esa fØ;k/kkj lDlhusV ls fudV dh lekurk j[krk g]S bldk
substrate succinate in structure is an example
,d mnkgj.k gAS
of it.
(4) bl fØ;kfof/k dk mi;ksx thokf.od jksxtudks ds
(4) This mechanism is used in the control of
bacterial pathogens. fu;=a.k esa fd;k tkrk gAS
38. Liberation of oxygen when green cells in water 38. mi;qZDr xzkgh dh mifLFkfr esa tc ty esa gjh dksf'kdkvksa dks
are exposed to sunlight in presence of suitable lw;Z ds izdk'k ls mtkxj djrs gaS rks vkWDlhtu foeqDr gksrh
acceptor is called :- g]S dgykrh gS &
(1) Arnon's reaction (1) vkjukWu vfHkfØ;k

(2) Emerson's enhancement effect (2) bejlu ifjo/kZu izHkko


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(3) Blackman's reaction (3) CySdeSu vfHkfØ;k

(4) Hill's reaction (4) fgy vfHkfØ;k

39. The habit of a cabbage or acaulescent plant can 39. iÙkkxksHkh vFkok LraHkjfgr (,dkWyslsaV) ikni ds LoHkko esa
be changed drastically by the application of :- tcjnLr :i ls ifjorZu vkrk g]S iz;ksx ls %&
(1) IAA (2) GA3 (1) IAA ds (2) GA3ds

(3) ABA (4) Zeatin (3) ABAds (4) ft;kfVu ds

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40. Mark out the number of incorrect statement/s:- 40. xyr dFkuksa dh la[;k dks fpfUgr djsa %&
(I) Some essential elements can alter the
osmotic potential of a cell. (I) dqN vfuok;Z rRo dksf'kdk ds ijklj.kh foHko dks cny
(II) Nitrogen is required by the meristematic ldrs gaAS
tissues and the metabolically active cells
(II) ukbVªkstu dh vko';drk dsoy foHkT;ksÙkdh ÅÙkdksa]
only.
,oa lfØ; mikip;h dksf'kdkvksa esa gksrh gSA
(III) Mg +2 is needed by several respiratory
enzymes. (III) Mg+2 dh t:jr dbZ 'oluh; ,atkbeksa }kjk gksrh gAS
(IV) Mo is essential for the water-splitting (IV) Mo dh vfuok;Zrk izdk'k la'ys"k.k ds nkjS ku ty ds
reaction in photosynthesis, a reaction that v.kqvksa dks fo[kf.Mr djus esa gS tks fd vkWDlhtu
leads to oxygen evolution. mRlftZr djus okyh vfHkfØ;k gAS
(V) Sulphur is the main constituent of several
(V) xa / kd vus d foVkfeuks a (Fkk;ehu] ck;ks V hu]
coenzymes, vitamins (thiamine, biotin,
dks,atkbe&,) ,oa QsjsMkWfDlu dk eq[; la?kVd gAS
coenzyme-A) and ferredoxin.
(1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) Five (1) nks (2) rhu (3) pkj (4) ik¡p
41. Number of oxygen atoms required for 41. bysDVªkuW ifjogu Ükà[kyk esa 2NADH2 v.kqvksa ds vkWDlhdj.k
oxidation of 2NADH2 molecule in ETS is :- ds fy, fdrus vkWDlhtu ijek.kqvksa dh vko';drk gksrh g%S &
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
42. Which of the following in sewage treatment 42. eyty mipkj esa fuEu esa fdl esa izy afcr Bksl inkFkZ
remove suspended solids ? fu"dkflr djrs ga\ S
(1) Tertiary treatment (1) r`rh;d mipkj
(2) Secondary treatment (2) f}rh;d mipkj
(3) Primary treatment (3) izkFkfed mipkj
(4) Sludge treatment (4) vkiad mipkj
43. Human population growth in India :- 43. Hkkjr esa ekuo lef"V
(1) Tends to follow a sigmoid curve as in case (1) dbZ lkjs tUrq iztkfr;ksa tl
S s flXeksbM oØ ikyu djrk
of many other animal species gSA
(2) Tends to reach a zero population growth as (2) dqN iztkfr;ksa tl
S k 'kwU; lfe"V o`f¼ igqap ldrk gAS
in case of some species
(3) izkÏfrd foink,a ,oa tUe fu;a=.k ds mik;ksa dks ykxw
(3) Can be reduced by natural calamities and
enforcing birth control measures
djds de fd;k tk ldrk gAS
(4) Can be regulated by following the national (4) ifjokj fu;kstu dk jk"Vªh; dk;ZØe dk ikyu dj ds
programme of family planning fu;af=r fd;k tk ldrk gAS
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44. Ecological succession is :- 44. ikfjfLFkfrdh vuqØe.k


(1) Directional but unpredicatable (1) fn'kkRed ijUrq vHkfo";opuh; gAS
(2) Directional and predictables (2) fn'kkRed ,oa Hkfo";opuh; gAS
(3) Gradual and predictable (3) Øfed ,oa Hkfo";opuh; gAS
(4) Directionless and unpredictable (4) fn'kkghu ,oa vHkfo";opuh; gAS
45. Which is/are absent in polluted water ? 45. fuEu esa ls dkSulk iznwf"kr ty esa vuqifLFkr gksrk g\
S
(1) Hydrilla and larva of stone fly (1) gkbfMªyk ,oa LVksu ¶ykbZ dk ykokZ
(2) Water hyacinth (2) tydqaHkh
(3) Blue green algae (3) uhy gfjr 'ko S ky
(4) Sludge worm (4) vkiad Ïfe
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46. In india, forest constitute about :- 46. Hkkjr esa ou %&
(1) 19.4% of land area (1) LFky {ks= ds 19.4% gS
(2) 33.7% of land area (2) LFky {ks= ds 33.7% gS
(3) 21.54% of land area (3) LFky {ks= ds 21.54% gS
(4) 67% of land area (4) LFky {ks= ds 67% gS
47. Select the incorrectly matched pair :- 47. fuEu esa ls xyrh ls feyku dh xbZ tksM+h dks pqfu, %&
(1) Fig and fig wasp - Mutualism (1) vathj ,oa vathj cjZ & lgksidkfjrk
(2) Cuscuta and hedge plant - Commensalism (2) vejcsy ,oa ckM+k ikni & lgHkksftrk
(3) Cuckoo and crow - Brood parasitism
(3) dks;y ,oa dkSvk & v.M ijthfork
(4) Goats and Abingdon tortoise on galapagos
(4) cdfj;ksa ,oa ,fcaXMu dNq, xy
S kixS ks }hi ij & izfrLi/kkZ
islands - Competition
48. In a complete study of grassland ecosystem 48. ?kkl enS ku ,oa rkykc ikfjra= dk laiw.kZ v/;;u ls D;k ns[kk
and pond ecosystem, it may be observed that:- x;k g\S
(1) The abiotic components are almost similar (1) vtfS od ?kVd yxHkx leku gAS
(2) The biotic components are almost similar
(2) tfS od ?kVd yxHkx leku gAS
(3) Both biotic and abiotic component are
different (3) nksuksa tfS od ,oa vtfS od ?kVd vyx gAS
(4) Primary and secondary consumers are (4) izkFkfed ,oa f}rh;d miHkksDrk leku gAS
similar
49. "Every species has a right to live". What kind of 49. ^^gj iztkfr dk thfor jgus ds fy, vf/kdkj gAS ** ;g
value inplies the conservation of biodiversity? toS fofoèkrk ds laj{k.k gsrq fdl ewY; dks ladsr djrk g\S
(1) Narrow utilitarian (2) Broadly utilitarian (1) ladh.kZ:i ls mi;ksxh (2) O;kid :i ls mi;ksxh
(3) Aesthetic (4) Ethical (3) lkSan;Zijd (4) ufS rd
50. Which of the following locations acts as 50. fuEu esa ls dkSulk LFkku] ukbVªkstu pØ ds HkaMkj dk g\
S
reservoir for nitrogen cycle ? (1) ok;qe.My
(1) Atmosphere (2) volknh 'ky
S
(2) Sedimentary bed rock
(3) e`nk
(3) Soil
(4) Fossilised plant and animal remains (4) fu[kkrdHkwr ikni ,oa tarq vo'ks"k
51. Which one of the following is a matching pair of 51. fuEu esa ls dkSulk ,d thoksa dh tksM+h ,oa mudk laca/k
certain organism(s) and the kind of association ? gS\
(1) Sea anemone and clown fish - Commensalism
(1) lh&,fueksu ,oa Dykmu eNyh & lgHkksftrk
(2) Red algae and fungi in lichens - Mutualism
(2) yky 'ko S ky ,oa dod ykbZdsu esa & lgksidkfjrk
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(3) Orchids growing on trees - Parasitism


(4) Cuscuta growing on other flowering plants (3) o`{kksa ij vkfdZM & ijthfork
- Epiphysis (4) iq"ih; ikniksa ij dldqVk & ,fiQsfll
52. Biosphere reserve are different from national 52. thoeaMy lajf{kr {ks=] jk"Vªh; m|ku ls vyx g]S D;ksafd
park as :- (1) ekuo thoeaMy lajf{kr {ks= ds lekdy Hkkx ugha gAS
(1) Humans are not integral part of biosphere
reserve (2) ikni ,oa tUrq thoeaMy lajf{kr {ks= esa lajf{kr fd,
(2) Plants and animals are protected in tkrs gaSA
biosphere reserves (3) ekuo thoeaMy lajf{kr {ks= ds lekdy Hkkx gAS
(3) Humans are an integral part of biosphere
reserve (4) dsoy ikniksa dks LoLFkkus i;kZoj.k esa lajf{kr fd;k tkrk
(4) Only plants are protected in an in-situ gSA
environment
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53. Which one is polymer ? 53. fuEu esa dkSulk cgqyd g\ S
(1) Sucrose (2) Glycogen (1) lwØkst (2) Xyk;dkstu
(3) Fructose (4) Lactose (3) ÝDVkst (4) ysDVkst
54. Water constitutes ___% of the total cellular mass:- 54. laiw.kZ dksf'kdh; Hkkj esa ty dh ek=k _______% gS &
(1) 10 (2) 30 (1) 10 (2) 30
(3) 70 (4) 90 (3) 70 (4) 90
55. Select the incorrect statement :- 55. vlR; okD; dks pqfu, \
(1) Lipids are insoluble in water (1) olk ty esa v?kqyu'khy gksrh gAS
(2) Glycerol is trihydroxy propane (2) fXyljkWy VªkbgkbMªksDlh izksisu gAS
(3) Lecithin is a glycoprotein (3) yslhfFku ,d XykbdksizksVhu gAS
(4) Adenosine is a nucleoside (4) ,M+huksflu ,d U;wfDy;kslkbZM gAS
56. If a certain group of cells utilize the amino acids 56. ;fn dksf'kdkvksa dk ,d lewg izkVs hu la'ys"k.k ds fy, vehuksa
glycine exclusively for protein synthesis and vEy Xykblhu dk mi;ksx djrk gS o ;fn bu dksf'kdkvksa
if a growing culture of these cells is fed
ds lao/kZu ek/;e esa jsfM;kslfØ; Xykblhu fn;k tk, rks
radioactive glycine, radioactivity will be found
first in the :-
loZizFke jsfM;kslfØ;rk ikbZ tk,xh %&
(1) Ribosomes (1) jkbckslkse
(2) tRNA (2) tRNA
(3) mRNA (3) mRNA
(4) Mitochondria (4) ekbVksdksafMª;k
57. In typical mendelian dihybrid cross, one parent 57. esaMyh;u f}ladj ladj.k esa ,d tud nksuksa izHkkoh fo'ks"kdksa
is homozygous for both dominant traits and ds fy, le;qXeth gS o nwljk tud nksuksa vizHkkoh fo'ks"kdksa
another parent is homozygous for both
recessive traits. In F2 generation, both parental
ds fy, le;qXeth gAS F2 ih<+h esa tudh; o iqu;ksZxt nksuksa
combinations and recombinations appear. la;kstu fn[kkbZ nsrs gAaS rks crkb, tudh; la;kstu o iqu;ksZxtksa
Phenotypic ratio of parental combinations to dk y{k.k izk:ih; vuqikr D;k gksxk %&
recombinations is :-
(1) 10 : 6 (2) 12 : 4
(1) 10 : 6 (2) 12 : 4
(3) 9 : 7 (4) 15 : 1 (3) 9 : 7 (4) 15 : 1
58. Primers used in PCR must be :- 58. ih-lh-vkj- esa mi;ksx fd, tkus okys izkbelZ gksrs gaS %&
(1) 3'-end specific (1) 3'-fljs ds fy, fof'k"V
(2) 5'-end specific (2) 5'-fljs ds fy, fof'k"V
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(3) It can be 3'-end specific or 5'-end specific (3) 5'-fljs ;k fQj 3'-fljs ds fy, fof'k"V gks ldrs gaSA
(4) Primers are not needed in PCR (4) ih-lh-vkj esa izkbelZ dh vko';drk ugha gksrh gAS
59. The mRNA consisting of 282 nucleotides can 59. 282 U;wfDy;ksVkbM~l ;qDr mRNA fdrus vehuksa vEyksa
produce a polypeptide chain of :- dh iksyhisIVkbM Üka`[kyk fufeZr gksxh \
(1) 282 amino acids (1) 282 vehuksa vEy
(2) 120 amino acids (2) 120 vehuksa vEy
(3) 93 amino acids (3) 93 vehuksa vEy
(4) 94 amino acids (4) 94 vehuksa vEy

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60. The vector must also have one unique 60. rDNA v.kq fuEkkZ.k ds nkjS ku ckg~; DNA dks laokgd esa
recognition site to enable foreign DNA to be tksM+us ds fy, laokgd esa ,d fof'k"V igpku LFky gksrk gAS
inserted into the vector during the generation
lkekU;r% mi;ksx esa fy, tkus okys laokgdksa esa muds DNA
of an rDNA molecule. Most of the commonly
ds ,d NksV&s ls [kaM esa cgqr lkjs izfrca/ku ,atkbe ds fy,
used vectors contain unique recognition sites
igpku LFky gksrs gaS ftUgsa ikWyhfyadj ;k cgq&Dyksfuax LFky
for several restriction enzymes in a small region
dgrs gaSA ;g cgq&Dyksfuax LFky D;k enn nsrk g\
S
of DNA which is referred to as a polylinker or
multiple cloning site (MCS). An MCS provides:- (1) DNA [kaM+ksa dks i`Fkd djus dh {kerk
(1) Ability to separate DNA fragments
(2) izfrca/ku&,atkbeksa ds p;u esa fodYi dh lqfo/kk
(2) Flexibility in the choice of restriction
enzyme (3) p;ukRed ekdZjksa esa fodYi dh lqfo/kk
(3) Flexibility in selectable marker
(4) DNA ds Lor% mRifjofrZr gksus dh {kerkA
(4) Ability of DNA to mutate itself
61. A total of 512 seeds are collected from the cross 61. AbBb × AaBb ladj.k ls 512 cht izkIr gq,A thuizk:i
between AbBb × AaBb. Find the number of AAbb o Aabb okys ikniksa dh la[;k crkb,A
plants produced with the genotype AAbb and
(1) 35 (2) 350
Aabb :-
(3) 96 (4) 285
(1) 35 (2) 350 (3) 96 (4) 285
62. One strand of the given segment of DNA codes 62. fn, x, DNA [kaM dk ,d jTtqd mRNA ftldk vuqØe
for mRNA having the sequence 5'-AUCGCGUCA-3' gS mldk dwV djrk gS ftlls fd
5'-AUCGCGUCA-3' needed for the synthesis of
izksVhu la'ys"k.k gks ldsA mijksDr mRNA vuqØe ds fy,
protein. Identify the DNA molecule which will
mÙkjnk;h DNA v.kq dks igpkfu, %&
be responsible for the above mRNA sequence:-

3'-ATC GCC ATA-5'


3'-ATC GCC ATA-5' (1)
(1) 5'-TAG CGG TAT-3'
5'-TAG CGG TAT-3'

5'-TAG CGG AGT-3'


5'-TAG CGG AGT-3' (2)
Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\SRG\NTA_IMP_QUE\2808_BIO (IMP_QUE).P65

(2) 3'-ATC GCG TCA-5'


3'-ATC GCG TCA-5'

5'-TGA CGC TAG-3'


5'-TGA CGC TAG-3' (3)
(3) 3'-ACT GCG ATC-5'
3'-ACT GCG ATC-5'

3'-TAG CGC AGT-5'


3'-TAG CGC AGT-5' (4)
(4) 5'-ATC GCG TCA-3'
5'-ATC GCG TCA-3'

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63. Analyze the given pedigree chart and select the 63. nh xbZ isMhxzh dks tk¡fp, o blds lanHkZ esa lgh mÙkj nsaA
option that is correct regarding it :-

(1) X-linked recessive trait - Colourblindness


(2) Autosomal dominant trait - Cystic fibrosis (1) X-lgyXu vizHkkoh VªsV & o.kk±/krk
(3) Autosomal recessive trait - Duchenne (2) dkf;d izHkkoh VªsV & fllfVd Qkbczksfll
muscular dystrophy
(3) dkf;d vizHkkoh VªsV & Mdu eldqyj fMLVªksQh
(4) Autosomal dominant trait - Myotonic
dystrophy (4) dkf;d izHkkoh VªsV & ek;ksVksfud nq"iks"k.k
64. Which of the following vectors has been used 64. laØfer rac kdw ikniksa esa lw=Ïfe dh fof'k"V thu dks
for introducing nematode specific genes in iqj%LFkkfir djus gsrq fuEu esa ls dkSulk laokgd mi;ksx esa
infected tobacco plants ? fy.k x;k g\ S
(1) Meloidegyne incognitia (1) feYokMsxkbu badksxuhf'k;k
(2) Bacillus thuringiensis (2) cslhyl Fkwjhuft,afll
(3) Disarmed retrovirus (3) fu'kL= i'pfo"kk.kq
(4) Ti plasmid of agrobacterium (4) ,xzkscfS DVfj;e dk Ti IyktfeM+
65. Which of the following is correct with respect 65. toS iqf"VÏr [kk|ksa ds lanHkZ esa fuEu esa ls lgh crkb, %&
to biofortified food ? (1) xsgwa dh fdLe] ,Vyl 66 ftlesa ykblhu o fVªIVksQus
(1) Wheat variety, Atlas 66, having a high izpqj gS
lysine and tryptophan content
(2) Qly ftlesa foVkfeu C izpjq ek=k esa gS & djsyk] cFkqvk]
(2) Vitamin C enriched crops bitter gourd,
ljlksa] VekVj
bathua, mustard, tomato
(3) Qly ftlesa foVkfeu A izpjq ek=k esa gS & xktj] ikyd]
(3) Vitamin A enriched carrots, spinach, french
and garden peas Ýsap o m|ku eVj
(4) czkWM o ycyc chal ftlesa vk;ju o dfS Y'k;e izpqj
(4) Iron and calcium enriched broad and lablab
beans ek=k esa gAS
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66. Which one of the following is not a technique 66. fuEu esa ls dkSulh ,d rduhd ikniksa dh ubZ fdLe ugha
by which new varieties of plants can be cukrh g\ S
produced ? (1) ladj.k o p;u
(1) Hybridization and selection
(2) mRifjorZu iztuu
(2) Mutation breeding
(3) lksekDyksuy ofS j,aV esa p;u
(3) Selection amongst somaclonal variants
(4) Micropropagation (4) lw{e izo/kZu
67. Which one of the following is a fermented 67. fuEu esa ls dkuS fdf.or is; g\
S
beverage ? (1) pht (2) cz M
s (3) okbu (4) bMyh
(1) Cheese (2) Bread (3) Wine (4) Idli

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68. Which of the followings techniques are 68. fuEu esa ls dkSulh rduhdsa toS izks|ksfxdh ds varxZr vkrh
included under the applications of gS\
biotechnology ? (A) ihM+d uk'kd ikni cukus gsrq thu dh lkbysaflax
(A) Silencing of gene to develop pest resistant
(B) thu dk la'ys"k.k o mudk mi;ksx
plants.
(B) Synthesizing gene and using it. (C) DNA oDS lhu dk fodkl
(C) Developing a DNA vaccine.
(D) mRifjofrZr ;k foÏr thu esa lq/kkj
(D) Correcting a defective gene.
(1) C and D only (2) B, C and D (1) C o D dsoy (2) B, C o D
(3) A and B (4) A, B, C, D (3) A o B (4) A, B, C, D
69. Identify a correct match :- 69. lgh esy igpkfu, %&
(1) Clostridium - Citric acid (1) DykslVªhfM;e - flfVªd
(2) Aspergillus - Cyclosporin-A (2) ,LijftZyl - lkbDyksLiksfju
(3) Trichoderma - Butyric acid (3) VªkbdksMekZ - C;wVkbfjd vEy
(4) Monascus - Statins (4) eksusldl - LVsfVu
70. Which of the following is correct abo ut 70. e/;koLFkk-I (esVkQst I) ds lanHkZ esa fuEu esa ls dkuS lk lgh
metaphae-I ? gS ?
(1) Bivalents are arranged at equator (1) ckbosysaV (f}la;ksth) v{kka'k ij O;ofLFkr gksrs gaAS
(2) Univalents are arranged at equator (2) ;wfuosysaV (,dla;ksth) v{kka'k ij O;ofLFkr gksrs gaAS
(3) Non-homologous chromosomes forms pair (3) vletkr xq.klw= tksM+s cukrs gaSA
(4) Spindle fibers are attached at chromomere (4) rdqZ rarq Økseksfe;j ij tqM+rs gaSA
71. The main organelle involved in modification 71. uola'ysf"kr izksVhu ds :ikUrj.k rFkk Xykbdkslk;ys'ku ds
and glycosylation of newly synthesized fy;s eq[; dksf'kdkax gksrk gS %&
proteins is :-
(1) gfjryod (DyksjksIykLV)
(1) Chloroplast
(2) XykW;vkWfDttkse
(2) Glyoxysomes
(3) vUr% iznzO; tkfydk
(3) Endoplasmic reticulum
(4) xkWYth midj.k
(4) Golgi apparatus
72. Which one of the following structures is not 72. mPp ikniksa dh lelw=h dksf'kdkvksa esa fuEu esa ls dkSulh
common to mitotic cells of higher plants ? lajpuk lkekU;r% ugha gksrh gS \
(1) Cell plate (1) dksf'kdk ifêdk
(2) Centriole (2) rkjddsanz
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(3) Centromere (3) xq.klw= fcanq


(4) Spindle fibres (4) rdqZ rarq
73. To study any kind of genetic abnormality 73. xq.klw= dh la[;k esa ifjorZu ds dkj.k mRiUu gksus okyh
arising due to change in chromosome number, vuqokaf'kd vlkekU;rk dk v/;;u djus ds fy;s dfS j;ksVkbi
the karyotype is prepared. Which of the
dk fuekZ.k fd;k tkrk gSA fuEu esa ls dkSulh voLFkk
following stages is most suitable to prepare a
karyotype ?
dSfj;ksVkbi fuekZ.k ds fy, lokZf/kd mi;qZDr g\
S
(1) Metaphase (2) Telophase (1) esVkQst (e/;koLFkk) (2) fVyksQst (vaR;koLFkk)
(3) Anaphase (4) Prophase (3) ,ukQst (i'pkoLFkk) (4) izksQst (iwokZoLFkk)

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Pre-Medical : Biology
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74. Analyze the diagram given below and select 74. fuEukafdr fn;s x;s fp= dk fo'ys"k.k djds C ukekafdr Hkkx
the correct option regarding part labelled as C:- ds lanHkZ esa lgh fodYi crkb;s :-
Large
subunit
Large
subunit
Small
subunit (A)
Small
subunit (A)
(C)
(B)
(C)
(1) 70s ribosome, formed during eukaryotic (B)
translation
(2) 70s ribosome, formed during prokaryotic
translation (1) ;wdfS j;ksfVd vuqoknu ds le; fufeZr 70s jkbckslkse
(3) 80s ribosome, formed during prokaryotic
(2) izksdsfj;ksfVd vuqoknu ds le; fufeZr 70s jkbckslkse
translation
(4) 80s ribosome, formed during eukaryotic (3) izksdsfj;ksfVd vuqoknu ds le; fufeZr 80s jkbckslkse
transcription (4) ;wdfS j;ksfVd vuqys[ku ds le; fufeZr 80s jkbckslkse
75. Select the incorrect statement with respect to 75. ofxZdh lgk;rk lk/ku ds lanHkZ esa vlR; dFku pqus %&
taxonomic aids :- (1) dqath foi;kZlh y{k.kksa ds ;qXe ij vk/kkfjr gksrh gS ftls
(1) Key is based on pair of contrasting f}d dgrs gAS
characters known as couplet. (2) gjcsfj;e ds O;ofLFkr djus dk dksbZ varjkZ"Vªh; ekU;
(2) There is no universal accepted system for fu;e ugha gAS
the arrangement of herbarium sheets
(3) ¶yksjk fdlh {ks= fo'ks"k esa ikniksa ds okLrfod forj.k
(3) Flora contains actual account of habitat and
rFkk vkokl dks n'kkZrk gSA
distribution of plants of a given area
(4) eksuksxzkQ fdlh ,d VSDlksu ds lanHkZ esa lEiw.kZ lwpuk
(4) Monograph contain information of any one
taxon
j[krk gAS
76. Antherozoids of both Funaria and Pteris were 76. ¶;wusfj;k rFkk Vsfjl ds uj ;qXed Vsfjl dh L=h/kkuh ds eq[k
released together near the archegonia of Pteris. ds ikl eqDr fd;s tkrs gaS dsoy Vsfjl ds uj ;qXed gh
Only Pteris sperms enter in archegonia as :- L=hèkkuh esa izos'k djrs gaS D;ksafd %&
(1) Vsfjl L=h/kkuh] ¶;wusfj;k uj;qXed dks izfrdf"kZr djrk
(1) Pteris archegonia repel Funaria sperms
gSA
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(2) Funaria sperms get killed by Pteris sperms (2) ¶;wusfj;k ds uj ;qXed] Vsfjl uj ;qXed }kjk ekj fn;s
(3) Funaria sperms are less mobile tkrs gaSA
(4) Pteris archegonia release chemical to (3) ¶;wusfj;k uj ;qXed de xfr'khy gksrs gaAS
(4) Vsfjl dh L=h/kkuh vius uj ;qXed dks vkdf"kZr djus
attaract its sperms ds fy, jlk;u òkfor djrk gAS
77. The orderly arrangement of taxonomic category 77. ofxZdh laoxZ dh Øec¼ O;oLFkk dgykrh gAS
is known as :-
(1) oxhZdj.k foKku (2) oxhZdj.k
(1) Systematics (2) Classification
(3) Hierarchy (4) Taxonomy (3) inkuqØe (4) ofxZdh

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Pre-Medical : Biology
ALLEN
78. Which of the following statement is correct 78. ekbdksjkbtk ds lanHkZ esa dkSulk lgh dFku gS %&
about mycorrhiza ? (1) ;g dod rFkk mPp ikniksa ds tM+ksa ds e/; lgthoh
(1) It is a symbiotic association between fungi laca/k gAS
and the root of higher plants (2) budh vuqifLFkfr esa ikbul ds uoksn~fHkn ikni o`f¼ ugha
(2) Pinus seedling cannot grow in their absence dj ldrs
(3) Plants having such association shows (3) ,sls lgthoh laca/k okys ikni yo.krk ds izfr izfrjksèkh
resistance to salinity gksrs gaSA
(4) More than one option is correct (4) ,d ls T;knk mÙkj lgh
79. From the point of evolution complexity, which 79. m}fodklh; tfVyrk ds vk/kkj ij fuEufyf[kr esa lcls
one of the following is most advanced :- tfVy@fodflr tho gS %&
(1) Chlamydomonas (2) Funaria (1) DysekbMkseksukl (2) ¶;wusfj;k
(3) Selaginella (4) Pinus (3) flySftusyk (4) ikbul
80. Coprophillous fungi belongs to :- 80. 'keyjkxh dod lEcfU/kr gksrk gS %&
(1) Ascomycetes only (1) dsoy ,LdksekbflfVt
(2) Phycomycetes only (2) dsoy QkbdksekbflfVt
(3) Both (1) and (2) (3) (1) rFkk (2) nksuksa
(4) Only basidiomycetes (4) dsoy csflfM;ksekbflfVt
81. Cork cambium results in the formation of cork 81. dkx ,/kk] dkx mRiUu djrh gS tks fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdldh
which become impermeable to water due to the
accumulation of :-
otg ls ty ds fy, vikjxE; gks tkrk gS %&
(1) Resins (2) Suberin (1) jsftu (2) lqcsfju
(3) Lignin (4) Tannins (3) fyxfuu (4) Vsfuu
82. Bulliform cells are found in :- 82. vko/kZRod dksf'kdk ikbZ tkrh gS %&
(1) Grasses - Adaxial epidermis of dorsiventral
leaves (1) ?kkl % i` " Bk/kkjh i.kZ dh vH;{k vf/kpeZ
(2) Grasses - Abaxial epidermis of dorsiventral
leaves (2) ?kkl % i` " Bk/kkjh i.kZ dh vik{k vf/kpeZ
(3) Grasses - Adaxial epidermis of isobilateral
(3) ?kkl % lef}ik'foZ d i.kZ dh vH;{k vf/kpeZ
leaves
(4) Grasses - Abaxial epidermis of isobilateral
(4) ?kkl % lef}ik'foZ d i.kZ dh vik{k vf/kpeZ
leaves
83. Analyze the given life cycle of plants and select 83. ikniksa ds uhps fn;s x;s thou pØ dk fo'ys"k.k dhft;s rFkk
the plant which represent such a life cycle :- ikni dk p;u dhft, tks bl thoupØ dks n'kkZrs gaS %&
Sporophyte
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Sporophyte
(2n) (2n)

A A
Zygote (2n) y Gametogenesis Zygote (2n) y Gametogenesis
am B am B
y ng y ng
S Meiosis S Meiosis
(n) (n)
(b) (b)
(1) Volvox (2) Fucus (1) okWYokWDl (2) ¶;wdl
(3) Spirogyra (4) Chlamydomonas (3) Likbjksxk;jk (4) DysekbMkseksukl
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84. Bacteria that are saprotrophs but can be parasite 84. thok.kq tks e`rksithoh gksrs gaS ysfdu ijthoh Hkh gks ldrs gS
and cause disease upon introduction to host rFkk iks"kh dk; esa izo's k ds i'pkr~ jksx mRiUu dj ldrs gSa
body are called as :- dgykrs gaS %&
(1) Obligate saprotroph (1) vfodYih e`rksithoh
(2) Obligate parasite (2) vfodYih ijthoh
(3) Facultative parasite (3) fodYih ijthoh
(4) Facultative saprotroph (4) fodYih e`rksithoh
85. Geitonogamy doesn't occur in :- 85. ltkriq"ih; ijkx.k ugha ik;k tkrk gS %&
(1) Dioecious plant (1) ,dfyaxkJ;h ikniksa esa
(2) Monoecious plant (2) mHk;fyaxkJ;h ikniksa esa
(3) Both of the above (3) nksuksa ikni esa
(4) Annual monoecious plant (4) ,do"khZ; mHk;fyaxkJ;h ikni esa
86. The end of juvenile phase mark the begining of:- 86. ckY;koLFkk dk var fdldh 'kq:vkr gS %&
(1) Vegetative phase (2) Reproductive phase (1) dkf;d voLFkk (2) tufud voLFkk
(3) Senescence phase (4) Ageing (3) th.kZrk voLFkk (4) tjkoLFkk
87. Pollen tube at the time of entering in embryo 87. ijkxufydk ds Hkzw.kdks"k esa izos'k ds le; ijkxufydk esa gksrs
sac has :- gaS %&
(1) Four gametes (1) pkj ;qXed
(2) Two non motile gametes (2) nks vpy ;qXed
(3) Two motile gametes (3) nks py ;qXed
(4) One gametic nucleus (4) ,d ;qXedh dsUnzd
88. Analyze the floral formula given below : 88. uhps fn;s x;s iq"ilw= dk fo'ys"k.k djsA
Br Å + P(3+3)A 3+3G (3) Br Å + P(3+3)A 3+3G (3)
The floral formula corresponds to the ;g iq"i lw= fuEu ls lEcfU/kr gS %&
following:-
(1) ØksVksysfj;k
(1) Crotollaria
(2) vkbcsfjl
(2) Iberis
(3) Allium (3) ,fy,e
(4) Triticum (4) Vª kbfVde
89. Which type of placentation shown in the given 89. fuEu fp= ls dkSuls chtk.MU;kl dk irk pyrk gS %&
diagram.
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(1) LraHkh; (2) fHkfÙk;


(1) Axile (2) Perietal
(3) eqDr LraHkh; (4) vk/kkfj;
(3) Free central (4) Basal
90. The petioles that are green expanded and 90. gjk o`gr rFkk Hkkstu la'ys"kh i.kZo`Ur izsf{kr gksrk gS %&
synthesize food is observed in :- (1) ,Lisjsxl esa (2) ;qQksfcZ;k esa
(1) Asparagus (2) Euphorbia (3) vkLVªsfy;u vdsf'k;k esa (4) vkifU'k;k esa
(3) Australian acacia (4) Opuntia
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