FIRST QUARTER

Fire problems are being rampant in the environment in

Which property determines whether one substance will NCR because of the large number and setting of houses.
sink or float in another substance? What is the most evident physical property of matter
A. Texture C. Volume that contributed to this problem?
B. Temperature D. Density A. Corrosiveness of light materials
B. Mass and corrosiveness of materials
Which property makes it possible for a metal to be made C. Density and flammability of light materials
into sheets? D. Flammability and combustibility of materials
A. Malleability C. Ductility
B. Metallic Luster D. Brittleness Once carbon dioxide is absorbed by the seawater, an
ample amount of chemical reactions will occur that
In an experiment, spoons made of different materials increases the concentration of hydrogen ions. If this will
were used. A small amount of butter is placed at each continue, what will be the effect in the seawater?
end while the opposite ends of the spoons were A. The contamination of water leads to water
submerged in hot water. The butter melt in only one of pollution.
the spoons. Which of the following physical property of B. A high amount of metals will result in the
that spoon caused the melting of butter? water surface.
A. Density C. Thermal conductivity C. Decrease of oxygen content in the water that
B. Diffusibility D. Toxicity leads to death to fishes
D. Acidification due to increasing of hydrogen
When water and kerosene were mixed, the kerosene ions causing the water to become too acidic.
floats on the water. What physical property of the
material is behind this? Oil spill is evident in bodies of water. This is due to oil
A. Viscosity C. Flammability companies that discharge their wastes into the bodies of
B. Polarity D. Conductivity water. Which among these properties does not
contribute to this phenomenon?
Which of the following is a chemical property of water? A. Density C. Polarity
A. Ice floats on water. B. Flammability D. Toxicity
B. Water boils at 100°C.
C. Water expands when it freezes. What makes a hand sanitizer a fire hazard?
D. Water reacts violently with sodium. A. Due to water content
B. Due to its alcohol content
Seeing different materials floating on a river would C. Due to water and glycerine contents
display what physical property of matter? D. Due to its non-reactive component glycerine
A. Density C. Flammability
B. Ductility D. Solubility Which among the consumer products links water and
dirt?
What type of property of matter is shown in the picture? A. Soap or detergent
B. Sodium Hydroxide in shampoo
C. Hand sanitizer and soap
D. Alcohol-based hand sanitizer

Due to pandemic coronavirus, we are opt to use hand

A. Physical property – Reactivity
B. Chemical property – Reactivity
C. Chemical property – Flammability
D. Chemical property – Reactivity
Flammability
sanitizer to cleanse our hands every time we are out or
at home. What precaution should you always remember
in the proper use of sanitizer?
and A. Its flammability and toxicity.
 B. It could worsen allergies because it’s non- B. Check the concentration of alcohol.
toxic. C. Check the percentage of the fluoride.
C. It is costly so better use in small amount. D. Check the Total Fatty Matter percentage (TFM
D. Use it in an ample amount to ensure %).
protection against viruses.
Which of the following statements would display a wise
Which among the choices would recognize the consumer?
importance of chemistry behind the products that we are A. Identifying the brand names of the product
using daily? you are buying.
A. Chemistry deals with the properties of matter B. Buying all on sale products offered online as
only. quality products.
B. Products has no business with chemistry at all. C. Making a comparison features of different
C. Chemistry just give facts without experimental brands of the products.
basis. D. Planning purchases in advance, comparing
D. Chemistry focuses on the components of products and doing research.
materials and its reaction to other materials that lead to
many products. Which separation technique is used in a mixture of
immiscible liquids?
Which of the following consumer products has citric acid, A. Decantation C. Evaporation
copper and zinc as its active component? B. Distillation D. Filtration
A. Detergent C. Surgical gloves
B. Toothpaste D. Surgical facemask Which type of mixture is used in separating its
components by decantation?
With the current situation, which best option below will A. Any Mixtures
help you ensure safety in choosing and buying chemical B. Heterogeneous mixture
products that are sold online? C. Homogeneous mixture
A. Consumer rating on product D. Mixtures of organic compounds
B. Brand of the chemical product
C. Number of consumer who bought the product What laboratory apparatus can be used in executing the
D. Search for Material Safety Data Sheet of the decantation technique of separating the components of
product mixtures?
A. Burette C. Distilling flask
Which of the following is the active component of B. Condenser D. Separatory funnel
detergent that do the job of linking water and dirt?
A. Surfactant Water refilling station delivers purified water in houses,
B. Triclosan which among the separation techniques is used in
C. Benzalkonium chloride ensuring the quality and safety of water?
D. Citric acid, copper and zinc A. Centrifugation
B. Chromatography
From the discussion, which should not be considered in C. Decantation
buying products? D. Distillation and Filtration
A. Cost of the product
B. Components of the product Bloodstains are important in investigating a crime.
C. Quality of the product Chemists used this as a specimen to allow the
D. Commercial Ads of the product components to be separated. What separation
technique then is utilized?
How will you know if the soap you are choosing is good A. Chromatography C. Evaporation
or not good for bathing? B. Distillation D. Filtration
A. Check the moisturizing content.
What possible separation technique is used if the B. C-11 D. Sr-85
miscible liquids have a significant difference in boiling
points generally 70°C? Which of the following emissions travels at the speed of
A. Chromatography C. Simple Distillation light?
B. Evaporation D. Fractional Distillation A. Gamma ray C. Alpha particle
B. Beta particle D. Antineutrino
Forensic scientist uses ink to solve crimes by matching
documents or stains found in a crime scene to the marker Consider the radioactive decay equation given below.
or pen that belongs to a suspect. What separation What is the most likely identity of X?
technique could be used?
A. Chromatography C. Distillation A. Alpha particle C. Positron particle
B. Decantation D. Filtration B. Beta particle D. Neutron

During birthdays, spaghetti has been the most requested What sub-atomic particles are continuously moving
food at home. You are told to remove the pasta from the around the nucleus?
pan with hot water. As a STEM student, what separation
technique will you apply?
A. Heating further to let the water evaporate.
B. Use a strainer to easily separate the pasta This isotope is used for metabolism and bone formation
from the hot water. studies.
C. Pick the pasta one by one so you could A. P-32 C. Na-24
separate it from the hot water. B. Sr-85 D. Tl-201
D. Let the mixture of pasta and water to cool off
then get a spoon to remove the water. What isotope is used to locate brain tumors and
damaged heart cells?
What separation technique is useful in determining the A. I-131 C. Se-75
antibodies that could fight diseases and viruses? B. C-11 D. Tc-99
A. Chromatography
B. Filtration Radium-226 can undergo radioactive decay to form
C. Fractional Distillation Radon-222. Which of the following is the most likely type
D. Magnetic Separation Technique of particle that is emitted?

Kerosene and water are the components of the mixture

A. Alpha C. Gamma
that can be separated using decantation. What is the
B. Beta D. Positron
basis of separating the components of mixtures using
this technique?
Which of the following is true regarding a typical atom?
A. Boiling points
A. The mass of n0 is much less than e-.
B. Density
B. n0 and e- have the same mass.
C. Solubility
C. n0 plus p+ make the nucleus electrically neutral
D. Solubility and Boiling points
D. p+ are more massive than e-.
What isotope is used to locate brain tumors, monitor
All the following are true regarding radioactive rays,
cardiac, liver, and thyroid activities?
except:
A. Se-75 C. Co-60
A. α-particles are positively-charged.
B. Cf-252 D. I-131
B. β-particles are negatively-charged.
C. У rays are electromagnetic waves and can be
This isotope is used for oil well studies and in locating
deflected by an electric field.
leaks in pipe lines.
D. There are radioactive emissions in which the
A. Na-24 C. U-235
mass number is not affected
 A. K2(CrO4) C. K2CrO4
What formula gives the types and numbers of atoms in B. KCrO4 D. (K)2CrO4
an ionic compound and also shows how the atoms are
connected in the compound? What is the correct name for the ionic compound CaF2?
A. Chemical formula C. Empirical formula A. Calcium fluorine C. Calcium difluoride
B. Structural formula D. Molecular formula B. Calcium (II) fluoride D. Calcium fluoride

Which of the following takes place when a monovalent Which of the following is a binary ionic compound?
cation is formed from an atom? A. Nickel (II) hydroxide
A. One electron is gained. B. Ammonium chloride
B. Two electrons are gained. C. Lithium hydride
C. One electron is lost. D. Potassium cyanide
D. Two electrons are shared.
Which is a ternary ionic compound?
Which of the following anions is polyatomic? A. Cesium fluoride C. Sodium hydroxide
A. Iodide C. Nitrite B. Tin (II) fluoride D. Potassium iodide
B. Sulfide D. Bromide
All binary ionic compound’s names end in -_____.
Which of the following is the correct formula of copper A. –ic C. –ite
(II) nitrate? B. –ate D. –ide
A. CuNO3 C. Cu2NO3
B. Cu2(NO3)2 D. Cu(NO3)2 Which of the correct name of the polyatomic ion ClO4- ?
A. Perchlorate C. Hypochlorite
Which of the following is a binary ionic compound? B. Chlorate D. Chlorite
A. Sodium oxide
B. Sodium hydroxide Which of the following ions has more than one ionic
C. Sodium nitrate charge?
D. Sodium carbonate A. Gallium C. Calcium
B. Gold D. Nitrogen
Which of the following is a ternary ionic compound?
A. Al2O3 C. CaO Which is a polyatomic ion?
B. CaBr2 D. NH4Cl A. Oxide C. Hydroxide
B. Phosphide D. Iodide
What representation shows a set of symbols showing the
elements present in a compound and their relative Which of the following is the correct ion pairs for the
proportions? compound calcium phosphate?
A. Chemical formula C. Molecular formula A. Ca2+, PO43- C. Ca3+, PO42-
2+ 3-
B. Structural formula D. Empirical formula B. Ca , P D. Ca+, PO4-

Which of the following is the correct ion pairs for the What is the correct name of FeSO4?
compound ZnS? A. Iron sulfate C. Iron (II) sulfate
A. Zn2+ and S3- C. Zn+ and S2- B. Iron (III) sulfate D. Iron sulfide
2+ 2-
B. Zn and S D. Zn+ and S-
The gemstone sapphire is mostly a compound of Al2O3.
Which of the following elements will form an anion? Which is the correct name of this compound?
A. Potassium C. Nitrogen A. Aluminum (III) oxide C. Aluminum oxalate
B. Rubidium D. Gold B. Aluminum dioxide D. Aluminum oxide

Which is the correct formula of potassium chromate?

When ammonium nitrate is heated to a high A. Magnesium dihydroxide
temperature, it forms dinitrogen monoxide and water. B. Monomagnesium dihydroxide
What is the chemical formula of dinitrogen monoxide? C. Monomagnesium hydroxide
A. NO2 C. N2O D. Magnesium hydroxide
B. N2O2 D. H2O
Which of the following is the correct name of NH3, a
What formula represents how many of each type of atom colorless gas with a characteristic pungent smell?
are in a molecule of a covalent compound? A. Ammonia
A. Chemical formula C. Empirical formula B. Ammonium
B. Structural formula D. Molecular formula C. Mononitrogen trihydride
D. Nitrogen trihydride
Which of the following is a ternary acid?
A. H2S C. HBr Which of the following is the correct Greek prefix for 10
B. H2SO3 D. LiOH atoms?
A. Mono C. Deca
Which of the following is the correct formula of nitrogen B. Nano D. Hexa
trifluoride?
A. NF5 C. NF3 In naming ternary acids, the anion “-ite” suffix becomes
B. NO3 D. NF4 an _____ suffix in the acid.
A. –ous C. –ide
Which of the following is a base? B. –ic D. –ate
A. Ba(OH)2 C. Ba(CN)2
B. BaCl2 D. BaCO3 What compound makes use of the prefix hydro- to
replace the word “hydrogen” and modifies the anion’s
One contributor to acid rain is hydrogen sulfate (sulfuric name by adding the suffix –ic for its chemical
acid) which forms when sulfur trioxide reacts with water. nomenclature?
What is the chemical formula of sulfuric acid? A. Base C. Ionic
A. SO3 C. H2SO3 B. Ternary acid D. Binary acid
B. H2S D. H2SO4
Which is the correct name of P4O10?
Which of these is not a tertiary acid? A. Tetrapotassium decoxide
A. Chloric acid C. Chlorous acid B. Tetraphosphorus decoxide
B. Hydrochloric acid D. Hypochlorous acid C. Phosphorus oxide
D. Potassium nonoxide
This forms when nonmetallic elements share electrons.
A. Ionic bond C. Covalent bond Which of the following is a binary acid?
B. Acidic bond D. Basic bond A. Bromous acid C. Hydrobromic acid
B. Perbromic acid D. Hypobromous acid
What compound changes red litmus paper to blue?
A. Base C. Ionic Which of the following anions will form a ternary acid?
B. Acid D. Gaseous A. Chlorate C. Chlorite
B. Chloride D. Perchlorate
Which of the following ions will form a binary acid?
A. Chlorite C. Carbonate Which is correct name of the base Al(OH)3?
B. Chloride D. Perchlorate A. Aluminum hydroxide
B. Aluminum trihydroxide
Mg(OH)2 is a common component of antacids, such as C. Aluminum hydrogen oxide
milk of magnesia, as well as laxatives. What is the correct D. Monoaluminum hydroxide
name of this compound?
N2O4 appears as red-brown liquid with a sharp, B. 1.78 mol D. 0.560 mol
unpleasant chemical odor that is used as a rocket
propellant. What is its correct name? The formula mass of the compound, Al2(SO4)3 • 18H2O is:
A. Dinitrogen tetraoxide A. 394.4 g C. 110,900 g
B. Nitrogen tetroxide B. 666.43 g D. 466.8 g
C. Nitrogen oxide
D. Dinitrogen tetrox What is the mass in grams of 5.90 mole C8H18?
A. 673 g C. 19.4 g
Which of the following represent a mole? B. 0.0512 g D. 389 g
A. 5 grams of NaCl
B. 6.02 x 1023 F atoms How many atoms are there in 11.3 g Pb?
C. 3.01 x 1023 CH4 molecules A. 3.28 x 1022 atoms Pb
D. 24 grams graphite C-atom B. 3.28 x 1023 atoms Pb
C. 3.29 x 1022 atoms Pb
All of the following refer to one mole of carbon dioxide D. 3.29 x 1023 atoms Pb
(molar masses: C-12, O-16) except _____.
A. 44 g of carbon dioxide Which of the following best describe percent
B. 6.02 x 1023 molecules composition of a compound?
C. 1 mole of C and 2 mole of O A. It refers to the percentage by mass of the
D. 1 g of C and 2 g of O compound.
B. It refers to the sum of atomic masses of each
Zinc is used as a corrosion resistant coating on iron and atom in the formula.
steel. It is also an essential element in your diet. Calculate C. It refers to the number of atoms and the kind
the number of moles that contain 3.50 x 1025 atoms of of atoms present in the formula.
zinc (Zn). D. It refers to the percentage by mass of each
A. 58.1 moles of Zn element present in the substance.
B. 50.0 moles of Zn
C. 6.02 x 1023 moles of Zn What is the percent composition of each element in
D. 3.50 x 1025 moles of Zn ammonium sulfide?
A. 21% N, 6% H, 24 % S, 48% O
What is the molar mass of Ca(OH)2? B. 28% N, 8% H, 64% S
A. 72.0 g Ca(OH)2 C. 58.0 g Ca(OH)2 C. 41.13% N, 11.88 % H, 47% S
B. 114.0 g Ca(OH) D. 74.0 g Ca(OH)2 D. 12% N, 4% H, 28% S, 56% O

Helium is an unreactive noble gas that is used to inflate The percentage of C in sugar (C6H22O11) is
balloons. A sample party balloon contains 3.33 x 1022 A. 3.5 % C. 8.3 %
atoms of helium (He) gas. What is the mass in grams of B. 26.67 % D. 57.9 %
helium?
A. 0.05532 g of He C. 0.221 g of He What is the mass percentage of iron in the compound
B. 3.33 g of He D. 4.00 g of He Fe2O3?
A. 69.9% Fe C. 68% Fe
It refers to the SI unit for measurement of number of B. 75% Fe D. 70% Fe
particles in a substance.
A. Ampere C. Kilogram All of the following are uses of percentage composition
B. Candela D. Mole except for?
A. Evaluating the relative abundance of a given
How many moles of alanine, C3H7NO2, are there in 159 g element in different compounds of known formulas.
of alanine? B. Determining the percentage composition of
A. 1.42 x 104 mol C. 0.992 mol the components for various food products.
 C. Collecting and presentation of evidences that Which of the following is the empirical formula of
may be used in a court of law. glucose (C6H12O6)?
D. Developing new compounds for variety of A. C2H2O C. C2HO2
uses. B. CH2O D. C2HO

What is percent composition of a compound? This formula shows the relative numbers of atoms of
A. It is the percentage by mass of each element each element for a particular compound.
in the substance. A. Molecular Formula C. Empirical Formula
B. It is merely the sum of atomic masses of each B. Nuclear Formula D. Structural Formula
element multiplied by 100.
C. It is the number of atoms present in a Which of the following could be an example of an
substance multiplied by 100. empirical formula?
D. It is the percentage of the total mass of the A. C2H4O6 C. BaO2
substance. B. H2O2 D. C6H12O6

Considering the following substances as the common A particular compound is found out having 25.9%
nitrogen-containing fertilizers: ammonia (NH3), nitrogen and 74.1% oxygen after undergoing an analysis.
ammonium nitrate (NH4NO3), and urea (CH4N2O). Which Which of the following is its empirical formula?
among these substances has the highest source of A. N2O5 C. N2O4
nitrogen? B. NO D. N4O6
A. Urea
B. Ammonia All of the following formulas are empirical formula
C. Ammonium nitrate except
D. All of them have the same amount of nitrogen A. N2O4 C. C3H8
B. Na2SO4 D. AlCl3
Calcium phosphate Ca3(PO4)2 is a major component of
the bone. How many percent by mass of calcium is Which of the following is the empirical formula of this
present in calcium phosphate? compound (C6H14)?
A. 41.29% Ca C. 37.65 % Ca A. CH2 C. CH
B. 38.76% Ca D. 20% Ca B. CH3 D. C3H7

What is the percent composition of each element in A 100g sample of a compound is composed of 16.3 g of
sodium carbonate (Na2CO3)? carbon, 32.1 g of chlorine, and 51.6 of fluorine. The
A. 43.40% Na, 11.32 % C and 45.28 % O empirical formula of the compound is
B. 45.28% Na, 11.32% C and 43.40% O A. CCIF C. C2Cl2F6
C. 43.40 % Na, 45.28% O and 11.32 % O B. CClF3 D. C3Cl2F6
D. 11.32% Na, 43.40% C and 45.28 % O
This formula shows the simplest whole-number ratio of
All of the following are usefulness of percent the atoms in a compound is
composition except: A. Ideal Formula C. Empirical Formula
A. Percent composition determine the relative B. Molecular Formula D. Structural Formula
abundance of a given element in different compounds.
B. Percent composition determine the toxicity of What is the empirical formula for a compound that is
elements. 36.1% Ca and 63.9% Cl?
C. Percent composition is useful for chemist in A. CaCl C. CaCl2
discovering new substances. B. Ca2Cl D. Ca2Cl3
D. Percent composition identify the unknown
component in a compound. In a chemical formula, the subscripts in every element
present in a compound indicate
 A. The formula mass of the compound
B. The number of atoms or ions of each type
C. Charges of the elements or ions
D. Number of protons in each element
A chemical formula that shows the actual number and
kinds of atoms present in one molecule of a compound
is called _____.
A. Molecular formula C. Chemical formula
B. Empirical formula D. Ionic formula
Epinephrine (adrenaline) is a hormone secreted into the
bloodstream in times of stress. It contains 59.0% C,
7.15% H, 26.20% O, and 7.65% N and has a molar mass
of 183 g/mol. What is its molecular formula?
A. C7H9N2O C. C9H13NO3
B. C5H11N3O2 D. C8H12NO2
What is the molecular formula for a compound with the
empirical formula K2SO4 and a molecular mass of 696g.
A. K2SO4 C. K8S4O8
B. K8SO16 D. K8S4O16
What is the molecular formula for a compound with the
empirical formula: CaCl2 and a molecular mass of 330g.
A. Ca2C14 C. Ca3Cl9
B. Ca3Cl6 D. Ca3Cl9
What is the molecular formula if the empirical formula is
CH2O and the molecular molar mass is 180.18?
A. CH2O C. C4H8O4
B. C2H4O2 D. C6H12O6
Which statement does not describe molecular formula?
A. It describes the exact number and type of
atoms in a single molecule of a compound.
B. It indicates the simplest whole number ratio
of all the atoms in a molecule.
C. It describes the exact number and type of
atoms in a single molecule of a compound.
D. It expresses information about the
proportions of atoms that constitute a compound.
Dichloroethane, a compound that is often used for dry
cleaning, contains carbon, hydrogen, and chlorine. It has
a molar mass of 99 g/mol. Analysis of a sample shows
that it contains 24.3% carbon and 4.1% hydrogen. What
is its molecular formula?
A. C2H4Cl2 C. CH2Cl2
B. C2H2Cl2 D. CHCl2
What is the molecular formula of the compound having
the empirical formula CH4N and molecular mass of 78
amu?
A. CHN C. C3H6N
B. C3H3N D. C3H12N3
If a compound has a molecular mass of 32 amu and
having an empirical formula of NH2, what is molecular
formula of the compound?
A. NH4 C. N2H4
B. N2H6 D. N2H2
Which of the following processes is an example of
physical change?
A. Carving of wood
B. Digestion of food
C. Gas generated from manure
D. Fermentation of coconut water into vinegar
Which of the following is a chemical change?
A. Tin is rolled into thin sheets.
B. Rock is crushed into small pieces.
C. Colored curtains fade when bleached under
the sun.
D. Gasoline evaporates when left in an open
container.
When you light a candle, it melts and then the wax
vaporizes and finally burns. Which is the correct order of
changes?
A. Chemical, chemical, physical
B. Physical, physical, chemical
C. Physical, chemical physical
D. Chemical, physical, chemical

Compound of carbon and hydrogen contains 92.3% C and The reaction of sodium metal with water is best classified
has a molar mass of 78.1 %g/mol. What is its molecular as:
formula? A. Combination reaction
A. CH C. C6H6 B. Combustion reaction
B. C3H3 D. C2H2 C. Decomposition reaction
D. Single replacement reaction
 The chemical reaction between magnesium metal and
What type of reaction involves the formation of salt and bromine non-metal forms an ionic compound,
water? magnesium bromide. What is the correct chemical
A. Combination reaction equation for this reaction?
B. Decomposition
C. Neutralization
D. Single replacement
Which of the following is not correctly balanced?
Which of the following processes does not indicate a
chemical change?
A. Shredding of paper
B. Formation of gas bubbles
C. Change in chemical reactivity
What are the correct coefficient for the equation:
D. Formation of insoluble precipitate

What type of reaction is shown by the equation below? A. 2, 2, 6 C. 2,2, 3

B. 2,2, 9 D. 2, 2, 2
A. Combination C. Decomposition
B. Neutralization D. Single Replacement Which of the following is correctly balanced?

The reaction of calcium oxide with water forming calcium

hydroxide is best classified as:
A. Combination reactions
B. Double replacement reactions
When calcium carbonate was heated and decomposes it
C. Combustion reactions
yields calcium oxide and carbon dioxide. What is the
D. Single replacement reactions
product in the chemical reaction?
A. Calcium carbonate
Which of the following are the products in a combustion
B. Calcium carbonate and carbon dioxide
reaction?
C. Calcium oxide and carbon dioxide
A. Salt and water
D. Calcium carbonate and calcium oxide
B. Carbon dioxide and water
C. Metallic element and water
In the chemical reaction between two compounds
D. Metallic oxides and carbon dioxide
namely, phosphoric acid and calcium hydroxide, they
produce calcium phosphate and water. Which of the
Calcium combines with sulfur producing calcium sulfide
following is the correct chemical equation for this
is what type of chemical reaction?
reaction?
A. Combination reaction
B. Decomposition reaction
C. Double displacement
D. Single replacement reaction

In a chemical reaction: Iron filings burned with yellow Which of the following is correctly balanced?
sulfur form iron (II) sulfide, which is/ are the reactants in
this reaction?
A. Iron (II) sulphide
B. Iron and sulfur
C. Sulfur and iron (II) sulfide
Which of the following equation best represents the
D. Sulfur and iron (II) sulfide
decomposition reaction of solid magnesium oxide
forming solid magnesium and oxygen gas?
 A. 1.42 moles C. 4.2 moles
B. 2.4 moles D. 8.4 moles

Which conversion factor do you use first to calculate the

moles of FeCl3 produced by the reaction of 40.9 g of Fe
What is the correct coefficients for this equation to be with Cl2?
balanced? A. 1 mol Fe / 55.845 g Fe
B. 3 mol Cl2 / 2 mol Fe
A. 4, 1, 4 C. 2,2,2 C. 35.453 g Cl2 / 1 g Fe
B. 2,1, 2 D. 4,4,2 D. 162.2 g FeCl3 / 2 mol FeCl3

Consider the hypothetical chemical reaction represented Which of the following set of coefficients will make the
by the equation. Which of the following is a correct following chemical equation balanced:
interpretation of this equation?
A. 1, 1, 1, 1 C. 1, 3, 2, 2
B. 2, 3, 1, 1 D. 2,1,1,2

3. How many moles of NaCl can be produced from 9.2

A. I only C. III only
moles of Cl2?
B. II only D. II and III

A. 12.9 moles C. 18.4 moles

The formation of nitric acid is shown by the following
B. 4.6 moles D. 1.18 moles
reaction: What can you infer from this equation?

In the reaction given below, if 12 moles of aluminum

A. The given reaction is balanced
oxide are consumed, how many moles of oxygen gas are
B. The given reaction is unbalanced
produced?
C. The given reaction is partially balanced
D. It is not feasible
A. 2 moles C. 15 moles
B. 6 moles D. 18 moles
How many moles of H2O could be produced from 3 moles
of oxygen?
In the reaction, what is the ratio of moles of oxygen used
2H2 + O2 → 2H2O
to moles of CO2 produced?
A. 3 moles C. 9 moles
B. 6 moles D.12 moles
A. 1:1 C. 2:1
Nitrogen oxide is oxidized in air to give brown nitrogen B. 1:2 D. 2:2
dioxide as shown by the following equation. If there is 2.2
moles of NO, _____ of O2 is needed for complete reaction 1. Calculate the mass of hydrogen gas formed when 95
to produce _____ of NO2. grams of aluminum reacts with excess hydrochloric acid.

A. 2.2 moles; 2.2 moles A. 0.9 g C. 3.9 g

B. 1.1 moles; 2.2 moles B. 1.7 g D. 8.3 g
C. 1.1 moles; 3.3 moles
D. 1.0 moles; 2.0 moles What mass of Al is produced when 0.500 mole of Al2S3 is
completely reduced with excess H2?
5. Boron carbonate decomposes into boron oxide and
carbon dioxide. How many moles of CO2 are produced A.12 g C. 56 g
when 1.4 mol of boron carbonate decomposes B. 27 g D.65 g
completely?
Calcium carbide (CaC2) reacts with water to produce 4. In this reaction, if 12 g of aluminum oxide are
acetylene (C2H2) as shown by this reaction. Calculate the consumed, how many grams of oxygen gas are
amount of H2O consumed in grams for the production of produced? O2 = 15.99 g/mol
13 g of C2H2.
A. 2.1 g C. 6.1 g
A. 9.0 g C. 36 g B. 3.1 g D. 8.1 g
B. 18 g D. 72 g
In the reaction, what is the mole ratio that exists
Which of these statements is not true? between water and hydrogen gas?
A. The mass of the reactants can be converted
into mole of reactants using its molar mass. A. 1:1 C. 2:1
B. The mole of the reactants can be converted B. 1:2 D. 2:2
into mass of the reactants using its molar mass.
C. Stoichiometric mole ratios are used in In a reaction between two reactants to form products,
calculating the exact amount of reactants required in a the reactant that is fully consumed is called the _____.
reaction. A. Excess reagent
D. Stoichiometric mole ratios are used in B. Percentage yield
calculating the estimated of reactants required in a C. Stoichiometric factor
reaction. D. Limiting reagent

What should be used to convert the mass of the
reactants into mole of reactants?
A. Symbol of the elements
B. Mole of the products
C. Molar mass of the products
D. Molar mass of the reactants
Which conversion factor do you use to calculate the
grams of CO2 produced by the reaction of 170.2 g of
C6H12O6 with O2?
A. 1 mol CO2 / 18 g CO2
B. 1 mol C6H12O6 / 2 mol CO2
C. 1 mol C6H12O6 / 180.156 g C6H12O6
D. 162.2 g C6H12O6 / 2 mol CO2
Which of the following must be done first before solving
stoichiometric problems?
A. Check if the equation is balanced.
B. Check if the mole ratios are correct.
C. Check if the molar mass is correctly calculated
D. Check if the rules in significant figure is
applied.
In order to determine the limiting reactant in a chemical
reaction involving two reactants, one must _____.
A. Calculate the bond energies
B. Calculate the mass of a single product formed
from each reactant
C. Determine the molar masses of the products
D. Determine the respective masses of 1000 mol
of each reactant
Which of the following is an indicator that a chemical
reaction has stopped?
A. Loss of mass
B. Formation of precipitate
C. Unchanged number of moles
D. Loss of energy
Study the experimental setup below as shown by the
picture. Two different colors represent two kinds of
reagent. If the reaction is successfully completed, which
of these is the limiting reagent? A

It is the area of study in chemistry that examines the

quantities of substances consumed or produced in a
chemical reaction?
A. Titration C. Stoichiometry
In the industry, the cheaper reactant is usually used as
B. Thermochemistry D. Thermodynamics
_____.
A. Catalyst C. Enzymes
 B. Excess Reagent D. Limiting Reagent
In a chemical reaction, the reactant that runs out first
completely compare to the other reactant is the _____.
A. Limiting reactant C. Percentage yield
B. Theoretical yield D. actual yield
The limiting reagent in a chemical reaction is one that:
A. Has the smallest coefficient
B. Has the smallest molar mass
C. Is consumed completely
D. Has the largest coefficient
In the reaction between 8.0 g of H2 with 9.0 g of O2, which
of the following statements is true?
H2 + O2 → 2H2O
A. The H2 is the limiting reactant
B. The O2 is the limiting reactant
C. 2.0 moles of H2O is produced
D. 36 grams of H2 is produced
This type of reagent determines the amount of the target
product formed.
A. Limiting Reactant
B. Stoichiometric Coefficients
C. Percentage Yield
D. Molecular weight of product
Reagent X was used in a reaction. At the end of the
reaction, no amount of reagent X remained. What is
reagent X?
A. Limiting reagent C. Catalytic reagent
B. Excess reagent D. Percentage yield
This refers to the maximum amount of product that can
be obtained from a given amount of reactants in a
reaction?
A. Theoretical yield C. Stoichiometric factor
B. Percentage yield D. Limiting reagent
In the reality, the actual yield of a reaction is _____ the
theoretical yield.
A. Equal to C. Greater than
B. Less than D. More than
This determines how efficient a particular reaction is in
terms of the production of a compound.
A. Theoretical yield C. Percentage yield
B. Actual yield D. Stoichiometric field
Which of the following does not contribute in lessening
the actual yield of the reaction?
A. Side reactions
B. Separation techniques
C. Incomplete reaction
D. Unequal moles of reactants
What is the percent yield of a particular reaction having
an actual yield of 78.2 g and having a theoretical yield of
93.8 g?
A.38.7 C. 83.7
B. 83.4 D. 38.4
This refers on the amount of product produced in a
laboratory upon carrying a particular reaction.
A. Limiting Reactant C. Percentage Yield
B. Theoretical Yield D. Actual Yield
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
A. The value of the actual yield must be
determined in order for the percent yield to be
calculated.
B. The percent yield is the ratio of the actual yield
to the theoretical yield
C. The actual yield is usually less than the
theoretical yield since there are reactions that do not go
to completion
D. The difference between actual and theoretical
yield is caused by using insufficient limiting reagent.
In most chemical reactions the amount of product
obtained is _____.
A. More than the theoretical yield
B. More than the percentage yield
C. Less than the theoretical yield
D. Equal to the theoretical yield
The efficiency of a particular synthesis reaction can be
evaluated using the:
A. Limiting reactant
B. Percentage yield
C. Stoichiometric coefficients
D. Molecular weight of product
Which of the following statements is not a reason why
the actual yield is less than theoretical yield?
A. Impure reactants used
B. Competing side reactions
 C. Loss of product during purification B. Water D. Salt
D. Conservation of mass
Which of the following types of compounds has the
What substance is always called by its common name? highest melting point?
A. Table salt C. Water A. Molecular compounds
B. Sugar D. Milk of magnesia B. Ionic compounds
C. Covalent compounds
Sucrose has a chemical formula of _____. D. Nonmetallic compounds
A. C12H22O11 C. NaCl
B. C6H12O6 D. MgSO4 Which of the following terms describes a change that
produces matter with a different composition than that
It involves the separating a liquid from a solid by gently of the original matter?
pouring off a liquid. A. Physical property C. Physical change
A. Evaporation C. Decantation B. Chemical property D. Chemical change
B. Distillation D. Separating funnel
A property that depends on the type of matter in a
This separates heterogeneous mixtures by spinning them sample is called
at very high speeds, which forces components to A. Extensive property C. Intensive property
separate into layers. B. Physical property D. Chemical property
A. Magnetism C. Separating funnel
B. Distillation D. Centrifugation Which of the following terms describes a quality or
condition of a substance that can be observed or
Evaporation is used to measured without changing the substance’s
A. Separate dyes in a marker composition?
B. Separate liquids of different boiling points A. Extensive property C. Physical change
C. Obtain solute from the solution B. Physical property D. Volume
D. Separate solids of different particle size
Which of the following represent characteristic
A magnet could be used to separate properties of a liquid?
A. Sand and salt C. Colors in a food dye A. Definite shape and definite volume
B. Sand and iron filings D. Water and sand B. Definite shape and indefinite volume
C. Indefinite shape and volume
In a coffee machine, the ground coffee is separated from D. Indefinite shape and definite volume
the coffee solution by using
A. Filter paper C. Sand paper Which of the following properties is involved in the
B. Toilet paper D. Tissue paper separation of dyes in a plant?
A. Distillation C. Chromatography
The process of evaporating a liquid and then condensing B. Evaporation D. None of the above
the vapor by cooling is known as
A. Distillation C. Decanting Which of the following processes suggests that kinetic
B. Chromatography D. Filtration energy has increased?
A. Evaporation C. Freezing
Two or more substances mingled together, but not B. Condensation D. Melting
chemically combined are collectively known as
A. Mixture C. Distillate Pressure is typically measured in chemistry in units of
B. Residue D. Solution _____.
A. Grams C. Pascals
Which one of the following substances is a mixture? B. Meters D. Liters
A. Copper C. Seawater
Which of the following forms of energy does A. Filter paper
temperature measure? B. Fractionating column
A. Average thermal energy C. Separatory funnel
B. Average potential energy D. Distillation apparatus
C. Total electrical energy
D. Average kinetic energy The components of a liquid mixture can be separated
through distillation if they differ in what property?
What is one property involved in separating saltwater A. Melting point C. Density
from sand? B. Boiling point D. Color
A. Size
B. Boiling point Which of the following cannot be classified as a pure
C. Conductivity substance?
D. First ionization energy A. Gold C. Sucrose (table sugar)
B. Table salt D. Air
A substance’s temperature is best defined as a
measurement of the Which of the following is a true statement about a
A. Total kinetic energy of its atoms compound?
B. Entropy of the substance A. They have properties similar to those of their
C. Average kinetic energy of its atoms constituent elements.
D. Molar heat capacity of the substance B. They have variable compositions.
C. They can be physically separated into their
Altering some properties of a material, but not changing constituent elements.
the composition of the material, is which of the D. They are pure substances.
following?
A. Chemical change C. Physical change Which of the following is a valid difference between a
B. Matter D. Distillation compound and a mixture?
A. A mixture must be uniform in composition.
Which of the following describes the following B. A mixture can only be separated into its
statement: Mass is conserved in any chemical or physical components by chemical means.
change? C. A compound is made up of more than one
A. Chemical property phase.
B. Physical property D. A compound can only be separated into its
C. Law of The Conservation of Mass components by chemical means.
D. Law of The Conservation of Matter and Energy
Which of the following is not an example of matter?
Which of the following statements correctly A. Smoke C. Water vapor
characterizes a substance’s boiling point? B. Air D. Heat
A. It is an intensive and physical property
B. It is an extensive and physical property Which of the following is a chemical property?
C. It is an intensive and chemical property A. Density C. Malleability
D. It is an extensive and chemical property B. Flammability D. Ductility

Which of this type of mixture would have visible particles Which of the following most accurately refers to a
that could settle at the bottom of the container? physical property? A property that _____.
A. Suspension C. Colloid A. Is measured without a change of state or
B. Solution D. Homogeneous phase of the substance
B. Requires a change in composition in the
What instrument may be used to easily separate oil and substance being measured
water?
 C. Will alter the nature and identity of the C. Water and vinegar
substance during observation D. Seawater and distilled water
D. May or may not cause a physical change on a
substance observed Rowan wants to know if his mangoes are ready to
harvest. Which properties will he use to distinguish ripe
Which of the following is a chemical property? from unripe mangoes while they are still on the tree?
A. Butter melts as it touches the hot pan. A. Color C. Size
B. Coconut nectar turns sour after souring in the B. Texture D. Shape
shade for several days.
C. A puddle of water left after a rainy night dries Darren’s fishhook made of iron fell on the sand on his
up under the sun’s heat. way to fish. What is the best way to find the hook in the
D. Sand is produced by the weathering of large sand?
rocks exposed to natural elements. A. Using a magnifying glass
B. Using a magnet
Which of the following is an intensive property? C. Using his naked eye
A. Density C. Volume D. Using a sieve
B. Mass D. Length
Identify what property of matches does one associate
Which of the following is a definition of an extensive with the following precaution:
property? It is a property that _____.
A. Varies with the amount of substance A. Corrosive nature
B. Depends on the nature of the substance B. Ability to clean surfaces
C. Depends on the identity of the substance C. Flammability
D. Does not change with the amount of D. Prone to explode
substance
Which of the following trashes should be handled
Which of the phrases refer to a chemical property? separately as hazardous?
A. Empty bottles C. Aluminum foil
B. Spent dry cells D. Plastic containers

Despite its use, why must a liquefied petroleum gas (LPG)

A. I only C. I and II
tank be handled with care? It is _____.
B. II only D. II, III and IV
A. Fire hazard
B. Very expensive
Which of the phrases refer to an intensive property?
C. Very heavy
A. I only C. I and III
D. Not easy to replace
B. III only D. I and IV
Which of the following is not an extensive property?
Janet’s mother asked her to segregate garbage. What
A. Volume C. Temperature
property can Janet use in segregating?
B. Mass D. Length
A. Odor
Which property determines whether one substance will
B. Ability to be recycled
sink or float in another substance?
C. Ability to decompose
A. Density C. Volume
D. Both B and C are correct
B. Texture D. Temperature

Which of the following mixtures can be distinguished

Why are intensive properties used to characterize
using density?
matter?
A. Alcohol and water
A. They are more pronounced than extensive
B. Cooking oil and water
properties
 B. They do not change with the amount of matter B. Decantation
C. They vary with the amount of matter C. Distillation
D. None of these are correct D. Mechanical separation

A company collects cans to recycle. Some cans are made Mary wants to get the iron filings out of some fine sand,
of aluminum, and others are made of steel. What what could be used to separate these two solids?
property could be used to separate and classify the A. Magnet C. Evaporation
different types of cans? B. Sieve D. Decantation
A. Size C. Solubility
B. Shape D. Magnetism Condensing means transforming from gas to _____
A. Solid C. Gas
Which of the following objects has the greatest mass? B. Liquid D. Plasma
A. Marble C. Bowling ball
B. Basketball D. Table tennis ball If I pour the water off after I boil the banana, this method
is an example of _____
Which of the following types of matter is magnetic? A. Filtration
A. Iron C. Glass B. Decantation
B. Wood D. Paper C. Distillation
D. Mechanical separation
CJ wanted to compare the strength of three different
magnets. Which procedure would allow CJ to classify the In preparing coffee using the Barako coffee beans, you
magnets according to their magnetic strength? may pour the boiled coffee mixture into a piece of cloth.
A. Measure the density of each of the magnets Which method is being illustrated?
B. Observe how many paper clips each magnet A. Filtration
will attract B. Decantation
C. Investigate whether each of the magnets sinks C. Distillation
or floats in water D. Mechanical separation
D. Test to see how well thermal energy moves
through each magnet Which of the following mixtures could not be used in
separating the components of mixtures through
Which of the following household materials is corrosive decantation?
to human skin? A. Quail egg in hot water
A. Acetone C. Antacids B. Sugar in hot water
B. Vinegar D. Muriatic acid C. Sand in glass of water
D. Utensils in warm water
Which of the following poses environmental hazards and
thus should be thrown in special disposal bins? Which of these methods could be used to separate an
A. Scratch papers C. Spent batteries insoluble solid from a soluble solid?
B. Used clothing D. Fruit peelings A. Mixing the mixture with water and then
filtering it. Then evaporate the water from the resulting
A heterogeneous mixture can be separated by all of the liquid.
following methods except B. Mixing the mixture with sand and then
A. Filtration filtering it. Then evaporate the sand from the resulting
B. Decantation solid
C. Distillation C. Mixing the mixture with hydrogen gas and
D. Mechanical separation then filtering it. Then evaporate the solids out.
D. None of the above.
To get salt out of a solution, we could use _____
A. Filtration
Which method uses the boiling point differences by
gradually heated a mixture? The substance that vaporize
the easiest will separate first.
An element was found to have the following numbers of
A. Filtration
subatomic particles inside the nucleus: 8 protons and 8
B. Decantation
neutrons. What is the electron configuration of this
C. Distillation
element in its neutral state?
D. Mechanical separation

A coffee filter is used to separate coffee liquid from

ground, this is a suitable example of _____ 3. What is the atomic number of an atom with the
A. Filtration following electron configuration?
B. Decantation
C. Distillation A. 4 C. 19
D. Mechanical separation B. 15 D. 25

Which of the following represents the orbital diagram in

SECOND QUARTER ground state of an atom with 7 electrons?

The electron configuration of an atom with an atomic

number of 15 is _____.
Which of the following is a configuration of an element
found in Group 2 of the periodic table?
The f-sublevel has seven orbitals. Which of the following
represents how seven electrons must be filled in the
orbitals of the f-sublevel?

An element with an electron configuration of

What is the atomic number of an atom with the following
electron configuration?
will have which of the following noble gas configuration?

A. 4 C. 20
B. 18 D. 24
Krypton is one of the noble gases that are found in group
Which of the following represents the orbital diagram of 18 of the periodic table. Which of the following
4d5 configuration? represents the electron configuration using core method
of this element?

Which of the following correctly represents the orbital Iodine has an electron configuration of
diagram of Na? (atomic number = 11)
How many valence electrons are there in this atom?
A. 2 C. 7
B. 5 D. 10

A diamagnetic material is characterized by its repulsion

of magnetic field. Which of the following orbital diagram
shows a diamagnetic atom?

Which of the following is a noble gas configuration?

 4. Which of the following quantum numbers correctly
Which of the following elements is likely to exhibit describe the last electron of calcium?
paramagnetism? A. 4, 0, 0, -1/2 C. 4, 0, 1, -1/2
A. Zinc C. Calcium B. 4, 0, 0, +1/2 D. 4, 0, 1, +1/2
B. Nickel D. Barium
5. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers
Iron has an electron configuration of describes the last electron of an element found in group
18?
Which of the following is the correct core method A. 2, 1, 1, +1/2 C. 2, 1, -1, -1/2
configuration of iron? B. 2, 1, 0, +1/2 D. 2, 1, 1, -1/2

It’s a quantum number that describes the shape of the

An element with an atomic number of 47 will have the orbital where the electron can be found.
following electron configuration in ground state: A. Spin C. Magnetic
[Kr] 4d10 5s1 B. Principal D. Azimuthal

How many valence electrons are there in an atom with Which quantum number/s do 2s and 2p orbitals have in
the following electron configuration: common?
A. l C. n and l
B. n D. l and ml
A. 2 C. 5
B. 3 D. 10
3. Which of the following configuration is correctly
Titanium has the following electron configuration:
described by the following set of quantum numbers:
“4, 3, 2, +1/2”
How would you classify this element based on its A. 4s2 C. 4d3
magnetic property? B. 4p6 D. 4f6
A. Diamagnetic C. Ferromagnetic
B. Paramagnetic D. Ferrimagnetic 4. What are the quantum numbers for the last electron
of carbon?
Which of the following electron configuration is likely to A. 2, 0, 0, -1/2 C. 2, 1, 0, -1/2
exhibits diamagnetism? B. 2, 0, 0, +1/2 D. 2, 1, 0, +1/2

5. Which of the following electrons described by

quantum numbers has the highest energy level?
Which of the following quantum numbers is used to A. 3, 0, 0, +1/2 C. 4, 1, 0, -1/2
describe the energy level of an electron? B. 3, 1, -1, -1/2 D. 4, 0, 1, +1/2
A. Spin C. Magnetic
B. Principal D. Azimuthal An element with the electron configuration of [Ne] 3s2
3p3 will have the following Lewis symbol:
Which of the following are the allowable values of ml
if l is equal to 1?
A. 0 C. -2, -1, 0, +1, +2 Silicon is found in the 2nd column of the p-block. Which
B. -1, 0, +1 D. -3, -2, -1, 0, +1, +2, +3 of the following is the correct Lewis symbol for this
element?
Which set of quantum numbers uniquely defines one of
the electrons in an atomic orbital with n = 2 and l = 0?
A. 2, 0, 1, +1 C. 2, 0, 1, +1/2 3. Which of the following is the correct Lewis structure
B. 2, 0, 0, +1 D. 2, 0, 0, +1/2 for NO2-?
 If there are 5 electron pairs around the central atom of a
Which of the following is the correct Lewis structure for molecule, these electron pairs are in a _____
CF4? arrangement.
A. Linear C. Trigonal planar
B. Tetrahedral D. Trigonal bipyramidal

The geometry of the molecule NF3 is _____.

What is the formal charge of phosphorus in PF5? A. Bent C. Tetrahedral
A. 0 C. 2 B. Linear D. Trigonal pyramidal
B. 1 D. 3
Which of the following species will exhibit tetrahedral
1. An element found in the 3rd column of s and p block geometry?
would have the following Lewis symbol: A. O3 C. PCl5
B. CCl4 D. CO3-2

It is important to know the geometry of a molecule

Which of the following correctly represents the Lewis because the geometry _____.
symbol of an atom with the following electron A. Gives the Lewis structure of the molecule
configuration: [Kr] 5s2 4d10 5p5?
B. Shows how the molecule looks like in 2D
C. Determines whether the molecule is ionic or
covalent
O3 is the chemical formula for ozone which is a layer in D. Affects the physical and chemical properties
our atmosphere that protects us from harmful UV rays. of the substance
Which of the following is the correct Lewis structure for
ozone? According to VSEPR model, electron groups around the
central atom of a molecule repel each other. Which of
the following is an example of an electron group in a
Which of the following is the correct Lewis structure for VSEPR model?
HCN? A. Bonding pairs
B. Electrons in lower shells
C. All electrons in the outer shell
D. Lone pairs in the attached atoms
In the Lewis structure of CO2, what is the formal charge
of carbon?
All the geometries listed below are examples of electron
A. 0 C. 2
group geometry except _____.
B. 1 D. 3
A. Bent C. Octahedral
B. Linear D. Trigonal planar
Which statement correctly describes the Valence Shell
Electron Pair Repulsion Theory?
Applying the concept of VSEPR model, what is the
A. The valence shell electron pairs are the lone
molecular geometry of PH3?
pairs of the atom.
A. Linear C. Trigonal planar
B. The valence shell electrons are given by the
B. See-saw D. Trigonal pyramidal
group number in the periodic table.
C. The valence shell electron pairs repel one
The geometry of ClF3 molecule is best described as
another and tend to stay as far apart as possible.
_____.
D. The valence shell electrons are the outermost
A. Linear C. See-saw
electrons of the atom that are involved in bonding.
B. T-shaped D. Octahedral
The following are the information that the molecular Describe the molecular geometry and polarity of OF2
geometry can give about a compound except _____. molecule.
A. Polarity C. Bond formation A. Bent, polar
B. Conduction D. Shape of molecule B. T-shaped, polar
C. Linear, nonpolar
Which of the following molecular geometries would D. Tetrahedral, nonpolar
likely be a nonpolar molecule?
A. Bent C. Octahedral Oil cannot be mixed in water because of their difference
B. See-saw D. Trigonal pyramidal in polarity. Which of the following substances would
likely to behave like oil when mix with water?
Which of the following linear molecules is considered A. NH3 C. H2S
polar? B. SO2 D. CCl4
A. H2 C. O2
B. N2 D. CO Which of the following is not a unit of pressure?
A. Pascal C. Joule
Which of the following is a polar molecule and has a B. Atmosphere D. Millibar
trigonal planar geometry?
A. CS2 C. PI3 How will the volume of 0.50 mol of a gas behave if the
B. BF3 D. COF2 temperature is raised from 30°C to 60°C at constant
pressure?
The following molecules are polar except _____. A. The volume will increase.
A. HF C. CH4 B. The volume will be doubled.
B. NI3 D. N2O C. The volume will decrease.
D. The volume will be halved.
Which of the following substances would likely to be
dissolved in water? 0.750 L of oxygen gas is trapped at 101.3 kPa in a cylinder
A. NCl3 C. CF4 with a moveable piston. The piston is moved and the gas
B. CH4 D. CCl4 is compressed to a volume of 0.500 L. What is the final
pressure applied to the oxygen gas if the temperature
Which of the following is true about polar molecules? remains unchanged?
A. There is an equal sharing of electrons in a A. 101.3 kPa C. 152 kPa
bond B. 0.0037 kPa D. 68 kPa
B. The geometry of the molecule is usually
asymmetrical Underinflated vehicle tires contribute to unsafe road
C. The bond between atoms involves double or handling and to lower fuel economy. It’s very important
triple bonds to check the pressure in vehicle tires before driving the
D. The bond angle between the central atom and vehicle for a long distance. What gas law best explains
the attached atoms are the same this?
A. Charles’ C. Combined Gas
The following are molecules that have identical atoms B. Boyle’s D. Gay-Lussac’s
attached to a central atom. Which of the following is
considered a polar molecule? When filled with air, a typical scuba tank with a volume
A. BF3 C. PCl5 of 13.2 L has a pressure of 153 atm. If the water
B. NF3 D. SF6 temperature is 27 °C, how many liters of air will such a
tank provide to a diver’s lungs at a depth of
Which of the following tetrahedral molecules is approximately 70 feet in the ocean where the pressure is
considered a polar molecule? 3.13 atm? 667 L
A. CCl4 C. CF4
B. CH4 D. CH2CI2 1. A hypothetical reaction R occurs only at elevated
pressures. It was noted that the optimum pressure
required for the reaction was 1,330 mmHg. This value is balanced calculation of pressure toward other variables
roughly equal to: (1 atm = 101.3 kPa) such as number of moles of gas, temperature, and
volume must be noted. Which among the equation
below could be used in computing the needed pressure?
A 25 g sample of dry air in a large party balloon at 20 ̊ C A. P = nRT / V C. P = V / nRT
occupies a volume of 20 L. If the temperature is increased B. V = P / nRT D. P = VT / nR
to 40 ̊ C at constant pressure, how large will the balloon
become? What is the value of temperature at STP in an ideal gas
A. 21 L C. 40 L equation?
B. 4,585 L D. 19 L A. 10°C C. 298°K
B. 273.15°K D. 22.14°K
The pressure of a given amount of gas is directly
proportional to its temperature on the Kelvin scale when Determine the number of moles of oxygen gas (O2) in a
the volume is held constant. This prediction is directly 30.0 L cylinder at STP.
based on: A. 1.34 moles C. 134 moles
A. Charles law C. Combined gas law B. 3.14 moles D.13.4 moles
B. Boyle's law D. Gay-Lusaac’s law
A gas law accounts for _____ within an individual system.
-27°C is the same as A. temperature and volume
A. 300°K C. 270°K B. pressure and temperature
B. 246°K D. 127°K C. number of moles and pressure
D. moles of a gas, pressure, temperature, and
Which of the following postulates of the Kinetic volume
Molecular Theory for gases can explain why gases exhibit
pressure? Which among the statements is not true?
A. The molecules are in constant random A. Real gases can behave ideally.
motion. B. All real gases are ideal gases.
B. The distance between the molecules is great. C. STP values are 0°C and 1 atm.
C. The molecules collide with the walls of the D. The volume of a gas at STP is 22.4 L.
vessel.
D. The molecular kinetic energy depends on Which among the following expressions defines the ideal
temperature. gas equation?

Which among the choices is not the correct value for the
ideal gas constant?
What is the value of pressure at STP?
A. 8.21 L•atm/mol•K
A. 0 atm C. 10 atm
B. 8.314 kPa·L/mol·K
B. 1 atm D. 100 atm
C. 0.0821 L•atm/mol•K
D. 62.36 L·torr/mol·K
5. Determine the volume occupied by a 5.0 moles of gas
in a tire at 25.0°C and 1.05 atm?
What variables should be considered in solving gas
A. 116 L C. 116.4 L
problems using ideal gas equation?
B. 120 L D. 116.56 L
A. The STP values.
B. The constant mass of of the gas
Which of the given choices will complete the statement
C. The amount of gas and volume it occupied.
on Dalton`s law of partial pressures? “The total pressure
D. The four physical properties (n,P,T,V) of a gas
of mixture of ideal gases is equal to _____.”
A. Product of the individual pressure of gases
Ventilator is used for patients who have a difficulty in
B. Sum of the individual pressure of reacting
breathing caused by coronavirus. A precaution on a
gases
 C. Sum of the individual pressure of non-reacting
gases
D. Difference of the highest and the lowest
individual gases
What variables are held constant in solving gas problems
using Dalton`s law?
A. Temperature and Pressure values
B. Mass of the gas
C. Amount of gas and volume it occupied
D. Temperature and volume of the non-reacting
gases
Water displacement is an application of Dalton`s law of
partial pressure, that is used in collecting gas samples.
Which among the formula below is used to solve the
partial pressure of the collected sample of gas?
What does XA from the formula PA = XA x PT signifies for?
A. Mole Fraction
B. Total Pressure
C. Individual pressure
D. Sum of the individual pressures
What is the total pressure of the mixture of gases
containing N2, O2 and CO2 with individual pressure of
6.45 atm, 5.01 atm, and 4.1 atm, respectively?
A. 41.7 torr C. 15.6 atm
B. 15.56 atm D. 16.0 atm
Which of the following refers to Dalton’s law?
A. A gas law that accounts for temperature, and
volume within an individual system.
B. A gas law that accounts for the number of
moles and pressure within an individual system.
C. The volume of a given amount of gas at
constant pressure is directly proportional to its absolute
or kelvin temperature.
D. The pressure of a mixture of gases equals the
sum of the pressures that each would exert if it were
present alone at constant volume and temperature.
Which statement is not true about Dalton’s law of partial
pressures?
A. It deals with non-reacting gases.
B. It gets the total pressure of mixture of non-
reacting gases.
C. It computes the total pressure at constant
volume and number of moles of gases.
D. Measures the total pressure of mixture of
gases at constant temperature and volume.
Which among the following choices must be added to get
the total pressures?
A. Mole fraction C. Partial pressure
B. Constant values D. Number of molecules
The identity of the gases present in a mixture is not
significant in Dalton's Law. Why?
A. Because the identity of gases does affect the
pressures of the other gases.
B. Because the identity of gases doesn`t affect
the pressures of the other gases.
C. Because Dalton’s law of partial pressure is
independent solely on the number of particles.
D. Because Dalton`s law of partial pressure is
dependent solely on the identity of the gases in a mixture
5. Solve for the partial pressure of collected N2 over
water at 32.5 °C, with a total pressure of 765 mmHg and
with water vapor`s pressure of 29.7 mmHg?
A. 7.533 mmHg C. 735.3 mmHg
B. 73.53 mmHg D. 735.0 mmHg
1. What volume of O2 at 22.0 °C and 278 mmHg would be
synthesized by the decomposition of 8.15 g of KClO3?
A.1.71 L C. 2.52 L
B. 2.72 L D. 3.45 L
2. What should be done first to determine the volume of
the product from the mass of the reactant?
A. Convert the mole of the product to volume of
the product.
B. Convert the moles of the reactant to mole of
the product
C. Convert the mass of product to moles of the
product.
D. Convert the mass of reactant to mole of the
reactant.
3. What must be applied to determine the volume of the
product from the mass of the reactant?
A. Ideal Gas Law C. Gas Laws
B. Dalton’s Law D. Newton’s Law
Which of these statements is not true? A. 0.00030 L C. 22.4 L
A. Stoichiometric ratios are needed in calculating B. 3300 L D. 1.0 L
the volume of the product from the mass of the reactant.
B. The number of moles of a gas can be The ability of the gas to pass through a small opening is
calculated by its given mass with its molar mass. A. Diffusibility C. Effusion
C. The mole ratios are the coefficients of the B. Diffusion D. Expansibility
symbols in the balanced equation.
D. The pressure of a gas can be directly The scent of perfume in a room is due to
calculated from the balanced equation. A. Condensation C. Evaporation
B. Diffusion D. Sublimation
Quicklime (CaO) and CO2 are obtained via thermal
decomposition of calcium carbonate (CaCO3). Calculate The Graham’s law of effusion is given by
the volume of CO2 at STP produced from the
decomposition of 152 g CaCO3.
A. 34.1 L C. 83.7 L
B. 31.4 L D. 38.4 L

Gas stoichiometry is anchored by what physical

parameters? It takes 243 s for 4.46 x 10-5 mol Xe to effuse through a
A. SATP C. STP tiny hole. Under the same conditions, how long will it
B. SAP D. SPT take 4.46 x 10-5 mol Ne to effuse?
A. 90.3 sec. C. 95.3 sec.
2. Which of the following process can be used as a guide B. 93.5 sec. D. 90.5 sec.
in determining the moles of a product from the given
mass of the reactant? How much faster does hydrogen escape through a
A. Mass of the reactant → Molar mass of porous container than sulfur dioxide?
reactant → Mole Ratio → Moles of Product A. 5.637 C. 56.37
B. Mass of the reactant → Mole Ratio → Molar B. 6.37 D. 0.5637
mass reactant → Moles of Product
C. Mass of the reactant → Molar mass of product It is the escape of gas molecules through a tiny hole.
→ Mole Ratio → Moles of Product A. Effusion C. Evaporation
D. Mass of the reactant → Mole Ratio → Molar B. Diffusion D. Condensation
mass product → Moles of Product
The smell of brewed coffee in the morning is due to
Which of the following is the right derived equation for A. Condensation C. Effusion
determining the temperature of a gas? B. Diffusion D. Expansibility

Which of the following is the representation of

Consider the Chemical equation below, mathematical equation for Graham’s law?

4. How much moles of O3 gas is formed when 64 g of O2

gas reacts? (Molar mass O2 = 32 g/mol)
A. 1.0 mol C. 3.0 mol
B. 2.0 mol D. 0.50 mol Which of the following gases below is expected to diffuse
at the fastest rate?
5. What is the volume of the O3 gas inside a container at A. H2 C. F2
STP? B. N2 D. CO2
Hydrogen gas effuses through a porous container 8.97- What common ketone which is mainly used as solvent for
times faster than an unknown gas. Estimate the molar organic compounds and as nail polish remover?
mass of the unknown gas. A. Acetone C. Omegatone
A. 163 g/mole C. 16.3 g/mole B. Alcapone D. Octyl acetate
B. 1.63 g/ mole D. 1630 g/ mole
One important use of the carboxyl group from a certain
All compounds consist of a particular atom in their group of ants is formic acid. Formic acid is simply a
molecules or group of atoms which is called as carboxyl group attached to a hydrogen. The ants inject
A. Atom group C. Function group this acid into enemies as a defense. Why does this work?
B. Prominent group D. Functional group A. The carboxyl group forms bonds with their
proteins
What is the general formula of amines? B. The acid upsets the pH balance, and destroys
A. R-CH2 C. R-NH2 cells
B. R2CH D. R-COOH C. The acid simply tastes bad to predators
D. All the choices are correct.
Which of these compounds is a ketone?
What kind of gas is needed in a combustion reaction?
A. Butane gas C. Hydrogen gas
B. Oxygen gas D. Carbon dioxide gas

What is given off, if hydrogen and alkene are passed over

finely divided nickel?
A. Alcohol C. Alkanes
Methanoic acid is an example of what functional group? B. Aldehydes D. Ketones
A. Aldehydes C. Ketone
B. Carboxylic acids D. Ethers Complex sugar (disaccharide or polysaccharide) is one of
the products in a condensation reaction. What is the
Aldehyde is one of the functional groups which plays an other product formed?
important role in producing different materials for A. Amino acids C. Maltose
human use or consumption. What common aldehyde is B. Lipids D. Water
used in the laboratory to preserve animal specimens?
A. Acetone C. Carbonyl What type of compounds are commonly used as
B. Alcohol D. Formaldehyde reactants during addition reactions?
A. Alkanes
Which of the following is an alcohol functional group? B. Saturated compounds
A. –OH C. -COOH C. Unsaturated compounds
B. –NH D. –SH D. Single-bonded hydrocarbons

What is the general formula of carboxylic acid? Lye is used in soap-making. Lye is a concentrated solution
A. R-CH2 C. R2CH of which ionic compound?
B. R-NH2 D. R-COOH A. K2CO3 C. NaOH
B. CuSO4 D. NaCl
What is the best classification of this compound?
When does complete combustion occur?
A. Insufficient quantity of butane gas is supplied.
B. Sufficient quantity of oxygen gas is supplied.
A. Aldehyde C. Ketone C. Sufficient quantity of butane gas is supplied.
B. Carboxylic acid D. Ester D. Insufficient quantity of oxygen is supplied.
What are broken during an addition reaction? A. Colon cancer
A. Atoms C. Multiple bonds B. Hemorrhoids
B. Matter D. Polyatomic ions C. Heart and artery disease
D. All of the above
Condensation reaction always results in the formation of
complex sugar (disaccharide or polysaccharide). Which What is/ are the major functions of carbohydrates?
of the following is the other product of condensation A. Structural framework
reaction? B. Storage
A. Amino acids C. Maltose C. Both A and B
B. Lipids D. Water D. None of these

What is the product of the given chemical reaction? Which of the following is a carbohydrate with 6 carbon
Butane atoms with a keto group as a functional group?
A. Dihydroxyacetone C. Galactose
B. Fructose D. Glyceraldehyde

Which of the following is the best source of foods high in

starch?
Which of the following processes can saponification be A. Grains C. Milk products
used for? B. Fruits D. Meat and beans
A. To make soap
B. In blow glass artistry Why is it that carbohydrates are considered as the body's
C. The formation of alloys preferred source of energy?
D. For the production of plastics A. They spare fats
B. They are inexpensive to buy
What elements make up a carbohydrate? C. They are plentiful in the died
A. Hydrogen, calcium, oxygen D. They can be used efficiently as fuel
B. Hydrogen, carbon, oxygen
C. Carbon, potassium, oxygen Gina decided to follow a diet program to lose weight. She
D. Carbon, magnesium, hydrogen was avoiding nearly all carbohydrate foods. What health
condition is she most at risk of developing?
Starch and cellulose are complex carbohydrates found in A. Diabetes mellitus C. Lactose intolerance
_____. B. Ketosis D. Starvation
A. Air C. Plants
B. Animal D. Soil Which of the following molecules can act as molecular
chaperons for assisting the folding of proteins?
This macromolecule is the main source of energy and A. Amides C. Lipids
serves as structural purposes in plants. B. Carbohydrates D. Vitamins
A. Carbohydrates C. Nucleic acid
B. Lipids D. Protein Where do lipids found?
A. Bread C. Meat
What happens to a person's blood glucose level after B. Chocolate D. Oils/fats/waxes
eating?
A. It rises Like soap, which of the following molecules is also
B. It falls amphophilic – having both a hydrophilic and
C. It is not affected hydrophobic end?
D. It rises or falls depending on the gender A. Phospholipids C. Water
B. Steroids D. Waxes
Research has indicated that diets high in fiber may
reduce the risk of _____.
Find the incorrect statement about the biological
functions of lipids.
A. Storage form of metabolic fuel
B. Exhibit increased catalytic activity
C. The structural component of membranes
D. Have a protective function in bacteria, plant,
and insects
Usually some oily foods get rancid or having unpleasant
odor when stock it for a long period of time. What do you
think is the reason of rancidity of lipid-rich foodstuff?
A. Reduction of fatty acids
B. Oxidation of fatty acids
C. Hydrogenation of unsaturated fatty acids
D. Dehydrogenation of saturated fatty acids
Which of the following macro-molecule can be most
structurally diverse among living world?
A. Carbohydrates C. Nucleic acid
B. Lipids D. Proteins
Micelles of fatty acids in water are organized such that
the _____ face the solvent and the _____ are directed
toward the interior.
A. Carboxylic acid groups, hydrocarbon chains
B. Hydrophilic heads, hydrophobic tails
C. Hydrocarbon chains, carboxylic acid groups
D. Both (A) and (B)
Synthesis of fatty acid takes place when
A. Fatty acid are plentiful
B. Carbohydrate is plentiful
C. Carbohydrate and energy are plentiful
D. None of these is the best classification of this
compound
Some functions of lipids include water-proofing,
temperature regulation, and long-term energy storage.
Which of the following is not a common type of lipids?
A. Fats C. Sugars
B. Oils D. Waxes
After consumption of a mixed meal, a complex cascade
of events takes place that integrates fat metabolism at
the whole body level. Which of the following is correct?
A. Consumption of a meal leads to suppression
of lipase activity within adipose tissue leading to a
decrease in plasma NEFA concentrations.
B. Adipose tissue lipoprotein lipase is activated
by insulin and therefore is most active following meal
consumption.
C. During the postprandial period the VLDL
synthesis pathway is suppressed in favor of hydrolysis of
chylomicrons
D. All options given are correct
What do you call the repeating units of protein?
A. Amino acids C. Glucose units
B. Fatty acids D. Peptides
Which is the feature of the primary structure of protein?
A. Subunit structure of protein
B. Helical structure of protein
C. 3 dimensional structure of protein
D. Linear sequence of amino acids joined by
peptide bond
How does the tertiary structure of a protein differ from
the secondary structure?
A. The tertiary structure has a 3D shape, while
the secondary structure is often folded or pleated.
B. The tertiary structure is made of two or more
polypeptides, while the secondary structure is made
form only one polypeptide.
C. The tertiary structure is pleated into an alpha
helix, while the secondary structure is completely linear.
D. The tertiary structure is a sequence of amino
acids, while the secondary structure contains several
polypeptides.
Which is not a function of proteins?
A. Serve as the primary energy source
B. Make up body structures
C. Act as hormones
D. Act as enzymes
The major protein component of human hair is α-keratin.
Hair ‘straighteners’ are commonly used tools which use
heat to iron hair into temporarily lying flat and straight.
What is the best biological explanation for this
phenomenon?
A. Hair straighteners disrupt ionic bonds
between α-keratin molecules.
B. Hair straighteners denature protein by
disrupting the pH.
C. Hair straighteners disrupt hydrogen bonds in
α-keratin
 D. Hair straighteners disrupt disulfide bridges in B. Lipids D. Proteins
α-keratin
What is the composition of nucleotide?
Which part of the amino acid gives it uniqueness? A. a base + a sugar
A. Amino group B. a base + a phosphate
B. Carboxyl group C. a sugar + a phosphate
C. Side chain D. a base + a sugar + phosphate
D. None of the mentioned
Which of these is the functions of nucleotide?
Which of the following information is responsible to A. Information storage and transmission
specify the three-dimensional shape of a protein? B. Storage of chemical energy
A. The protein’s peptide bond C. Cell signaling
B. The protein’s amino acid sequence D. All of the above
C. The protein’s interaction with other
polypeptides How does RNA differ from DNA?
D. The protein’s interaction with molecular A. RNA contains uracil instead of thymine and it
chaperons is usually double-stranded.
B. RNA contains thymine instead of uracil and it
During the formation of the peptide bond which of the is usually single-stranded.
following takes place? C. RNA contains uracil instead of thymine and it
A. Hydroxyl group is lost from its carboxyl group is usually single-stranded.
of one amino acid and a hydrogen atom is lost from its D. RNA contains uracil instead of cytosine.
amino group of another amino acid
B. Hydrogen atom is lost from its carboxyl group DNA is an important therapeutic target for the
of one amino acid and a hydroxyl group is lost from its intercalating agent class of drugs. These drugs work by:
amino group of another amino acid A. Occupying the space between base pairs
C. Hydroxyl group is lost from its carboxyl group forming a stable complex.
of one amino acid and a hydroxyl group is lost from its B. Forming hydrogen bonds with active site
amino group of another amino acid amino acid residues.
D. Hydrogen atom is lost from its carboxyl group C. Promoting the unwinding of the DNA double
of one amino acid and a hydrogen atom is lost from its helix.
amino group of another amino acid D. Preventing the formation of base pairs.

The building blocks of proteins are _____ naturally The group of biologically important organic compounds
occurring amino acids, small molecules that contain a responsible for storage and transfer of information.
free amino group (NH2) and a free carboxyl group A. Carbohydrates C. Phospholipids
(COOH). B. Nucleic acids D. Polypeptides
A. Nine C. Ten
B. Nineteen D. Twenty The nucleotides in DNA and RNA have three
components: a sugar group, a nitrogenous base, and a
Mother of a malnourished child has been instructed to phosphate group. Adjacent nucleotides in a nucleic acid
include a complete protein in diet for her child, which out are joined by a phosphodiester bond. This bond links the
of the followings proteins should be recommended? phosphate group of one nucleotide to which one of the
A. Milk C. Pulses following components of a neighboring nucleotide?
B. Soy Protein D. Wheat A. Base C. Sugar
B. Phosphate group D. All of the above
What type of biopolymers are formed from the linkage
of monomers of nucleotides? What unique ability does DNA have because it is double-
A. Carbohydrates C. Nucleic acids stranded?
 A. It can move around the cells B. Alcohol and ester
B. It serves as genetic material in all viruses C. Alcohol and carboxylic acid
C. It can serve as a template for its own copying D. Carboxylic acid, alcohol and ester
D. None of the choices
Which of the following organic compounds is used in the
Which of the following is true about the differences production of paints and perfumes?
between DNA and RNA? A. Ethanol C. Ethyl acetate
A. DNA is double stranded and RNA single B. Acetic acid D. Salicylic acid
stranded.
B. The sugar in their nucleotides is different. What organic compound is produced from the
C. Uracil replaces thymine in RNA. esterification of alcohol and carboxylic acid?
D. All of the answers are correct. A. Ethanol C. Ethyl acetate
B. Acetic acid D. Salicylic acid
Foot and mouth disease virus (FMDV) is the pathogen
that causes foot and mouth disease in livestock. An Fermentation is used in the preparation of ethanol as
analysis of the genetic material of the ‘O’ strain of FMDV organic compound. This only takes place in the absence
showed that it contains 1996 adenine bases, 2131 of _____.
guanine bases, 1642 uracil bases and 2365 cytosine A. Oxygen C. Carbon dioxide
bases. Which one of the following describes the genetic B. Water D. Glucose
material of the virus?
A. Single-stranded DNA What particular catalyst is used in the fermentation of
B. Double-stranded DNA glucose to synthesize ethanol?
C. Single-stranded RNA A. Water C. Sulfuric acid
D. Double-stranded RNA B. Yeast D. Sodium carbonate

Which of the given choices is used in the preparation of Distillation is possible in separating the reaction mixture
ethanol using glucose? of sulfuric acid and what organic compound?
A. Fermentation A. Ethanol C. Ethanoic acid
B. Grignard Reagent B. Ethyl acetate D. Salicylic acid
C. Fisher Esterification
D. Claisen-Schmidt Reaction Which from the given synthesis reaction is used in the
preparation of ethyl acetate?
Which of the following reaction mixtures could be
prepared to synthesize ethanol?
A. Ethanol and acetic acid
B. Methanol and salicylic acid
C. Glucose and yeast as a catalyst
D. Anhydrous sodium acetate and concentrated How many electrons are there in the third shell (principal
sulphuric acid (catalyst) energy level) of the atom with atomic number 23?
A. 10 C. 13
Due to the pandemic, the production of these organic B. 11 D. 8
compounds is in demand. What could be this organic
compound? Which of the following is the correct order for electrons
A. Ethanol C. Carboxylic acid filling in orbitals?
B. Ethyl acetate D. Glacial Acetic acid A. 4s, 3d, 4p, 4d C. 3s, 3p, 4s, 3d
B. 3p, 4s, 3d, 5s D. 1s, 2s, 2p, 2d
Esterification is used in the preparation of ethyl acetate
with the use of what reaction mixture? The number of electrons in the highest energy level of
A. Ester and ketone 20Ca is ____.
 A. 6 C. 2 The relationship between the energy of an electron and
B. 8 D. 4 the electron’s distance from the nucleus is basically
_____.
Which electron configuration represents a neutral atom A. The greater the energy the closer the electron
of nitrogen in an excited state? is to the nucleus
A. 1s2 2s1 2p4 C. 1s2 2s2 2p3 B. Electrons of all energies remain the same
B. 1s2 2s2 2p4 D. 1s2 2s1 2p5 distance away from the nucleus
C. The distance of the electron from the nucleus
Which electron configuration represents an atom in a is unrelated to the electron’s energy
strong excited state? D. The greater the energy the farther the
A. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 4p1 electron is from the nucleus
B. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d1
C. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1 Choose the electron arrangement that is possible.
D. 1s2 2s2 2p6 A. 8 electrons in Level 1 and 2 electrons in Level
2.
A lithium atom has an atomic number of 3 and a mass of B. 8 electrons in Level 1 and 8 electrons in Level
7 a.m.u. The number of electrons which it has in the 2.
second shell (principal energy level) is _____. C. 1 electron in Level 1 and 8 electrons in Level 2.
A. 3 C. 4 D. 2 electrons in Level 1 and 8 electrons in Level
B. 1 D. 5 2

The proper order of increasing energy sublevels is _____. Identify the element with the electron configuration 3s2
A. 3d, 4p, 4s C. 3d, 4s, 4p 3px2 3py2 for its last energy level.
B. 3d, 3p, 4s D. 4s, 3d, 4p A. None of these C. Se
B. Si D. S
The characteristic light spectrum of an element is
produced when _____. Oxygen (atomic number 8) has how many electrons in
A. Electrons are emitted by an atom the second principal energy level?
B. Electrons drop back to lower energy levels A. 6 C. 8
C. The energy level of the nucleus is increased B. 2 D. 7
D. Electrons are raised to higher energy levels
Which electron transition is accompanied by a release of
According to the quantum theory of light, the separate energy?
packets of energy by which the light waves travel are A. 4px to 4pz C. 2s to 2p
called _____. B. 3p to 3s D. 1s to 2s
A. Photons C. Protons
B. Ions D. Neutron A water molecule (H2O) is an example of a covalent bond
because _____.
An element such as neon can sometimes give off light A. The hydrogen gains an electron and the
because ______. oxygen loses one.
A. Its atoms all have positive charges B. Electrons are shared between the hydrogen
B. Its electrons gain energy and give off light as and oxygen
they move to a higher energy level C. They do not form a neutral group of atoms.
C. It is radioactive D. Hydrogen and oxygen are both negative ions
D. Its electrons gain energy and give off light as
they fall back to a lower level Ionic bonds form between what types of elements?
A. Metal to Metal
B. Metal to Nonmetal
C. Nonmetal to Nonmetal
 D. Metal to Semimetal Which of the following is the correct Lewis dot structure
for the molecule fluorine (F2)?
Covalent bonds form between what types of elements?
A. Metal to Metal
B. Metal to Nonmetal
C. Nonmetal to Nonmetal
D. Metal to Semimetal

Which of the below elements will most likely form an

Ionic Bond?
A. P and O C. Li and Mg
B. Cs and O D. Ne and Cl

Which of the below elements will most likely form a

Covalent Bond?
A. K and Cl C. Al and Mg A. Structure D C. Structure B
B. H and O D. K and Na B. Structure A D. Structure C

How many electrons does chlorine need to gain in order Which of the following is the correct Lewis structure for
to have a full outer shell? the compound PBr3?
A. 7 C. 1
B. 0 D. 8

A charged particle is called an

A. Isotope C. Molecule
B. Ion D. Compound

A. Structure D C. Structure B
The number of _____ is most important in determining
B. Structure A D. Structure C
how an atom will bond.
A. Neutrons
Choose the structure that forms a triple bond. You will
B. Valence Electrons
need to write these structures.
C. Protons
A. Hydrogen (H2) C. Oxygen (O2)
D. Electrons in the innermost shell
B. Fluorine (F2) D. Nitrogen (N2)
What is the rule for figuring out if it is ionic or covalent?
Which is the correct molecular structure for carbon
A. Covalent bonds form between two metals.
dioxide? Try working this one out before choosing.
B. Ionic bonds form between two metals.
C. Covalent bonds form between a metal and a
non-metal.
D. Ionic bonds form between a metal and a non-
metal.

What is a valence electron?

A. The sum of neutrons and protons.
B. The # of electrons in the last shell.
C. A type of bond. NH3 has how many lone pairs? You may need to write this
one down to figure it out.
D. A popular compound.
A. 0 C. 2
B. 1 D. 3
As the number of bonds increases, the strength of the B. Fe D. AlCl3
bond _____.
A. Increases C. Decreases As compare to ionic compounds, covalent bond has
B. Stays the same D. You can't tell A. High melting but low boiling point
B. Low melting and boiling point
Most of the covalent compounds are found in C. Low melting but high boiling point
A. Solid state D. High melting and boiling point
B. Liquid state
C. Gaseous state A valid Lewis structure of _____ cannot be drawn
D. Both in liquid and gaseous state without violating the octet rule.
A. NH3 C. PF3
The bond which comes to existence due to sharing of B. IF3 D. SbCl3
electrons is known as
A. Ionic bonding C. Covalent bonding The central atom in _____ does not violate the octet rule.
B. Metallic bonding D. Dative bonding A. SF4 C. CF4
B. KrF2 D. XeF4
Which molecule contains one unshared pair of valence
electrons? The central iodine atom in the ICl4- ion has _____ non-
A. H2O C. CH4 bonded electron pairs and _____ bonded electron pairs
B. NH3 D.CO2 in its valence shell.
A. 2, 2 C. 1, 3
In the Lewis structure of SF2, there are ____ single bonds B. 3, 4 D. 3, 2
and ____ total lone pairs on the central atom?
A. 2,8 C. 2,2 Which of the following is not a property of covalent
B. 3,8 D. 2,6 compounds?
A. Low boiling points
A molecule consists of four bonds and no lone pairs. B. Poor conductors of heat and electricity
What is its structure? C. Solids are brittle and variously colored
A. Square C. Planar tetrahedral D. Superior malleability
B. Linear D. Square pyramidal

Which of the following is a covalent compound? THIRD QUARTER

A. SrI2 C. LiOH
B. P4O10 D. ZnS 1. Which of the intermolecular forces exists between
molecules of I2?
Which pair of elements is most apt to form a molecular A. Dipole-dipole C. Ion-ion interaction
compound with each other? B. Hydrogen bonding D. London dispersion
A. Aluminum, oxygen C. Magnesium, iodine
B. Sulfur, fluorine D. Potassium, lithium Which of the following choices would mean interaction
between molecules?
Which of the following bonds would be best categorized A. Coulomb`s Law
as covalent? B. Electrostatic force
I. H-S II. Al-S III. N-F C. Intermolecular force
A. I only C. III only D. Intramolecular forces
B. II only D. I and III
For which of the following molecules apply dipole-dipole
Which of the following species below would be interactions?
considered molecular in nature? A. CH4 C. CCl4
A. C (diamond) C. C (graphite) B. C6H6 D. CH2Cl2
Which of these molecules will not form hydrogen bonds A. Capillary action
with water? B. Surface tension
A. HF C. NH3 C. Vapor pressure
B. CH4 D. HCOOH D. Molar heat of vaporization

Which of the following types of intermolecular forces is When water is poured into a test tube, a concave surface
the weakest? is usually observed. Why do you think this happens?
A. Dipole-dipole C. Ion-ion interaction A. Because water molecules touching the glass
B. Hydrogen bonding D. London dispersion adhere less to the test tube.
B. Because water molecules touching the glass
1. What type(s) of intermolecular forces can exist adhere more to the test tube.
between HF and H2S? C. Because water molecules touching the glass
A. Hydrogen bonding C. Dipole-dipole adhere more to other water molecules.
B. London dispersion D. Ionic bonding D. Because water molecules touching the glass
did not get attracted to the wall of the test tube.
2. What type(s) of intermolecular forces can exist
between I2 and CBr4? What do you think is the effect of weak intermolecular
A. Hydrogen bonding C. Dipole-dipole forces to the vapor pressure of acetone?
B. London dispersion D. Ionic bonding A. Low vapor pressure
B. High vapor pressure
3. What type(s) of intermolecular forces can exist C2H6 C. Does not affect at all
and BF3? D. Unstable vapor pressure
A. Dipole-induced dipole
B. Hydrogen bonding Which of the following compounds has a strong
C. London dispersion intermolecular force and high viscosity?
D. Ionic bonding A. Acetone C. Glycerol
B. Ethanol D. Water
4. Which of the following will form a hydrogen bond with
NH3? Which among the compounds would have the following
A. H2O C. Cl2 property?
B. CH4 D. CO2 A. Ethanol C. Glycerol
B. Methanol D. Water
5. Which of the following shows the increasing boiling
points of halogens? High in surface tension C
A. F2 < I2 < Br2 < Cl2
B. I2 < Cl2 < Br2 < F2 High in viscosity C
C. Cl2 < Br2 < I2 < F2
D. F2 < Cl2 < Br2 < I2 Low in vapor pressure C

1. Which of the following choices is used to explain the Which among the following solid lacks a well-defined
behavior of states of matter from a microscopic point of arrangement of basic units found in crystals that soften
view? gradually when heated?
A. Atomic Theory A. Amorphous C. Ionic crystals
B. Coulomb`s Law B. Crystalline solid D. Metallic crystals
C. Kinetic Molecular Theory
D. Intramolecular forces 5. Which of the following shows the increasing viscosity?

2. Which of the following physical property of a liquid

allows a spider to float on water?
 A. Oils C. Butane
B. Sugar D. Alcohols

Which of these concepts help explain why water can

travel up a narrow tube?
Why do ice floats on water? A. Polarity
A. Ice is denser than water B. Specific heat
B. Ice has a crystalline structure C. Specific gravity
C. Water is less dense than ice cube D. Adhesion and cohesion
D. Water molecules of ice cube expand that
decreases its density 4. Which of the following explains why water is a
universal solvent?
Which of the following physical property of a liquid A. Due to the high specific heat of water
explains why fishes in the lakes of colder regions can B. Due to the strong surface tension of water
survive on water? C. Due to the cohesiveness and adhesiveness of
A. Due to water’s cohesiveness water molecule
B. Due to low density of water D. Due to its polarity, that allows to dissolve a
C. Due to the high surface tension of water great number of substances that contain ionized atoms
D. Due to the anomalous expansion of water or polar molecules

Which from the choices refers to the amount of heat What type of intramolecular force holds the atoms of
needed to raise the temperature of 1 gram of a water together?
substance 1 degree Celsius (°C)? A. Covalent bond C. Ion-ion interaction
A. Cohesion C. Specific heat B. Hydrogen bond D. Polar covalent bond
B. Polarity D. Surface tension
Which of the following solids does not have a well-
What type of intermolecular force holds the molecules of defined geometric pattern?
water together? A. Amorphous solids
A. Covalent bond B. Crystalline solids
B. Hydrogen bond C. Ionic crystalline solids
C. Ion-ion interaction D. Molecular crystalline solids
D. London dispersion force
Which of the following is the basic repeating structural
Which of the following best describes a hydrophobic unit of crystalline solids?
compound? A. Atom C. Molecule
A. Nonpolar which doesn’t dissolve in water B. Compound D. Unit cell
B. Polar molecules and ready to be dissolved in
water Which of the following is an amorphous solid that can
C. Nonpolar molecules and ready to be dissolved convert sunlight into electrical energy?
in water A. Glass C. Rubber
D. Polar and ionic molecules and ready to be B. Plastics D. Silicon
dissolved in water
Why are the crystalline solids considered as true solids?
Which among the compounds is/are water-hating? A. Because of their repeated pattern of
A. Oils C. Butane arrangement
B. Sugar D. Alcohols B. Because that can be molded and blown into
various shapes
Which among the above compounds is/are water- C. Because they behave as crystalline at a certain
loving? temperature
 D. Because of its sharp melting point that once it B. They are composed of a huge number of small
reaches this point it will immediately change into liquid crystals with no definite geometrical shape making them
form rigid and incompressible
C. They are composed of a huge number of small
Why are the solid state and molten state of ionic crystals crystals with indefinite geometrical shapes making them
considered poor electrical conductors? rigid and incompressible.
A. Because of delocalized electrons that can D. They are composed of a huge number of small
freely room across the entire metal crystals with a definite geometrical shape making them
B. Because they have a definite heat of fusion rigid and highly compressible.
that help them to change their phase
C. Because their particles are held firmly thus Which of the choices is defined as a graph that relates
there is no enough space for the ions to move around pressure and temperature to the state of matter?
which make them as non-conductors of electricity A. Critical point C. Phase diagram
D. Because their particles are not held firmly thus B. Phase change D. Triple point
there is no enough space for the ions to move around
which make them as non-conductors of electricity Which of the following choices shows a point where all
the phases of matter coexist at equilibrium?
Which among the compounds has the strongest A. Critical point C. Phase change
intermolecular forces and ionic crystal? B. Critical temperature D. Triple point
A. Quartz C. Salt
B. Rubber D. Sugar At what temperature and pressure would show the triple
point of water?
Which among the compounds has covalent crystals with A. At 1 °C and 6 atm
a very high melting point? B. At 0.01 °C and 0.006 atm
A. Quartz C. Salt C. -57 °C and 5 atm
B. Rubber D. Sugar D. -57.2 °C and 5.2 atm

Which among the compounds is an amorphous solid with What should be done to cause water to change from a
no sharp melting points? solid phase to a liquid phase at a constant temperature?
A. Quartz C. Salt A. Decrease the pressure
B. Rubber D. Sugar B. Increase the pressure
C. Pressure should be at constant also
Which of the following best describes the melting point D. It cannot be changed
of amorphous solid?
A. Amorphous solids have definite melting points Which best describes the slope of the solid-liquid
since they have a weak intermolecular force boundary of water?
B. Amorphous solids have definite melting points A. A negative slope due to its anomalous
since they have a strong intermolecular force property
C. Amorphous solids do not have sharp melting B. A positive slope due to its anomalous property
points since they have a weak intermolecular force C. Cannot be determined because water is
D. Amorphous solids do not have sharp melting unstable
point since they have a strong intermolecular forces D. A positive slope because water shows a stable
property throughout
Which of the following solids best describes a crystalline
solid? 1. Which of the choices is defined as a point where
A. They are composed of a huge number of small supercritical fluid occurs?
crystals with a definite geometrical shape making them
rigid and incompressible A. Critical point C. Phase diagram
B. Phase change D. Triple point
2. What are the two intensive properties of matter that
will help us determine the phases of matter?
A. Density and volume
B. Density and pressure
C. Pressure and temperature
D. Temperature and volume

3. Which best describes the slope of the solid-liquid

boundary of carbon dioxide? 3. What is happening in the potential energy during D –
A. A negative slope E?
B. A positive slope A. Increasing
C. Cannot be determined because carbon B. Decreasing
dioxide is unstable C. Staying the same
D. A positive slope because carbon dioxide D. Increases and suddenly drops down
shows an unstable property
4. Which segment where kinetic energy remains
4. At what temperature and pressure would show the constant?
triple point of carbon dioxide? A. A-B C. E-F
A. At 1 °C and 6 atm B. C-D D. B – C and D – E
B. At 0.01 °C and 0.006 atm
C. -57 °C and 5.11 atm 5. What portion of the graph shows that solid and liquid
D. -57.2 °C and 5.2 atm co-exist?
A. B C. B – C
5. What does the line in the phase diagram represent? B. E D. B – C and D – E
A. Boiling point and freezing point of a substance
B. Melting point and boiling point of a substance Refer to the given heating curve of naphthalene:
C. Boundaries that signifies the dynamic
equilibrium between two or three phases
D. These are boundaries that would show the
sections in any phase diagrams of substances

1. What do plateaus in a heating and cooling curve of a

substance imply?
A. A phase change occurs
B. Kinetic energy is speeding
C. Temperature is in a constant value
D. All the solid substance is completely melted

2. What does dynamic equilibrium would mean?

A. It is an irreversible process 1. At what point in the heating curve of naphthalene
B. A state of imbalance between the continuing represents the solid naphthalene starts to melt?
process A. A C. C
C. The temperature where solid/liquid or B. B D. F
liquid/gas phases of matter co-exist
D. The temperature where the solid and liquid 2. At what point from the given heating curve of
phase of water co-exist at equilibrium naphthalene represents the liquid naphthalene starts to
boil?
Refer to the given heating curve of naphthalene: A. B C. D
 B. C D. E D. Content of solution

3. In which segment is the kinetic energy remains 2. The number of moles of solute dissolved per dm3 of
constant? the solution is
A. A – B C. C – D A. Molality C. Concentration
B. B – C D. E – F B. Percentage D. Molarity

4. Which segment takes the longest to occur? 3. If 125 mL of 1.00 M NaOH is diluted to 1.00 L, the
A. A – B C. C - D resulting solution contains
B. B – C D. D – E A. 0.125 mole of NaOH C. 1.25 moles of NaOH
B. 1.00 mole of NaOH D. 10.0 moles of NaOH
5. What state (s) of matter is present in segment B – C?
A. Liquid C. Solid and liquid 4. What is the mass percentage of NaCl in a solution
B. Solid D. Liquid and gas containing 1.50 g of NaCl in H2O?
A. 2.91 % C. 30 %
1. Which way of the following is the common B. 29.1 % D. 30.29 %
concentration expression of solutions used for practical
purposes at home, in industry, and in medicine? 5. The molarity of solution which contains 40 g urea
A. Percent by mass C. Molality dissolved in 500 cm3 is
B. Percent by volume D. Molarity A. 1.2 M C. 1.334 M
B. 1.389 M D. 1.5 M
2. Calculate the grams of NaOH present in 5.0 mL of a
1.0% (m/v) NaOH solution. 1. Balance the given equation using the smallest whole
A. 0.050 g C. 0.50 g number coefficients. What is the sum of the coefficients
B. 0.10 g D. 1.0 g in the balanced equation?

3. A bottle of a tile cleanser contains 135 g of HCl and 775

A. 16 C. 24
g of water. What is the percent by mass of HCl in this
B. 22 D. 26
cleanser?
A. 1.48 % C. 148 %
2. Which of the following statements is FALSE for the
B. 0.148 % D. 14.8%
chemical equation in which nitrogen gas reacts with
hydrogen gas to form ammonia gas assuming the
4. The unit of molarity is
reaction goes to completion?
A. Moles of solute/liters of solution.
B. Moles of solute/liters of solvent.
C. Grams of solute/liters of solution. A. The reaction of one mole of H2 will produce
D. Grams of solute/liters of solvent 2/3 moles of NH3
B. One mole of N2 will produce two moles of NH3
5. A solution is made by dissolving 0.40 mole of NaCl in C. One molecule of nitrogen requires three
enough water to give a final volume of 250.0 mL. What is molecules of hydrogen for complete reaction
the molarity of the solution? D. The reaction of three moles of hydrogen gas
A. 0.10 M C. 1.6 M will produce 17 g of ammonia
B. 0.80 M D. 2.5 M
3. Calcium carbide, CaC2, is an important preliminary
1. It refers to the amount of solute present in a given chemical for industries producing synthetic fabrics and
quantity of solvent or solution. plastics. CaC2 may be produced by heating calcium oxide
A. Amount of solution with coke:
B. Component of solution
C. Concentration of solution
What is the amount of CaC2 which can be produced from D. Both reactants will be consumed completely.
the reaction of excess calcium oxide and 10.2 g of
carbon? (Assume 100% efficiency of reaction for 4. What is the molarity of phosphoric acid in a solution
purposes of this problem.) labeled 20.0% phosphoric acid (H3PO4) by weight with a
A. 18.1 g C. 20.8 g density = 1.12 g/mL?
B. 28.4 g D. 19.8 g A. 0.98 M C. 2.7 M
B. 2.3 M D. 3.0 M
4. The formation of ethyl alcohol (C2H5OH) by the
fermentation of glucose (C6H12O6) may be represented 5. How many grams of Ag2CO3 are required to react with
by: 28.5 mL of 1.00 M NaOH solution?

If a particular glucose fermentation process is 87.0% A. 7.87 g C. 15.7 g

efficient, how many grams of glucose would be required B. 3.93 g D. 10.8 g
to produce 51.0 g of ethyl alcohol (C2H5OH)?
A. 68.3 g C. 115 g 1. Which of the following statement is not correct?
B. 75.1 g D. 229 g A. Solution stoichiometry pertains to aspects of
reactions in aqueous solution.
5. How many moles of KBrO3 are required to prepare B. Dilution is preparing less concentrated
0.0700 moles of Br2 according to the reaction: solution from a concentrated one.
C. Quantitative analysis refers to descriptive
A. 0.210 moles C. 0.220 moles concentration of a substance in a sample.
B. 0.0732 moles D. 0.0233 moles D. Molarity is commonly used to express
concentration in solution.
1. Balance the equation below. What is the
stoichiometric coefficient for oxygen gas O2? 2. What is the difference between the endpoint and
equivalence point in a titration?
A. The endpoint is when the pH is exactly 7
A. 1 C. 3
B. The equivalence point is when the pH is
B. 4 D. 7
exactly 7
C. The endpoint and the equivalence point are
2. When iron pyrite (FeS2) is heated in air, the process
the same thing
known as "roasting" forms sulfur dioxide and iron (III)
D. The endpoint is always greater than the
oxide. When the equation for this process is completed
equivalence point
and balanced, using the smallest whole number
coefficients, what is the coefficient for O2?
3. Hydrogen and chlorine react according to the
equation:
A. 2 C. 7
B. 4 D. 11 When this reaction is complete the vessel will contain
A. 5 mole of HCl
3. Silicon carbide, an abrasive, is made by the reaction of B. 6 mole of HCl and 1 mole of Cl2
silicon dioxide with graphite. C. 4 mole of HCl and 1 mole of Cl2
D. 4 mole of HCl and mole of H2
If 100 g of SiO2 and 100 g of C are reacted as far as
possible, which one of the following statements will be 4. Water is added to 25.0 mL of 0.866 M KNO3 solution
correct? until the volume of the solution is exactly 500 mL. What
A. 111 g of SiO2 will be left over. is the concentration of the final solution?
B. 44 g of SiO2 will be left over. A. 0.0433 M C. 0.3822 g
C. 40 g of C will be left over. B. 0.0403 M D. 0.3922 g
 C. When you immersed the two electrodes, the
5. How many grams of KHP (Potassium Hydrogen bulb will not light.
Phthalate) are needed to neutralize 18.64 mL of a 0.1004 D. The intensity of light is bright in
M NaOH solution? nonelectrolyte solution, while the light is blurred in
A. 0.0382 g C. 0.3822 g electrolyte solution.
B. 0.40 g D. 0.3922 g
2. Which of the following is not an electrolyte?
1. In preparing solution sample, a known amount of solid A. NaNO3 C. C2H5OH
solute is transferred to a _____, then water is added to it B. KOH D. HCl
using a funnel.
A. Volumetric flask C. Erlenmeyer flask 3. Which would have the lowest vapor pressure at 25°C?
B. Graduated cylinder D. Beaker A. 0.1 M solution of NaCl
B. 0.1 M solution of C6H12O6 (glucose)
2. Which of the following set of apparatuses are used in C. 0.1 M solution of Al(NO3)3
titration process? D. 0.1 M solution of NaBr
A. Buret, iron ring and stand, volumetric flask,
beaker 4. Which observation(s) reflect(s) colligative properties?
B. Iron stand, volumetric flask, Erlenmeyer flask I. A 0.5 m NaBr solution has a higher vapor
C. Buret, Erlenmeyer flask, buret clamp, iron pressure than a 0.5 m BaCl2 solution.
stand II. A 0.5 m NaOH solution freezes at a lower
D. Iron stand, utility clamp, volumetric flask, temperature than pure water.
buret III. Pure water freezes at a higher temperature
than pure methanol.
3. The end point in a titration of a 50.00-mL sample of A. I only C. III
aqueous HCl was reached by addition of 35.23 mL of B. II only D. I and II
0.250 M NaOH titrant. The titration reaction is:
5. The vapor pressure of a solution containing a
nonvolatile solute is directly proportional to the
What is the molarity of the HCl? A. Molality of the solvent
A. 0.176 M HCl C. 0.0176 M HCl B. Osmotic pressure of the solute
B. 1.76 M HCl D. 17.6 M HCl C. Molarity of the solvent
D. Mole fraction of solvent
4. A sample of 0.6760 g of an unknown compound
containing barium ions (Ba2+) is dissolved in water and 1. What is an electrolyte?
treated with an excess of Na2SO4. If the masses of the A. A compound that dissolves by breaking into
BaSO4 precipitate formed is 0.4105 g, what is the percent ions and conducting electricity in solution.
by mass of Ba in the original unknown compound? B. A substance that does not conduct electricity
A. 37.52 % C. 32.57% but dissolves in water.
B. 35.72 % D. 37.72 % C. A substance that has covalent bonds.
D. A substance that shares electrons.
5. What is the concentration (in molarity) of a NaOH
solution if 25.0 mL of the solution are needed to 2. Which of the following is not an electrolyte?
neutralize 17.4 ml of a 0.312 M HCl solution? A. NaCl C. C12H22O11
A. 0.217 M C. 0.271 M
B. 0.127 M D. 0.712 M B. KOH D. HBr
1. Which of the following differentiates electrolytes from
nonelectrolytes? 3. The vapor pressure of a solution containing a
A. Electrolytes conduct electricity, while nonvolatile solute is directly proportional to the
nonelectrolytes do not conduct electricity. A. Molality of the solvent.
B. Both of them conduct electricity
 B. Osmotic pressure of the solute.
C. Molarity of the solvent.
D. Mole fraction of solvent.
4. Water is a poor electrolyte, so an acid is added to
increase its conductivity. The acid is
A. Hydrochloric acid C. Nitric acid
B. Sulphuric acid D. Carbonic acid
5. Which of the four colligative properties arises in
systems where there is an equilibrium between a liquid
solution phase and a second liquid phase?
A. Lowering of vapour pressure
B. Lowering of melting point
C. Raising of boiling point
D. Osmotic pressure
1. Which of the following statements about the effect of
concentration of solution to the properties of solution is
not correct?
A. The greater the concentration of the solute,
the fewer the molecules of solvent in it.
B. The vapour pressure of solution containing a
non-volatile solute is always lower than the vapour
pressure of the pure solvent.
C. The vapour pressure of non-volatile solute will
depend on the concentration of the solution.
D. The greater the concentration of the solute in
the solution, the greater the molecules of solvent in it.
2. A cell in hypotonic solution
A. Loses water
B. Gains water
C. Neither gains or loses water
D. Gains or loses water equally
3. Red blood cells are put into isotonic solution. What will
happen when salt is added to the solution?
A. The cell burst
B. The cell crenate
C. Water enters the cell
D. Proteins pump salts into the cell
4. Which of the following is the best description of a
semipermeable membrane in the context of osmosis?
A. A membrane that allows neither solute nor
solvent particles to pass through it.
B. A membrane that allows solute particles, but
not solvent particles, to pass through it.
C. A membrane that allows solvent particles, but
not solute particles, to pass through it.
D. A membrane that allows both solute and
solvent particles to pass through it.
5. For ideal systems, the reduction in the chemical
potential of solvent molecules upon the addition of
solute depends only on which one of the following?
A. The melting point of the solute.
B. The number of solute particles.
C. The solubility of the solute.
D. The boiling point of the solute.
1. Which of the following about the effect of
concentration of solution to the properties of solution is
correct?
A. Since the vapour of a solution is always lower
than that of pure solvent, the solvent in solution does not
freeze at 0°C.
B. The greater the concentration of the solute in
the solution, the greater the molecules of solvent in it.
C. For the vapour pressure of the solvent to be
equal to the vapour pressure of solid solvent, the
solution need to be cooled at higher temperature.
D. The diffusion of the solvent molecules is from
lower to higher concentration.
2. The solution with _____ solvent concentration has a
higher vapour pressure than the other solution.
A. Greater
B. Lower
C. Slower
D. cannot be determined
3. The difference in solute concentration between two
areas or regions is called
A. Hypotonic
B. Hypertonic
C. Absolute difference
D. Concentration gradient
4. A wilted plant tissue placed in cold water becomes
stiffer and harder because
A. Plasmolysis has occurred.
B. Water has passed into the cells
C. The cell has gained cellulose
D. The cell’s salt concentration has increased
5. Osmotic pressure is important in biological processes. B. Concentration of solvent used
What do you think will happen if a salt solution were to C. Concentration of solute used
be poured on a plant? D. Concentration of solution
A. It will grow fast because more nutrients will be
obtained from salt solution. The presence of non-volatile solute in a solution, _____
B. The plant will dry up and die since water will the boiling temperature
flow out of the roots because salt solution is A. Decreases C. Increases
concentrated. B. Does not affect D. Changes
C. The plant will become acidic making it
healthier. Two examples of colligative properties are boiling point
D. The plant will obtain water from other parts and freezing point: due to the addition of solutes, the
of the plants. boiling point tends to increase, and freezing point tends
to _____.
1. It is the boiling point of solution minus the boiling point A. Decrease C. Doubled
of pure solvent. B. Increase D. Remains constant
A. Boiling point
B. Boiling point elevation What is the boiling point elevation when 147 g of lactic
C. Boiling point difference acid (C6H10O5) is dissolved in 647 g of cyclohexane
D. Boiling point depression (C6H12)? The boiling point constant for cyclohexane is
2.79 °C/m.
2. Which of the following compounds will create the A. 39.1 °C C. 3.91 °C
greatest increase in boiling point when added to an B. 391 °C D. 0.391 °C
aqueous solution?
A. 2 mole Ca(OH)2 C. 2 mole MgSO4 Benzophenone has a freezing point of 49.00 °C. A 0.450
B. 1 mole MgCl2 D. 2 moles NaCl molal solution of urea in this solvent has a freezing point
of 44.59 °C. Find the freezing point depression constant
3. Five solutions are made, each comprised of 1 L of for the solvent.
water and 1 mole of C6H12O6, NaCl, H2SO4, Al(KNO3)3 and A. 99 °C/m C. 98.0 °C/m
CaCl2. Which solution will show the smallest amount of B. 980 °C/m D. 9.80 °C/m
freezing point depression?
A. NaCl C. C6H12O6 Which of the following is the correct value of R in osmotic
B. CaCl2 D. H2SO4 pressure?

4. What is the freezing point of a 2m aqueous solution of

MgCl2?

2. Which of the following is the correct steps in

calculating the molar mass from the freezing point
A. -11.4 °C C. -2.3 °C
depression?
B. -14.3 °C D. -9.8 °C
A. Molality → Freezing Point Depression →
Number of moles → Molar Mass
5. Seawater is about 3.5% (by weight) dissolved solids,
B. Freezing Point Depression → Number of moles
almost all of which is NaCl. Calculate the normal boiling
→ Molality → Molar Mass
point of seawater.
C. Number of moles → Freezing Point Depression
A. 100.4 °C C. 0.64 °C
Molality → Molar Mass
B. 100 °C D. 100.64 °C
D. Freezing Point Depression → Molality →
Number of moles → Molar Mass
1. The boiling point elevation and freezing point
depression depends on the
3. The unit of freezing point depression constant (Kf) is
A. Concentration of solution and solvent used
 B. Osmotic Pressure → Molarity → Moles →
Molar Mass
C. Osmotic Pressure → Moles → Molarity →
Molar Mass
38.7 g of a non-disassociating compound is dissolved into D. Osmotic Pressure → Moles → Molality →
218.0 g of water. The freezing point of the solution is Molar Mass
measured to be -5.53 °C. Calculate the molar mass of the
solute in the solution. Which of the following is an example of a closed system?
A. 34.7 g/mol C. 11.8 g/mol A. An open can of soda
B. 59.7 g/mol D. 25.3 g/mol B. Sealed bottled water
C. Vacuum Flask
D. Pressure Cooker
In the equation the term “m” stands for
what concentration unit?
The 1st Law of Thermodynamics is also known as _____.
A. Molarity
A. Newton’s 1st Law of Motion
B. Molality
B. Law of Conservation of Mass
C. Normality
C. Law of Conservation Energy
D. Parts per Million (ppm)
D. Law of Multiple Proportions
A solution made by dissolving 9.81 g of a nonvolatile
Any object at rest has _____ energy by virtue of its
nonelectrolyte in 90.0 g of water boiled at 100.37 °C at
position with respect to other objects.
760 mm Hg. What is the approximate molecular weight
A. Potential C. Thermal
of the substance? (For water, Kb = 0.51 °C/m)
A. 150 g/mol C. 185 g/mol B. Kinetic D. Nuclear
B. 199 g/mol D. 250 g/mol
Which of the following is the SI (International System of
Units) unit for energy?
2. The unit of boiling point elevation constant (Kb) is
A. J C. Cal
B. cal D. Btu

What specific instrument is used to measure the amount

3. Beta-carotene is usually found in carrots and spinach. of heat that is either released or absorbed in a chemical
Determine the molar mass of β-carotene if 10.0 mL of a reaction?
solution in chloroform containing 0.00768 g of β- A. Calorimeter C. Odometer
carotene has an osmotic pressure of 26.57 mm Hg at 25.0 B. Thermometer D. Hydrometer
°C (1 atm = 760 mmHg) (K = °C + 273.15)
A. 538 g/mol C. 724 g/mol When the wall or boundary of a system does not allow
B. 673 g/mol D. 882 g/mol the exchange of heat from the system and surroundings,
the wall is _____.
The formula for determining the osmotic pressure is 𝜋 = A. Non-adiabatic C. Isothermic
𝑀𝑅𝑇. What is the unit of M in the equation? B. Adiabatic D. Isobaric
A. mol/kg C. mol/L
B. mol/mg D. mol/mL Which of the following is a form of potential energy?
A. Heat C. Gravity
5. Which of the following is the correct steps in B. Nuclear D. Friction
calculating the molar mass from the freezing point
depression? 3. Which of the following statements is true?
A. Osmotic Pressure → Molality → Moles → A. Some of the energy is lost in the system as its
Molar Mass potential energy transformed into kinetic.
B. An adiabatic wall is diathermal wall.
 C. The existence of an open system in the real life
is impossible.
D. A wall or boundary separates the system from
the surroundings.
What type of energy is stored in the bonds between
atoms?
A. Kinetic C. Chemical
B. Potential D. Gravitation
5. Which of the following statements is false?
A. Btu is the amount of energy required to raise
the temperature of 1 gram of water by 1 °C.
B. The symbol used to represent specific heat is
“c”.
C. In a chemical reaction, energy is needed to
break a chemical bond.
D. The energy loss by the surroundings must be
gain by the system.
When a mole of metal oxide decomposes, enthalpy
change is positive. What does it tell you about the
reaction?
A. The reaction is exothermic.
B. The reaction is endothermic.
C. The reaction is hypothetical.
D. The reaction does not require energy.
The heat of a given reaction is called the change in _____.
A. Energy C. Entropy
B. Enthalpy D. Electricity
How do you calculate the enthalpy of a reaction?
What do you need to consider when looking for enthalpy
value of a certain substance?
A. Color of the species
B. Mass of the species
C. Physical state of the species
D. Concentration of the species
Which of the equation below refers to the enthalpy of
formation?
1. Which statement is true regarding endothermic
reactions?
A. Enthalpy change is positive
B. Enthalpy change is negative
C. Enthalpy change is zero
D. Enthalpy is negligible
2. Which represents an exothermic reaction?
3. Which one of the following statements best describes
the enthalpy change of a reaction?
A. The energy released when chemical bonds are
formed during a chemical reaction.
B. The energy consumed when chemical bonds
are broken during a chemical reaction.
C. The difference between the energy released
by bond formation and the energy consumed by bond
cleavage during a chemical reaction.
D. The increase in disorder of the system as a
reaction proceeds.
4. Calculate the enthalpy of decomposition of
ammonium nitrate. Use the following
A. -36 kJ C. 28 kJ
B. 64 kJ D. 95 kJ
5. Which of the equation below refers to the enthalpy of
combustion?
1. Which of the following is the best definition of Hess’s
law?
A. The mass of the reactants in a chemical
reaction is equal to the mass of the products.
B. The enthalpy change of a reaction is equal to
the enthalpy of the products minus the enthalpy of the
reactants.
C. The enthalpy change of a reaction is the same,
regardless of how many steps in the process.
D. The mass of the reactants in a chemical
reaction is equal to the mass of the products

What happens to the value of ∆H for a thermochemical
reaction if the reaction is reversed?
A. ∆H has the same numerical value, and the sign
changes.
B. ∆H has the same numerical value, and the sign
remains the same.
C. ∆H is the reciprocal of the original value, and
the sign changes.
D. ∆H is the reciprocal of the original value, and
the sign remains the same.
D. Hess’s law states that the standard reaction
enthalpy is the sum of the standard enthalpies of the
intermediate reactions into which the overall reaction
can be divided, while each occurs at the same
temperature.
2. In Hess’s Law, the change in enthalpy for any chemical
reaction is constant, whether the reaction occurs in one
or several steps.
A. Varies C. Constant
B. Increases D. Decreases

The reaction between hydrogen gas and oxygen gas is 3. Study the given thermochemical reaction shown
given by the equation below: below:

What is the value of ∆H of the following reaction: What is the value of ΔH of the following reaction?

A. - 484 kJ C. - 242 kJ A. -392 kJ C. -784 kJ

B. + 484 kJ D. + 242 kJ B. 392 kJ D. 784 kJ

4. Calculate the ΔH in kJ for the given reaction below: 4. Find the standard molar enthalpy for the reaction

Use the information of the following thermochemical

equations:
A. 111 kJ C. 677 kJ
B. -111 kJ D. -677 kJ
A. + 355 kJ C. + 1135 kJ
B. - 355 kJ D. - 1135 kJ 5. Given the following equations and ΔH values,
determine the heat of reaction (kJ) at 298 K for the
5. Determine the standard enthalpy of formation for reaction:
carbon monoxide, given the following two data
equations:

A. 1376 kJ C. 513.6 kJ
A. 110.5 kJ C. 676.5 kJ B. -1376 kJ D. -513.6 kJ
B. -110.5 kJ D. -676.5 kJ
All chemical reactions happen at the same speed.
1. Which of the following statements is false about A. False B. True
Hess’s Law?
A. Hess’s Law depends on the path taken Calculate the reaction rate (M/s) if the concentration of
between the initial and final states a product in a reaction increases from 0.3 mole/L to 0.5
B. Enthalpy change for a reaction is independent mole/L in 10 seconds.
of the number of ways a product can be obtained, if the A. 0.02 M/s C. 0.06 M/s
initial and final conditions are the same. B. 0.04 M/s D. 0.08 M/s
C. Negative enthalpy change for a reaction
indicates exothermic process, while positive enthalpy Which of the following speeds up a reaction?
change corresponds to endothermic process. A. Catalyst
B. Collision
 C. Sufficient energy
D. Intermolecular force of attraction

Grinding tablet into powder increases the rate of its

reaction due to increased:
A. Concentration C. Surface area
B. Pressure D. Temperature

Which of the following decreases reaction rate?

A. Increased temperature
B. Bigger particle size
C. Increased concentration
D. Adding catalyst

Which of the following is inversely related to reaction

rate?
A. Concentration C. Temperature
B. Pressure D. Time

1. Which of the following is directly related to reaction

rate?
A. Concentration C. Time
B. Pressure D. Temperature

If the concentration of a reactant in a reaction decreases

from 0.6 mole/L to 0.2 mole/L in 10 seconds. Calculate
the reaction rate.
A. 0.02 M/s C. 0.06 M/s
B. 0.04 M/s D. 0.08 M/s

Which of the following increases reaction rate?

A. Reduced surface area
B. Smaller particle size
C. Lowering concentration
D. Lessening the amount of solvent

Which of these does not affect reaction rate?

A. Temperature C. Container
B. Particle size D. Catalyst

Which of the following is inversely proportional to

reaction rate?
A. Temperature C. Particle size
B. Pressure D. Concentration

FOURTH QUARTER