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Intermediate tests - part 1 Nguyễn Minh Trườ ng

TEST 1

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LISTENING :
SECTION 1: Questions 1-10
Complete the form below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Tourism Survey
Example Answer
Name : Robert Goddard
Destination: Melbourne
First time visited Melbourne ? 1_________
Best thing about the city: 2_________
Favourite attraction 3_________
Best thing about
The destination's dining options: 4 _________ of food
Method of transport
To destination By 5 _________
Age Group 6 _________
Income level 7 _________
Purpose of visit  on business
 8 _________
Occupation  _________
 Writer for a travel magazine
Opinion of accommodation 10 _________

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SECTION 2: Questions 11-15


Label the map below.
Write the correct letter, A-E, next to questions 11-15.

11. Science Museum

12. National History Museum

13. Car Park

14. Shopping Mall

15. Primary School

Questions 16-20
What is the improvement of each main point of interest in the area?

Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to questions 16-20.

A New entrance

B Free lunch provided

C Free information provided

D Increase in size

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E Additional signs

F New exhibitions

G New structure

16. CarPark

17. Primary School

18. Science Museum

19. National History Museum

20. Shopping mall

SECTION 3: Questions 21-23


Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
21
The proposal will
A. be reviewed by two examiners.
B. be added to the final grade.
C. be returned with feedback.
22
The proposal will consist mostly of
A. topics
B. methods
C. results
23
For the practice paper, the tutor has directed the students to make sure to
A. pay attention to time limits.
B. write at least 6,000 words.
C. keep on topic.

Questions 24-30
Complete the sentences below.

Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer

There is no need to (24)____________ lots of people.

Pay attention to the (25) ____________ of the final report.

Prepare two (26) _______ , one for the teacher, another for the students themselves.

The deadline of the final paper is (27) ____________

The students can (28) ____________ their topics before the beginning of April.

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Students deciding to change topics must deliver a (29) ____________ to the teacher in
advance.

At the beginning of the report, the hypothesis and an outline of the (30) __________ are
needed.

SECTION 4: Questions 31-40


Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Advertising Effect
The important factor to consider

• The (31) __________ that customers must travel affects the probability that they will buy
the product.

Methods of communication

• Advertising slogans are easier to remember if there is a (32) _________ played with them.

• Mandy’s Candy Store appeals to people’s sense of (33) __________ to draw in customers.

• To an ad campaign for digital products, it is (34) __________ that is extremely important.

Effect on your product sales

• The customer’s (35) __________ after he or she experiences the ad is most important.

Marketing strategies

• On international flights, it is wise for advertisements to be displayed in the common

(36) __________ of most passengers.

• Very few young people buy (37) __________

• The UNESCO website would be a good place to advertise for companies aiming to improve
the (38) __________

• One good location to place ads for suntan lotion is the (39) __________

• A good scene for a water purification commercial would be wonderful sights of a (40) ____

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READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on Reading
Passage 1 below.

What the Managers Really Do?


Reading Practice Test 1

students graduate and first enter the workforce, the most common choice is to find an
entry-level position. This can be a job such as an unpaid internship, an assistant, a secretary,
or a junior partner position. Traditionally, we start with simpler jobs and work our way up.
Young professionals start out with a plan to become senior partners, associates, or even
managers of a workplace. However, these promotions can be few and far between, leaving
many young professionals unfamiliar with management experience. An important step is
understanding the role and responsibilities of a person in a managing position. Managers
are organisational members who are responsible for the work performance of other
organisational members. Managers have formal authority to use organisational resources
and to make decisions. Managers at different levels of the organisation engage in different
amounts of time on the four managerial functions of planning, organising, leading, and
controlling.

However, as many professionals already know, managing styles can be very different
depending on where you work. Some managing styles are strictly hierarchical. Other
managing styles can be more casual and relaxed, where the manager may act more like a
team member rather than a strict boss. Many researchers have created a more scientific
approach in studying these different approaches to managing. In the 1960s, researcher
Henry Mintzberg created a seminal organisational model using three categories. These
categories represent three major functional approaches, which are designated as
interpersonal, informational and decisional.

Introduced Category 1: INTERPERSONAL ROLES. Interpersonal roles require managers to


direct and supervise employees and the organisation. The figurehead is typically a top of
middle manager. This manager may communicate future organisational goals or ethical
guidelines to employees at company meetings. They also attend ribbon-cutting ceremonies,
host receptions, presentations and other activities associated with the figurehead role. A
leader acts as an example for other employees to follow, gives commands and directions to
subordinates, makes decisions, and mobilises employee support. They are also responsible
for the selection and training of employees. Managers must be leaders at all levels of the
organisation; often lower-level managers look to top management for this leadership
example. In the role of liaison, a manager must coordinate the work of others in different
work units, establish alliances between others, and work to share resources. This role is

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particularly critical for middle managers, who must often compete with other managers for
important resources, yet must maintain successful working relationships with them for long
time periods.

Introduced Category 2: INFORMATIONAL ROLES. Informational roles are those in which


managers obtain and transmit information. These roles have changed dramatically as
technology has improved. The monitor evaluates the performance of others and takes
corrective action to improve performance. Monitors also watch for changes in the
environment and within the company that may affect individual and organisational
performance. Monitoring occurs at all levels of management. The role of disseminator
requires that managers inform employees of changes that affect them and the organisation.
They also communicate the company’s vision and purpose.

Introduced Category 3: DECISIONAL ROLES. Decisional roles require managers to plan


strategy and utilise resources. There are four specific roles that are decisional. The
entrepreneur role requires the manager to assign resources to develop innovative goods
and services, or to expand a business. The disturbance handler corrects unanticipated
problems facing the organisation from the internal or external environment. The third
decisional role, that of resource allocator, involves determining which work units will get
which resources. Top managers are likely to make large, overall budget decisions, while
middle managers may make more specific allocations. Finally, the negotiator works with
others, such as suppliers, distributors, or labor unions, to reach agreements regarding
products and services.

Although Mintzberg’s initial research in 1960s helped categorise manager approaches,


Mintzberg was still concerned about research involving other roles in the workplace.
Minstzberg considered expanding his research to other roles, such as the role of
disseminator, figurehead, liaison and spokesperson. Each role would have different special
characteristics, and a new categorisation system would have to be made for each role to
understand it properly.

While Mintzberg’s initial research was helpful in starting the conversation, there has since
been criticism of his methods from other researchers. Some criticisms of the work were that
even though there were multiple categories, the role of manager is still more complex.
There are still many manager roles that are not as traditional and are not captured in
Mintzberg’s original three categories. In addition, sometimes, Mintzberg’s research was not
always effective. The research, when applied to real-life situations, did not always improve
the management process in real-life practice.

These two criticisms against Mintzberg’s research method raised some questions about
whether or not the research was useful to how we understand “managers” in today’s world.
However, even if the criticisms against Mintzberg’s work are true, it does not mean that the

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original research from the 1960s is completely useless. Those researchers did not say
Mintzberg’s research is invalid. His research has two positive functions to the further
research.

The first positive function is Mintzberg provided a useful functional approach to analyse
management. And he used this approach to provide a clear concept of the role of manager
to the researcher. When researching human behavior, it is important to be concise about
subject of the research. Mintzberg’s research has helped other researchers clearly define
what a “manager” is, because in reallife situations, the “manager” is not always the same
position title. Mintzberg’s definitions added clarity and precision to future research on the
topic.

The second positive function is Mintzberg’s research could be regarded as a good beginning
to give a new insight to further research on this field in the future. Scientific research is
always a gradual process. Just because Mintzberg’s initial research had certain flaws, does
not mean it is useless to other researchers. Researchers who are interested in studying the
workplace in a systematic way have older research to look back on. A researcher doesn’t
have to start from the very beginning— older research like Mintzberg’s have shown what
methods work well and what methods are not as appropriate for workplace dynamics. As
more young professionals enter the job market, this research will continue to study and
change the way we think about the modern workplace.

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Questions 1-6
Look at the following descriptions or deeds (Questions 1-6) and the list of categories below.

Match each description or deed with the correct category, A,B or C.

Write the correct letter, A, B, or C, in boxes 1-6 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

List of Categories
A INTERPERSONAL ROLES

B INFORMATIONAL ROLES

C DECISIONAL ROLES

1. the development of business scheme


2. presiding at formal events
3. using employees and funds
4. getting and passing message on to related persons
5. relating the information to employees and organisation
6. recruiting the staff

Questions 7-8
Choose TWO letters, A-E.

Write the correct letters in boxes 7-8 on your answer sheet.

Which TWO positive functions about Mintzberg’s research are mentioned in the last two
paragraphs?

A. offers waterproof categories of managers


B. provides a clear concept to define the role of a manager
C. helps new graduates to design their career
D. suggests ways for managers to do their job better
E. makes a fresh way for further research

Questions 9-13
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1?

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In boxes 9-13 on you answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

9. Young professionals can easily know management experience in the workplace.

10. Mintzberg’s theory broke well-established notions about managing styles.

11. Mintzberg got a large amount of research funds for his contribution.

12. All managers do the same work.

13. Mintzberg’s theory is invalid in the future studies.

READING PASSAGE 2

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You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based on Reading
Passage 2 below.

How Well Do We Concentrate?


A

Do you read while listening to music? Do you like to watch TV while finishing your
homework? People who have these kinds of habits are called multi-taskers. Multitaskers are
able to complete two tasks at the same time by dividing their focus. However, Thomas
Lehman, a researcher in Psychology, believes people never really do multiple things
simultaneously. Maybe a person is reading while listening to music, but in reality, the brain
can only focus on one task. Reading the words in a book will cause you to ignore some of
the words of the music. When people think they are accomplishing two different tasks
efficiently, what they are really doing is dividing their focus. While listening to music, people
become less able to focus on their surroundings. For example, we all have experience of
times when we talk with friends and they are not responding properly. Maybe they are
listening to someone else talk, or maybe they are reading a text on their smart phone and
don't hear what you are saying. Lehman called this phenomenon “email voice"

the world has been changed by computers and its spin offs like smart-phones or cellphones.
Now that most individuals have a personal device, like a smart-phone or a laptop, they are
frequently reading, watching or listening to virtual information. This raises the occurrence of
multitasking in our day to day life. Now when you work, you work with your typewriter,
your cellphone, and some colleagues who may drop by at any time to speak with you. In
professional meetings, when one normally focuses and listens to one another, people are
more likely to have a cell phone in their lap, reading or communicating silently with more
people than ever, liven inventions such as the cordless phone has increased multitasking. In
the old days, a traditional wall phone would ring, and then the housewife would have to
stop her activities to answer it. When it rang, the housewife will sit down with her legs up.
and chat, with no laundry or sweeping or answering the door. In the modern era, our
technology is convenient enough to not interrupt our daily tasks.

Earl Miller, an expert at the Massachusetts Institute of Technology, studied the prefrontal
cortex, which controls the brain while a person is multitasking. According to his studies, the
size of this cortex varies between species, He found that for humans, the size of this part

constitutes one third of the brain, while it is only 4 to 5 percent in dogs, and about 15% in
monkeys. Given that this cortex is larger on a human, it allows a human to be more flexible
and accurate in his or her multitasking.. However, Miller wanted to look further into

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whether the cortex was truly processing information about two different tasks
simultaneously. He designed an experiment where he presents visual stimulants to his
subjects in a wax that mimics multi-tasking. Miller then attached sensors to the patients "
heads to pick up the electric patterns of the brain. This sensor would show if " the brain
particles, called neurons, were truly processing two different tasks. What he found is that
the brain neurons only lit up in singular areas one at a time, and never simultaneously.

Davis Meyer, a professor of University of Michigan, studied the young adults in a similar
experiment. He instructed them to simultaneously do math problems and classify simple
words into different categories. For this experiment. Meyer found that when you think you
are doing several jobs at the same time, you are actually switching between jobs. Even
though the people tried to do the tasks at the same time, and both tasks were eventually
accomplished, overall, the task look more time than if the person focused on a single task
one at a time.

People sacrifice efficiency when multitasking, Gloria Mark set office workers as his subjects.
He found that they were constantly multitasking. He observed that nearly every 11 minutes
people at work were disrupted. He found that doing different jobs at the same time may
actually save time. However, despite the fact that they are faster, it does not mean they are
more efficient. And we are equally likely to self-interrupt as be interrupted by outside
sources. He found that in office nearly every 12 minutes an employee would stop and with
no reason at all, cheek a website on their computer, call someone or write an email. If they
concentrated for more than 20 minutes, they would feel distressed. He suggested that the
average person may suffer from a short concentration span. This short attention span might
be natural, but others suggest that new technology may be the problem. With cellphones
and computers at our sides at all times, people will never run out of distractions. The format
of media, such as advertisements, music, news articles and TV shows are also shortening, so
people are used to paying attention to information for a very short time

So even though focusing on one single task is the most efficient way for our brains to work,
it is not practical to use this method in real life. According to human nature, people feel
more comfortable and efficient in environments with a variety of tasks, Edward Hallowell
said that people are losing a lot of efficiency in the workplace due to multitasking, outside
distractions and self-distractions. As it matter of fact, the changes made to the workplace do
not have to be dramatic. No one is suggesting we ban e-mail or make employees focus on
only one task. However, certain common workplace tasks, such as group meetings, would
be more efficient if we banned cell-phones, a common distraction. A person can also apply

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these tips to prevent self-distraction. Instead of arriving to your office and checking all of
your e-mails for new tasks, a common workplace ritual, a person could dedicate an hour to a
single task first thing in the morning. Selftiming is a great way to reduce distraction and
efficiently finish tasks one by one, instead of slowing ourselves down with multi-tasking.

Questions 14-18
Reading Passage 2 has six paragraphs, A-F.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the correct letter, A-F, in boxes 14-18 on your answer sheet.

14. a reference to a domestic situation that does not require multitasking

15. a possible explanation of why we always do multitask together

16. a practical solution to multitask in work environment

17. relating multitasking to the size of prefrontal cortex

18. longer time spent doing two tasks at the same time than one at a time

Questions 19-23
Look at the following statements (Questions 19-23) and the list of scientists below. Match
each statement with the correct scientist,A -E.

Write the correct letter, A-E, in boxes 19-23 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

List of Scientists
A. Thomas Lehman

B. Earl Miller

C. David Meyer

D. Gloria Mark

E. Edward Hallowell

19. When faced multiple visual stimulants, one can only concentrate on one of them.

20. Doing two things together may be faster but not better.

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21. People never really do two things together even if you think you do.

22. The causes of multitask lie in the environment.

23. Even minor changes in the workplace will improve work efficiency.

Questions 24-26
Complete the sentences below.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 24-26 on your answer sheet.

A term used to refer to a situation when you are reading a text and cannot focus on your
surroundings is (24)____________

The (25) ____________ part of the brain controls multitasking.

The practical solution of multitask in work is not to allow use of cellphone in (26) _________

READING PASSAGE 3
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You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based on Reading
Passage 3 below.

Improving Patient Safety


Packaging

One of the most prominent design issues in pharmacy is that of drag packaging and patient
information leaflets (Pits). Many letters have appeared in The Journal's letters pages over
the years from pharmacists dismayed at the designs of packaging that are “accidents waiting
to happen”.

Packaging design in the pharmaceutical industry is handled by either in-house teams or


design agencies. Designs for over-the-counter medicines, where characteristics such as
attractiveness and distinguish-ability are regarded as significant, are usually commissioned
from design agencies. A marketing team will prepare a brief and the designers will come up
with perhaps six or seven designs. These are whittled down to two or three that might be
tested on a consumer group. In contrast, most designs for prescription-only products are
created in-house. In some cases, this may simply involve applying a company’s house design
(ie, logo, colour, font, etc). The chosen design is then handed over to design engineers who
work out how the packaging will be produced.

Design considerations

The author of the recently published “Information design for patient safety,” Thea Swayne,
tracked the journey of a medicine from manufacturing plant, through distribution
warehouses, pharmacies and hospital wards, to patients’ homes. Her book highlights a
multitude of design problems with current packaging, such as look-alikes and sound-alikes,
small type sizes and glare on blister foils. Situations in which medicines are used include a
parent giving a cough medicine to a child in the middle of the night and a busy pharmacist
selecting one box from hundreds. It is argued that packaging should be designed for
moments such as these. “Manufacturers are not aware of the complex situations into which
products go. As designers, we are interested in not what is supposed to happen in [hospital]
wards, but what happens in the real world,” Ms Swayne said.

Incidents where vein has been injected intrathecally instead of spine are a classic example of
how poor design can contribute to harm. Investigations following these tragedies have
attributed some blame to poor typescript.

Safety and compliance

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Child protection is another area that gives designers opportunities to improve safety.
According to the Child Accident Prevention Trust, seven out of 10 children admitted to
hospital with suspected poisoning have swallowed medicines. Although child-resistant
closures have reduced the number of incidents, they are not: fully child-proof. The
definition of such a closure is one that not more than 15 percent of children aged between
42 and 51 months can open within five minutes. There is scope for improving what is
currently available, according to Richard Mawle, a freelance product designer. “Many child-
resistant packs are based on strength. They do not necessarily prevent a child from access,
but may prevent people with a disability,” he told The Journal. “The legal requirements are
there for a good reason, but they are not good enough in terms of the users,” he said.
“Older people, especially those with arthritis, may have the same level of strength as a
child,” he explained, and suggested that better designs could rely on cognitive skills (eg,
making the opening of a container a three-step process) or be based on the physical size of
hands.

Mr. Mawle worked with GlaxoSmithKline on a project to improve compliance through


design, which involved applying his skills to packaging and PILs. Commenting on the
information presented, he said: “There can be an awful lot of junk at the beginning of PILs.
For example, why are company details listed towards the beginning of a leaflet when what
might be more important for the patient is that the medicine should not be taken with
alcohol?”

Design principles and guidelines

Look-alike boxes present a potential for picking errors and an obvious solution would be to
use colours to highlight different strengths. However, according to Ms.Swayne, colour
differentiation needs to be approached with care. Not only should strong colour contrasts
be used, but designating a colour to a particular strength (colour coding) is not
recommended because this could lead to the user not reading the text on a box.

Design features can provide the basis for lengthy debates. For example, one argument is
that if all packaging is white with black lettering, people would have no choice but to read
every box carefully. The problem is that trials of drug packaging design are few—common
studies of legibility and comprehensibility concern road traffic signs and visual display units.
Although some designers take results from such studies into account, proving that a
particular feature is beneficial can be difficult. For example, EU legislation requires that
packaging must now include the name of the medicine in Braille but, according to Karel van
der Waarde, a design consultant to the pharmaceutical industry, “it is not known how much
visually impaired patients will benefit nor how much the reading of visually able patients will
be impaired”.

More evidence might, however, soon be available. EU legislation requires PILs to reflect
consultations with target patient groups to ensure they are legible, clear and easy to use.

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This implies that industry will have to start conducting tests. Dr. van der Waarde has
performed readability studies on boxes and PILs for industry. A typical study involves
showing a leaflet or package to a small group and asking them questions to test
understanding. Results and comments are used to modify the material, which is then tested
on a larger group. A third group is used to show that any further changes made are an
improvement. Dr. van der Waarde is, however, sceptical

about the legal requirements and says that many regulatory authorities do not have the
resources to handle packaging information properly. “They do not look at the use of
packaging in a practical context—they only see one box at a time and not several together
as pharmacists would do,” he said.

Innovations

The RCA innovation exhibition this year revealed designs for a number of innovative objects.
“The popper”, by Hugo Glover, aims to help arthritis sufferers remove tablets from blister
packs, and “pluspoint”, by James Cobb, is an adrenaline auto-injector that aims to overcome
the fact that many patients do not carry their auto-injectors due to their prohibitive size.
The aim of good design, according Roger Coleman, professor of inclusive design at the RCA,
is to try to make things more user-friendly as well as safer. Surely, in a patientcentred health
system, that can only be a good thing. “Information design for patient safety” is not
intended to be mandatory. Rather, its purpose is to create a basic design standard and to
stimulate innovation. The challenge for the pharmaceutical industry, as a whole, is to adopt
such a standard.

Questions 27-32

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Look at the following statements (Questions 27-32) and the list of people or organisation
below.

Match each statement with the correct person or organisation, A-D.

Write the correct letter, A-D, in boxes 27-32 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

A. Thea Swayne

B. Children Accident Prevention Trust

C. Richard Mawle

D. Karel van der Waarde

27. Elderly people may have the same problem with children if the lids of containers require
too much strength to open.

28. Adapting packaging for the blind may disadvantage the sighted people.

29. Specially designed lids cannot eliminate the possibility of children swallowing pills
accidentally.

30. Container design should consider situations, such as drug used at home.

31. Governing bodies should investigate many different container cases rather than
individual ones.

32. Information on the list of a leaflet hasn’t been in the right order.

Questions 33-37
Complete the notes using the list of words, A-G, below.

Write the correct letter, A-G, in boxes 33-37 on your answer sheet.

Packaging in pharmaceutical industry Designs for over-the-counter medicines First, (33)


___________make the proposal, then pass them to the (34)___________ Finally,

these designs will be tested by (35)___________

Prescription-only

First, the design is made by (36)___________ and then subjected to (37)___________

A consumers

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B marketing teams

C pharmaceutical industry

D external designers

E in-house designers

F design engineers

G pharmacist

Questions 38-40
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write the correct letter in boxes 38-40 on your answer sheet.

38. What may cause the accident in “design container”?

A. a print error
B. style of print
C. wrong label
D. the shape of the bottle

39. What do people think about the black and white only print?

A. Consumers dislike these products.


B. People have to pay more attention to the information.
C. That makes all products looks alike.
D. Sighted people may feel it more helpful.

40. Why does the writer mention “popper” and “pluspoint”?

A. to show that container design has made some progress


B. to illustrate an example of inappropriate design which can lead to accidents
C. to show that the industry still needs more to improve
D. to point out that consumers should be more informed about the information

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TEST 2

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LISTENING
QUESTION 1 - 10
Complete the form below

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORLDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer

PHONE INTERVIEW
Name John Murphy
Example Answer
Position applying for Lifeguard
Street address 45 (1) ______________Court
Contact phone number (2) ______________
Current part-time job: (3) ______________
Previous job at Ridgemont high school: (4) ______________
Additional relevant work experience (5) ______________
Relevant skills/quaMcactions: CPR certification & (6) ______________
CPR certification expiration date: (7) ______________
Preferred weekly shift (8) ______________
Time available to start work (9) ______________
Advertisement (10) ______________

Questions 11-20
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C

11. The lecture was organised by

A. City of Nottingham.
B. University of Nottingham Students’ Union.
C. Nottingham Police Department.

12 The majority of crime on campus is

A. Drugs and Alcohol.


B. Violence
C. Theft

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13 The campus crime rate has_____so far this year.

A. increased
B. decreased
C. stayed the same

14 Why is there added concern about crime?

A. exaggeration in media
B. crime TV shows
C. factual news articles

15 Carlos says if you are the victim of a crime, you should

A. run away.
B. resist
C. seek help.

16 What is the primary method for increasing safety?

A. informing students and staff of safety precautions


B. offering free self-defense courses to students
C. reminding students to carry a mobile phone at all times

17 If a student must work late, it is most important to

A. not return home until the morning.


B. go back with a friend.
C. bring a mobile phone.

18 It is dangerous to

A. drive home late at night.


B. carry a knife.
C. carry pepper spray.

19 Students who complete a self-defense course are

A. more aware of dangers.


B. mentally tougher.
C. walking more confidently.

20 A university is

A. not surrounded by walls.


B. patrolled by military.
C. completely safe.

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Questions 21-23
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

21. Information on the test is from

A. the teacher.
B. a class.
C. a handout.

22. This assignment is important because

A. it will become a permanent record.


B. it is a must for passing 11th grade English.
C. it will affect the English level next year.

23. Bobby chooses football as project topic because

A. he often plays football.


B. his father loves football.
C. he is interested in football.

Questions 24-30
What problems do the speakers identify for this project?

Choose SEVEN answers from the box and write the letters, A-H, next to questions 24-30.

Problems

A too vague

B too factual

C too unreliable

D too noisy

E too long

F too short

G too complicated

H too simple

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24. Background sounds

25. Answers of questions

26. One of the questions

27. Time of answering

28. Recording equipment

29. Topic of project

30. Report on project

Questions 31-40
Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

GIVING A SPEECH
Reasons for nervousness

• Lecturers often feel more (31)_________ if the speech is important.

• Many think that the ability to make a good public speaking is (32)_________ ,

while in fact it is a skill that can be learned by anyone.

How to prepare a quality speech

• The audience will only remember the (33) _________ sentence of a speech.

• Ensure that your speech is (34) _________

Do’s and Don'ts

♦ Don’t start your speech until audience is (35) _________

♦ You can make your main ideas or notes on cards or a (36) _________

♦ You do not need to write down the (37) _________ speech.

♦ You can just write (38) _________ ideas.

♦ Remember to (39) _________ yourself to see how long your speech will be.

♦ Don’t just (40) _________ a script.

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READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on Reading Passage
1 below.

The Extraordinary Watkin Tench


At the end of 18th century, life for the average British citizen was changing. The population I grew as
health and industrialisation took hold of the country. However, land and resources I were limited.
Families could not guarantee jobs for all of their children. People who were poor or destitute had
little option. To make things worse, the rate of people who turned to crime to make a living
increased. In Britain, the prisons were no longer large enough to hold the convicted people of this
growing criminal class. Many towns and were at a loss as to what to do. However, another
phenomenon that was happening in the 18th century was I exploration of other continents. There
were many ships looking for crew members who would risk a month-long voyage across a vast
ocean. This job was risky and dangerous, so few would willingly choose it. However, with so many
citizens without jobs or with criminal convictions,

They had little choice. One such member of this new lower class of British citizens was named
Watkin Tench. Between 1788 and 1868, approximately 161,700 convicts were transported to the
Australian colonies of New South Wales, Van Diemen’s land and Western Australia. Tench was one
of these unlucky convicts to sign onto a dangerous journey. When his ship set out in 1788, he signed
a three years’ service to the First Fleet.

Apart from his years in Australia, people knew little about his life back in Britain. It was said he was
born on 6 October 1758 at Chester in the county of Cheshire in England. He came from a decent
background. Tench was a son of Fisher Tench, a dancing master who ran a boarding school in the
town and Margaritta Tarleton of the Liverpool Tarletons. He grew up around a finer class of British
citizens, and his family helped instruct the children of the wealthy in formal dance lessons. Though
we don’t know for sure how Tench was educated in this small British town, we do know that he is
well educated. His diaries from his travels to Australia are written in excellent English, a skill that not
everyone was lucky to possess in the 18th century. Aside from this, we know little of Tench’s
beginnings. We don’t know how he ended up convicted of a crime. But after he started his voyage,
his life changed dramatically.

During the voyage, which was harsh and took many months, Tench described landscape of different
places. While sailing to Australia, Tench saw landscapes that were unfamiliar and new to him.
Arriving in Australia, the entire crew was uncertain of what was to come in their new life. When they
arrived in Australia, they established a British colony. Governor Philip was vested with complete
authority over the inhabitants of the colony. Though still a young man, Philip was enlightened for his
age. From stories of other British colonies, Philip learnt that conflict with the original peoples of the
land was often a source of strife and difficulties. To avoid this, Philip’s personal intent was to
establish harmonious relations with local Aboriginal people. But Philip’s job was even more difficult
considering his crew. Other colonies were established with middle-class merchants and craftsmen.
His crew were convicts, who had few other skills outside of their criminal histories. Along with

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making peace with the Aboriginal people, Philip also had to try to reform as well as discipline the
convicts of the colony.

From the beginning, Tench stood out as different from the other convicts. During his initial time in
Australia, he quickly rose in his rank, and was given extra power and responsibility over the
convicted crew members. However, he was also still very different from the upperclass rulers who
came to rule over the crew. He showed humanity towards the convicted workers. He didn’t want to
treat them as common criminals, but as trained military men. Under Tench’s authority, he released
the convicts’ chains which were used to control them during the voyage. Tench also showed mercy
towards the Aboriginal people. Governor Philip often pursued violent solutions to conflicts with the
Aboriginal peoples. Tench disagreed strongly with this method. At one point, he was unable to
follow the order given by the Governor Philip to punish the ten Aboriginals.

When they first arrived, Tench was fearful and contemptuous towards the Aboriginals, because the
two cultures did not understand each other. However, gradually he got to know them individually
and became close friends with them. Tench knew that the Aboriginal people would not cause them
conflict if they looked for a peaceful solution. Though there continued to be conflict and violence,
Tench’s efforts helped establish a more peaceful negotiation between the two groups when they
settled territory and land-use issues.

Meanwhile, many changes were made to the new colony. The Hawkesbury River was named by
Governor Philip in June 1789. Many native bird species to the river were hunted by travelling
colonists. The colonists were having a great impact on the land and natural resources. Though the
colonists had made a lot of progress in the untamed lands of Australia, there were still limits. The
convicts were notoriously ill-informed about Australian geography, as was evident in the attempt by
twenty absconders to walk from Sydney to China in 1791, believing: “China might be easily reached,
being not more than a hundred miles distant, and separated only by a river.” In reality, miles of
ocean separated the two.

Much of Australia was unexplored by the convicts. Even Tench had little understanding of what
existed beyond the established lines of their colony. Slowly, but surely, the colonists expanded into
the surrounding area. A few days after arrival at Botany Bay, their original location, the fleet moved
to the more suitable Port Jackson where a settlement was established at Sydney Cove on 26 January
1788. This second location was strange and unfamiliar, and the fleet was on alert for any kind of
suspicious behaviors. Though Tench had made friends in Botany Bay with Aboriginal peoples, he
could not be sure this new land would be uninhabited. He recalled the first time he stepped into this
unfamiliar ground with a boy who helped Tench navigate. In these new lands, he met an old
Aboriginal.

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Questions 1-6
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1?

In boxes 1-6 on you answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

1. There was a great deal of information available about the life of Tench before he
arrived in Australia.
2. Tench drew pictures to illustrate different places during the voyage.
3. Other military personnel in New South Wales treated convicts kindly just like Tench
did.
4. Tench’s view towards the Aboriginals remained unchanged during his time in
Australia.
5. An Aboriginal gave him gifts of food at the first time they met.
6. The convicts had a good knowledge of Australian geography.

Questions 7-13
Answer the questions below.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 7-13 on your answer sheet.

What could be a concrete proof of Tench’s good education?


7 _______________________________
How many years did Tench sign the contract to the First Fleet?
8 _______________________________
What was used to control convicts during the voyage?
9 _______________________________
Who gave the order to punish the Aboriginals?
10 _______________________________
When did the name of Hawkesbury River come into being?
11 _______________________________
Where did the escaped convicts plan to go?
12 _______________________________
In which place did Tench feel unaccustomed?
13 _______________________________

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READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based on Reading
Passage 2 below.

Are Artists Liars?


A

Shortly before his death. Marlon Brando was working on a series of instructional videos
about acting, to he called "Lying for a Iiving”. On the surviving footage, Brando can he seen
dispensing gnomic advice on his craft to a group of enthusiastic, if somewhat bemused.
Hollywood stars, including Leonardo Di Caprio and Sean Penn. Brando also recruited random
people from the Los .Angeles street and persuaded them to improvise (the footage is said to
include a memorable scene featuring two dwarves and a giant Samoan). "If you can lie. you
can act." Brando told Jod Kaftan, a writer for Rolling Slone and one of the few people to
have viewed the footage. “Are you good at lying?” asked Kaftan. "Jesus." said Brando. “I'm
fabulous at it".

Brando was not the first person to note that the line between an artist and a liar is a line
one. If art is a kind of lying, then lying is a form of art, albeit of a lower order-as Oscar Wilde
and Mark Twain have observed. Indeed, lying and artistic storytelling spring from a common
neurological root-one that is exposed in the cases of psychiatric patients who suffer from a
particular kind of impairment. Both liars and artists refuse to accept the tyranny of reality.
Both carefully craft stories that are worthy of belief-a skill requiring intellectual
sophistication. emotional sensitivity and physical self-control (liars are writers and
performers of their own work). Such parallels are hardly coincidental, as I discovered while
researching my book on lying.

A case study published in 1985 by Antonio Damasio. a neurologist, tells the story of a
middle-aged woman with brain damage caused by a series of strokes. She retained cognitive
abilities, including coherent speech, but what she actually said was rather unpredictable.
Checking her knowledge of contemporary events, Damasio asked her about the Falklands
War. In the language of psychiatry, this woman was “confabulating”. Chronic confabulation
is a rare type of memory problem that affects a small proportion of braindamaged people.
In the literature it is defined as "the production of fabricated, distorted or misinterpreted
memories about oneself or the world, without the conscious intention to deceive”. Whereas
amnesiacs make errors of omission-there are gaps in their recollections they find impossible
to fill-confabulators make errors of commission: they make tilings up. Rather than

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forgetting, they are inventing. Confabulating patients are nearly always oblivious to their
own condition, and will earnestly give absurdly implausible explanations of why they're in
hospital, or talking to a doctor. One patient, asked about his surgical sear, explained that
during the Second World War he surprised a teenage girl who shot him three times in the
head, killing him, only for surgery to bring him back to life. The same patient, when asked
about his family, described how at various limes they had died in his arms, or had been
killed before his eyes. Others tell yet more

fantastical tales, about trips to the moon, fighting alongside Alexander in India or seeing
Jesus on the Cross. Confabulators aren’t out to deceive. They engage in what Morris
Moseovitch, a neuropsychologist, calls “honest lying". Uncertain, and obscurely distressed
by their uncertainty. they are seized by a “compulsion to narrate" : a deep-seated need to
shape, order and explain what they do not understand. Chronic confabulators are often
highly inventive at the verbal level, jamming together words in nonsensical but suggestive
ways: one patient, when asked what happened lo Queen Marie Antoinette of France,
answered that she had been “suicided" by her family. In a sense, these patients are like
novelists, as described by Henry James: people on whom "nothing is wasted". Unlike
writers, however, they have little or no control over their own material.

The wider significance of this condition is what it tells us about ourselves. Evidently there is
a gushing river of verbal creativity in the normal human mind, from which both artistic
invention and lying are drawn. We are born storytellers, spinning, narrative out of our
experience and imagination, straining against the leash that keeps us tethered lo reality.
This is a wonderful thing; it is what gives us out ability lo conceive of alternative futures and
different worlds. And it helps us to understand our own lives through the entertaining
stories of others. But it can lead us into trouble, particularly when we try to persuade others
that our inventions are real. Most of the time, as our stories bubble up lo consciousness, we
exercise our cerebral censors, controlling which stories we tell, and lo whom. Yet people lie
for all sorts of reasons, including the fact that confabulating can be dangerously fun.

During a now-famous libel case in 1996. Jonathan Aitken, a former cabinet minister,
recounted a tale to illustrate the horrors he endured after a national newspaper tainted his
name. The case, which stretched on for more than two years, involved a series of claims
made by the Guardian about Aitken's relationships with Saudi arms dealers, including
meetings he allegedly held with them on a trip lo Paris while he was a government minister.
Whitt amazed many in hindsight was the sheer superfluity of the lies Aitken told during his
testimony. Aitken’s case collapsed in June 1997, when the defence finally found indisputable
evidence about his Paris trip. Until then, Aitken's charm, fluency and Hair for theatrical
displays of sincerity looked as if they might bring him victory, they revealed that not only

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was Aitken’s daughter not with him that day (when he was indeed doorstepped), but also
that the minister had simply got into his car and drove off, with no vehicle in pursuit.

Of course, unlike Aitken, actors, playwrights and novelists are not literally attempting to
deceive us. because the rules are laid out in advance: come to the theatre, or open this
book, and we'll lie to you. Perhaps this is why we fell it necessary to invent art in the first
place: as a safe space into which our lies can be corralled, and channeled into something
socially useful. Given the universal compulsion to tell stories, art is the best way lo refine
and enjoy the particularly outlandish or insight till ones. But that is not the whole story. The
key way in which artistic “lies" differ from normal lies, and from the "honest lying” of
chronic confabulators, is that they have a meaning and resonance beyond their creator. The
liar lies on behalf of himself; the artist tell lies on behalf of everyone. If writers have a
compulsion to narrate, they compel themselves to find insights about the human condition.
Mario Vargas Llosa has written that novels “express a curious truth that can only he
expressed in a furtive and veiled fashion, masquerading as what it is not. ” Art is a lie whose
secret ingredient is truth.

Questions 14-19
Reading Passage 2 has six paragraphs, A-F.

Choose the correct heading for each paragraph from the list of headings below.

Write the correct number, i-viii, in boxes 14-19 on your answer sheet.

14. Paragraph A
15. Paragraph B
16. Paragraph C
17. Paragraph D
18. Paragraph E
19. Paragraph F

List of Headings
I. Unsuccessful deceit
II. Biological basis between liars and artists
III. How to lie in an artistic way
IV. Confabulations and the exemplifiers
V. The distinction between artists and common liars
VI. The fine line between liars and artists
VII. The definition of confabulation
VIII. Creativity when people lie

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Questions 20-21
Choose TWO letters, A-E.

Write the correct letters in boxes 20-21 on your answer sheet.

Which TWO of the following statements about people suffering from confabulation are
true?

A. They have lost cognitive abilities.


B. They do not deliberately tell a lie.
C. They are normally aware of their condition.
D. They do not have the impetus to explain what they do not understand.
E. They try to make up stories.

Questions 22-23
Choose TWO letters, A-E.

Write the correct letters in boxes 22-23 on your answer sheet.

Which TWO of the following statements about playwrights and novelists are true?

A. They give more meaning to the stories.


B. They tell lies for the benefit of themselves.
C. They have nothing to do with the truth out there.
D. We can be misled by them if not careful.
E. We know there are lies in the content.

Questions 24-26
Complete the summary below.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.

your answers in boxes 24-26 on your answer sheet.

A (24)_______ accused Jonathan Aitken, a former cabinet minister, who was selling and
buying with (25) _________ . Aitken’s case collapsed in June 1997, when the defence finally
found indisputable evidence about his Paris trip. He was deemed to have his (26) _________
. They revealed that not only was Aitken’s daughter not with him that day, but also that the
minister had simply got into his car and drove off, with no vehicle in pursuit.

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READING PASSAGE 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based on Reading
Passage 3 below.

Theory or Practice? —What is the point of


research carried out by biz schools?
Students go to universities and other academic institutions to prepare for their future. We
pay tuition and struggle through classes in the hopes that we can find a fulfilling and exciting
career. But the choice of your university has a large influence on your future. How can you
know which university will prepare you the best for your future? Like other academic
institutions, busi ness schools are judged by the quality of the research carried out by their
faculties. Professors must both teach students and also produce original research in their
own field. The quality of this research is assessed by academic publications. At the same
time, universities have another responsibility to equip their students for the real world,
however that is defined. Most students learning from professors will not go into academics
themselves—so how do academics best prepare them for their future careers, whatever
that may be? Whether academic research actually produces anything that is useful to the
practice of business, or even whether it is its job to do so, are questions that can provoke
vigorous arguments on campus.

The debate, which first flared during the 1950s, was reignited in August, when AACSB
Interna tional. the most widely recognised global accrediting agency for business schools,
announced it would consider changing the way it evaluates research. The news followed
rather damning criti cism in 2002 from Jeffrey Pfefler. a Stanford professor, and Christina
Fong of Washington Uni versity, which questioned whether business education in its current
guise was sustainable. The study found that traditional modes of academia were not
adequately preparing students for the kind of careers they faced in current times. The most
controversial recommendation in AACSB’s draft report (which was sent round to
administrators for their comment) is that the schools should be required to demonstrate the
value of their faculties’ research not simply by listing its citations in journals, but by
demonstrating the impact it has in the professional world. New qualifiers, such as average
incomes, student placement in top firms and business collaborations would now be
considered just as important as academic publications.

AACSB justifies its stance by saying that it wants schools and faculty to play to their
strengths, whether they be in pedagogy, in the research of practical applications, or in
scholarly endeavor. Traditionally, universities operate in a pyramid structure. Everyone
enters and stays in an attempt to be successful in their academic field. A psychology

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professor must publish competi tive research in the top neuroscience journals. A Cultural
Studies professor must send graduate students on new field research expeditions to be
taken seriously. This research is the core of a university’s output. And research of any kind is
expensive—AACSB points out that business schools in America alone spend more than
$320m a year on it. So it seems legitimate to ask for,'what purpose it is undertaken?

If a school chose to specialise in professional outputs rather than academic outputs, it could
use such a large sum of money and redirect it into more fruitful programs. For example, if a
business school wanted a larger presence of employees at top financial firms, this money
may be better spent on a career center which focuses on building the skills of students,
rather than paying for more high-level research to be done through the effort of faculty. A
change in evaluation could also open the door to inviting more professionals from different
fields to teach as adjuncts. Stu dents could take accredited courses from people who are
currently working in their dream field. The AACSB insists that universities answer the
question as to why research is the most critical component of traditional education.

On one level, the question is simple to answer. Research in business schools, as anywhere
else, is about expanding the boundaries of knowledge; it thrives on answering unasked
questions. Surely this pursuit of knowledge is still important to the university system. Our
society progresses because we learn how to do things in new ways, a process which
depends heavily on research and academics. But one cannot ignore the other obvious
practical uses of research publications. Research is also about cementing schools’—and
professors'—reputations. Schools gain kudos from their faculties’ record of publication:
which journals publish them, and how often. In some cases, such as with govemment-
funded schools in Britain, it can affect how much money they receive. For professors, the
mantra is often "publish or perish”. Their careers depend on being seen in the right journals.

But at a certain point, one has to wonder whether this research is being done for the benefit
of the university or for the students the university aims to teach. Greater publications will
attract greater funding, which will in turn be spent on better publications. Students seeking
to enter pro fessions out of academia find this cycle frustrating, and often see their
professors as being part of the "Ivory Tower” of academia, operating in a self-contained
community that has little influ ence on the outside world.

The research is almost universally unread by real-world managers. Part of the trouble is that
the journals labour under a similar ethos. They publish more than 20,000 articles each year.
Most of the research is highly quantitative, hypothesis-driven and esoteric. As a result, it is
almost univer sally unread by real-world managers. Much of the research criticises other
published research. A paper in a 2006 issue of Strategy> & Leadership commented that
"research is not designed with managers’ needs in mind, nor is it communicated in the
journals they read...For the most part it has become a self-referential closed system
[irrelevant to] corporate performance." The AACSB demands that this segregation must
change for the ftiture of higher education. If students must invest thousands of dollars for

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an education as part of their career path, the academics which serve the students should be
more fully incorporated into the professional world. This means that uni versities must focus
on other strengths outside of research, such as professional networks, technology skills, and
connections with top business firms around the world. Though many universi ties resisted
the report, today’s world continues to change. The universities which prepare students for
our changing future have little choice but to change with new trends and new standards.

Questions 27-29
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write the correct letter in boxes 27-29 on your answer sheet.

27. In the second paragraph, the recommendation given by AACSB is

A. to focus on listing research paper’s citation only.


B. to consider the quantity of academic publications.
C. to evaluate how the paper influences the field.
D. to maintain the traditional modes of academia.

28. Why does AACSB put forward the recommendation?

A. to give full play to the faculties’ advantage.


B. to reinforce the play to the pyramid structure of universities.
C. to push professors to publish competitive papers.
D. to reduce costs of research in universities.

29. Why does the author mention the Journal Strategy & Leadership?

A. to characterize research as irrelevant to company performance


B. to suggest that managers don’t read research papers.
C. to describe students’ expectation for universities.
D. to exemplify high-quality research papers.

Questions 30-31
Choose TWO letters, A-E.

Write the correct letters in boxes 30-31 on your answer sheet.

Which TWO choices are in line with Jeffrey Pfeffer and Christina Fong’s idea?

A. Students should pay less to attend universities.


B. Business education is not doing their job well.
C. Professors should not focus on writing papers.
D. Students are ill-prepared for their career from universities.
E. Recognized accrediting agency can evaluate research well.

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Questions 32-36
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 3?

In boxes 32-36 on you answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

32. The debate about the usefulness of academic research for business practices is a recent one.

33. AACSB’s draft report was not reviewed externally.

34. Business schools in the US spend more than 320 million dollars yearly on research.

35. Many universities pursue professional outputs.

36. Greater publications benefit professors and students as well.

Questions 37-40
Complete each sentence with the correct ending, A-E, below.

Write the correct letter, A-E, in boxes 37-40 on your answer sheet.

37. Most professors support academic research because

38. Schools support academic research because

39. Our society needs academic research because

40. Universities resisting the AACSB should change because

A. it progresses as we learn innovative ways of doing things.

B. the trends and standards are changing.

C. their jobs depend on it.

D. they care about their school rankings and government funds.

E. it helps students to go into top business firms.

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TEST 3

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LISTENING
SECTION 1 : QUESTIONS 1-10
Questions 1-10
Complete the form below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Registration Form

Name: Anna 1______________

Date of Birth (dd/mm/yyyy): 2______________

Address: 4 (3)______________St.

Post code: 4______________

Nationality: Grenadian

Number of previous burglaries: 5______________

Time of apartment tenancy: 6______________

Number of occupants: 7______________

Entry point of burglar: 8______________

Details of lost property:

• Serial number of lost computer: 9______________

• Material of stolen purse: 10______________Cloth

Example Answer

Type of crime reported: robbery

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SECTION 2 : QUESTIONS 11-20


Questions 11-14
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

11. What is the project that Mark and Gina want to start?

a. business school requirements


b. directions to the business school
c. explaining the business school experience

12. Who is the target audience?

a. business students
b. business school applicants
c. summer school attendees

13. How will they convey the information?

a. summer course lecture


b. informational video
c. pamphlet in the mail

14. They want to do this project because

a. students worry about their studies.


b. they want to obtain a good grade.
c. they want to attract future business school applicants.

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Questions 15-20
Complete the table below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Topic Time

• Academics
7 minutes
-15_________________

• 16_________________

- Cafeteria 6 minutes

-17_________________

• Social activity

-18_________________ 8 minutes

-19_________________

• Conclusion nearly 20_________________

SECTION 3 : QUESTIONS 21-30


Questions 21-26
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

21. The subjects in questionnaire are

a. tourists in the hotel in this area.


b. local residents.
c. people who are living in this area.

22. The results of the questionnaire should be

a. directly entered into the computer.


b. scored by hand.
c. submitted directly to Professor Curran.

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23. Why should John give a copy of plans to the professor?

a. to receive a good grade


b. to get advice
c. to earn high praise

24. How will the instructions be presented?

a. given by a group representative


b. given by all members of the group
c. given by the professor

25. What does Dani suggest to John when those subjects receive the questionnaire?

a. divide into 2 parts to argue


b. focus on the opinion of the interviewees
c. take consideration of both sides

26. Why is this project particularly important to John?

a. to earn respect from professors in the department


b. to raise his grade
c. to impress his professor

Questions 27-30
What is the source of each one below in this survey? Choose FOUR answers from the box and
write the correct letter, A-F, next to questions 27-30.

A radio

B council meeting

C the television

D newspaper

E journal

F the Internet

27. Map

28. Photo

29. Budget

30. Comment

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SECTION 4 : QUESTIONS 31-40


Questions 31-35
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

31. Why did the lecturer choose to focus on the Pleasanton Town Market?

a. It was the first ever Town Market.


b. It has been covered extensively in local history classes.
c. It is often mentioned in some literature of the library.

32. The Town Market originally made a large profit selling

a. handcrafts
b. vegetables
c. animals

33. The money that the marketers made contributes to local

a. reconstruction
b. development
c. defense

34. Market sales plummeted due to a lack of viable.

a. agriculture
b. transport
c. city planning.

35. Mayor John C. Wiley decided the Clock tower would be used as a_______in the early
stages of the uprising

a. clock
b. grounds for battle
c. jail

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Questions 36-40
Complete the table below.

Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

Research Methods Objects Problems

reference section 36___________ there is too much information

37___________ Rebellion bias makes it 38___________

39___________ Jim Wiley the information is insufficient

newspaper archives 40___________ more detail is needed

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READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on
Reading Passage 1 below.

Radiocarbon Dating - The Profile of Nancy Athfield


Have you ever picked up a small stone off the ground and wondered how old it was?
Chances are, that stone has been around many more years than your own lifetime. Many
scientists share this curiosity about the age of inanimate objects like rocks, fossils and
precious stones. Knowing how old an object is can provide valuable information about our
prehistoric past. In most societies, human beings have kept track of history through writing.
However, scientists are still curious about the world before writing, or even the world
before humans. Studying the age of objects is our best way to piece together histories of
our pre-historic past. One such method of finding the age of an object is called radiocarbon
dating. This method can find the age of any object based on the kind of particles and atoms
that are found inside of the object. Depending on what elements the object is composed of,
radiocarbon can be a reliable way to find an object’s age. One famous specialist in this
method is the researcher Nancy Athfield. Athfield studied the ancient remains found in the
country of Cambodia. Many prehistoric remains were discovered by the local people of
Cambodia. These objects were thought to belong to some of the original groups of humans
that first came to the country of Cambodia. The remains had never been
scientifically studied, so Nancy was greatly intrigued by the opportunity to use modern
methods to discover the true age of these ancient objects.

Athfield had this unique opportunity because her team, comprised of scientists and
filmmakers, were in Cambodia working on a documentary. The team was trying to discover
evidence to prove a controversial claim in history: that Cambodia was the resting place for
the famous royal family of Angkor. At that time, written records and historic accounts
conflicted on the true resting place. Many people across the world disagreed over where
the final resting place was. For the first time, Athfield and her team had a chance to use

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radiocarbon dating to find new evidence. They had a chance to solve the historic mystery
that many had been arguing over for years.

Athfield and her team conducted radiocarbon dating of many of the ancient objects found
in the historic site of Angkor Wat. Nancy found the history of Angkor went back to as early
as 1620. According to historic records, the remains of the Angkor royal family were much
younger than that, so this evidence cast a lot of doubt as to the status of the ancient
remains. The lesearch ultimately raised more questions. If the remains were not of the royal
family, then whose remains were being kept in the ancient site? Athfield’s team left
Cambodia with more questions unanswered. Since Athfield’s team studied the remains, new
remains have been unearthed at the ancient site of Angkor Wat, so it is possible that these
new remains could be the true remains of the royal family. Nancy wished to come back to
continue her research one day.

In her early years, the career of Athfield was very unconventional. She didn’t start her
career as a scientist. At the beginning, she would take any kind of job to pay her bills. Most
of them were low-paying jobs or brief Community service opportunities. She worked often
but didn’t know what path she would ultimately take. But eventually, her friend suggested
that Athfield invest in getting a degree. The friend recommended that Athfield attend a
nearby university. Though doubtful of her own qualifications, she applied and was
eventually accepted by the school. It was there that she met Willard Libby, the inventor of
radiocarbon dating. She took his class and soon had the opportunity to complete hands-on
research. She soon realised that science was her passion. After graduation, she quickly
found a job in a research institution.

After college, Athfield’s career in science blossomed. She eventually married, and her
husband landed a job at the prestigious organisation GNN. Athfield joined her husband in
the same organisation, and she became a lab manager in the institution. She earned her
PhD in scientific research, and completed her studies on a kind of rat when it first appeared
in New Zealand. There, she created original research and found many flaws in the methods
being used in New Zealand laboratories. Her research showed that the subject’s diet led to
the fault in the earlier research. She was seen as an expert by her peers in New Zealand, and
her opinion and expertise were widely respected. She had come a long way from her old
days of working odd jobs. It seemed that Athfield’s career was finally taking off.

But Athfield’s interest in scientific laboratories wasn’t her only interest. She didn’t settle
down in New Zealand. Instead, she expanded her areas of expertise. Athfield eventually
joined the field of Anthropology, the study of human societies, and became a well-qualified
archaeologist. It was during her blossoming career as an archaeologist that Athfield became
involved with the famous Cambodia project. Even as the filmmakers ran out of funding and
left Cambodia, Athfield continued to stay and continue her research.

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In 2003, the film was finished in uncertain conclusions, but Nancy continued her research on
the ancient ruins of Angkor Wat. This research was not always easy. Her research was
often delayed by lack of funding, and government paperwork. Despite her struggles, she
committed to finishing her research. Finally, she made a breakthrough. Using radiocarbon
dating, Athfield completed a database for the materials found in Cambodia. As a newcomer
to Cambodia, she lacked a complete knowledge of Cambodian geology, which made this
feat even more difficult. Through steady determination and ingenuity, Athfield finally
completed the database. Though many did not believe she could finish, her research now
remains an influential and tremendous contribution to geological sciences in Cambodia. In
the future, radiocarbon dating continues to be a valuable research skill. Athfield will be
remembered as one of the first to bring this scientific method to the study of the ancient
ruins of Angkor Wat.

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SECTION 1: QUESTIONS 1-13


Questions 1-7
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1?

In boxes 1-7 on you answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

1. Nancy Athfield first discovered the ancient remains in Cambodia.

2. The remains found in the Cambodia was in good condition.

3. Nancy took some time off from her regular work to do research in Cambodia.

4. The Cambodia government asked Nancy to radiocarbon the remains.

5. The filmmakers aimed to find out how the Angkor was rebuilt.

6. Nancy initially doubted whether the royal family was hidden in Cambodia.

7. Nancy disproved the possibility that the remains belonged to the Angkor royal family.

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Questions 8-13
Complete the flow-chart below.
Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 8-13 on
your answer sheet.
The Career of Nancy Athfield
During her mid-teens, Nancy wasn’t expected to attend 8_________________

Willard Billy later helped Nancy to find that she was interested in science.

Her PhD degree was researching when a kind of 9_________________, first went into New
Zealand.

Her research showed that the subject’s 10_________________accounted for the fault in the earlier
research.

She was a professional 11_________________before she went back to Cambodia in 2003.

When she returned Cambodia, the lack of 12_________________was a barrier for her research.

Then she compiled the 13_________________ of the Cambodia radiocarbon dating of the ancients.

After that, the lack of a detailed map of the geology of Cambodia became a hindrance of her research.

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READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based on Reading
Passage 2 below

Stress of Workplace
A

How busy is too busy? For some it means having to miss the occasional long lunch; for
others it means missing lunch altogether. For a few, it is hot being able to take a “sickie”
once a month. Then there is a group of people for whom working every evening and
weekend is normal, and franticness is the tempo of their lives. For most senior executives,
workloads swing between extremely busy and frenzied. The vice-president of the
management consultancy AT Kearney and its head of telecommunications for the Asia-
Pacific region, Neil Plumridge, says his work weeks vary from a “manageable” 45 hours to 80
hours, but average 60 hours.

Three warning signs alert Plumridge about his workload: sleep, scheduling and family. He
knows he has too much on when he gets less than six hours of sleep for three consecutive
nights; when he is constantly having to reschedule appointments; “and the third one is on
the family side”, says Plumridge, the father of a three-year-old daughter, and expecting a
second child in October. “If I happen to miss a birthday or anniversary, I know things are out
of control.” Being “too busy” is highly subjective. But for any individual, the perception of
being too busy over a prolonged period can start showing up as stress: disturbed sleep, and
declining mental and physical health. National workers’ compensation figures show stress
causes the most lost time of any workplace injury. Employees suffering stress are off work
an average of 16.6 weeks. The effects of stress are also expensive. Comcare, the Federal
Government insurer, reports that in 2003-04, claims for psychological injury accounted

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for 7% of claims but almost 27% of claim costs. Experts say the key to dealing with stress is
not to focus on relief—a game of golf or a massage-—but to reassess workloads. Neil
Plumridge says he makes it a priority to work out what has to change; that might mean
allocating extra resources to a job, allowing more time or changing expectations. The
decision may take several days. He also relies on the advice of colleagues, saying his peers
coach each other with business problems. “Just a fresh pair of eyes over an issue can help,”
he says.

Executive stress is not confined to big organisations. Vanessa Stoykov has been running her
own advertising and public relations business for seven years, specialising in work for
financial and professional services firms. Evolution Media has grown so fast that it debuted
on the BRW Fast 100 list of fastest-growing small enterprises last year—just after Stoykov
had her first child. Stoykov thrives on the mental stimulation of running her own business.
“Like everyone, I have the occasional day when I think my head’s going to blow off,” she
says. Because of the growth phase the business is in, Stoykov has to concentrate on short-
term stress relief—weekends in the mountains, the occasional “mental health” day—rather
than delegating more work. She says: “We’re hiring more people, but you need to train
them, teach them about the culture and the clients, so it’s actually more work rather than
less.”

Identify the causes: Jan Eisner, Melbourne psychologist who specialises in executive
coaching, says thriving on a demanding workload is typical of senior executives and other
high-potential business adrenalin periods followed by quieter patches, while others thrive
under sustained pressure. “We could take urine and blood hormonal measures and pass a
judgement of whether someone’s physiologically stressed or not,” she says. “But that’s not
going to give us an indicator of what their experience of stress is, and what the emotional
and cognitive impacts of stress are going to be.”

Eisner’s practice is informed by a movement known as positive psychology, a school of


thought that argues “positive” experiences—feeling engaged, challenged, and that one is
making a contribution to something meaningful—do not balance out negative ones such as
stress; instead, they help people increase their resilience over time. Good stress, or positive
experiences of being challenged and rewarded, is thus cumulative in the same way as bad
stress. Eisner says many of the senior business people she coaches are relying more on
regulating bad stress through methods such as meditation and yoga. She points to research
showing that meditation can alter the biochemistry of the brain and actually help people

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“retrain” the way their brains and bodies react to stress. “Meditation and yoga enable you
to shift the way that your brain reacts, so if you get proficient at it you’re in control.”

Recent research, such as last year’s study of public servants by the British epidemiologist Sir
Michael Marmot, shows the most important predictor of stress is the level of job control a
person has. This debunks the theory that stress is the prerogative of high-achieving
executives with type-A personalities and crazy working hours. Instead, Marmot’s and other
research reveals they have the best kind of job: one that combines high demands
(challenging work) with high control (autonomy). “The worst jobs are those that combine
high demands and low control. People with demanding jobs but little autonomy have up to
four times the probability of depression and more than double the risk of heart
disease,” LaMontagne says. “Those two alone count for an enormous part of chronic
diseases, and they represent a potentially preventable part.” Overseas, particularly in
Europe, such research is leading companies to redesign organisational practices to increase
employees’ autonomy, cutting absenteeism and lifting productivity.

The Australian vice-president of AT Kearney, Neil Plumridge says, “Often stress is caused by
our setting unrealistic expectations of ourselves. I’ll promise a client I’ll do something
tomorrow, and then *promise+ another client the same thing, when I really know it’s not
going to happen. I’ve put stress on myself when I could have said to the clients: Why don’t I
give that to you in 48 hours?’ The client doesn’t care.” Overcommitting is something people
experience as an individual problem. We explain it as the result of procrastination or
Parkinson’s law: that work expands to fdl the time available. New research indicates that
people may be hard-wired to do it.

A study in the February issue of the Journal of Experimental Psychology shows that people
always believe they will be less busy in the future than now. This is a misapprehension,
according to the authors of the report, Professor Gal Zauberman, of the University of North
Carolina, and Professor John Lynch, of Duke University. “On average, an individual will be
just as busy two weeks or a month from now as he or she is today. But that is not how it
appears to be in everyday life,” they wrote. “People often make commitments long in
advance that they would never make if the same commitments required immediate action.
That is, they discount future time investments relatively steeply.” Why do we perceive a
greater “surplus” of time in the future than in the present? The researchers suggest
that people underestimate completion times for tasks stretching into the future, and that
they are bad at imagining future competition for their time.

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SECTION 2: QUESTIONS 14-26


Questions 14-18
Look at the following statements (Questions 14-18) and the list of people below. Match each
statement with the correct person, A-D.

Write the correct letter, A-D, in boxes 14-18 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

14. Work stress usually happens in the high level of a business.

15. More people involved would be beneficial for stress relief.

16. Temporary holiday sometimes doesn’t mean less work.

17. Stress leads to a wrong direction when trying to satisfy customers.

18. It is commonly accepted that stress at present is more severe than in the future.

List of People

A Jan Eisner

B Vanessa Stoykov

C Gal Zauberman

D Neil Plumridge

Questions 19-21
Choose the correct letter, A,B,C or D.

Write the correct letter in boxes 19-21 on your answer sheet.

19. Which of the following workplace stress is NOT mentioned according to Plumridge in the
following options?

a. not enough time spent on family


b. unable to concentrate on work
c. inadequate time of sleep
d. alteration of appointment

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20. Which of the following solution is NOT mentioned in helping reduce the work pressure
according to Plumridge?

a. allocate more personnels


b. increase more time
c. lower expectation.
d. do sports and massage

21. What is the point of view of Jan Eisner towards work stress?

a. Medical test can only reveal part of the data needed to cope with stress
b. Index of body samples plays determined role.
c. Emotional affection is superior to physical one.
d. One well designed solution can release all stress.

Questions 22-26
Complete the summary below.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER from the passage for each
answer.

Write your answers in boxes 22-26 on your answer sheet.

Statistics from National worker’s compensation indicate stress plays the most important
role in 22____________. Staffs take about 23____________for absence from work
caused by stress. Not just time is our main concern but great expenses generated
consequently. An official insurer wrote sometime that about 24____________of all
claims were mental issues whereas nearly 27% costs in all claims. Sports such
as 25____________, as well as 26____________could be a treat ment to release stress;
However, specialists recommended another practical way out, analyse workloads once
again.

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READING PASSAGE 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based on Reading
Passage 3 below.

Robert Louis Stevenson


A Scottish novelist, poet, essayist, and travel writer, Robert Louis Stevenson was born at 8
Howard Place, Edinburgh, Scotland, on 13 November 1850. It has been more than 100 years
since his death. Stevenson was a writer who caused conflicting opinions about his works. On
one hand, he was often highly praised for his expert prose and style by many English-
language critics. On the other hand, others criticised the religious themes in his works, often
misunderstanding Stevenson’s own religious beliefs. Since his death a century before, critics
and biographers have disagreed on the legacy of Stevenson’s writing. Two biographers, KF
and CP , wrote a biography about Stevenson with a clear focus. They chose not to criticise
aspects of Stevenson’s personal life. Instead, they focused on his writing, and gave high
praise to his writing style and skill.

The literary pendulum has swung these days. Different critics have different opinions
towards Robert Louis Stevenson’s works. Though today, Stevenson is one of the
most translated authors in the world, his works have sustained a wide variety of negative
criticism throughout his life. It was like a complete reversal of polarity—from highly
positive to slightly less positive to clearly negative; after being highly praised as a great

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writer, he became an example of an author with corrupt ethics and lack of moral. Many
literary critics passed his works off as children’s stories or horror stories, and thought to
have little social value in an educational setting. Stevenson’s works were often excluded
from literature curriculum because of its controversial nature. These debates remain, and
many critics still assert that despite his skill, his literary works still lack moral value.

One of the main reasons why Stevenson’s literary works attracted so much criticism was
due to the genre of his writing. Stevenson mainly wrote adventure stories, which was part
of a popular and entertaining writing fad at the time. Many of us believe adventure stories
are exciting, offers engaging characters, action, and mystery but ultimately can’t teach
moral principles. The plot points are one-dimensional and rarely offer a deeper moral
meaning, instead focusing on exciting and shocking plot twists and thrilling events. His
works were even criticised by fellow authors. Though Stevenson’s works have deeply
influenced Oscar Wilde, Wilde often joked that Stevenson would have written better works
if he wasn’t born in Scotland. Other authors came to Stevenson’s defence, including
Galsworthy who claimed that Stevenson is a greater writer than Thomas Hardy.

Despite Wilde’s criticism, Stevenson’s Scottish identity was an integral part of his written
works. Although Stevenson’s works were not popular in Scotland when he was alive,
many modern Scottish literary critics claim that Sir Walter Scott and Robert Louis
Stevenson are the most influential writers in the history of Scotland. While many critics exalt
Sir Walter Scott as a literary genius because of his technical ability, others argue that
Stevenson deserves the same recognition for his natural ability to capture stories and
characters in words. Many of Scott’s works were taken more seriously as literature for their
depth due to their tragic themes, but fans of Stevenson praise his unique style of story-
telling and capture of human nature. Stevenson’s works, unlike other British authors,
captured the unique day to day life of average Scottish people. Many literary critics point to
this as a flaw of his works. According to the critics, truly important literature should
transcend local culture and stories. However, many critics praise the local taste of his
literature. To this day, Stevenson’s works provide valuable insight to life in Scotland during
the 19th century.

Despite much debate of Stevenson’s writing topics, his writing was not the only source of
attention for critics. Stevenson’s personal life often attracted a lot of attention from his
fans and critics alike. Some even argue that his personal life eventually outshone his writing.
Stevenson had been plagued with health problems his whole life, and often had to live in
much warmer climates than the cold, dreary weather of Scotland in order to recover. So he
took his family to a south pacific island Samoa, which was a controversial decision at that
time. However, Stevenson did not regret the decision. The sea air and thrill of adventure
complimented the themes of his writing, and for a time restored his health. From there,
Stevenson gained a love of travelling, and for nearly three years he wandered the eastern
and central Pacific. Much of his works reflected this love of travel and adventure that

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Stevenson experienced in the Pacific islands. It was as a result of this biographical attention
that the feeling grew that interest in Stevenson’s life had taken the place of interest in his
works. Whether critics focus on his writing subjects, his religious beliefs, or his eccentric
lifestyle of travel and adventure, people from the past and present have different opinions
about Stevenson as an author. Today, he remains a controversial yet widely popular figure
in Western literature.

SECTION 3: QUESTIONS 27-40


Questions 27-31
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write the correct letter in boxes 27-31 on your answer sheet.

27. Stevenson’s biographers KF and CP

a. underestimated the role of family played in Stevenson’s life.


b. overestimated the writer’s works in the literature history.
c. exaggerated Stevenson’s religious belief in his works.
d. elevated Stevenson’s role as a writer.

28. The main point of the second paragraph is

a. the public give a more fair criticism to Stevenson’s works.


b. recent criticism has been justified.
c. the style of Stevenson’s works overweigh his faults in his life.
d. Stevenson’s works’ drawback is lack of ethical nature.

29. According to the author, adventure stories

a. do not provide plot twists well.


b. cannot be used by writers to show moral values.
c. are more fashionable art form.
d. can be found in other’s works but not in Stevenson’s.

30. What does the author say about Stevenson’s works?

a. They describe the life of people in Scotland.


b. They are commonly regarded as real literature.
c. They were popular during Stevenson’s life.
d. They transcend the local culture and stories.

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31. The lifestyle of Stevenson

a. made his family envy him so much.


b. should be responsible for his death.
c. gained more attention from the public than his works.
d. didn’t well prepare his life in Samoa.

Questions 32-35
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 3?

In boxes 32-35 on you answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

32. Although Oscar Wilde admired Robert Louis Stevenson very much, he believed
Stevenson could have written greater works.

33. Robert Louis Stevenson encouraged Oscar Wilde to start writing at first.

34. Galsworthy thought Hardy is greater writer than Stevenson is.

35. Critics only paid attention to Robert Louis Stevenson’s writing topics.

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Questions 36-40
Complete the notes using the list of words, A-I, below.

Write the correct letter, A-I, in boxes 36-40 on your answer sheet.

Sir Walter Scott and Robert Louis Stevenson

A lot of people believe that Sir Walter Scott and Robert Louis Stevenson are the most
influential writer in the history of Scotland, but Sir Walter Scott is more proficient
in 36___________, while Stevenson has better 37___________. Scott’s books
illustrate 38___________especially in terms of tragedy, but a lot of readers
prefer Stevenson’s 39___________. What’s more, Stevenson’s understanding
of 40___________made his works have the most unique expression of Scottish people.

A natural ability

B romance

C colorful language

D critical acclaim

E humor

F technical control

G storytelling

H depth

I human nature

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TEST 4

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LISTENING
Questions 1-10
Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

PLAN FOR SHARING ACCOMMODATION


Example Answer
The discussion topic Lease for next year
The total rent: Peter £110 & Jim £ (1) ________
Car parking In the (2) ________
A place to buy things (3) ________, because Jim works there.
The fees the should sashre (4) ________ fees
 The land lord will provide the
microwave
 The (5) ________ is needed in the
The appliances needed kitchen
 Peter will bring some dining room and
living room furniture
 Jim will buy (6) ________ at the store.
Location of the telephone In the (7) ________
Move-in-date (8) ________
Watching the game together On (9) ________
What Jim needs to do before move in Take (10) ________ in the morning

Questions 11-12
Complete the sentences below.

Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

The program is made for travelers to make (11) ________

The program operates in cooperation with the (12) ________

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Questions 13-16
What is the internship stipulation of each country below?

Choose FOUR answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-F, next to
questions 13-16.

Internship Stipulation
A. home stay
B. no summer program
C. minimum time requirement
D. formal report required
E. specific time period
F. agriculture

Country
13. USA 15. South Africa

14. Australia 16. India

Questions 17-20
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

17. What should you do to get the Global Traveling Certificate?

A. record activity everyday


B. formal report
C. talk the experience with the assessor

18. You can apply for the certificate

A. only after you come back.


B. while on the trip.
C. before you leave.

19. When should you pay the final installment?

A. the day before you leave


B. one month before you return
C. before you get your plane ticket

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20. Before your application, you need

A. to take a health check.


B. to attend the workshop.
C. to meet people with whom you will work.

Questions 21-30
Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Group Presentation Assignment


Topic Information source
21 ___________ check at the 22___________
Views on 23___________ interview the manager of 24___________
find relevant information from the
Practice of 25___________ 26___________

How to deliver the plan:


as an 27___________

on 28___________
Date of giving the presentation:

First Phase: 29___________


Schedule of items due:
Final Phase: Group 30___________

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Questions 31-40
Complete the notes below

Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

The Gherkin Building


Commissioned by: 31___________ firm called Foster and Partners

The features of its appearance:

• Its shape is like a 32___________

• It can reduce the carbon 33 of the citys.

• It lets 34___________ pass through the building, both reducing heating costs and
brightening up the workspace

• One false story claimed that the exterior of the building is partly made of 35___________

Architectural concept:

• links 36___________ with the workplace.

• relies less on 37___________ for temperature control than other similar buildings.

The features of its interior:

• The atria that let fresh air pass through the interior are known as 38___________

• There is a place for entertainment called the 39___________ at the top of the building.

The future of urban planning and architecture:

• It is likely that the entire 40___________ will be designed with more similarly eco-friendly
buildings in future.

• A new building will be constructed aiming to produce zero waste and remove carbon
dioxide from us as much as possible.

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Reading Practice
READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on
Reading Passage 1 below.

The “Extinct” Grass in Britain


A

The British grass interrupted brome was said to be extinct, just like the Dodo. Called
interrupted brome because of its gappy seed-head, this unprepossessing grass was found
nowhere else in the world, Gardening experts from the Victorian lira were first to record it.
In the early 20th century, it grew far and wide across southern England. But it quickly
vanished and by 1972 was nowhere to be found. Even the seeds stored at the Cambridge
University Botanic Garden as an insurance policy were dead, having been mistakenly kept at
room temperature. Fans of the glass were devastated.

However, reports of its decline were not entirely correct. Interrupted brome has enjoyed a
revival, one that's not due to science. Because of the work of one gardening enthusiast,
interrupted brome is thriving as a pot plant. The relaunching into the wild of Britain's almost
extinct plant has excited conservationists everywhere

Originally, Philip Smith didn’t know that he had the very unusual grass at his own home.
When he heard about the grass becoming extinct, he wanted to do something surprising. He
attended a meeting of the British Botanical Society in Manchester in 1979, and seized His
opportunity. He said that it was so disappointing to hear about the demise of the
interrupted brome. "What a pity we didn’t research it further!” he added. Then. all of a
sudden he displayed his pots with so called "extinct grass" lot all to see.

Smith had kept the seeds from the last stronghold of the grass, Pamisford in 1963. It was
then when the grass stalled to disappear from the wild. Smith cultivated the grass, year
after year. Ultimately, it was his curiosity in the plant that saved it. not scientific or
technological projects that

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E.

For now, the bromes future is guaranteed. The seeds front Smith's plants have beet,
securely stored in the cutting edge facilities of Millennium Seed Bank at Wakehurst Place in
Sussex. And living plants thrive at the botanic gardens at Kew, Edinburgh and Cambridge.
This year, seeds are also saved at sites all across the country and the grass now nourishes at
several public gardens too.

F.

The grass will now be reintroduced to the British countryside. As a part of the Species
Recovery Project, the organisation English Nature will re-introduce interrupted brome into
the agricultural landscape, provided willing farmers are found. Alas, the grass is neither
beautiful not practical. it is undoubtedly a weed, a weed that nobody cares for these days.
The brome wax probably never widespread enough to annoy farmers and today, no one
would appreciate its productivity or nutritious qualities. As a grass, it leaves a lot to be
desited by agriculturalists.

Smith’s research has attempted to answer the question of where the grass came from. His
research points to mutations from other weedy grasses as the most likely source. So close is
the relationship that interrupted brome was originally deemed to he a mere variety of soil
brome by the great Victorian taxonomist Professor Hackel. A botanist from the 19th
century, Druce. had taken notes on the grass and convinced his peers that the grass
deserved its own status as a species. Despite Druce growing up in poverty and his self-
taught profession, he became the leading botanist of his time.

Where the grass came from may be clear, but the timing of its birth may be tougher to find
out. A clue lies in its penchant for growing as a weed in fields shared with a fodder crop, in
particular nitrogen-fixing legumes such as sainfoin, lucerne or clover. According to
agricultural historian Joan Thirsk. the humble sainfoin and its company were first noticed in
Britain in the early 17th century. Seeds brought in from the Continent were sown in
pastures to feed horses and other livestock. However, back then, only a few enthusiastic
gentlemen were willing to use the new crops for their prized horses.

Not before too long though, the need to feed the parliamentary armies in Scotland, England
and behind was more pressing than ever. Farmers were forced to produce more bread,
cheese and beer. And by 1650 the legumes were increasingly introduced into arable
rotations, to serve as green nature to boost grain yields. A bestseller of its day, Nathaniel

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Fiennes's Sainfoin Improved, published in 1671, helped to spread the word. With the advent
of sainfoin, clover and lucerne. Britain's very own rogue grass had suddenly at rivet.

Although the credit for the discovery of interrupted brome goes to a Miss A. M. Barnard,
who collected the first specimens at Odsey, Bedfordshire, in 1849, the grass had probably
lurked undetected in the English countryside for at least a hundred years. Smith thinks the
plant- the world’s version of the Dodo probably evolved in the late 17th or early 18th
century, once sainfoin became established. Due mainly to the development of the motor car
and subsequent decline of fodder crops for horses, the brome declined rapidly over the 20th
century. Today, sainfoin has almost disappeared from the countryside, though occasionally
its colourful flowers are spotted in lowland nature reserves. More recently artificial
fertilizers have made legume rotations unnecessary

The close relationship with out-of-fashion crops spells trouble for those seeking to re-
establish interrupted brome in today’s countryside. Much like the once common arable
weeds, such as the corncockle, its seeds cannot survive long in the soil. Each spring, the
brome relied on farmers to resow its seeds; in the days before weed killers and advanced
seed sieves, an ample supply would have contaminated supplies of crop seed. However
fragile seeds are not the brome’s only problem: this species is also unwilling to release its
seeds as they ripen. According to Smith. The grass will struggle to survive even in optimal
conditions. It would be very difficult to thrive amongst its more resilient competitors found
in today’s improved agricultural landscape

L.

Nonetheless, interrupted brome’s reluctance to thrive independently may have some


benefits. Any farmer willing to foster this unique contribution to the world's flora can rest
assured that the grass will never become an invasive pest. Restoring interrupted brome to
its rightful home could bring other benefits too, particularly if this strange species is granted
recognition as a national treasure. Thanks to British farmers, interrupted brome was given
the chance to evolve in the first place. Conservationists would like to see the grass grow
once again in its natural habitat and perhaps, one day, seeing the grass become a badge of
honour for a new generation of environmentally conscious farmers.

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Questions 1-8
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1 ?

In boxes 1-8 on you answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

1. The name of interrupted brome came from the unprepossessing grass disappeared
from places in the world for a period.
2. Interrupted brome became extinct because they were kept accidentally in room
temperature.
3. Philip Smith works at University of Manchester.
4. Kew Botanic Gardens will operate English Nature.
5. Interrupted brome grew poorly at the sides of sainfoin.
6. Legumes were used for feeding livestock and enriching the soil.
7. The spread of seeds of interrupted brome depends on the harvesting of the farmers.
8. Only the weed killers can stop interrupted brome from becoming an invasive pest.

Questions 9-13
Look at the following opinions or deeds (Questions 9-13) and the list of people below.

Match each opinion or deed with the correct person, A-F.

Write the correct letter, A-F, in boxes 9-13 on your answer sheet.

9. identified interrupted brome as another species of brome.


10. convinced others about the status of interrupted brome in the botanic world.
11. found interrupted brome together with sainfoin.
12. helped farmers know that sainfoin is useful for enriching the soil.
13. collected the first sample of interrupted brome.

A.

A. M. Barnard D. Joan Thirsk

B. Philip Smith E. Professor Hackel

C. George Claridge Druce F. Nathaniel Fiennes

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READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based on Reading
Passage 2 below.
Keep the Water Away
A

Last winter’s floods on the rivers of central Europe were among the worst since the Middle
Ages, and as winter storms return, the spectre of floods is returning too. Just weeks ago, the
river Rhone in south-east France burst its banks, driving 15,000 people from their homes,
and worse could be on the way. Traditionally, river engineers have gone for Plan A: get rid of
the water fast, draining it off the land and down to the sea in tall-sided rivers re-engineered
as high-performance drains. But however big they dug city drains, however wide and
straight they made the rivers, and however high they built the banks, the floods kept
coming back to taunt them, from the Mississippi to the Danube. Arid when the floods came,
they seemed to be worse than ever. No wonder engineers are turning to Plan B: sap the
water’s destructive strength by dispersing it into fields, forgotten lakes, flood plains and
aquifers.

Back in the days when rivers took a more tortuous path to the sea, flood waters lost
impetus and volume while meandering across flood plains and idling through wetlands and
inland deltas. But today the water tends to have an unimpeded journey to the sea. And this
means that when it rains in the uplands, the water comes down all at once. Worse,
whenever we close off more flood plains, the river’s flow farther downstream becomes
more violent and uncontrollable. Dykes are only as good as their weakest link—-and the
water will unerringly find it. By trying to turn the complex hydrology of rivers into the simple
mechanics of a water pipe, engineers have often created danger where they promised
safety, and intensified the floods they meant to end. Take the Rhine, Europe’s most
engineered river. For two centuries, German engineers have erased its backwaters and cut it
off from its flood plain.

Today, the river has lost 7 percent of its original length and runs up to a third faster. When it
rains hard in the Alps, the peak flows from several tributaries coincide in the main river,
where once they arrived separately. And with four-fifths of the lower Rhine’s flood plain
barricaded off, the waters rise ever higher. The result is more frequent flooding that does
ever-greater damage to the homes, offices and roads that sit on the flood plain. Much the
same has happened in the US on the mighty Mississippi, which drains the world’s second
largest river catchment into the Gulf of Mexico.

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The European Union is trying to improve rain forecasts and more accurately model how
intense rains swell rivers. That may help cities prepare, but it won’t stop the floods. To do
that, say hydrologists, you need a new approach to engineering not just rivers, but the
whole landscape. The UK’s Environment Agency -which has been granted an extra £150
million a year to spend in the wake of floods in 2000 that cost the country £1 billion- puts it
like this: “The focus is now on working with the forces of nature. Towering concrete walks
are out, and new wetlands : are in.” To help keep London’s feet dry, the agency is breaking
the Thames’s banks upstream and reflooding 10 square kilometres of ancient flood plain at
Otmoor outside Oxford. Nearer to London it has spent £100 million creating new wetlands
and a relief channel across 16 kilometres of flood plain to protect the town of Maidenhead,
as well as the ancient playing fields of Eton College. And near the south coast, the agency is
digging out channels to reconnect old meanders on the river Cuckmere in East Sussex that
were cut off by flood banks 150 years ago.

The same is taking place on a much grander scale in Austria, in one of Europe’s largest river
restorations to date. Engineers are regenerating flood plains along 60 kilometres of the river
Drava as it exits the Alps. They are also widening the river bed and channelling it back into
abandoned meanders, oxbow lakes and backwaters overhung with willows. The engineers
calculate that the restored flood plain can now store up to 10 million cubic metres of flood
waters and slow storm surges coming out of the Alps by more than an hour, protecting
towns as far downstream as Slovenia and Croatia.

“Rivers have to be allowed to take more space. They have to be turned from flood-chutes
into flood-foilers,” says Nienhuis. And the Dutch, for whom preventing floods is a matter of
survival, have gone furthest. A nation built largely on drained marshes and seabed had the
fright of its life in 1993 when the Rhine almost overwhelmed it. The same happened again in
1995, when a quarter of a million people were evacuated from the Netherlands. But a new
breed of “soft engineers” wants our cities to become porous, and Berlin is their shining
example. Since reunification, the city’s massive redevelopment has been governed by tough
new rules to prevent its drains becoming overloaded after heavy rains. Harald Kraft, an
architect working in the city, says: “We now see rainwater as a resource to be kept rather
than got rid of at great cost.” A good illustration is the giant Potsdamer Platz, a huge new
commercial redevelopment by Daimler Chrysler in the heart of the city.

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Los Angeles has spent billions of dollars digging huge drains and concreting river beds to
carry away the water from occasional intense storms. The latest plan is to spend a cool $280
million raising the concrete walls on the Los Angeles river by another 2 metres. Yet many
communities still flood regularly. Meanwhile this desert city is shipping in water from
hundreds of kilometres away in northern California and from the Colorado river in Arizona
to fill its taps and swimming pools, and irrigate its green spaces. It all sounds like bad
planning. “In LA we receive half the water we need in rainfall, and we throw it away. Then
we spend hundreds of millions to import water,” says Andy Lipkis, an LA environmentalist,
along with citizen groups like Friends of the Los Angeles River and Unpaved LA, want to beat
the urban flood hazard and fill the taps by holding onto the city’s flood water. And it’s not
just a pipe dream. The authorities this year launched a $100 million scheme to road-test the
porous city in one flood-hit community in Sun Valley. The plan is to catch the rain that falls
on thousands of driveways, parking lots and rooftops in the valley. Trees will soak up water
from parking lots. Homes and public buildings will capture roof water to irrigate gardens and
parks. And road drains will empty into old gravel pits and other leaky places that should
recharge the city’s underground water reserves. Result: less flooding and more water for
the city. Plan B says every city should be porous, every river should have room to flood
naturally and every coastline should be left to build its own defences. It sounds expensive
and utopian, until you realise how much we spend trying to drain cities and protect our
watery margins -and how bad we are at it.

Questions 14-19
Reading Passage 2 has seven paragraphs, A-G.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the correct letter, A-G, in boxes 14-19 on your answer sheet.

1. a new approach carried out in the UK


2. the reason why twisty path and dykes failed
3. illustration of an alternative plan in LA which seems much unrealistic
4. traditional way of tackling flood
5. efforts made in Netherlands and Germany
6. one project on a river that benefits three nations

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Questions 20-23
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 2?

In boxes 20-23 on you answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

7. In the ancient times, the people in Europe made their efforts to improve the river
banks, so the flood was becoming less severe than before.
8. Flood makes river shorter than it used to be, which means faster speed and more
damage to the constructions on flood plain.
9. The new approach in the UK is better than that in Austria.
10. At least 300,000 people left from Netherlands in 1995.

Questions 24-26
Complete the sentences below.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 24-26 on your answer sheet.

UK’s Environment Agency carried out one innovative approach: a wetland is generated not
far from the city of (24)_____________ to protect it from flooding,

(25) _____________suggested that cities should be porous, and Berlin set a good example.

Another city devastated by heavy storms casually is (26) _____________ , though


government pours billions of dollars each year in order to solve the problem.

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READING PASSAGE 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based on Reading
Passage 3 below.

What Do Babies Know?


As Daniel Haworth is settled into a high chair and wheeled behind a black screen, a sudden
look of worry furrows his 9-month-old brow. His dark blue eyes dart left and right in search
of the familiar reassurance of his mother’s face. She calls his name and makes soothing
noises, but Daniel senses something unusual is happening. He sucks his fingers for comfort,
but, finding no solace, his month crumples, his body stiffens, and he lets rip an almighty
shriek of distress. This is the usual expression when babies are left alone or abandoned.
Mom picks him up, reassures him, and two minutes later, a chortling and alert Daniel
returns to the darkened booth behind the screen and submits himself to baby lab, a unit set
up in 2005 at the University of Manchester in northwest England to investigate how babies
think.

Watching infants piece life together, seeing their senses, emotions and motor skills take
shape, is a source of mystery and endless fascination—at least to parents and
developmental psychologists. We can decode their signals of distress or read a million
messages into their first smile. But how much do we really know about what’s going on
behind those wide, innocent eyes? How much of their understanding of and response to the
world comes preloaded at birth? How much is built from scratch by experience? Such are
the questions being explored at baby lab. Though the facility is just 18 months old and has
tested only 100 infants, it’s already challenging current thinking on what babies know and
how they come to know it.

Daniel is now engrossed in watching video clips of a red toy train on a circular track. The
train disappears into a tunnel and emerges on the other side. A hidden device above the
screen is tracking Daniel’s eyes as they follow the train and measuring the diametre of his
pupils 50 times a second. As the child gets bored—or “habituated”, as psychologists call the
process— his attention level steadily drops. But it picks up a little whenever some novelty is
introduced. The train might be green, or it might be blue. And sometimes an impossible
thing happens— the train goes into the tunnel one color and comes out another.

Variations of experiments like this one, examining infant attention, have been a standard
tool of developmental psychology ever since the Swiss pioneer of the field, Jean Piaget,
started experimenting on his children in the 1920s. Piaget’s work led him to conclude that
infants younger than 9 months have no innate knowledge of how the world works or any
sense of “object permanence” (that people and things still exist even when they’re not
seen). Instead, babies must gradually construct this knowledge from experience. Piaget’s

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“constructivist” theories were massively influential on postwar educators and psychologist,


but over the past 20 years or so they have been largely set aside by a new generation of
“nativist” psychologists and cognitive scientists whose more sophisticated experiments led
them to theorise that infants arrive already equipped with some knowledge of the physical
world and even rudimentary programming for math and language. Baby lab director Sylvain
Sirois has been putting these smart-baby theories through a rigorous set of tests. His
conclusions so far tend to be more Piagetian: “Babies,” he says, “know nothing.”

What Sirois and his postgraduate assistant Lain Jackson are challenging is the interpretation
of a variety of classic experiments begun in the mid-1980s in which babies were shown
physical events that appeared to violate such basic concepts as gravity, solidity and
contiguity. In one such experiment, by University of Illinois psychologist Renee Baillargeon, a
hinged wooden panel appeared to pass right through a box. Baillargeon and M.I.T’s
Elizabeth Spelke found that babies as young as 3 1/2 months would reliably look longer at
the impossible event than at the normal one. Their conclusion: babies have enough built-in
knowledge to recognise that something is wrong.

Sirois does not take issue with the way these experiments were conducted. “The methods
are correct and replicable,” he says, “it’s the interpretation that’s the problem.” In a critical
review to be published in the forthcoming issue of the European Journal of Developmental
Psychology, he and Jackson pour cold water over recent experiments that claim to have
observed innate or precocious social cognition skills in infants. His own experiments indicate
that a baby’s fascination with physically impossible events merely reflects a response to
stimuli that are novel. Data from the eye tracker and the measurement of the pupils (which
widen in response to arousal or interest) show that impossible events involving familiar
objects are no more interesting than possible events involving novel objects. In other words,
when Daniel had seen the red train come out of the tunnel green a few times, he gets as
bored as when it stays the same color. The mistake of previous research, says Sirois, has
been to leap to the conclusion that infants can understand the concept of impossibility from
the mere fact that they are able to perceive some novelty in it. “The real explanation is
boring,” he says.

So how do babies bridge the gap between knowing squat and drawing triangles—a task
Daniel’s sister Lois, 2 1/2, is happily tackling as she waits for her brother? “Babies have to
learn everything, but as Piaget was saying, they start with a few primitive reflexes that get
things going,” said Sirois. For example, hardwired in the brain is an instinct that draws a
baby’s eyes to a human face. From brain imaging studies we also know that the brain has
some sort of visual buffer that continues to represent objects after they have been
removed—a lingering perception rather than conceptual understanding. So when babies
encounter novel or unexpected events, Sirois explains, “there’s a mismatch between the
buffer and the information they’re getting at that moment. And what you do when you’ve
got a mismatch is you try to clear the buffer. And that takes attention.” So learning, says

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Sirois, is essentially the laborious business of resolving mismatches. “The thing is, you can do
a lot of it with this wet sticky thing called a brain. It’s a fantastic, statistical-learning
machine”. Daniel, exams ended, picks up a plastic tiger and, chewing thoughtfully upon its
heat, smiles as if to agree.

Questions 27-32
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 3?

In boxes 27-32 on you answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

27. Baby’s behavior after being abandoned is not surprising.

28. Parents are over-estimating what babies know.

29. Only 100 experiments have been done but can prove the theories about what we know.

30. Piaget’s theory was rejected by parents in 1920s.

31. Sylvain Sirois’s conclusion on infant’s cognition is similar to Piaget’s.

32. Sylvain Sirois found serious flaws in the experimental designs by Baillargeon and
Elizabeth Spelke.

Questions 33-37
Complete each sentence with the correct ending, A-E, below.

Write the correct letter, A-E, in boxes 33-37 on your answer sheet.

33. Jean Piaget thinks infants younger than 9 months won’t know something existing

34. Jean Piaget thinks babies only get the knowledge

35. Some cognitive scientists think babies have the mechanism to learn a language

36. Sylvain Sirois thinks that babies can reflect a response to stimuli that are novel

37. Sylvain Sirois thinks babies’ attention level will drop

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A. before they are born.


B. before they learn from experience.
C. when they had seen the same thing for a while.
D. when facing the possible and impossible events.
E. when the previous things appear again in the lives.

Questions 38-40
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write the correct letter in boxes 38-40 on your answer sheet.

38. What can we know about Daniel in the third paragraph?

A. Daniel’s attention level rose when he saw a blue train.


B. Kid’s attention fell when he was accustomed to the changes.
C. Child’s brain activity was monitored by a special equipment.
D. Size of the train changed when it came out of the tunnel.

39. What can we know from the writer in the fourth paragraph?

A. The theories about what baby knows changed over time.


B. Why the experiments that had been done before were rejected.
C. Infants have the innate knowledge to know the external environment.
D. Piaget’s “constructivist” theories were massively influential on parents.

40. What can we know from the argument of the experiment about the baby in the sixth
paragraph?

A. Infants are attracted by various colours of the trains all the time.
B. Sylvain Sirois accuses misleading approaches of current experiments.
C. Sylvain Sirois indicates that only impossible events make children interested.
D. Sylvain Sirois suggests that novel things attract baby’s attention.

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TEST 5

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LISTENING
Questions 1-10
Complete the form below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Home Insurance Quotation Form


Example Answer
Name:
Janet Evans

Address:
49 (1)__________ Court

Email:
(2)________________________

Telephone number: (020) 4251-9443

Best time to contact:


(3)_____________ pm
Property Information

Property size:
(4)__________________ m2

Material(s):
(5)___________________
Security measures (if any):
(6)________________
Coverage
Items to cover: • building
• contents
.(7)_______________
Quotation: £(8)______________
Coverage start date: (9)___________
Reference number: (10)___________

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Questions 11-14
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C

11. The top two proposals for the design of the swimming pool were chosen by

A. the public.
B. the radio station.
C. architects

12. What is special about the pool’s construction ?

A. It was constructed by the people.


B. Its fishbowl-like shape
C. It is the first pool in Bridgewater.

13. News reports covering the new pool expressed concerns over

A. price
B. safety
C. size

14. What factor of the pool’s Grand Opening remains undecided?

A. who will host


B. the exact opening time
C. what sculpture will be in the foyer

Questions 15-20
What’s the theme of each continent based on the rooms of the clubhouse?

Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-H, next to questions 15-20.

A. film and music E. animals

B. mountains F. waterways

C. space travel G. volcano

D. jewelry H. ancient forts

15. Asia 18. North America

16. Antarctica 19. Europe

17. Africa 20. South America

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Questions 21-25
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

21. Which part has the tutor already read?

A. the introductory chapter


B. the procedure section
C. the results and discussion section

22. Which part of the paper did the tutor like?

A. introduction
B. layout
C. background information

23. Kathy and the tutor both agree to continue to

A. refer a lot to the example received in class.


B. copy the information.
C. conduct further research in the library.

24. Kathy asks the tutor for help with the______section.

A. abstract
B. bibliography
C. appendix

25. What will Kathy do next?

A. try out software


B. work on the bibliography
C. make an animation

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Questions 26-30
What is the desired outcome to each of the following course of action?

Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-F, next to questions 26-30.

Desired outcomes

A practical experience

B publish the work

C join Machine Engineer Society

D give suggestions

E stay up to date

F make important contacts

26. Make a good grade

27. Meet engineering professionals

28. Visit the factory

29. Seek summer internships

30. Present dissertation

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Questions 31-40
Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

An Overview of The Research on Amber

Amber: a fossilised tree resin, which may be produced to protect itself against (31)________
and fungi.

Colors:

• usual yellow, orange, or brown

• uncommon colors e.g. blue (what causes the blue color in amber is related to the
occurrence of (32) ________ ).

Formation

• under sustained (33) ________ and pressure

• during an (34) ________ stage between resins and amber, copal is produced.

Places and Conditions

• commonly found on (35) ________ e.g. in Russia

• avoid exposure to (36) ________ , rain, and temperate extremes

Inclusions

• Dominican amber: 1 inclusion to every 100 pieces

• Baltic amber: 1 inclusion to every (37) ________ pieces

Uses and Applications

• It can be used to make ornamental objects and jewelry in (38) ________ settings.

• Some people believe that its powder mixed with (39) ________ cures throat, eye and ear
diseases.

• It has even been used as a (40) ________ material, for instance using it to create Amber
Room.

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READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on
Reading Passage 1 below.

The Connection Between Culture and Thought


A

The world’s population has surpassed 7 billion and continues to grow. Across the globe,
humans have many differences. These differences can be influenced by factors such as
geography, climate, politics, nationality, and many more. Culture is one such aspect that can
change the way people behave.

Your culture may influence your clothing, your language, and many aspects of your life. But
is culture influential enough to change the way an individual thinks? It has long been
believed that people from different cultures would think differently. For example, a young
boy from a farm would talk about cows while a boy from New York will talk about cars. If
two young children from different countries are asked about their thoughts about a
painting, they would answer differently because of their cultural backgrounds.

In recent years, there has been new research that changed this long-held belief; However,
this new research is not the first to explore the idea that culture can change the way we
think. Earlier research has provided valuable insight to the question. One of the earliest
research projects was carried out in the Soviet Union. This project was designed to find out
whether culture would affect peopled way of thought processing. The researchers focused
on how living environment and nationality might influence how people think. The
experiment led by Bessett aimed to question such awareness of cognitive psychology.
Bessett conducted several versions of the experiment to test different cognitive processes.

One experiment led by Bessett and Masuku showed an animated video picturing a big fish
swimming among smaller fish and other sea creatures. Subjects were asked to describe the
scene. The Japanese participants tended to focus on the aquatic background, such as the
plants and colour of the water, as well as the relationship between the big and small fish.
American participants tended to focus on individual fishes, mainly the larger, more unique
looking fish. The experiment suggested that members of Eastern cultures focus more on

the overall picture, while members of Western culture focus more on the individuals.

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In another experiment performed by Bessett and Choi, the subjects were presented with
some very convincing evidence for a position. Both the Korean and the American showed
strong support. And after they were given some evidence opposing the position, the Korean
started to modified or decreased their support. However, the American began to give more
support to the former argument. This project suggested that in Korean culture, support for
arguments is based on context. Ideas and conclusions are changeable and flexible, so an
individual may be more willing to change his or her mind. For Americans, they were less
willing to change their original conclusion.

Bessett and Ara devised an experiment to test the thought processing of both oriental and
occidental worlds. Test subject was given an argument “All animals with furs hibernate.
Rabbit has fur. Therefore, rabbit hibernate”. People from the eastern world questioned the
argument as not being logical, because in their knowledge some furry animals just don’t
hibernate. But the American think the statement is right. They assume the logic deduction is
based on a correct argument, thus the conclusion is right since the logic is right.

From these early experiments in the Soviet Union, one might conclude that our original
premise— that culture can impact the way we think—was still correct. However, recent
research criticises this view, as well as Bessett’s early experiments. Though these
experiments changed the original belief on thought processing, how much does it result
from all factors needs further discussion. Fischer thinks Bessett’s experiments provide
valuable information because his research only provides qualitative descriptions, not results
from controlled environment. Chang partly agrees with him, because there are some social
factors that might influence the results.

Another criticism of Bessett’s experiments is that culture was studied as a sub-factor of


nationality. The experiments assumed that culture would be the same among all members
of a nationality. For example, every American that participated in the experiments could be
assumed to have the same culture. In reality, culture is much more complicated than
nationality. These early experiments did not control for other factors, such as
socioeconomic status, education, ethnicity, and regional differences in culture. All of these
factors could have a big effect on the individual’s response.

A third criticism of Bessett’s experiment is that the content itself should have been more
abstract, such as a puzzle or an IQ test. With objective content, such as nature and animals,

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people from different countries of the world might have different pre-conceived ideas about
these animals. Prior knowledge based on geographic location would further complicate the
results. A test that is more abstract, or more quantitative, would provide a more controlled
study of how cognitive processing works for different groups of people.

The research on culture’s effect on cognitive processing still goes on today, and while some
criticisms exist of Bessett’s early studies, the projects still provide valuable insight. It is
important for future research projects to control carefully for the variables, such as culture.
Something like culture is complex and difficult to define. It can also be influenced by many
other variables, such as geography or education styles. When studying a variable like
culture, it is critical that the researcher create a clear definition for what is—and what is
not—considered culture.

Another important aspect of modern research is the ethical impact of the research. A
researcher must consider carefully whether the results of the research will negatively
impact any of the groups involved. In an increasingly globalised job economy,
generalisations made about nationalities can be harmful to prospective employees. This
information could also impact the way tests and university admissions standards are
designed, which would potentially favor one group or create a disadvantage for another.
When conducting any research about culture and nationality, researchers should consider
all possible effects, positive or negative, that their conclusions may have when published for
the world to see.

Questions 1-5
Reading Passage 1 has eleven paragraphs, A-K.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the correct letter, A-K, in boxes 1-5 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

1. All people have the same reaction to a certain point of view.


2. Qualitative descriptions are valuable in exploring thought processing.
3. Different cultures will affect the description of the same scene.
4. We thought of young people as widely different at different geographical locations.
5. Eastern people are less likely to stick to their argument.

Questions 6-9

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Look at the following statements (Questions 6-9) and the list of researchers below.

Match each statement with the correct researcher, A-C.

Write the correct letter, A-C, in boxes 6-9 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

A Bessett & Masuku

B Bessett & Choi

C Bessett & Ara

6. Geographical location affects people’s position on certain arguments.


7. Animated images reveal different process strategies.
8. Eastern people challenge a deduction because they knew it is not true.
9. Eastern people find more difficulty when asked to identify the same object.

Questions 10-13
Complete the sentences below.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer

Write your answers in boxes 10-13 on your answer sheet.

Researchers in the Soviet Union wanted to find out how 10_________ and nationality will
control the way people think.

Bessett and Ara’s experiment shows, for Americans, so long as the logic deduction is based
on a correct argument, the 11_________ should be right.

Fischer thinks Bessett’s research is quite valuable because it is conducted in a 12_________


way rather than in controlled environment.

Future researchers on culture’s effect on cognitive processing should start with a


13_________ of culture as a variable.

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READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based or Reading
Passage 2 below.

Eco-Resort Management Practices


Ecotourism is often regarded as a form of nature-based tourism and has become an
important alternative source of tourists. In addition to providing the traditional resort-
leisure product, it has been argued that ecotourism resort management should have a
particular focus on best-practice environmental management. an educational and
interpretive component, and direct anil indirect contributions to the conservation of
the natural and cultural environment (Ayala. I996).

Conran Cove Island Resort is a large integrated ecotourism-based resort located south of
Brisbane on the Gold Coast, Queensland. Australia. As the world’s population becomes
increasingly urbanised, the demand for tourist attractions which are environmentally
friendly, serene and offer amenities of a unique nature has grown rapidly. Couran Cove
Resort, which is one such tourist attractions, is located on South Stradbroke Island,
occupying approximately 150 hectares of the island. South Stradbroke Island is separated
from die mainland by the Broadwater, a stretch of sea .' kilometres wide. More than a
century ago. there was only one Stradbroke Island, and there were at least four Aboriginal
tribes living and limiting on the island. Regrettably, most of the original island dwellers were
eventually killed by diseases such as tuberculosis, smallpox and influenza by the end of the
19th century. The second ship wrecked on the island in 1894, and the subsequent
destruction of the ship (the Cambus Wallace) because it contained dynamite, caused a large
crater in the sandhills on Stradbroke Island. Eventually. the ocean bloke through the
weakened land form and Stradbroke became two islands. Conran Cove Island Resort is built
on one of the world’s lew naturally -occurring sand lands, which is home to a wide range of
plant communities and one of the largest remaining remnants of the rare livistona rainforest
left on the Gold Coast. Many mangrove and rainforest areas, and Malaleuca Wetlands on
South Stradbroke Island (and in Queensland), have been cleared, drained or filled for
residential, industrial, agricultural or urban development in the first half of the 20th century.
Farmers and graziers finally abandoned South Stradbroke Island in 1959 because the
vegetation and the soil conditions there were not suitable for agricultural activities.

SUSTAINABLE PRACTICES OF COUKAN COVE RESORT

Being located on an offshore island, the resort is only accessible by means of water
transport. The resort provides hourly ferry service from the marina on the mainland to and
from the island. Within the resort. transport modes include walking trails, bicycle tracks and
the beach train. The reception area is the counter of the shop which has not changed for 8

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years at least. The accommodation is an octagonal "Bure'’. These are large rooms that are
clean but the equipment is tiled and in some cases just working. Our ceiling fan only worked
on high speed for example. Beds are hard but clean. There is a television, a radio, an old air
conditioner and a small fridge. These "Bures" are right on top of each other and night noises
do carry. so he careful what you say and do. The only tiling is the mosquitoes, but if you
forget to bring mosquito repellant they sell some oil the island.

As an ecotourism-based resort most of the planning and development of the attraction lias
been concentrated on the need lo co-exist with the fragile natural environment of South
Stradbroke Island io achieve sustainable development.

WATER AND ENERGY MANAGEMENT

South Stradbroke Island has groundwater at the centre of the island, which has a maximum
height of 3 metres above sea level. The water supply is recharged by rainfall and is
commonly known as an unconfined freshwater aquifer. Couran Cove Island Resort obtains
its water supply by tapping into this aquifer and extracting it via a bore system. Some of the
problems which have threatened the island’s freshwater supply include pollution,
contamination and over-consumption. In order to minimise some of these problems, all
laundry activities are carried out on the mainland. The resort considers washing machines as
onerous to the island's freshwater supply, and that the detergents contain a high level of
phosphates which are a major source of water pollution. The resort uses LPG-power
generation rather than a diesel-powered plant for its energy supply, supplemented by wind
turbine, which has reduced greenhouse emissions by 70% of diesel-equivalent generation
methods. Excess heat recovered from the generator is used to heat the swimming pool. Hot
water in the eco-cabins and for some of the resort’s vehicles are solar-powered. Water
efficient fittings are also installed in showers and toilets. However, not all the appliances
used by the resort arc energy efficient, such as refrigera tors. Visitors who stay at the resort
are encouraged to monitor their water and energy usage via the in-house television
systems, and are rewarded with prizes (such as a free return trip to the resort) accordingly if
their usage level is low.

CONCLUDING REMARKS

We examined a case study of good management practice and a pro-active sustainable


tourism stance of an eco-resort. In three years of operation, Couran Cove Island Resort has
won 23 international and national awards, including the 2001 Australian Tourism Award in
the 4-Star Accommodation category. The resort has embraced and has effectively
implemented contem porary environmental management practices. It has been argued that
the successful implemen tation of the principles of sustainability should promote long-term
social, economic and envi ronmental benefits, while ensuring and enhancing the prospects
of continued viability for the tourism enterprise. Couran Cove Island Resort does not
conform to the characteristics of the Resort Development Spectrum, as proposed by

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Pridcaux (2000). According to Pridcaux. the resort should be at least at Phase 3 of the model
(the National tourism phase), which describes an integrated resort providing 3-4 star hotel-
type accommodation. The primary tourist market in Phase 3 of the model consists mainly of
interstate visitors. However, the number of interstate and international tourists visiting the
resort is small, with the principal visitor markets com prising locals and residents front
nearby towns and the Gold Coast region. The carrying capac ity of Couran Cove docs not
seem to be of any concern to the Resort management. Given that it is a private commercial
ecotourist enterprise, regulating the number of visitors to the resort to minimise damage
done to the natural environment on South Stradbrokc Island is not a binding constraint.
However, the Resort’s growth will eventually be constrained by its carrying capac ity, and
quantity control should be incorporated in the management strategy of the resort.

Questions 14-18
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write the correct letter in boxes 14-18 on your answer sheet.

14. The Stradbroke became two islands

A. by an intended destruction of the ship of the Cambus Wallace.


B. by an explosion of dynamite on a ship and following nature erosion.
C. by the movement sandhills on Stradbroke Island.
D. by the volcanic eruption on island.

15. Why are laundry activities for the resort carried out on the mainland?

A. to obtain its water supply via a bore system


B. to preserve the water and anti-pollution
C. to save the cost of installing onerous washing machines
D. to reduce the level of phosphates in water around

16. The major water supplier in South Stradbroke Island is by

A. desalining the sea water.


B. collecting the rainfall.
C. transporting from the mainland.
D. boring ground water.

17. What is applied for heating water on Couran Cove Island Resort?

A. the LPG-power
B. a diesel-powered plant
C. the wind power
D. the solar-power

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18. What does, as the managers of resorts believe, the prospective future focus on?

A. more awards for resort’s accommodation


B. sustainable administration and development in a long run
C. economic and environmental benefits for the tourism enterprise
D. successful implementation of the Resort Development Spectrum

Questions 19-23
Complete the summary below.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the Passage for each answer. Write your
answers in boxes 19-23 on your answer sheet.

Being located away from the mainland, tourists can attain the resort only by 19_________
in a regular service provided by the resort itself. Within the resort, transports include trails
for walking or tracks for both 20_________ and the beach train. The on-island equipment is
old-fashioned which is barely working such as the 21_________ overhead. There is
television, radio, an old 22_________ and a small fridge. And you can buy the repellent for
23_________ if you forget to bring some.

Questions 24-26
Choose THREE letters, A-E.

Write the correct letters in boxes 24-26 on your answer sheet.

Which THREE of the following statements are true as to the contemporary situation of
Couran Cove Island Resort in the last paragraph?

A. Couran Cove Island Resort goes for more eco-friendly practices.


B. The accommodation standard only conforms to the Resort Development Spectrum
of Phase 3.
C. Couran Cove Island Resort should raise the accommodation standard and build more
facilities.
D. The principal group visiting the resort is international tourists.
E. Its carrying capacity will restrict the future businesses’ expansion.

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READING PASSAGE 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based on Reading
Passage 3 below.

The future of the World's Language


Of the world’s 6,500 living languages, around half are expected to the out by the end of this
century, according to UNESCO. Just 11 are spoken by more than half of the earth’s
population, so it is little wonder that those used by only a few are being left behind as we
become a more homogenous, global society. In short, 95 percent of the world’s languages
are spoken by only five percent of its population—a remarkable level of linguistic diversity
stored in tiny pockets of speakers around the world. Mark Turin, a university professor, has
launched WOLP (World Oral Language Project) to prevent the language from the brink of
extinction.

He is trying to encourage indigenous communities to collaborate with anthropologists


around the world to record what he calls “oral literature” through video cameras, voice
recorders and other multimedia tools by awarding grants from a £30,000 pot that the
project has secured this year. The idea is to collate this literature in a digital archive that can
be accessed on demand and will make the nuts and bolts of lost cultures readily available.

For many of these communities, the oral tradition is at the heart of their culture. The stories
they tell are creative as well as communicative. Unlike the languages with celebrated
written traditions, such as Sanskrit, Hebrew and Ancient Greek, few indigenous
communities have recorded their own languages or ever had them recorded until now.

The project suggested itself when Turin was teaching in Nepal. He wanted to study for a PhD
in endangered languages and, while discussing it with his professor at Leiden University in
the Netherlands, was drawn to a map on his tutor’s wall. The map was full of pins of a
variety of colours which represented all the world’s languages that were completely
undocumented. At random, Turin chose a “pin” to document. It happened to belong to the
Thangmi tribe, an indigenous community in the hills east of Kathmandu, the capital of
Nepal. “Many of the choices anthropologists and linguists who work on these traditional
field-work projects are quite random,” he admits.

Continuing his work with the Thangmi community in the 1990s, Turin began to record the
language he was hearing, realising that not only was this language and its culture entirely
undocumented, it was known to few outside the tiny community. He set about trying to
record their language and myth of origins. “I wrote 1,000 pages of grammar in English that
nobody could use—but I realised that wasn’t enough. It wasn’t enough for me, it wasn’t
enough for them. It simply wasn’t going to work as something for the community. So

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then I produced this trilingual word list in Thangmi, Nepali and English.”

In short, it was the first ever publication of that language. That small dictionary is still sold in
local schools for a modest 20 rupees, and used as part of a wider cultural regeneration
process to educate children about their heritage and language. The task is no small
undertaking: Nepal itself is a country of massive ethnic and linguistic diversity, home to 100
languages from four different language families. What’s more, even fewer ethnic Thangmi
speak the Thangmi language. Many of the community members have taken to speaking
Nepali, the national language taught in schools and spread through the media, and
community elders are dying without passing on their knowledge.

Despite Turin’s enthusiasm for his subject, he is baffled by many linguists’ refusal to engage
in the issue he is working on. “Of the 6,500 languages spoken on Earth, many do not have
written traditions and many of these spoken forms are endangered,” he says. “There are
more linguists in universities around the world than there are spoken languages—but most
of them aren’t working on this issue. To me it’s amazing that in this day and age, we still
have an entirely incomplete image of the world’s linguistic diversity. People do PhDs on the
apostrophe in French, yet we still don’t know how many languages are spoken.”

“When a language becomes endangered, so too does a cultural world view. We want to
engage with indigenous people to document their myths and folklore, which can be harder
to find funding for if you are based outside Western universities.”

Yet, despite the struggles facing initiatives such as the World Oral Literature Project, there
are historical examples that point to the possibility that language restoration is no mere
academic pipe dream. The revival of a modern form of Hebrew in the 19th century is often
cited as one of the best proofs that languages long dead, belonging to small communities,
can be resurrected and embraced by a large number of people. By the 20th century, Hebrew
was well on its way to becoming the main language of the Jewish population of both
Ottoman and British Palestine. It is now spoken by more than seven million people in Israel.

Yet, despite the difficulties these communities face in saving their languages, Dr Turin
believes that the fate of the world’s endangered languages is not sealed, and globalisation is
not necessarily the nefarious perpetrator of evil it is often presented to be. “I call it the
globalisation paradox: on the one hand globalisation and rapid socio-economic change are
the things that are eroding and challenging diversity But on the other, globalisation is
providing us with new and very exciting tools and facilities to get to places to document
those things that globalisation is eroding. Also, the communities at the coal-face of change
are excited by what globalisation has to offer.”

In the meantime, the race is on to collect and protect as many of the languages as possible,
so that the Rai Shaman in eastern Nepal and those in the generations that follow him can
continue their traditions and have a sense of identity. And it certainly is a race: Turin knows

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his project’s limits and believes it inevitable that a large number of those languages will
disappear. “We have to be wholly realistic. A project like ours is in no position, and was not
designed, to keep languages alive. The only people who can help languages survive are the
people in those communities themselves. They need to be reminded that it’s good to speak
their own language and I think we can help them do that—becoming modem doesn’t mean
you have to lose your language.”

Questions 27-31
Complete the summary using the list of words, A-J, below.

Write the correct letter, A-J, in boxes 27-31 on your answer sheet.

Of the world’s 6,500 living languages, about half of them are expected to be extinct. Most of
the world’s languages are spoken by a 27_________ of people. However, Professor Turin set
up a project WOLP to prevent 28_________ of the languages. The project provides the
community with 29_________ to enable people to record their endangered languages. The
oral tradition has great cultural 30_________ . An important 31_________ between
languages spoken by few people and languages with celebrated written documents existed
in many communities.

A. similarity E. education I. majority


B. significance F. difference J. disappearance
C. funding G. education
D. minority H. diversity
Questions 32-35
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 3?

In boxes 32-35 on you answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

32. Turin argued that anthropologists and linguists usually think carefully before selecting an
area to research.

33. Turin concluded that the Thangmi language had few similarities with other languages.

34. Turin has written that 1000-page document was inappropriate for Thangmi community;

35. Some Nepalese schools lack resources to devote to language teaching.

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Questions 36-40
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write the correct letter in boxes 36-40 on your answer sheet.

36. Why does Turin say people do PhDs on the apostrophe in French?

A. He believes that researchers have limited role in the research of languages.


B. He compares the methods of research into languages.
C. He thinks research should result in a diverse cultural outlook.
D. He holds that research into French should focus on more general aspects.

37. What is discussed in the ninth paragraph?

A. Forces driving people to believe endangered languages can survive.


B. The community where people distrust language revival.
C. The methods of research that have improved language restoration.
D. Initiatives the World Oral Literature Project is bringing to Israel.

38. How is the WOLP’s prospect?

A. It would not raise enough funds to achieve its aims.


B. It will help keep languages alive.
C. It will be embraced by a large number of people.
D. It has chance to succeed to protect the engendered languages.

39. What is Turin’s main point of globalisation?

A. Globalisation is the main reason for endangered language.


B. Globalisation has both advantages and disadvantages.
C. We should have a more critical view of globalisation.
D. We should foremost protect our identity in face of globalisation.

40. What does Turin suggest that community people should do?

A. Learn other languages.


B. Only have a sense of identity.
C. Keep up with the modem society without losing their language.
D. Join the race to protect as many languages as possible but be realistic.

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TEST 6

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LISTENING
Questions 1-6
Which hotels have the following facilities?

Write the correct letter, A, B, C, or D next to questions 1-6.


A Royal Hotel

B Star Hotel

C Winchester Hotel

D All Three Hotels

Example: Online booking B

1. Sea view

2. Handicap accessibility

3. Multiple meal options

4. Private dining

5. Group discount

6. Children’s play area

Questions 7-10
Complete the sentences below.

Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.


The man needs to send his (7)____________ to the hotel.

He also needs to make (8)____________ immediately.

The hotel must be alerted in advance if guests will need help with (9)____________

There is no need to prepare (10)____________ for hotel drivers.

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Questions 11-16
Complete the form below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Durham County Car Show

Public grand opening date: (11) ___________


Number of viewers: (12) ___________
Off-peak day price: • £10 for adults

• £___________(13) for children

Best day to visit: (14) ___________

New car category: (15) ___________

Entertainment included: (16) ___________

Questions 17-20
When were the following features included in an auto show? Write the correct
letter,A , B, or C next to questions 17-20.
A last year

B this year

C both

17. Higher number of seats

18. Fun for children

19. 4x4 test drive

20. Lucky draw for car

Questions 21-23
Choose THREE letters, A-G.

Which THREE factors should the student consider while selecting courses?

A. class time
B. course topic

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C. amount of homework
D. ease of course
E. relevant to future career
F. course structure
G. professor reputation

Questions 24-27
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

24. The tutor recommends against taking Human Physiology because it would not be the
best

a. time management.
b. chance at earning an A.
c. topic for a research paper.

25. The student decides to do a dissertation because

a. he takes it to boost his GPA.


b. he likes to develop more supportive details.
c. he wants to conduct more interviews.

26. The student thought the research paper was

a. already completed.
b. worth finishing.
c. too complicated.

27. The method of data collection was

a. interviews
b. lab studies.
c. questionnaires

Questions 28-30
Complete the sentences below.

Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

First draft should be finished by the end of (28)_____________

Dissertation should be registered with the (29) _____________ in the Department Office.

The student can get the relevant database from the (30) _____________ Office.

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Questions 31-40
Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

The role of sleep in humans and animals

Importance of sleep in animals

• Compared to those without food, animals without sleep are more likely to suffer from

(31) _____________

• Sleep is necessary for all animals, whether they are reptiles, (32) _____________ or fish.

Differences in animals’ sleep and reasons for their ways of resting

♦ Dolphins

• swim to the surface when sleeping, because they need to3 3

♦ Birds

• are constantly (34) _____________ in the presence of numerous predators.

♦ Horses

• do most of their sleeping standing up.

• do occasionally take short naps lying down. Lying in one position for a long time could well
injure a horse, because their (35) _____________ are delicate.

Potential problems encountering

• Animals can also have (36) _____________ , the same as humans.

Importance of sleep in humans

• It helps us to organise our (37) _____________ of the day.

• It plays a key role in (38) _____________

* Because of the similar sleeping pattern to that in humans,(39) _____________ are studied
in order to increase our knowledge of human physiology.

• Scientists choose to study the (40) _____________ of the fruit fly in order to know the
function of the human gene and understand developmental processes in humans.

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READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on
Reading Passage 1 below.

THE TYRANNY OF CHOICE


A Americans today choose among more options in more parts of life than has ever
been possible before. To an extent, the opportunity to choose enhances our lives. It is only
logical to think that if some choices are good, more is better; people who care about having
infinite options will benefit from them, and those who do not can always just ignore the 273
versions of cereal they have never tried. Yet recent research strongly suggests that,
psychologically, this assumption is wrong, with 5% lower percentage announcing they are
happy. Although some choices are undoubtedly better than none, more is not always better
than less.

B Recent research offers insight into why many people end up unhappy rather than
pleased when their options expand. We began by making a distinction between
"maximizers” (those who always aim to make the best possible choice) and "satisficers”
(those who aim for "good enough,” whether or not better selections might be out there).

C In particular, we composed a set of statements— the Maximization Scale—to


diagnose people’s propensity to maximize. Then we had several thousand people rate
themselves from 1 to 7 (from “completely disagree” to "completely agree”) on such
statements as “I never settle for second best.” We also evaluated their sense of satisfaction
with their decisions. We did not define a sharp cutoff to separate maximizers from
satisficers, but in general, we think of individuals whose average scores are higher than 4
(the scale’s midpoint) as maxi- misers and those whose scores are lower than the midpoint
as satisficers. People who score highest on the test—the greatest maximizers—engage in
more product comparisons than the lowest scorers, both before and after they make
purchasing decisions, and they take longer to decide what to buy. When satisficers find an
item that meets their standards, they stop looking. But maximizers exert enormous effort
reading labels, checking out consumer magazines and trying new products. They also spend
more time comparing their purchas ing decisions with those of others.

D We found that the greatest maximizers are the least happy with the fruits of their
efforts. When they compare themselves with others, they get little pleasure from finding
out that they did better and substantial dissatisfaction from finding out that they did worse.
They are more prone to experiencing regret after a purchase, and if their acquisition
disappoints them, their sense of well-being takes longer to recover. They also tend to brood
or ruminate more than satisficers do.

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E Does it follow that maximizers are less happy in general than satisficers? We tested
this by having people fill out a variety of questionnaires known to be reliable indicators of
wellbeing. As might be expected, individuals with high maximization scores experienced less
satisfaction with life and were less happy, less optimistic and more depressed than people
with low maximization scores. Indeed, those with extreme maximization ratings had
depression scores that placed them in the borderline of clinical range.

F Several factors explain why more choice is not always better than less, especially for
maximisers. High among these are “opportunity costs.” The quality of any given option
cannot be assessed in isolation from its alternatives. One of the “costs” of making a
selection is losing the opportunities that a different option would have afforded. Thus, an
opportunity cost of vacationing on the beach in Cape Cod might be missing the fabulous
restaurants in the Napa Valley. Early Decision Making Research by Daniel Kahneman and
Amos Tversky showed that people respond much more strongly to losses than gains. If we
assume that opportunity costs reduce the overall desirability of the most preferred choice,
then the more alternatives there are, the deeper our sense of loss will be and the less
satisfaction we will derive from our ultimate decision.

G The problem of opportunity costs will be better for a satisficer. The latter’s “good
enough” philosophy can survive thoughts about opportunity costs. In addition, the “good
enough" standard leads to much less searching and inspection of alternatives than the
maximizer’s “best" standard. With fewer choices under consideration, a person will have
fewer opportu nity costs to subtract.

H Just as people feel sorrow about the opportunities they have forgone, they may also
suffer regret about the option they settled on. My colleagues and I devised a scale to
measure proneness to feeling regret, and we found that people with high sensitivity to
regret are less happy, less satisfied with life, less optimistic and more depressed than those
with low sensitivity. Not surprisingly, we also found that people with high regret sensitivity
tend to be maximizers. Indeed, we think that worry over future regret is a major reason that
individuals become maximizers. The only way to be sure you will not regret a decision is by
making the best possible one. Unfortunately, the more options you have and the more
opportunity costs you incur, the more likely you are to experience regret.

I In a classic demonstration of the power of sunk costs, people were offered season
subscriptions to a local theatre company. Some were offered the tickets at full price and
others at a discount. Then the researchers simply kept track of how often the ticket
purchasers actually attended the plays over the course of the season. Full-price payers were
more likely to show up at performances than discount payers. The reason for this, the
investigators argued, was that the full-price payers would experience more regret if they did
not use the tickets because not using the more costly tickets would constitute a bigger loss.
To increase sense of happiness, we can decide to restrict our options when the decision is

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not crucial. For example, make a rule to visit no more than two stores when shopping for
clothing.

Questions 1-4
Look at the following descriptions or deeds (Questions 1-4) and the list of catego ries below.

Match each description or deed with the correct category, A-D.

Write the correct letter, A-D, in boxes 1-4 on your answer sheet.

A maximizers

B satisficers

C neither “maximizers” nor “satisficers”

D both “maximizers” and “satisficers”

1. rated to the Maximization Scale of making choice

2. don’t take much time before making a decision

3. are likely to regret about the choice in the future

4. choose the highest price in the range of purchase

Questions 5-8
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1?

In boxes 5-8 on you answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

5. In today’s world, since the society is becoming wealthier, people are happier.

6. In society, there are more maximisers than satisficers.

7. People tend to react more to loses than gains.

8. Females and males acted differently in the study of choice making.

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Questions 9-13
Choose the correct letter. A, B, C or D.

Write the correct letter in boxes 9-13 on your answer sheet.

9. The Maximization Scale is aimed to

A. know the happiness when they have more choices.


B. measure how people are likely to feel after making choices.
C. help people make better choices.
D. reduce the time of purchasing.

10. According to the text, what is the result of more choices?

A. People can make choices more easily


B. Maximizers are happier to make choices.
C. Satisficers are quicker to make wise choices.
D. People have more tendency to experience regret.

11. The example of theatre ticket is to suggest that

A. they prefer to use more money when buying tickets.


B. they don’t like to spend more money on theatre.
C. higher-priced things would induce more regret if not used properly
D. full-price payers are real theatre lovers.

12. How to increase the happiness when making a better choice?

A. use less time


B. make more comparisons
C. buy more expensive products
D. limit the number of choices in certain situations

13. What is the best title for Reading Passage 1?

A. Reasoning of Worse Choice Making


B. Making Choices in Today’s World
C. The Influence of More Choices
D. Complexity in Choice Making

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READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26,which are based on
Reading Passage 2 on the following pages.

Implication of False Belief Experiments


A

A considerable amount of research since the mid 1980s has been concerned with what has
been termed children’s theory of mind. This involves children’s ability to understand that
people can have different beliefs and representations of the world– a capacity that is shown
by four years of age. Furthermore, this ability appears to be absent in children with autism.
The ability to work out that another person is thinking is clearly an important aspect of both
cognitive and social development. Furthermore, one important explanation for autism is
that children suffering from this condition do not have a theory of mind(TOM).
Consequently, the development of children’s TOM has attracted considerable attention.

Wimmer and Perner devised a ‘false belief task’ to address this question. They used some
toys to act out the following story. Maxi left some chocolate in a blue cupboard before he
went out. When he was away his mother moved the chocolate to a green cupboard.
Children were asked to predict where Maxi willlook for his chocolate when he returns. Most
children under four years gave the incorrect answer, that Maxi will look in the green
cupboard. Those over four years tended to give the correct answer, that Maxi will look in
the blue cupboard. The incorrect answers indicated that the younger children did not
understand that Maxi’s beliefs and representations no longer matched the actual state of
the world, and they failed to appreciate that Maxi will act on the basis of his beliefs rather
than the way that the world is actually organised.

A simpler version of the Maxi task was devised by Baron-Cohen to take account of criticisms
that younger children may have been affected by the complexity and too much information
of the story in the task described above. For example, the child is shown two dolls, Sally and
Anne, who have a basket and a box respectively. Sally also has a marble, which she places in
her basket and then leaves to take a walk. While she is out of the room, Anne takes the
marble from the basket, eventually putting it in the box. Sally returns and child is then asked
where Sally will look for the marble. The child passes the task if she answers that Sally will
look in the basket, where she put the marble; the child fails the task if she answers that Sally
will look in the box where the child knows the marble is hidden even though Sally cannot
know, since she did not see it hidden there. In order to pass the task, the child must be able

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to understand that another’s mental representation of the situation is different from their
own, and the child must be able to predict behavior based on that understanding. The
results of research using false-belief tasks have been fairly consistent: most normally-
developing children are unable to pass the tasks until around age four.

Leslie argues that, before 18 months, children treat the world in a literal way and rarely
demonstrate pretence. He also argues that it is necessary for the cognitive system to
distinguish between what is pretend and what is real. If children were not able to do this,
they would not be able to distinguish between imagination and reality. Leslie suggested that
this pretend play becomes possible because of the presence of a de-coupler that copies
primary representations to secondary representations. For example, children, when
pretending a banana is a telephone, would make a secondary representation of a banana.
They would manipulate this representation and they would use their stored knowledge of
‘telephone’ to build on this pretence.

There is also evidence that social processes play a part in the development of TOM. Meins
and her colleagues have found that what they term mind mindedness in maternal speech to
six-month old infants is related to both security of attachment and to TOM abilities. Mind
Mindedness involves speech that discusses infants’ feelings and explains their behaviour in
terms of mental stages(e.g_ ‘you1 re feeling hungry’)

Lewis investigated older children living in extended families in Crete and Cyprus. They found
that children who socially interact with more adults who have more friends. And who have
more older siblings tend to pass TOM tasks at a slightly earlier age than other children.
Furthermore, because young children are more likely to talk about their thoughts and
feelings with peers than with their mothers, peer interaction may provide a special impetus
to the development of a TOM. A similar point has been made by Dunn, who argues that
peer interaction is more likely to contain pretend play and that it is likely to be more
challenging because other children, unlike adults, do not make large adaptations to the
communicative needs of other children.

In addition, there has been concern that some aspects of the TOM approach underestimate
children’s understanding of other people. After all infants will point to objects apparently in
an effort to change a person’s direction of gaze and interest; they can interact quite
effectively with other people; they will express their ideas in opposition to the wishes of
others; and they will show empathy for the feeling of others. Schatz studied the

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spontaneous speech of three-year-olds and found that these children used mental terms
and used them in circumstances where there was a contrast between, for example, not
being sure where an object was located and finding it, or between pretending and reality.
Thus the social abilities of children indicate that they are aware of the difference between
mental states and external reality at ages younger than four.

A different explanation has been put forward by Harris. He proposed that children use
‘simulation’. This involves putting yourself in the other person’s position, and then trying to
predict what the other person would do. Thus success on false belief tasks can be explained
by children trying to imagine what they would do if they were a character in the stories,
rather than children being able to appreciate the beliefs of other people. Such thinking
about situations that do not exist involves what is termed counterfactual reasoning.

A different explanation has been put forward by Harris. He proposed that children use
"simula tion”. This involves putting yourself in the other person’s position, and then trying
to predict what the other person would do. Thus, success on false belief tasks can be
explained by children trying to imagine what they would do if they were a character in the
stories, rather than children being able to appreciate the beliefs of other people. Such
thinking about situations that do not exist involves what is termed counterfactual reasoning.

Questions 14-20
Look at the following statements (Questions 14-20) and the list of researchers below.

Match each statement with the correct researcher, A-G.

Write the correct letter. A-G. in boxes 14-20 on your answer sheet.

List of Researchers

A Baron-Cohen

B Meins

C Wimmer and Pemer

D Lewis E Dunn F Schatz G Harris

E Dunn

F Schatz

G Harris

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14. gave an alternative explanation that children may not be understanding other’s belief

15. found that children under certain age can tell difference between reality and mentality

16. conducted a well-known experiment and drew conclusion that young children were
unable to comprehend the real state of the world

17. found that children who get along with adults often comparatively got through the test
more easily

18. revised an easier experiment to rule out the possibility that children might be influenced
by sophisticated reasoning

19. related social factor such as mother-child communication to capability act in TOM

20. explained children are less likely to tell something interactive to their mother than to
their friends

Questions 21-26
Complete the summary below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 21-26 on your answer sheet.

In 1980s, research studies were designed to test the subject called Theory of Mind that if
children have the ability to represent the reality. First experiments were carried out on this
subject on a boy. And questions had been made on where the boy can find the location of
the (21)______________ . But it was accused that it had excessive (22) ______________ . So
second modified experiment was conducted involving two dolls, and most children passed
the test at the age of (23) ______________ . Then Lewis and Dunn researched (24)
______________ children in a certain place, and found children who have more interaction
such as more con versation with (25) ______________ have better performance in the test,
and peer interaction is (26) ______________ because of consisting pretending elements.

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READING PASSAGE 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based on
Reading Passage 3 below.

What is Meaning
—Why do we respond to words and symbols in the waves we do?

The end, product of education, yours and mine and everybody's, is the total pattern of
reactions and possible reactions we have inside ourselves. If you did not have within you at
this moment the pattern of reactions that we call "the ability to read.” you would see here
only meaningless black marks on paper. Because of the trained patterns of response, you
are (or are not) stirred to patriotism by martial music, your feelings of reverence are
aroused by symbols of your religion, you listen more respectfully to the health advice of
someone who has “MD" after his name than to that of someone who hasn’t. What I call
here a “pattern of reactions”, then, is the sum total of the ways we act in response to
events, to words, and to symbols.

Our reaction patterns or our semantic habits, are the internal and most important residue of
whatever years of education or miseducation we may have received from our parents’
conduct toward us in childhood as well as their teachings, from the formal education we
may have had, from all the lectures we have listened to, from the radio programs and the
movies and television shows we have experienced, from all the books and newspapers and
comic strips we have read, from the conversations we have had with friends and associates,
and from all our experiences. If, as the result of all these influences that make us what we
are, our semantic habits are reasonably similar to those of most people around us, we are
regarded as "normal,” or perhaps “dull.” If our semantic habits are noticeably different from
those of others, we are regarded as “individualistic" or “original.” or, if the differences are
disapproved of or viewed with alarm, as “crazy.”

Semantics is sometimes defined in dictionaries as “the science of the meaning of words”—


which would not be a bad definition if people didn’t assume that the search for the
meanings of words begins and ends with looking them up in a dictionary. If one stops to
think for a moment, it is clear that to define a word, as a dictionary does, is simply to explain
the word with more words. To be thorough about defining, we should next have to define
the words used in the definition, then define the words used in defining the words used in
the definition and so on. Defining words with more words, in short, gets us at once into
what mathematicians call an “infinite regress”. Alternatively, it can get us into the kind of
run-around we sometimes encounter when we look up “impertinence” and find it defined
as “impudence," so we look up “impudence” and find it defined as “impertinence." Yet—
and here we come to another common reaction pattern—people often act as if words can

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be explained fully with more words. To a person who asked for a definition of jazz, Louis
Armstrong is said to have replied, "Man. when you got to ask what it is, you’ll never get to
know,” proving himself to be an intuitive semanticist as well as a great trumpet player.

Semantics, then, does not deal with the “meaning of words” as that expression is commonly
understood. P. W. Bridgman, the Nobel Prize winner and physicist, once wrote, “The true
meaning of a term is to be found by observing what a man does with it, not by what he says
about it.” He made an enormous contribution to science by showing that the meaning of a
scientific term lies in the operations, the things done, that establish its validity, rather than
in verbal definitions.

Here is a simple, everyday kind of example of “operational” definition. If you say, “This table
measures six feet in length,” you could prove it by taking a foot rule, performing the
operation of laying it end to end while counting, “One...two...three...four...” But if you say—
and revolutionists have started uprisings with just this statement “Man is born free, but
everywhere he is in chains!”—what operations could you perform to demonstrate its
accuracy or inaccuracy?

But let us carry this suggestion of “operationalism" outside the physical sciences where
Bridgman applied it, and observe what “operations” people perform as the result of both
the language they use and the language other people use in communicating to them. Here is
a personnel manager studying an application blank. He comes to the words “Education:
Harvard University,” and drops the application blank in the wastebasket (that’s the
“operation”) because, as he would say if you asked him, “I don’t like Harvard men.” This is
an instance of "meaning” at work—but it is not a meaning that can be found in dictionaries.

If I seem to be taking a long time to explain what semantics is about, it is because I am


trying, in the course of explanation, to introduce the reader to a certain way of looking at
human behavior. I say human responses because, so far as we know, human beings are the
only creatures that have, over and above that biological equipment which we have in
common with other creatures, the additional capacity for manufacturing symbols and
systems of symbols. When we react to a flag, we are not reacting simply to a piece of cloth,
but to the meaning with which it has been symbolically endowed. When we react to a word,
we are not reacting to a set of sounds, but to the meaning with which that set of sounds has
been symbolically endowed.

A basic idea in general semantics, therefore, is that the meaning of words (or other symbols)
is not in the words, but in our own semantic reactions. If I were to tell a shockingly obscene
story in Arabic or Hindustani or Swahili before an audience that understood only English, no
one would blush or be angry; the story would be neither shocking nor obscene-induced, it
would not even be a story. Likewise, the value of a dollar bill is not in the bill, but in our
social agreement to accept it as a symbol of value. If that agreement were to break down
through the collapse of our government, the dollar bill would become only a scrap of paper.

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We do not understand a dollar bill by staring at it long and hard. We understand it by


observing how people act with respect to it. We understand it by understanding the social
mechanisms and the loyalties that keep it meaningful. Semantics is therefore a social study,
basic to all other social studies.

Questions 27-31
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write the correct letter in boxes 27-31 on your answer sheet.

27. What point is made in the first paragraph?

A. The aim of education is to teach people to read


B. Everybody has a different pattern of reactions.
C. Print only carries meaning to those who have received appropriate ways to respond.
D. The writers should make sure their works satisfy a variety of readers.

28. According to the second paragraph, people are judged by

A. the level of education.


B. the variety of experience.
C. how conventional their responses are.
D. complex situations.

29. What point is made in the third paragraph?

A. Standard ways are incapable of defining words precisely.


B. A dictionary is most scientific in defining words.
C. A dictionary should define words in as few words as possible.
D. Mathematicians could define words accurately.

30. What does the writer suggest by referring to Louis Armstrong?

A. He is an expert of language.
B. Music and language are similar.
C. He provides insights to how words are defined.
D. Playing trumpet is easier than defining words.

31. What does the writer intend to show about the example of “personnel manager”?

A. Harvard men are not necessarily competitive in the job market.


B. Meaning cannot always be shared by others.
C. The idea of operationalism does not make much sense outside the physical science.
D. Job applicants should take care when filling out application forms.

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Questions 32-35
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 3?

In boxes 32-35 on you answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

32. Some statements are incapable of being proved or disproved.

33. Meaning that is personal to individuals is less worthy to study than shared meanings.

34. Flags and words are eliciting responses of the same reason.

35. A story can be entertaining without being understood.

Questions 36-40
Complete each sentence with the correct ending, A-H, below.

Write the correct letter, A-H, in boxes 36-40 on your answer sheet.

36. A comic strip

37. A dictionary

38. Bridgman

39. A story in a language the audience cannot understand

40. A dollar bill

A. is meaningless.
B. has lasting effects on human behaviors.
C. is a symbol that has lost its meaning.
D. can be understood only in its social context.
E. can provide inadequate explanation of meaning.
F. reflects the variability of human behaviors.
G. emphasizes the importance of analyzing how words were used.
H. suggests that certain types of behaviors carry more meanings than others.

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TEST 7

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LISTENING
SECTION 1: Questions 1-10
Complete the notes below.

Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Revision Note
Example

• Problem with: the brochure sample

• Company name: (1)____________Hotel Chains

• Letters of the (2) ____________should be bigger.

• The information of the (3) ____________should be removed.

• Change the description under the top photo to (4) ____________

• Use the picture with the (5)____________of the hotel.

• The (6) ____________should be in red print.

• Translate into (7) ____________

• Deadline: by the end of (8) ____________

• Address: No. 9 Green Drive, (9) ____________, NY21300

• Telephone number: (10) ____________

SECTION 2 : QUESTIONS 11-20


Questions 11-16
Choose the correct letter. A, B or C.

11. The most famous view in this park is

A. the largest waterfall worldwide


B. the longest river in the world
C. the biggest sub-tropical rainforest in the world

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12. According to the tour guide, what is best to do on top of the mountain?

A. having a picnic
B. taking photos
C. strolling about

13. What did the tour guide recommend for more experienced walkers?

A. the mountain trail


B. the Bush Traack
C. the Creek Circuit

14. What is mentioned about the transport in the park?

A. Bicycles can be hired


B. Trams are available for tourists
C. It is included in the bill

15. Which activity is provided for adults all year round?

A. abseiling
B. bungee jumping
C. paragliding

16. What should the visitors do before they go to the restaurant?

A. make bookings
B. inquire about availability
C. collect meal ticket at the reception

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Questions 17-20
Label the plan below.

Write the correct letter, A-I, next to Questions 17-20.

17. Campsite

18. Business Centre

19. Museum

20. Cafe

SECTION 3 : QUESTIONS 21-30


Questions 21-24
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

21. How old are the students on the nursing program?

A. They are teenagers


B. They are in their twenties
C. They belong to different age groups

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22. What do the speakers say about the group project?

A. It helps to improve relationship among different classmates


B. It helps to develop problem solving skills
C. It provides supportive learning environment

23. Which part of the program surprised Paul?

A. There's a number of essays to write


B. There's a lot of practical work
C. There's internship provided

24. What do they feel about learning law?

A. It's essential traning


B. It is too theoretical
C. It takes up too much time

Questions 25-30
What are the suggestions offered by the speakers?

Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-H, next to Questions 25-30.

A get feedback from teaching staff

B do more reading

C get help from school supporting staff

D get help for nursing problems

E manage time properly

F be well prepared

G review the notes regularly

H don’t set unrealistic goals

25. Essays 29. Placement tests

26. Lectures 30. Freshmen

27. Research

28. Online forum

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SECTION 4 : QUESTIONS 31-40


Questions 31-40
Complete the notes below.

Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

Penguins in Africa
Appearance and lifestyle
They are also called Jackass Penguins for the sound they make.

The (31)_____________ of their body remains constant.

They restrict their (32) _____________on land from dusk till dawn.

They cannot fly because they have heavy (33) _____________

They nest under (34) _____________

They eat tree (35) _____________

Predators
• seals

• (36) _____________

• seagulls (eat the penguin (37) _____________)

Threats

They lose (38) _____________in winter.

They are fighting for nesting (39) _____________and food because of human activities

In order to improve survivorship, it is helpful to increase the (40) _____________of their


genes.

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READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based
on Reading Passage 1 below.

Ancient Chinese Chariots


A The Shang Dynasty or Yin Dynasty, according to traditional historiography, ruled in the
Yellow River valley in the second millennium. Archaeological work at the Ruins of Yin (near
modern-day Anyang), which has been identified as the last Shang capital, uncovered eleven
major Yin royal tombs and the foundations of palaces and ritual sites, containing weapons of
war and remains from both animal and human sacrifices.

B The Tomb of Fu Hao is an archaeological site at Yinxu, the ruins of the ancient Shang
Dynasty capital Yin, within the modem city of Anyang in Henan Province, China. Discovered
in 1976,it was identified as the final resting place of the queen and military general Fu
Hao. The artifacts unearthed within the grave included jade objects, bone objects, bronze
objects etc. These grave goods are confirmed by the oracle texts, which constitute almost all
of the first hand written record we possess of the Shang Dynasty. Below the corpse was a
small pit holding the remains of six sacrificial dogs and along the edge lay the skeletons of
human slaves, evidence of human sacrifice.

C The Terracotta Army was discovered on 29 March 1974 to the east of Xian in Shaanxi. The
terracotta soldiers were accidentally discovered when a group of local farmers was digging a
well during a drought around 1.6 km (1 mile) east of the Qin Emperors tomb around at
Mount Li (Lishan), a region riddled with underground springs and watercourses. Experts
currently place the entire number of soldiers at 8,000 — with 130 chariots (130 cm long),
530 horses and 150 cavalry horses helping to ward of any dangers in the afterlife. In
contrast, the burial of Tutank Hamun yielded six complete but dismantled chariots of

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unparalleled richness and sophistication. Each was designed for two people (90 cm long)
and had its axle sawn through to enable it to be brought along the narrow corridor into the
tomb.

D Excavation of ancient Chinese chariots has confirmed the descriptions of them in the
earliest texts. Wheels were constructed from a variety of woods: elm provided the hub,
rose-wood the spokes and oak the felloes. The hub was drilled through to form an empty
space into which the tampering axle was fitted, the whole being covered with leather to
retain lubricating oil. Though the number of spokes varied, a wheel by the fourth century BC
usually had eighteen to thirty-two of them. Records show how elaborate was the testing of
each completed wheel: flotation and weighing were regarded as the best measures of
balance, but even the empty spaces in the assembly were checked with millet grains. One
outstanding constructional asset of the ancient Chinese wheel was dishing. Dishing refers to
the dish-like shape of an advanced wooden wheel, which looks rather like a flat cone. On
occasion they chose to strengthen a dished wheel with a pair of struts running from rim to
rim on each of the hub. As these extra supports were inserted separately into the felloes,
they would have added even greater strength to the wheel. Leather wrapped up the edge of
the wheel aimed to retain bronze.

E Within a millennium, however, Chinese chariot-makers had developed a vehicle with


shafts, the precursor of the true carriage or cart. This design did not make its appearance in
Europe until the end of the Roman Empire. Because the shafts curved upwards, and the
harness pressed against a horse’s shoulders, not his neck, the shaft chariot was incredibly
efficient. The halberd was also part of chariot standard weaponry. This halberd usually
measured well over 3 metres in length, which meant that a chariot warrior wielding it
sideways could strike down the charioteer in a passing chariot. The speed of chariot which
was tested on the sand was quite fast. At speed these passes were very dangerous for the
crews of both chariots.

F The advantages offered by the new chariots were not entirely missed. They could see how
there were literally the warring states, whose conflicts lasted down the Qin unification of
China. Qin Shi Huang was buried in the most opulent tomb complex ever constructed in
China, a sprawling, city-size collection of underground caverns containing everything the
emperor would need for the afterlife. Even a collection of terracotta armies called Terra-
Cotta Warriors was buried in it. The ancient Chinese, along with many cultures including
ancient Egyptians, believed that items and even people buried with a person could be taken
with him to the afterlife.

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SECTION 1: QUESTION 1-13


Questions 1-4
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1?
In boxes 1-4 on you answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

1. When discovered, the written records of the grave goods proved to be accurate.

2. Human skeletons in Anyang tomb were identified as soldiers who were killed in the war.

3. The Terracotta Army was discovered by people lived who lived nearby, by chance.

4. The size of the King Tutankhamen’s tomb is bigger than that of in Qin Emperors’ tomb.

Questions 5-10
Complete the notes below.

Choose ONE WORD from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 5-10 on your answer sheet.

The hub is made of wood from the tree of (5)___________

The room through the hub was to put tempering axle in which is wrapped up by leather
aiming to retain (6)___________

The number of spokes varied from 18 to (7)___________

The shape of wheel resembles a (8)___________

Two (9)___________was used to strengthen the wheel

Leather wrapped up the edge of the wheel aimed to remain (10)___________

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Questions 11-13
Answer the questions below.

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER from the passage for each
answer.

What body part of horse was released the pressure from to the shoulder?

(11)____________________________________________________________

What kind road surface did the researchers measure the speed of the chariot?

(12)____________________________________________________________

What part of his afterlife palace was the Emperor Qin Shi Huang buried in?

(13)____________________________________________________________

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READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-27, which are based on
Reading Passage 2 below.

Saving the British Bitterns


A. Breeding bitterns became extinct in the UK by 1886 but, following re-colonisation early
last century, numbers rose to a peak of about 70 booming (singing) males in the 1950s,
falling to fewer than 20 by the 1990s. In the late 1980s it was clear that the bittern was in
trouble, but there was little information on which to base recovery actions.

B. Bitterns have cryptic plumage and a shy nature, usually remaining hidden within the
cover of reed bed vegetation. Our first challenge was to develop standard methods to
monitor their numbers. The boom of the male bittern is its most distinctive feature during
the breeding season, and we developed a method to count them using the sound patterns
unique to each individual. This not only allows us to be much more certain of the number of
booming males in the UK, but also enables us to estimate local survival of males from one
year to the next

C. Our first direct understanding of the habitat needs of breeding bitterns came from
comparisons of reed bed sites that had lost their booming birds with those that retained
them. This research showed that bitterns had been retained in reed beds where the natural
process of succession, or drying out, had been slowed through management. Based on this
work, broad recommendations on how to manage and rehabilitate reed beds for bitterns
were made, and funding was provided through the EU LIFE Fund to manage 13 sites within

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the core breeding range. This project, though led by the RSPB, involved many other
organisations.

D. To refine these recommendations and provide fine-scale, quantitative habitat


prescriptions on the bitterns preferred feeding habitat, we radio-tracked male bitterns on
the RSPB’s Minsmere and Leighton Moss reserves. This showed clear preferences for
feeding in the wetter reed bed margins, particularly within the reed bed next to larger open
pools. The average home range sizes of the male bitterns we followed (about 20 hectares)
provided a good indication of the area of reed bed needed when managing or creating
habitat for this species. Female bitterns undertake all the incubation and care of the young,
so it was important to understand their needs as well. Over the course of our research, we
located 87 bittern nests and found that female bitterns preferred to nest in areas of
continuous vegetation, well into the reed bed, but where water was still present during the
driest part of the breeding season.

E. The success of the habitat prescriptions developed from this research has been
spectacular. For instance, at Minsmere, booming bittern numbers gradually increased from
one to 10 following reed bed lowering, a management technique designed to halt the drying
out process. After a low point of 11 booming males in 1997, bittern numbers in Britain
responded to all the habitat management work and started to increase for the first time
since the 1950s.

F The final phase of research involved understanding the diet, survival and dispersal of
bittern chicks. To do this we fitted small radio tags to young bittern chicks in the nest, to
determine their fate through to fledging and beyond. Many chicks did not survive to
fledging and starvation was found to be the most likely reason for their demise. The fish
prey fed to chicks was dominated by those species penetrating into the reed edge. So, an
important element of recent studies (including a PhD with the University of Hull) has been
the development of recommendations on habitat and water conditions to promote healthy
native fish populations

G. Once independent, radio-tagged young bitterns were found to seek out new sites during
their first winter; a proportion of these would remain on new sites to breed if the conditions
were suitable. A second EU LIFE funded project aims to provide these suitable sites in new
areas. A network of 19 sites developed through this partnership project will secure a more
sustainable UK bittern population with successful breeding outside of the core area, less
vulnerable to chance events and sea level rise.

H. By 2004, the number of booming male bitterns in the UK had increased to 55, with
almost all of the increase being on those sites undertaking management based on advice
derived from our research. Although science has been at the core of the bittern story,
success has only been achieved through the trust, hard work and dedication of all the
managers, owners and wardens of sites that have implemented, in some cases very drastic,

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management to secure the future of this wetland species in the UK. The constructed bunds
and five major sluices now control the water level over 82 ha, with a further 50 ha coming
under control in the winter of 2005/06. Reed establishment has principally used natural
regeneration or planted seedlings to provide small core areas that will in time expand to
create a bigger reed area. To date nearly 275,000 seedlings have been planted and reed
cover is extensive. Over 3 km of new ditches have been formed, 3.7 km of existing ditch
have been re-profiled and 2.2 km of old meander (former estuarine features) has been
cleaned out.

I. Bitterns now regularly winter on the site some indication that they are staying longer into
the spring. No breeding has yet occurred but a booming male was present in the spring of
2004. A range of wildfowl breed, as well as a good number of reed bed passerines including
reed bunting, reed, sedge and grasshopper warblers. Numbers of wintering shoveler have
increased so that the site now holds a UK important wintering population. Malltraeth
Reserve now forms part of the UK network of key sites for water vole (a UK priority species)
and 12 monitoring transects has been established. Otter and brown-hare occur on the site
as does the rare plant. Pillwort.

SECTION 2: QUESTION 14-27


Questions 14-20
The reading passage has seven paragraphs, A-H.
Choose the correct heading for paragraphs A-H from the list below.
Write the correct number, i-ix, in boxes 14-20 on your answer sheet.
List of Headings

i research findings into habitats and decisions made

ii fluctuation in bittern number

iii protect the young bittern

iv international cooperation works

v Began in calculation of the number

vi importance of food

vii Research has been successful.

viii research into the reedbed

ix reserve established holding bittern in winter

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14. Paragraph A 17. Paragraph D 20. Paragraph H

15. Paragraph B 18. Paragraph F

16. Paragraph C 19. Paragraph G

Example: Paragraph E: vii

Questions 21-26
Answer the questions below. Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A
NUMBER from the passage for each answer.

When did the birth of bitten reach its peak of number?

(21)____________________________________________________________

What does the author describe the bittern’s character?

(22)____________________________________________________________

What is the main cause for the chick bittern’s death?

(23)____________________________________________________________

What is the main food for chick bittern?

(24)____________________________________________________________

What system does it secure the stability for bittern’s population?

(25)____________________________________________________________

Besides bittern and rare vegetation, what mammals does the plan benefit?

(26)____________________________________________________________

Questions 27
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write your answers in box 27 on your answer sheet.

27. What is the main purpose of this passage?

A. Main characteristic of a bird called bittern.


B. Cooperation can protect an endangered species.
C. The difficulty of access information of bittern’s habitat and diet.
D. To save wetland and reedbed in UK.

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READING PASSAGE 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 28-40, which are based on
Reading Passage 3 below.

E-training
A. E-learning is the unifying term to describe the fields of online learning, web-based
training, and technology-delivered instruction, which can be a great benefit to corporate e-
learning. IBM, for instance, claims that the institution of its e-training program, Basic Blue,
whose purpose is to train new managers, saved the company in the range of $200 million in
1999. Cutting the travel expenses required to bring employees and instructors to a central
classroom accounts for the lion’s share of the savings. With an online course, employees can
learn from any Internet-connected PC, anywhere in the world. Ernst and Young reduced
training costs by 35 percent while improving consistency and scalability.

B. In addition to generally positive economic benefits, other advantages such as


convenience, standardized delivery, self-paced learning, and variety of available content
have made e-learning a high priority for many corporations. E-learning is widely believed to
offer flexible “any time, any place” learning. The claim for “any place” is valid in principle
and is a great development. Many people can engage with rich learning materials that
simply were not possible in a paper or broadcast distance learning era. For teaching specific
information and skills, e-training holds great promise. It can be especially effective at
helping employees prepare for IT certification programs. E-learning also seems to effectively
address topics such as sexual harassment education,5 safety training and management
training — all areas where a clear set of objectives can be identified. Ultimately, training
experts recommend a “blended” approach that combines both online and in-person training

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as the instruction requires. E-learning is not an end-all solution. But if it helps decrease costs
and windowless classrooms filled with snoring students, it definitely has its advantages.

C. Much of the discussion about implementing e-learning has focused on the technology,
but as Driscoll and others have reminded us, e-learning is not just about the technology, but
also many human factors. As any capable manager knows, teaching employees new skills is
critical to a smoothly run business. Having said that, however, the traditional route of
classroom instruction runs the risk of being expensive, slow and, often times, ineffective.
Perhaps the classroom’s greatest disadvantage is the fact that it takes employees out of
their jobs. Every minute an employee is sitting in a classroom training session is a minute
they’re not out on the floor working. It now looks as if there is a way to circumvent these
traditional training drawbacks. E-training promises more effective teaching techniques by
integrating audio, video, animation, text and interactive materials with the intent of
teaching each student at his or her own pace. In addition to higher performance results,
there are other immediate benefits to students such as increased time on task, higher levels
of motivation, and reduced test anxiety for many learners. A California State University
Northridge study reported that e-learners performed 20 percent better than traditional
learners. Nelson reported a significant difference between the mean grades of 406
university students earned in traditional and distance education classes, where the distance
learners outperformed the traditional learners.

D. On the other hand, nobody said E-training technology would be cheap. E-training service
providers, on the average, charge from $10,000 to $60,000 to develop one hour of online
instruction. This price varies depending on the complexity of the training topic and the
media used. HTML pages are a little cheaper to develop while streaming-video
(presentations or flash animations cost more. Course content is just the starting place for
cost. A complete e-learning solution also includes the technology platform (the computers,
applications and network connections that are used to deliver the courses). This technology
platform, known as a learning management system (LMS), can either be installed on site or
outsourced. Add to that cost the necessary investments in network bandwidth to deliver
multimedia courses, and you’re left holding one heck of a bill. For the LMS infrastructure
and a dozen or so online courses, costs can top $500,000 in the first year. These kinds of
costs mean that custom e-training is, for the time being, an option only for large
organizations. For those companies that have a large enough staff, the e-training concept
pays for itself. Aware of this fact, large companies are investing heavily in online training.
Today, over half of the 400-plus courses that Rockwell Collins offers are delivered instantly
to its clients in an e-learning format, a change that has reduced its annual (training costs by
40%. Many other success stories exist.

E. E-learning isn't expected to replace the classroom entirely. For one thing, bandwidth
limitations are still an issue in presenting multimedia over the Internet. Furthermore, e-
training isn,t suited to every mode of instruction or topic. For instance, it’s rather ineffective

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imparting cultural values or building teams. If your company has a unique corporate culture
it would be difficult to convey that to first time employees through a computer monitor.
Group training sessions are more ideal for these purposes. In addition, there is a perceived
loss of research time because of the work involved in developing and teaching online
classes. Professor Wallin estimated that it required between 500 and 1,000 person-hours,
that is, Wallin-hours, to keep the course at the appropriate level of currency and usefulness.
(Distance learning instructors often need technical skills, no matter how advanced the
courseware system.) That amounts to between a quarter and half of a person-year. Finally,
teaching materials require computer literacy and access to equipment. Any e-Learning
system involves basic equipment and a minimum level of computer knowledge in order to
perform the tasks required by the system. A student that does not possess these skills, or
have access to these tools, cannot succeed in an e-Learning program.

F. While few people debate the obvious advantages of e-learning, systematic research is
needed to confirm that learners are actually acquiring and using the skills that are being
taught online, and that e-learning is the best way to achieve the outcomes in a corporate
environment. Nowadays, a go-between style of the Blended learning, which refers to a
mixing of different learning environments, is gaining popularity. It combines traditional face-
to-face classroom methods with more modem computer-mediated activities. According to
its proponents, the strategy creates a more integrated approach for both instructors and
learners. Formerly, technology-based materials played a supporting role to face-to-face
instruction. Through a blended learning approach, technology will be more important.

SECTION 3: QUESTION 28-40


Questions 28-33
The reading passage has seven paragraph,A-F

Choose the correct heading for paragraphs A-F from the list below.

Write the correct number, i-xi in boxes 28-33 on your answer sheet.

List of Headings

i overview of the benefits for the application of E-training

ii IBM’s successful choice of training

iii Future direction and a new style of teaching

iv learners achievement and advanced teaching materials

v limitations when E-training compares with traditional class

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vi multimedia over the Internet can be a solution

vii technology can be a huge financial burden

viii the distance learners outperformed the traditional university learners in


worldwide

ix other advantages besides economic consideration

x Training offered to help people learn using computer

28. Paragraph A 31. Paragraph D

29. Paragraph B 32. Paragraph E

30. Paragraph C 33. Paragraph F

Questions 34-37
The reading Passage has seven paragraphs A-F.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the correct letter A-F, in boxes 35-37 on your answer sheet.

34. Projected Basic Blue in IBM achieved a great success.

35. E-learning wins as a priority for many corporations as its flexibility.

36. The combination of the traditional and e-training environments may prevail.

37. Example of a fast electronic delivery for a company’s products to its customers.

Questions 38-40
Choose THREE correct letters, among A-E.

Write your answers in boxes 38-40 on your answer sheet.

A. Technical facilities are hardly obtained.


B. Presenting multimedia over the Internet is restricted due to the bandwidth limit.
C. It is ineffective imparting a unique corporate value to fresh employees.
D. Employees need block a long time leaving their position attending training.
E. More preparation time is needed to keep the course at the suitable level.

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TEST 8

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LISTENING
Questions 1-3
Choose the correct letter, A. B or C.

Example

How long has Emma been taking drama course?

A. from June till now

B. almost one term

C. one month <- Correct Answer

1. The teacher praised student Emma for

A. her good performance in public show.


B. setting a good example for others.
C. settling in quickly

2. Why has the timetable for drama class changed?

A. Because of falling enrollment.


B. Because the class size is too big.
C. Because of the availability of music room.

3. What is the new time for the drama class?

A. 3.15 pm
B. 4.15 pm
C. 4.45 pm

Questions 4-6
Write the correct letter, A-E, next to Questions 4-6.

A The course is full. C She has another E The class is too


activity at that time. late.
B The course fee is
too expensive. D She has another
activity that evening.

Courses
4. Dance Class 5. Singing Class 6. Vocal Class

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Questions 7-10
Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Information on Music Class


The class teaches children to play instruments and how to (7)____________

Cost of the course: $(8)____________

Date Emma starts the course: (9) ____________

Teacher: Jamal (10) ____________

Questions 11-15
Choose the correct letter. A, B or C.

11. Why does the speaker recommend the Sky Hotel?

A. Because it is quite comfortable.


B. Because it provides ski and snowboard equipment rentals.
C. Because it has health and sports club.

12. What is new in this year’s exhibition?

A. photos of top ski resorts worldwide


B. ski equipment
C. computer simulation

13. How do people enter the skiing and snowboarding competition?

A. They can send emails to the committee.


B. They can fill out the back of the entrance ticket.
C. They can check out the exhibition newsletter

14. What did the media focus on this year?

A. not enough snow


B. reduction in fee
C. the decline of participants

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15. Why does the speaker recommend the ski program?

A. The instructors are quite friendly and patient.


B. It includes lessons and sessions that suit only beginners
C. It provides special offers at the moment.

Questions 16-20
Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-F, next to Questions 16-20.

A exploring new destinations

B how to make the skiing boots comfortable

C how to become a ski instructor

D how to combine other activities with skiing

E how to improve the skills of skiing

F information about skiing safety

Presentation
16. Simon’s talk

17. Solution

18. Film

19. Tricks

20. Johnson’s talk

Questions 21-23
Complete the sentences below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

The new teacher who is very popular among students wrote a book titled (21)____________

It covers techniques including doing research as part of a (22) ____________

The objective is for the students to present (23) ____________ in a collaborative manner.

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Questions 24-30
Complete the table below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Observational method:

Conduct
Observation checklist

Students:
Keep a (25) ________________
examine the (24)________________ of peer pupils

In-class (27) ________________


Carry out (26) ________________

Non-observational method:

Conduct
Non-observation checklist

Evaluate (28)_______________
Statistics

With the help of (29) _______________ to identify respondents


Questionnaires
Choose own respondents to do (30) _______________

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Questions 31-40
Complete the notes below.

Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

ARGUMENTS FOR AND AGAINST URBAN MIGRATION


Cities now:

• account for 3% of the planet’s land areas

• consume more (31)_______________ than the countryside

Advantages for moving into the city:

• good for some (32) _______________ to recover

• poor (33) _______________ in the countryside

• clean energy: recycling of methane gas produced from (34) _______________

For women:

• more likely to have late marriages

• better chance of getting a (35) _______________ at work

Downsides of moving into the city:

• possible to lose (36) _______________ because it is difficult to maintain previous lifestyle

• higher rates of (37) _______________ in the city than in the country

• poor quality of (38) _______________ in the city

Economic factors:

• Increased (39) _______________ in population results in increase in energy consumption.

• People find the heavy (40) _______________ stressful.

READING PASSAGE 1
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You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based
on Reading Passage 1 below.

Andrea Palladio: Italian Architect


A new exhibition celebrates Palladio’s architecture 500 years on.

Vicenza is a pleasant, prosperous city in the Veneto, 60 km west of Venice. Its grand families
settled and farmed the area from the 16th century. But its principal claim to fame is Andrea
Palladio, who is such an influential architect that a neoclassical style is known as Palladian.
The city is a permanent exhibition of some of his finest buildings, and as he was born — in
Padua, to be precise — 500 years ago, the International Centre for the Study of Palladio’s
Architecture has an excellent excuse for mounting la grande mostra, the big show.

The exhibition has the special advantage of being held in one of Palladio’s buildings, Palazzo
Barbaran da Porto. Its bold facade is a mixture of rustication and decoration set between
two rows of elegant columns. On the second floor the pediments arc alternately curved or
pointed, a Palladian trademark. The harmonious proportions of the atrium at the entrance
lead through to a dramatic interior of fine fireplaces and painted ceilings. Palladio’s design is
simple, clear and not over-crowded. The show has been organised on the same principles,
according to Howard Bums, the architectural historian who co-curated it.

Palladio’s father was a miller who settled in Vicenza, where the young Andrea was
apprenticed to a skilled stonemason. How did a humble miller’s son become a world
renowned architect? The answer in the exhibition is that, as a young man, Palladio excelled
at carving decorative stonework on columns, doorways and fireplaces. He was plainly
intelligent, and lucky enough to come across a rich patron, Gian Giorgio Trissino, a

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landowner and scholar, who organised his education, taking him to Rome in the 1540s,
where he studied the masterpieces of classical Roman and Greek architecture and the work
of other influential architects of the time, such as Donato Bramante and Raphael.

Burns argues that social mobility was also important. Entrepreneurs, prosperous from
agriculture in the Veneto, commissioned the promising local architect to design their
country villas and their urban mansions. In Venice the aristocracy were anxious to co-opt
talented artists, and Palladio was given the chance to design the buildings that have made
him famous – the churches of San Giorgio Maggiore and the Redentore, both easy to admire
because the can be seen from the city’s historical centre across a stretch of water.

He tried his hand at bridges — his unbuilt version of the Rialto Bridge was decorated with
the large pediment and columns of a temple — and, after a fire at the Ducal Palace, he
offered an alternative design which bears an uncanny resemblance to the Banqueting House
in Whitehall in London. Since it was designed by Inigo Jones, Palladio’s first foreign disciple,
this is not as surprising as it sounds.

Jones, who visited Italy in 1614, bought a trunk full of the master’s architectural drawings;
they passed through the hands of the Dukes of Burlington and Devonshire before settling at
the Royal Institute of British Architects in 1894. Many are now on display at Palazzo
Barbaran. What they show is how Palladio drew on the buildings of ancient Rome as
models. The major theme of both his rural and urban building was temple architecture, with
a strong pointed pediment supported by columns and approached by wide steps.

Palladio s work for rich landowner alienates unreconstructed critics on the Italian left but
among the papers in the show are designs for cheap housing in Venice. In the wider world,
Palladio’s reputation has been nurtured by a text he wrote and illustrated, “Quattro Libri
dell’ Architettura”. His influence spread to St Petersburg and to Charlottesville in Virginia,
where Thomas Jefferson commissioned a Palladian villa he called Monticello.

Vicenza’s show contains detailed models of the major buildings and is leavened by portraits
of Palladio’s teachers and clients by Titian, Veronese and Tintoretto; the paintings of his
Venetia buildings are all by Canaletto, no less. This is an uncompromising exhibition; many
of the drawings are small and faint, and there are no sideshows for children, but the impact
of harmonious lines and satisfying proportions is to impart in a viewer a feeling of
benevolent calm. Palladio is history’s most therapeutic architect.

“Palladio, 500 Anni: La Grande Mostra” is at Palazzo Barbaran da Porto, Vicenza, until
January 6th 2009. The exhibition continues at the Royal Academy of Arts, London, from
January 31st to April 13th, and travels afterwards to Barcelona and Madrid.

SECTION 1: QUESTIONS 1-13


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Question 1-7
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1?
In boxes 1-7 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

1. The building where the exhibition is staged has been newly renovated.

2. Palazzo Barbaran da Porto typically represents the Palladio’s design.

3. Palladio’s father worked as an architect.

4. Palladio’s family refused to pay for his architectural studies.

5. Palladio’s alternative design for the Ducal Palace in Venice was based on an English
building.

6. Palladio designed for both wealthy and poor people.

7. The exhibition includes paintings of people by famous artists.

Questions 8-13
Complete the sentences below.

Choose NO MORE THAN FOUR WORDS from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 8-13 on your answer sheet.

What job was Palladio training for before he became an architect?

8__________________________

Who arranged Palladio’s architectural studies?

9.__________________________

Who was the first non-Italian architect influenced by Palladio?

10. __________________________

What type of Ancient Roman buildings most heavily influenced Palladio’s work?

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11. __________________________

What did Palladio write that strengthened his reputation?

12. __________________________

In the writer’s opinion, what feeling will visitors to the exhibition experience?

13__________________________

READING PASSAGE 2
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You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based on
Reading Passage 2 below.

Corporate Social Responsibility


Broadly speaking, proponents of CSR have used four arguments to make their case: moral
obligation, sustainability, license to operate, and reputation. The moral appeal – arguing
that companies have a duty to be good citizens and to “do the right thing” – is prominent in
the goal of Business for Social Responsibility, the leading nonprofit CSR business association
in the United States. It asks that its members “achieve commercial success in ways that
honour ethical values and respect people, communities, and the natural environment.
“Sustainability emphasises environmental and community stewardship.

A. An excellent definition was developed in the 1980s by Norwegian Prime Minister Gro
Harlen Brundtland and used by the World Business Council for Sustainable Development:
“Meeting the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations
to meet their own needs.” Nowadays, governments and companies need to account for the
social consequences of their actions. As a result, corporate social responsibility (CSR) has
become a priority for business leaders around the world. When a well-run business applies
its vast resources and expertise to social problems that it understands and in which it has a
stake, it can have a greater impact than any other organization. The notion of license to
operate derives from the fact that every company needs tacit or explicit permission from
governments, communities, and numerous other stakeholders to justify CSR initiatives to
improve a company’s image, strengthen its brand, enliven morale and even raise the value
of its stock.

B. To advance CSR. we must root it in a broad understanding of the interrelationship


between a corporation and society. Successful corporations need a healthy society.
Education, health care, and equal opportunity are essential lo a productive workforce. Safe
products and working conditions not only attract customers but lower the internal costs of
accidents. Efficient utilization of land, water, energy, and other natural resources makes
business more productive. Good government, the rule of law, and property rights are

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essential for efficiency and innovation. Strong regulatory standards protect both consumers
and competitive companies from exploitation. Ultimately, a healthy society creates
expanding demand for business, as more human needs are met and aspirations grow. Any
business that pursues its ends at the expense of the society in which it operates will find its
success to be illusory and ultimately temporary. At the same time, a healthy society needs
successful companies. No social program can rival the business sector when it comes lo
creating the jobs, wealth, and innovation that improve standards of living and social
conditions over time.

C. A company’s impact on society also changes over time, as social standards evolve and
science progresses. Asbestos, now understood as a serious health risk was thought to be
safe in the early 1900s, given the scientific knowledge then available. Evidence of its risks
gradually mounted for more than 50 years before any company was held liable for the
harms it can cause. Many firms that failed to anticipated the consequences of this evolving
body of research have been bankrupted by the results. No longer can companies be content
to monitor only the obvious social impacts of today. Without a careful process for
identifying evolving social effects of tomorrow, firms may risk their very survival.

D. No business can solve all of society’s problems or bear the cost of doing so. Instead, each
company must select issues that intersect with its particular business. Other social agendas
are best left to those companies in other industries, NGOs, or government institutions that
are better positioned to address them. The essential test that should guide CSR is not
whether a cause is worthy but whether it presents an opportunity to create shared value –
that is, a meaningful benefit for society that is also valuable to the business. Each company
can identify the particular set of societal problems that it is best equipped to help resolve
and from which it can gain the greatest competitive benefit.

E. The best corporate citizenship initiatives involve far more than writing a check: They
specify clear, measurable goals and track results over time. A good example is General
Electronics’s program to adopt underperforming public high schools near several of its
major U.S. facilities. The company contributes between $250,000 and $1 million over a five-
year period to each school and makes in-kind donations as well. GE managers and
employees take an active role by working with school administrators to assess needs and
mentor or tutor students. In an independent study of Ion schools in the program between
1989 and 1999, nearly all showed significant improvement, while the graduation rate in four
of the five worst performing schools doubled from an average of 30% to 60%. Effective
corporate citizenship initiatives such as this one create goodwill and improve relations with
local governments and other important constituencies. What’s more, GE’s employees feel
great pride in their participation. Their effect is inherently limited, however. No matter how
beneficial (he program is, it remains incidental to the company’s business, and the direct
effect on GE’s recruiting and retention is modest.

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F. Microsoft s Working Connections partnership with the American Association of


Community Colleges (AACC) is a good example of a shared-value opportunity arising from
investments in context. The shortage of information technology workers is a significant
constraint on Microsoft’s growth; currently, there are more than 450,000 unfilled IT
positions in the United States alone. Community colleges, with an enrollment of 11.6 million
students, representing 45% of all U.S. undergraduates, could be a major solution. Microsoft
recognizes, however, that community colleges face special challenges: IT curricula are not
standardized, technology used in classrooms is often outdated, and there are no systematic
professional development programs to keep faculty up to date. Microsoft’s $50 million five-
year initiative was aimed at all three problems. In addition to contributing money and
products, Microsoft sent employee volunteers to colleges to assess needs, contribute to
curriculum development, and create faculty development institutes. Microsoft has achieved
results that have benefited many communities while having a direct-and potentially
significant-impact on the company.

G. At the heart of any strategy is a unique value proposition: a set of needs a company can
meet for its chosen customers that others cannot. The most strategic CSR occurs when a
company adds a social dimension to its value proposition, making social impact integral to
the overall strategy. Consider Whole Foods Market, whose value proposition is to sell
organic, natural, and healthy food products to customers who are passionate about food
and the environment. The company’s sourcing emphasises purchases from local farmers
through each store’s procurement process. Buyers screen out foods containing any of nearly
100 common ingredients that the company considers unhealthy or environmentally
damaging. The same standards apply to products made internally. Whole Foods’
commitment to natural and environmentally friendly operating practices extends well
beyond sourcing. Stores are constructed using a minimum of virgin raw materials. Recently,
the company purchased renewable wind energy credits equal to 100% of its electricity use
in all of its stores and facilities, the only Fortune 500 company to offset its electricity
consumption entirely. Spoiled produce and biodegradable waste are trucked to regional
centers for composting. Whole Foods’ vehicles are being converted to run on biofuels. Even
the cleaning products used in its stores are environmentally friendly. And through its
philanthropy, the company has created the Animal Compassion Foundation to develop
more natural and humane ways of raising farm animals. In short, nearly every aspect of the
company’s value chain reinforces the social dimensions of its value proposition,
distinguishing Whole Foods from its competitors.

SECTION 2: QUESTIONS 14-26

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Questions 14-20
Reading passage 2 has seven paragraphs, A–G

Choose the correct heading for each paragraph from the list of heading below.

Write the correct number, i-viii, in boxes 14-20 on your answer sheet.

List of Headings

i How CSR may help one business to expand

ii CSR in many aspects of a company’s business

iii A CSR initiative without a financial gain

iv Lack of action by the state of social issues

v Drives or pressures motivate companies to address CSR

vi The past illustrates business are responsible for future outcomes

vii Companies applying CSR should be selective

viii Reasons that business and society benefit each other

14. Paragraph A 17. Paragraph D 20. Paragraph G

15. Paragraph B 18. Paragraph E

16. Paragraph C 19. Paragraph F

Questions 21-22
Complete the summary below.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage of each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 21-22 on your answer sheet.

The implement of CSR, HOW?

Promotion of CSR requires the understanding of interdependence between business and


society. Corporations workers’ productivity generally needs health care, education, and
given (21)________________Restrictions imposed by government and companies both
protect consumers from being treated unfairly. Improvement of the safety standard can
reduce the (22) ________________of accidents in the workplace. Similarly society becomes
a pool of more human needs and aspirations.

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Questions 23-26
Look at the following opinions or deeds (Questions 23-26) and the list of companies below.

Match each opinion or deed with the correct company, A, B or C.

Write the correct letter, A, B or C in boxes 23-26 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once

23. The disposable waste

24. The way company purchases as goods

25. Helping the undeveloped

26. Ensuring the people have the latest information

A General Electronics

B Microsoft

C Whole Foods Market

READING PASSAGE 3

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You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based on
Reading Passage 3 below.

The Significant Role of Mother Tongue in Education


One consequence of population mobility is an increasing diversity within schools. To
illustrate, in the city of Toronto in Canada, 58% of kindergarten pupils come from homes
where English is not the usual language of communication. Schools in Europe and North
America have experienced this diversity for years, and educational policies and practices
vary widely between countries and even within countries. Some political parties and groups
search for ways to solve the problem of diverse communities and their integration in
schools and society. However, they see few positive consequences for the host society and
worry that this diversity threatens the identity of the host society. Consequently, they
promote unfortunate educational policies that will make the “problem” disappear. If
students retain their culture and language, they are viewed as less capable of identifying
with the mainstream culture and learning the mainstream language of the society.

The challenge for educator and policy-makers is to shape the evolution of national identity
in such a way that rights of all citizens (including school children) are respected, and the
cultural linguistic, and economic resources of the nation are maximised. To waste the
resources of the nation by discouraging children from developing their mother tongues is
quite simply unintelligent from the point of view of national self-interest. A first step in
providing an appropriate education for culturally and linguistically diverse children is to
examine what the existing research says about the role of children’s mother tongues in their
educational development.

In fact, the research is very clear. When children continue to develop their abilities in two or
more languages throughout their primary school, they gain a deeper understanding of
language and how to use it effectively. They have more practice in processing language,
especially when they develop literacy in both. More than 150 research studies conducted
during the past 25 years strongly support what Goethe, the famous eighteenth-century
German philosopher, once said: the person who knows only one language dose not truly
know that language. Research suggests that bilingual children may also develop more

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flexibility in their thinking as a result of processing information through two different


languages.

The level of development of children;s mother tongue is a strong predictor of their second
language development. Children who come to school with a solid foundation in their
mother tongue develop stronger literacy abilities in the school language. When parents and
other caregivers (e.g. grandparents) are able to spend time with their children and tell
stories or discuss issues with them in a way that develops their mother tongue, children
come to school well-prepared to learn the school language and succed educationally.
Children’s knowledge and skills transfer across languages from the mother tongue to the
school language. Transfer across languages can be two-way: both languages nurture each
other when the educational environment permits children access to both languages.

Some educators and parents are suspicious of mother tongue-based teaching programs
because they worry that they take time away from the majority language. For exampie, in a
bilingual program when 50% of the time is spent teaching through children’s home language
and 50% through the majority language, surely children won’t progress as far in the latter?
One of the most strongly established findings of educational research, however, is that well-
implemented bilingual programs can promote literracy and subject-matter knowledge in a
minority language without any negative effects on children’s development in the majority
language. Within Europe, the Foyer program in Belgium, which develops children’s speaking
and literacy abilities in three languages (their mother tongue, Dutch and French), most
clearly illustrates the benefits of bilingual and trilingual education (see Cummins, 2000).

It is easy to understand how this happens. When children are learning through a minority
language, they are learning concepts and intellectual skills too. Pupils who know how to tell
the time in their mother tongue understand the concept of telling time. In order to tell time
in the majority language, they do not need to re-learn the concept. Similarly, at more
advanced stages, there, is transfer across languages in other skills such as knowing how to
distinguish the main idea from the supporting details of a written passage or story, and
distinguishing fact from opinion. Studies of secondary school pupils are providing interesting
findings in this area, and it would be worth extending this research.

Many people marvel at how quickfy bilingual children seem to “pick up” conversational skills
in the majority language at school (although it takes much longer for them to catch up with
native speakers in academic language skills). However, educators are often much less aware
of how quickly children can lose their ability to use their mother tongue, even in the home
context. The extent and rapidity of language loss will vary according to the concentration of
families from a particular linguistic group in the neighborhood. Where the mother tongue is
used extensively in the community, then language loss among young children will be less.
However, where language communities are not concentrated in particular neighborhoods,
children can lose their ability to communicate in their mother tongue within 2-3 years of
starting school. They may retain receptive skills in the language but they will use the

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majority language, in speaking with their peers and siblings and in responding to their
parents. By the time children become adolescents, the linguistic division between parents
and children has become an emotional chasm. Pupils frequently become alienated from the
cultures of both home and school with predictable results.

SECTION 3: QUESTIONS 27-40


Questions 27-30 Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
Write the correct letter in boxes 27-30 on your answer sheet.
27. What point did the writer make in the second paragraph?

A. Some present studies on children’s mother tongues are misleading/


B. A culturally rich education programme benefits some children more than others.
C. Bilingual children can make a valuable contribution to the wealth of a country.
D. The law on mother toungue use at shool should be strengthened
28. Why does the writer refer to something that Goethe said?

A. to lend weight to his argument


B. to contradict some research
C. to introduce a new concept
D. to update current thinking

29. The writer believes that when young children have a firm grasp of their mother tongue

A. they can teach older family members what they learnt at school
B. they go on to do much better throughout their time at school.
C. they can read stories about their cultural background.
D. they develop stronger relationships with their family than with their peers

30. Why are some people suspicious about mother tongue-based teaching programmes?

A. They worry that children will be slow to learn to read in either language.
B. They think that children will confuse words in the two languages.
C. They believe that the programmes will make children less interested in their lessons.
D. They fear that the programmes will use up valuable time in the school day.

Questions 31-35
Complete the summary using the list of word, A-J, below

Write the correct letter, A-J, in boxes 31-35 on your answer sheet.

Bilingual Children

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It was often recorded that bilingual children acquire the (31)____________to converse in
the majority language remarkable quickly. The fact that the mother tongue can disappear at
a similar (32) ____________is less well understood. This phenomenon depends, to a certain
extent, on the proposition of people with the same linguistic background that have settled
in a particular (33) ____________If this is limited, children are likely to lose the active use of
their mother tongue. And thus no longer employ it even with (34) ____________, although
they may still understand it. It follows that teenager children in these circumstances
experience a sense of (35) ____________in relation to all aspects of their lives.

A Teachers F family

B Schools G communication

C dislocation H type

D Rate I ability

E Time J area

Questions 36-40
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 3?

In boxes 36-40 on your answer sheet, write

YES if the statement agrees with the views of the writer

NO if the statement contradicts the views of the writer

NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

36. Less than half of the children who attend kindergarten in Toronto have English as their
mother tongue.

37. Research proves that learning the host country language at school can have an adverse
effect on a child’s mother tongue.

38. The Foyer program is accepted by the French education system.

39. Bilingual children are taught to tell the time earlier than monolingual children.

40. Bilingual children can apply reading comprehension strategies acquired in one language
when reading in the other.

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TEST 9

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LISTENING

Questions 1-10
Complete the notes below.

Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Hotel Reservation
Example

Location: north from the coast

Four-bed room available in (1)_______________________

Room price:

• in high season: € (2)_______________________

• cheaper if you booked (3)_______________________in advance

Meal included in price: (4)_______________________

Must bring your own: (5)_______________________

Hotel facilities:

• a lounge with a variety of (6)_______________________

• (7)_______________________ room

• (8)_______________________

Activities available:

• collect (9)_______________________

• hire (10)_______________________

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SECTION 2 : QUESTIONS 11-20


Questions 11-16
Choose the correct letter, A, B, or C.

11. What is the purpose of the talk?

A. to welcome its new members


B. to commemorate its 10th anniversary
C. to celebrate the award it received recently

12. What’s the audience of this speech?

A. journalists
B. local residents
C. school children

13. Why is the speaker most proud of the skating rink?

A. Because two world champions have been trained there.


B. Because people in this area are fitter than the rest of the country.
C. Because they have encouraged local school children to participate more in sports.

14. The complex has recently opened a new venue for

A. the unemployed.
B. mothers with babies.
C. pensioners

15. What does the complex plan to do next year?

A. extend opening hours


B. expand the space
C. sell fitness equipment

16. What does the complex encourage people to do?

A. become a coach
B. be on the committee
C. work as volunteers

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Questions 17-20
Choose FOUR answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to
Questions 17-20.

A A one-on-one coach is bookable.

B It is featured in a TV drama.

C It is beneficial for young people.

D It is only available for women sometimes.

E It is the largest in the country.

F It can be booked for parties.

G It is a place to hold courses for school children.

Sports facilities

17. Swimming pool

18. Climbing wall

19. Skating rink

20. Gym

SECTION 3 : QUESTIONS 21-30


Questions 21-23
Complete the table below.

Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

Research about different energy-saving innovations

used in different (21)____________conditions to reduce the


Kites in Germany
emission of toxic gas

Vehicles in America powered by (22)____________

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Gas canister in South


invented to reduce its chances to (23)____________
Africa

Questions 24-25
Choose TWO letters, A-E.

Which TWO types of interviewees do Greg and Syria choose to do the survey?

A. staff on campus C. local residents E. university


B. professors D. companies students

Questions 26-30
Choose the correct letter, A, B, or C.

26. What does Syria think about renewable energy?

A. Most people know very little about renewable energy.


B. The general public can distinguish different kinds of renewable energy.
C. The majority of people feel the need to replace fossil fuels with renewable energy

27. What do the speakers say about modem windmills?

A. They can be used to pump water from wells.


B. The location to build them should be carefully chosen.
C. Farmers use them to grind grain.

28. What aspect of traditional fuels are they going to address?

A. how to avoid fossil fuels from being depleted


B. the possible future of traditional resources
C. how to prevent pollution of traditional resources

29. What does Greg say about nuclear plants?

A. They are cleaner and less expensive than fossil fuel.


B. It is the best way to fight climate change.
C. Few people think they are safe

30. What does Syria think of hydrogen fuel?

A. The price of it will drop eventually.


B. It entails environmental problems.
C. The benefits of it overweigh its high cost.

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SECTION 4 : QUESTIONS 31-40


Questions 31-40
Complete the notes below.

Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

Fish Farming

Local fish farmers are afraid that genetically modified fish will (31)______________into
the sea.

• like to breed fish with special features, like (32)_______________

• other solutions:

- to build some cages to prevent the fish from (33)_______________

- to use (34)_______________nets to support the frames of the cages

Problems facing the local fishermen:

• lack of land on the (35)_______________

• lack of (36)_______________fish

Initiatives taken by the government:

• encourages fish farmers to (37)_______________local fish farming business

• helps fish farmers to sell seaweed and oyster:

- Seaweed can be used to make (38)_______________- Oyster is a source of


seafood which can supply local (39)_______________industry.

• saves local fishing business by encouraging aquaculture, recreation


and (40)_______________

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READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based
on Reading Passage 1 below.

Voyage of Going: beyond the blue line 2


A One feels a certain sympathy for Captain James Cook on the day in 1778 that he
"discovered" Hawaii. Then on his third expedition to the Pacific, the British navigator had
explored scores of islands across the breadth of the sea, from lush New Zealand to the
lonely wastes of Easter Island. This latest voyage had taken him thousands of miles north
from the Society Islands to an archipelago so remote that even the old Polynesians back on
Tahiti knew nothing about it. Imagine Cook's surprise, then, when the natives of Hawaii
came paddling out in their canoes and greeted him in a familiar tongue, one he had heard
on virtually every mote of inhabited land he had visited. Marveling at the ubiquity of this
Pacific language and culture, he later wondered in his journal: "How shall we account for
this Nation spreading it self so far over this Vast ocean?"

B Answers have been slow in coming. But now a startling archaeological find on the island of
Efate, in the Pacific nation of Vanuatu, has revealed an ancient seafaring people, the distant
ancestors of today's Polynesians, taking their first steps into the unknown. The discoveries
there have also opened a window into the shadowy world of those early voyagers. At the
same time, other pieces of this human puzzle are turning up in unlikely places. Climate data
gleaned from slow-growing corals around the Pacific and from sediments in alpine lakes in

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South America may help explain how, more than a thousand years later, a second wave of
seafarers beat their way across the entire Pacific.

C "What we have is a first- or second-generation site containing the graves of some of the
Pacific's first explorers," says Spriggs, professor of archaeology at the Australian National
University and co-leader of an international team excavating the site. It came to light only
by luck. A backhoe operator, digging up topsoil on the grounds of a derelict coconut
plantation, scraped open a grave - the first of dozens in a burial ground some 3,000 years
old. It is the oldest cemetery ever found in the Pacific islands, and it harbors the bones of an
ancient people archaeologists call the Lapita, a label that derives from a beach in New
Caledonia where a landmark cache of their pottery was found in the 1950s. They were
daring blue-water adventurers who roved the sea not just as explorers but also as pioneers,
bringing along everything they would need to build new lives - their families and livestock,
taro seedlings and stone tools.

D Within the span of a few centuries the Lapita stretched the boundaries of their world from
the jungle-clad volcanoes of Papua New Guinea to the loneliest coral outliers of Tonga, at
least 2,000 miles eastward in the Pacific. Along the way they explored millions of square
miles of unknown sea, discovering and colonizing scores of tropical islands never before
seen by human eyes: Vanuatu, New Caledonia, Fiji, Samoa.

E What little is known or surmised about them has been pieced together from fragments of
pottery, animal bones, obsidian flakes, and such oblique sources as comparative linguistics
and geochemistry. Although their voyages can be traced back to the northern islands of
Papua New Guinea, their language - variants of which are still spoken across the Pacific -
came from Taiwan. And their peculiar style of pottery decoration, created by pressing a
carved stamp into the clay, probably had its roots in the northern Philippines. With the
discovery of the Lapita cemetery on Efate, the volume of data available to researchers has
expanded dramatically. The bones of at least 62 individuals have been uncovered so far -
including old men, young women, even babies - and more skeletons are known to be in the
ground. Archaeologists were also thrilled to discover six complete Lapita pots; before this,
only four had ever been found. Other discoveries included a burial urn with modeled birds
arranged on the rim as though peering down at the human bones sealed inside. It's an
important find, Spriggs says, for it conclusively identifies the remains as Lapita. "It would be
hard for anyone to argue that these aren't Lapita when you have human bones enshrined
inside what is unmistakably a Lapita urn."

F Several lines of evidence also undergird Spriggs's conclusion that this was a community of
pioneers making their first voyages into the remote reaches of Oceania. For one thing, the
radiocarbon dating of bones and charcoal places them early in the Lapita expansion. For
another, the chemical makeup of the obsidian flakes littering the site indicates that the rock
wasn't local; instead it was imported from a large island in Papua New Guinea's Bismarck
Archipelago, the springboard for the Lapita's thrust into the Pacific. A particularly intriguing

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clue comes from chemical tests on the teeth of several skeletons. DNA teased from these
ancient bones may also help answer one of the most puzzling questions in Pacific
anthropology: Did all Pacific islanders spring from one source or many? Was there only one
outward migration from a single point in Asia, or several from different points? "This
represents the best opportunity we've had yet," says Spriggs, "to find out who the Lapita
actually were, where they came from, and who their closest descendants are today."

G There is one stubborn question for which archaeology has yet to provide any answers:
How did the Lapita accomplish the ancient equivalent of a moon landing, many times over?
No one has found one of their canoes or any rigging, which could reveal how the canoes
were sailed. Nor do the oral histories and traditions of later Polynesians offer any insights,
for they segue into myth long before they reach as far back in time as the Lapita. "All we can
say for certain is that the Lapita had canoes that were capable of ocean voyages, and they
had the ability to sail them," says Geoff Irwin, a professor of archaeology at the University of
Auckland and an avid yachtsman. Those sailing skills, he says, were developed and passed
down over thousands of years by earlier mariners who worked their way through the
archipelagoes of the western Pacific making short crossings to islands within sight of each
other. Reaching Fiji, as they did a century or so later, meant crossing more than 500 miles of
ocean, pressing on day after day into the great blue void of the Pacific. What gave them the
courage to launch out on such a risky voyage?

H The Lapita's thrust into the Pacific was eastward, against the prevailing trade winds, Irwin
notes. Those nagging headwinds, he argues, may have been the key to their success. "They
could sail out for days into the unknown and reconnoiter, secure in the knowledge that if
they didn't find anything, they could turn about and catch a swift ride home on the trade
winds. It's what made the whole thing work." Once out there, skilled seafarers would detect
abundant leads to follow to land: seabirds and turtles, coconuts and twigs carried out to sea
by the tides, and the afternoon pileup of clouds on the horizon that often betokens an
island in the distance. Some islands may have broadcast their presence with far less subtlety
than a cloud bank. Some of the most violent eruptions anywhere on the planet during the
past 10,000 years occurred in Melanesia, which sits nervously in one of the most explosive
volcanic regions on Earth. Even less spectacular eruptions would have sent plumes of smoke
billowing into the stratosphere and rained ash for hundreds of miles. It's possible that the
Lapita saw these signs of distant islands and later sailed off in their direction, knowing they
would find land. For returning explorers, successful or not, the geography of their own
archipelagoes provided a safety net to keep them from overshooting their home ports and
sailing off into eternity.

I However they did it, the Lapita spread themselves a third of the way across the Pacific,
then called it quits for reasons known only to them. Ahead lay the vast emptiness of the
central Pacific, and perhaps they were too thinly stretched to venture farther. They probably
never numbered more than a few thousand in total, and in their rapid migration eastward

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they encountered hundreds of islands - more than 300 in Fiji alone. Still, more than a
millennium would pass before the Lapita's descendants, a people we now call the
Polynesians, struck out in search of new territory.

SECTION 1: QUESTIONS 1-13


Questions 1-7
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage?

In boxes 1-7 on your answer sheet, write

YES if the statement agrees with the views of the writer

NO if the statement contradicts the views of the writer

NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

1. Captain cook once expected the Hawaii might speak another language of people from
other pacific islands.

2. Captain cook depicted number of cultural aspects of Polynesians in his journal.

3. Professor Spriggs and his research team went to the Efate to try to find the site of ancient
cemetery.

4. The Lapita completed a journey of around 2,000 miles in a period less than a centenary.

5. The Lapita were the first inhabitants in many pacific islands.

6. The unknown pots discovered in Efate had once been used for cooking.

7. The urn buried in Efate site was plain as it was without any decoration.

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Questions 8-10
Complete the following summary of the paragraphs of Reading Passage, using NO MORE
THAN TWO WORDS from the Reading Passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 8-10 on your answer sheet.

Scientific Evident found in Efate site

Tests show the human remains and the charcoal found in the buried um are from
the start of the Lapita period. Yet the (8)____________covering many of the Efate
site did not come from that area. Then examinations carried out on the
(9)____________ discovered at Efate site reveal that not everyone buried there was
a native living in the area. In fact, DNA could identify the Lapita's nearest present-
days (10)____________

Questions 11-13
Answer the questions below.

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER from the passage for each
answer.

Write your answers in boxes 11-13 on your answer sheet.

What did the Lapita travel in when they crossed the oceans?

(11)____________________________________________________________

In Irwins's view, what would the Latipa have relied on to bring them fast back to the base?

(12)____________________________________________________________

Which sea creatures would have been an indication to the Lapita of where to find land?

(13)____________________________________________________________

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READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-27, which are based on
Reading Passage 2 below.

Does An IQ Test Prove Creativity?


Everyone has creativity, some a lot more than others. The development of humans, and
possibly the universe, depends on it. Yet creativity is an elusive creature. What do we mean
by it? What is going on in our brains when ideas form? Does it feel the same for artists and
scientists? We asked writers and neuroscientists, pop stars and AI gurus to try to deconstruct
the creative process-and learn how we can all ignite the spark within.

A In the early 1970s, creativity was still seen as a type of intelligence. But when more subtle
tests of IQ and creative skills were developed in the 1970s, particularly by the father of
creativity testing, Paul Torrance, it became clear that the link was not so simple. Creative
people are intelligent, in terms of IQ tests at least, but only averagely or just above. While it
depends on the discipline, in general beyond a certain level IQ does not help boost
creativity; it is necessary but not sufficient to make someone creative.

B Because of the difficulty of studying the actual process, most early attempts to study
creativity concentrated on personality. According to creativity specialist Mark Runco of
California State University, Fullerton, the “creative personality” tends to place a high value
on aesthetic qualities and to have broad interests, providing lots of resources to draw on
and knowledge to recombine into novel solutions. “Creatives” have an attraction to
complexity and an ability to handle conflict. They are also usually highly self-motivated,
perhaps even a little obsessive. Less creative people, on the other hand, tend to become
irritated if they cannot immediately fit all the pieces together. They are less tolerant of
confusion. Creativity comes to those who wait, but only to those who are happy to do so in
a bit of a fog.

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C But there may be a price to pay for having a creative personality. For centuries, a link has
been made between creativity and mental illness.Psychiatrist Jamison of Johns Hopkins
University in Baltimore, Maryland, found that established artists are significantly more likely
to have mood disorders. But she also suggests that a change of mood state might be the key
to triggering a creative event, rather than the negative mood itself. Intelligence can help
channel this thought style into great creativity, but when combined with emotional
problems, lateral, divergent or open thinking can lead to mental illness instead.

D Jordan Peterson, a psychologist at the University of Toronto, Canada, believes he has


identified a mechanism that could help explain this. He says that the brains of creative
people seem more open to incoming stimuli than less creative types. Our senses are
continuously feeding a mass of information into our brains, which have to block or ignore
most of it to save us from being snowed under. Peterson calls this process latent inhibition,
and argues that people who have less of it, and who have a reasonably high IQ with a good
working memory can juggle more of the data, and so may be open to more possibilities and
ideas. The downside of extremely low latent inhibition may be a confused thought style that
predisposes people to mental illness. So for Peterson, mental illness is not a prerequisite for
creativity, but it shares some cognitive traits.

E But what of the creative act itself? One of the first studies of the creative brain at work
was by Colin Martindale, a psychologist from the University of Maine in Orono. Back in
1978, he used a network of scalp electrodes to record an electroencephalogram ,a record of
the pattern of brain waves, as people made up stories. Creativity has two stages: inspiration
and elaboration, each characterised by very different states of mind. While people were
dreaming up their stories, he found their brains were surprisingly quiet. The dominant
activity was alpha waves, indicating a very low level of cortical arousal: a relaxed state, as
though the conscious mind was quiet while the brain was making connections behind the
scenes. It's the same sort of brain activity as in some stages of sleep, dreaming or rest,
which could explain why sleep and relaxation can help people be creative. However, when
these quiet minded people were asked to work on their stories, the alpha wave activity
dropped off and the brain became busier, revealing increased cortical arousal, more
corralling of activity and more organised thinking. Strikingly, it was the people who showed
the biggest difference in brain activity between the inspiration and development stages who
produced the most creative storylines. Nothing in their background brain activity marked
them as creative or uncreative. “It's as if the less creative person can't shift gear,” says Guy
Claxton, a psychologist at the University of Bristol, UK. “Creativity requires different kinds of
thinking. Very creative people move between these states intuitively.” Creativity, it seems, is
about mental flexibility: perhaps not a two-step process, but a toggling between two states.
In a later study, Martindale found that communication between the sides of the brain is also
important.

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F Paul Howard-Jones, who works with Claxton at Bristol, believes he has found another
aspect of creativity. He asked people to make up a story based on three words and scanned
their brains using functional magnetic resonance imaging. In one trial, people were asked
not to try too hard and just report the most obvious story suggested by the words. In
another, they were asked to be inventive. He also varied the words so it was easier or
harder to link them. As people tried harder and came up with more creative tales, there was
a lot more activity in a particular prefrontal brain region on the right-hand side. These
regions are probably important in monitoring for conflict, helping us to filter out many of of
combining the words and allowing us to pull out just the desirable connections, Howard-
Jones suggests. It shows that there is another side to creativity, he says. The story-making
task, particularly when we are stretched, produces many options which we have to assess.
So part of creativity is a conscious process of evaluating and analysing ideas. The test also
shows that the more we try and are stretched, the more creative our minds can be.

G And creativity need not always be a solitary, tortured affair, according to Teresa Amabile
of Harvard Business School. Though there is a slight association between solitary writing or
painting and negative moods or emotional disturbances, scientific creativity and workplace
creativity seem much more likely to occur when people are positive and buoyant .In a
decade-long study of real businesses, to be published soon, Amabile found that positive
moods relate positively to creativity in organisations, and that the relationship is a simple
linear one. Creative thought also improves people's moods, her team found, so the process
is circular. Time pressures, financial pressures and hard-earned bonus schemes on the other
hand, do not boost workplace creativity: internal motivation, not coercion, produces the
best work.

H Another often forgotten aspect of creativity is social. Vera John-Steiner of the University
of New Mexico says that to be really creative you need strong social networks and trusting
relationships, not just active neural networks. One vital characteristic of a highly creative
person, she says, is that they have at least one other person in their life who doesn’t think
they are completely nuts

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SECTION 2: QUESTIONS 14-26


Questions 14-17
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage?

In boxes 14-17 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

14. High IQ guarantees better creative ability in one person than that who achieves an
average score in an IQ test.

15. In a competitive society, individuals’ language proficiency is more important than other
abilities.

16. A wider range of resources and knowledge can be integrated by more creative people
into bringing about creative approaches.

17. A creative person not necessarily suffers more mental illness.

Questions 18-22
Use the information in the passage to match the people (listed A-F) with opinions or deeds
below. Write the appropriate letters A-F in boxes 18-22 on your answer sheet.

A Jamison

B Jordan Peterson

C Guy Claxton

D Howard-Jone

E Teresa Amabile

F Vera John-Steiner

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18. Instead of producing the negative mood, a shift of mood state might be the one
important factor of inducing a creative thinking.

19. Where the more positive moods individuals achieve, there is higher creativity in
organizations.

20. Good interpersonal relationship and trust contribute to a person with more creativity.

21. Creativity demands an ability that can easily change among different kinds of thinking.

22. Certain creative mind can be upgraded if we are put into more practice in assessing and
processing ideas.

Questions 23-26
Complete the summary paragraph described below. In boxes 23-26 on your answer sheet,
write the correct answer with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.

But what of the creative act itself? In 1978, Colin Martindale made records of pattern of
brain waves as people made up stories by applying a system constituted of
many (23)_____________. The two phrases of creativity, such as (24)_____________were
found. While people were still planning their stories, their brains shows little active sign and
the mental activity was showed a very relaxed state as the same sort of brain activity as in
sleep, dreaming or rest. However, experiment proved the signal of (25)_____________went
down and the brain became busier, revealing increased cortical arousal, when these people
who were in a laidback state were required to produce their stories. Strikingly, it was found
the person who was perceived to have the greatest (26)_____________in brain activity
between two stages, produced storylines with highest level of creativity.

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READING PASSAGE 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 28-40, which are based on
Reading Passage 3 below.

Monkeys and Forests


AS AN EAST WIND blasts through a gap in the Cordillera de Tilaran, a rugged mountain
range that splits northern Costa Rica in half, a female mantled howler monkey moves
through the swaying trees of the forest canopy.

A. Ken Glander, a primatologist from Duke University, gazes into the canopy, tracking
the female’s movements. Holding a dart gun, he waits with infinite patience for the right
moment to shoot. With great care, Glander aims and fires. Hit in the rump, the monkey
wobbles. This howler belongs to a population that has lived for decades at Hacienda
La Pacifica, a working cattle ranch in Guanacaste province. Other native primates -white-
faced capuchin monkeys and spider monkeys - once were common in this area, too, but
vanished after the Pan-American Highway was built nearby in the 1950s. Most of the
surrounding land was clear-cut for pasture.

B. Howlers persist at La Pacifica, Glander explains, because they are leaf- eaters. They eat
fruit, when it’s available but, unlike capuchin and spider monkeys, do not depend on large
areas of fruiting trees. “Howlers can survive anyplace you have half a dozen trees, because
their eating habits are so flexible,” he says. In forests, life is an arms race between trees and

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the myriad creatures that feed on leaves. Plants have evolved a variety of chemical
defenses, ranging from bad-tasting tannins, which bind with plant-produced nutrients,
rendering them indigestible, to deadly poisons, such as alkaloids and cyanide.

C. All primates, including humans, have some ability to handle plant toxins. “We can
detoxify a dangerous poison known as caffeine, which is deadly to a lot of
animals:” Glander says. For leaf-eaters, long-term exposure to a specific plant toxin can
increase their ability to defuse the poison and absorb the leaf nutrients. The leaves that
grow in regenerating forests, like those at La Pacifica, are actually more howler friendly than
those produced by the undisturbed, centuries-old trees that survive farther south, in the
Amazon Basin. In younger forests, trees put most of their limited energy into growing wood,
leaves and fruit, so they produce much lower levels of toxin than do well-established, old-
growth trees.

D. The value of maturing forests to primates is a subject of study at Santa Rosa National
Park, about 35 miles northwest of Hacienda La Pacifica. The park hosts populations not only
of mantled howlers but also of white-faced capuchins and spider monkeys. Yet the forests
there are young, most of them less than 50 years old. Capuchins were the first to begin
using the reborn forests, when the trees were as young as 14 years. Howlers, larger and
heavier than capuchins, need somewhat older trees, with limbs that can support their
greater body weight. A working ranch at Hacienda La Pacifica also explain their population
boom in Santa Rosa. “Howlers are more resilient than capuchins and spider monkeys for
several reasons,” Fedigan explains. “They can live within a small home range, as long as the
trees have the right food for them. Spider monkeys, on the other hand, occupy a huge home
range, so they can’t make it in fragmented habitat.”

E. Howlers also reproduce faster than do other monkey species in the area. Capuchins don’t
bear their first young until about 7 years old, and spider monkeys do so even later, but
howlers give birth for the first time at about 3.5 years of age. Also, while a female spider
monkey will have a baby about once every four years, well-fed howlers can produce an
infant every two years.

F. The leaves howlers eat hold plenty of water, so the monkeys can survive away from open
streams and water holes. This ability gives them a real advantage over capuchin and spider
monkeys, which have suffered during the long, ongoing drought in Guanacaste.

G. Growing human population pressures in Central and South America have led to persistent
destruction of forests. During the 1990s, about 1.1 million acres of Central American forest

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were felled yearly. Alejandro Estrada, an ecologist


at Estacion de Biologia Los Tuxtlas in Veracruz, Mexico, has been exploring how monkeys
survive in a landscape increasingly shaped by humans. He and his colleagues recently
studied the ecology of a group of mantled howler monkeys that thrive in a habitat
completely altered by humans: a cacao plantation in Tabasco, Mexico. Like many varieties of
coffee, cacao plants need shade to grow, so 40 years ago the landowners planted fig,
monkey pod and other tall trees to form a protective canopy over their crop. The howlers
moved in about 25 years ago after nearby forests were cut. This strange habitat, a
hodgepodge of cultivated native and exotic plants, seems to support about as many
monkeys as would a same-sized patch of wild forest. The howlers eat the leaves and fruit of
the shade trees, leaving the valuable cacao pods alone, so the farmers tolerate them.

H. Estrada believes the monkeys bring underappreciated benefits to such farms, dispersing
the seeds of fig and other shade trees and fertilizing the soil with feces. He points out that
howler monkeys live in shade coffee and cacao plantations in Nicaragua and Costa Rica as
well as in Mexico. Spider monkeys also forage in such plantations, though they need nearby
areas of forest to survive in the long term. He hopes that farmers will begin to see the
advantages of associating with wild monkeys, which includes potential ecotourism projects.

“Conservation is usually viewed as a conflict between agricultural practices and the need to
preserve nature, ” Estrada says. “We ’re moving away from that vision and beginning to
consider ways in which agricultural activities may become a tool for the
conservation ofprimates in human-modified landscapes. ”

SECTION 3: QUESTIONS 27-40


Questions 27-32
The reading Passage has eight paragraphs A-H.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the correct letter A-H, in boxes 27-32 on your answer sheet.

27. A reference of rate of reduction in forest habitats

28. An area where only one species of monkey survived while other two species vanished

29. A reason for howler monkey of choose new leaves as food over old ones

30. Mention to howler monkey’s diet and eating habits

31. A reference of asking farmers’ changing attitude toward wildlife

32. The advantage for howler monkey’s flexibility living in a segmented habitat

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Questions 33-35
Look at the following places and the list of descriptions below.

Match each description with the correct place, A-E.

Write the correct letter, A-E, in boxes 33-35 on your answer sheet.

A Hacienda La Pacifica

B Santa Rosa National Park

C A cacao plantation in Tabasco, Mexico

D Estacion de Biologia Los Tuxtlas in Veracruz, Mexico

E Amazon Basin

33. A place where howler monkeys benefit to the local region’s agriculture

34. A place where it is the original home for all three native monkeys

35. A place where capuchins monkey comes for a better habitat

Questions 36-40
Complete the sentences below.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 36-40 on your answer sheet.

The reasons why howler monkeys survive better in local region than other two species

Howlers live between in La Pacifica since they can feed themselves with leaves
when (36)_______________is not easily found

Howlers have better ability to alleviate the (37)_______________, which old and young
trees used to protect themselves

When compared to that of spider monkeys and capuchin monkeys,


the (38)___________rate of howlers is relatively faster (round for just every 2 years).

The monkeys can survive away from open streams and water holes as the leaves howlers
eat hold high content of (39)_______________, which helps them to resist the
continuous (40)_______________in Guanacaste.

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TEST 10

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LISTENING

SECTION 1 : QUESTIONS 1-10


Questions 1-10
Complete the notes below.

Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Car Rental Inquiry

Example

Nationality: American

Contact number: (1)______________

Send written quote by: (2)______________

Price for renting: (3)______________daily

Special requirements for the room:

• an extra (4)______________

• most important facility: (5)______________

Extra equipment:

• they should have a (6)______________

• as well as a (7)______________

Pick them up from the (8)_______________

The caravan driver’s age: (9)______________

The registered licence issued in: (10)______________

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SECTION 2 : QUESTIONS 11-20


Questions 11-16
Complete the flow-chart below.

Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

Harvesting and Processing Cocoa Beans

Chocolate beans are (11)______________and then bags are shipped.

Bags are then (12)______________and weighed by machines.

Next chocolate beans are (13)______________in a hopper.

After being roasted at a high temperature

Boiled chocolate beans are (14)______________and cracked.

Roasted beans needs to be (15)______________

Roasted beans are (16)______________in the pocket.

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Questions 17-20
What does each type of coffee taste like?

Write the correct letter, A-D, next to Questions 17-20.

A intense

B mild

C chocolaty

D smoky

Types of coffee
17. First Crack

18. Green Beans

19. French Roast

20. Espresso Smoky

SECTION 3 : QUESTIONS 21-30


Questions 21-26
Choose the correct letter. A, B or C.

21. What is the thing that makes the Moa similar to dinosaur?

A. Both are of interest to the public.


B. Both are extinct at similar time.
C. Both left lots of fossil remains

22. What is the difference between Moa and other birds?

A. no wing bones
B. a long tail
C. a smaller head

23. What’s the special feature of their chicks?

A. They never return to the nests.


B. Most of them die within two months after birth.

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C. They can find food by themselves.


24. What is the tutor’s opinion on male hatching the eggs?
A. He doubts whether it is true or possible.
B. He thinks it may be true.
C. He can say with certainty that it is true.

25. What is the male student’s response after hearing some people see a Moa recently

A. He is surprised.
B. He is worried.
C. He is amused.

26. Why did the Moa become extinct?

A. climate change
B. human interference
C. competitions with other animals

Questions 27-30
Choose FOUR answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-F, next to
Questions 27-30.

A the much taller female

B less fossils left

C the biggest eggs

D feeding at night

E better vocal sound

F poor eyesight

27. the North Island Giant Moa 29. the Stout-legged Moa

28. the Crested Moa 30. the Eastern Moa

SECTION 4 : QUESTIONS 31-40


Questions 31-35
Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

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History of time-measurement

Primitive measurements by observing

Two time keepers:

• The (31)____________

• Natural events, such as winds and rains, rivers flooding, plants flowering , and the
cycles of breeding or (32)____________ behaviour .

Precise measurements

They became important for organising activities for:

• (33)____________

• (34)____________

The oldest time keepers were discovered in Mesopotamia and (35)____________

Questions 36-40
Complete the table below.

Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

Time Keeper Disadvantages

In different parts of the year, the time for


The sundial
day (36)____________

The clepsydra (Water The changing pressure and (37)____________were what


clock) the flow of water still relied on.

The (38)____________ The time duration was (39)____________

The burning (40)____________or the rate of burning, was


Fire candle clock
subject to the candles wax.

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READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based
on Reading Passage 1 below.

T-Rex: Hunter or Scavenger?


Jack Homer is an unlikely academic: his dyslexia is so bad that he has trouble reading a book.
But he can read the imprint of life in sandstone or muddy shale across a distance of l00
years, and it is this gift that has made him curator of palaeontology at Montana State
University’s Museum of the Rockies, the leader of a multi-million dollar scientific project to
expose a complete slice of life 68 million years ago, and a consultant to Steven Spielberg and
other Hollywood figures.

His father had a sand and gravel quarry in Montana, and the young Horner was a collector
of stones and bones, complete with notes about when and where he found them. “My
father had owned a ranch when he was younger, in Montana,” he says. “He was enough of a
geologist, being a sand and gravel man, to have a pretty good notion that they were
dinosaur bones. So when I was eight years old he took me back to the area that had been
his ranch, to where he had seen these big old bones. I picked up one. I am pretty sure it was
the upper arm bone of a duckbilled dinosaur: it probably wasn’t a duckbilled dinosaur but
closely related to that. I catalogued it, and took good care of it, and then later when I was in
high school; excavated my first dinosaur skeleton. It obviously started earlier than eight and
I literally have been driven ever since. I feel like I was born this way.”

Horner spent seven years at university, but never graduated. “I have a learning disability, I
would call it a learning difference - dyslexia, they call it - and I just had a terrible time with
English and foreign languages and things like that. For a degree in geology or biology they
required two years of a foreign language. There was no way in the world I could do that. In
fact, I didn’t really pass English. So I couldn’t get a degree, I just wasn’t capable of it. But I
took all of the courses required and I wrote a thesis and I did all sorts of things. So I have the
education, I just don’t have the piece of paper,” he says.

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“We definitely know we are working on a very broad coastal plain with the streams and
rivers bordered by conifers and hardwood plants, and the areas in between these rivers
were probably fern-covered. There were no grasses at all: just ferns and bushes -an unusual
landscape, kind of taking the south-eastern United States - Georgia, Florida - and mixing it
with the moors of England and flattening it out,” he says. “Triceratops is very common: they
are the cows of the Cretaceous, they are everywhere. Duckbilled dinosaurs are relatively
common but not as common as triceratops and T-rex, for a meat-eating dinosaur, is very
common. What we would consider the predator-prey ratio seems really off the scale. What
is interesting is the little dromaeosaurs, the ones we know for sure were good predators,
are haven’t been found.”

That is why he sees T-rex not as the lion of the Cretaceous savannah but its vulture. “Look at
the wildebeest that migrate in the Serengeti of Africa, a million individuals lose about
200,000 individuals in that annual migration. There is a tremendous carrion base there. And
so you have hyenas, you have tremendous numbers of vultures that are scavenging, you
don’t have all that many animals that are good predators. If T-rex was a top predator,
especially considering how big it is, you’d expect it to be extremely rare, much rarer than
the little dromaeosaurs, and yet they are everywhere, they are a dime a dozen,” he says. A
12-tonne T-rex is a lot of vulture, but he doesn’t see the monster as clumsy. He insisted his
theory and finding, dedicated to further research upon it, of course, he would like to
reevaluate if there is any case that additional evidence found or explanation raised by
others in the future.

He examined the leg bones of the T-rex, and compared the length of the thigh bone (upper
leg), to the shin bone (lower leg). He found that the thigh bone was equal in length or
slightly longer than the shin bone, and much thicker and heavier, which proves that the
animal was built to be a slow walker rather than fast running. On the other hand, the fossils
of fast hunting dinosaurs always showed that the shin bone was longer than the thigh bone.
This same truth can be observed in many animals of today which are designed to run fast:
the ostrich, cheetah, etc.

He also studied the fossil teeth of the T-rex, and compared them with the teeth of the
Velociraptor, and put the nail in the coffin of the “hunter T-rex theory”. The Velociraptor’s
teeth which like stake knives: sharp, razor-edged, and capable of tearing through flesh with
ease. The T-rex’s teeth were huge, sharp at their tip, but blunt, propelled by enormous jaw
muscles, which enabled them to only crush bones.

With the evidence presented in his documentary, Horner was able to prove that the idea of
the T-rex as being a hunting and ruthless killing machine is probably just a myth. In light of
the scientific clues he was able to unearth, the T-rex was a slow, sluggish animal which had
poor vision, an extraordinary sense of smell, that often reached its “prey” after the real
hunters were done feeding, and sometimes it had to scare the hunters away from a corpse.

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In order to do that, the T-rex had to have been ugly, nasty-looking, and stinky. This is
actually true of nearly all scavenger animals. They are usually vile and nasty looking.

SECTION 1: QUESTIONS 1-13


Questions 1-7
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1?

In boxes 1-7 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

1. Jack Horner knew exactly the bone picked up in his father’s ranch belonged to a certain
dinosaur when he was at the age of 8.

2. Jack Horner achieved a distinctive degree in university when he graduated.

3. Jack Horner believes that the number of prey should be more than that of predators.

4. T-rex’s number is equivalent to the number of vulture in the Serengeti.

5. The hypothesis that T-rex is top predator conflicts with the fact of predator-prey ratio
which Jack found.

6. Jack Horner refused to accept any other viewpoints about T-rex’s theory.

7. Jack Horner is the first man that discovered T-rex’s bones in the world.

Questions 8-13
Complete the following summary of the paragraphs of Reading Passage, using NO MORE
THAN TWO WORDS from the Reading Passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 8-13 on your answer sheet.

Jack Horner found that T-rex’s (8)_____________is shorter than the thigh bone,which
demonstrated that it was actually a (9)_____________, unlike other swift animals such as
ostrich or (10)_____________that was built to (11)_____________. Another explanation
support his idea is that T-rex’s teeth were rather (12)_____________, which only allowed T-
rex to (13)_____________hard bones instead of tearing flesh like Velociraptor.

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READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-27, which are based on
Reading Passage 2 below.

Leaf-Cutting Ants and Fungus


A The ants and their agriculture have been extensively studied over the years,but the recent
research has uncovered intriguing new findings about the fungus they cultivate, how they
domesticated it and how they cultivate it and preserve it from pathogens (病原体).For
example, the fungus farms, which the ants were thought to keep free of pathogens, turn out
to be vulnerable to a devastating mold, found nowhere else but in ants’nests. To keep the
mold in check, the ants long ago made a discovery that would do credit to any
pharmaceutical laboratory.

B Leaf-cutting ants and their fungus farms are a marvel of nature and perhaps the best
known example of symbiosis, the mutual dependence of two species. The ants’achievement
is remarkable --the biologist Edward O. Wilson has called it “one of the major breakthroughs
in animal evolution”--because it allows them to eat, courtesy of their mushroom’s digestive
powers, the otherwise poisoned harvest of tropical forests whose leaves are laden with
terpenoids, alkaloids and other chemicals designed to sicken browsers.

C Fungus growing seems to have originated only once in evolution, because all gardening
ants belong to a single tribe, the descendants of the first fungus farmer. There are more
than 200 known species of the attine ant tribe, divided into 12 groups, or genera. The leaf-
cutters use fresh vegetation; the other groups, known as the lower attines because their

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nests are smaller and their techniques more primitive, feed their gardens with detritus like
dead leaves, insects and feces.

D The leaf-cutters’fungus was indeed descended from a single strain, propagated clonally,or
just by budding, for at least 23 million years. But the lower attine ants used different
varieties of the fungus, and in one case a quite separate species, the four biologists
discovered.The pure strain of fungus grown by the leaf-cutters, it seemed to Mr. Currie,
resembled the monocultures of various human crops, that are very productive for a while
and then succumb to some disastrous pathogen, such as the Irish potato blight.
Monocultures, which lack the genetic diversity to respond to changing environmental
threats, are sitting ducks for parasites. Mr. Currie felt there had to be aparasite in the
antfungus system. But a century of ant research offered no support for the idea. Textbooks
describe how leaf-cutter ants scrupulously weed their gardens of all foreign organisms.
“People kept telling me, ‘You know the ants keep their gardens free of parasites, don’t
you?’ “Mr. Currie said of his efforts to find a hidden interloper.

E But after three years of sifting through attine ant gardens, Mr. Currie discovered
they are far from free of infections. In last month’s issue of the Proceedings of the National
Academy of Sciences, he and two colleagues, Dr. Mueller and David Mairoch, isolated
several alien organisms, particularly a family of parasitic molds called Escovopsis.

F Escovopsis turns out to be a highly virulent pathogen that can devastate a fungus garden
in a couple of days. It blooms like a white cloud, with the garden dimly visible underneath.
In a day or two the whole garden is enveloped. “Other ants won’t go near it and the ants
associated with the garden just starve to death,”Dr. Rehner said. “They just seem to give up,
except for those that have rescued their larvae.”The deadly mold then turns greenishbrown
as it enters its spore-forming stage.

G Evidently the ants usually manage to keep Escovopsis and other parasites undercontrol.
But with any lapse in control, or if the ants are removed, Escovopsis will quickly burst forth.
Although new leaf-cutter gardens start off free of Escovopsis, within two years some 60
percent become infected. The discovery of Escovopsis’s role brings a new level of
understanding to the evolution of the attine ants. “In the last decade, evolutionary
biologists have been increasingly aware of the role of parasites as driving forces in
evolution,”Dr. Schultz said. There is now a possible reason to explain why the lower attine
species keep changing the variety of fungus in their mushroom gardens, and occasionally
domesticating new ones—to stay one step ahead of the relentless Escovopsis.

H Interestingly, Mr. Currie found that the leaf-cutters had in general fewer alien molds in
their gardens than the lower attines, yet they had more Escovopsis infections. It seems that
the price they pay for cultivating a pure variety of fungus is a higher risk from Escovopsis.
But the leaf-cutters may have little alternative: they cultivate a special variety of fungus

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which, unlike those grown by the lower attines, produces nutritious swollen tips for the ants
to eat.

I Discovery of a third partner in the ant-fungus symbiosis raises the question of how the
attine ants, especially the leaf-cutters, keep this dangerous interloper undercontrol.
Amazingly enough, Mr. Currie has again provided the answer. “People have known for a
hundred years that ants have a whitish growth onthe cuticle,”said Dr. Mueller, referring to
the insects’body surface. “People wouldsay this is like a cuticular wax. But Cameron was the
first one in a hundred years to put these things under a microscope. He saw it was not
inertwax. It is alive.”Mr. Currie discovered a specialized patch on the ants’cuticle that
harbors a particular kind of bacterium, one well known to the pharmaceutical industry,
because it is the source of half the antibiotics used in medicine. From each of 22 species of
attine ant studied, Mr. Cameron and colleagues isolated a species of Streptomyces
bacterium, they reported in Nature in April. The Streptomyces does not have much effect on
ordinary laboratory funguses. But it is a potent poisoner of Escovopsis, inhibiting its growth
and suppressing spore formation. It also stimulates growth of the ants’mushroom fungus.
The bacterium is carried by virgin queens when they leave to establish new nests, but is not
found on male ants, playboys who take no responsibility in nest-making or gardening.

J Because both the leaf-cutters and the lower attines use Streptomyces, the bacterium may
have been part of their symbiosis for almost as long as the Escovopsis mold. If so, some
Alexander Fleming of an ant discovered antibiotics millions of years before people did.
Even now, the ants are accomplishing two feats beyond the powers of human technology.
The leafcutters are growing a monocultural crop year after year without disaster, and they
are using an antibiotic apparently so wisely and prudently that, unlike people, they are not
provoking antibiotic resistance in the target pathogen.

SECTION 2: QUESTIONS 14-26


Questions 14-19
Use the information in the passage to match the options (listed A-C) with activities or
features of ants below.

Write the appropriate letters A-C in boxes 14-19 on your answer sheet

NB you may use any letter more than once

A Leaf-cutting ants

B Lower attines

C Both leaft-cutting ants and lower attine ants

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14. can use toxic leaves to feed fungus 18. normally keep a highly dangerous
parasite under control
15. build small nests and live with
different foreign fungus 19. use special strategies to fight against
Escovopsis
16. use dead vegetation to feed fungus

17. raise a single fungus which do not live


with other variety of foreigners

Questions 20-24
The reading Passage has ten paragraphs A-J.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the correct letter A-J, in boxes 20-24 on your answer sheet.

20. Dangerous outcome of Escovopsis.

21. Risk of growing single fungus.

22. Comparison of features of two different nests for feeding gardens.

23. Discovery of significant achievements made by ants earlier than human.

24. Advantage of growing new breed of fungus in the ant farm.

Questions 25-26
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write your answers in boxes 25-26 on your answer sheet.

25. How does the author think of Currie’s opinion on the saying “ants keep their gardens
free of parasites”?

A. his viewpoint was verified later.


B. his earlier study has sufficient evidence immediately.
C. there is no details mentioned in the article.
D. his opinion was proved to be wrong later on.

26. What did scientists find on the skin of ants under microscope?

A. some white cloud mold embed in their skin


B. that wax is all over their skin
C. a substance which is useful to humans
D. a substance which suppresses growth of fungus.

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E. READING PASSAGE 3
F. You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based
on Reading Passage 3 below.

G.
H. Stealth Forces in weight Loss
I. The field of weight loss is like the ancient fable about the blind men and the
elephant. Each man investigates a different part of the animal and reports back, only
to discover their findings are bafflingly incompatible.
J. A. The various findings by public-health experts, physicians, psychologists,
geneticists, molecular biologists, and nutritionists are about as similar as an
elephant’s tusk is to its tail. Some say obesity is largely predetermined by our genes
and biology; others attribute it to an overabundance of fries, soda,
and screensucking; still others think we’re fat because of viral infection, insulin, or
the metabolic conditions we encountered in the womb. “Everyone subscribes to
their own little theory,” says Robert Berkowitz, medical director of the Center for
Weight and Eating Disorders at the University of Pennsylvania School of Medicine.
We’re programmed to hang onto the fat we have, and some people are predisposed
to create and carry more fat than others. Diet and exercise help, but in the end the
solution will inevitably be more complicated than pushing away the plate and going
for a walk. “It’s not as simple as ‘You’re fat because you’re lazy,’”
says Nikhil Dhurandhar, an associate professor at Pennington Biomedical Research
Center in Baton Rouge. “Willpower is not a prerogative of thin people. It’s
distributed equally.”
K. B. Science may still be years away from giving us a miracle formula for fat-loss.
Hormone leptin is a crucial player in the brain’s weight-management circuitry. Some
people produce too little leptin; others become desensitized to it. And when obese
people lose weight, their leptin levels plummet along with their metabolism. The
body becomes more efficient at using fuel and conserving fat, which makes it tough
to keep the weight off. Obese dieters’ bodies go into a state of chronic hunger, a
feeling Rudolph Leibel, an obesity researcher at Columbia University, compares to
thirst. “Some people might be able to tolerate chronic thirst, but the majority

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couldn’t stand it,” says Leibel. “Is that a behavioral problem - a lack of willpower? I
don’t think so.”
L. C. The government has long espoused moderate daily exercise - of the evening-walk
or take-the-stairs variety - but that may not do much to budge the needle on the
scale. A 150-pound person burns only 150 calories on a half-hour walk, the
equivalent of two apples. It’s good for the heart, less so for the gut. “Radical changes
are necessary,” says Deirdre Barrett, a psychologist at Harvard Medical School and
author of Waistland. “People don’t lose weight by choosing the small fries or taking a
little walk every other day.” Barrett suggests taking a cue from the members of the
National Weight Control Registry (NWCR), a self-selected group of more than 5,000
successful weight-losers who have shed an average of 66 pounds and kept it off 5.5
years. Some registry members lost weight using low-carb diets; some went low-fat;
others eliminated refined foods. Some did it on their own; others relied on
counseling. That said, not everyone can lose 66 pounds and not everyone needs to.
The goal shouldn’t be getting thin, but getting healthy. It’s enough to whittle your
weight down to the low end of your set range, says Jeffrey Friedman, a geneticist at
New York’s Rockefeller University. Losing even 10 pounds vastly decreases your risk
of diabetes, heart disease, and high blood pressure. The point is to not give up just
because you don’t look like a swimsuit model.
M. D. The negotiation between your genes and the environment begins on day one.
Your optimal weight, writ by genes, appears to get edited early on by conditions
even before birth, inside the womb. If a woman has high blood-sugar levels while
she’s pregnant, her children are more likely to be overweight or obese, according to
a study of almost 10,000 mother-child pairs. Maternal diabetes may influence a
child’s obesity risk through a process called metabolic imprinting, says Teresa Hillier,
an endocrinologist with Kaiser Permanente’s Center for Health Research and
the study’s lead author. The implication is clear: Weight may be established very
early on, and obesity largely passed from mother to child. Numerous studies in both
animals and humans have shown that a mother’s obesity directly increases her
child’s risk for weight gain. The best advice for moms-to-be: Get fit before you get
pregnant. You’ll reduce your risk of complications during pregnancy and increase
your chances of having a normal-weight child.
N. E. It’s the $64,000 question: Which diets work? It got people wondering: Isn’t there a
better way to diet? A study seemed to offer an answer. The paper compared two
groups of adults: those who, after eating, secreted high levels of insulin, a hormone
that sweeps blood sugar out of the bloodstream and promotes its storage as fat, and
those who secreted less. Within each group, half were put on a low-fat diet and half
on a low-glycemic-load diet. On average, the low-insulin- secreting group fared the
same on both diets, losing nearly 10 pounds in the first six months - but they gained
about half of it back by the end of the 18-month study. The high-insulin group didn’t
do as well on the low-fat plan, losing about 4.5 pounds, and gaining back more than

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half by the end. But the most successful were the high- insulin-secretors on the low-
glycemic-load diet. They lost nearly 13 pounds and kept it off.
O. F. What if your fat is caused not by diet or genes, but by germs - say, a virus? It
sounds like a sci-fi horror movie, but new research suggests some dimension of the
obesity epidemic may be attributable to infection by common viruses,
says Dhurandhar. The idea of “infectobesity” came to him 20 years ago when he was
a young doctor treating obesity in Bombay. He discovered that a local avian
virus, SMAM-1, caused chickens to die, sickened with organ damage but also,
strangely, with lots of abdominal fat. In experiments, Dhurandhar found that SMAM-
1-infected chickens became obese on the same diet as uninfected ones, which
stayed svelte.
P. G. He later moved to the U.S. and onto a bona fide human virus, adenovirus 36 (AD-
36). In the lab, every species of animal Dhurandhar infected with the virus became
obese - chickens got fat, mice got fat, even rhesus monkeys at the zoo that picked up
the virus from the environment suddenly gained 15 percent of their body weight
upon exposure. In his latest studies, Dhurandhar has isolated a gene that, when
blocked from expressing itself, seems to turn off the virus’s fattening power. Stem
cells extracted from fat cells and then exposed to AD-36 reliably blossom into fat
cells - but when stem cells are exposed to an AD-36 virus with the key gene
inhibited, the stems cells don’t differentiate. The gene appears to be necessary and
sufficient to trigger AD-36-related obesity, and the goal is to use the research to
create a sort of obesity vaccine.
Q. SECTION 3: QUESTION 27-40
R. Questions 27-31
S. Reading Passage has seven sections, A-G. Which section contains the following
information?
T. Write the correct letter, A-G, in boxes 17-31 on your answer sheet.
U. NB You may use any letter more than once.
V. 27. evaluation on the effect of weight loss on different kind of diets
W. 28. an example of research which includes the relatives of the participants
X. 29. an example of a group of people who did not regain weight immediately after
weight loss
Y. 30. long term hunger may appear to be acceptable to most of the participants during
the period of losing weight program
Z. 31. a continuous experiment may lead to a practical application besides diet or
hereditary resort
AA. Questions 32-36
BB. Look at the following researchers and the list of findings below.
CC. Match each researcher with the correct finding.
DD.Write the correct letter in boxes 32-36 on your answer sheet.

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EE. NB You may use any letter more than once


A Robert Berkowitz D Deirdre Barrett

B Rudolph Leibel E Jeffrey Friedman

C Nikhil Dhurandhar F Teresa Hillier

FF. 32. A person’s weight is predetermined by the interaction of his/her DNA and the
environment
GG. 33. Pregnant mothers who are overweight may risk their fetus in gaining
weight.
HH.34. The aim of losing weight should be keeping healthy rather than being attractive.
II. 35. Small changes in lifestyle will not help in reducing much weight.
JJ. 36. Researchers should be divided into different groups with their own point of view
about weight loss.
KK. Questions 37-40
LL. Complete the summery below. Choose NO MORE THAN ONE WORD from the
passage for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 37-40 on your answer sheet.

In Bombay Clinic, a young doctor who came up with the concept


‘infectobesity’ believed that the obesity is caused by a kind of virus. For years,
he conducted experiments on (37)______________. Finally, later as he
moved to America, he identified a new virus named (38)____________which
proved to be a significant breakthrough inducing more weight. Although
there seems no way to eliminate the virus still now, a kind
of (39)______________can be separated as to block the effectiveness of the
virus. In the future, the doctor future is aiming at developing a
new (40)______________which might effectively combat against the virus

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TEST 11

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LISTENING
SECTION 1 : QUESTIONS 1-10
Questions 1-5
Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD OR A
NUMBER for each answer.

Oakham Surgery New Patient Form

Example Answer

NEW PATIENT’S ROAD Dawson Road

FULL NAME Mike (1)_____________

WIFE’S FIRST NAME Janet

CHILDRENS’ FIRST NAMES 1st (2)_____________2nd 3rd 4th

ADDRESS 52 Dawson Road (3)_____________Melbourne

HEALTH CARD NUMBER (4)_____________

WIFE’S HEALTH CARD NUMBER will give later

PREFERRED DOCTOR SELECTED (5)_____________White

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Questions 6-10
Circle the correct letters A-C.

6. When is Mike’s wife’s first appointment?

A. Friday 21st at 2.00pm.


B. Friday 21st at 2.30pm.
C. Friday 21st at 3.30pm.
7. What is the surgery’s phone number?
A. 7253 9819
B. 7253 9829
C. 7523 9829
8. What is the name of the girl with whom Mike is speaking at the surgery?
A. Rachel
B. Elizabeth
C. Angela

9. What’s the night doctor’s mobile number?

A. 0506 759 3856


B. 0506 759 3857
C. 0506 758 3856

10. Which of the following does the surgery NOT make a charge for?
A. Travel vaccinations
B. Consultations
C. Insurance reports
SECTION 2 : QUESTIONS 11-20
Questions 11-16
Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Notes on Library

Joining Library You will need: A completed application form.

(11)___________

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(12)___________

Two passport photos.

8am – 10pm (13)___________


Opening Hours Library Reception 9am – 5pm - 6.30 on (14)___________
(Mon-Sat: closed on Sundays)

Borrowing Undergraduates 4 books

Postgraduates (15)___________

Borrowing for 2 weeks + (16)___________. books renewals (in person)

No renewals over phone


Late return penalty: £2 per week

Questions 17-20
Label the library layout below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Ground Floor reception; (17)___________bathrooms; (18)___________

First Floor (19)___________section

Second Floor Science Section

(20)___________ Stack System

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SECTION 3 : QUESTIONS 21-30


Questions 21-24
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

When will Simon begin writing his essay?

(21)___________________________________________

According to Simon, what kind of problems did Jaguar have in the 1970s and 80s?

(22)___________________________________________

What is the word limit for the essay?

(23)___________________________________________

What is the preferable method for handing in the essay?

(24)___________________________________________

Questions 25-27
Complete the sentences below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Jennifer wants to write about how (25)___________are used by supermarkets.

Jennifer found some publications in the library (26)___________to help her analysis.

The tutor warned Jennifer about (27)___________in her work.

Questions 28-30
Complete the tutor’s summary notes on Melanie below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Notes on Student Essays

Student Melanie needs an (28)___________as she has been unwell with the flu. She will get
a (29)___________from the doctor. She’s going to write about (30)___________in the UK
and their effect on housing trends. She should be on track with the essay by the end of the
weekend.

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SECTION 4 : QUESTIONS 31-40


Questions 31-33
Choose the correct letters A-C.

31. The Pacific is more prone to tsunami because…

A. it has many faults.


B. its faults undergo subduction.
C. its tectonic plates are bigger than elsewhere.

32. The biggest tsunami are usually created by…

A. undersea volcanic eruptions.


B. undersea earthquakes.
C. undersea landslides.

33. Tsunami are difficult to detect in deep water because of…

A. their wavelength.
B. their high speed.
C. their wave rate.

Questions 34-35
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

List the two ways which the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration has set up to
detect tsunami.

(34)___________________________________

(35)___________________________________

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Questions 36-40
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

When Happened Cause Deaths Caused Wave Height

1992 (36)___________ none 3 feet

Underwate
1992 none (37)___________
earthquake

1998 (38)___________ 1200 23 feet

Underwater
1998 3000 40 feet
volcanic eruption

Underwater
1896 (39)___________ 35 feet
earthquake

Underwater
8000 years ago (40)___________ 30 feet
landslide

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READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13 which are based on
Reading Passage 1 below

Ants Could Teach Ants


The ants are tiny and usually nest between rocks in the south coast of England. Transformed
into research subjects at the University of Bristol, they raced along a tabletop foraging for
food -and then, remarkably, returned to guide others. Time and again, followers trailed
behind leaders, darting this way and that along the route, presumably to memorize land-
marks. Once a follower got its bearings, it tapped the leader with its antennae, prompting
the lesson to literally proceed to the next step. The ants were only looking for food but the
researchers said the careful way the leaders led followers -thereby turning them into
leaders in their own right -marked the Temnothorax albipennis ant as the very first example
of a non-human animal exhibiting teaching behavior.

"Tandem running is an example of teaching, to our knowledge the first in a non-human


animal, that involves bidirectional feedback between teacher and pupil," remarks Nigel
Franks, professor of animal behavior and ecology, whose paper on the ant educators was
published last week in the journal Nature.

No sooner was the paper published, of course, than another educator questioned it. Marc
Hauser, a psychologist and biologist and one of the scientists who came up with the
definition of teaching, said it was unclear whether the ants had learned a new skill or merely
acquired new information.

Later, Franks took a further study and found that there were even races between leaders.
With the guidance of leaders, ants could find food faster. But the help comes at a cost for

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the leader, who normally would have reached the food about four times faster if not
hampered by a follower. This means the hypothesis that the leaders deliberately slowed
down in order to pass the skills on to the followers seems potentially valid. His ideas were
advocated by the students who carried out the video project with him.

Opposing views still arose, however. Hauser noted that mere communication of information
is commonplace in the animal world. Consider a species, for example, that uses alarm calls
to warn fellow members about the presence of a predator. Sounding the alarm can be
costly, because the animal may draw the attention of the predator to itself. But it allows
others to flee to safety. “Would you call this teaching?” wrote Hauser. “The caller incurs a
cost. The naive animals gain a benefit and new knowledge that better enables them to learn
about the predator’s location than if the caller had not called. This happens throughout the
animal kingdom, but we don’t call it teaching, even though it is clearly transfer of
information.”

Tim Caro, a zoologist, presented two cases of animal communication. He found that cheetah
mothers that take their cubs along on hunts gradually allow their cubs to do more of the
hunting -going, for example, from killing a gazelle and allowing young cubs to eat to merely
tripping the gazelle and letting the cubs finish it off. At one level, such behavior might be
called teaching -except the mother was not really teaching the cubs to hunt but merely
facilitating various stages of learning. In another instance, birds watching other birds using a
stick to locate food such as insects and so on, are observed to do the same thing themselves
while finding food later.

Psychologists study animal behavior in part to understand the evolutionary roots of human
behavior, Hauser said. The challenge in understanding whether other animals truly teach
one another, he added, is that human teaching involves a “theory of mind” -teachers are
aware that students don’t know something. He questioned whether Franks’s leader ants
really knew that the follower ants were ignorant. Could they simply have been following an
instinctive rule to proceed when the followers tapped them on the legs or abdomen? And
did leaders that led the way to food -only to find that it had been removed by the
experimenter -incur the wrath of followers? That, Hauser said, would suggest that the
follower ant actually knew the leader was more knowledgeable and not merely following an
instinctive routine itself.

The controversy went on, and for a good reason. The occurrence of teaching in ants, if
proven to be true, indicates that teaching can evolve in animals with tiny brains. It is
probably the value of information in social animals that determines when teaching will
evolve rather than the constraints of brain size.

Bennett Galef Jr., a psychologist who studies animal behavior and social learning at
McMaster University in Canada, maintained that ants were unlikely to have a “theory of
mind” -meaning that leader and followers may well have been following instinctive routines

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that were not based on an understanding of what was happening in another ant’s brain. He
warned that scientists may be barking up the wrong tree when they look not only for
examples of human like behavior among other animals but human like thinking that
underlies such behavior. Animals may behave in ways similar to humans without a similar
cognitive system, he said, so the behavior is not necessarily a good guide into how humans
came to think the way they do.

SECTION 1: QUESTION 1-13


Questions 1-5
Look at the following statements (Questions 1-5) and the list of people in the box below.

Match each statement with the correct person, A, B, C or D.

Write the correct letter, A, B, C or D, in boxes 1-5 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

1. Animals could use objects to locate food.

2. Ants show two-way, interactive teaching behaviors.

3. It is risky to say ants can teach other ants like human beings do.

4. Ant leadership makes finding food faster.

5. Communication between ants is not entirely teaching.

A Nigel Franks

B Marc Hauser

C Tim Caro

D Bennett Galef Jr.

Questions 6-9
Choose FOUR letters, A-H

Write your answers in boxes 6-9 on your answer sheet.

Which FOUR of the following behaviors of animals are mentioned in the passage?

A. touch each other with antenna


B. alert others when there is danger
C. escape from predators

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D. protect the young


E. hunt food for the young
F. fight with each other
G. use tools like twigs
H. feed on a variety of foods

Questions 10-13
Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading Passage 1?

In boxes 10-13 on your answer sheet, write

YES if the statement agrees with the views of the writer

NO if the statement contradicts the views of the writer

NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

10. Ants' tandem running involves only one-way communication.

11. Franks's theory got many supporters immediately after publicity.

12. Ants' teaching behavior is the same as that of human.

13. Cheetah share hunting gains to younger ones

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READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26 which are based on
Reading Passage 2.

The Development of Plastics


When rubber was first commercially produced in Europe during the nineteenth century, it
rapidly became a very important commodity, particularly in the fields of transportation and
electricity. However, during the twentieth century a number of new synthetic materials,
called plastics, superseded natural rubber in all but a few applications.

Rubber is a polymer—a compound containing large molecules that are formed by the
bonding of many smaller, simpler units, repeated over and over again. The same bonding
principle—polymerization—underlies the creation of a huge range of plastics by the
chemical industry.

The first plastic was developed as a result of a competition in the USA. In the 1860s, $10,000
was offered to anybody who could replace ivory—supplies of which were declining—with
something equally good as a material for making billiard balls. The prize was won by John
Wesley Hyatt with a material called celluloid. Celluloid was made by dissolving cellulose, a
carbohydrate derived from plants, in a solution of camphor dissolved in ethanol. This new
material rapidly found uses in the manufacture of products such as knife handles,
detachable collars and cuffs, spectacle frames and photographic film. Without celluloid, the
film industry could never have got off the ground at the end of the 19th century.

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Celluloid can be repeatedly softened and reshaped by heat, and is known as a


thermoplastic. In 1907, Leo Baekeland, a Belgian chemist working in the USA, invented a
different kind of plastic, by causing phenol and formaldehyde to react together. Baekeland
called the material Bakelite, and it was the first of the thermosets—plastics that can be cast
and moulded while hot, but cannot be softened by heat and reshaped once they have set.
Bakelite was a good insulator, and was resistant to water, acids and moderate heat. With
these properties it was soon being used in the manufacture of switches, household items
such as knife handles, and electrical components for cars.

Soon chemists began looking for other small molecules that could be strung together to
make polymers. In the 1930s British chemists discovered that the gas ethylene would
polymerize under heat and pressure to form a thermoplastic they called polythene.
Polypropylene followed in the 1950s. Both were used to make bottles, pipes and plastic
bags. A small change in the starting material—replacing a hydrogen atom in ethylene with a
chlorine atom—produced PVC (polyvinyl chloride), a hard, fireproof plastic suitable for
drains and gutters. And by adding certain chemicals, a soft form of PVC could be produced,
suitable as a substitute for rubber in items such as waterproof clothing. A closely related
plastic was Teflon, or PTFE (polytetrafluoroethylene). This had a very low coefficient of
friction, making it ideal for bearings, rollers, and non-stick frying
pans. Polystyrene, developed during the 1930s in Germany, was a clear, glass-like material,
used in food containers, domestic appliances and toys. Expanded polystyrene—a white,
rigid foam—was widely used in packaging and insulation. Polyurethanes, also developed in
Germany, found uses as adhesives, coatings, and—in the form of rigid foams—as insulation
materials. They are all produced from chemicals derived from crude oil, which contains
exactly the same elements—carbon and hydrogen—as many plastics.

The first of the man-made fibres, nylon, was also created in the 1930s. Its inventor was a
chemist called Wallace Carothers, who worked for the Du Pont company in the USA. He
found that under the right conditions, two chemicals— hexamethylenediamine and adipic
acid—would form a polymer that could be pumped out through holes and then stretched to
form long glossy threads that could be woven like silk. Its first use was to make parachutes
for the US armed forces in World War H. In the post-war years nylon completely replaced
silk in the manufacture of stockings. Subsequently many other synthetic fibres joined nylon,
including Orion, Acrilan and Terylene. Today most garments are made of a blend of natural
fibres, such as cotton and wool, and man-made fibres that make fabrics easier to look after.

The great strength of plastic is its indestructibility. However, this quality is also something of
a drawback: beaches all over the world, even on the remotest islands, are littered with
plastic bottles that nothing can destroy. Nor is it very easy to recycle plastics, as different
types of plastic are often used in the same items and call for different treatments. Plastics
can be made biodegradable by incorporating into their structure a material such as starch,
which is attacked by bacteria and causes the plastic to fall apart. Other materials can be

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incorporated that gradually decay in sunlight—although bottles made of such materials


have to be stored in the dark, to ensure that they do not disintegrate before they have been
used.

SECTION 2: QUESTIONS 14-26


Questions 14-20
Complete the table below

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passages for each answer

Write your answer in boxes 14-20 on your answer sheet.

Date of
Name of plastic Original region Property Common use
invention

Celluloid 1860s US (14)____________

(16)____________
Can be cast and moulded
(15)____________ 1907 US but cannot be softened
household items and
by heat
car parts

Polythene 1930 (17)____________ Bottles

Rigid PVC (18)____________

Polystyrene 1930s Germany (19)____________ Food container

Adhesives, coatings and


Polyurethanes Germany (20)____________ foams
insulation

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Questions 21-26
Do the following statements agree with the information in Reading Passage?

In boxes 21-26 on your answer sheet write

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

21. The chemical structure of plastic is very different from that of rubber.

22. John Wesley was a famous chemist.

23. Celluloid and Bakelite react to heat in the same way.

24. The mix of different varieties of plastic can make the recycling more difficult.

25. Adding starch into plastic can make plastic more durable.

26. Some plastic containers have to be preserved in special

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READING PASSAGE 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40 which are based on
Reading Passage 3.

Global Warming in New Zealand


For many environmentalists, the world seems to be getting warmer. As the nearest country
of South Polar Region, New Zealand has maintained an upward trend in its average
temperature in the past few years. However, the temperature in New Zealand will go up
4oC in the next century while the polar region will go up more than 6oC. The different
pictures of temperature stem from its surrounding ocean which acts like the air conditioner.
Thus New Zealand is comparatively fortunate.

Scientifically speaking, this temperature phenomenon in New Zealand originated from what
researchers call “SAM” (Southern Annular Mode), which refers to the wind belt that circles
the Southern Oceans including New Zealand and Antarctica. Yet recent work has revealed
that changes in SAM in New Zealand have resulted in a weakening of moisture during the
summer, and more rainfall in other seasons. A bigger problem may turn out to be heavier
droughts for agricultural activities because of more water loss from soil, resulting in poorer
harvest before winter when the rainfall arrive too late to rescue.

Among all the calamities posed be drought, moisture deficit ranks the first. Moisture deficit
is the gap between the water plants need during the growing season and the water the
earth can offer. Measures of moisture deficit were at their highest since the 1970s in New
Zealand. Meanwhile, ecological analyses clearly show moisture deficit is imposed at
different growth stage of crops. If moisture deficit occurs around a crucial growth stage, it
will cause about 22% reduction in grain yield as opposed to moisture deficit at vegetative
phase.

Global warming is not only affecting agriculture production. When scientists say the
country’s snow pack and glaciers are melting at an alarming rate due to global warming, the
climate is putting another strain on the local places. For example, when the development of
global warming is accompanied by the falling snow line, the local skiing industry comes into

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a crisis. The snow line may move up as the temperature goes up, and then the snow at the
bottom will melt earlier. Fortunately, it is going to be favorable for the local skiing industry
to tide over tough periods since the quantities of snowfall in some areas are more likely to
increase.

What is the reaction of glacier region? The climate change can be reflected in the glacier
region in southern New Zealand or land covered by ice and snow. The reaction of a glacier
to a climatic change involves a complex chain of processes. Over time periods of years to
several decades, cumulative changes in mass balance cause volume and thickness changes,
which will affect the flow of ice via altered internal deformation and basal sliding. This
dynamic reaction finally leads to glacier length changes, the advance or retreat of glacier
tongues. Undoubtedly, glacier mass balance is a more direct signal of annual atmospheric
conditions.

The latest research result of National Institute of Water and Atmospheric (NIWA) Research
shows that glaciers line keeps moving up because of the impacts of global warming. Further
losses of ice can be reflected in Mt. Cook Region. By 1996, a 14 km long sector of the glacier
had melted down forming a melt lake (Hooker Lake) with a volume. Melting of the glacier
front at a rate of 40 m/yr will cause the glacier to retreat at a rather uniform rate.
Therefore, the lake will continue to grow until it reaches the glacier bed.

A direct result of the melting glaciers is the change of high tides the serves the main factor
for sea level rise. The trend of sea level rise will bring a threat to the groundwater system
for its hyper-saline groundwater and then pose a possibility to decrease the agricultural
production. Many experts believe that the best way to counter this trend is to give a longer-
term view of sea level change in New Zealand. Indeed, the coastal boundaries need to be
upgraded and redefined.

There is no doubt that global warming has affected New Zealand in many aspects. The
emphasis on the global warming should be based on the joints efforts of local people and
experts who conquer the tough period. For instance, farmers are taking a long term, multi-
generational approach to adjust the breeds and species according to the temperature.
Agriculturists also find ways to tackle the problems that may bring to the soil. In broad
terms, going forward, the systemic resilience that’s been going on a long time in the
ecosystem will continue.

How about animals’ reaction? Experts have surprisingly realized that animals have
unconventional adaptation to global warming. A study has looked at sea turtles on a few
northern beaches in New Zealand and it is very interesting to find that sea turtles can
become male or female according to the temperature. Further researches will try to find out
how rising temperatures would affect the ratio of sex reversal in their growth. Clearly, the
temperature of the nest plays a vital role in the sexes of the baby turtles.

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Tackling the problems of global warming is never easy in New Zealand, because records
show the slow process of global warming may have a different impact on various regions.
For New Zealand, the emission of carbon dioxide only accounts for 0.5% of the world’s total,
which has met the governmental standard.

However, New Zealand’s effort counts only a tip of the iceberg. So far, global warming has
been a world issue that still hangs in an ambiguous future.

SECTION 3: QUESTIONS 27-40


Questions 27-32
Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D.

Write the correct letter in boxes 27-32 on your answer sheet.

27. What is the main idea of the first paragraph?

A. The temperature in the polar region will increase less than that in New Zealand in
the next century.
B. The weather and climate of New Zealand is very important to its people because of
its close location to the polar region.
C. The air condition in New Zealand will maintain a high quality because of the ocean.
D. The temperature of New Zealand will increase less than that of other region in the
next 100 years because it is surrounded by sea

28. What is one effect of the wind belt that circles the Southern Oceans?

A. New Zealand will have more moisture in winds in summer.


B. New Zealand needs to face droughts more often in hotter months in a year.
C. Soil water will increase as a result of weakening moisture in the winds
D. Agricultural production will be reduced as a result of more rainfall in other seasons

29. What does “moisture deficit” mean to the grain and crops?

A. The growing condition will be very tough for crops.


B. The growing season of some plants can hardly be determined.
C. There will be a huge gap between the water plants needed and the water the earth
can offer.
D. The soil of the grain and crops in New Zealand reached its lowest production since
1970s.

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30. What changes will happen to skiing industry due to the global warming phenomenon?

A. The skiing station may lower the altitude of skiing


B. Part of the skiing station needs to move to the north.
C. The snowfall may increase in part of skiing station.
D. The local skiing station may likely to make a profit because of the snowfall increase.

31. Cumulative changes over a long period of time in mass balance will lead to

A. Alterations is the volume and thickness of glaciers.


B. Faster changes in internal deformation and basal sliding.
C. Larger length of glaciers.
D. Retreat of glacier tongues as a result of change in annual atmospheric conditions.

32. Why does the writer mention NIWA in the sixth paragraph?

A. To use a particular example to explain the effects brought by glacier melting.


B. To emphasize the severance of the further loss of ice in Mt. Cook Region.
C. To alarm the reader of melting speed of glaciers at a uniform rate.
D. To note the lake in the region will be disappear when it reach the glacier bed.

Questions 33-35
Complete the summary below.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.

Write your answer in boxes 33-35 on your answer sheet.

Research date shows that sea level has a closely relation with the change of climate. The
major reason for the increase in sea level is connected with (33)__________. The increase in
sea level is also said to have a threat to the underground water system, the destruction of
which caused by rise of sea level will lead to a high probability of reduction
in (34)__________. In the long run, New Zealand may have to improve the (35)__________if
they want to diminish the effect change in sea levels.

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Questions 36-40
Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading Passage 3?

In boxes 36-40 on your answer sheet write

YES if the statement agrees with the views of the writer

NO if the statement contradicts the views of the writer

NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

36. Farmers are less responsive to climate change than agriculturists.

37. Agricultural sector is too conservative and resistant to deal with climate change.

38. Turtle is vulnerable to climate change.

39. The global warming is going slowly, and it may have different effects on different areas
in New Zealand.

40. New Zealand must cut carbon dioxide emission if they want to solve the problem of
global warming.

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TEST 12

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LISTENING
SECTION 1 : QUESTIONS 1-10
Questions 1-5
Complete the form below.

Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD OR A NUMBER for each answer.

WESTLEY PUBLIC LIBRARYMEMBERSHIP APPLICATION FORM

FULL NAME Peter Adrien (1)___________

ADDRESS Flat 5 53 (2)___________Street Finsbury

POSTCODE (3)___________

DATE OF BIRTH 8th July (4)___________

HOME TEL none

MOBILE TEL (5)___________

PROOF OF RESIDENCE PROVIDED a letter

Questions 6-8
Circle THREE letters A-F.

What type of books does Peter like?

A. Wildlife books
B. Romance books
C. Travel books
D. Historical novels
E. Science Fiction novels
F. Mystery books

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Question 9-10
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

How much does it cost to join the library? (9)____________

How much does it cost to rent a DVD? (10)____________

SECTION 2 : QUESTIONS 11-20


Questions 11-14
List FOUR reasons given for people needing blood transfusions.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 11-14 on your answer sheet.

(11)____________ (13)____________

(12)____________ (14)____________

Questions 15-20
Complete the 2 sets of notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Blood

Types of Blood O, A, B + AB

Component Parts

PART USED FOR

red blood cells (15)____________to cells

white blood cells help patients’ (16)____________

platelets blood clotting

plasma (17)____________the other blood parts

GIVING BLOOD DAYS Wednesday + next 2 days

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WHERE Westley General Hospital. (18)____________Department

WHEN Between 9.00am and (19)____________

- MUST be healthy
- be (20)____________or over
- weigh more than 110 pounds
- have had no tattoos this year
- not have donated blood within past 56 days

SECTION 3 : QUESTIONS 21-30


Question 21-27
Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Computer Labs

The 4 labs below can be used by undergraduates.

Other computer labs can only be used by postgraduates and (21)____________

Lab Locations Wimborne Johnson Building

Franklin Computer Sciences Building

Salisbury (22)____________

Court Johnson Building

Reservations (23)____________. a day unless computers are free

Write reservation in book (24)____________

(Penalty for erasing someone else’s reservation – 1 year ban)

User Name jamessmith2

Password (25)____________

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Printing Pick up print outs from (26)____________in Franklin

Costs (27)____________

Questions 28-30
Choose the correct letters A-C.

28. The introductory computer course that James decides to take is…

A. beginner
B. intermediate
C. advanced

29. The computer laboratory for James’ introductory computer course is in…

A. Wimborne
B. Franklin
C. Court

30. James will take his introductory computer course…

A. on Thursday at 2.00pm
B. on Tuesday at 4.30pm.
C. on Tuesday at 5.00pm

SECTION 4 : QUESTIONS 31-40


Questions 31-35
Complete the notes below

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

The Shinkansen or Bullet Train

No deaths (bar 1 from passenger misadventure) since its launch


Safety
in (31)____________

Holds world train record for the (32)____________of 261.8 kph.


Speed
500 series Nozumi’s fastest speed is 300kph.

Punctuality Punctual to within the second.

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All bullet trains for 1 year were a total of (33)____________late.

First used on Tokyo to Osaka route. Old models have now been retired.
History
300, 500 and 700 are recent models.

Nozomi trains stop at the (34)____________Hikari stop more frequently.


Services
Kodama trains stop at (35)____________

Question 36-40
Complete the sentences below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

French TGV locomotives pull the T6V trains from both ends using a (36)____________

Japanese ground is unsuitable for the TGV type of train because it is (37)____________and
the tracks frequently curve horizontally and vertically.

An extra advantage of the Japanese electric car system is that it can act as
a (38)____________Even after the power supply is cut off in the electric car system,
electricity is still produced by (39)____________

Huge improvements in power, operability and safety administration have been made
possible by advances in (40) ____________

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READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13 which are based on
Reading Passage 1 below.

Computer games for Preschoolers Nintendo’s Research and Design Process

Designing computer games for young children is a daunting task for game producers, who,
for a long time, have concentrated on more “hard core” game fans. This article chronicles
the design process and research involved in creating Nintendo DS for preschool gamers.

After speaking with our producers who have a keen interest in designing for the DS, we
finally agreed on three key goals for our project. First, to understand the range of physical
and cognitive abilities of preschoolers in the context of handheld system game play; second,
to understand how preschool gamers interact with the DS, specifically how they control the
different forms of play and game mechanics offered by the games presently on the market
for this platform; third, to understand the expectation of preschooler’s parents concerning
the handheld systems as well as the purchase and play contexts within which game play
occurs. The team of research decided that in-home ethnographies with preschoolers and
their families would yield comprehensive database with which to give our producers more
information and insights, so we start by conducting 26 in-home ethnographies in three
markets across the United States: an East coast urban/suburban area, a West coast
urban/suburban area, and a Midwest suburban/rural area.

The subject is this study included 15 girls and 11 boys ranging from 3 years and 3 months old
to 5 years and 11 months old. Also, because previous research had shown the effects of
older siblings on game play (demonstrated, for example, by more advanced motor
coordination when using a computer mouse), households were employed to have a
combination of preschoolers with and without elder peers. In order to understand both
“experienced” and “new” preschool users of the platform, we divided the sample so that 13
families owned at least one Nintendo DS and the others did not. For those households that
did not own a DS, one was brought to the interview for the kid to play. This allowed us to
see both the instinctive and intuitive movements of the new players (and of the more

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experienced players when playing new games), as well as the learned movements of the
more experienced players. Each of those interviews took about 60 to 120 minutes and
included the preschooler, at least one parent, and often siblings and another caregiver.

Three kinds of information were collected after each interview. From any older siblings and
the parents that were available, we gathered data about: the buying decisions surrounding
game systems in the household, the family’s typical game play patterns, levels of parental
moderation with regard to computer gaming, and the most favorite games play by family
members. We could also understand the ideology of gaming in these homes because of
these in-home interviews: what types of spaces were used for game play, how the system
were installed, where the handheld play occurred in the house (as well as on-the-go play),
and the number and type of games and game systems owned. The most important is, we
gathered the game-playing information for every single kid.

Before carrying out the interviews, the research team had closely discussed with the in-
house game producers to create a list of game mechanics and problems tied to
preschoolers’ motor and cognitive capabilities that were critical for them to understand
prior to writing the games. These ranged from general dexterity issues related to game
controllers to the effectiveness of in-game instructions to specific mechanics in current
games that the producers were interested in implementing for future preschool titles.
During the interviews, the moderator gave specific guidance to the preschooler through a
series of games, so that he or she could observe the interaction and probe both the
preschooler and his or her parents on feelings, attitudes, and frustrations that arose in the
different circumstances.

If the subject in the experiment had previous exposure to the DS system, he or she was first
asked to play his or her favorite game on the machine. This gave the researchers
information about current level of gaming skill related to the complexity of the chosen one,
allowing them to see the child playing a game with mechanics he or she was already familiar
with. Across the 26 preschoolers, the Nintendo DS selections scope were very broad,
including New Super Mario Bros, Sonic Rush, Nintendogs, and Tony Hawk’s Proving
Ground. The interview observed the child play, noting preferences for game mechanic and
motor interactions with device as well as the complexity level each game mechanic was for
the tested subject. The researchers asked all of the preschoolers to play with a specific game
in consultation with our producers, The Little Mermaid: Ariel’s Undersea Adventure. The
game was chosen for two major reasons. First, it was one of the few games on the market
with characters that appeal to this young age group. Second, it incorporated a large variety
of mechanics that highlighted the uniqueness of the DS platform, including using the
microphone for blowing or singing.

The findings from this initial experiment were extensive. After reviewing the outcomes and
discussing the implications for the game design with our internal game production team, we
then outlined the designing needs and presented the findings to a firm specializing in game

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design. We worked closely with those experts to set the game design for the two preschool-
targeted DS games under development on what we had gathered.

As the two DS games went into the development process, a formative research course of
action was set up. Whenever we developed new game mechanics, we brought preschoolers
into our in-house utility lab to test the mechanics and to evaluate both their simplicity, and
whether they were engaging. We tested either alpha or beta versions of different elements
of the game, in addition to looking at overarching game structure. Once a full version of the
DS game was ready, we went back into the field test with a dozen preschoolers and their
parents to make sure that each of the game elements worked for the children, and that the
overall objective of the game was understandable and the process was enjoyable for
players. We also collected parent’s feedback on whether they thought the game is
appropriate, engaging, and worth the purchase.

SECTION 1: QUESTIONS 1-13


Questions 1-5
Complete the sentences below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 1-5 on your answer sheet.

Exploratory Research Project

Main Objectives:

Determine the relevant (1)___________in the context

Observe how preschoolers manage playing

Investigate attitudes of (2)___________towards games

Subjects:

26 children from different US (3)___________

Age range: 3 years and 3 months to 5 years and 11 months

Some children have older (4)___________

Equal number of new and (5)___________players

Some households have Nintendo DS and some don’t

Length of Interview: 1-2 hours

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Questions 6-9
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage?

In boxes 6-9 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

6. One area of research is how far mothers and fathers controlled children’s playing after
school.
7. The researchers are allowed a free access to the subjects' houses.
8. The researchers regarded The Little Mermaid: Ariel’s Undersea Adventure as likely appeal
to preschoolers.
9. The Little Mermaid: Ariel’s Undersea Adventure is operated entirely by hand controls.
Questions 10-13
Complete the flow-chart below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.
Write your answer in boxes 10-13 on your answer sheet.
Using the results of the study

Presentation of design requirements to a specialist (10)______________

Testing the mechanics of two new games in the Nintendo lab


(assess (11)______________and interest)

A (12)______________of the games trailed be twelve children

Collection of (13)______________from parents

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READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26 which are based on
Reading Passage 2.

The History of Pencil


The beginning of the story of pencils started with a lightning. Graphite, the main material for
producing pencil, was discovered in 1564 in Borrowdale in England when a lightning struck a
local tree during a thunder. Local people found out that the black substance spotted at the
root of the unlucky tree was different from burning ash of wood. It was soft, thus left marks
everywhere. Chemistry was barely out of its infancy at the time, so people mistook it for
lead, equally black but much heavier. It was soon put to use by locals in marking their sheep
for ownership and calculation.

Britain turns out to be major country where mines of graphite can be detected and
developed. Even so, the first pencil was invented elsewhere. As graphite is soft, it requires
some form of encasement. In Italy, graphite sticks were initially wrapped in string or
sheepskin for stability, becoming perhaps the very first pencil in the world. Then around
1560, an Italian couple made what are likely the first blueprints for the modern, wood-
encased carpentry pencil. Their version was a flat, oval, more compact type of pencil. Their
concept involved the hollowing out of a stick of juniper wood. Shortly thereafter in 1662, a
superior technique was discovered by German people: two wooden halves were carved, a
graphite stick inserted, and the halves then glued together - essentially the same method in
use to this day. The news of the usefulness of these early pencils spread far and wide,
attracting the attention of artists all over the known world.

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Although graphite core in pencils is still referred to as lead, modern pencils do not contain
lead as the “lead” of the pencil is actually a mix of finely ground graphite and clay powders.
This mixture is important because the amount of clay content added to the graphite
depends on the intended pencil hardness, and the amount of time spent on grinding the
mixture determines the quality of the lead. The more clay you put in, the higher hardness
the core has. Many pencils across the world, and almost all in Europe, are graded on the
European system. This system of naming used B for black and H for hard; a pencil’s grade
was described by a sequence or successive Hs or Bs such as BB and BBB for successively
softer leads, and HH and HHH for successively harder ones. Then the standard writing pencil
is graded HB.

In England, pencils continue to be made from whole sawn graphite. But with the mass
production of pencils, they are getting drastically more popular in many countries with each
passing decade. As demands rise, appetite for graphite soars.

According to the United States Geological Survey (USGS), world production of natural
graphite in 2012 was 1,100,000 tonnes, of which the following major exporters are: China,
India, Brazil, North Korea and Canada. However, much in contrast with its intellectual
application in producing pencils, graphite was also widely used in the military. During the
reign of Elizabeth I, Borrowdale graphite was used as a refractory material to line moulds for
cannonballs, resulting in rounder, smoother balls that could be fired farther, contributing to
the strength of the English navy. This particular deposit of graphite was extremely pure and
soft, and could easily be broken into sticks. Because of its military importance, this unique
mine and its production were strictly controlled by the Crown.

That the United States did not use pencils in the outer space till they spent $1000 to make a
pencil to use in zero gravity conditions is in fact a fiction. It is widely known that astronauts
in Russia used grease pencils, which don’t have breakage problem. But it is also a fact that
their counterparts in the United States used pencils in the outer space before real zero
gravity pencil was invented. They preferred mechanical pencils, which produced fine line,
much clearer than the smudgy lines left by the grease pencils that Russians favored. But the
lead tips of these mechanical pencils broke often. That bit of graphite floating around the
space capsule could get into someone’s eye, or even find its way into machinery or
electronics, causing an electrical short or other problems. But despite the fact that the
Americans did invent zero gravity pencils later, they stuck to mechanical pencils for many
years.

Against the backcloth of a digitalized world, the prospect of pencils seems bleak. In reality, it
does not. The application of pencils has by now become so widespread that they can be
seen everywhere, such as classrooms, meeting rooms and art rooms, etc. A spectrum of
users are likely to continue to use it into the future: students to do math works, artists to
draw on sketch pads, waiters or waitresses to mark on order boards, make-up professionals
to apply to faces, and architects to produce blue prints. The possibilities seem limitless.

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SECTION 2: QUESTIONS 14-26


Questions 14-20
Complete the sentences below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 14-20 on your answer sheet.

Graphite was found under a (14)______________in Borrowdale, it was dirty to use because
it was (15)______________.

Ancient people used graphite to sign (16)______________. People found


graphite (17)______________in Britain.

The first pencil was graphite wrapped in (18)______________or animal skin.

Since graphite was too smooth, (19)______________was added to make it harder.

Russian astronauts preferred (20)______________pencils to write in the outer space.

Question 21-26
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage?

In boxes 21-26 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement is true


FALSE if the statement is false
NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage
21. Italy is probably the first country of the whole world to make pencils.

22. Germany used various kinds of wood to make pencils.

23. Graphite makes a pencil harder and sharper.

24. In Britain, pencils are not produced any more.

25. American astronauts did not use pencil in outer space.

26. Pencils are unlikely to be used in the future.

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READING PASSAGE 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40 which are based on
Reading Passage 3.

Motivating Drives
Scientists have been researching the way to get employees motivated for many years. This
research in a relational study which builds the fundamental and comprehensive model for
study. This is especially true when the business goal is to turn unmotivated teams into
productive ones. But their researchers have limitations. It is like studying the movements of
car without taking out the engine.

Motivation is what drives people to succeed and plays a vital role in enhancing an
organizational development. It is important to study the motivation of employees because it
is related to the emotion and behavior of employees. Recent studies show there are four
drives for motivation. They are the drive to acquire, the drive to bond, the drive to
comprehend and the drive to defend.

The Drive to Acquire

The drive to acquire must be met to optimize the acquire aspect as well as the achievement
element. Thus the way that outstanding performance is recognized, the type of perks that is
provided to polish the career path. But sometimes a written letter of appreciation generates
more motivation than a thousand dollar check, which can serve as the invisible power to
boost business engagement. Successful organizations and leaders not only need to focus on
the optimization of physical reward but also on moving other levers within the organization
that can drive motivation.

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The Drive to Bond

The drive to bond is also key to driving motivation. There are many kinds of bonds between
people, like friendship, family. In company, employees also want to be an essential part of
company. They want to belong to the company. Employees will be motivated if they find
personal belonging to the company. In the meantime, the most commitment will be
achieved by the employee on condition that the force of motivation within the employee
affects the direction, intensity and persistence of decision and behavior in company.

The Drive to Comprehend

The drive to comprehend motivates many employees to higher performance. For years, it
has been known that setting stretch goals can greatly impact performance. Organizations
need to ensure that the various job roles provide employees with simulation that challenges
them or allow them to grow. Employees don’t want to do meaningless things or
monotonous job. If the job didn’t provide them with personal meaning and fulfillment, they
will leave the company.

The Drive to Defend

The drive to defend is often the hardest lever to pull. This drive manifests itself as a quest to
create and promote justice, fairness, and the ability to express ourselves freely. The
organizational lever for this basic human motivator is resource allocation. This drive is also
met through an employee feeling connection to a company. If their companies are merged
with another, they will show worries.

Two studies have been done to find the relations between the four drives and motivation.
The article based on two studies was finally published in Harvard Business Review. Most
authors’ arguments have laid emphasis on four-drive theory and actual investigations. Using
the results of the surveys which executed with employees from Fortune 500 companies and
other two global businesses (P company and H company), the article mentions about how
independent drives influence employees’ behavior and how organizational levers boost
employee motivation.

The studies show that the drive to bond is most related to fulfilling commitment, while the
drive to comprehend is most related to how much effort employees spend on works. The
drive to acquire can be satisfied by a rewarding system which ties rewards to performances,
and gives the best people opportunities for advancement. For drive to defend, a study on
the merging of P company and H company shows that employees in former company show
an unusual cooperating attitude.

The key to successfully motivate employees is to meet all drives. Each of these drives is
important if we are to understand employee motivation. These four drives, while not

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necessarily the only human drives, are the ones that are central to unified understanding of
modern human life.

SECTION 3: QUESTIONS 27-40


Questions 27-31
Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D

Write the correct letter in boxes 27-31 on your answer sheet.

27. According to the passage, what are we told about the study of motivation?

A. The theory of motivating employees is starting to catch attention in organizations in


recent years.
B. It is very important for managers to know how to motivate their subordinates
because it is related to the salary of employees.
C. Researchers have tended to be too theoretical to their study.
D. The goal of employee motivation is to increase the profit of organizations

28. What can be inferred from the passage about the study of people’s drives?

A. Satisfying employees’ drives can positively lead to the change of behavior.


B. Satisfying employees’ drives will negatively affect their emotions.
C. Satisfying employees’ drives can increase companies’ productions.
D. Satisfying employees’ drives will result in employees’ outstanding performance.

29. According to paragraph three, in order to optimize employees’ performance, are


needed.

A. Drive to acquire and achievement element


B. Outstanding performance and recognition
C. Career fulfillment and a thousand dollar check
D. Financial incentive and recognition
30. According to paragraph five, how does “the drive to comprehend” help employees
perform better?
A. It can help employees better understand the development of their organizations.
B. It can help employees feel their task in meaningful to their companies.
C. It can help employees set higher goals..
D. It can provide employees with repetitive tasks.

31. According to paragraph six, which of following is true about “drive to defend”?

A. Organizational resource is the most difficult to allocate.


B. It is as difficult to implement as the drive to comprehend.

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C. Employees think it is very important to voice their own opinions.


D. Employees think it is very important to connect with a merged corporation.

Questions 32-34
Choose THREE letters, A-F.

Write the correct letters in boxes 32-34 on your answer sheet.

Which THREE of the following statements are true of study of drives?

A. Employees will be motivated if they feel belonged to the company.


B. If employees get an opportunity of training and development program, their
motivation will be enhanced.
C. If employees’ working goals are complied with organizational objectives, their
motivation will be reinforced.
D. If employees’ motivation in very low, companies should find a way to increase their
salary as their first priority
E. If employees find their work lacking challenging, they will leave the company.
F. Employees will worry if their company is sold.

Questions 35-40
Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading Passage 3?

In boxes 35-40 on your answer sheet, write

YES if the statement agrees with the views of the writer

NO if the statement contradicts the views of the writer

NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

35. Increasing pay can lead to the high work motivation.

36. Local companies benefit more from global companies through the study.

37. Employees achieve the most commitment if their drive to comprehend is met.

38. The employees in former company presented unusual attitude toward the merging of
two companies.

39. The two studies are done to analyze the relationship between the natural drives and the
attitude of employees.

40. Rewarding system cause the company to lose profit.

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TEST 13

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SECTION 1 : QUESTIONS 1-10


Questions 1-4
Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

NOTES ON ISLAND HOTEL

Example Answer

Type of room required: double room

Time

• The length of stay: approx 2 weeks

• Starting date: 25Th April

Temperature

• Daytime: up to 1___________°C

• Erratic weather

Transport

• Pick-up service is provided.

• Normally transferring to the airport takes about 2___________

Facilities

• en-suite facilities and a 3___________

• gym and spa facilities

• a large outdoor swimming pool

• three standard 4___________

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Questions 5-10
Complete the table below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Day Entertainment activities Transportation

• learning to make 5___________


Tuesdays • mini bus
• having a 6___________in-house concert

• enjoying mountain view • 7___________


Wednesdays
• exploring a tropical 8___________ • shuttle bus

• having a fancy dinner


Thursdays 10___________
• watching a spectacular display of 9___________

SECTION 2 : QUESTIONS 11-20


Questions 11-14
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

Online Exchange Business

11. The website is organised by

A. family members.
B. friends
C. businessmen

12. How long has the website been operated?

A. about 3 weeks
B. about 3 months
C. about 6 months

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13. How many registered users are there in the website?

A. 1,000
B. 1,500
C. 2,000

14. Which country has the most users in the website?

A. Ireland
B. UK
C. Canada

Questions 15-16
Choose TWO letters, A-E.

Which TWO things are most popular among users?

A. children’s books
B. textbooks
C. computer games
D. toys
E. tools

Questions 17-20
Complete the sentences below.

Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

The website will sort out 17__________items to help those who can’t decide what to
exchange.

Do not bother because people's 18__________are different.

Users will give 19__________on the completion of exchanges.

Criteria

• the quality of the item

• the ease of communication

• the 20__________of delivering

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SECTION 3 : QUESTIONS 21-30


Questions 21-26
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

Reflective Journal Assignment


21. What should be firstly included in the reflective journal?

A. topics he is going to talk about


B. study aims for the module
C. suggestions from others

22. The woman has got


A. a lot of friends to help her.
B. several books that may be useful.
C. sufficient resources showing that she is a good technology user.

23. What was the man’s biggest achievement in the past?

A. He worked as a waiter in a restaurant.


B. He got an offer to lead a team.
C. He became the chairman of the Student Union.

24. The man decides to

A. do it by himself.
B. find a tutor.
C. listen to others.

25. What is the man’s attitude after the discussion?

A. He thinks it is useless.
B. He is looking forward to doing the assignment
C. He feels uncertain about it.

26. What should be shown in the man’s reflective journal?

A. self-awareness
B. mistakes
C. achievements

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Questions 27-30
What is the woman’s attitude toward each of the following activities of study?

Choose FOUR answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-E, next to
questions 27-30.

Attitude

A define a problem

B independent learning

C develop study skills

D gain confidence

E find it difficult

27. writing an essay

28. taking exams

29. making class notes

30. taking presentation notes

SECTION 4 : QUESTIONS 31-40


Questions 31-38
Complete the notes below.

Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

Chimpanzee behaviours
Species

• We can find Pan or Pan Troglodytes in West and Central Africa.

• The Bonobo or Pan Paniscus are found in Democratic Republic of Congo.

Current research

• rule out 31__________and biological factors

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• learn through 32__________of other chimps’ behaviour

Discoveries

• The book The Third Chimpanzee by James Diamond discusses some physical
features of chimpanzees.

• The discovery reported by Jane Goodall suggests that chimpanzees know how to
use 33__________

Chimpanzees in Senegal

• use spears sharpened with their teeth

• can 34__________the shell of a coconut

• use a 35__________hammer to crash nuts

• are capable of learning 36__________ and understanding human language

Sub-species

• Bonobos live on the other side of a 37__________

• Both of them are reducing alarmingly in population 38__________

Questions 39-40
Choose TWO letters, A-E.

Which TWO topics about chimpanzees will the students discuss next week?

A. They are slower than human in different ways.


B. They learn things by copying humans’ behaviour.
C. They develop behaviours generation by generation.
D. They have very strong ability of logical thinking.
E. They could be modified to adapt to the environment.

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READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on
Reading Passage 1 on the following pages.

REVIEW OF RESEARCH ON THE EFFECTS OF FOOD PROMOTION TO CHILDREN


This review was commissioned by the Food Standards Agency to examine the current
research evidence on:

• the extent and nature of food promotion to children

• the effect, if any, that this promotion has on their food knowledge, preferences and
behaviour.

A Children’s food promotion is dominated by television advertising, and the great majority
of this promotes the so-called ‘Big Four’ of pre-sugared breakfast cereals, soft-drinks,
confectionary and savoury snacks. In the last ten years advertising for fast food outlets has
rapidly increased. There is some evidence that the dominance of television has recently
begun to wane. The importance of strong, global branding reinforces a need for multi-
faceted communications combining television with merchandising, ‘tie-ins’ and point of sale
activity. The advertised diet contrasts sharply with that recommended by public health
advisors, and themes of fun and fantasy or taste, rather than health and nutrition, are used
to promote it to children. Meanwhile, the recommended diet gets little promotional
support.

B There is plenty of evidence that children notice and enjoy food promotion. However,
establishing whether this actually influences them is a complex problem. The review tackled
it by looking at studies that had examined possible effects on what children know about
food, their food preferences, their actual food behaviour (both buying and eating), and their
health outcomes (eg. obesity or cholesterol levels). The majority of studies examined food
advertising, but a few examined other forms of food promotion. In terms of nutritional
knowledge, food advertising seems to have little influence on children’s general perceptions

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of what constitutes a healthy diet, but, in certain contexts, it does have an effect on more
specific types of nutritional knowledge. For example, seeing soft drink and cereal adverts
reduced primary aged children’s ability to determine correctly whether or not certain
products contained real fruit.

C The review also found evidence that food promotion influences children’s food
preferences and their purchase behaviour. A study of primary school children, for instance,
found that exposure to advertising influenced which foods they claimed to like; and another
showed that labelling and signage on a vending machine had an effect on what was bought
by secondary school pupils. A number of studies have also shown that food advertising can
influence what children eat. One, for example, showed that advertising influenced a primary
class’s choice of daily snack at playtime.

D The next step, of trying to establish whether or not a link exists between food promotion
and diet or obesity, is extremely difficult as it requires research to be done in real world
settings. A number of studies have attempted this by using amount of television viewing as
a proxy for exposure to television advertising. They have established a clear link
between television viewing and diet, obesity, and cholesterol levels. It is impossible to say,
however, whether this effect is caused by the advertising, the sedentary nature of television
viewing or snacking that might take place whilst viewing. One study resolved this problem
by taking a detailed diary of children’s viewing habits. This showed that the more food
adverts they saw, the more snacks and calories they consumed.

E Thus the literature does suggest food promotion is influencing children’s diet in a number
of ways. This does not amount to proof; as noted above with this kind of research,
incontrovertible proof simply isn’t attainable. Nor do all studies point to this conclusion;
several have not found an effect. In addition, very few studies have attempted to measure
how strong these effects are relative to other factors influencing children’s food choices.
Nonetheless, many studies have found clear effects and they have used sophisticated
methodologies that make it possible to determine that i) these effects are not just due to
chance; ii) they are independent of other factors that may influence diet, such as parents’
eating habits or attitudes; and iii) they occur at a brand and category level.

F Furthermore, two factors suggest that these findings actually downplay the effect that
food promotion has on children. First, the literature focuses principally on television
advertising; the cumulative effect of this combined with other forms of promotion and
marketing is likely to be significantly greater. Second, the studies have looked at direct
effects on individual children, and understate indirect influences. For example, promotion
for fast food outlets may not only influence the child, but also encourage parents to take
them for meals and reinforce the idea that this is a normal and desirable behaviour.

G This does not amount to proof of an effect, but in our view does provide sufficient
evidence to conclude that an effect exists. The debate should now shift to what action is

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needed, and specifically to how the power of commercial marketing can be used to bring
about improvements in young people’s eating.

SECTION 1: QUESTIONS 1-13

Questions 1-7
Reading Passage 1 has seven paragraphs, A-G.

Choose the most suitable heading for paragraphs A-G from the list of headings below. Write
the ppropriate number, i-x, in boxes 1-7 on your answer sheet.

List of Headings

i General points of agreements and disagreements of researchers

ii How much children really know about food

iii Need to take action

iv Advertising effects of the “Big Four”

v Connection of advertising and children’s weight problems

vi Evidence that advertising affects what children buy to eat

vii How parents influence children’s eating habits

viii Advertising’s focus on unhealthy options

ix Children often buy what they want

x Underestimating the effects advertising has on children

1. Paragraph A

2. paragraph B

3. Paragraph C

4. Paragraph D

5. Paragraph E

6. Paragraph F

7. Paragraph G

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Questions 8-13
Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer in Reading Passage 1?

In boxes 8-13 on your answer sheet, write

YES if the statement agrees with the views of the writer

NO if the statement contradicts the views of the writer

NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

8. There is little difference between the number of healthy food advertisements and the
number of unhealthy food advertisements.

9. TV advertising has successfully taught children nutritional knowledge about vitamins and
others.

10. It is hard to decide which aspect of TV viewing has caused weight problems of children.

11. The preference of food for children is affected by their age and gender.

12. Wealthy parents tend to buy more “sensible food” for their children.

13. There is a lack of investigation on food promotion methods other than TV advertising.

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READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based on
Reading Passage 2 below.

THE BRIDGE THAT SWAYED


When the London Millennium footbridge was opened in June 2000, it swayed alarmingly.
This generated huge public interest and the bridge became known as London’s “wobbly
bridge. ”

The Millennium Bridge is the first new bridge across the river Thames in London since Tower
Bridge opened in 1894, and it is the first ever designed for pedestrians only. The bridge
links the City of London near St Paul’s Cathedral with the Tate Modern art gallery on
Bankside.

The bridge opened initially on Saturday 10th June 2000. For the opening ceremony, a crowd
of over 1,000 people had assembled on the south half of the bridge with a band in front.
When they started to walk across with the band playing, there was immediately an
unexpectedly pronounced lateral movement of the bridge deck. “It was a fine day and the
bridge was on the route of a major charity walk,” one of the pedestrians recounted what ho
saw that day. “At first, it was still. Then if began to sway sideways, just slightly. Then, almost
from one moment to the next, when large groups of people were crossing, the wobble
intensified. Everyone had to stop walking to retain balance and sometimes to hold onto the
hand rails for support.” Immediately it was decided to limit the number of people on the
bridge, and the bridge was dubbed the ‘wobbly’ bridge by the media who declared it
another high-profile British Millennium Project failure. In older to fully investigate and
resolve the issue the decision was taken to close the bridge on 12th June 2000.

Arup, the leading member of the committee in charge of the construction of the bridge,
decided to tackle the issue head on. They immediately undertook a fast-track research
project to seek the cause and the cure. The embarrassed engineers found the videotape

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that day which showed the center span swaying about 3 inches sideways every second and
the south span 2 inches every 1.25 seconds. Because there was a significant wind blowing
on the opening days (force 3-4) and the bridge had been decorated with large flags, the
engineers first thought that winds might be exerting excessive force on the many large flags
and banners, but it was rapidly concluded that wind buffeting had not contributed
significantly to vibration of the bridge. But after measurements were made in university
laboratories of the effects of people? walking on swaying platforms and after large-scale
experiments with crowds of pedestrians were conducted on the bridge itself, a new
understanding and a new theory were developed.

The unexpected motion was the result of a natural human reaction to small lateral
movements. It is well known that a suspension bridge has tendency to sway when troops
march over it in lockstep, which is why troops arc required to break step when crossing such
a bridge. “If we walk on a swaying surface we tend to compensate and stabilise ourselves by
spreading our legs further apart but this increases the lateral push”. Pat Dallard, the
engineer at Arup, says that you change the way you walk to match what the bridge is doing.
It is an unconscious tendency for pedestrians to match their footsteps to the sway, thereby
exacerbating it even more. “It’s rather like walking on a rolling ship deck you move one way
and then the other to compensate for the roll.” The way people walk doesn’t have to match
exactly the natural frequency of the bridge as in resonance the interaction is more subtle. As
the bridge moves, people adjust the way they walk in their own manner. The problem is
that when there are enough people on the bridge the total sideways push can overcome the
bridge’s ability to absorb it. The movement becomes excessive and continues to increase
until people begin to have difficulty in walking they may even have to hold on to the rails.

Professor Fujino Yozo of Tokyo University, who studied the earth-resistant Toda Bridge in
Japan, believes the horizontal forces caused by walking, running or jumping could also in
turn cause excessive dynamic vibration in the lateral direction in the bridge. He explains that
as the structure began moving, pedestrians adjusted their gait to the same lateral rhythm as
the bridge; the adjusted footsteps magnified the motion just like when four people all stand
up in small boat at the same time. As more pedestrians locked into the same rhythm, the
increasing oscillation led to the dramatic swaying captured on film until people stopped
walking altogether, because they could not even keep upright.

In order to design a method of reducing the movements, an immediate research program


was launched by the bridge’s engineering designer Arup. It was decided that the force
exerted by the pedestrians had to be quantified and related to the motion of the bridge.
Although there are some descriptions of this phenomenon in existing literature, none of
these actually quantifies the force. So there was no quantitative analytical way to design the
bridge against this effect. The efforts to solve the problem quickly got supported by a
number of universities and research organisations.

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The tests at the University of Southampton involved a person walking on the spot on a small
shake table. The tests at Imperial College involved persons walking along a specially
built, 7.2m-long platform, which could be driven laterally at different frequencies and
amplitudes. These tests have their own limitations. While the Imperial College test platform
was too short that only seven or eight steps could be measured at one time, the “walking on
the spot” test did not accurately replicate forward walking, although many footsteps could
be observed using this method. Neither test could investigate any influence of other people
in a crowd on the behavior of the individual tested.

The results of the laboratory tests provided information which enabled the initial design of a
retrofit to be progressed. However, unless the usage of the bridge was to be greatly
restricted, only two generic options to improve its performance were considered feasible.
The first was to increase the stiffness of the bridge to move all its lateral natural frequencies
out of the range that could be excited by the lateral footfall forces, and the second was to
increase the damping of the bridge to reduce the resonant response.

SECTION 2: QUESTIONS 14-26


Questions 14-17
Choose FOUR letters, A-I.

Write the correct letters in boxes 14-17 on your answer sheet.

Which FOUR of the following could be seen on the day when the bridge opened to the
public?

A. the bridge moved vertically


B. the bridge swayed from side to side the bridge swayed from side to side
C. the bridge swayed violently throughout
D. the opening ceremony it was hard to keep balance on the bridge
E. pedestrians walked in synchronised steps
F. pedestrians lengthened their footsteps
G. a music band marched across the bridge
H. the swaying rhythm varied to the portions of the bridge
I. flags and banners kept still on the bridge

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Questions 18-23
Complete the summary below.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 18-23 on your answer sheet.

To understand why the Millennium Bridge swayed, engineers of Arup studied


the videotape taken on the day of the opening ceremony. In the beginning
they thought the forces of 18__________might have caused the movement
because there were many flags and banners on the bridge that day. But
quickly new understandings arose after series of tests were conducted on
how people walk on 19__________floors. The tests showed people would
place their leg 20__________to keep balance when the floor is shaking. Pat
Dallard even believes pedestrians may unknowingly adjust
their 21__________to match the sway of the bridge. Professor Fujino Yozo’s
study found that the vibration of a bridge could be caused by
the 22__________. of people walking, running and jumping on it because the
lateral rhythm of the sway could make pedestrians adjust their walk and
reach the same step until it is impossible to stand 23__________

Questions 24-26
Complete the table below.

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 24-26 on your answer sheet

Test conducted by Problems of the test

24_____________ Not enough data collection

25_____________ Not long enough

26_____________ Not like the real walking experience

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READING PASSAGE 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based on
Reading Passage 3 below.

Internal Market: Selling the inside


When you think of marketing, you more than likely think of marketing to your customers:
How can you persuade more people to buy what you sell? But another "market" is just
as important: your employees, the very people who can make the brand come alive for your
customers. Yet in our work helping executives develop and carry out branding campaigns,
my colleagues and I have found that companies very often ignore this critical constituency.

Why is internal marketing so important? First, because it's the best way to help employees
make a powerful emotional connection to the products and services you sell. Without
that connection, employees are likely to undermine the expectations set by your
advertising. In some cases, this is because they simply don't understand what you have
promised the public, so they end up working at cross-purposes. In other cases, it may be
they don't actually believe in the brand and feel disengaged or, worse, hostile toward the
company. We've found that when people care about and believe in the brand, they're
motivated to work harder and their loyalty to the company increases. Employees are united
and inspired by a common sense of purpose and identity.

Unfortunately, in most companies, internal marketing is done poorly, if at all. While


executives recognise the need to keep people informed about the company's strategy and

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direction, few understand the need to convince employees of the brand's power—they take
it as a given.

Employees need to hear the same messages that you send out to the marketplace. At most
companies, however, internal and external communications are often mismatched. This can
be very confusing, and it threatens employees' perceptions of the company's integrity: They
are told one thing by management but observe that a different message is being sent to the
public. One health insurance company, for instance, advertised that the welfare of patients
was the company's number one priority, while employees were told that their main goal
was to increase the value of their stock options through cost reductions. And one major
financial services institution told customers that it was making a major shift in focus from
being a financial retailer to a financial adviser, but, a year later, research showed that the
customer experience with the company had not changed. It turned out that
company leaders had not made an effort to sell the change internally, so employees were
still churning out transactions and hadn't changed their behavior to match their new adviser
role.

Enabling employees to deliver on customer expectations is important, of course, but it's not
the only reason a company needs to match internal and external messages. Another
reason is to help push the company to achieve goals that might otherwise be out of reach.
In 1997, when IBM launched its e-business campaign (which is widely credited for turning
around the company's image), it chose to ignore research that suggested consumers were
unpre-pared to embrace IBM as a leader in e-business. Although to the outside world this
looked like an external marketing effort, IBM was also using the campaign to align
employees

around the idea of the Internet as the future of technology. The internal campaign changed
the way employees thought about everything they did, from how they named products
to how they organised staff to how they approached selling. The campaign was
successful largely because it gave employees a sense of direction and purpose, which in turn
restored their confidence in IBM's ability to predict the future and lead the technology
industry. Today, research shows that people are four times more likely to associate the term
"e-busi-ness" with IBM than with its nearest competitor.

Perhaps even more important, by taking employees into account, a company can avoid
creating a message that doesn't resonate with staff or, worse, one that builds
resentment. In 1996, United Airlines shelved its "Come Fly the Friendly Skies" slogan when
presented with a survey that revealed the depth of customer resentment toward the airline
industry. In an effort to own up to the industry's shortcomings, United launched a new
campaign, "Rising," in which it sought to differentiate itself by acknowledging poor service
and prom-ising incremental improvements such as better meals. While this was a logical
premise for the campaign given the tenor of the times, a campaign focusing on customers'
distaste for flying was deeply discouraging to the staff. Employee resentment, ultimately

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made it impos-sible for United to deliver the improvements it was promising, which in turn
undermined the "Rising" pledge. Three years later, United decided employee opposition
was under-mining its success and pulled the campaign. It has since moved to a more
inclusive brand message with the line "United," which both audiences can embrace. Here, a
fundamental principle of advertising—find and address a customer concern—failed United
because it did not consider the internal market.

When it comes to execution, the most common and effective way to link internal and
external marketing campaigns is to create external advertising that targets both audiences.
IBM used this tactic very effectively when it launched its e-business campaign, It took out
an eight-page ad in the Wall Street Journal declaring its new vision, a message directed
at both customers and internal stakeholders. This is an expensive way to capture
attention, but if used sparingly, it is the most powerful form of communication; in fact, you
need do it only once for everyone in the company to read it. There's a symbolic advantage
as well. Such a tactic signals that the company is taking its pledge very seriously; it also
signals transparency—the same message going out to both audiences.

Advertising isn’t the only way to link internal and external marketing. At Nike, a number of
senior executives now hold the additional title of "Corporate Storyteller." They
deliberately avoid stories of financial successes and concentrate on parables of "just doing
it," reflecting and reinforcing the company's ad campaigns. One tale, for example, recalls
how legendary coach and Nike cofounder Bill Bowerman, in an effort to build a better shoe
for his team, poured rubber into the family waffle iron, giving birth to the prototype of
Nike's famous Waffle Sole. By talking about such inventive moves, the company hopes to
keep the spirit of innovation that characterises its ad campaigns alive and well within the
company.

But while their messages must be aligned, companies must also keep external promises a
little ahead of internal realities. Such promises provide incentives for employees and
give them something to live up to. In the 1980s, Ford turned "Quality Is Job 1" from an
internal rallying cry into a consumer slogan in response to the threat from cheaper, more
reliable Japanese cars. It did so before the claim was fully justified, but by placing it in the
public arena, it gave employees an incentive to match the Japanese. If the promise is
pushed too far ahead, however, it loses credibility. When a beleaguered British Rail
launched a cam-paign announcing service improvements under the banner "We're Getting
There," it did so prematurely. By drawing attention to the gap between the promise and the
reality, it prompted destructive press coverage. This, in turn, demoralised staff, who had
been legiti-mately proud of the service advances they had made.

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SECTION 3: QUESTIONS 27-40


Questions 27-32
Complete each sentence with the correct ending, A-E, below.

Write the correct letter, A-E, in boxes 27-32 on your answer sheet.

NB You can use any letter more than once.

27. A health company

28. A financial institution

29. A computer company

30. An airline

31. A sport shoe company

32. A railway company

A alienated its employees by its apologetic branding campaign.

B attracted negative publicity through its advertising campaign.

C produced conflicting image between its employees and the general public.

D successfully used an advertising campaign to inspire employees

E draws on the legends of the company spirit.

Questions 33-40
Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading Passage 3?

In boxes 33-40 on your answer sheet, write

YES if the statement agrees with the views of the writer

NO if the statement contradicts the views of the writer

NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

33. A strong conviction in the brand can contribute to higher job performance.

34. It is common for companies to overlook the necessity for internal communication.

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35. Consumers were ready to view IBM as a leader in e-business before the advertising
campaign.

36. United Airlines’ failure in its branding campaign was due to the bad advice of an
advertisement agency.

37. United Airlines eventually abolished its campaign to boost image as the result of a
market research.

38. It is an expensive mistake for IBM to launch its new e-business campaign.

39. Nike employees claimed that they were inspired by their company tales.

40. A slight difference between internal and external promises can create a sense of
purpose.

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TEST 14

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LISTENING
SECTION 1 : QUESTIONS 1-10
Questions 1-10
Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Birmingham Exhibition

Example Answer

Purpose of calling: purchasing tickets

• Open in: 1_____________

• Length of exhibition: 2_____________

• A wide range of manufacturers will be showcased.

• Some cars are available to observe and the others are for 3_____________

• The 4_____________is prohibited to take into the museum.

• Every ticket includes one free photo.

• Price of ticket: £(5)_____________ (in advance)

• Transfer to Mark 6_____________ (Box Office Manager)

• Held in the 7_____________Palace this year

• Not far from 8_____________

• Website: www. 9_____________.com

• Best way to contact: 10_____________

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SECTION 2 : QUESTIONS 11-20


Questions 11-15
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

11. How many patients does the hospital consult every year?

A. 3,000
B. 5,000
C. 11,000

12. When can patients meet the female doctor?

A. on weekday mornings
B. three days a week
C. only on Mondays and Fridays

13. Who is the expert on treating hearing loss?

A. Mr. Robert
B. Mr. Green
C. Mr. Edwards

14. Where are patients recommended to buy their medicine?

A. the supermarket in the town


B. pharmacies nearby the city centre
C. the health care’s pharmacy

15. What will the patients be asked about whether they are willing to do?

A. Letting one student attend the consultation


B. Asking postgraduate students to do treatment
C. Meeting students in group discussion

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Questions 16-20
Label the map below.

Write the correct letter, A-H, next to questions 16-20.

16. Reception

17. Mr. Green’s Room

18. Medical Records Office

19. Surgery Room

20. Manager’s Office

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SECTION 3 : QUESTIONS 21-30


Questions 21-25
What is the main opinion of each of the following people?

Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to questions 21-25.

Opinions

A lighting restrictions

B alternative lighting

C reduce the number of insects

D decline in the number of species

E climate changes

F impacts on the growth of animals

G impacts on water quality

21. Ken Simpson

22. Dave Kepler

23. Sharon Grey

24. Maria Jackson

25. Barbara Swallow

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Questions 26-27
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

26. What does Jim think about the difference among species in natural and artificial light?

A. It makes no difference.
B. Species will die out in natural light.
C. Species will die out in artificial light.

27. One reason why Jim and Jane felt unsatisfied about the theories discussed in the
lecture was that

A. governments didn’t increase any spending on them.


B. most theories had nothing to do with the exams.
C. many theories lacked solid proof in the field.

Questions 28-30
Choose THREE letters, A-G.

Which THREE topics are they interested in studying in the future?

A. quality of life of tourists


B. wildlife park animals
C. migration birds
D. animals living in rural areas
E. animals living in tropical climate
F. the impacts of different environment on animals
G. pandas in the zoo

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SECTION 4 : QUESTIONS 31-40


Questions 31-32
Choose TWO letters, A-E.

Which TWO aspects did the new rules at the end of the 19th century focus on?

A. cooperation
B. competition
C. moral values
D. player’s physical protection
E. business model

Questions 33-40
Complete the sentences below.

Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

Football in the UK
At present the main reason why UK schools push football education is the pressure
from 33_____________

Prior to the 19th century, football players used different 34_____________of rules.

People attempted to standardise the rules from the whole 35_____________, known
as the ‘Cambridge Rules’ in 1848.

Attendances were increasing due to the improvement of infrastructure and


the 36_____________system.

Football became popular and it is regarded as a 37_____________event.

The football clubs were responsible for most of the 38_____________and


development for the football association.

39_____________against other teams were also organised by the football clubs.

In 1910s, 40_____________football players were approved of in the game.

READING PASSAGE 1
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You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on
Reading Passage 1 below.

The Forgotten Forest


Found only in the Deep South of America, longleaf pine woodlands have dwindled to about
3 percent of their former range, but new efforts are under way to restore them.

THE BEAUTY AND THE BIODIVERSITY of the longleaf pine forest are well-kept secrets, even
in its native South. Yet it is among the richest ecosystems in North America, rivaling tallgrass
prairies and the ancient forests of the Pacific Northwest in the number of species it shelters.
And like those two other disappearing wildlife habitats, longleaf is also critically
endangered.

In longleaf pine forests, trees grow widely scattered, creating an open, parklike
environment, more like a savanna than a forest. The trees are not so dense as to block the
sun. This openness creates a forest floor that is among the most diverse in the world, where
plants such as many-flowered grass pinks, trumpet pitcher plants, Venus flytraps, lavender
ladies and pineland bog-buttons grow. As many as 50 different species of wildflowers,
shrubs, grasses and ferns have been cataloged in just a single square meter.

Once, nearly 92 million acres of longleaf forest flourished from Virginia to Texas, the only
place in the world where it is found. By the turn of the 2lst century, however, virtually all of
it had been logged, paved or farmed into oblivion. Only about 3 percent of the original
range still supports longleaf forest, and only about 10,000 acres of that is uncut old-
growth—the rest is forest that has regrown after cutting. An estimated 100,000 of those
acres are still vanishing every year. However, a quiet movement to reverse this trend is
rippling across the region. Governments, private organisations (including NWF) and

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individual conservationists are looking for ways to protect and preserve the remaining
longleaf and to plant new forests for future generations.

Figuring out how to bring back the piney woods also will allow biologists to help the plants
and animals that depend on this habitat. Nearly two-thirds of the declining, threatened
or endangered species in the southeastern United States are associated with longleaf. The
outright destruction of longleaf is only part of their story, says Mark Danaher, the biologist
for South Carolina's Francis Marion National Forest. He says the demise of these animals
and plants also is tied to a lack of fire, which once swept through the southern forests on a
regular basis. "Fire is absolutely critical for this ecosystem and for the species that depend
on it," says Danaher.

Name just about any species that occurs in longleaf and you can find a connection to fire.
Bachman's sparrow is a secretive bird with a beautiful song that echoes across the longleaf
flatwoods. It tucks its nest on the ground beneath clumps of wiregrass and little bluestem in
the open under-story. But once fire has been absent for several years, and a tangle of
shrubs starts to grow, the sparrows disappear. Gopher tortoises, the only native land
tortoises east of the Mississippi, are also abundant in longleaf. A keystone species for these
forests, its burrows provide homes and safety to more than 300 species of vertebrates and
invertebrates ranging from eastern diamond-back rattlesnakes to gopher frogs. If fire is
suppressed, however, the tortoises are choked out. "If we lose fire," says Bob Mitchell, an
ecologist at the Jones Center, "we lose wildlife."

Without fire, we also lose longleaf. Fire knocks back the oaks and other hardwoods that can
grow up to overwhelm longleaf forests. "They are fire forests," Mitchell says. "They evolved
in the lightning capital of the eastern United States." And it wasn't only lightning strikes that
set the forest aflame. "Native Americans also lit fires to keep the forest open," Mitchell says.
"So did the early pioneers. They helped create the longleaf pine forests that we know
today."

Fire also changes how nutrients flow throughout longleaf ecosystems, in ways we are just
beginning to understand. For example, researchers have discovered that frequent fires
provide extra calcium, which is critical for egg production, to endangered red-cockaded
woodpeckers. Frances James, a retired avian ecologist from Florida State University, has
studied these small black-and-white birds for more than two decades in Florida's sprawling
Apalachicola National Forest. When she realised female woodpeckers laid larger clutches in
the first breeding season after their territories were burned, she and her colleagues went
searching for answers. "We learned calcium is stashed away in woody shrubs when the
forest is not burned," James says. "But when there is a fire, a pulse of calcium moves down
into the soil and up into the longleaf." Eventually, this calcium makes its way up the food
chain to a tree-dwelling species of ant, which is the red-cockaded's favorite food. The result:
more calcium for the birds, which leads to more eggs, more young and more woodpeckers.

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Today, fire is used as a vital management tool for preserving both longleaf and its wildlife.
Most of these fires are prescribed burns, deliberately set with a drip torch. Although the
public often opposes any type of fire—and the smoke that goes with it—these frequent,
low-intensity burns reduce the risk of catastrophic conflagrations. "Forests are going to
burn," says Amadou Diop, NWF's southern forests restoration manager. "It's just a question
of when. With prescribed burns, we can pick the time and the place."

Diop is spearheading a new NWF effort to restore longleaf. "It's a species we need to go
back to," he says. Educating landowners about the advantages of growing longleaf is part of
the program, he adds, which will soon be under way in nine southern states. "Right now,
most longleaf is on public land," says Jerry McCollum, president of the Georgia Wildlife
Federation. "Private land is where we need to work," he adds, pointing out that more than
90 percent of the acreage within the historic range of longleaf falls under this category.

Interest among private landowners is growing throughout the South, but restoring longleaf
is not an easy task. The herbaceous layer—the understory of wiregrasses and other plants -
also needs to be re-created. In areas where the land has not been chewed up by farming,
but converted to loblolly or slash pine plantations, the seed bank of the longleaf forest
usually remains viable beneath the soil. In time, this original vegetation can be coaxed back.
Where agriculture has destroyed the seeds, however, wiregrass must be replanted. Right
now, the expense is pro-hibitive, but researchers are searching for low-cost solutions.

Bringing back longleaf is not for the short-sighted, however. Few of us will be alive when the
pines being planted today become mature forests in 70 to 80 years. But that is not stopping
longleaf enthusiasts. "Today, it's getting hard to find longleaf seedlings to buy," one of the
private landowners says. "Everyone wants them. Longleaf is in a resurgence."

SECTION 1: QUESTIONS 1-13


Questions 1-5
Complete the notes below.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 1-5 on your answer sheet.

Forest fire ensures that:

• Birds can locate their 1____________in the ground.

• The burrows of a species of 2____________provide homes to many other


animals.

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• Hardwoods such as 3____________don’t take over.

Apart from fires lit by lightning:

• Fires are created by 4____________and settlers.

• Fires deliberately lit are called 5____________

Questions 6-9
Complete the flow-chart below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 6-
9 on your answer sheet.

How to increase the number of cockaded woodpeckers

Calcium stored in 6______________

Shrubs are burned

Calcium released into 7______________and travels up to the leaves

a kind of 8______________eats the leaves

Red-cockaded woodpeckers eat those ants

The number of 9______________increases

More cockaded woodpeckers

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Questions 10-13
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1?

In boxes 10-13 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

10. The sparse distribution of longleaf pine trees leads to the most diversity of species.

11. It is easier to restore forests converted to farms than forests converted to plantations.

12. The cost to restore forest is increasing recently.

13. Few can live to see the replanted forest reach its maturity.

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READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based on Reading
Passage 2 below.

Storytelling, From Prehistoric Craves To Modern Cinemas


A It was told, we suppose, to people crouched around a fire: a tale of adventure, most
likely—relating some close encounter with death: a remarkable hunt, an escape from mortal
danger; a vision, or something else out of the ordinary. Whatever its thread, the weaving of
this story was done with a prime purpose. The listeners must be kept listening. They must
not fall asleep. So, as the story went on, its audience should be sustained by one question
above all: What happens next?

B The first fireside stories in human history can never be known. They were kept in the
heads of those who told them. This method of storage is not necessarily inefficient.
From documented oral traditions in Australia, the Balkans and other parts of the world we
know that specialised storytellers and poets can recite from memory literally thousands of
lines, in verse or prose, verbatim - word for word. But while memory is rightly considered an
art in itself, it is clear that a primary purpose of making symbols is to have a system of
reminders or mnemonic cues - signs that assist us to recall certain information in the mind's
eye.

C In some Polynesian communities, a notched memory stick may help to guide a storyteller
through successive stages of recitation. But in other parts of the world, the activity of
storytelling historically resulted in the development or even the invention of writing

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systems. One theory about the arrival of literacy in ancient Greece, for example, argues that
the epic tales about the Trojan War and the wanderings of Odysseus traditionally
attributed to Homer were just so enchanting to hear that they had to be preserved. So the
Greeks, c. 750-700BC. borrowed an alphabet from their neighbors in the eastern
Mediterranean, the Phoenicians.

D The custom of recording stories on parchment and other materials can be traced in many
manifestations around the world, from the priestly papyrus archive of ancient Egypt to
the birch-bark scrolls on which the North American Ojibway Indians set down their creation
myth. It is a well-tried and universal practice: so much so that to this day storytime is
probably most often associated with words on paper. The formal practice of narrating a
story aloud would seem-so we assume-to have given way to newspapers, novels and
comic strips. This, however, is not the case. Statistically it is doubtful that the majority of
humans currently rely upon the written word to get access to stories. So what is the
alternative source?

E Each year, over 7 billion people will go to watch the latest offering from Hollywood.
Bollywood and beyond. The supreme storyteller of today is cinema. The movies, as distinct
from still photography, seem to be an essentially modern phenomenon. This is an
illusion, for there are, as we shall see, certain ways in which the medium of film is indebted
to very old precedents of arranging 'sequences' of images. But any account of visual
storytelling must begin with the recognition that all storytelling beats with a deeply atavistic
pulse: that is, a 'good story' relies upon formal patterns of plot and characterisation that
have been embedded in the practice of storytelling over many generations.

F Thousands of scripts arrive every week at the offices of the major film studios. But aspiring
screenwriters really need look no further for essential advice than the fourth-century BC
Greek Philosopher Aristotle. He left some incomplete lecture notes on the art of
telling stories in various literary and dramatic modes, a slim volume known as The
Poetics. Though he can never have envisaged the popcorn-fuelled actuality of a multiplex
cinema, Aristotle is almost prescient about the key elements required to get the crowds
flocking to such a cultural hub. He analyzed the process with cool rationalism. When a story
enchants us, we lose the sense of where we arc; we are drawn into the story so thoroughly
that we forget it is a story being told. This is. in Aristotle's phrase, 'the suspension of
disbelief.

G We know the feeling. If ever we have stayed in our seats, stunned with grief, as the credits
roll by, or for days after seeing that vivid evocation of horror have been nervous
about taking a shower at home, then wo have suspended disbelief. We have been caught,
or captivated, in the storyteller's wet). Did it all really happen? We really thought so for
a while. Aristotle must have witnessed often enough this suspension of disbelief. Ho
taught at Athens, the city where theater developed as a primary form of civic ritual and
recreation. Two theatrical types of storytelling, tragedy and comedy, caused Athenian

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audiences to lose themselves in sadness and laughter respectively. Tragedy, for Aristotle,
was particularly potent in its capacity to enlist and then purge the emotions of those
watching the story unfold on the stage, so he tried to identify those factors in the
storyteller's art that brought about such engagement. He had, as an obvious sample for
analysis, not only the fifth-century BC masterpieces of Classical Greek tragedy written by
Aeschylus. Sophocles and Euripides. Beyond them stood Homer. whose stories oven then
had canonical status: The lliad and The Odyssey were already considered literary landmarks-
stories by which all other stories should he measured. So what was the secret of Homer's
narrative art?

H It was not hard to find. Homer created credible heroes. His heroes belonged to the past,
they were mighty and magnificent, yet they were not, in the end, fantasy figures. He
made his heroes sulk, bicker, cheat and cry. They were, in short, characters-protagonists of
a story that an audience would care about, would want to follow, would want to know
what happens next. As Aristotle saw, the hero who shows a human side some flaw or weak-
ness to which mortals are prone is intrinsically dramatic.

SECTION 2: QUESTIONS 14-26


Questions 14-18
Reading Passage 2 has eight paragraphs, A-H.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the correct letter, A-H, in boxes 14-18 on your answer sheet.

14. A misunderstanding of how people today get stories

15. The categorisation of stories

16. The fundamental aim of storytelling

17. A description of reciting stories without any assistance

18. How to make story characters attractive

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Questions 19-22
Classify the following information as referring to

A adopted the writing system from another country

B used organic materials to record stories

C used tools to help to tell stories

Write the correct letter, A, B or C in boxes 19-22 on your answer sheet.

19. Egyptians

20. Ojibway

21. Polynesians

22. Greek

Questions 23-26
Complete the sentences below with ONE WORD ONLY from the passage.

Write your answers in boxes 23-26 on your answer sheet.

Aristotle wrote a book on the art of storytelling called 23_____________

Aristotle believed the most powerful type of story to move listeners is 24_____________

Aristotle viewed Homer’s works as 25_____________

Aristotle believed attractive heroes should have some 26_____________

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READING PASSAGE 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based on Reading
Passage 3 on the following pages.

Living Dunes
When you think of a sand dune, you probably picture a barren pile of lifeless sand. But sand
dunes are actually dynamic natural structures. They grow, shift and travel. They crawl with
living things. Some sand dunes even sing.

A Although no more than a pile of wind-blown sand, dunes can roll over trees and buildings,
march relentlessly across highways, devour vehicles on its path, and threaten crops and
factories in Africa, the Middle East, and China. In some places, killer dunes even roll in and
swallow up towns. Entire villages have disappeared under the sand. In a few instances the
government built new villages for those displaced only to find that new villages themselves
were buried several years later. Preventing sand dunes from overwhelming cities and
agricultural areas has become a priority for the United Nations Environment Program.

B Some of the most significant experimental measurements on sand movement were


performed by Ralph Bagnold, a British engineer who worked in Egypt prior to World War II.
Bagnold investigated the physics of particles moving through the atmosphere and deposited
by wind. He recognised two basic dune types, the crescentic dune, which he called
“barchan,” and the linear dune, which he called longitudinal or “sief ’ (Arabic for “sword”).
The crescentic barchan dune is the most common type of sand dune. As its name suggests,
this dune is shaped like a crescent moon with points at each end, and it is usually wider than
it is long. Some types of barchan dunes move faster over desert surfaces than any other
type of dune. The linear dune is straighter than the crescentic dune with ridges as its
prominent feature. Unlike crescentic dunes, linear dunes are longer than they are wide—in
fact, some are more than 100 miles (about 160 kilometers) long. Dunes can also be
comprised of smaller dunes of different types, called complex dunes.

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C Despite the complicated dynamics of dune formation, Bagnold noted that a sand dune
generally needs the following three things to form: a large amount of loose sand in an area
with little vegetation—usually on the coast or in a dried-up river, lake or sea bed; a wind or
breeze to move the grains of sand; and an obstacle, which could be as small as a rock or as
big as a tree, that causes the sand to lose momentum and settle. Where these three
variables merge, a sand dune forms.

D As the wind picks up the sand, the sand travels, but generally only about an inch or two
above the ground, until an obstacle causes it to stop. The heaviest grains settle against the
obstacle, and a small ridge or bump forms. The lighter grains deposit themselves on the
other side of the obstacle. Wind continues to move sand up to the top of the pile until the
pile is so steep that it collapses under its own weight. The collapsing sand comes to rest
when it reaches just the right steepness to keep the dune stable. The repeating cycle of sand
inching up the windward side to the dune crest, then slipping down the dune’s slip face
allows the dune to inch forward, migrating in the direction the wind blows.

E Depending on the speed and direction of the wind and the weight of the local sand, dunes
will develop into different shapes and sizes. Stronger winds tend to make taller dunes;
gentler winds tend to spread them out. If the direction of the wind generally is the same
over the years, dunes gradually shift in that direction. But a dune is “a curi-ously dynamic
creature”, wrote Farouk El-Baz in National Geographic. Once formed, a dune can grow,
change shape, move with the wind and even breed new dunes. Some of these offspring may
be carried on the back of the mother dune. Others are bom and race downwind, outpacing
their parents.

F Sand dunes even can be heard ‘singing’ in more than 30 locations worldwide, and in each
place the sounds have their own characteristic frequency, or note. When the thirteenth
century explorer Marco Polo encountered the weird and wonderful noises made by desert
sand dunes, he attributed them to evil spirits. The sound is unearthly. The volume is also
unnerving. Adding to the tone’s otherworldliness is the inability of the human ear to localise
the source of the noise. Stéphane Douady of the French national research agency CNRS and
his colleagues have been delving deeper into dunes in Morocco, Chile, China and Oman, and
believe they can now explain the exact mechanism behind this acoustic phenomenon.

G The group hauled sand back to the laboratory and set it up in channels with automated
pushing plates. The sands still sang, proving that the dune itself was not needed to act as a
resonating body for the sound, as some researchers had theorised. To make the booming
sound, the grains have to be of a small range of sizes, all alike in shape: well-rounded.
Douady’s key discovery was that this synchronised frequency—which determines the tone
of sound—is the result of the grain size. The larger the grain, the lower the key. He has
successfully predicted the notes emitted by dunes in Morocco, Chile and the US simply by
measuring the size of the grains they contain. Douady also discovered that the singing grains
had some kind of varnish or a smooth coating of various minerals: silicon, iron and

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manganese, which probably formed on the sand when the dunes once lay beneath an
ancient ocean. But in the muted grains this coat had been worn away, which explains why
only some dunes can sing. He admits he is unsure exactly what role the coating plays in
producing the noise. The mysterious dunes, it seems, aren’t quite ready yet to give up all of
their secrets.

SECTION 3: QUESTIONS 27-40


Questions 27-33
Reading passage 3 has seven paragraphs, A-G.

Choose the correct heading for paragraphs A-G from the list of headings below. Write the
correct number, i-x, in boxes 27-33 on your answer sheet.

List of Headings

i Shaping and reforming

ii Causes of desertification

iii Need combination of specific conditions

iv Potential threat to industry and communication

v An old superstition demystified

vi Differences and similarities

vii A continuous cycling process

viii Habitat for rare species

ix Replicating the process in laboratory

x Commonest type of dune

27. Paragraph A 32. Paragraph F

28. Paragraph B 33. Paragraph G

29. Paragraph C

30. Paragraph D

31. Paragraph E

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Questions 34-36
Complete the sentences below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 34-36 on your answer sheet.

34___________dune is said to have long ridges that can extend hundreds of miles.

According to Bagnold, an 35___________is needed to stop the sand from movingbefore a


dune can form.

Stéphane Douady believes the singing of dunes is not a spiritual phenomenon, but
purely 36___________

Questions 37-40
Complete the summary below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 37-40 on your answer sheet.

There are many different types of dunes, two of which are most commonly
found in deserts throughout the world, the linear dune and
the 37___________dune, some times also known as the crescentic dune. It’s
been long known that in some places dunes can even sing and the answer lies
in the sand itself. To produce singing sand in lab, all the sands must have
similar 38___________. And scientists have discovered that the size of the
sand can affect the 39___________the sound. But the function of the varnish
composed by a mixture of 40___________still remains puzzling.

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TEST 15

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SECTION 1 : QUESTIONS 1-10


Questions 1-10
Complete the notes below.

Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Driving school

Example Answer

Looking for driving lessons given during the: weekends

Address: 1______________Road

the city center


Drive:
2______________above the city

Teacher’s name: Allen 3______________

Popular type of car on roads: 4______________

Best time to take lessons: practice during the 5______________

Safety driving depends on: good 6______________

Obtain: a driving 7______________

Final test fee: $(8)______________

Duration of test: approximately 9______________minutes

More advice: keep a driving 10______________

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SECTION 2 : QUESTIONS 11-20


Questions 11-15
Complete the sentences below.

Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Mount Rushmore
The government finally paid $(11)______________to complete the heads of four
United States Presidents.

The purpose of the construction of the president’s heads is to


develop 12______________The carvings face 13______________to experience
maximum exposure to sunlight.

In 1885, the mountain was renamed after a 14______________

It took 15______________years to finish the project.

Questions 16 -20
Label the map below.

Write the correct letter, A-E, next to questions 16-20.

16. information centre 19. workshop

17. refreshment centre 20. visitor centre

18. gift shop

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SECTION 3 : QUESTIONS 21-30


Questions 21-25
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

21. Why does the student want to study Tourism?

a. good future
b. good pay
c. parents’ will

22. What kind of skill will the student gain in the course?

a. time-management
b. financial planning
c. note-taking

23. The student has the ability of

a. independence.
b. communication
c. coping well with statistics.

24. The teacher believes that the industry of tourism is

a. shrinking
b. seeing a bright future.
c. growing popular.

25. How does the student compare the university course with polytechnics?

a. There are summer schools.


b. The course is structured in modules.
c. The price is reasonable.

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Questions 26-30
What feature do the speakers identify for each of the following courses?

Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letters, A-G, next to
questions 26-30.

Features

A limited value

B Useful

C relevant to career

D flexible admission

E Intensive

F improving leadership

G self-control and time management

Courses

26. Travel and Business

27. Japanese

28. Medical Care

29. Computer

30. Public Relations

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SECTION 4 : QUESTIONS 31-40

Questions 31-40
Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Company Outsourcing
Case study - TCP Technologies:

• Manager: Manjeet Khanna


• Main target: to create a 31____________environment
Grading for staff:

• Every month grades are published on an 32____________


• The cultural openness increased the quantity of incoming contracted opportunities.
• The cultural openness improved the level of 33____________of the company.
• The increased rate of staff satisfaction has led to growth of 32% in
the 34____________
Recent interview:

• A company is not one entity comprised of components, but a living


organism composed of cells.

• Manjeet’s motto is 35____________

Benefits of management style:

• The rate of staff turnover has been reduced.

• A 36____________can be from any other company.

• Grades are not used for 37____________

Features of managing style:

• Personally, the manager wrote emails to respond to the complaints.

• The complaint form known as a 38____________has access to all employees


online.

• The manager can receive any complaints concerning air conditioning, food quality
and 39____________entitlement.

• A 40____________on the anonymous complaint was introduced in the new

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READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on
Reading Passage 1 below.

CLASSIFYING SOCIETIES
Although humans have established many types of societies throughout history, sociologists
and anthropologists tend to classify different societies according to the degree to which
different groups within a society have unequal access to advantages such as resources,
prestige or power, and usually refer to four basic types of societies. From least to most
socially Complex they are clans, tribes, chiefdoms and states.

Clan

These are small-scale societies of hunters and gatherers, generally of fewer than 100
people, who move seasonally to exploit wild (undomesticated) food resources. Most
surviving hunter-gatherer groups are of this kind, such as the Hadza of Tanzania or the San
of southern Africa. Clan members are generally kinsfolk, related by descent or marriage.
Clans lack formal leaders, so there are no marked economic differences or disparities in
status among their members.

Because clans are composed of mobile groups of hunter-gatherers, their sites consist mainly
of seasonally occupied camps, and other smaller and more specialised sites. Among the
latter are kill or butchery sites—locations where large mammals are killed and sometimes
butchered— and work sites, where tools are made or other specific activities carried out.
The base camp of such a group may give evidence of rather insubstantial dwellings or
temporary shelters, along with the debris of residential occupation.

Tribe

These are generally larger than mobile hunter-gatherer groups, but rarely number more
than a few thousand, and their diet or subsistence is based largely on cultivated plants
and domesticated animals. Typically, they are settled farmers, but they may be nomadic
with a very different, mobile economy based on the intensive exploitation of livestock.

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These are generally multi-community societies, with the individual communities integrated
into the larger society through kinship ties. Although some tribes have officials and even a
"capital" or seat of government, such officials lack the economic base necessary for effective
use of

The typical settlement pattern for tribes is one of settled agricultural homesteads or
villages. Characteristically, no one settlement dominates any of the others in the region.
Instead, the archaeologist finds evidence for isolated, permanently occupied houses or for
permanent villages. Such villages may be made up of a collection of free-standing houses,
like those of the first farms of the Danube valley in Europe. Or they may be clusters of
buildings grouped together, for example, the pueblos of the American Southwest, and the
early farming village or small town of (catalhoyuk in modern Turkey.

Chiefdom

These operate on the principle of ranking—differences in social status between people.


Different lineages (a lineage is a group claiming descent from a common ancestor) are
graded on a scale of prestige, and the senior lineage, and hence the society as a whole, is
governed by a chief. Prestige and rank are determined by how closely related one is to the
chief, and there is no true stratification into classes. The role of the chief is crucial.

Often, there is local specialisation in craft products, and surpluses of these and of foodstuffs
are periodically paid as obligation to the chief. He uses these to maintain his retainers,
and may use them for redistribution to his subjects. The chiefdom generally has a center of
power, often with temples, residences of the chief and his retainers, and craft specialists.
Chiefdoms vary greatly in size, but the range is generally between about 5000 and 20,000
persons.

Early State

These preserve many of the features of chiefdoms, but the ruler (perhaps a king or
sometimes a queen) has explicit authority to establish laws and also to enforce them by the
use of a stand-ing army. Society no longer depends totally upon kin relationships: it is now
stratified into dif-ferent classes. Agricultural workers and the poorer urban dwellers form
the lowest classes, with the craft specialists above, and the priests and kinsfolk of the ruler
higher still. The functions of the ruler are often separated from those of the priest: palace is
distinguished from temple. The society is viewed as a territory owned by the ruling lineage
and populated by tenants who have an obligation to pay taxes. The central capital houses a
bureaucratic administration of officials; one of their principal purposes is to collect revenue
(often in the form of taxes and tolls) and distribute it to government, army and craft
specialists. Many early states developed complex redistribution systems to support these
essential services.

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This rather simple social typology, set out by Elman Service and elaborated by William
Sanders and Joseph Marino, can be criticised, and it should not be used unthinkingly. Never-
theless, if we are seeking to talk about early societies, we must use words and hence
concepts to do so. Service’s categories provide a good framework to help organise our
thoughts.

SECTION 1: QUESTIONS 1-13


Questions 1-7
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1?

In boxes 1-7 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

1. There’s little economic difference between members of a clan.

2. The farmers of a tribe grow a wide range of plants.

3. One settlement is more important than any other settlements in a tribe.

4. A member’s status in a chiefdom is determined by how much land he owns.

5. There are people who craft goods in chiefdoms.

6. The king keeps the order of a state by using an army.

7. Bureaucratic officers receive higher salaries than other members.

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Questions 8-13
Answer the questions below.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 8-13 on your answer sheet.

What are made at the clan work sites?

8__________________________________________________________

What is the other way of life for tribes besides settled farming?

9__________________________________________________________

How are Catalhoyuk’s housing units arranged?

10__________________________________________________________

What does a chief give to his subjects as rewards besides crafted goods?

11__________________________________________________________

What is the largest possible population of a chiefdom?

12__________________________________________________________

Which group of people is at the bottom of an early state but higher than the farmers?

13__________________________________________________________

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READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based on Reading
Passage 2 below.

Tasmanian Tiger
Although it was called tiger, it looked like a dog with black stripes on its back and it was the
largest known carnivorous marsupial of modern times. Yet, despite its fame for being one of
the most fabled animals in the world, it is one of the least understood of Tasmania’s native
animals. The scientific name for the Tasmanian tiger is Thylacine and it is believed that they
have become extinct in the 20th century.

Fossils of thylacines dating from about almost 12 million years ago have been dug up at
various places in Victoria, South Australia and Western Australia. They were widespread in
Australia 7,000 years ago, but have probably been extinct on the continent for 2,000 years.
This is believed to be because of the introduction of dingoes around 8,000 years ago.
Because of disease, thylacine numbers may have been declining in Tasmania at the time of
European settlement 200 years ago, but the decline was certainly accelerated by the new
arrivals. The last known Tasmanian Tiger died in Hobart Zoo in 1936 and the animal is
officially classified as extinct. Technically, this means that it has not been officially sighted in
the wild or captivity for 50 years. However, there are still unsubstanti-ated sightings.

Hans Naarding, whose study of animals had taken him around the world, was conducting a
survey of a species of endangered migratory bird. What he saw that night is now regarded
as the most credible sighting recorded of thylacine that many believe has been extinct for
more than 70 years.

“I had to work at night,” Naarding takes up the story. “I was in the habit of intermittently
shining a spotlight around. The beam fell on an animal in front of the vehicle, less than 10m
away. Instead of risking movement by grabbing for a camera, I decided to register very
carefully what I was seeing. The animal was about the size of a small shepherd dog, a very
healthy male in prime condition. What set it apart from a dog, though, was a slightly sloping
hindquarter, with a fairly thick tail being a straight continuation of the backline of the
animal. It had 12 distinct stripes on its back, continuing onto its butt. I knew perfectly well

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what I was seeing. As soon as I reached for the camera, it disap-peared into the tea-tree
undergrowth and scrub.”

The director of Tasmania’s National Parks at the time, Peter Morrow, decided in his wisdom
to keep Naarding’s sighting of the thylacine secret for two years. When the news finally
broke, it was accompanied by pandemonium. “I was besieged by television crews, including
four to live from Japan, and others from the United Kingdom, Germany, New Zealand and
South America,” said Naarding.

Government and private search parties combed the region, but no further sightings were
made. The tiger, as always, had escaped to its lair, a place many insist exists only in our
imagination. But since then, the thylacine has staged something of a comeback, becoming
part of Australian mythology.

There have been more than 4,000 claimed sightings of the beast since it supposedly died
out, and the average claims each year reported to authorities now number 150. Associate
professor of zoology at the University of Tasmania, Randolph Rose, has said he dreams of
seeing a thylacine. But Rose, who in his 35 years in Tasmanian academia has fielded
countless reports of thylacine sightings, is now convinced that his dream will go unfulfilled.

“The consensus among conservationists is that, usually, any animal with a population base
of less than 1,000 is headed for extinction within 60 years,” says Rose. “Sixty years ago,
there was only one thylacine that we know of, and that was in Hobart Zoo,” he says.

Dr. David Pemberton, curator of zoology at the Tasmanian Museum and Art Gallery, whose
PhD thesis was on the thylacine, says that despite scientific thinking that 500 animals are
required to sustain a population, the Florida panther is down to a dozen or so animals and,
while it does have some inbreeding problems, is still ticking along. “I’ll take a punt and say
that, if we manage to find a thylacine in the scrub, it means that there are 50-plus animals
out there.”

After all, animals can be notoriously elusive. The strange fish known as the coelacanth, with
its “proto-legs”, was thought to have died out along with the dinosaurs 700 million years
ago until a specimen was dragged to the surface in a shark net off the south-east coast of
South Africa in 1938.

Wildlife biologist Nick Mooney has the unenviable task of investigating all “sightings” of the
tiger totalling 4,000 since the mid-1980s, and averaging about 150 a year. It was Mooney
who was first consulted late last month about the authenticity of digital photographic
images purportedly taken by a German tourist while on a recent bushwalk in the state. On
face value, Mooney says, the account of the sighting, and the two photographs submitted as
proof, amount to one of the most convincing cases for the species’ survival he has seen.

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And Mooney has seen it all—the mistakes, the hoaxes, the illusions and the plausible
accounts of sightings. Hoaxers aside, most people who report sightings end up believing
they have seen a thy-lacine, and are themselves believable to the point they could pass a lie-
detector test, according to Mooney. Others, having tabled a creditable report, then become
utterly obsessed like the Tasmanian who has registered 99 thylacine sightings to date.
Mooney has seen individuals bankrupted by the obsession, and families destroyed. “It is a
blind optimism that something is, rather than a cynicism that something isn’t,” Mooney
says. “If something crosses the road, it’s not a case of ‘I wonder what that was?’ Rather, it is
a case of ‘that’s a thylacine!’ It is a bit like a gold prospector’s blind faith, ‘it has got to be
there’.”

However, Mooney treats all reports on face value. “I never try to embarrass people, or make
fools of them. But the fact that 1 don’t pack the car immediately they ring can often be
taken as ridicule. Obsessive characters get irate that someone in my position is not out
there when they think the thy-lacine is there.”

But Hans Naarding, whose sighting of a striped animal two decades ago was the highlight of
“a life of animal spotting”, remains bemused by the time and money people waste on tiger
searches. He says resources would be better applied to saving the Tasmanian devil, and
helping migratory bird popula-tions that are declining as a result of shrinking wetlands
across Australia.

Gould the thylacine still be out there? “Sure,” Naarding says. But be also says any discovery
of sur-viving thylacines would be “rather pointless”. “How do you save a species from
extinction? What could you do with it? If there are thylacines out there, they are better off
right where they are,”

SECTION 2: QUESTIONS 14-26


Questions 14-17
Complete the summary below.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 14-17 on your answer sheet.

The Tasmanian tiger, also called thylacine, resembles the look of a dog and
has 14___________on its fur coat. Many fossils have been found, showing
that thylacines had existed as early as 15___________years ago. They lived
throughout 16___________before disappearing from the mainland. And soon
after the 17___________settlers arrived the size of thylacine population in
Tasmania shrunk at a higher speed.

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Questions 18-23
Look at the following statements (Questions 18-23) and the list ofpeople below. Match each
statement with the correct person, A, B, C or D.

Write the correct letter, A, B, C or D, in boxes 18-23 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

18. His report of seeing a live thylacine in the wild attracted international interest.

19. Many eye-witnesses ’ reports are not trustworthy.

20. It doesn’t require a certain number of animals to ensure the survival of a species.

21. There is no hope of finding a surviving Tasmanian tiger.

22. Do not disturb them if there are any Tasmanian tigers still living today.

23. The interpretation of evidence can be affected by people’s beliefs.

List of People

A Hans Naarding

B Randolph Rose

C David Pemberton

D Nick Mooney

Questions 24-26
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write the correct letter in boxes 24-26 on your answer sheet.

24. Hans Naarding’s sighting has resulted in

A. government and organisations’ cooperative efforts to protect thylacine.


B. extensive interests to find a living thylacine.
C. increase of the number of reports of thylacine worldwide.
D. growth of popularity of thylacine in literature.

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25. The example of coelacanth is to illustrate

A. it lived in the same period with dinosaurs.


B. how dinosaurs evolved legs.
C. some animals are difficult to catch in the wild.
D. extinction of certain species can be mistaken.

26. Mooney believes that all sighting reports should be

A. given some credit as they claim even if they are untrue.


B. acted upon immediately.
C. viewed as equally untrustworthy.
D. questioned and carefully investigated.

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READING PASSAGE 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based on Reading
Passage 3 on the following pages.

Accidental Scientists
A A paradox lies close to the heart of scientific discovery. If you know just what you are
looking for, finding it can hardly count as a discovery, since it was fully anticipated. But if, on
the other hand, you have no notion of what you are looking for, you cannot know when you
have found it, and discovery, as such, is out of the question. In the philosophy of science,
these extremes map onto the purist forms of deductivism and inductivism: In the former,
the outcome is supposed to be logically contained in the premises you start with; in the
latter, you are recommended to start with no expectations whatsoever and see what turns
up.

B As in so many things, the ideal position is widely supposed to reside somewhere in


between these two impossible-to-realise extremes. You want to have a good enough idea of
what you are looking for to be surprised when you find something else of value, and you
want to be ignorant enough of your end point that you can entertain alternative outcomes.
Scientific discovery should, therefore, have an accidental aspect, but not too much of one.
Serendipity is a word that expresses a position something like that. It’s a fascinating word,
and the late Robert King Merton—“the father of the sociology of science”—liked it well
enough to compose its biography, assisted by the French cultural historian Elinor Barber.

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C The word did not appear in the published literature until the early 19th century and did
not become well enough known to use without explanation until sometime in the first third
of the 20th century. Serendipity means a “happy accident” or “pleasant surprise”,
specifically, the accident of finding something good or useful without looking for it. The first
noted use of “serendipity” in the English language was by Horace Walpole. He explained
that it came from the fairy tale, called The Three Princes of Serendip (the ancient name for
Ceylon, or present day Sri Lanka), whose heroes “were always making discoveries, by
accidents and sagacity, of things which they were not in quest of’.

D Antiquarians, following Walpole, found use for it, as they were always rummaging about
for curiosities, and unexpected but pleasant surprises were not unknown to them.
Some people just seemed to have a knack for that sort of thing, and serendipity was used
to express that special capacity. The other community that came to dwell on serendipity
to say something important about their practice was that of scientists, and here usages cut
to the heart of the matter and were often vigorously contested. Many scientists, including
the Flarvard physiologist Walter Cannon and, later, the British immunologist Peter
Medawar, liked to emphasise how much of scientific discovery was unplanned and even
accidental. One of the examples is Hans Christian Orsted’s discovery of electromagnetism
when he unintentionally brought a current-carrying wire parallel to a magnetic needle.
Rheto-ric about the sufficiency of rational method was so much hot air. Indeed, as
Medawar insisted, “There is no such thing as The Scientific Method,” no way at all of
systematis-ing the process of discovery. Really important discoveries had a way of showing
up when they had a mind to do so and not when you were looking for them. Maybe some
scientists, like some book collectors, had a happy knack; maybe serendipity described the
situation rather than a personal skill or capacity.

E Some scientists using the word meant to stress those accidents belonging to the situation;
some treated serendipity as a personal capacity; many others exploited the ambiguity of the
notion. Yet what Cannon and Medawar took as a benign nose-thumbing at Dreams
of Method, other scientists found incendiary. To say that science had a significant
serendipitous aspect was taken by some as dangerous denigration. If scientific discovery
were really accidental, then what was the special basis of expert authority? In this
connection, the aphorism of choice came from no less an authority on scientific discovery
than Louis Pasteur: “Chance favors the prepared mind.” Accidents may happen, and things
may turn up unplanned and unforeseen, as one is looking for something else, but the ability
to notice such events, to see their potential bearing and meaning, to exploit their
occurrence and make constructive use of them—these are the results of systematic mental
preparation. What seems like an accident is just another form of expertise. On closer
inspection, it is insisted, accident dissolves into sagacity.

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F The context in which scientific serendipity was most contested and had its greatest
resonance was that connected with the idea of planned science. The serendipitists were not
all inhab-itants of academic ivory towers. As Merton and Barber note, two of the great
early-20th-century American pioneers of industrial research—Willis Whitney and Irving
Langmuir, both of General Electric—made much play of serendipity, in the course of arguing
against overly rigid research planning. Langmuir thought that misconceptions about the
certainty and ratio-nality of the research process did much harm and that a mature
acceptance of uncertainty was far more likely to result in productive research policies. For
his own part, Langmuir said that satisfactory outcomes “occurred as though we were just
drifting with the wind. These things came about by accident.” If there is no very determinate
relationship between cause and effect in research, he said, “then planning does not get us
very far.” So, from within the bowels of corporate capitalism came powerful arguments, by
way of serendipity, for scientific spontane-ity and autonomy. The notion that industry was
invariably committed to the regimentation of scientific research just doesn’t wash.

G For Merton himself—who one supposes must have been the senior author-serendipity
rep-resented the keystone in the arch of his social scientific work. In 1936, as a very young
man, Merton wrote a seminal essay on “The Unanticipated Consequences of Purposive
Social Action.” It is, he argued, the nature of social action that what one intends is rarely
what one gets: Intending to provide resources for buttressing Christian religion, the natural
philoso-phers of the Scientific Revolution laid the groundwork for secularism; people
wanting to be alone with nature in Yosemite Valley wind up crowding one another. We just
don’t know enough—and we can never know enough—to ensure that the past is an
adequate guide to the future: Uncertainty about outcomes, even of our best-laid plans, is
endemic. All social action, including that undertaken with the best evidence and formulated
according to the most rational criteria, is uncertain in its consequences.

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SECTION 3: QUESTIONS 27-40


Questions 27-32
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write the correct letter in boxes 33-37 on your answer sheet.

Choose the most suitable heading for paragraphs A-G from the list of headings below. Write
the appropriate number, i-x, in boxes 27-32 on your answer sheet.

List of Headings

i Examples of some scientific discoveries

ii Horace Walpole’s fairy tale

iii Resolving the contradiction

iv What is the Scientific Method

v The contradiction of views on scientific discovery

vi Some misunderstandings of serendipity

vii Opponents of authority

viii Reality doesn’t always match expectation

ix How the word came into being

x Illustration of serendipity in the business sector

27. Paragraph A

Example Answer

Paragraph B iii

28. Paragraph C 32. Paragraph G

29. Paragraph D

30. Paragraph E

31. Paragraph F

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Questions 33-37
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write the correct letter in boxes 33-37 on your answer sheet.

33. In paragraph A, the word “inductivism” means

A. anticipate results in the beginning.


B. work with prepared premises.
C. accept chance discoveries.
D. look for what you want.

34. Medawar says “there is no such thing as The Scientific Method” because

A. discoveries are made by people with determined mind.


B. discoveries tend to happen unplanned.
C. the process of discovery is unpleasant
D. serendipity is not a skill.

35. Many scientists dislike the idea of serendipity because

A. it is easily misunderstood and abused.


B. it is too unpredictable.
C. it is beyond their comprehension.
D. it devalues their scientific expertise.

36. The writer mentions Irving Langmuir to illustrate

A. planned science should be avoided.


B. industrial development needs uncertainty.
C. people tend to misunderstand the relationship between cause and effect.
D. accepting uncertainty can help produce positive results.

37. The example of Yosemite is to show

A. the conflict between reality and expectation.


B. the importance of systematic planning.
C. the intention of social action.
D. the power of anticipation.

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Questions 38-40
Answer the questions below.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer. Write your
answers in boxes 38-40 on your answer sheet.

Who is the person that first used the word “serendipity”?

38_____________________________________________

What kind of story does the word come from?

39_____________________________________________

What is the present name of serendip?

40_____________________________________________

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TEST 16

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LISTENING
SECTION 1 : QUESTIONS 1-10
Questions 1-10
Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

JOB ENOUIRY

Example Answer

•Type of job required: part-time

Position Available Details

Duty: to provide 2____________service

Working hours: 3____________


1____________
Requirement: receive 4____________without pay

Day off: one day a week (request in advance)

Requirements: clean and valid license

six-year experience

Working hours: 6____________

Duty: to take employers


5____________
to and from work

to collect the 7____________

to pick up the children

Day off: 8____________

Cashier in a 9____________ Working hours: 17.30-22.30

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Duty: to sell and dispense tickets

to provide refreshments

to take 10____________

Day off: Mondays

SECTION 2 : QUESTIONS 11-20


Questions 11-14
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

11. The host families will

A. earn a big money.


B. receive no pay.
C. receive stable pay.

12. What is the guest expected to overcome when suffering from culture shock?

A. loneliness
B. difficulty to make friends
C. language barriers

13. What can the guests do if they want to become familiar with host families?

A. talk about personal interests


B. clean their rooms
C. cook together

14. What’s likely to happen to the guests in the long run?

A. They will enhance cultural understanding.


B. They will gain overseas experience.
C. They will know more people from different countries.

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Questions 15-20
Complete the flow-chart below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

HOW TO APPLY FOR A HOMESTAY

Visit the website and contact the advisor

Keep in touch with the 15___________

Provide two photos, one for the host family, and the other for 16___________

Send in some documents to confirm your 17___________

Receive 18___________within 7 working days

Have a(n) 19___________in London

Pay the extra fee for a fast-track service

Receive a written 20___________

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SECTION 3 : QUESTIONS 21-30


Questions 21-26
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

21. What kind of research method does the professor recommend?

A. interview
B. observation
C. questionnaire

22. What is the project based on?

A. a study they did before in Australia


B. a similar angle someone has done before
C. an Australian study

23. What does the professor advise Douglas to do about the formation of the focus groups?

A. streng then the group in size


B. reduce the number of children in each group
C. build more than 3 groups

24. To do the project best, the professor suggests the students

A. interview various people or sectors.


B. not be too ambitious.
C. work hard enough.

25. To gather data, the professor asks Jane

A. to replace other people’s advice.


B. to simplify the textbook.
C. to practice using the date table.

26. The reason why Douglas hasn’t read enough reference books is that

A. he doesn’t have enough time.


B. he thinks there are too many books to read.
C. he hasn’t spent time in the library.

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Questions 27-30
What do the students decide about the following parts of the project?

Write the correct letter, A, B or C, next to questions 27-30.

A Jane will do

B Douglas will do

C They will do together

27. final report

28. sheet preparation

29. letter

30. transcript

SECTION 4 : QUESTIONS 31-40


Questions 31-36
Complete the notes below.

Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

GRAPHICAL SYMBOL
‘Graphical symbol’

• includes the logographs in Egyptian hieroglyphic writing and ancient Chinese


pictograms

• found in Africa, the Americas, and Oceania

• still has something to do with 31___________use today

Ancient graphic writing systems

• Researchers obtain a wide range of 32___________about past civilisations.

- Rosetta Stone was found in 1799 when members of Napoleon’s expedition got to
Egypt.

- Frenchman Jean-François Champollion determined the phonetic values of the

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symbols in 1822.

• In those symbols, 33___________are used to depict various meanings.

Camera obscura

• 34___________helps people understand history better.

• Some charities will 35___________many endangered species.

• A camera was tied to one 36___________of a bird.

Questions 37-40
Complete the sentences below.

Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

More 37___________will be included in the future with the development of photography.

Companies would like to invest a lot to advertise in 38___________

Designing appealing 39___________is used as a way of effective branding.

Graphic writing systems are of great importance in the subject of 40 ___________

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READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on
Reading Passage 1 below.

Otters
A Otters are semiaquatic (or in the case of the sea otter, aquatic) mammals. They are
members of the Mustelid family which includes badgers, polecats, martens, weasels, stoats
and minks, and have inhabited the earth for the last 30 million years and over the years
have undergone subtle changes to the carnivore bodies to exploit the rich aquatic
environment. Otters have long thin body and short legs—ideal for pushing dense
undergrowth or hunting in tunnels. An adult male may be up to 4 feet long and 30 pounds.
Females are smaller, around 16 pounds typically. The Eurasian otter’s nose is about the
smallest among the otter species and has a characteristic shape described as a shallow “W”.
An otter’s tail (or rudder, or stern) is stout at the base and tapers towards the tip where it
flattens. This forms part of the propulsion unit when swimming fast under water. Otter
fur consists of two types of hair: stout guard hairs which form a waterproof outer covering,
and under-fur which is dense and fine, equivalent to an otter’s thermal underwear. The fur
must be kept in good condition by grooming. Sea water reduces the waterproofing and
insulating qualities of otter fur when salt water gets in the fur. This is why freshwater pools
are important to otters living on the coast:. After swimming, they wash the salts off in the
pools and then squirm on the ground to rub dry against vegetation.

B Scent is used for hunting on land, for communication and for detecting danger. Otterine
sense of smell is likely to be similar in sensitivity to dogs. Otters have small eyes and are
probably short-sighted on land. But they do have the ability to modify the shape of the lens

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in the eye to make it more spherical, and hence overcome the refraction of water. In clear
water and good light, otters can hunt fish by sight. The otter’s eyes and nostrils arc placed
high on its head so that it can see and breathe even when the rest of the body is
submerged. The long whiskers growing around the muzzle are used to detect the presence
of fish. They detect regular vibrations caused by the beat of the fish’s tail as it swims away.
This allows otters to hunt even in very murky water. Underwater, the otter holds its legs
against the body, except for steering, and the hind end of the body is flexed in a series of
vertical undulations. River otters have webbing which extends for much of the length of
each digit, though not to the very end. Giant otters and sea otters have even more
prominent webs, while the Asian short-clawed otter has no webbing—they hunt for shrimps
in ditches and paddy fields so they don’t need the swimming speed. Otter ears are
protected by valves which close them against water pressure.

C A number of constraints and preferences limit suitable habitats for otters. Water is a must
and the rivers must be large enough to support a healthy population of fish. Being such shy
and wary crea-tures, they will prefer territories where man’s activities do not impinge
greatly. Of course, there must also be no other otter already in residence—this has only
become significant again recently as populations start to recover. A typical range for a male
river otter might be 25km of river, a female’s range less than half this. However, the
productivity of the river affects this hugely and one study found male ranges between 12
and 80km. Coastal otters have a much more abundant food supply and ranges for males and
females may be just a few kilometers of coastline. Because male ranges are usually larger, a
male otter may find his range overlaps with two or three females. Otters will eat anything
that they can get hold of—there are records of sparrows and snakes and slugs being
gobbled. Apart from fish the most common prey are crayfish, crabs and water birds.
Small mammals are occasionally taken, most commonly rabbits but sometimes even moles.

D Eurasian otters will breed any time where food is readily available. In places where
condition is more severe, Sweden for example where the lakes are frozen for much of
winter, cubs are bom in Spring. This ensures that they are well grown before severe weather
returns. In the Shetlands, cubs are born in summer when fish is more abundant. Though
otters can breed every year, some do not. Again, this depends on food availability. Other
factors such as food range and quality of the female may have an effect. Gestation for
Eurasian otter is 63 days, with the exception of North American river otter whose embryos
may undergo delayed implantation.

E Otters normally give birth in more secure dens to avoid disturbances. Nests are lined with
bedding (reeds, waterside plants, grass) to keep the cubs warm while mummy is away
feeding. Litter Size varies between 1 and 5 (2 or 3 being the most common). For some
unknown reason, coastal otters tend to produce smaller litters. At five weeks they open
their eyes—a tiny cub of 700g. At seven weeks they’re weaned onto solid food. At ten
weeks they leave the nest, blinking into daylight for the first time. After three months they

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finally meet the water and learn to swim. After eight months they are hunting, though the
mother still provides a lot of food herself. Finally, after nine months she can chase them all
away with a clear conscience, and relax—until the next fella shows up.

F The plight of the British otter was recognised in the early 60s, but it wasn’t until the late
70s that the chief cause was discovered. Pesticides, such as dieldrin and aldrin, were first
used in '1955 in agriculture and other industries—these chemicals are very persistent and
had already been recognised as the cause of huge declines in the population of peregrine
falcons, sparrowhawks and other predators. The pesticides entered the river systems and
the food chain—micro-organisms, fish and finally otters, with every step increasing the
concentration of the chemicals. From 1962 the chemicals were phased out, but while some
species recovered quickly, otter numbers did not—and continued to fall into the 80s. This
was probably due mainly to habitat destruction and road deaths. Acting on populations
fragmented by the sudden decimation in the 50s and 60s, the loss of just a handful of otters
in one area can make an entire population enviable and spell the end.

G Otter numbers are recovering all around Britain—populations are growing again in the
few areas where they had remained and have expanded from those areas into the rest of
the country. This is almost entirely due to law and conservation efforts, slowing down and
reversing the destruction of suitable otter habitat and reintroductions from captive
breeding programs. Releasing captive-bred otters is seen by many as a last resort. The
argument runs that where there is no suitable habitat for them they will not survive after
release and when1 there is suitable habitat;, natural populations should be able to expand
into the area. However, reintroducing animals into a fragmented and fragile population may
add just enough impetus for it to stabilise and expand, rather than die out. This is what the
Otter Trust accomplished in Norfolk, where the otter population may have been as low as
twenty animals at the beginning of the 1980s. The Otter Trust has now finished its captive
breeding program entirely. Great news because it means it is no longer’ needed.

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SECTION 1: QUESTIONS 1-13


Questions 1-9
Reading Passage 1 has seven paragraphs, A-G.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the correct letter, A-G, in boxes 1-9 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

1. A description of how otters regulate vision underwater

2. The fit-for-purpose characteristics of otter’s body shape

3. A reference to an underdeveloped sense

4. An explanation of why agriculture failed in otter conservation efforts

5. A description of some of the otter’s social characteristics

6. A description of how baby otters grow

7. The conflicted opinions on how to preserve

8. A reference to a legislative act

9. An explanation of how otters compensate for heat loss

Questions 10-13
Answer the questions below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 10-13 on your answer sheet.
What affects the outer fur of otters?

10_____________________________________________

What skill is not necessary for Asian short-clawed otters?

11_____________________________________________

Which type of otters has the shortest range?

12_____________________________________________

Which type of animals do otters hunt occasionally?

13_____________________________________________

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READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based on Reading
Passage 2 on the following pages.

Wealth in A Cold Climate


Latitude is crucial to a nation's economic strength.

A Dr William Masters was reading a book about mosquitoes when inspiration struck. "There
was this anecdote about the great yellow-fever epidemic that hit Philadelphia in 1793,”
Masters recalls. “This epidemic decimated the city until the first frost came." The inclement
weather froze out the insects, allowing Philadelphia to recover.

B If weather could be the key to a city’s fortunes, Masters thought, then why not to the
histori-cal fortunes of nations? And could frost lie at the heart of one of the most enduring
economic mysteries of all—why are almost all the wealthy, industrialised nations to be
found at latitudes above 40 degrees? After two years of research, he thinks that he has
found a piece of the puzzle. Masters, an agricultural economist from Purdue University in
Indiana, and Marga-ret McMillan at Tufts University, Boston, show that annual frosts are
among the factors that distinguish rich nations from poor ones. Their study is published this
month in the Journal of Economic Growth. The pair speculate that cold snaps have two main
benefits—they freeze pests that would otherwise destroy crops, and also freeze organisms,
such as mosquitoes, that carry disease. The result is agricultural abundance and a big
workforce.

C The academics took two sets of information. The first was average income for countries,
the second climate data from the University of East Anglia. They found a curious tally
between the sets. Countries having five or more frosty days a month are uniformly rich,

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those with fewer than five are impoverished. The authors speculate that the five-day figure
is important; it could be the minimum time needed to kill pests in the soil. Masters says:
"For example, Finland is a small country that is growing quickly, but Bolivia is a small country
that isn’t growing at all. Perhaps climate has something to do with that.” In fact, limited
frosts bring huge benefits to farmers. The chills kill insects or render them inactive; cold
weather slows the break-up of plant and animal material in the soil, allowing it to become
richer; and frosts ensure a build-up of moisture in the ground for spring, reducing
dependence on seasonal rains. There are exceptions to the “cold equals rich” argument.
There are well-heeled tropical places such as Hong Kong and Singapore, a result of their
superior trading positions. Like-wise, not all European countries are moneyed—in the
former communist colonies, economic potential was crushed by politics.

D Masters stresses that climate will never be the overriding factor—the wealth of nations is
too complicated to be attributable to just one factor. Climate, he feels, somehow combines
with other factors—such as the presence of institutions, including governments, and access
to trading routes—to determine whether a country will do well. Traditionally, Masters says,
econ-omists thought that institutions had the biggest effect on the economy, because they
brought order to a country in the form of, for example, laws and property rights. With order,
so the thinking went, came affluence. “But there are some problems that even countries
with institu-tions have not been able to get around,” he says. “My feeling is that, as
countries get richer, they get better institutions. And the accumulation of wealth and
improvement in governing institutions are both helped by a favourable environment,
including climate.”

E This does not mean, he insists, that tropical countries are beyond economic help and
destined to remain penniless. Instead, richer countries should change the way in which
foreign aid is given. Instead of aid being geared towards improving governance, it should be
spent on tech-nology to improve agriculture and to combat disease. Masters cites one
example: “There are regions in India that have been provided with irrigation—agricultural
productivity has gone up and there has been an improvement in health.” Supplying vaccines
against tropical diseases and developing crop varieties that can grow in the tropics would
break the poverty cycle.

F Other minds have applied themselves to the split between poor and rich nations, citing
anthro-pological, climatic and zoological reasons for why temperate nations are the most
affluent. In 350BC, Aristotle observed that “those who live in a cold climate...are full of
spirit”. Jared Diamond, from the University of California at Los Angeles, pointed out in his
book Guns, Germs and Steel that Eurasia is broadly aligned east-west, while Africa and the
Americas are aligned north-south. So, in Europe, crops can spread quickly across latitudes
because climates are similar. One of the first domesticated crops, einkorn wheat, spread
quickly from the Middle East into Europe; it took twice as long for corn to spread from
Mexico to what is now the eastern United States. This easy movement along similar

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latitudes in Eurasia would also have meant a faster dissemination of other technologies such
as the wheel and writing, Diamond speculates. The region also boasted domesticated
livestock, which could provide meat, wool and motive power in the fields. Blessed with such
natural advantages, Eurasia was bound to take off economically.

G John Gallup and Jeffrey Sachs, two US economists, have also pointed out striking correla-
tions between the geographical location of countries and their wealth. They note that
tropical countries between 23.45 degrees north and south of the equator are nearly all
poor. In an article for the Harvard International Review, they concluded that “development
surely seems to favour the temperate-zone economies, especially those in the northern
hemisphere, and those that have managed to avoid both socialism and the ravages of war”.
But Masters cau-tions against geographical determinism, the idea that tropical countries are
beyond hope: “Human health and agriculture can be made better through scientific and
technological research,” he says, "so we shouldn’t be writing off these countries. Take
Singapore: without- air conditioning, it wouldn’t be rich.”

SECTION 2: QUESTIONS 14-26


Questions 14-20
Reading Passage 2 has seven paragraphs, A-G.
Choose the most suitable heading for paragraphs A-G from the list of headings below.
Write the appropriate number, i-x, in boxes 14-20 on your answer sheet.

List of Headings

i The positive correlation between climate and wealth

ii Other factors besides climate that influence wealth

iii Inspiration from reading a book

iv Other researchers’ results do not rule out exceptional cases

v Different attributes between Eurasia and Africa

vi Low temperature benefits people and crops

vii The importance of institution in traditional views

viii The spread of crops in Europe, Asia and other places

ix The best way to use aid

x Confusions and exceptions

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14. Paragraph A

15. Paragraph B

16. Paragraph C

17. Paragraph D

18. Paragraph E

19. Paragraph F

20. Paragraph G

Questions 21-26
Complete the summary below,

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 21-26 on your answer sheet.

Dr William Masters read a book saying that a(an) 21_____________which


struck an American city hundreds of years ago was terminated by a cold frost.
And academics found that there is a connection between climate and
country’s wealth as in the rich but small country of 22_____________. Yet
besides excellent surroundings and climate, one country still needs to
improve their 23_____________to achieve long prosperity.

Thanks to resembling weather conditions across latitude in the continent


of 24_____________, crops such as 25_____________is bound to spread
faster than from South America to the North. Other researchers also noted
that even though geographical factors are important, tropical country such
as 26_____________still became rich due to scientific advancement.

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READING PASSAGE 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based on Reading
Passage 3 below.

Musical Maladies
Norman M. Weinberger reviews the latest work of Oliver Sacks on music.

Music and the brain are both endlessly fascinating subjects, and as a neuroscientist
specialis-ing in auditory learning and memory, I find them especially intriguing. So I had high
expecta-tions of Musicophilia, the latest offering from neurologist and prolific author Oliver
Sacks. And I confess to feeling a little guilty reporting that my reactions to the book are
mixed.

Sacks himself is the best part of Musicophilia. He richly documents his own life in the book
and reveals highly personal experiences. The photograph of him on the cover of the book—
which shows him wearing headphones, eyes closed, clearly enchanted as he listens to
Alfred Brendel perform Beethoven’s Pathétique Sonata—makes a positive impression that is
borne out by the contents of the book. Sacks’s voice throughout is steady and erudite but
never pon-tifical. He is neither self-conscious nor self-promoting.

The preface gives a good idea of what the book will deliver. In it Sacks explains that he
wants to convey the insights gleaned from the “enormous and rapidly growing body of work
on the neural underpinnings of musical perception and imagery, and the complex and often
bizarre disorders to which these are prone ” He also stresses the importance of “the simple
art of observation” and “the richness of the human context.” He wants to combine
“observation and description with the latest in technology,” he says, and to imaginatively
enter into the expe-rience of his patients and subjects. The reader can see that Sacks, who
has been practicing neurology for 40 years, is torn between the "old-fashioned” path of
observation and the new-fangled, high-tech approach: He knows that he needs to take heed
of the latter, but his heart lies with the former.

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The book consists mainly of detailed descriptions of cases, most of them involving patients
whom Sacks has seen in his practice. Brief discussions of contemporary neuroscientific
reports are sprinkled liberally throughout the text. Part I, “Haunted by Music,” begins with
the strange case of Tony Cicoria, a nonmusical, middle-aged surgeon who was consumed by
a love of music after being hit by lightning. He suddenly began to crave listening to piano
music, which he had never cared for in the past. He started to play the piano and then to
compose music, which arose spontaneously in his mind in a “torrent” of notes. How could
this happen? Was the cause psychological? (He had had a near-death experience when the
lightning struck him.) Or was it the direct result of a change in the auditory regions of his
cerebral cortex? Electro-encephalography (EEG) showed his brain waves to be normal in the
mid-1990s, just after his trauma and subsequent "conversion” to music. There are now
more sensitive tests, but Cicoria has declined to undergo them; he does not want to delve
into the causes of his musicality. What a shame!

Part II, “A Range of Musicality,” covers a wider variety of topics, but unfortunately, some of
the chapters offer little or nothing that is new. For example, chapter 13, which is five
pages long, merely notes that the blind often have better hearing than the sighted. The
most interest-ing chapters are those that present the strangest cases. Chapter 8 is about
“amusia,” an inabil-ity to hear sounds as music, and “dysharmonia,” a highly specific
impairment of the ability to hear harmony, with the ability to understand melody left intact.
Such specific “dissociations” are found throughout the cases Sacks recounts.

To Sacks’s credit, part III, “Memory, Movement and Music,” brings us into the underappreci-
ated realm of music therapy. Chapter 16 explains how “melodic intonation therapy” is being
used to help expressive aphasie patients (those unable to express their thoughts verbally
fol-lowing a stroke or other cerebral incident) once again become capable of fluent speech.
In chapter 20, Sacks demonstrates the near-miraculous power of music to animate
Parkinson’s patients and other people with severe movement disorders, even those who are
frozen into odd postures. Scientists cannot yet explain how music achieves this effect.

To readers who are unfamiliar with neuroscience and music behavior, Musicophilia may be
something of a revelation. But the book will not satisfy those seeking the causes and
implica-tions of the phenomena Sacks describes. For one thing, Sacks appears to be more at
ease dis-cussing patients than discussing experiments. And he tends to be rather uncritical
in accepting scientific findings and theories.

It’s true that the causes of music-brain oddities remain poorly understood. However, Sacks
could have done more to draw out some of the implications of the careful observations
that he and other neurologists have made and of the treatments that have been successful.
For example, he might have noted that the many specific dissociations among components
of music comprehension, such as loss of the ability to perceive harmony but not melody,
indicate that there is no music center in the brain. Because many people who read the book

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are likely to believe in the brain localisation of all mental functions, this was a missed
educational oppor-tunity.

Another conclusion one could draw is that there seem to be no "cures” for neurological
prob-lems involving music. A drug can alleviate a symptom in one patient and aggravate it in
another, or can have both positive and negative effects in the same patient. Treatments
men-tioned seem to be almost exclusively antiepileptic medications, which “damp down”
the excit-ability of the brain in general; their effectiveness varies widely.

Finally, in many of the cases described here the patient with music-brain symptoms is
reported to have “normal” EEG results. Although Sacks recognises the existence of new
tech-nologies, among them far more sensitive ways to analyze brain waves than the
standard neu-rological EEG test, he does not call for their use. In fact, although he exhibits
the greatest com-passion for patients, he conveys no sense of urgency about the pursuit of
new avenues in the diagnosis and treatment of music-brain disorders. This absence echoes
the hook’s preface, in which Sacks expresses fear that “the simple art of observation may be
lost” if we rely too much on new technologies. He does call for both approaches, though,
and we can only hope that the neuro logical community will respond.

SECTION 3: QUESTIONS 27-40


Questions 27-30
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write the correct letter in boxes 27-30 on your answer sheet.

27. Why does the writer have a mixed feeling about the book?

a. The guilty feeling made him so.


b. The writer expected it to be better than it was.
c. Sacks failed to include his personal stories in the book.
d. This is the only book written by Sacks.

28. What is the best part of the book?

a. the photo of Sacks listening to music


b. the tone of voice of the book
c. the autobiographical description in the book
d. the description of Sacks’s wealth

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29. In the preface, what did Sacks try to achieve?

a. make terms with the new technologies


b. give detailed description of various musical disorders
c. explain how people understand music
d. explain why he needs to do away with simple observation

30. What is disappointing about Tony Cicoria’s case?

a. He refuses to have further tests.


b. He can’t determine the cause of his sudden musicality.
c. He nearly died because of the lightening.
d. His brain waves were too normal to show anything.

Questions 31-36
Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer in Reading Passage 3?

In boxes 31-36 on your answer sheet, write

YES if the statement agrees with the views of the writer

NO if the statement contradicts the views of the writer

NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

31. It is difficult to give a well-reputable writer a less than favorable review.

32. Beethoven’s Pathétique Sonata is a good treatment for musical disorders.

33. Sacks believes technological methods is not important compared with observation when
studying his patients.

34. It is difficult to understand why music therapy is undervalued.

35. Sacks should have more skepticism about other theories and findings.

36. Sacks is impatient to use new testing methods.

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Questions 37-40
Complete each sentence with the correct ending, A-F, below.

Write the correct letter, A-F, in boxes 37-40 on your answer sheet.

37. The dissociations between harmony and melody

38. The study of treating musical disorders

39. The EEG scans of Sacks’s patients

40. Sacks believes testing based on new technologie

A show no music-brain disorders.

B indicates that medication can have varied results.

C is key for the neurological community to unravel the mysteries.

D should not be used in isolation.

E indicate that not everyone can receive good education.

F show that music is not localised in the brain.

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TEST 17

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LISTENING
SECTION 1 : QUESTIONS 1-10
Questions 1-3
Complete the notes below.

Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Complaint to the airport

Example Answer

Name: Jack Dawson

Address: 1____________Road, Exeter

Postcode: 2____________

Telephone: work: 3____________home: 798662

Questions 4-6
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

4. What aspect of the flight does the man complain about?

a. punctuality
b. legroom
c. temperature

5. What does the man think about the food served during the flight?

a. It is not enough to eat.


b. It is expensive.
c. It has a bad taste.

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6. What does the man think of the service of the staff?

a. satisfied
b. long wait
c. bad attitude

Questions 7-10
Complete the sentences below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

The man felt satisfied with 7_________because it was quick.

During the flight,8_________facilities helped him distract from other poor quality of the
service.

As a gift, a 20% discount on the 9_________fees will be offered.

The flight company also offers the man a 10_________worth £20.

SECTION 2 : QUESTIONS 11-20


Questions 11-16
What is customers’ attitude towards the following services?

Write the correct letter, A, B or C, next to questions 11-16.

A They are very interested.

B They might be less interested.

C They are not interested.

11. a free gift

12. a driver for an extra fee

13. a package service

14. updated car models

15. a discount

16. a new branch company

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Questions 17-20
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

17. What is the problem of the public transport?

a. Traffic jams
b. Pedestrian safety
c. Low efficiency

18. According to the speaker, what is true about the transportation?

a. Buses are easy to find.


b. Taxis are punctual.
c. Airplanes are unaffordable.

19. According to the speaker, what is true about the bus?

a. Passengers occasionally spend more than half an hour waiting for it.
b. It is sometimes overcrowded.
c. It is often dirty.

20. What is the existing situation about the price of bus tickets?

a. It is fluctuating severely.
b. It is declining.
c. It needs to be increased.

SECTION 3 : QUESTIONS 21-30


Questions 21-25
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

21. What was the most difficult problem when the company was founded?

a. No clear objectives
b. No formal structures
c. No perfect premises

22. What is the staff unsatisfied with?

a. The type of work


b. The work assignment
c. The feeling of appreciation

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23. What was the problem of the manager?

a. He had a lot of tasks to do.


b. He employed too many people and let them go then.
c. He always made decisions by himself.

24. What does the staff think of the new manager of the company?

a. They are delighted to see that the meeting time is shorter.


b. They feel annoyed toward him.
c. They are amazed that he has done it well.

25. What achievement has the organisation made already?

a. Children were involved in painting the entrance area.


b. There was no particular achievement.
c. It built a local primary school.

Questions 26-30
Complete the summary below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Major Problems of a Company


Since the company opened, there have been many problems with employment, but
there is no 26_________He needs to find a venue for financial training. It is very hard
to run an organisation and the 27_________is of great importance to staying
organised. To enhance the organisation skills, there is a section on 28_________in the
library where some valuable books can be found. In addition, the library contains some
useful resources, such as a collection of documentaries on personal organisation, the
literature on 29_________and the articles on the 30_________

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SECTION 4 : QUESTIONS 31-40


Questions 31-40
Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

CLIMATE AND ARCHITECTURE


• Cases and examples are from practice conducted in 31_________as well as rural
areas.

Acid rain

• The chemicals have devastating effects on the architecture.

• The government try to reduce the negative effects.

• Funds have been received from a 32_________

• 33_________experience lower levels of acid in damaging pollutants.

• In recent years, Alter Project focuses on the buildings made of 34_________

Pollution

• One of the main sources of pollution is from the construction industry.

• 35_________is used to reduce pollution in Sky Tower.

• Construction is affected by the increased 36_________in winter.

• Humidity affects the 37_________buildings whose grain can be condensed by


moisture from the air.

Building & Technology

• Ground conditions can be a problem when the density of the 38_________is


wrong.

• Architects can now monitor the 39_________of buildings.

• The government should make 40_________for the architects.

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READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on Reading Passage
1 on the following pages.

Morse Code
Morse code is being replaced by a new satellite-based system for sending dis-tress calls at
sea. Its dots and dashes have had a good run for their money.

A "Calling all. This is our last cry before our eternal silence.” Surprisingly this message, which
flashed over the airwaves in the dots and dashes of Morse code on January 31st 1997, was
not a desperate transmission by a radio operator on a sinking ship. Rather, it was a message
signal-ling the end of the use of Morse code for distress calls in French waters. Since 1992
countries around the world have been decommissioning their Morse equipment with similar
(if less poetic) sign-offs, as the world's shipping switches over to a new satellite-based
arrangement, the Global Maritime Distress and Safety System. The final deadline for the
switch-over to GMDSS is February 1st, a date that is widely seen as the end of art era.

B The code has, however, had a good history. Appropriately for a technology commonly
associ-ated with radio operators on sinking ships, the idea of Morse code is said to have
occurred to Samuel Morse while he was on board a ship crossing the Atlantic, At the time
Morse Was a painter and occasional inventor, but when another of the ships passengers
informed him of recent advances in electrical theory, Morse was suddenly taken with the
idea of building an electric telegraph to send messages in codes. Other inventors had been
trying to do just that for the best part of a century. Morse succeeded and is now
remembered as "the father of the tele-graph" partly thanks to his single-mindedness—it
was 12 years, for example, before he secured money from Congress to build his first
telegraph line—but also for technical reasons.

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C Compared with rival electric telegraph designs, such as the needle telegraph developed by
William Cooke and Charles Wheatstone in Britain, Morses design was very simple: it
required little more than a "key” (essentially, a spring-loaded switch) to send messages, a
clicking “sounder" to receive them, and a wire to link the two. But although Morses
hardware was simple, there was a catch: in order to use his equipment, operators had to
learn the special code of dots and dashes that still bears his name. Originally, Morse had not
intended to use combinations of dots and dashes to represent individual letters. His first
code, sketched in his notebook during that transatlantic voyage, used dots and dashes to
represent the digits 0 to 9. Morses idea was that messages would consist of strings of
numbers corresponding to words and phrases in a special numbered dictionary. But Morse
later abandoned this scheme and, with the help of an associate, Alfred Vail, devised the
Morse alphabet, which could be used to spell out messages a letter at a time in dots and
dashes.

D At first, the need to learn this complicated-looking code made Morses telegraph seem
impossibly tricky compared with other, more user-friendly designs, Cookes and
Wheatstones telegraph, for example, used five needles to pick out letters on a diamond-
shaped grid. But although this meant that anyone could use it, it also required five wires
between telegraph stations. Morses telegraph needed only one. And some people, it soon
transpired, had a natural facility for Morse code.

E As electric telegraphy took off in the early 1850s, the Morse telegraph quickly became
domi-nant. It was adopted as the European standard in 1851, allowing direct connections
between the telegraph networks of different countries. (Britain chose not to participate,
sticking with needle telegraphs for a few more years.) By this time Morse code had been
revised to allow for accents and other foreign characters, resulting in a split between
American and International Morse that continues to this day.

F On international submarine cables, left and right swings of a light-beam reflected from a
tiny rotating mirror were used to represent dots and dashes. Meanwhile a distinct
telegraphic sub-culture was emerging, with its own customs and vocabulary, and a hierarchy
based on the speed at which operators could send and receive Morse code. First-class
operators, who could send and receive at speeds of up to 45 words a minute, handled press
traffic, securing the best-paid jobs in big cities. At the bottom of the pile were slow,
inexperienced rural operators, many of whom worked the wires as part-timers. As their
Morse code improved, however, rural opera-tors found that their new-found skill was a
passport to better pay in a city job. Telegraphers soon, swelled the ranks of the emerging
middle classes. Telegraphy was also deemed suitable work for women. By 1870, a third of
the operators in the Western Union office in New York, the largest telegraph office in
America, were female.

G In a dramatic ceremony in 1871, Morse himself said goodbye to the global community of
telegraphers he had brought into being. After a lavish banquet and many adulatory

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speeches, Morse sat down behind an operators table and, placing his finger on a key
connected to every telegraph wire in America, tapped out his final farewell to a standing
ovation. By the time of his death in 1872, the world was well and truly wired: more than
650,000 miles of telegraph line and 30,000 miles of submarine cable were throbbing with
Morse code; and 20,000 towns and villages were connected to the global network. Just as
the Internet is today often called an "information superhighway”, the telegraph was
described in its day as an “instantaneous highway of thought",

H But by the 1890s the Morse telegraph's heyday as a cutting-edge technology was coming
to an end, with the invention of the telephone and the rise of automatic telegraphs,
precursors of the teleprinter, neither of which required specialist skills to operate. Morse
code, however, was about to be given a new lease of life thanks to another new technology:
wireless. Following the invention of radiotelegraphy by Guglielmo Marconi in 1896, its
potential for use at sea quickly became apparent. For the first time, ships could
communicate with each other, and with the shore, whatever the weather and even when
out of visual range. In 1897 Marconi successfully sent Morse code messages between a
shore station and an Italian warship 19km (12 miles) away. By 1910, Morse radio equipment
was commonplace on ships.

SECTION 1: QUESTIONS 1-13


Questions 1-8
Reading passage 1 has eight paragraphs, A-H.

Choose the correct heading for paragraphs A-H from the list of headings below. Write the
correct number, i-xi, in boxes 1-8 on your answer sheet.

List of Headings

i The advantage of Morse’s invention

ii A suitable job for women

iii Morse’s invention was developed

iv Sea rescue after the invention of radiotelegraphy

v The emergence of many job opportunities

vi Standard and variations

vii Application of Morse code in a new technology

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viii The discovery of electricity

ix International expansion of Morse Code

x The beginning of an end

xi The move of using code to convey information

1. Paragraph A

2. Paragraph B

3. Paragraph C

4. Paragraph D

5. Paragraph E

6. Paragraph F

7. Paragraph G

8. Paragraph H

Questions 9-13
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1?

In boxes 9-13 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

9. Morse had already been famous as an inventor before his invention of Morse code.

10. Morse waited a long time before receiving support from the Congress.

11. Morse code is difficult to learn compared with other designs.

12. Companies and firms prefer to employ telegraphy operators from rural areas.

13. Morse died from overwork.

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READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based on Reading
Passage 2 below.

From A Novice to An Expert


Expertise is commitment coupled with creativity. Specifically, it is the commitment of time,
energy, and resources to a relatively narrow field of study and the creative energy necessary
to generate new knowledge in that field. It takes a considerable amount of time and regular
exposure to a large number of cases to become an expert.

An individual enters a field of study as a novice. The novice needs to learn the guiding prin-
ciples and rules of a given task in order lo perform that task. Concurrently, the novice needs
to he exposed fo specific cases, or instances, that lest the boundaries of such principles.
Gen-erally, a novice will find a mentor to guide her through the process of acquiring new
knowl-edge. A fairly simple example would he someone learning lo play chess. The novice
chess player seeks a mentor to leach her the object of the game, the number of spaces, the
names of the pieces, the function of each piece, how each piece is moved, and the
necessary condi-tions for winning, or losing the game.

In lime, and with much practice, the novice begins to recognise patterns of behavior within
cases and, thus, becomes a journeyman. With more practice and exposure to
increasingly complex cases, The journeyman finds patterns not only within cases but also
between cases. More importantly, the journeyman learns that these patterns often repeat
themselves over time. The journeyman still maintains regular contact with a mentor to solve
specific prob-lems and learn more complex strategies. Returning to the example of the
chess player, the individual begins to learn patterns of opening moves, offensive and
defensive game-playing, strategies, and patterns of victory and defeat.

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When a journeyman starts to make and test hypotheses about future behavior based on
past experiences, she begins the next transition. Once she creatively generates knowledge,
rather than simply matching, superficial patterns, she becomes an expert. At this point, she
is confi-dent in her knowledge and no longer needs a mentor as a guide she becomes
responsible for her own knowledge. In the chess example, once a journeyman begins
competing against experts, makes predictions based on patterns, and tests those
predictions against actual behavior, she is generating new knowledge and a deeper
understanding of the game. She is creating her own case, rather than relying on the cases of
others.

The Power of Expertise

An expert perceives meaningful patterns in her domain better than non-experts. Where a
novice perceives random or disconnected data points, an expert connects regular patterns
within and between cases. This ability to identify patterns is not an innate perceptual skill;
rather it reflects the organisation of knowledge after exposure to and experience with thou-
sands of cases.

Experts have a deeper understanding of their domains than novices do, and utilise higher-
order principles to solve- problems. A novice, for example, might group objects together by
color or size, whereas an expert would group the same objects according to their function
or utility. Experts comprehend the meaning of data and weigh variables with different
criteria within their domains belter than novices. Experts recognise variables that have the
largest influence on a particular problem and focus their attention on those variables.

Experts have better domain-specific short-term and long-term memory than novices do.
Moreover, experts perform tasks in their domains faster than novices and commit
fewer errors while problem solving. Interestingly, experts go about solving problems
differently than novices. Experts spend more time thinking, about a problem to fully
understand it at the beginning of a task than do novices, who immediately seek to find a
solution, Experts use their knowledge of previous cases as context tor creating mental
models to solve given problems.

Better at self-monitoring than novices, experts are more aware of instances where they
have committed errors or failed to understand a problem. Experts check their solution
more often than novices and recognise when they are missing, information necessary for
solving a problem. Experts are aware of the limits of their domain knowledge and apply
their domain's heuristics to solve problems that fall outside of their experience base.

The Paradox of Expertise

The strengths of expertise can also be weaknesses. Although one would expect experts to
be good forecasters, they are not particularly good at making predictions about the
future. Since the 1930s, researchers have been testing, the ability of experts to make

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forecasts. The performance of experts has been tested against actuarial tables to determine
if they are better at making predictions than simple statistical models. Seventy years later,
with more than two hundred experiments in different domains, it is clear that the answer is
no. If sup-plied with an equal amount of data about a particular case, an actuarial table is as
good, or better, than an expert at making, calls about the future. Even if an expert is given
more spe-cific case information than is available to the statistical model, the expert does not
tend to outperform the actuarial table.

Theorists and researchers differ when trying, to explain why experts are less accurate fore-
casters than statistical models. Some have argued that experts, like all humans, are inconsis-
tent when using mental models to make predictions. That is, the model an expert uses for
predicting X in one month is different from the model used for predicting X in a
following, month, although precisely the same case and same data set are used in both
instances.

A number of researchers point to human biases to explain unreliable expert predictions.


During, the last 30 years, researchers have categorised, experimented, and theorised
about the cognitive aspects of forecasting. Despite such efforts, the literature shows little
consen-sus regarding the causes or manifestations of human bias.

SECTION 2: QUESTIONS 14-26


Questions 14-18
Complete the flow-chart below.

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer. Write your
answers in boxes 14-18 on your answer sheet.

Novice: needs 14_______and to perform a given task; exposed to specific


cases; guided by a 15_______through learning

Journeyman: starts to identify 16_______within and between cases; often exposed


to 17_______cases; contacts a mentor when facing difficult problems

Expert: creates predictions and new 18_______; performs task independently


without the help of a mentor

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Questions 19-23
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 2?

In boxes 19-23 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

19. Novices and experts use the same system to classify objects.

20. A novice’s training is focused on memory skills.

21. Experts have higher efficiency than novices when solving problems in their own field.

22. When facing a problem, a novices always tries to solve it straight away.

23. Experts are better at recognising their own mistakes and limits.

Questions 24-26
Complete the summary below.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 24-26 on your answer sheet.

Though experts are quite effective at solving problems in their own domains, their
strengths can also be turned against them. Studies have shown that experts are
less 24_______at making predictions than statistical models. Some researchers
theorise it is because experts can also be inconsistent like all others. Yet some
believe it is due to 25_______, but there isn’t a great deal of 26_______as to its
cause and manifestation.

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READING PASSAGE 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based on Reading
Passage 3 below.

High speed photography


A Photography gained the interest of many scientists and artists from its inception.
Scientists have used photography to record and study movements, such as Eadweard
Muybridge’s study of human and animal locomotion in 1887. Artists are equally interested
by these aspects but also try to explore avenues other than the photo-mechanical
representation of reality, such as the pictorialist movement. Military, police, and security
forces use photography for surveil-lance, recognition and data storage. Photography is used
by amateurs to preserve memories, to capture special moments, to tell stories, to send
messages, and as a source of entertainment. Various technological improvements and
techniques have even allowed for visualising events that are too fast or too slow for the
human eye.

B One of such techniques is called fast motion or professionally known as time-lapse. Time-
lapse photography is the perfect technique for capturing events and movements in the
natural world that occur over a timescale too slow for human perception to follow. The life
cycle of a mushroom, for example, is incredibly subtle to the human eye. To present its
growth in front of audiences, the principle applied is a simple one: a series of photographs
are taken and used in sequence to make a moving-image film, but since each frame is taken
with a lapse at a time interval between each shot, when played back at normal speed, a
continuous action is produced and it appears to speed up. Put simply: we are shrinking time.
Objects and events that: would normally take several minutes, days or even months can be
viewed to completion in seconds having been sped up by factors of tens to millions.

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C Another commonly used technique is high-speed photography, the science of taking


pictures of very fast phenomena. High-speed photography can be considered to be the
opposite of time-lapse photography. One of the many applications is found in biology
studies to study birds, bats and even spider silk. Imagine a hummingbird hovering almost
completely still in the air, feeding on nectar. With every flap, its wings bend, flex and change
shape. These subtle movements precisely control the lift its wings generate, making it an
excellent hoverer. But a hummingbird flaps its wings up to 80 times every second. The only
way to truly capture this motion is with cameras that will, in effect, slow down time. To do
this, a greater length of film is taken at a high sampling frequency or frame rate, which is
much faster than it will be projected on screen. When replayed at normal speed, time
appears to be slowed down proportionately. That is why high-speed cameras have become
such a mainstay of biology.

D In common usage, high-speed photography can also refer to the use of high-speed
cameras that the photograph itself may be taken in a way as to appear to freeze the motion,
especially to reduce motion blur. It requires a sensor with good sensitivity and either a very
good shut-tering system or a very fast strobe light. The recent National Geographic
footage—captured last summer during an intensive three-day shoot at the Cincinnati Zoo—
is unprecedented in its clarity and detail. “I’ve watched cheetahs run for 30 years,” said
Cathryn Milker, founder of the zoo’s Cat Ambassador Program. “But I saw things in that
super slow-motion video that I’ve never seen before.” The slow-motion video is entrancing.
Every part of the sprinting cat’s anatomy—supple limbs, rippling muscles, hyperflexible
spine—works together in a sym-phony of speed, revealing the fluid grace of the world’s
fastest land animal.

E But things can’t get any more complicated in the case of filming a frog catching its prey.
Frogs can snatch up prey in a few thousandths of a second—striking out with elastic
tongues. Biologists would love to see how a frog’s tongue roll out, adhere to prey, and roll
back into the frog’s mouth. But this all happened too fast, 50 times faster than an eye blink.
So natu-rally people thought of using high-speed camera to capture this fantastic movement
in slow motion. Yet one problem still remains—viewers would be bored if they watch the
frog swim in slow motion for too long. So how to skip this? The solution is a simple one—
adjust the playback speed, which is also called by some the film speed adjustment. The film
will origi-nally be shot at a high frame (often 300 frames per second, because it can be
converted to much lower frame rates without major issues), but at later editing stage this
high frame rate will only be preserved for the prey catching part, while the swimming part
will be converted to the normal speed at 24 frames per second. Voila, the scientists can now
sit back and enjoy watching without having to go through the pain of waiting.

F Sometimes taking a good picture or shooting a good film is not all about technology, but
patience, like in the case of bat. Bats are small, dark-colored; they fly fast and are active
only at night. To capture bats on film, one must use some type of camera-tripping device.

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Photog-raphers or film-makers often place camera near the bat cave, on the path of the
flying bats. The camera must be hard-wired with a tripping device so that every time a bat
breaks the tripping beam the camera fires and it will keep doing so through the night until
the camera’s battery runs out. Though highly-advanced tripping device can now allow for
unmanned shooting, it still may take several nights to get a truly high quality film.

G Is it science? Is it art? Since the technique was first pioneered around two hundred years
ago, photography has developed to a state where it is almost unrecognisable. Some people
would even say the future of photography will be nothing like how we imagine it. No matter
what future it may hold, photography will continue to develop as it has been repeatedly
demon-strated in many aspects of our life that “a picture is worth a thousand words.”

SECTION 3: QUESTIONS 27-40


Questions 27-30
Look at the following organisms (Questions 27-30) and the list of features below. Match
each organism with the correct feature, A-D.

Write the correct letter, A-D, in boxes 27-30 on your answer sheet.

27. Mushroom

28. Hummingbird

29. Frog

30. Bat

A too fast to be perceived

B film at the place where the animal will pass

C too slow to be visible to human eyes

D adjust the filming speed to make it interesting

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Questions 31-35
Complete the summary below.

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 31-35 on your answer sheet.

Fast motion (professionally known as time-lapse photography) and slow


motion (or high-speed photography) are two commonest techniques of
photography. To present before audiences something that occurs naturally
slow, photographers take each picture at a 31___________before another
picture. When these pictures are finally shown on screen in sequence at a
normal motion picture rate, audiences see a 32___________that is faster
than what it naturally is. This technique can make audiences feel as
if 33___________is shrunk. On the other hand, to demonstrate how fast
things move, the movement is exposed on a 34___________of film, and then
projected on screen at normal playback speed. This makes viewers feel time
is 35___________

Questions 36-40
Reading Passage 3 has seven paragraphs, A-G.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the correct letter, A-G, in boxes 36-40 on your answer sheet.

36. a description of photography’s application in various fields

37. a reference to why high-speed photography has a significant role in biology

38. a traditional wisdom that assures readers of the prospects of photography

39. a reference to how film is processed before final release

40. a description of filming shooting without human effort

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TEST 18

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SECTION 1 : QUESTIONS 1-10


Questions 1-10
Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

HOUSE RENTAL

Example Answer

• Name: Mary Collins

• Factility available: 1______________

upstairs: living room


• General layout:
bedrooms downstairs: 2______________

• Car park: availability of a large 3______________

• Shopping: at the 4______________

• Place for children


5______________
playing:

• Education resources: a (6)______________in the community

$980 a month
• Rent:
(including the maintenance lees of the 7______________)

• Date of house available: 8______________

• Viewing arrangement
meet at 9______________
(time):

• Postcode: GA58ER

• Address: 8 (10)______________

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SECTION 2 : QUESTIONS 11-20


Questions 11-15
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

11. What’s the new improvement about the zoo this time?

a. The zoo has built a new dog-walking area.


b. The zoo has brought a new batch of animals
c. The zoo has expanded its exhibition area.

12. What is the change for the new regulation enacted in June?

a. The zoo is not open during the weekdays.


b. Visitors are allowed to feed the animals at night
c. Visitors are allowed to see the animals until the late night.

13. While visiting the kangaroo, which behaviour is forbidden?

a. Photo-taking
b. Shouting
c. Feeding

14. Why is the pye-dog zone temporarily closed?

a. Because the fence is broken


b. Because the pye-dogs are in hibernation
c. Because the pye-dog zone is under construction.

15. Where can the visitors buy the discounted ticket?

a. Gift shop
b. Photo shop
c. Reception desk

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Questions 16-20
Label the map below.

Write the correct letter, A-H, next to questions 16-20.

16. Bird hide

17. Pye-dog zone

18. Rest area

19. Kangaroo visiting site

20. Photo shop

SECTION 3 : QUESTIONS 21-30


Questions 21-24
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

21. The course has improved the environment since

a. it was regulated by law.


b. more students were involved.
c. more species were brought from other places.

22. What is the biggest reason why the organisation improved greatly?

a. It was funded by a private investor


b. It sold out its shares.
c. It got the governmental fund in the first year.

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23. What is suggested from the reports?

a. Resources still need management.


b. Teachers and the students have benefitted from the field trips.
c. The environment has been terribly damaged.

24. Who did obtain the special experience from the field trip carried out by the
organisation?

a. students
b. teachers
c. researchers

Questions 25-26
Choose TWO letters, A-E.

What TWO problems does the report focus on?

a. air pollution
b. soil erosion
c. overgrazing
d. forest exploitation
e. water pollution

Questions 27-28
Choose TWO letters, A-E.

Which TWO benefits of this activity to the students are mentioned by the professor?

a. They become more punctual.


b. They feel more confident.
c. They get practical experience.
d. They learn how to collect data.
e. They know the importance of environment protection.

Questions 29-30
Choose TWO letters, A-E.

What TWO things will the woman do in the rest of the time when no activities are going on?

a. read more reference books d. participate in one of fun hobbies


b. study in library e. join in some tutorials
c. interview some teachers

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SECTION 4 : QUESTIONS 31-40


Questions 31-40
Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

ROBERTS COMPANY
Founding

• The most important principal of the company is to improve the 31___________


development of camera technology.

Aim

• It was founded by Dwayne Roberts in 1957 and mainly explore 32___________

Potential applications

• recording high-definition video

• discovering 33___________

• searching plants in the rainforest to experiment 34___________

• distributing more across the road network to control 35___________

At present

• 36___________are the best sellers in the company.

• They are designed to look like 37___________

• The company is working on a tiny 38___________to change the way people see
photography.

Other applications

• Surgeries could be faster and more 39___________

Internship opportunity

• To get it, the students can participate in the 40___________organised by the


company every year.

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READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on Reading Passage
1 below.

Thomas Young The Last True Know-It-All


Thomas Young (1773-1829) contributed 63 articles to the Encyclopedia Britannica, including
46 biographical entries (mostly on scientists and classicists) and substantial essays on
"Bridge," "Chromatics," "Egypt," "Languages" and "Tides". Was someone who could write
authorita-tively about so many subjects a polymath, a genius or a dilettante? In an
ambitious new biog-raphy, Andrew Robinson argues that Young is a good contender for the
epitaph "the last man who knew everything." Young has competition, however: The phrase,
which Robinson takes for his title, also serves as the subtitle of two other recent
biographies: Leonard Warren's 1998 life of paleontologist Joseph Leidy (1823-1891) and
Paula Findlen's 2004 book on Athanasius Kircher (1602-1680), another polymath.

Young, of course, did more than write encyclopedia entries. He presented his first paper to
the Royal Society of London at the age of 20 and was elected a Fellow a week after his 21st
birthday. In the paper, Young explained the process of accommodation in the human eye —
on how the eye focuses properly on objects at varying distances. Young hypothesised that
this was achieved by changes in the shape of the lens. Young also theorised that light
traveled in waves and ho believed that, to account for the ability to see in color, there must
be three receptors in the eye corresponding to the three "principal colors" to which the
retina could respond: red, green, violet. All these hypotheses Were subsequently proved to
be correct.

Later in his life, when he was in his forties, Young was instrumental in cracking the code that
unlocked the unknown script on the Rosetta Stone, a tablet that was "found" in Egypt by the

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Napoleonic army in 1799. The stone contains text in three alphabets: Greek,
something unrecognisable and Egyptian hieroglyphs. The unrecognisable script is now
known as demotic and, as Young deduced, is related directly to hieroglyphic. His initial work
on this appeared in his Britannica entry on Egypt. In another entry, he coined the term Indo-
European to describe the family of languages spoken throughout most of Europe and
northern India. These are the landmark achievements of a man who was a child prodigy and
who, unlike many remarkable children, did not disappear into oblivion as an adult.

Bom in 1773 in Somerset in England, Young lived from an early age with his maternal
grandfather, eventually leaving to attend boarding school. He had devoured books from the
age of two, and through his own initiative he excelled at Latin, Greek, mathematics and
natural philosophy. After leaving school, he was greatly encouraged by his mother's uncle,
Richard Brock-lesby, a physician and Fellow of the Royal Society. Following Brocklesby's
lead, Young decided to pursue a career in medicine. He studied in London, following the
medical circuit, and then moved on to more formal education in Edinburgh, Gottingen and
Cambridge. After completing his medical training at the University of Cambridge in 1808,
Young set up practice as a physician in London. He soon became a Fellow of the Royal
College of Physicians and a few years later was appointed physician at St. George's Hospital.

Young's skill as a physician, however, did not equal his skill as a scholar of natural philosophy
or linguistics. Earlier, in 1801, he had been appointed to a professorship of natural
philosophy at the Royal Institution, where he delivered as many as 60 lectures in a year.
These were published in two volumes in 1807. In 1804 Young had become secretary to the
Royal Society, a post he would hold until his death. His opinions were sought on civic and
national matters, such as the introduction of gas lighting to London and methods of ship
construction. From 1819 he was superintendent of the Nautical Almanac and secretary to
the Board of Longitude. From 1824 to 1829 he was physician to and inspector of calculations
for the Palladian Insurance Company. Between 1816 and 1825 he contributed his many and
various entries to the Encyclopedia Britan-nica, and throughout his career he authored
numerous books, essays and papers.

Young is a perfect subject for a biography — perfect, but daunting. Few men contributed so
much to so many technical fields. Robinson's aim is to introduce non-scientists to Young's
work and life. He succeeds, providing clear expositions of the technical material (especially
that on optics and Egyptian hieroglyphs). Some readers of this book will, like Robinson, find
Young's accom-plishments impressive; others will see him as some historians have —as a
dilettante. Yet despite the rich material presented in this book, readers will not end up
knowing Young personally. We catch glimpses of a playful Young, doodling Greek and Latin
phrases in his notes on medical lectures and translating the verses that a young lady had
written on the walls of a summerhouse into Greek elegiacs. Young was introduced into elite
society, attended the theatre and learned to dance and play the flute. In addition, he was an

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accomplished horseman. However, his personal life looks pale next to his vibrant career and
studies.

Young married Eliza Maxwell in 1804, and according to Robinson, "their marriage was a
happy one and she appreciated his work," Almost all we know about her is that she
sustained her husband through some rancorous disputes about optics and that she worried
about money when his medical career was slow to take off. Very little evidence survives
about the complexities of Young's relationships with his mother and father. Robinson does
not credit them, or anyone else, with shaping Young's extraordinary mind. Despite the lack
of details concerning Young's rela-tionships, however, anyone interested in what it means to
be a genius should read this book.

SECTION 1: QUESTIONS 1-13


Questions 1-7
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1?

In boxes 1-7 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

1. The last man who knew everything’ has also been claimed to other people.

2. All Young’s articles were published in Encyclopedia Britannica.

3. Like others, Young wasn’t so brilliant when growing up.

4. Young’s talent as a doctor surpassed his other skills.

5. Young’s advice was sought by people responsible for local and national issues.

6. Young was interested in various social pastimes.

7. Young suffered from a disease in his later years.

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Questions 8-13
Answer the questions below.

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER from the passage for each
answer.

How many life stories did Young write for the Encyclopedia Britannica?

8____________________________________

What aspect of scientific research did Young focus on in his first academic paper?

9____________________________________

What name did Young introduce to refer to a group of languages?

10____________________________________

Who inspired Young to start his medical studies?

11____________________________________

Where did Young get a teaching position?

12____________________________________

What contribution did Young make to London?

13____________________________________

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READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based on Reading
Passage 2 below.

Antarctica - in from the cold?


A A little over a century ago, men of the ilk of Scott, Shackleton and Mawson battled against
Antarctica’s blizzards, cold and deprivation. In the name of Empire and in an age of
heroic deeds they created an image of Antarctica that was to last well into the 20th
century—an image of remoteness, hardship, bleakness and isolation that was the province
of only the most courageous of men. The image was one of a place removed from everyday
reality, of a place with no apparent value to anyone.

B As we enter the 21st century, our perception of Antarctica has changed. Although
physically Antarctica is no closer and probably no warmer, and to spend time there still
demands a dedication not seen in ordinary life, the continent and its surrounding ocean are
increasingly seen to be an integral part of Planet Earth, and a key component in the Earth
System. Is this because the world seems a little smaller these days, shrunk by TV and
tourism, or is it because Antarctica really does occupy a central spot on Earth’s mantle?
Scientific research during the past half century has revealed—and continues to reveal—that
Antarctica's great mass and low temperature exert a major influence on climate and ocean
circulation, factors which influence the lives of millions of people all over the globe.

C Antarctica was not always cold. The slow break-up of the super-continent Gondwana with
the northward movements of Africa, South America, India and Australia eventually created
enough space around Antarctica for the development of an Antarctic Circumpolar Current
(ACC), that flowed from west to east under the influence of the prevailing westerly winds.
Antarctica cooled, its vegetation perished, glaciation began and the continent took on its
present-day appearance. Today the ice that overlies the bedrock is up to 4km thick, and

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surface temperatures as low as -89.2deg C have been recorded. The icy blast that howls
over the ice cap and out to sea—the so-called katabatic wind—can reach 300 km/hr,
creating fearsome wind-chill effects,

D Out of this extreme environment come some powerful forces that reverberate around the
world. The Earth’s rotation, coupled to the generation of cells of low pressure off the
Antarctic coast, would allow Astronauts a view of Antarctica that is as beautiful as it is
awesome. Spinning away to the northeast, the cells grow and deepen, whipping up the
Southern Ocean into the mountainous seas so respected by mariners. Recent work is
showing that the temperature of the ocean may be a better predictor of rainfall in Australia
than is the pressure difference between Darwin and Tahiti—the Southern Oscillation Index.
By receiving more accurate predictions, graziers in northern Queensland are able to avoid
overstocking in years when rainfall will be poor. Not only does this limit their losses but it
prevents serious pasture degradation that may take decades to repair. CSIRO is developing
this as a prototype forecasting system, but we can confidently predict that as we know more
about the Antarctic and Southern Ocean we will be able to enhance and extend our
predictive ability.

E The ocean’s surface temperature results from the interplay between deep-water
temperature, air temperature and ice. Each winter between 4 and 19 million square km of
sea ice form, locking up huge quantities of heat close to the continent. Only now can we
start to unravel the influ-ence of sea ice on the weather that is experienced in southern
Australia. But in another way the extent of sea ice extends its influence far beyond
Antarctica. Antarctic krill—the small shrimp-like crustaceans that are the staple diet for
baleen whales, penguins, some seals, flighted sea birds and many fish—breed well in years
when sea ice is extensive and poorly when it is not. Many species of baleen whales and
flighted sea birds migrate between the hemispheres and when the krill are less abundant
they do not thrive.

F The circulatory system of the world’s oceans is like a huge conveyor belt, moving water
and dis-solved minerals and nutrients from one hemisphere to the other, and from the
ocean's abyssal depths to the surface. The ACC is the longest current in the world, and has
the largest flow. Through it, the deep flows of the Atlantic, Indian and Pacific Oceans are
joined to form part of a single global thermohaline circulation, During winter, the howling
katabatics sometimes scour the ice off patches of the sea's surface leaving large ice-locked
lagoons, or ’polynyas'. Recent research has shown that as fresh sea ice forms, it is
continuously stripped away by the wind and may be blown up to 90km in a single day. Since
only fresh water freezes into ice, the water that remains becomes increasingly salty and
dense, sinking until it spills over the continental shelf. Cold water carries more oxygen than
warm water, so when it rises, well into the northern hemi-sphere, it reoxygenates and
revitalises the ocean. The state of the northern oceans, and their biological productivity,
owe much to what happens in the Antarctic.

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SECTION 2: QUESTIONS 14-26


Questions 14-18
Reading Passage 2 has six paragraphs, A-F.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the correct letter, A-F, inboxes 14-18 on your answer sheet:

14. The example of a research on building weather prediction for agriculture

15. An explanation of how Antarctic sea ice brings back oceans’ vitality

16. The description of a food chain that influences animals’ living pattern

17. The reference of an extreme temperature and a cold wind in Antarctica

18. The reference of how Antarctica was once thought to be a forgotten and insig-nificant
continent

Questions 19-21
Match the natural phenomenon with the correct determined factor.

Write the correct letter, A-F, in boxes 19-21 on your answer sheet.

Globally, Antarctica’s massive size and 19____________would influence our climate.

20____________circulated under contributory force from wind blowing from the west.

The ocean temperature and index based on air pressure can help predict 21____________in
Australia.

A Antarctic Circumpolar Current (ACC)

B katabatic winds

C rainfall

D temperature

E glaciers

F pressure

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Questions 22-26
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write the correct letter in boxes 22-26 on your answer sheet.

22. In paragraph B, the author intends to

a. show Antarctica has been a central topic of global warming discussion in Mass
media.
b. illustrate how its huge sea ice brings food to millions of lives in the world.
c. emphasise the significance of Antarctica to the global climate and ocean currents.
d. illustrate the geographical location of Antarctica as the central spot on Earth.

23. Why should Australian farmers keep an eye on the Antarctic ocean temperature?

a. It can help farmers reduce their economic loss.


b. It allows for recovery of grassland lost to overgrazing.
c. It can help to prevent animals from dying
d. It enables astronauts to have a clear view of the Antarctic continent.

24. The decrease in the number of whales and seabirds is due to

a. killer whales’ activity around Antarctica.


b. the correlation between sea birds’ migration and the salinity level of the ocean.
c. the lower productivity of food source resulting from less sea ice.
d. the failure of seals to produce babies.

25. What is the final effect of the katabatic winds?

a. Increasing the moving speed of ocean current


b. Increasing the salt level near ocean surface
c. Bringing fresh ice into the oceans
d. Piling up the mountainous ice cap respected by mariners

26. What factor drives Antarctic water to move beyond the continental shelf?

a. A The increase of salt and density of the water


b. The decrease of salt and density of the water
c. The rising temperature due to global warming
d. The melting of fresh ice into the ocean

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READING PASSAGE 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based on Reading
Passage 3 below.

Source of Knowledge
A What counts as knowledge? What do we mean when we say that we know some-thing?
What is the status of different. kinds of knowledge? In order to explore those questions we
are going to focus on one particular area of knowledge medicine.

B How do you know when you are ill? This may seem to be an absurd question. You know
you are ill because you feel ill; your body tells you that you are ill. You may know that you
feel pain or discomfort Iml knowing you are ill is a bit. more complex. At times, people
experience the symptoms of illness, but in tact they are simply tired or over-worked or they
may just have a hangover. At other limes, people may be suffering from a disease and fail to
be aware of the illness until it has reached a late stage in its development. So how do we
know we are ill, and what counts as knowledge?

C Think about this example. You feel unwell. You have a bad cough and always seem to be
tired. Perhaps it could be stress at work, or maybe you should give up smoking. You tool
worse. You visit the doctor who listens to your chest and heart, take's your temperature and
blood pressure, and then finally prescribes antibiotics lor your cough.

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D Things do not improve but you struggle on thinking you should pull yourself together,
perhaps things will ease off at work soon. A return visit to your doctor shocks you. This time
the doctor, drawing on yours of training and experience, diagnoses pneumonia. This means
that you will need bed rest and a consider able time off work. The scenario is transformed.
Although you still have the same symptoms, you no longer think that these are caused by
pressure at work. You now have proof that you are ill. This is the result of the combination
of your own subjective experience and the diagnosis of someone who has the stains of a
medical expert. You have a medically authenticated diagnosis and it appears that you are
seriously ill; you know you are ill and have evidence upon which to base this knowledge.

E This scenario shows many different sources of knowledge. For example, you decide to
consult the doctor in the first place because you feel unwell - this is personal knowledge
about your own body. However, the doctor's expert diagno-sis is based on experience and
training, with sources of knowledge as diverse as other experts, laboratory reports, medical
textbooks and yours of experience.

F One source of knowledge is the experience of our own bodies; the personal knowledge we
have of change's that might be significant, as well as the subjec-tive experience of poin and
physical distress. These experiences are mediated by other forms of knowledge such as the
words we have available to describe our experience and the common sense of our families
and friends as well as that drown from popular culture. Over the post decade, for example,
Western culture has seen a significant emphasis on stress-related illness in the media. Refer-
ence to being ‘stressed end' has become a common response in daily exchanges in the
workplace and has become port of popular common-sense knowledge. It is thus not
surprising that we might seek such an explanation of physical symp-toms of discomfort.

G We might also rely on Ihe observations of others who know us. Comments from friends
and family such as ‘you do look ill' or 'that's a bad cough' might be another source of
knowledge. Complementary health practices, such as holistic medicine, produce their own
sets of knowledge upon which we might also draw in deciding the nature and degree of our
ill health and about possible treatments.

H Perhaps the most influential and authoritative source of knowledge is the medical
knowledge provided by the general practitioner. We expect he doctor to hove access to
expert knowledge. This is socially sanctioned. It would not be acceptable to notify our
employer Unit we simply felt too unwell to turn up for work or that our faith healer,
astrologer, therapist or even our priest thought it was not a good idea. We need on expert
medical diagnosis in order to obtain the necessary certificate it we need to be off work for
more than the statutory self-certificaion period. The knowledge of the medical sciences is
privileged in this respect in contemporary Western culture. Medical practitioners are
also seen as having the required expert knowledge that permits then legally to pre-scribe
drugs and treatment to which patients would not. otherwise have access. However there is

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a rauge of different knowledge upon which we draw when making decisions about our own
state of health.

I However, there is more than existing knowledge in this little story; new knowledge is
constructed within it.Given the doctor's medical training and background, she may
hypothrsie 'is this now pneumonia?' and then proceed to look for eevidence about it. She
will use observations and instruments to assess the evidence and-critically-interpret it in the
light of her training and new experience both for you and for the doctor. This will then be
added to the doctor's medical knowledge and may help in future diagnosis of pneumonia.

SECTION 3: QUESTIONS 27-40


Questions 27-34
Reading Passage 3 has nine paragraphs, A-I.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the correct letter, A-I, in boxes 27-34 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

27. the contrast between the nature of personal judgment and the nature of doctor ’s
diagnosis

28. a reference of culture about pressure

29. sick leave will not be permitted without professional diagnosis

30. how doctors’ opinions are regarded in the society

31. the illness of patients can become part of new knowledge

32. a description of knowledge drawn from non-specialised sources other than personal
knowledge

33. an example of collective judgment from personal experience and professional doctor

34. a reference that some people do not realise they are ill

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Questions 35-40
Complete the notes below.

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 35-40 on your answer sheet.

Source of
Examples
knowledge

Symptoms of a 35___________and tiredness

Personal Doctor's measurement by taking 36___________and


experience temperature

Common judgment from 37___________around you

Medical knowledge from the general 38___________

e.g. doctor’s medical 39___________


Scientific evidence
Examine the medical hypothesis with the previous drill
and 40___________

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TEST 19

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LISTENING
SECTION 1 : QUESTIONS 1-10
Questions 1-4
Answer the following questions using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A
NUMBER for each answer.

How many people are Cindy and Bob planning the picnic for?

1______________________________________________

On which date will the picnic be held?

2______________________________________________

What is the total budget for food and drink per person?

£ (3)______________________________________________

Which food does Bob specifically say is unsuitable?

4______________________________________________

Questions 5-8
Complete the following notes about the three catering companies Bob and Cindy discuss.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER.
Paris Kitchen
lack of variety of food

poor quality 5_______________

Company Caterers
expensive

6_______________discount for groups of 30 or more

Celebrations
new company

only 7_______________for picnics

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8_______________dishes

offers free samples

Questions 9-10
Answer the questions using ONE WORD OR A TELEPHONE NUMBER.

When will Bob and Cindy go to Celebrations?

9______________________________________________

What is Celebrations“ telephone number?

10______________________________________________

SECTION 2 : QUESTIONS 11-20


Questions 11-12
Complete the notes on the Citizens Advice Bureau using NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for
each gap.

11_________a solicitor

suggest where you can find free legal advice

inform you whether you can get 12_________to cover legal costs.

Questions 13-14
Complete the notes on the police using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each gap.

don't be aggressive

do not try to bribe police officers

ask plain-clothes police officers for 13_________

give your true name and address if asked

do not sign anything without a solicitor's 14_________

you can make one telephone call

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Questions 15-16
Complete the following notes on. illegal actions using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for
each gap.

The following three things are illegal:

the possession of 15_______________

the possession or 16_______________of drugs

disorderly conduct

Questions 17-20
Decide which FOUR of the following statements are true, according to the speaker.
Write the appropriate letters in any order on your answer sheet.

A. It is socially acceptable to drink a lot of alcohol.


B. People often arrange to meet in bars.
C. Drinking non-alcoholic drinks in bars is socially acceptable.
D. You can drink a little and still drive a car.
E. You can drink in public.
F. Doctors can give patients otherwise illegal drugs.
G. You must be over 18 to buy alcohol.
H. Many people use illegal drugs.

SECTION 3 : QUESTIONS 21-30


Questions 21-25
Complete the following sentences using NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each gap

Melissa’s first tip is not to 21_____________late

Simona says that a presenter should not 22_____________

David explains that the second "P" in PGP means 23_____________

David says PGP will 24_____________and promote retention.

Carlos offers a general piece of advice for public speaking, which is know
your 25_____________

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Questions 26-30
Identify which speaker is being referred to in each statement.
Write the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.

A Carlos

B David

C Melissa

D Simona

26. He/She thinks an overhead projector is usually needed.


27. He/She mentions that jokes can be useful in context.
28. He/She mentions that the question and answer part is very important.
29. He/She says that finishing early might be a good idea.
30. He/She says that you should drink enough.

SECTION 4 : QUESTIONS 31-40


Questions 31-33
Answer the following questions using NO MORE THAN ONE WORD OR A DATE for each
answer.

Which metal were the Celts using at the beginning of the first millennium B.C.?

31____________________________________

When did excavation at Hallstatt begin?

32____________________________________

When were Celtic remains near La Tene uncovered?

33____________________________________

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Questions 34-37
Answer the following questions about Hallstatt culture using NO MORE THAN THREE
WORDS OR AN NUMBER for each answer.

How many periods of Hallstatt culture were there?

34____________________________________

Which two items were traded over long distances at the beginning of the Hallstatt period?

35____________________________________

Where were settlements built during the Hallstatt C period?

36____________________________________

What led to a stratified society?

37____________________________________

Questions 38-40
Complete the following sentences about La Téne culture using NO MORE THAN THREE
WORDS for each gap.

Celtic 38___________took place during the La Téne period.


After 400 B.C., the La Téne culture 39___________
Weapons and everyday items can be found in La Tene 40___________across Europe

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READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on Reading Passage
1 below.

New Zealand Seaweed


Call us not weeds; we are flowers of the sea.

Section A

Seaweed is a particularly nutritious food, which absorbs and concentrates traces of a wide
variety of minerals necessary to the body's health. Many elements may occur in seaweed -
aluminium, barium, calcium, chlorine, copper, iodine and iron, to name but a few - traces
normally produced by erosion and carried to the seaweed beds by river and sea currents.
Seaweeds are also rich in vitamins: indeed, Eskimos obtain a high proportion of their bodily
requirements of vitamin C from the seaweeds they eat.

The nutritive value of seaweed has long been recognised. For instance, there is a remarkably
low incidence of goitre amongst the Japanese, and for that matter, amongst our own Maori
people, who have always eaten seaweeds, and this may well be attributed to the high iodine
content of this food. Research into old Maori eating customs shows that jellies were made
using seaweeds, fresh fruit and nuts, fuchsia and tutu berries, cape gooseberries, and many
other fruits which either grew here naturally or were sown from seeds brought by settlers
and explorers.

Section B

New Zealand lays claim to approximately 700 species of seaweed, some of which have no
representation outside this country. Of several species grown worldwide, New Zealand also
has a particularly large share. For example, it is estimated that New Zealand has some 30
species of Gigartina, a close relative of carrageen or Irish moss. These are often referred to
as the New Zealand carrageens. The gel-forming substance called agar which can be
extracted from this species gives them great commercial application in seameal, from which
seameal custard is made, and in cough mixture, confectionery, cosmetics, the canning, paint

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and leather industries, the manufacture of duplicating pads, and in toothpaste. In fact,
during World War II, New Zealand Gigartina were sent toAustralia to be used in toothpaste.

Section C

Yet although New Zealand has so much of the commercially profitable red seaweeds,
several of which are a source of agar (Pterocladia, Gelidium, Chondrus, Gigartina), before
1940 relatively little use was made of them. New Zealand used to import the Northern
Hemisphere Irish moss (Chondrus crispus) from England and ready-made agar from Japan.
Although distribution of the Gigartina is confined to certain areas according to species, it is
only on the east coast of the North Island that its occurrence is rare. And even then, the east
coast, and the area around Hokiangna, have a considerable supply of the two species of
Pterocladia from which agar is also available. Happily, New Zealand-made agar is now
obtainable in health food shops.

Section D

Seaweeds are divided into three classes determined by colour - red, brown and green - and
each tends to live in a specific location. However, except for the unmistakable sea lettuce
(Ulva), few are totally one colour; and especially when dry, some species can change colour
quite significantly - a brown one may turn quite black, or a red one appear black, brown,
pink or purple.

Identification is nevertheless facilitated by the fact that the factors which determine where
a seaweed will grow are quite precise, and they therefore tend to occur in very well-defined
zones. Although there are exceptions, the green seaweeds are mainly shallow-water algae;
the browns belong to medium depths, and the reds are plants of the deeper water. Flat rock
surfaces near mid-level tides are the most usual habitat of sea bombs, Venus’ necklace and
most brown seaweeds. This is also the location of the purple laver or Maori karengo, which
looks rather like a reddish-purple lettuce. Deep-water rocks on open coasts, exposed only at
very low tide, are usually the site of bull kelp, strap weeds and similar tough specimens.
Those species able to resist long periods of exposure to the sun and air are usually found on
the upper shore, while those less able to stand such exposure occur nearer to or below the
low-water mark. Radiation from the sun, the temperature level, and the length of time
immersed all play a part in the zoning of seaweeds.

Section E
Propagation of seaweeds occurs by spores, or by fertilisation of egg cells. None have roots in
the usual sense; few have leaves, and none have flowers, fruits or seeds. The plants absorb
their nourishment through their fronds when they are surrounded by water: the base or
"holdfast" of seaweeds is purely an attaching organ, not an absorbing one.

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Section F

Some of the large seaweeds maintain buoyancy with air-filled floats; others, such as bull
kelp, have large cells filled with air. Some, which spend a good part of their time exposed to
the air, often reduce dehydration either by having swollen stems that contain water, or they
may (like Venus' necklace) have | swollen nodules, or they may have distinctive shape like a
sea bomb. Others, like the sea cactus, are filled with slimy fluid or have coating of mucilage
on % the surface. In some of the larger kelps, this coating is not only to keep the plant moist
but also to protect it from the violent action of waves.

SECTION 1: QUESTIONS 1-13


Questions 1-6
Reading Passage 1 has six sections A-F.
Choose the correct heading for each section from the list of headings below.
Write the correct number i-x in boxes 1-6 on your answer sheet.

i Locations and features of different seaweeds

ii Various products of seaweeds

iii Use of seaweeds in Japan

iv Seaweed species around the globe

v Nutritious value of seaweeds

vi Why it doesn't dry or sink

vii Where to find red seaweeds

viii Underuse of native species

ix Mystery solved

x How seaweeds reproduce and grow

1. Section A 6. Section F

2. Section B

3. Section C

4. Section D

5. Section E

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Questions 7-10
Complete the flow chart below.

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 7-10 on your answer sheet.

7_________________

8_________________

9_________________

10_________________

Questions 11-13
Classify the following description as relating to

A Green seaweeds

B Brown seaweeds

C Red seaweeds

Write the correct letter A, B, or C in boxes 11-13 on your answer sheet.

11. Can resist exposure to sunlight at high-water mark

12. Grow in far open sea water

13. Share their habitat with karengo

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READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based on Reading
Passage 2 below.

Optimism and Health


Mindset is all. How you start the year will set the template for the rest, and two scientifically
backed character traits hold the key: optimism and resilience (if the prospect leaves you
feeling pessimistically spineless, the good news is that you can significantly boost both of
these qualities).

Faced with 12 months of plummeting economics and rising human distress, staunchly
maintaining a rosy view might seem deludedly Pollyannaish. But here we encounter the
optimism paradox. As Brice Pitt, an emeritus professor of the psychiatry of old age at
Imperial College, London, told me: “Optimists are unrealistic. Depressive people see things
as they really are, but that is a disadvantage from an evolutionary point of view. Optimism is
a piece of evolutionary equipment that carried us through millennia of setbacks.”

Optimists have plenty to be happy about. In other words, if you can convince yourself that
things will get better, the odds of it happening will improve - because you keep on playing
the game. In this light, optimism “is a habitual way of explaining your setbacks to yourself”,
reports Martin Seligman, the psychology professor and author of Learned Optimism. The
research shows that when times get tough, optimists do better than pessimists - they
succeed better at work, respond better to stress, suffer fewer depressive episodes, and
achieve more personal goals.

Studies also show that belief can help with the financial pinch. Chad Wallens, a social
forecaster at the Henley Centre who surveyed middle-class Britons’ beliefs about income,
has found that “the people who feel wealthiest, and those who feel poorest, actually have
almost the same amount of money at their disposal. Their attitudes and behaviour patterns,
however, are different from one another.”

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Optimists have something else to be cheerful about - in general, they are more robust. For
example, a study of 660 volunteers by the Yale University psychologist Dr. Becca Levy found
that thinking positively adds an average of seven years to your life. Other American research
claims to have identified a physical mechanism behind this. A Harvard Medical School study
of 670 men found that the optimists have significantly better lung function. The lead author,
Dr. Rosalind Wright, believes that attitude somehow strengthens the immune system.
“Preliminary studies on heart patients suggest that, by changing a person’s outlook, you can
improve their mortality risk,” she says.

Few studies have tried to ascertain the proportion of optimists in the world. But a 1995
nationwide survey conducted by the American magazine Adweek found that about half the
population counted themselves as optimists, with women slightly more apt than men (53
per cent versus 48 per cent) to see the sunny side.

Of course, there is no guarantee that optimism will insulate you from the crunch’s worst
effects, but the best strategy is still to keep smiling and thank your lucky stars. Because (as
every good sports coach knows) adversity is character-forming - so long as you practise the
skills of resilience. Research among tycoons and business leaders shows that the path to
success is often littered with failure: a record of sackings, bankruptcies and blistering
castigation. But instead of curling into a foetal ball beneath the coffee table, they resiliently
pick themselves up, learn from their pratfalls and march boldly towards the next
opportunity.

The American Psychological Association defines resilience as the ability to adapt in the face
of adversity, trauma or tragedy. A resilient person may go through difficulty and
uncertainty, but he or she will doggedly bounce back.

Optimism is one of the central traits required in building resilience, say Yale University
investigators in the. Annual Review of Clinical Psychology. They add that resilient people
learn to hold on to their sense of humour and this can help them to keep a flexible attitude
when big changes of plan are warranted. The ability to accept your lot with equanimity also
plays an important role, the study adds.

One of the best ways to acquire resilience is through experiencing a difficult childhood, the
sociologist Steven Stack reports in the Journal of Social Psychology. For example, short men
are less likely to commit suicide than tall guys, he says, because shorties develop
psychological defence skills to handle the bullies and mickey-taking that their lack of stature
attracts. By contrast, those who enjoyed adversity-free youths can get derailed by setbacks
later on because they’ve never been inoculated against aggro.

If you are handicapped by having had a happy childhood, then practising proactive optimism
can help you to become more resilient. Studies of resilient people show that they take more
risks; 'they court failure and learn not to fear it.

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And despite being thick-skinned, resilient types are also more open than average to other
people. Bouncing through knock-backs is all part of the process.

It’s about optimistic risk-taking - being confident that people will like you. Simply smiling
and being warm to people can help. It’s an altruistic path to self-interest - and if it achieves
nothing else, it will reinforce an age-old adage: hard times can bring out the best in you.

SECTION 2: QUESTIONS 14-26


Questions 14-17
Complete the summary below using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from Reading Passage
2 for each answer.
A study group from Yale University had discovered that optimism can stretch one's life
length by 14_________________years. And another group from Harvard thinks they have
found the biological basis - optimists have better 15_________________because an
optimist outlook boosts one's 16_________________. The study
on 17_________________was cited as evidence in support of this claim.

Questions 18-22
Complete each sentence with the correct ending A-H.

18. Brice Pitt believes

19. The research at Henley Centre discovers

20. The study conducted by Adweek finds

21. The Annual Review of Clinical Psychology reports

22. Steven Stack says in his report

A material wealth doesn't necessarily create happiness.


E feelings of optimism vary according to gender.

B optimists tend to be unrealistic about human evolution.


F good humour means good flexibility.

C optimism is advantageous for human evolution.G evenness of mind under stress is important to building r

D adversity is the breeding ground of resilience. H having an optimistic outlook is a habit.

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Questions 23-26
Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading Passage?
In boxes 23-26 on your answer sheet write

YES if the statement agrees with the views of the writer

NO if the statement contradicts the views of the writer

NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

23. The benefits of optimism on health have been long known.

24. Optimists have better relationships with people than pessimists.

25. People with happy childhoods won't be able to practise optimism.

26. Resilient people are often open, and even thickskinned.

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READING PASSAGE 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based on Reading
Passage 3 below.

The Columbian Exchange


A Millions of years ago, continental drift carried the Old World and New World apart,
splitting North and South America from Eurasia and Africa. That separation lasted so long
that it fostered divergent evolution; for instance, the development of rattlesnakes on one
side of the Atlantic and of vipers on the other. After 1492, human voyagers in part reversed
this tendency. Their artificial re-establishment of connections through the commingling of
Old and New World plants, animals, and bacteria, commonly known as the Columbian
Exchange, is one of the more spectacular and significant ecological events of the past
millennium.

B When Europeans first touched the shores of the Americas, Old World crops such as wheat,
barley, rice, and turnips had not travelled west across the Atlantic, and New World crops
such as maize, white potatoes, sweet potatoes, and manioc had not travelled east to
Europe. In the Americas, there were no horses, cattle, sheep, or goats, all animals of Old
World origin. Except for the llama, alpaca, dog, a few fowl, and guinea pig, the New World
had no equivalents to the domesticated animals associated with the Old World, nor did it
have the pathogens associated with the Old World’s dense populations of humans and such
associated creatures as chickens, cattle, black rats, and Aedes aegypti mosquitoes. Among
these germs were those that carried smallpox, measles, chickenpox, influenza, malaria, and
yellow fever.

C As might be expected, the Europeans who settled on the east coast of the United States
cultivated crops like wheat and apples, which they had brought with them. European weeds,
which the colonists did not cultivate, and, in fact, preferred to uproot, also fared well in the
New World. John Josselyn, an Englishman and amateur naturalist who visited New England
twice in the seventeenth century, left us a list, “Of Such Plants as Have Sprung Up since the
English Planted and Kept Cattle in New England,” which included couch grass, dandelion,
shepherd’s purse, groundsel, sow thistle, and chickweed.

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One of these, a plantain (Plantago major), was named “Englishman’s Foot” by the
Amerindians of New England and Virginia who believed that it would grow only where the
English “have trodden, and was never known before the English came into this country”.
Thus, as they intentionally sowed Old World crop seeds, the European settlers were
unintentionally contaminating American fields with weed seeds. More importantly, they
were stripping and burning forests, exposing the native minor flora to direct sunlight, and
the hooves and teeth of Old World livestock. The native flora could not tolerate the stress.
The imported weeds could, because they had lived with large numbers of grazing animals
for thousands of years.

D Cattle and horses were brought ashore in the early 1600s and found hospitable climate
and terrain in North America. Horses arrived in Virginia as early as 1620 and in
Massachusetts in 1629. Many wandered free with little more evidence of their connection
to humanity than collars with a hook at the bottom to catch on fences as they tried to leap
over them to get at crops. Fences were not for keeping livestock in, but for keeping livestock
out.

E Native American resistance to the Europeans was ineffective. Indigenous peoples suffered
from white brutality, alcoholism, the killing and driving off of game, and the expropriation of
farmland, but all these together are insufficient to explain the degree of their defeat. The
crucial factor was not people, plants, or animals, but germs. Smallpox was the worst and the
most spectacular of the infectious diseases mowing down the Native Americans. The first
recorded pandemic of that disease in British North America detonated among the Algonquin
of Massachusetts in the early 1630s. William Bradford of Plymouth Plantation wrote that
the victims “fell down so generally of this disease as they were in the end not able to help
one another, no, not to make a fire nor fetch a little water to drink, nor any to bury the
dead”. The missionaries and the traders who ventured into the American interior told the
same appalling story about smallpox and the indigenes. In 1738 alone, the epidemic
destroyed half the Cherokee; in 1759 nearly half the Catawbas; in the first years of the next
century, two thirds of the Omahas and perhaps half the entire population between the
Missouri River and New Mexico; in 1837-38 nearly every last one of the Mandans and
perhaps half the people of the high plains.

F The export of America’s native animals has not revolutionised Old World agriculture or
ecosystems as the introduction of European animals to the New World did. America’s grey
squirrels and muskrats and a few others have established themselves east of the Atlantic
and west of the Pacific, but that has not made much of a difference. Some of America’s
domesticated animals are raised in the Old World, but turkeys have not displaced chickens
and geese, and guinea pigs have proved useful in laboratories, but have not usurped rabbits
in the butcher shops.

G The New World’s great contribution to the Old is in crop plants. Maize, white potatoes,
sweet potatoes, various squashes, chiles, and manioc have become essentials in the diets of

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hundreds of millions of Europeans, Africans, and Asians. Their influence on Old World
peoples, like that of wheat and rice on New World peoples, goes far to explain the global
population explosion of the past three centuries. The Columbian Exchange has been an
indispensable factor in that demographic explosion.

H All this had nothing to do with superiority or inferiority of biosystems in any absolute
sense. It has to do with environmental contrasts. Amerindians were accustomed to living in
one particular kind of environment, Europeans and Africans in another. When the Old World
peoples came to America, they brought with them all their plants, animals, and germs,
creating a kind of environment to which they were already adapted, and so they increased
in number. Amerindians had not adapted to European germs, and so initially their numbers
plunged. That decline has reversed in our time as Amerindian populations have adapted to
the Old World’s environmental influence, but the demographic triumph of the invaders,
which was the most spectacular feature of the Old World’s invasion of the New, still stands.

SECTION 3: QUESTIONS 27-40


Questions 27-34
Reading Passage 3 has eight paragraphs A-H.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the correct letter A-H in boxes 27-34 on your answer sheet.

27. A description of an imported species that is named after the English colonists

28. The reason why both the New World and Old World experienced population growth

29. The formation of new continents explained

30. The reason why the indigenous population declined

31. An overall description of the species lacked in the Old World and New World

32. A description of some animal species being ineffective in affecting the Old World

33. An overall explanation of the success of the Old World species invasion

34. An account of European animals taking roots in the New World

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Questions 35-38
Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading Passage?
In boxes 35-38 on your answer sheet write

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

35. European settlers built fences to keep their cattle and horses inside.

36. The indigenous people had been brutally killed by the European colonists.

37. America's domesticated animals, such as turkey, became popular in the Old World.

38. Crop exchange between the two worlds played a major role in world population

Questions 39-40
Answer the questions below using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for
each answer.

Who reported the same story of European diseases among the indigenes from the American
interior?

39__________________________

What is the still existing feature of the Old World's invasion of the New?

40__________________________

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TEST 20

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LISTENING
SECTION 1 : QUESTIONS 1-10
Questions 1-6
Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer

Position Place Notes

Speak foreign languages

1___________ Parkview Hotel Have a valid 2___________

Include 3___________

Pay is low

General Assistant Lakeside Hotel


Free 4___________

Issue a 5___________

Wear 6___________
Catering Assistant Hotel 98
Night shift work Travel outside the city

Questions 7-10
Complete the flow chart below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

RECRUITMENT PROCESS
STEP ONE

Complete a 7___________

STEP TWO

Do a 8___________about personal skills

STEP THREE

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Participate a training course involving 9___________

STEP FOUR Get a 10___________about the work

SECTION 2 : QUESTIONS 11-20


Questions 11-14
Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

REGISTRATION OF FOREIGN NATIONALS AT THE HEALTH CENTER


STANDARD PROCEDURES

Register as a 11_____________

Fill in a medical history form with details of previous


illness, 12_____________surgeries and 13_____________

Complete a 14_____________with personal information such as name,


address and telephone number.

Questions 15-20
Circle the correct letter, A, B or C.

15. The nurse can help you with

a. minor operation
b. all sorts of remedy.
c. a small injury

16. You don’t have to pay for the chiropodist if

a. you have registered at the health center.


b. you are in your late’ sixties.
c. you have foot trauma.

17. In case of emergency

a. you can ask for a home visit.


b. you must go to the hospital directly.
c. you should have an open surgery.

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18. On Friday afternoons

a. you don’t need to wait for a long time.


b. you don’t need to make an appointment
c. you ought not to come at a specified time.

19. If you require a repeat prescription

a. you have to see the doctor again.


b. you need a special form.
c. you can get one from the chemist.

20. In which case you needn’t pay for the prescription

a. if you are a student.


b. if you are unemployed or very poor.
c. if you are pregnant.

SECTION 3 : QUESTIONS 21-30


Questions 21-23
Complete the sentences below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

People domesticate bees for honey and 21____________

Commercial crops such as almond, cherry, 22____________, water melon, cucumber,


depend on pollination.

Animal pollination contributes 23____________dollars a year to world agriculture.

Questions 24-25
Choose TWO letters, A-D.

According to the professor, what factors have affected pollinator populations?

a. Parasites.
b. Air pollution.
c. Hunting.
d. Farm chemicals.

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Questions 26-29
What are the features of each pollinator?

Choose the correct letter, A-F.

26. Monarch butterfly

27. Indian subcontinent butterflies

28. Spectacular tropical butterflies

29. Long-nosed bat.

A It pollinates four out of live food crops in North America.

B It has been mistaken for a similar animal.

C It feeds on the nectar of lavender.

D It has been affected by environmental alteration.

E It has been smuggling traded.

F It returns to the specific site every year.

Question 30
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

30. What can be done to protect pollinators?

a. Beekeeping needs to focus on honey production.


b. People should use more organic approach of cultivation.
c. Scientists should exploit more wild plants.

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SECTION 4 : QUESTIONS 31-40


Questions 31-35
Complete the summary below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

THE LONDON EYE


The London Eye, or 31__________Wheel is an extremely large passenger-carrying Ferris
wheel situated on the banks of the 32__________in Central London in the United Kingdom.
It attracts 33__________people annually. Back in 2000, 34__________was the main
sponsor. Today, the London Eye is operated by the London Eye Company Limited, a Merlin
Entertainments Group Company. Standing at a height of 35__________is the largest Ferris
wheel in Europe, and has become the most popular paid tourist attraction in the United
Kingdom, visited by over three million people in one year.

Questions 36-40
Label the diagram below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

36__________ 39__________

37__________ 40__________

38__________

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READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on Reading Passage
1 below.

Going Bananas
The world's favourite fruit could disappear forever in 10 years’ time

The banana is among the world's oldest crops. Agricultural scientists believe that the first
edible banana was discovered around ten thousand years ago. It has been at an
evolutionary standstill ever since it was first propagated in the jungles of South-East Asia at
the end of the last ice age. Normally the wild banana, a giant jungle herb called Musa
acuminata, contains a mass of hard seeds that make the fruit virtually inedible. But now and
then, hunter- gatherers must have discovered rare mutant plants that produced seedless,
edible fruits. Geneticists now know that the vast majority of these soft-fruited I plants
resulted from genetic accidents that gave their cells three copies of each chromosome
instead of the usual two. This imbalance prevents seeds and pollen from developing
normally, rendering the mutant plants sterile. And that is why some scientists believe the
world’s most popular fruit could be doomed. It lacks the genetic diversity to fight off pests
and diseases that are invading the banana plantations of Central America and the
smallholdings of Africa and Asia alike.

In some ways, the banana today resembles the potato before blight brought famine to
Ireland a century and a half ago. But “it holds a lesson for other crops, too,” says Emile
Frison, top banana at the International Network for the Improvement of Banana and
Plantain in Montpellier, France. “The state of the banana,” Frison warns, “can teach a

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broader lesson: the increasing standardisation of food crops round the world is threatening
their ability to adapt and survive.”

The first Stone Age plant breeders cultivated these sterile freaks by replanting cuttings from
their stems. And the descendants of those original cuttings are the bananas we still eat
today. Each is a virtual clone, almost devoid of genetic diversity. And that uniformity makes
it ripe for disease like no other crop on Earth. Traditional varieties of sexually reproducing
crops have always had a much broader genetic base, and the genes will recombine in new
arrangements in each generation. This gives them much greater flexibility in evolving re-
sponses to disease - and far more genetic resources to draw on in the face of an attack. But
that advantage is fading fast, as growers increasingly plant the same few, high-yielding
varieties. Plant breeders work feverishly to maintain resistance in these standardised crops.
Should these efforts falter, yields of even the most productive crop could swiftly crash.
“When some pest or disease comes along, severe epidemics can occur,” says Geoff Hawtin,
director of the Rome-based International Plant Genetic Resources Institute.

The banana is an excellent case in point. Until the 1950s, one variety, the Gros Michel,
dominated the world’s commercial banana business. Found by French botanists in Asia in
the 1820s, the Gros Michel was by all accounts a fine banana, richer and sweeter than
today’s standard banana and without the latter’s bitter aftertaste when green. But it was
vulnerable to a soil fungus that produced a wilt known as Panama disease. “Once the fungus
gets into the soil, it remains there for many years. There is nothing farmers can do. Even
chemical spraying won’t get rid of it,” says Rodomiro Ortiz, director of the International
Institute for Tropical Agriculture in Ibadan, Nigeria. So plantation owners played a running
game, abandoning infested fields and moving to “clean” land - until they ran out of clean
land in the 1950s and had to abandon the Gros Michel. Its successor, and still the reigning
commercial king, is the Cavendish banana, a 19th-century British discovery from southern
China. The Cavendish is resistant to Panama disease and, as a result, it literally saved the
international banana industry. During the 1960s, it replaced the Gros Michel on
supermarket shelves. If you buy a banana today, it is almost certainly a Cavendish. But even
so, it is a minority in the world’s banana crop.

Half a billion people in Asia and Africa depend on bananas. Bananas provide the largest
source of calories and are eaten daily. Its name is synonymous with food. But the day of
reckoning may be coming for the Cavendish and its indigenous kin. Another fungal disease,
black Sigatoka, has become a global epidemic since its first appearance in Fiji in 1963. Left to
itself, black Sigatoka - which causes brown wounds on leaves and premature fruit ripening -
cuts fruit yields by 50 to 70 per cent and reduces the productive lifetime of banana plants
from 30 years to as little as 2 or 3. Commercial growers keep black Sigatoka at bay by a
massive chemical assault. Forty sprayings of fungicide a year is typical. But despite the
fungicides, diseases such as black Sigatoka are getting more and more difficult to control.
“As soon as you bring in a new fungicide, they develop resistance,” says Frison. “One thing

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we can be sure of is that black Sigatoka won't lose in this battle.” Poor farmers, who cannot
afford chemicals, have it even worse. They cap do little more than watch their plants die.
“Most of the banana fields in Amazonia have already been destroyed by the disease,” says
Luadir Gasparotto, Brazil’s leading banana pathologist with the government research agency
EMBRAPA. Production is likely to fall by 70 per cent as the disease spreads, he predicts. The
only option will be to find a new variety.

But how? Almost all edible varieties are susceptible to the diseases, so growers cannot
simply change to a different banana. With most crops, such a threat would unleash an army
of breeders, scouring the world for resistant relatives whose traits they can breed into
commercial varieties. Not so with the banana. Because all edible varieties are sterile,
bringing in new genetic traits to help cope with pests and diseases is nearly impossible.
Nearly, but not totally. Very rarely, a sterile banana will experience a genetic accident that
allows an almost normal seed to develop, giving breeders a tiny window for improvement.
Breeders at the Honduran Foundation of Agricultural Research have tried to exploit this to
create disease-resistant varieties. Further back-crossing with wild bananas yielded a new
seedless banana resistant to both black Sigatoka and Panama disease.

Neither Western supermarket consumers nor peasant growers like the new hybrid. Some
accuse it of tasting more like an apple than a banana. Not surprisingly, the majority of plant
breeders have till now turned their backs on the banana and got to work on easier plants.
And commercial banana companies are now washing their hands of the whole breeding
effort, preferring to fund a search for new fungicides instead. “We supported a breeding
programme for 40 years, but it wasn't able to develop an alternative to the Cavendish. It
was very expensive and we got nothing back,” says Ronald Romero, head of research at
Chiquita, one of the Big Three companies that dominate the international banana trade.

Last year, a global consortium of scientists led by Frison announced plans to sequence the
banana genome within five years. It would be the first edible fruit to be sequenced. Well,
almost edible. The group will actually be sequencing inedible wild bananas from East Asia
because many of these are resistant to black Sigatoka. If they can pinpoint the genes that
help these wild varieties to resist black Sigatoka, the protective genes could be introduced
into laboratory tissue cultures of cells from edible varieties. These could then be propagated
into new disease-resistant plants and passed on to farmers.

It sounds promising, but the big banana companies have, until now, refused to get involved
in GM research for fear of alienating their customers. “Biotechnology is extremely expensive
and there are serious questions about consumer acceptance,” says David McLaughlin,
Chiquita’s senior director for environ- mental affairs. With scant funding from the
companies, the banana genome researchers are focusing on the other end of the spectrum.
Even if they can identify the crucial genes, they will be a long way from developing new
varieties that smallholders will find suitable and affordable. But whatever biotechnology’s

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academic interest, it is the only hope for the banana. Without it, banana production
worldwide will head into a tailspin. We may even see the extinction of the banana as both a
lifesaver for hungry and impoverished Africans and the most popular product on the world’s
supermarket shelves.

SECTION 1: QUESTIONS 1-13


Questions 1-3
Complete the sentences below with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for
each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 1-3 on your answer sheet.

Banana was first eaten as a fruit by humans almost 1__________years ago.

Banana was first planted in 2__________

Wild banana’s taste is adversely affected by its 3__________

Questions 4-10
Look at the statements (Questions 4-10) and the list of people. Match each statement with
the correct person A-F.

Write the correct letter A-F in boxes 4-10 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

List of People B David McLaughlin D Ronald Romero F Geoff Hawtin

A Rodomiro Ortiz C Emile Frison E Luadir Gasparotto

4. A pest invasion may seriously damage banana industry.

5. The effect of fungal infection in soil is often long-lasting.

6. A commercial manufacturer gave up on breeding bananas for disease-resistant

7. Banana disease may develop resistance to chemical sprays.

8. A banana disease has destroyed a large number of banana plantations.

9. Consumers would not accept genetically altered crops.

10. Lessons can be learned from bananas for other crops.

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Questions 11-13
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1?
In boxes 11-13 on your answer sheet write

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

11. Banana is the oldest known fruit.

12. Gros Michel is still being used as a commercial product.

13. Banana is the main food in some countries.

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READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based on Reading
Passage 2 below.

Coastal Archaeology of Britain


A The recognition of the wealth and diversity of England’s coastal archaeology has been one
of the most important developments of recent years. Some elements of this enormous
resource have long been known. The so-called ‘submerged forests’ off the coasts of
England, sometimes with clear evidence of the human activity, had attracted the interest of
antiquarians since at least the eighteenth century, but serious and systematic attention has
been given to the archaeological potential of the coast only since the early 1980s.

B It is possible to trace a variety of causes for this concentration of effort and interest. In the
1980s and 1990s scientific research into climate change and its environmental impact spilled
over into a much broader public debate as awareness of these issues grew; the prospect of
rising sea levels over the next century, and their impact on current coastal environments,
has been a particular focus for concern. At the same time archaeologists were beginning to
recognize that the destruction caused by natural processes of coastal erosion and by human
activity was having an increasing impact on the archaeological resource of the coast.

C The dominant process affecting the physical form of England in the post- glacial period has
been rising in the altitude of sea level relative to the land, as theglaciers melted and the
landmass readjusted. The encroachment of the sea, the loss of huge areas of land now
under the North Sea and the English Channel, and especially the loss of the land bridge
between England and France, which finally made Britain an island, must have been

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immensely significant factors in the lives of our prehistoric ancestors. Yet the way in which
prehistoric communities adjusted to these environmental changes has seldom been a major
theme in discussions of the period. One factor contributing to this has been that, although
the rise in relative sea level is comparatively well documented, we know little about the
constant reconfiguration of the coastline. This was affected by many processes, mostly
quite, which have not yet been adequately researched. The detailed reconstruction of
coastline histories and the changing environments available for human use will be an
important theme for future research.

D So great has been the rise in sea level and the consequent regression of the coast that
much of the archaeological evidence now exposed in the coastal zone. Whether being
eroded or exposed as a buried land surface, is derived from what was originally terres-trial
occupation. Its current location in the coastal zone is the product of later unrelated
processes, and it can tell us little
about past adaptations to the sea. Estimates of its significance will need to be made in the
context of other related evidence from dry land sites. Nevertheless, its physical
environment means that preservation is often excellent, for
example in the case of the Neolithic structure excavated at the Stumble in Essex.

E In some cases these buried land surfaces do contain evidence for human exploitation of
what was a coastal environment, and elsewhere along the modem coast there is similar
evidence. Where the evidence does relate to past human exploitation of the resources and
the opportunities offered by the sea and the coast, it is both diverse and as yet little
understood. We are not yet in a position to make even preliminary estimates of answers to
such fundamental questions as the extent to which the sea and the coast affected human
life in the past, what percentage of the population at any time lived within reach of the sea,
or whether human settlements in coastal environments showed a distinct character from
those inland.

F The most striking evidence for use of the sea is in the form of boats, yet we still have much
to learn about their production and use. Most of the known wrecks around our coast are
not unexpectedly of post-medieval date, and offer an unparalleled opportunity for research
which has yet been little used. The prehistoric sewn-plank boats such as those from the
Humber estuary and Dover all seem to belong to the second millennium BC; after this there
is a gap in the record of a millennium, which cannot yet be explained before boats reappear,
but it built using a very different technology. Boatbuilding must have been an extremely
important activity around much of our coast, yet we know almost nothing about it. Boats
were some of the most complex artefacts produced by pre-modem societies, and further
research on their production and use make an important contribution to our understanding
of past attitudes to technology and technological change.

G Boats need landing places, yet here again our knowledge is very patchy. In many cases the
natural shores and beaches would have sufficed, leaving little or no archaeological trace, but

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especially in later periods, many ports and harbors, as well as smaller facilities such as
quays, wharves, and jetties, were built. Despite a growth of interest in the waterfront
archaeology of some of our more important Roman and medieval towns, very little
attention has been paid to the multitude of smaller landing places. Redevelopment of
harbor sites and other development and natural pressures along the coast are subject these
important locations to unprecedented threats, yet few surveys of such sites have been
undertaken.

H One of the most important revelations of recent research has been the extent of
industrial activity along the coast. Fishing and salt production are among the better
documented activities, but even here our knowledge is patchy. Many forms of fishing will
leave little archaeological trace, and one of the surprises of recent survey has been the
extent of past investment in facilities for procuring fish and shellfish. Elaborate wooden fish
weirs, often of considerable extent and responsive to aerial photography in shallow water,
have been identified in areas such as Essex and the Severn estuary. The production of salt,
especially in the late Iron Age and early Roman periods, has been recognized for some time,
especially in the Thames estuary and around the Solent and Poole Harbor, but the reasons
for the decline of that industry and the nature of later coastal salt working are much less
well understood. Other industries were also located along the coast, either because the raw
materials outcropped there or for ease of working and transport: mineral resources such as
sand, gravel, stone, coal, ironstone, and alum were all exploited. These industries are poorly
documented, but their remains are sometimes extensive and striking.

I Some appreciation of the variety and importance of the archaeological remains preserved
in the coastal zone, albeit only in preliminary form, can thus be gained from recent work,
but the complexity of the problem of managing that resource is also being realized. The
problem arises not only from the scale and variety of the archaeological remains, but also
from two other sources: the very varied natural and human threats to the resource, and the
complex web of organizations with authority over, or interests in, the coastal zone. Human
threats include the redevelopment of historic towns and old dockland areas, and the
increased importance of the coast for the leisure and tourism industries, resulting in
pressure for the increased provision of facilities such as marinas. The larger size of ferries
has also caused an increase in the damage caused by their wash to fragile deposits in the
intertidal zone. The most significant natural threat is the predicted rise in sea level over the
next century especially in the south and east of England. Its impact on archaeology is not
easy to predict, and though it is likely to be highly localized, it will be at a scale much larger
than that of most archaeological sites. Thus protecting one site may simply result in
transposing the threat to a point further along the coast. The management of the
archaeological remains will have to be considered in a much longer time scale and a much
wider geographical scale than is common in the case of dry land sites, and this will pose a
serious challenge for archaeologists.

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SECTION 2: QUESTIONS 14-26


Questions 14-16
Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D.

Write your answers in boxes 14-16 on your answer sheet.

14. What has caused public interest in coastal archaeology in recent years?

a. The rapid development of England’^coastal archaeologyThe rapid development of


England’^coastal archaeology
b. The rising awareness of climate change
c. The discovery of an underwater forest
d. The systematic research conducted on coastal archaeological findings

15. What does the passage say about the evidence of boats?

a. There’s enough knowledge of the boatbuilding technology of the prehistoric people.


b. Many of the boats discovered were found in harbours.
c. The use of boats had not been recorded for a thousand years.
d. Boats were first used for fishing.

16. What can be discovered from the air?

a. Salt mines
b. Roman towns
c. Harbours
d. Fisheries

Questions 17-23
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 2?
In boxes 17-23 on your answer sheet write

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

17. England lost much of its land after the ice age due to the rising sea level.

18. The coastline of England has changed periodically.

19. Coastal archaeological evidence may be well protected by sea water.

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20. The design of boats used by pre-modern people was very simple.

21. Similar boats were also discovered in many other European countries.

22. There are few documents relating to mineral exploitation.

23. Large passenger boats are causing increasing damage to the seashore.

Questions 24-26
Choose THREE letters A-G.

Write your answers in boxes 24-26 on your answer sheet.

Which THREE of the following statements are mentioned in the passage?

a. How coastal archaeology was originally discovered


b. It is difficult to understand how many people lived close to the sea.
c. How much the prehistoric communities understand the climate change
d. Our knowledge of boat evidence is limited.
e. Some fishing ground was converted to ports.
f. Human development threatens the archaeological remains
g. Coastal archaeology will become more important in the future.

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READING PASSAGE 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based on Reading
Passage 3 below.

Travel Books
There are many reasons why individuals have travelled beyond their own societies. Some
travellers may have simply desired to satisfy curiosity about the larger world. Until recent
times, however, travellers did start their journey for reasons other than mere curiosity.
While the travellers’ accounts give much valuable information on these foreign lands and
provide a window for the understanding of the local cultures and histories, they are also a
mirror to the travellers themselves, for these accounts help them to have a better under-
standing of themselves.

Records of foreign travel appeared soon after the invention of writing, and fragmentary
travel accounts appeared in both Mesopotamia and Egypt in ancient times. After the
formation of large, imperial states in the classical world, travel accounts emerged as a
prominent literary genre in many lands, and they held especially strong appeal for rulers
desiring useful knowledge about their realms. The Greek historian Herodotus reported on
his travels in Egypt and Anatolia in researching the history of the Persian wars. The Chinese
envoy Zhang Qian described much of central Asia as far west as Bactria (modern- day
Afghanistan) on the basis of travels undertaken in the first century BCE while searching for
allies for the Han dynasty. Hellenistic and Roman geographers such as Ptolemy, Strabo, and
Pliny the Elder relied on their own travels through much of the Mediterranean world as well
as reports of other travellers to compile vast compendia of geographical knowledge.

During the post-classical era (about 500 to 1500 CE), trade and pilgrimage j? emerged as
major incentives for travel to foreign lands. Muslim merchants sought trading opportunities

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throughout much of the eastern hemisphere. They described lands, peoples, and
commercial products of the Indian Ocean basin from East Africa to Indonesia, and they
supplied the first written accounts of societies in sub-Saharan West Africa. While merchants
set out in search of trade and profit, devout Muslims travelled as pilgrims to Mecca to make
their hajj and visit the holy sites of Islam. Since the prophet Muhammad’s original
pilgrimage to Mecca, untold millions of Muslims have followed his example, and thousands
of hajj accounts have related their experiences. East Asian travellers were not quite so
prominent as Muslims during the post-classical era, but they too followed many of the
highways and sea lanes of the eastern hemisphere. Chinese merchants frequently visited
South-East Asia and India, occasionally venturing even to East Africa, and devout East Asian
Buddhists undertook distant pilgrimages. Between the 5th and 9th centuries CE, hundreds
and possibly even thousands of Chinese Buddhists travelled to India to study with Buddhist
teachers, collect sacred texts, and visit holy sites. Written accounts recorded the
experiences of many pilgrims, such as Faxian, Xuanzang, and Yijing. Though not so numerous
as the Chinese pilgrims, Buddhists from Japan, Korea, and other lands also ventured abroad
in the interests of spiritual enlightenment.

Medieval Europeans did not hit the roads in such large numbers as their Muslim and East
Asian counterparts during the early part of the post-classical era, although gradually
increasing crowds of Christian pilgrims flowed to Jerusalem, Rome, Santiago de Compostela
(in northern Spain), and other sites. After the 12th century, however, merchants, pilgrims,
and missionaries from medieval Europe travelled widely and left numerous travel accounts,
of which Marco Polo’s description of his travels and sojourn in China is the best known. As
they became familiar with the larger world of the eastern hemisphere - and the profitable
commercial opportunities that it offered - European peoples worked to find new and more
direct routes to Asian and African markets. Their efforts took them not only to all parts of
the eastern hemisphere, but eventuallv to the Americas and Oceania as well.

If Muslim and Chinese peoples dominated travel and travel writing in post- classical times,
European explorers, conquerors, merchants, and missionaries took centre stage during the
early modern era (about 1500 to 1800 CE). By no means did Muslim and Chinese travel
come to a halt in early modern times. But European peoples ventured to the distant corners
of the globe, and European printing presses churned out thousands of travel accounts that
described foreign lands and peoples for a reading public with an apparently insatiable
appetite for news about the larger world. The volume of travel literature was so great that
several editors, including Giambattista Ramusio, Richard Hakluyt, Theodore de Biy, and
Samuel Purchas, assembled numerous travel accounts and made them available in
enormous published collections.

During the 19th century, European travellers made their way to the interior regions of Africa
and the Americas, generating a fresh round of travel writing as they did so. Meanwhile,

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European colonial administrators devoted numerous writings to the societies of their


colonial subjects, particularly in Asian and African colonies they established. By mid-century,
attention was flowing also in the other direction. Painfullv aware of the military and
technological prowess of European and Euro-American societies, Asian travellers in particu-
lar visited Europe and the United States in hopes of discovering principles useful for the
organisation of their own societies. Among the most prominent of these travellers who
made extensive use of their overseas observations and experiences in their own writings
were the Japanese reformer Fukuzawa Yu- kichi and the Chinese revolutionary Sun Yat-sen.

With the development of inexpensive and reliable means of mass transport, the 20th
century witnessed explosions both in the frequency of long-distance travel and in the
volume of travel writing. While a great deal of travel took place for reasons of business,
administration, diplomacy, pilgrimage, and missionary work, as in ages past, increasingly
effective modes of mass transport made it possible for new kinds of travel to flourish. The
most distinctive of them was mass tourism, which emerged as a major form of consumption
.for individuals living in the world’s wealthy societies. Tourism enabled consumers to get
away from home to see the sights in Rome, take a cruise through the Caribbean, walk the
Great Wall of China, visit some wineries in Bordeaux, or go on safari in Kenya. A peculiar
variant of the travel account arose to meet the needs of these tourists: the guidebook,
which offered advice on food, lodging, shopping, local customs, and all the sights that
visitors should not miss seeing. Tourism has had a massive economic impact throughout the
world, but other new forms of travel have also had considerable influence in contemporary
times.

SECTION 3: QUESTIONS 27-40


Questions 27-28
Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D.
Write your answers in boxes 27-28 on your answer sheet.
27. What were most people travelling for in the early days?

a. Studying their own cultures


b. Business
c. Knowing other people and places better
d. Writing travel books

28. Why did the author say writing travel books is also “a mirror” for travellers themselves?

a. Because travellers record their own experiences.


b. Because travellers reflect upon their own society and life.
c. Because it increases knowledge of foreign cultures.
d. Because it is related to the development of human society.

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Questions 29-36
Complete the table on the next page.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from Reading Passage 3 for each answer.
TIME TRAVELLER DESTINATION PURPOSE OF TRAVEL

Classical Greece Herodotus Egypt and Anatolia To gather information


for the study
of 29_________

Han Dynasty Zhang Qian Central Asia To seek 30_________

Roman Empire Ptolemy, Strabo, The Mediterranean To


Pliny the Elder acquire 31_________

Post-classical Muslims From East Africa to For trading


era (about 500 Indonesia, Mecca and 32_________
to 1500 CE)

5th - Chinese 33_________ To collect Buddhist


9thCenturies CE Buddhists texts and for spiritual
enlightenment

Early modern To satisfy public


era (about 1500 European curiosity for the New
to 1800 CE) explorers The New World World

To provide information
During 19th Colonial for the 34_______ they
century administrators Asia, Africa set up

Sun Yat-sen, To study


the 35_________of
Fukuzawa
By mid-century Europe and the their societies
of the 1800s Yukichi United States

People from

36_________
For entertainment and
20th century countries Mass tourism pleasure

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Questions 37-40
Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D.

Write your answers in boxes 37-40 on your answer sheet.

37. Why were the imperial rulers especially interested in these travel stories?

a. Reading travel stories was a popular pastime.


b. The accounts are often truthful rather than fictional.
c. Travel books played an important role in literature.
d. They desired knowledge of their empire.

38. Who were the largest group to record their spiritual trips during the post-classical era?

a. Muslim traders
b. Muslim pilgrims
c. Chinese Buddhists
d. Indian Buddhist teachers

39. During the early modern era, a large number of travel books were published to

a. meet the public’s interest.


b. explore new business opportunities.
c. encourage trips to the new world.
d. record the larger world.

40. What’s the main theme of the passage?

a. The production of travel books


b. The literary status of travel books
c. The historical significance of travel books
d. The development of travel books

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TEST 21

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LISTENING
SECTION 1 : QUESTIONS 1-10
Questions 1-6
Complete the form below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

PATIENT RECORD
Time of appointment: 10:00 am

Given names: Simon 1________________

Family name: Lee

Date of birth: 2________________1989

Address: 3________________Adams Terrace, Wellington

Phone number: 0211558809

Name of insurance company: 4________________

Date of last eye test: 5________________

Patient’s observations: Problems seeing 6________________

Questions 7-10
Answer the questions below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

When must Simon wear his glasses?

7________________________________________________

What type of glasses are the least expensive?

8________________________________________________

What is good about the glasses Simon chooses?

9________________________________________________

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How does Simon decide to pay?

10________________________________________________

SECTION 2 : QUESTIONS 11-20


Questions 11-12
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

11. Who is buried in the tomb of the Taj Mahal?

a. the emperor Shahjahan


b. the wife of Shahjahan
c. the emperor and his wife

12. Where did the white marble come from?

a. India
b. China
c. Persia

Questions 13-16
Label the plan below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

13________________________________

14________________________________

15________________________________

16________________________________

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Question 17
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
17. What is the purpose of the Rest House?

a. a place for the poor to stay


b. a meeting place for pilgrims
c. an architectural feature

Questions 18-20
Complete the flow chart below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
How running water is provided
Water taken from the 18________________by bullocks.

Water channelled into the 19________________

Water piped to the 20________________

SECTION 3 : QUESTIONS 21-30


Questions 21-24
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C

21. What background information does Daisy give about rice?

a. Wild rice is grown throughout Asia


b. Some types of rice need less water than others.
c. All rice varieties have a lovely aroma

22. Erik says that a priority for rice farmers is to be able to

a. grow rice without fertilizers.


b. predict the weather patterns.
c. manage water resources.

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23. Where is the International Rice Research Institute?

a. The Philippines
b. China
c. Japan

24. Scientists in Bangladesh want to find a

a. more effective type of fertilizer.


b. strain of rice resistant to flooding.
c. way to reduce the effects of global warming.

Questions 25-30
Which country do the following statements apply to?

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

A Japan

B China

C Thailand

25. They grow the most rice in the world.

26. They export the most rice in the world.

27. They aim to increase the nutritional value of rice.

28. Less rice is eaten than in the past.

29. An annual rice festival takes place.

30. A new type of rice is now popular locally.

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SECTION 4 : QUESTIONS 31-40


Questions 31-33
Complete the sentences below.

Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD for each answer,

RADIO WRITING
You may have to ignore some of the ordinary 31____________of writing.

Written words do not indicate things like emphasis, the 32____________of reading or
where to pause.

A script needs to sound like a 33____________

Questions 34-40
Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Know who you are talking to


Imagine a typical listener:

e.g. imagine telling your 34____________about a film.

Create an informal tone:

e.g. use words like 35____________

Work out what you are going to say

Remember:

listeners cannot ask questions

you cannot 36____________ideas

Make your script logical:

37____________the information.

Use concrete images e.g. compare the size of a field to a 38____________

Use the 39____________to get attention. Check the script by 40____________

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READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on Reading Passage
1 below.

Dirty River But Clean Water


Floods can occur in rivers when the flow rate exceeds the capacity of the river channel,
particularly at bends or meanders in the waterway. Floods often cause damage to homes
and businesses if they are in the natural flood plains of rivers. While riverine flood damage
can be eliminated by moving away from rivers and other bodies of water, people
have traditionally lived and worked by rivers because the land is usually flat and fertile and
because rivers provide easy travel and access to commerce and industry.

A Fire and flood are two of humanity’s worst nightmares. People have,therefore,always
sought to control them. Forest fires are snuffed out quickly. The flow of rivers is regulated
by weirs and dams. At least, that is how it used to be. But foresters have learned that forests
need fires to clear out the brash and even to get seeds to germinate. And a similar
revelation is now – dawning on hydrologists. Rivers – and the ecosystems they support –
need floods. That is why a man-made torrent has been surging down the Grand Canyon. By
Thursday March 6th it was running at full throttle, which was expected to be sustained for
60 hours.

B Floods once raged through the canyon every year. Spring Snow from as far away as
Wyoming would melt and swell the Colorado river to a flow that averaged around 1,500
cubic metres (50,000 cubic feet) a second. Every eight years or so, that figure rose to almost
3,000 cubic metres. These floods infused the river with sediment, carved its beaches and
built its sandbars.

C However, in the four decades since the building of the Glen Canyon dam, just upstream
of the Grand Canyon, the only sediment that it has collected has come from tiny,
undammed tributaries. Even that has not been much use as those tributaries are not
powerful enough to distribute the sediment in an ecologically valuable way.

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D This lack of flooding has harmed local wildlife. The humpback chub,for example, thrived
in the rust-redwaters of the Colorado. Recently, though, its population has crashed. At first
sight, it looked as if the reason was that the chub were being eaten by trout introduced for
sport fishing in the mid-20th century. But trout and chub co-existed until the Glen Canyon
dam was built, so something else is going on. Steve Gloss, of the United States’ Geological
Survey (USGS), reckons that the chub’s decline is the result of their losing their most
valuable natural defense, the Colorado’s rusty sediment. The chub were well adapted to the
poor visibility created by the thick, red water which gave the river its name, and depended
on it to hide from predators. Without the cloudy water the chub became vulnerable.

E And the chub are not alone. In the years since the Glen Canyon dam was built, several
species have vanished altogether. These include the Colorado pike-minnow, the razorback
sucker and the round-tail chub. Meanwhile, aliens including fathead minnows, channel
catfish and common carp, which would have been hard, put to survive in the savage waters
of the undammed canyon, have move din.

F So flooding is the obvious answer. Unfortunately, it is easier said than done. Floods were
sent down the Grand Canyon in 1996 and 2004 and the results were mixed. In 1996 the
flood was allowed to go on too long. To start with,all seemed well. The floodwaters built up
sandbanks and infused the river with sediment. Eventually, however, the continued flow
washed most of the sediment out of the canyon. This problem was avoided in 2004, but
unfortunately, on that occasion, the volume of sand available behind the dam was too low
to rebuild the sandbanks. This time, the USGS is convinced that things will be better. The
amount of sediment available is three times greater than it was in 2004. So if a flood is going
to do some good, this is the time to unleash one.

G Even so, it may turn out to be an empty gesture. At less than 1,200 cubic metres a
second, this flood is smaller than even an average spring flood, let alone one of the mightier
deluges of the past. Those glorious inundations moved massive quantities of sediment
through the Grand Canyon,wiping the slate dirty, and making a muddy mess of silt and muck
that would make modern river rafters cringe.

SECTION 1: QUESTIONS 1-13


Questions 1-7
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage?
In boxes 1-7 on your answer sheet, write
TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

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1. Damage caused by fire is worse than that caused by flood


2. The flood peaks at almost 1500 cubic meters every eight years.

3. Contribution of sediments delivered by tributaries has little impact.

4. Decreasing number of chubs is always caused by introducing of trout since mid 20th
century.

5. It seemed that the artificial flood in 1996 had achieved success partly at the very
beginning.

6. In fact, the yield of artificial flood water is smaller than an average natural flood at
present.

7. Mighty floods drove fast moving flows with clean and high quality water.

Questions 8-13
Complete the summary below.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 8-13 on your answer sheet.

The eco-impact of the Canyon Dam


Floods are people’s nightmare. In the past, canyon was raged by flood every year. The snow
from far Wyoming would melt in the season of 8___________and caused a flood flow peak
in Colorado river. In the four decades after people built the Glen Canyon dam, it only could
gather 9___________together from tiny, undammed tributaries.

Humpback chub population on reduced, why?

Then, several species disappeared including Colorado pike-minnow, 10___________and the


round-tail chub. Meanwhile, some moved in such as fathead minnows, channel catfish
and 11___________. The non-stopped flow leaded to the washing away of the sediment out
of the canyon, which poses great threat to the chubs because it has poor 12________ away
from predators. In addition, the volume of 13________available behind the dam was too
low to rebuild the bars and flooding became more serious.

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READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based on Reading
Passage 2 below.

Activities for Children


A Twenty-five years ago, children in London walked to school and played in parks and
playing fields after school and at the weekend. Today they are usually driven to school by
parents anxious about safety and spend hours glued to television screens or computer
games. Meanwhile, community playing fields are being sold off to property developers at an
alarming rate. ‘This change in lifestyle has, sadly, meant greater restrictions on children,’
says Neil Armstrong, Professor of Health and Exercise Sciences at the University of Exeter. ‘If
children continue to be this inactive, they’ll be storing up big problems for the future.’

B In 1985, Professor Armstrong headed a five-year research project into children’s fitness.
The results, published in 1990, were alarming. The survey, which monitored 700 11-16-year-
olds, found that 48 per cent of girls and 41 per cent of boys already exceeded safe
cholesterol levels set for children by the American Heart Foundation. Armstrong adds,
“heart is a muscle and need exercise, or it loses its strength.” It also found that 13 per cent
of boys and 10 per cent of girls were overweight. More disturbingly, the survey found that
over a four-day period, half the girls and one-third of the boys did less exercise than the
equivalent of a brisk 10-minute walk. High levels of cholesterol, excess body fat and
inactivity are believed to increase the risk of coronary heart disease.

C Physical education is under pressure in the UK – most schools devote little more than 100
minutes a week to it in curriculum time, which is less than many other European countries.

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Three European countries are giving children a head start in PE, France, Austria and
Switzerland – offer at least two hours in primary and secondary schools. These findings,
from the European Union of Physical Education Associations, prompted specialists in
children’s physiology to call on European governments to give youngsters a daily PE
programme. The survey shows that the UK ranks 13th out of the 25 countries, with Ireland
bottom, averaging under an hour a week for PE. From age six to 18,British children
received, on average, 106 minutes of PE a week. Professor Armstrong, who presented the
findings at the meeting, noted that since the introduction of the national curriculum there
had been a marked fall in the time devoted to PE in UK schools, with only a minority of
pupils getting two hours a week.

D As a former junior football international, Professor Armstrong is a passionate advocate for


sport. Although the Government has poured millions into beefing up sport in the
community, there is less commitment to it as part of the crammed school curriculum. This
means that many children never acquire the necessary skills to thrive in team games. If they
are no good at them, they lose interest and establish an inactive pattern of behaviour.
When this is coupled with a poor diet, it will lead inevitably to weight gain. Seventy per cent
of British children give up all sport when they leave school, compared with only 20 per cent
of French teenagers. Professor Armstrong believes that there is far too great an emphasis
on team games at school. “We need to look at the time devoted to PE and balance it
between individual and pair activities, such as aerobics and badminton, as well as team
sports. “He added that children need to have the opportunity to take part in a wide variety
of individual, partner and team sports.

E The good news, however, is that a few small companies and children’s activity groups have
reacted positively and creatively to the problem. Take That, shouts Gloria Thomas, striking a
disco pose astride her mini-spacehopper. Take That, echo a flock of toddlers, adopting
outrageous postures astride their space hoppers. ‘Michael Jackson, she shouts, and they all
do a spoof fan-crazed shriek. During the wild and chaotic hopper race across the studio
floor, commands like this are issued and responded to with untrammelled glee. The sight of
15 bouncing seven-year-olds who seem about to launch into orbit at every bounce brings
tears to the eyes. Uncoordinated, loud, excited and emotional, children provide raw
comedy.

F Any cardiovascular exercise is a good option, and it doesn’t necessarily have to be high
intensity. It can be anything that gets your heart rate up: such as walking the dog,
swimming, miming, skipping, hiking. “Even walking through the grocery store can be
exercise,” Samis-Smith said. What they don’t know is that they’re at a Fit Kids class, and that
the fun is a disguise for the serious exercise plan they’re covertly being taken through. Fit
Kids trains parents to run fitness classes for children. ‘Ninety per cent of children don’t like
team sports,’ says company director, Gillian Gale.

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G A Prevention survey found that children whose parents keep in shape are much more
likely to have healthy body weights themselves. “There’s nothing worse than telling a child
what he needs to do and not doing it yourself,” says Elizabeth Ward, R.D., a Boston
nutritional consultant and author of Healthy Foods, Healthy Kids . “Set a good example and
get your nutritional house in order first.” In the 1930s and ’40s, kids expended 800 calories a
day just walking, carrying water, and doing other chores, notes Fima Lifshitz, M.D., a
pediatric endocrinologist in Santa Barbara. “Now, kids in obese families are expending only
200 calories a day in physical activity,” says Lifshitz, “incorporate more movement in your
family’s lifepark farther away from the stores at the mall, take stairs instead of the elevator,
and walk to nearby friends’ houses instead of driving.”

SECTION 2: QUESTIONS 14-26


Questions 14-17
The reading Passage has seven paragraphs A-G.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the correct letter A-G, in boxes 14-17 on your answer sheet.

14. Health and living condition of children

15. Health organization monitored physical activity

16. Comparison of exercise time between UK and other countries

17. Wrong approach for school activity

Questions 18-21
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 2?
In boxes 18-21 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

18. According to American Heart Foundation, cholesterol levels of boys are higher than
girls’.

19. British children generally do less exercise than some other European countries.

20. Skipping becomes more and more popular in schools of UK.

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21. According to Healthy Kids, the first task is for parents to encourage their children to
keep the same healthy body weight.

Questions 22-26
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write your answers in boxes 22-26 on your answer sheet.

22. According to paragraph A, what does Professor Neil Armstrong concern about?

a. Spending more time on TV affect academic level


b. Parents have less time stay with their children
c. Future health of British children
d. Increasing speed of property’s development

23. What does Armstrong indicate in Paragraph B?

a. We need to take a 10 minute walk everyday


b. We should do more activity to exercise heart
c. Girls’ situation is better than boys
d. Exercise can cure many disease

24. What is aim of Fit Kids’ trainning?

a. Make profit by running several sessions


b. Only concentrate on one activity for each child
c. To guide parents how to organize activities for children
d. Spread the idea that team sport is better

25. What did Lifshitz suggest in the end of this passage?

a. Create opportunities to exercise your body


b. Taking elevator saves your time
c. Kids should spend more than 200 calories each day
d. We should never drive but walk

26. What is main idea of this passage?

a. health of the children who are overweight is at risk in the future


b. Children in UK need proper exercises
c. Government mistaken approach for children
d. Parents play the most important role in children’s activity

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READING PASSAGE 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based on Reading
Passage 3 below.

Mechanisms of Linguistic Change


A The changes that have caused the most disagreement are those in pronunciation. We
have various sources of evidence for the pronunciations of earlier times, such as the
spellings, the treatment of words borrowed from other languages or borrowed by them, the
descriptions of contemporary grammarians and spelling-reformers, and the modern
pronunciations in all the languages and dialects concerned From the middle of the sixteenth
century, there are in England writers who attempt to describe the position of the speech-
organs for the production of English phonemes, and who invent what are in effect systems
of phonetic symbols. These various kinds of evidence, combined with a knowledge of the
mechanisms of speech-production, can often give us a very good idea of the pronunciation
of an earlier age, though absolute certainty is never possible.

B When we study the pronunciation of a language over any period of a few generations or
more, we find there are always large-scale regularities in the changes: for example, over a
certain period of time, just about all the long [a:] vowels in a language may change into long
[e:] vowels, or all the [b] consonants in a certain position (for example at the end of a word)
may change into [p] consonants. Such regular changes are often called sound laws. There
are no universal sound laws (even though sound laws often reflect universal tendencies),
but simply particular sound laws for one given language (or dialect) at one given period

C It is also possible that fashion plays a part in the process of change. It certainly plays a part
in the spread of change: one person imitates another, and people with the most prestige
are most likely to be imitated, so that a change that takes place in one social group may be
imitated (more or less accurately) by speakers in another group. When a social group goes
up or down in the world, its pronunciation of Russian, which had formerly been considered
desirable, became on the contrary an undesirable kind of accent to have, so that people

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tried to disguise it. Some of the changes in accepted English pronunciation in the
seventeenth and eighteenth centuries have been shown to consist in the replacement of
one style of pronunciation by another style already existing, and it is likely that such
substitutions were a result of the great social changes of the period: the increased power
and wealth of the middle classes, and their steady infiltration upwards into the ranks of the
landed gentry, probably carried elements of middle-class pronunciation into upper-class
speech.

D A less specific variant of the argument is that the imitation of children is imperfect: they
copy their parents’ speech, but never reproduce it exactly. This is true, but it is also true that
such deviations from adult speech are usually corrected in later childhood. Perhaps it is
more significant that even adults show a certain amount of random variation in their
pronunciation of a given phoneme, even if the phonetic context is kept unchanged. This,
however, cannot explain changes in pronunciation unless it can be shown that there is some
systematic trend in the failures of imitation: if they are merely random deviations they will
cancel one another out and there will be no net change in the language.

E One such force which is often invoked is the principle of ease, or minimization of effort.
The change from fussy to fuzzy would be an example of assimilation, which is a very
common kind of change. Assimilation is the changing of a sound under the influence of a
neighbouring one. For example, the word scant was once skamt, but the /m/ has been
changed to /n/ under the influence of the following /t/. Greater efficiency has hereby been
achieved, because /n/ and /t/ are articulated in the same place (with the tip of the tongue
against the teeth-ridge), whereas /m/ is articulated elsewhere (with the two lips). So the
place of articulation of the nasal consonant has been changed to conform with that of the
following plosive. A more recent example of the same kind of thing is the common
pronunciation of football as football.

F Assimilation is not the only way in which we change our pronunciation in order to increase
efficiency. It is very common for consonants to be lost at the end of a word: in Middle
English, word-final [-n] was often lost in unstressed syllables, so that baken ‘to bake’
changed from *‘ba:kan+ to *‘ba:k3+,and later to *ba:k+. Consonant-clusters are often
simplified. At one time there was a [t] in words like castle and Christmas, and an initial [k] in
words like knight and know. Sometimes a whole syllable is dropped out when two
successive syllables begin with the same consonant (haplology): a recent example is
temporary, which in Britain is often pronounced as if it were tempory.

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SECTION 3: QUESTIONS 27-40


Questions 27-30
Complete the summary below.

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 27-30 on your answer sheet.

The pronunciation of living language undergo changes throughout thousands of years. Large
scale regular Changes are usually called 27__________. There are three reasons for these
changes. Firstly, the influence of one language on another; when one person
imitates another pronunciation(the most prestige’s), the imitation always partly involving
factor of 28__________. Secondly, the imitation of children from adults1 language
sometimes are 29__________, and may also contribute to this change if there are
insignificant deviations tough later they may be corrected Finally, for those random
variations in pronunciation, the deeper evidence lies in the 30__________ or minimization
of effort.

Questions 31-37
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 3?
In boxes 31-37 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

31. It is impossible for modern people to find pronunciation of words in an earlier age

32. The great change of language in Russian history is related to the rising status and fortune
of middle classes.

33. All the children learn speeches from adults white they assume that certain language is
difficult to imitate exactly.

34. Pronunciation with causal inaccuracy will not exert big influence on language changes.

35. The word scant can be pronounced more easily than skamt

36. The [g] in gnat not being pronounced will not be spelt out in the future.

37. The sound of ‘temporary’ cannot wholly present its spelling.

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Questions 38-40
Look at the following sentences and the list of statements below. Match each statement
with the correct sentence, A-D.

Write the correct letter, A-D, in boxes 38-40 on your answer sheet

A Since the speakers can pronounce it with less effort

B Assimilation of a sound under the influence of a neighbouring one

C It is a trend for changes in pronunciation in a large scale in a given


period

D Because the speaker can pronounce [n] and [t] both in the same
time

38. As a consequence, ‘b’ will be pronounced as

39. The pronunciation of [mt] changed to [nt]

40. The omit of 't' in the sound of Christmas

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TEST 22

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LISTENING
SECTION 1 : QUESTIONS 1-10
Question 1
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

Example What’s the name of the accommodation house?

A. Jerry House
B. Thomas House
C. Student House

1. The accommodation was originally built as _____

a. student flat.
b. local museum
c. private house.

Questions 2-3
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which of the following TWO facilities are NOT in the house?
a. bathroom c. computer room e. garage
b. balcony d. garden
Questions 4-7
Complete the table below.

Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

RULE

Bedroom and bathroom 4___________

5___________room Use before 11 p.m.

Lounge 6___________after 11 p.m

Yard 7___________

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Questions 8-10
Complete the sentences below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer

8___________is only allowed on weekends.

The opening time of the front door is 9___________

You can go to Room 101 beside reception to get a 10___________

SECTION 2 : QUESTIONS 11-20


Questions 11-17
Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for
each answer.

Item Tennis Soccer

Number of teams 11___________ 4

Age 16-22 Up to 12___________

13___________ court 2 14___________

Date 15___________ 16___________evenings

17___________ George Hansen Paul Bhatt

Questions 18-20
Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

The match always begins with a 18___________

19___________will be awarded an honour and prize.

All players must write a 20___________by April 18th.

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SECTION 3 : QUESTIONS 21-30


Questions 21-24
Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

The tutor’s new room number is 21___________

The tutorial time is at 22___________The reason for the student to see his tutor is
to 23___________

The student’s trouble is to have many 24___________to read.

Questions 25-28
Choose your answer below and write the letters, A-F, next to Questions 25-28.

What recommendations does the tutor make about the reference books?

Bayer: 25___

Oliver: 26___

Billy: 27___

Andrew: 28___

A All

B Research method

C Main Body

D Conclusion

E Avoid

F Argument

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Questions 29-30
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO of the following points does the tutor warn student’s research work?

a. interviewees
b. make data clearly
c. time arrangement
d. reference books
e. questionnaire design

SECTION 4 : QUESTIONS 31-40


Questions 31-40
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Magic Meteor Astronomy


Meteors are usually.named 31___________________

Meteoroids belong to inner 32___________________system.

Meteor storms are more beautiful and amazing than 33___________________

The biggest meteor storm happened in 34___________________

Leonids are usually connected with 35___________________

A 36___________________is brighter than any of the stars and planets.

Most meteors appear colour of 37___________________

In the 17th Century, many people regarded meteorite as 38___________________

The most magnificent meteorite event took place on 39___________________1908.

Dinosaurs became extinct about 40___________________years ago.

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READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on Reading Passage
1 below.

The Impact of the Potato


Jeff Chapman relates the story of history the most important vegetable

A The potato was first cultivated in South America between three and seven thousand years
ago, though scientists believe they may have grown wild in the region as long as 13,000
years ago. The genetic patterns of potato distribution indicate that the potato probably
originated in the mountainous west-central region of the continent.

B Early Spanish chroniclers who misused the Indian word batata (sweet potato) as the name
for the potato noted the importance of the tuber to the Incan Empire. The Incas had learned
to preserve the potato for storage by dehydrating and mashing potatoes into a substance
called Chuchu could be stored in a room for up to 10 years, providing excellent insurance
against possible crop failures. As well as using the food as a staple crop, the Incas thought
potatoes made childbirth easier and used it to treat injuries.

C The Spanish conquistadors first encountered the potato when they arrived in Peru in 1532
in search of gold, and noted Inca miners eating chuchu. At the time the Spaniards failed to
realize that the potato represented a far more important treasure than either silver or gold,
but they did gradually begin to use potatoes as basic rations aboard their ships. After the
arrival of the potato in Spain in 1570,a few Spanish farmers began to cultivate them on a
small scale, mostly as food for livestock.

D Throughout Europe, potatoes were regarded with suspicion, distaste and fear. Generally
considered to be unfit for human consumption, they were used only as animal fodder and
sustenance for the starving. In northern Europe, potatoes were primarily grown in botanical
gardens as an exotic novelty. Even peasants refused to eat from a plant that produced ugly,

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misshapen tubers and that had come from a heathen civilization. Some felt that the potato
plant’s resemblance to plants in the nightshade family hinted that it was the creation of
witches or devils.

E In meat-loving England, farmers and urban workers regarded potatoes with extreme
distaste. In 1662, the Royal Society recommended the cultivation of the tuber to the English
government and the nation, but this recommendation had little impact. Potatoes did not
become a staple until, during the food shortages associated with the Revolutionary Wars,
the English government began to officially encourage potato cultivation. In 1795, the Board
of Agriculture issued a pamphlet entitled “Hints Respecting the Culture and Use of
Potatoes”; this was followed shortly by pro-potato editorials and potato recipes in The
Times. Gradually, the lower classes began to follow the lead of the upper classes.

F A similar pattern emerged across the English Channel in the Netherlands, Belgium and
France. While the potato slowly gained ground in eastern France (where it was often the
only crop remaining after marauding soldiers plundered wheat fields and vineyards), it did
not achieve widespread acceptance until the late 1700s. The peasants remained suspicious,
in spite of a 1771 paper from the Facult de Paris testifying that the potato was not harmful
but beneficial. The people began to overcome their distaste when the plant received the
royal seal of approval: Louis XVI began to sport a potato flower in his buttonhole, and
Marie-Antoinette wore the purple potato blossom in her hair.

G Frederick the Great of Prussia saw the potato’s potential to help feed his nation and lower
the price of bread, but faced the challenge of overcoming the people’s prejudice against the
plant. When he issued a 1774 order for his subjects to grow potatoes as protection against
famine, the town of Kolberg replied: “The things have neither smell nor taste, not even the
dogs will eat them, so what use are they to us?” Trying a less direct approach to encourage
his subjects to begin planting potatoes, Frederick used a bit of reverse psychology: he
planted a royal field of potato plants and stationed a heavy guard to protect this field from
thieves. Nearby peasants naturally assumed that anything worth guarding was worth
stealing, and so snuck into the field and snatched the plants for their home gardens. Of
course, this was entirely in line with Frederick’s wishes.

H Historians debate whether the potato was primarily a cause or an effect of the huge
population boom in industrial-era England and Wales. Prior to 1800,the English diet had
consisted primarily of meat, supplemented by bread, butter and cheese. Few vegetables
were consumed, most vegetables being regarded as nutritionally worthless and potentially
harmful. This view began to change gradually in the late 1700s. The Industrial Revolution
was drawing an ever increasing percentage of the populace into crowded cities, where only
the richest could afford homes with ovens or coal storage rooms, and people were working
12-16 hour days which left them with little time or energy to prepare food. High yielding,
easily prepared potato crops were the obvious solution to England’s food problems.

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I Whereas most of their neighbors regarded the potato with suspicion and had to be
persuaded to use it by the upper classes, the Irish peasantry embraced the tuber more
passionately than anyone since the Incas. The potato was well suited to the Irish the soil and
climate, and its high yield suited the most important concern of most Irish farmers: to feed
their families.

J The most dramatic example of the potato’s potential to alter population patterns occurred
in Ireland, where the potato had become a staple by 1800. The Irish population doubled to
eight million between 1780 and 1841,this without any significant expansion of industry or
reform of agricultural techniques beyond the widespread cultivation of the potato. Though
Irish landholding practices were primitive in comparison with those of England, the potato’s
high yields allowed even the poorest farmers to produce more healthy food than they
needed with scarcely any investment or hard labor. Even children could easily plant, harvest
and cook potatoes, which of course required no threshing, curing or grinding. The
abundance provided by potatoes greatly decreased infant mortality and encouraged early
marriage.

SECTION 1: QUESTIONS 1-13


Questions 1-5
Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer in Reading Passage 1?

In boxes 1-5 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

1. The early Spanish called potato as the Incan name ‘Chuchu’

2. The purposes of Spanish coming to Peru were to find out potatoes

3. The Spanish believed that the potato has the same nutrients as other vegetables

4. Peasants at that time did not like to eat potatoes because they were ugly

5. The popularity of potatoes in the UK was due to food shortages during the war

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Questions 6-13
Complete the sentences below with NO MORE THAN ONE WORD from the passage 1 for
each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 6-13 on your answer sheet.

In France, people started to overcome their disgusting about potatoes because the King put
a potato 6____________in his button hole.

Frederick realized the potential of potato but he had to handle the 7____________against
potatoes from ordinary people.
The King of Prussia adopted some 8____________psychology to make people accept
potatoes.
Before 1800, the English people preferred eating 9____________with bread, butter and
cheese.
The obvious way to deal with England food problems were high yielding potato 10________
The Irish 11____________and climate suited potatoes well.
Between 1780 and 1841, based on the 12____________of the potatoes, the Irish population
doubled to eight million.
The potato’s high yields help the poorest farmers to produce more healthy food almost
without 13____________

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READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based on Reading
Passage 2 below.

Life-Casting and Art


Julian Bames explores the questions posed by Life-Casts, an exhibition of plaster moulds of
living people and objects which were originally used for scientific purposes

A Art changes over time and our idea of what art is changes too. For example, objects
originally intended for devotional, ritualistic or re-creational purposes may be recategorised
as art by members of other later civilisations, such as our own, which no longer respond to
these purposes.

B What also happens is that techniques and crafts which would have been judged inartistic
at the time they were used are reassessed. Life-casting is an interesting example of this. It
involved making a plaster mould of a living person or thing. This was complex, technical
work, as Benjamin Robert Haydon discovered when he poured 250 litres of plaster over his
human model and nearly killed him. At the time, the casts were used for medical research
and, consequently, in the nineteenth century life-casting was considered inferior to
sculpture in the same way that, more recently, photography was thought to be a lesser art
than painting. Both were viewed as unacceptable shortcuts by the ’senior 1 arts. Their
virtues of speed and unwavering realism also implied their limitations; they left little or no
room for the imagination.

C For many, life-casting was an insult to the sculptor’s creative genius. In an infamous
lawsuit of 1834, a moulder whose mask of the dying French emperor Napoleon had been
reproduced and sold without his permission was judged to have no rights to the image. In
other words, he was specifically held not to be an artist. This judgement reflect the view of

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established members of the nineteenth-century art world such as Rodin, who commented
that life-casting ‘happens fast but it doesn’t make Art’. Some even feared that ‘if too much
nature was allowed in, it would lead Art away from its proper course of the Ideal.

D The painter Gauguin, at the end of the nineteenth century, worried about future
developments in photography. If ever the process went into colour, what painter would
labour away at a likeness with a brush made from squirrel-tail? But painting has proved
robust. Photography has changed it, of course, just as the novel had to reassess narrative
after the arrival of the cinema. But the gap between the senior and junior arts was always
narrower than the traditionalists implied. Painters have always used technical back-up such
as studio assistants to do the boring bits, while apparently lesser crafts involve great skill,
thought, preparation and, depending on how we define it, imagination.

E Time changes our view in another way, too. Each new movement implies a reassessment
of what has gone before. What is done now alters what was done before. In some cases this
is merely self-serving, with the new art using the old to justify itself. It seems to be saying,
look at how all of that points to this! Aren’t we clever to be the culmination of all that has
gone before? But usually it is a matter of re-alerting the sensibility, reminding us not to take
things for granted. Take, for example, the cast of the hand of a giant from a circus, made by
an anonymous artist around 1889, an item that would now sit happily in any commercial or
public gallery. The most significant impact of this piece is on the eye, in the contradiction
between unexpected size and verisimilitude. Next, the human element kicks in. you note
that the nails are dirt-encrusted, unless this is the caster’s decorative addition, and the
fingertips extend far beyond them. Then you take in the element of choice, arrangement,
art if you like, in the neat, pleated, buttoned sleeve-end that gives the item balance and
variation of texture. This is just a moulded hand, yet the part stands utterly for the whole. It
reminds us slyly, poignantly, of the full-size original

F But is it art? And, if so, why? These are old tediously repeated questions to which artists
have often responded, ‘It is art because I am an artist and therefore what I do is art.
However, what doesn’t work for literature works much better for art – works of art do float
free of their creators’ intentions. Over time the “reader” does become more powerful. Few
of us can look at a medieval altarpiece as its painter intended. We believe too little and
aesthetically know too much, so we recreate and find new fields of pleasure in the work.
Equally, the lack of artistic intention of Paul Richer and other forgotten craftsmen who
brushed oil onto flesh, who moulded, cast and decorated in the nineteenth century is now
irrelevant. What counts is the surviving object and our response to it. The tests are simple:
does it interest the eye, excite the brain, move the mind to reflection and involve the heart.
It may, to use the old dichotomy, be beautiful but it is rarely true to any significant depth.
One of the constant pleasures of art is its ability to come at us from an unexpected angle
and stop us short in wonder.

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SECTION 2: QUESTIONS 14-26


Questions 14-18
Reading Passage 2 has six paragraphs, A-F.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the correct letter, A-F, in boxes 14-18 on your answer sheet.

14. an example of a craftsman’s unsuccessful claim to ownership of his work

15. an example of how trends in art can change attitudes to an earlier work

16. the original function of a particular type of art

17. ways of assessing whether or not an object is art

18. how artists deal with the less interesting aspects of their work

Questions 19-24
Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading Passage 2?

In boxes 19-24 on your answer sheet, write

YES if the statement agrees with the views of the writer

NO if the statement contradicts the views of the writer

NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

19. Nineteenth-century sculptors admired the speed and realism of life-casting

20. Rodin believed the quality of the life-casting would improve if a slower process were
used

21. The importance of painting has decreased with the development of colour photography

22. Life-casting requires more skill than sculpture does

23. New art encourages us to look at earlier work in a fresh way

24. The intended meaning of a work of art can get lost over time

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Questions 25-26
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write the correct letter in boxes 25-26 on your answer sheet.

25. The most noticeable contrast in the cast of the giants hand is between the

a. dirt and decoration


b. size and realism
c. choice and arrangement
d. balance and texture

26. According to the writer, the importance of any artistic object lies in

a. the artist’s intentions


b. the artist’s beliefs
c. the relevance it has to modem life
d. the way we respond to it

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READING PASSAGE 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based on Reading
Passage 3 below.

Honey bees in trouble


Can native pollinators fill the gap?

A Recently, ominous headlines have described a mysterious ailment, colony collapse


disorder(CCD),that is wiping out the honeybees that pollinate many crops. Without
honeybees, the story goes, fields will be sterile, economies will collapse, and food will be
scarce.

B But what few accounts acknowledge is that what’s at risk is not itself a natural state of
affairs. For one thing, in the United States, where CCD was first reported and has had its
greatest impacts, honeybees are not a native species. Pollination in modem agriculture isn’t
alchemy, it’s industry. The total number of hives involved in the U.S. pollination industry has
been somewhere between 2.5 million and 3 million in recent years. Meanwhile, American
farmers began using large quantities of organophosphate insecticides, planted large-scale
crop monocultures, and adopted “clean farming” practices that scrubbed native vegetation
from field margins and roadsides. These practices killed many native bees outright—they’re
as vulnerable to insecticides as any agricultural pest—and made the agricultural landscape
inhospitable to those that remained. Concern about these practices and their effects on
pollinators isn’t new—in her 1962 ecological alarm cry Silent Spring, Rachel Carson warned
of a ‘Fruitless Fall’ that could result from the disappearance of insect pollinators.

C If that ‘Fruitless Fall, has not—yet—occurred, it may be largely thanks to the honeybee,
which farmers turned to as the ability of wild pollinators to service crops declined. The

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honeybee has been semi-domesticated since the time of the ancient Egyptians, but it wasn’t
just familiarity that determined this choice: the bees’ biology is in many ways suited to the
kind of agricultural system that was emerging. For example, honeybee hives can be closed
up and moved out of the way when pesticides are applied to a field. The bees are generalist
pollinators, so they can be used to pollinate many different crops. And although they are
not the most efficient pollinator of every crop, honeybees have strength in numbers, with
20,000 to 100,000 bees living in a single hive. “Without a doubt, if there was one bee you
wanted for agriculture, it would be the honeybee, “says Jim Cane, of the U.S. Department of
Agriculture. The honeybee, in other words, has become a crucial cog in the modem system
of industrial agriculture. That system delivers more food, and more kinds of it, to more
places, more cheaply than ever before. But that system is also vulnerable, because making a
farm field into the photosynthetic equivalent of a factory floor, and pollination into a series
of continent-long assembly lines, also leaches out some of the resilience characteristic of
natural ecosystems.

D Breno Freitas, an agronomist, pointed out that in nature such a high degree of
specialization usually is a very dangerous game: it works well while all the rest is in
equilibrium, but runs quickly to extinction at the least disbalance. In effect, by developing an
agricultural system that is heavily reliant on a single pollinator species, we humans have
become riskily overspecialized. And when the human-honeybee relationship is disrupted, as
it has been by colony collapse disorder, the vulnerability of that agricultural system begins
to become clear.

E In fact, a few wild bees are already being successfully managed for crop pollination. “The
problem is trying to provide native bees in adequate numbers on a reliable basis in a fairly
short number of years in order to service the crop,” Jim Cane says. “You’re talking millions
of flowers per acre in a two-to three-week time frame, or less, for a lot of crops.” On the
other hand, native bees can be much more efficient pollinators of certain crops than
honeybees, so you don’t need as many to do the job. For example, about 750 blue orchard
bees (Osmia lignaria) can pollinate a hectare of apples or almonds, a task that would require
roughly 50,000 to 150,000 honeybees. There are bee tinkerers engaged in similar work in
many comers of the world. In Brazil, Breno Freitas has found that Centris tarsata, the native
pollinator of wild cashew, can survive in commercial cashew orchards if growers provide a
source of floral oils, such as by interplanting their cashew trees with Caribbean cherry.

F In certain places, native bees may already be doing more than they’re getting credit for.
Ecologist Rachael Winfree recently led a team that looked at pollination of four summer
crops (tomato, watermelon, peppers, and muskmelon) at 29 farms in the region of New
Jersey and Pennsylvania. Winfiree’s team identified 54 species of wild bees that visited
these crops, and found that wild bees were the most important pollinators in the system:
even though managed honeybees were present on many of the farms, wild bees were
responsible for 62 percent of flower visits in the study. In another study focusing specifically

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on watermelon, Winfree and her colleagues calculated that native bees alone could provide
sufficient pollination at 90 percent of the 23 farms studied. By contrast, honeybees alone
could provide sufficient pollination at only 78 percent of farms.

G “The region I work in is not typical of the way most food is produced,” Winfree admits.
In the Delaware Valley, most farms and farm fields are relatively small, each fanner typically
grows a variety of crops, and farms are interspersed with suburbs and other types of land
use which means there are opportunities for homeowners to get involved in bee
conservation, too. The landscape is a bee-friendly patchwork that provides a variety of
nesting habitat and floral resources distributed among different kinds of crops, weedy field
margins, fallow fields, suburban neighborhoods, and semi natural habitat like old woodlots,
all at a relatively small scale. In other words, ’’pollinator-friendly” farming practices would
not only aid pollination of agricultural crops, but also serve as a key element in the over all
conservation strategy for wild pollinators, and often aid other wild species as well.

H Of course, not all farmers will be able to implement all of these practices. And researchers
are suggesting a shift to a kind of polyglot agricultural system. For some small-scale farms,
native bees may indeed be all that’s needed. For larger operations, a suite of managed
bees—with honeybees filling the generalist role and other, native bees pollinating specific
crops—could be augmented by free pollination services from resurgent wild pollinators. In
other words, they’re saying, we still have an opportunity to replace a risky monoculture with
something diverse, resilient, and robust.

SECTION 3: QUESTIONS 27-40


Questions 27-30
Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading Passage?

In boxes 27-30 on your answer sheet, write

YES if the statement agrees with the views of the writer

NO if the statement contradicts the views of the writer

NOT if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about


GIVEN this

27. In the United States, farmers use honeybees in a large scale over the past few years

28. Cleaning farming practices would be harmful to farmers’

29. The blue orchard bee is the most efficient pollinator among native bees for every crop

30. It is beneficial to other local creatures to protect native bees

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Questions 31-35
Choose the correct letter, A,B,C or D.

Write your answers in boxes 31-35 on your answer sheet.

31. The example of the ‘Fruitless Fair underlines the writer’s point about

a. needs for using pesticides.


b. impacts of losing insect pollinators.
c. vulnerabilities of native bees.
d. benefits in building more pollination industries.

32. Why can honeybees adapt to the modem agricultural system?

a. the honeybees can pollinated more crops efficiently


b. The bees are semi-domesticated since ancient times.
c. Honeybee hives can be protected away from pesticides.
d. The ability of wild pollinators using to serve crops declines.

33. The writer mentions factories and assembly lines to illustrate

a. one drawback of the industrialised agricultural system.


b. a low cost in modem agriculture.
c. the role of honeybees in pollination.
d. what a high yield of industrial agriculture.

34. In the 6th paragraph,Wlnfree’s experiment proves that

a. honeybee can pollinate various crops.


b. there are many types of wild bees as the pollinators.
c. the wild bees can increase the yield to a higher percentage
d. wild bees work more efficiently as a pollinator than honey bees in certain cases

35. What does the writer want to suggest in the last paragraph?

a. the importance of honey bees in pollination


b. adoption of different bees in various sizes of agricultural system
c. the comparison between the intensive and the rarefied agricultural system
d. the reason why farmers can rely on native pollinators

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Questions 36-40
Complete each sentence with the correct ending, A-F, below.

Write the correct letter, A-F, in boxes 36-40 on your answer sheet

36. Headline of colony collapse disorder states that

37. Viewpoints of Freitas manifest that

38. Examples of blue orchard bees have shown that

39. Centris tarsata is mentioned to exemplify that

40. One finding of the research in Delaware Valley is that

A native pollinators can survive when a specific plant is supplied.

B it would cause severe consequences both to commerce and


agriculture.

C honey bees cannot be bred.

D some agricultural landscapes are favorable in supporting wild bees.

E a large scale of honey bees are needed to pollinate.

F an agricultural system is fragile when relying on a single pollinator

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TEST 23

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LISTENING
SECTION 1 : QUESTIONS 1-10
Questions 1-6
Complete the form below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Moving Company Service Report


Example Answer

Full Name: Jane Bond

Phone Number: 1_____________

USA Address: 509 (2)_____________

1137 (3)_____________, Seattle

Packing Day: 4_____________

Date: 11th March

Clean-up by: 5:00 p.m.

Day: 5_____________14th

About the Price: Rather expensive

Storage Time: 6_____________

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Questions 7-10
Where does the speaker decide to put items in?

Write the correct letter, A, B, or C, next to questions 7-10.

A in emergency pack

B in personal package

C in storage with the furniture

Items
7. cutlery and dishes

8. kettle

9. alarm clock

10. CD player

SECTION 2 : QUESTIONS 11-20


Questions 11-16
Complete the table below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

ANNUAL WULLABALLOO CONFERENCE

TIME CONTENT LOCATION

9:00 a.m. Title of the Main Hall


lecture: 11_____________

Lecturer: John Smith from


the 12_____________

Garden Room on the


10:30 a.m. Presentation of papers
ground floor

11:15 a.m. Coffee break Main Hall

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Sea View Restaurant on


the 13_____________
1:00 p.m. Lunch
The lift on
the 14_____________

2:00 p.m. Presentation of further papers Ballroom

15_____ p.m. Afternoon tea Ballroom

5:00 p.m. Conference will be finished Main Hall

5:10-6:10 p.m. Informal reception 16_____________

Questions 17-20
Choose the correct letter, A, B, or C.

17. Tickets are available

a. only at the reception desk.


b. tomorrow evening.
c. at any time before the reception.

18. The delegates will be charged........

a. $6.50
b. $15.00
c. $25.00

19. The restaurant is famous for

a. steak.
b. fish.
c. barbecue.

20. The trip on Sunday costs

a. $35 in total.
b. $35 plus entrance fees.
c. $35 plus lunch.

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SECTION 3 : QUESTIONS 21-30


Questions 21-26
Choose the correct letter, A, B, or C.

GENERAL COURSE DETAILS


21. What is the defining characteristic of a specialised course?

a. Taking a proficiency exam


b. Attending the class frequently
c. Compulsory and regular

22. The Microbiology courses are available for

a. full-time and flexible-time students.


b. Microbiology students only.
c. students on a flexible schedule.

23. The Biology courses are available for

a. all students.
b. full-time students only.
c. freshmen only.

24. Who are interested in Microbiology courses?

a. People who need work experience


b. People from off-campus
c. People who work at hospital

25. A Medical Science course will be opened next year because

a. there are no experimental facilities.


b. the lab equipment is too expensive.
c. the building is damaged.

26. Which is the quickest increasing subject in enrolment?

a. Medical Science
b. Statistics
c. Environmental Science

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Questions 27-29
Choose THREE letters, A-G, and write each next to questions 27-29.

Which THREE compulsory courses must be taken?

a. Medical Science
b. Computing
c. Mathematics
d. Laboratory Techniques
e. Statistics
f. Medicine
g. Environmental Science

Question 30
Complete the sentence below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for the answer.

There are three full scholarships that cover tuition and provide $1,500 cash as a 30________

SECTION 4 : QUESTIONS 31-40


Questions 31-37
Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

How to Choose Flooring Materials

Source
There are some man-made materials like 31__________

Before being used, material undergoes 32__________

Wood should be cut and 33__________

Stone should be cut and 34__________

Selection

Aside from environmental factors, one should take 35__________into

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account during construction.

Some properties of materials affect mood, such as 36__________, texture,


and colour.

Use a mathematical formula to choose the type of wood,


because 37__________are subjective, which are ambiguous in verbal
description.

Questions 38-40
Complete the table below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

MATERIAL REFLECTANCE RATE

Polished silver Almost 1.0

White-painted plastic Approximately 38__________

Quarry tile Approximately 39__________

40__________ Almost 0.0

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READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on Reading Passage
1 below.

William Gilbert and Magnetism


A

The 16th and 17th centuries saw two great pioneers of modern science: Galileo and Gilbert.
The impact of their findings is eminent. Gilbert was the first modern scientist, also the
accredited father of the science of electricity and magnetism, an Englishman of learning and
a physician at the court of Elizabeth. Prior to him, all that was known of electricity and
magnetism was what the ancients knew, nothing more than that the lodestone possessed
magnetic properties and that amber and jet, when rubbed, would attract bits of paper or
other substances of small specific gravity. However, he is less well known than he deserves.

Gilbert’s birth pre-dated Galileo. Born in an eminent local family in Colchester County in the
UK, on May 24, 1544, he went to grammar school, and then studied medicine at St John’s
College, Cambridge, graduating in 1573. Later he travelled in the continent and eventually
settled down in London.

He was a very successful and eminent doctor. All this culminated in his election to the
president of the Royal Science Society. He was also appointed personal physician to the
Queen (Elizabeth I), and later knighted by the Queen. He faithfully served her until her

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death. However, he didn’t outlive the Queen for long and died on November 30, 1603, only
a few months after his appointment as personal physician to King James.

Gilbert was first interested in chemistry but later changed his focus due to the large portion
of mysticism of alchemy involved (such as the transmutation of metal). He gradually
developed his interest in physics after the great minds of the ancient, particularly about the
knowledge the ancient Greeks had about lodestones, strange minerals with the power to
attract iron. In the meantime, Britain became a major seafaring nation in 1588 when the
Spanish Armada was defeated, opening the way to British settlement of America. British
ships depended on the magnetic compass, yet no one understood why it worked. Did the
Pole Star attract it, as Columbus once speculated; or was there a magnetic mountain at the
pole, as described in Odyssey, which ships would never approach, because the sailors
thought its pull would yank out all their iron nails and fittings? For nearly 20 years, William
Gilbert conducted ingenious experiments to understand magnetism. His works include On
the Magnet, Magnetic Bodies, and the Great Magnet of the Earth.

Gilbert’s discovery was so important to modern physics. He investigated the nature of


magnetism and electricity. He even coined the word “electric”. Though the early beliefs of
magnetism were also largely entangled with superstitions such as that rubbing garlic on
lodestone can neutralise its magnetism, one example being that sailors even believed the
smell of garlic would even interfere with the action of compass, which is why helmsmen
were forbidden to eat it near a ship’s compass. Gilbert also found that metals can be
magnetised by rubbing materials such as fur, plastic or the like on them. He named the ends
of a magnet “north pole” and “south pole”. The magnetic poles can attract or repel,
depending on polarity. In addition, however, ordinary iron is always attracted to a magnet.
Though he started to study the relationship between magnetism and electricity, sadly he
didn’t complete it. His research of static electricity using amber and jet only demonstrated
that objects with electrical charges can work like magnets attracting small pieces of paper
and stuff. It is a French guy named du Fay that discovered that there are actually two
electrical charges, positive and negative.

He also questioned the traditional astronomical beliefs. Though a Copernican, he didn’t


express in his quintessential beliefs whether the earth is at the centre of the universe or in
orbit around the sun. However, he believed that stars are not equidistant from the earth but
have their own earth-like planets orbiting around them. The earth itself is like a giant
magnet, which is also why compasses always point north. They spin on an axis that is
aligned with the earth’s polarity. He even likened the polarity of the magnet to the polarity

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of the earth and built an entire magnetic philosophy on this analogy. In his explanation,
magnetism is the soul of the earth. Thus a perfectly spherical lodestone, when aligned with
the earth’s poles, would wobble all by itself in 24 hours. Further, he also believed that the
sun and other stars wobble just like the earth does around a crystal core, and speculated
that the moon might also be a magnet caused to orbit by its magnetic attraction to the
earth. This was perhaps the first proposal that a force might cause a heavenly orbit.

His research method was revolutionary in that he used experiments rather than pure logic
and reasoning like the ancient Greek philosophers did. It was a new attitude towards
scientific investigation. Until then, scientific experiments were not in fashion. It was because
of this scientific attitude, together with his contribution to our knowledge of magnetism,
that a unit of magneto motive force, also known as magnetic potential, was named Gilbert
in his honour. His approach of careful observation and experimentation rather than the
authoritative opinion or deductive philosophy of others had laid the very foundation for
modern science.

SECTION 1: QUESTIONS 1-13


Questions 1-7
Reading Passage 1 has seven paragraphs A-G.

Choose the correct heading for each paragraph from the list of headings below.

Write the correct number i-x in boxes 1-7 on your answer sheet.

List of headings

i Early years of Gilbert vi Professional and social recognition

ii What was new about his scientific research method


vii Becoming the president of the Royal Science Society

iii The development of chemistry viii The great works of Gilbert

iv Questioning traditional astronomy ix His discovery about magnetism

v Pioneers of the early science x His change of focus

1. Paragraph A 4. Paragraph D 7. Paragraph G

2. Paragraph B 5. Paragraph E

3. Paragraph C 6. Paragraph F

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Questions 8-10
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1?

In boxes 8-10 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

8. He is less famous than he should be.

9. He was famous as a doctor before he was employed by the Queen.

10. He lost faith in the medical theories of his time.

Questions 11-13
Choose THREE letters A-F.

Write your answers in boxes 11-13 on your answer sheet.

Which THREE of the following are parts of Gilbert’s discovery?

a. Metal can be transformed into another.


b. Garlic can remove magnetism,
c. Metals can be magnetised.
d. Stars are at different distances from the earth.
e. The earth wobbles on its axis.
f. There are two charges of electricity.

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READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based on Reading
Passage 2 below.

The 2003 Heatwave


It was the summer, scientists now realise, when global warming at last made itself
unmistakably felt. We knew that summer 2003 was remarkable: Britain experienced its
record high temperature and continental Europe saw forest fires raging out of control, great
rivers drying to a trickle and thousands of heat-related deaths. But just how remarkable is
only now becoming clear.

The three months of June, July and August were the warmest ever recorded in western and
central Europe, with record national highs in Portugal, Germany and Switzerland as well as
in Britain. And they were the warmest by a very long way. Over a great rectangular block of
the earth stretching from west of Paris to northern Italy, taking in Switzerland and southern
Germany, the average temperature for the summer months was 3.78°C above the long-term
norm, said the Climatic Research Unit (CRU) of the University of East Anglia in Norwich,
which is one of the world's leading institutions for the monitoring and analysis of
temperature records.

That excess might not seem a lot until you are aware of the context - but then you realise it
is enormous. There is nothing like this in previous data, anywhere. It is considered so
exceptional that Professor Phil Jones, the CRU's director, is prepared to say openly - in a way
few scientists have done before - that the 2003 extreme may be directly attributed, not to
natural climate variability, but to global warming caused by human actions.

Meteorologists have hitherto contented themselves with the formula that recent high
temperatures are “consistent with predictions” of climate change. For the great block of the
map - that stretching between 35-50N and 0-20E - the CRU has reliable temperature records

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dating back to 1781. Using as a baseline the average summer temperature recorded
between 1961 and 1990, departures from the temperature norm, or “anomalies”, over the
area as a whole can easily be plotted. As the graph shows, such is the variability of our
climate that over the past 200 years, there have been at least half a dozen anomalies, in
terms of excess temperature - the peaks on the graph denoting very hot years -
approaching, or even exceeding, 2°C. But there has been nothing remotely like 2003, when
the anomaly is nearly four degrees.

“This is quite remarkable,’ Professor Jones told The Independent. “It’s very unusual in a
statistical sense. If this series had a normal statistical distribution, you wouldn’t get this
number. The return period [how often it could be expected to recur] would be something
like one in a thousand years. If we look at an excess above the average of nearly four
degrees, then perhaps nearly three degrees of that is natural variability, because we’ve seen
that in past summers. But the final degree of it is likely to be due to global warming, caused
by human actions.”

The summer of 2003 has, in a sense, been one that climate scientists have long been
expecting. Until now, the warming has been manifesting itself mainly in winters that have
been less cold than in summers that have been much hotter. Last week, the United Nations
predicted that winters were warming so quickly that winter sports would die out in Europe’s
lower-level ski resorts. But sooner or later, the unprecedented hot summer was bound to
come, and this year it did.

One of the most dramatic features of the summer was the hot nights, especially in the first
half of August. In Paris, the temperature never dropped below 23°C (73.4°F) at all between 7
and 14 August, and the city recorded its warmest-ever night on 11-12 August, when the
mercury did not drop below 25.5°C (77.9°F). Germany recorded its warmest-ever night at
Weinbiet in the Rhine Valley with a lowest figure of 27.6°C (80.6°F) on 13 August, and
similar record-breaking nighttime temperatures were recorded in Switzerland and Italy.

The 15,000 excess deaths in France during August, compared with previous years, have
been related to the high night-time temperatures. The number gradually increased during
the first 12 days of the month, peaking at about 2,000 per day on the night of 12-13 August,
then fell off dramatically after 14 August when the minimum temperatures fell by about
5°C. The elderly were most affected, with a 70 per cent increase in mortality rate in those
aged 75-94.

For Britain, the year as a whole is likely to be the warmest ever recorded, but despite the
high temperature record on 10 August, the summer itself - defined as the June, July and
August period - still comes behind 1976 and 1995, when there were longer periods of
intense heat. “At the moment, the year is on course to be the third hottest ever in the
global temperature record, which goes back to 1856, behind 1998 and 2002, but when all
the records for October, November and December are collated, it might move into second

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place/' Professor Jones said. The ten hottest years in the record have all now occurred since
1990. Professor Jones is in no doubt about the astonishing nature of European summer of
2003. “The temperatures recorded were out of all proportion to the previous record," he
said.

“It was the warmest summer in the past 500 years and probably way beyond that. It was
enormously exceptional."

His colleagues at the University of East Anglia's Tyndall Centre for Climate Change Research
are now planning a special study of it. “It was a summer that has not been experienced
before, either in terms of the temperature extremes that were reached, or the range and
diversity of the impacts of the extreme heat," said the centre's executive director, Professor
Mike Hulme.

“It will certainly have left its mark on a number of countries, as to how they think and plan
for climate change in the future, much as the 2000 floods have revolutionised the way the
Government is thinking about flooding in the UK. The 2003 heatwave will have similar
repercussions across Europe."

SECTION 2: QUESTIONS 14-26


Questions 14-19
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 2? In
boxes 14-19 on your answer sheet write

YES if the statement agrees with the views of the writer

NO if the statement contradicts the views of the writer

NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks


about this

14. The average summer temperature in 2003 is almost 4 degrees higher than the average
temperature of the past.

15. Global warming is caused by human activities.

16. Jones believes the temperature variation is within the normal range.

17. The temperature is measured twice a day in major cities.

18. There were milder winters rather than hotter summers.

19. Governments are building new high-altitude ski resorts.

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Questions 20-21
Answer the questions below using NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each
answer.Write your answers in boxes 20-21 on your answer sheet.

What are the other two hottest years in Britain besides 2003?

20________________________________

What will also influence government policies in the future like the hot summer in 2003?

21________________________________

Questions 22-25
Complete the summary below using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for
each answer. Write your answers in boxes 22-25 on your answer sheet.

The other two hottest years around the globe were 22____________

The ten hottest years on record all come after the year 23____________

This temperature data has been gathered since 24____________

Thousands of people died in the country of 25____________

Question 26
Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D.

Write your answer in box 26 on your answer sheet.

26. Which one of the following can be best used as the title of this passage?

a. Global Warming
b. What Caused Global Warming
c. The Effects of Global Warming
d. That Hot Year in Europe

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READING PASSAGE 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based on Reading
Passage 3 below.

Amateur Naturalists
From the results of an annual Alaskan betting contest to sightings of migratory birds,
ecologists are using a wealth of unusual data to predict the impact of climate change.

A Tim Sparks slides a small leather-bound notebook out of an envelope. The book's
yellowing pages contain bee-keeping notes made between 1941 and 1969 by the late
Walter Coates of Kilworth, Leicestershire. He adds it to his growing pile of local journals,
birdwatchers' lists and gardening diaries. "We're uncovering about one major new record
each month," he says, "I still get surprised." Around two centuries before Coates, Robert
Marsham, a landowner from Norfolk in the east of England, began recording the life cycles
of plants and animals on his estate - when the first wood anemones flowered, the dates on
which the oaks burst into leaf and the rooks began nesting. Successive Marshams continued
compiling these notes for 211 years.

B Today, such records are being put to uses that their authors could not possibly have
expected. These data sets, and others like them, are proving invaluable to ecologists
interested in the timing of biological events, or phenology. By combining the records with
climate data, researchers can reveal how, for example, changes in temperature affect the
arrival of spring, allowing ecologists to make improved predictions about the impact of
climate change. A small band of researchers is combing through hundreds of years of
records taken by thousands of amateur naturalists. And more systematic projects have also
started up, producing an overwhelming response. "The amount of interest is almost
frightening," says Sparks, a climate researcher at the Centre for Ecology and Hydrology in
Monks Wood, Cambridgeshire.

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C Sparks first became aware of the army of "closet phenologists”, as he describes them,
when a retiring colleague gave him the Marsham records. He now spends much of his time
following leads from one historical data set to another. As news of his quest spreads, people
tip him off to other historical records, and more amateur phenologists come out of their
closets. The British devotion to recording and collecting makes his job easier - one man from
Kent sent him 30 years' worth of kitchen calendars, on which he had noted the date that his
neighbour's magnolia tree flowered.

D Other researchers have unearthed data from equally odd sources. Rafe Sagarin, an
ecologist at Stanford University in California, recently studied records of a betting contest in
which participants attempt to guess the exact time at which a specially erected wooden
tripod will fall through the surface of a thawing river. The competition has taken place
annually on the Tenana River in Alaska since 1917, and analysis of the results showed that
the thaw now arrives five days earlier than it did when the contest began.

E Overall, such records have helped to show that, compared with 20 years ago, a raft of
natural events now occur earlier across much of the northern hemisphere, from the opening
of leaves to the return of birds from migration and the emergence of butterflies from
hibernation. The data can also hint at how nature will change in the future. Together with
models of climate change, amateurs' records could help guide conservation. Terry Root, an
ecologist at the University of Michigan in Ann Arbor, has collected birdwatchers' counts of
wildfowl taken between 1955 and 1996 on seasonal ponds in the American Midwest and
combined them with climate data and models of future warming. Her analysis shows that
the increased droughts that the models predict could halve the breeding populations at the
ponds. "The number of waterfowl in North America will most probably drop significantly
with global warming," she says.

F But not all professionals are happy to use amateur data. "A lot of scientists won't touch
them, they say they're too full of problems," says Root. Because different observers can
have different ideas of what constitutes, for example, an open snowdrop. "The biggest
concern with ad hoc observations is how carefully and systematically they were taken," says
Mark Schwartz of the University of Wisconsin, Milwaukee, who studies the interactions
between plants and climate. "We need to know pretty precisely what a person's been
observing - if they just say 'I noted when the leaves came out', it might not be that useful."
Measuring the onset of autumn can be particularly problematic because deciding when
leaves change colour is a more subjective process than noting when they appear.

G Overall, most phenologists are positive about the contribution that amateurs can make.
"They get at the raw power of science: careful observation of the natural world," says
Sagarin. But the professionals also acknowledge the need for careful quality control. Root,
for example, tries to gauge the quality of an amateur archive by interviewing its collector.
"You always have to worry - things as trivial as vacations can affect measurement. I
disregard a lot of records because they're not rigorous enough," she says. Others suggest

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that the right statistics can iron out some of the problems with amateur data. Together with
colleagues at Wageningen University in the Netherlands, environmental scientist Arnold van
Vliet is developing statistical techniques to account for the uncertainty in amateur
phenological data. With the enthusiasm of amateur phenologists evident from past records,
professional researchers are now trying to create standardised recording schemes for future
efforts. They hope that well-designed studies will generate a volume of observations large
enough to drown out the idiosyncrasies of individual recorders. The data are cheap to
collect, and can provide breadth in space, time and range of species. "It's very difficult to
collect data on a large geographical scale without enlisting an army of observers," says Root.

H Phenology also helps to drive home messages about climate change. "Because the public
understand these records, they accept them," says Sparks.
It can also illustrate potentially unpleasant consequences, he adds, such as the finding that
more rat infestations are reported to local councils in warmer years. And getting people
involved is great for public relations. "People are thrilled to think that the data they've been
collecting as a hobby can be used for something scientific - it empowers them," says Root.

SECTION 3: QUESTIONS 27-40


Questions 27-33
Reading Passage 3 has eight paragraphs A-H.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the correct letter A-H in boxes 27-33 on your answer sheet.

27. The definition of phenology

28. How Sparks first became aware of amateur records

29. How people reacted to their involvement in data collection

30. The necessity to encourage amateur data collection

31. A description of using amateur records to make predictions

32. Records of a competition providing clues to climate change

33. A description of a very old record compiled by generations of amateur naturalists

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Questions 34-36
Complete the sentences below with NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for
each answer. Write your answers in boxes 34-36 on your answer sheet.

Walter Coates’s records largely contain the information of 34__________

Robert Marsham is famous for recording the 35__________of animals and plants on his
land.

According to some phenologists, global warming may cause the number of waterfowl in
North America to drop significantly due to increased 36__________

Questions 37-40
Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D.

Write your answers in boxes 37-40 on your answer sheet.

37. Why do a lot of scientists discredit the data collected by amateurs?

a. Scientific methods were not used in data collection.


b. Amateur observers are not careful in recording their data.
c. Amateur data is not reliable.
d. Amateur data is produced by wrong candidates.

38. Mark Schwartz used the example of leaves to illustrate that

a. amateur records can’t be used.


b. amateur records are always unsystematic.
c. the colour change of leaves is hard to observe.
d. valuable information is often precise.

39. How do the scientists suggest amateur data should be used?

a. Using improved methods


b. Being more careful in observation
c. Using raw materials
d. Applying statistical techniques in data collection

40. What’s the implication of phenology for ordinary people?

a. It empowers the public.


b. It promotes public relations.
c. It warns people of animal infestation.
d. It raises awareness about climate change in the public.

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TEST 24

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LISTENING
SECTION 1 : QUESTIONS 1-10
Questions 1-3
Complete the notes below write ONE WORD only for each answer.

NOTES OF CUSTOMER INFORMATION


example answer

information source : found in the brochure

Included services 1_______________and accommodation

Sydney arrival date: 15th of 2_______________

Accommodation criteria: 3_______________

Questions 4-6
Complete the form below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

BOOKING INFORMATION

Room type: 4_______________

Credit card holder: 5_______________

Total cost for one night: 6_______________

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Questions 7-10
Complete the sentence below.

Write no more than TWO words for answer.

The 7_______________is within walking distance of the accommodation

The customer books 8_______________

Aboriginals stone carvings are in the 9_______________

The Dreamtime can be experienced beneath the 10_______________

SECTION 2 : QUESTIONS 11-20


Questions 11-15
Complete the Notes Below

Write NO MORE THAN 2 WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer

Public Service broadcast


Volunteer workers must be at least 11_______________years old

Job applicants should not have 12_______________

Job applicants are asked to


submit 13_______________and 14_______________

The employer will pay the expenses of 15_______________and phone calls.

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Questions 16-20
Complete the table below

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer

Requirement for
People need help Duties volunteers Service Time

- Excellent health

Wheelchair users Drive - must own a First Aid 17_______________


clients certificate from
to scenic the 16_______________
locations

- Read English clearly

The blind Read - No 18_____________is an


books to advantage
Monday mornings
blind
people

- have knowledge of basic


first aid
19_______________ Take 1 week in August
care of - good health
them on
- can elevate to a maximum
holiday
of 20_____________

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SECTION 3 : QUESTIONS 21-30


Questions 21-30
Complete the notes below

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer

Environmental change Discussion


Agricultural work is having an 21____________effect on the environment.

Too much farming operation has caused a serious problem, which is


called 22____________

Many places now seem to look like desert rather than 23____________.

One proof the article had pointed out to show that things can hardly grow in
some areas is the 24____________

The relation between the number of farmers and the acreage of woodland
is 25____________

One reason for plants cannot grow is that the earth contains too
much 26____________

Researchers have carried out a test to show the 27____________of the


solution.

The possible range of salinity to grow plants is 28____________

The 29____________in Dr.Horst's books are useful and worth studying.

The student needs a 30____________to do his presentation

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SECTION 4 : QUESTIONS 31-40


Questions 31-35
Complete the sentences below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.


Bees that help with pollination benefit flowers and 31____________

Bees produce wax that can be made into candles and 32____________

Dragonflies primarily eat 33____________

Insects in summer can be harmful because they can carry such deadly diseases as
malaria, 34____________and sleeping sickness

Harmful insects may destroy crops, clothes, furniture, and even the 35____________

Questions 36-40
Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

How to kill bad Insects


Chemical Method

These solutions to insect problems are often not worthwhile because:

a) They are effective on a 36____________

b) They Can bring harm to 37____________

c) Insects become 38____________to the chemicals quickly.

Biological methods

These Methods are 39____________than chemical methods of eliminating


harmful insects.

Breeding control method

In order to control the breeding of insects, one needs to understand the


insects’ 40____________

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READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on Reading Passage
1 below.

How to Spot a Liar


However much we may abhor it, deception comes naturally to all living things. Birds do it by
feigning injury to lead hungry predators away from nesting young. Spider crabs do it by
disguise: adorning themselves with strips of kelp and other debris, they pretend to be
something they are not – and so escape their enemies. Nature amply rewards successful
deceivers by allowing them to survive long enough to mate and reproduce. So it may come
as no surprise to learn that human beings- who, according to psychologist Gerald Johnson of
the University of South California, or lied to about 200 times a day, roughly one untruth
every 5 minutes- often deceive for exactly the same reasons: to save their own skins or to
get something they can’t get by other means.

But knowing how to catch deceit can be just as important a survival skill as knowing how to
tell a lie and get away with it. A person able to spot falsehood quickly is unlikely to be
swindled by an unscrupulous business associate or hoodwinked by a devious spouse.
Luckily, nature provides more than enough clues to trap dissemblers in their own tangled
webs- if you know where to look. By closely observing facial expressions, body language and
tone of voice, practically anyone can recognise the tell-tale signs of lying. Researchers are
even programming computers – like those used on Lie Detector -to get at the truth by
analysing the same physical cues available to the naked eye and ear. “With the proper
training, many people can learn to reliably detect lies,” says Paul Ekman, professor of
psychology at the University of California, San Francisco, who has spent the past 15 years
studying the secret art of deception.

In order to know what kind of Lies work best, successful liars need to accurately assess other
people’s emotional states. Ackman’s research shows that this same emotional intelligence is

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essential for good lie detectors, too. The emotional state to watch out for is stress, the
conflict most liars feel between the truth and what they actually say and do.

Even high-tech lie detectors don’t detect lies as such; they merely detect the physical cues
of emotions, which may or may not correspond to what the person being tested is saying.
Polygraphs, for instance, measure respiration, heart rate and skin conductivity, which tend
to increase when people are nervous – as they usually are when lying. Nervous people
typically perspire, and the salts contained in perspiration conducts electricity. That’s
why sudden leap in skin conductivity indicates nervousness -about getting caught, perhaps
-which makes, in turn, suggest that someone is being economical with the truth. On the
other hand, it might also mean that the lights in the television Studio are too hot- which is
one reason polygraph tests are inadmissible in court. “Good lie detectors don’t rely on a
single thing” says Ekma ,but interpret clusters of verbal and non-verbal clues that suggest
someone might be lying.”

The clues are written all over the face. Because the musculature of the face is directly
connected to the areas of the brain that processes emotion, the countenance can be a
window to the soul. Neurological studies even suggest that genuine emotions travel
different pathways through the brain than insincere ones. If a patient paralyzed by stroke on
one side of the face, for example, is asked to smile deliberately, only the mobile side of the
mouth is raised. But tell that same person a funny joke, and the patient breaks into a full
and spontaneous smile. Very few people -most notably, actors and politicians- are able to
consciously control all of their facial expressions. Lies can often be caught when the liars
true feelings briefly leak through the mask of deception. We don’t think before we feel,
Ekman says. “Expressions tend to show up on the face before we’re even conscious of
experiencing an emotion.”

One of the most difficult facial expressions to fake- or conceal, if it’s genuinely felt - is
sadness. When someone is truly sad, the forehead wrinkles with grief and the inner corners
of the eyebrows are pulled up. Fewer than 15% of the people Ekman tested were able to
produce this eyebrow movement voluntarily. By contrast, the lowering of the eyebrows
associated with an angry scowl can be replicated at will but almost everybody. “ If someone
claims they are sad and the inner corners of their eyebrows don’t go up, Ekmam says, the
sadness is probably false.”

The smile, on the other hand, is one of the easiest facial expressions to counterfeit. It takes
just two muscles -the zygomaticus major muscles that extend from the cheekbones to the
corners of the lips- to produce a grin. But there’s a catch. A genuine smile affects not only
the corners of the lips but also the orbicularis oculi, the muscle around the eye that
produces the distinctive “crow’s feet” associated with people who laugh a lot. A counterfeit
grin can be unmasked if the corners of the lips go up, the eyes crinkle, but the inner corners
of the eyebrows are not lowered, a movement controlled by the orbicularis oculi that is

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difficult to fake. The absence of lowered eyebrows is one reason why the smile looks so
strained and stiff.

SECTION 1: QUESTIONS 1-13


Questions 1-5
YES if the statement agrees with the views of the writer

NO if the statement contradicts the views of the writer

NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about


this

1. All living animals can lie.

2. Some people tell lies for self-preservation.

3. Scientists have used computers to analyze which part of the brain is responsible for telling
lies.

4. Lying as a survival skill is more important than detecting a lie.

5. To be a good liar, one has to understand other people's emotions.

Questions 6-9
Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D.

Write your answers in boxes 6-9.

6. How does the lie detector work?

a. It detects whether one's emotional state is stable.


b. It detects one’s brain activity level.
c. It detects body behavior during one's verbal response.
d. It analyses one's verbal response word by word.

7. Lie detectors can't be used as evidence in a court of law because

a. Lights often cause lie detectors to malfunction.


b. They are based on too many verbal and non-verbal clues.
c. Polygraph tests are often inaccurate.
d. There may be many causes of certain body behavior.

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8. Why does the author mention the paralyzed patients?

a. To demonstrate how a paralyzed patient smiles


b. To show the relation between true emotions and body behavior
c. To examine how they were paralyzed
d. To show the importance of happiness from recovery

9. The author uses politicians to exemplify that they can

a. Have emotions.
b. Imitate actors.
c. Detect other people's lives.
d. Mask their true feelings.

Questions 10-13
Classify the following facial traits as referring to

A sadness

B anger

C happiness

Write the correct letter A,B or C in boxes 10-13.

10. Inner corners of eyebrows raised

11. The whole eyebrows lowered

12. Lines formed around

13. Lines form above eyebrows

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READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based on Reading
Passage 2 below.

Being Left-handed in a Right-handed World


The world is designed for right-handed people. Why does a tenth of the population prefer
the left?

A The probability that two right-handed people would have a left-handed child is only about
9.5 percent. The chance rises to 19.5 percent if one parent is a lefty and 26 percent if both
parents are left-handed. The preference, however, could also stem from an infant’s
imitation of his parents. To test genetic influence, starting in the 1970s British biologist
Marian Annett of the University of Leicester hypothesized that no single gene determines
handedness. Rather, during fetal development, a certain molecular factor helps to
strengthen the brain’s left hemisphere, which increases the probability that the right hand
will be dominant, because the left side of the brain controls the right side of the body, and
vice versa. Among the minority of people who lack this factor, handedness develops entirely
by chance. Research conducted on twins complicates the theory, however. One in fivesets
of identical twins involves one right-handed and one left-handed person, despite the fact
that their genetic material is the same. Genes, therefore, are not solely responsible for
handedness.

B Genetic theory is also undermined by results from Peter Hepper and his team at Queen’s
University in Belfast, Ireland. In 2004 the psychologists used ultrasound to show that by the
15th week of pregnancy, fetuses already have a preference as to which thumb they suck. In
most cases, the preference continued after birth. At 15 weeks, though, the brain does not
yet have control over the body’s limbs. Hepper speculates that fetuses tend to prefer
whichever side of the body is developing quicker and that their movements, in turn,
influence the brain’s development. Whether this early preference is temporary or holds up

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throughout development and infancy is unknown. Genetic predetermination is also


contradicted by the widespread observation that children do not settle on either their right
or left hand until they are two or three years old.

C But even if these correlations were true, they did not explain what actually causes left-
handedness. Furthermore, specialization on either side of the body is common among
animals. Cats will favor one paw over another when fishing toys out from under the couch.
Horses stomp more frequently with one hoof than the other. Certain crabs motion
predominantly with the left or right claw. In evolutionary terms, focusing power and
dexterity in one limb is more efficient than having to train two, four or even eight limbs
equally. Yet for most animals, the preference for one side or the other is seemingly random.
The overwhelming dominance of the right hand is associated only with humans. That fact
directs attention toward the brain’s two hemispheres and perhaps toward language.

D Interest in hemispheres dates back to at least 1836. That year, at a medical conference,
French physician Marc Dax reported on an unusual commonality among his patients. During
his many years as a country doctor, Dax had encountered more than 40 men and women for
whom speech was difficult, the result of some kind of brain damage. What was unique was
that every individual suffered damage to the left side of the brain. At the conference, Dax
elaborated on his theory, stating that each half of the brain was responsible for certain
functions and that the left hemisphere controlled speech. Other experts showed little
interest in the Frenchman’s ideas. Over time, however, scientists found more and more
evidence of peopleexperiencing speech difficulties following injury to the left brain. Patients
with damage to the right hemisphere most often displayed disruptions in perception or
concentration. Major advancements in understanding the brain’s asymmetry were made in
the 1960s as a result of so-called split-brain surgery, developed to help patients with
epilepsy. During this operation, doctors severed the corpus callosum—the nerve bundle that
connects the two hemispheres. The surgical cut also stopped almost all normal
communication between the two hemispheres, which offered researchers the opportunity
to investigate each side’s activity.

E In 1949 neurosurgeon Juhn Wada devised the first test to provide access to the brain’s
functional organization of language. By injecting an anesthetic into the right or left carotid
artery, Wada temporarily paralyzed one side of a healthy brain, enabling him to more
closely study the other side’s capabilities. Based on this approach, Brenda Milner and the
late Theodore Rasmussen of the Montreal Neurological Institute published a major study in
1975 that confirmed the theory that country doctor Dax had formulated nearly 140 years
earlier: in 96 percent of right-handed people, language is processed much more intensely in
the left hemisphere. The correlation is not as clear in lefties, however. For two thirds of
them, the left hemisphere is still the most active language processor. But for the remaining
third, either the right side is dominant or both sides work equally, controlling different

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language functions. That last statistic has slowed acceptance of the notion that the
predominance of right-handedness is driven by left-hemisphere dominance in language
processing. It is not at all clear why language control should somehow have dragged the
control of body movement with it. Some experts think one reason the left hemisphere
reigns over language is because the organs of speech processing—the larynx and tongue—
are positioned on the body’s symmetry axis. Because these structures were centered, it may
have been unclear, in evolutionary terms, which side of the brain should control them, and
it seems unlikely that shared operation would result in smooth motor activity. Language and
handedness could have developed preferentially for very
different reasons as well. For example, some researchers, including evolutionary
psychologist Michael C. Corballis of the University of Auckland in New Zealand, think that
the origin of human speech lies in gestures. Gestures predated words and helped language
emerge. If the left hemisphere began to dominate speech, it would have dominated
gestures, too, and because the left brain controls the right side of the body, the right hand
developed more strongly.

F Perhaps we will know more soon. In the meantime, we can revel in what, if any,
differences handedness brings to our human talents. Popular wisdom says right-handed,
left-brained people excel at logical, analytical thinking. Lefthanded, right-brained individuals
are thought to possess more creative skills and may be better at combining the functional
features emergent in both sides of the brain. Yet some neuroscientists see such claims as
pure speculation. Fewer scientists are ready to claim that left-handedness means greater
creative potential. Yet lefties are prevalent among artists, composers and the generally
acknowledged great political thinkers. Possibly if these individuals are among the lefties
whose language abilities are evenly distributed between hemispheres, the intense interplay
required could lead to unusual mental capabilities.

G Or perhaps some lefties become highly creative simply because they must be more clever
to get by in our right-handed world. This battle, which begins during the very early stages of
childhood, may lay the groundwork for exceptional achievements.

SECTION 2: QUESTIONS 14-26


Questions 14-18
Reading Passage 2 has seven sections A-G.
Which section contains the following information?
Write the correct letter A-G in boxes 14-18 on your answer sheet.

14. Preference of using one side of the body in animal species.


15. How likely one-handedness is born.
16. The age when the preference of using one hand is settled.

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17. Occupations usually found in left-handed population.


18. A reference to an early discovery of each hemisphere’s function.

Questions 19-22
Look at the following researchers (Questions 19-22) and the list of findings below.
Match each researcher with the correct finding.
Write the correct letter A-G in boxes 19-22 on your answer sheet.

List of Findings

A Early language evolution is correlated to body movement and thus affecting the
preference of use of one hand.

B No single biological component determines the handedness of a child.

C Each hemisphere of the brain is in charge of different body functions.

D Language process is mainly centered in the left-hemisphere of the brain.

E Speech difficulties are often caused by brain damage.

F The rate of development of one side of the body has influence on hemisphere
preference in fetus.

G Brain function already matures by the end of the fetal stage.

19. Marian Annett 21. Brenda Milner & Theodore Rasmussen


20. Peter Hepper 22. Michael Corballis

Questions 23-26
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 2?
In boxes 23-26 on your answer sheet write

YES if the statement agrees with the views of the writer

NO if the statement contradicts the views of the writer

NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

23. The study of twins shows that genetic determinationis not the only factor for left-
handedness.
24. Marc Dax’s report was widely accepted in his time.
25. Juhn Wada based his findings on his research of people with language problems.
26. There tend to be more men with left-handedness than women.

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READING PASSAGE 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based on Reading
Passage 3 below.

What is a dinosaur?
A. Although the name dinosaur is derived from the Greek for "terrible lizard", dinosaurs
were not, in fact, lizards at all. Like lizards, dinosaurs are included in the class Reptilia, or
reptiles, one of the five main classes of Vertebrata, animals with backbones. However, at
the next level of classification, within reptiles, significant differences in the skeletal anatomy
of lizards and dinosaurs have led scientists to place these groups of animals into two
different superorders: Lepidosauria, or lepidosaurs, and Archosauria, or archosaurs.

B. Classified as lepidosaurs are lizards and snakes and their prehistoric ancestors. Included
among the archosaurs, or "ruling reptiles", are prehistoric and modern crocodiles, and the
now extinct thecodonts, pterosaurs and dinosaurs. Palaeontologists believe that both
dinosaurs and crocodiles evolved, in the later years of the Triassic Period (c. 248-208 million
years ago), from creatures called pseudosuchian thecodonts. Lizards, snakes and different
types of thecodont are believed to have evolved earlier in the Triassic Period from reptiles
known as eosuchians.

C. The most important skeletal differences between dinosaurs and other archosaurs are in
the bones of the skull, pelvis and limbs. Dinosaur skulls are found in a great range of shapes
and sizes, reflecting the different eating habits and lifestyles of a large and varied group of
animals that dominated life on Earth for an extraordinary 165 million years. However, unlike
the skulls of any other known animals, the skulls of dinosaurs had two long bones known as
vomers. These bones extended on either side of the head, from the front of the snout to the

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level of the holes on the skull known as the antorbital fenestra, situated in front of the
dinosaur's orbits or eyesockets.

D. All dinosaurs, whether large or small, quadrupedal or bipedal, fleet-footed or slow-


moving, shared a common body plan. Identification of this plan makes it possible to
differentiate dinosaurs from any other types of animal, even other archosaurs. Most
significantly, in dinosaurs, the pelvis and femur had evolved so that the hind limbs were held
vertically beneath the body, rather than sprawling out to the sides like the limbs of a lizard.
The femur of a dinosaur had a sharply in-turned neck and a ball-shaped head, which slotted
into a fully open acetabulum or hip socket. A supra-acetabular crest helped prevent
dislocation of the femur. The position of the knee joint, aligned below the acetabulum,
made it possible for the whole hind limb to swing backwards and forwards. This unique
combination of features gave dinosaurs what is known as a "fully improved gait". Evolution
of this highly efficient method of walking also developed in mammals, but among reptiles it
occurred only in dinosaurs.

E. For the purpose of further classification, dinosaurs are divided into two orders:
Saurischia, or saurischian dinosaurs, and Ornithischia, or ornithischian dinosaurs. This
division is made on the basis of their pelvic anatomy. All dinosaurs had a pelvic girdle with
each side comprised of three bones: the pubis, ilium and ischium. However, the orientation
of these bones follows one of two patterns. In saurischian dinosaurs, also known as lizard-
hipped dinosaurs, the pubis points forwards, as is usual in most types of reptile. By contrast,
in ornithischian, or bird-hipped, dinosaurs, the pubis points backwards towards the rear of
the animal, which is also true of birds.

F. Of the two orders of dinosaurs, the Saurischia was the larger and the first to evolve. It is
divided into two suborders: Therapoda, or therapods, and Sauropodomorpha, or
sauropodomorphs. The therapods, or "beast feet", were bipedal, predatory carnivores. They
ranged in size from the mighty Tyrannosaurus rex, 12m long, 5.6m tall and weighing an
estimated 6.4 tonnes, to the smallest known dinosaur, Compsognathus, a mere 1.4m long
and estimated 3kg in weight when fully grown. The sauropodomorphs, or "lizard feet
forms", included both bipedal and quadrupedal dinosaurs. Some sauropodomorphs were
carnivorous or omnivorous but later species were typically herbivorous. They included some
of the largest and best-known of all dinosaurs, such as Diplodocus, a huge quadruped with
an elephant-like body, a long, thin tail and neck that gave it a total length of 27m, and a tiny
head.

G. Ornithischian dinosaurs were bipedal or quadrupedal herbivores. They are now usually
divided into three suborders: Ornithipoda, Thyreophora and Marginocephalia. The
ornithopods, or "bird feet", both large and small, could walk or run on their long hind legs,
balancing their body by holding their tails stiffly off the ground behind them. An example is
Iguanodon, up to 9m long, 5m tall and weighing 4.5 tonnes. The thyreophorans, or "shield
bearers", also known as armoured dinosaurs, were quadrupeds with rows of protective

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bony spikes, studs, or plates along their backs and tails. They included Stegosaurus, 9m long
and weighing 2 tonnes.

H. The marginocephalians, or "margined heads", were bipedal or quadrupedal


ornithschians with a deep bony frill or narrow shelf at the back of the skull. An example is
Triceratops, a rhinoceros-like dinosaur, 9m long, weighing 5.4 tonnes and bearing a
prominent neck frill and three large horns.

SECTION 3: QUESTIONS 27-40


Questions 27-33
Reading Passage 3 has 8 paragraphs (A-H).
Choose the most suitable heading for each paragraph from the List of headingsbelow.
Write the appropriate numbers (i-xiii) in Boxes 27-33 on your answer sheet.

One of the headings has been done for you as an example.

NB. There are more headings than paragraphs, so you will not use all of them.

27. Paragraph A

28. Paragraph B

29. Paragraph C

30. Paragraph D

31. Paragraph E

32. Paragraph F

33. Paragraph G

Example : Paragraph H Answer: x

List of headings

i 165 million years

ii The body plan of archosaurs

iii Dinosaurs - terrible lizards

iv Classification according to pelvic anatomy

v The suborders of Saurischia

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vi Lizards and dinosaurs - two distinct superorders

vii Unique body plan helps identify dinosaurs from other animals

viii Herbivore dinosaurs

ix Lepidosaurs

x Frills and shelves

xi The origins of dinosaurs and lizards

xii Bird-hipped dinosaurs

xiii Skull bones distinguish dinosaurs from other archosaurs

Questions 34-36
Complete then sentences below.

Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each blank space.

Write your answers in boxes 34-36 on your answer sheet.

Lizards and dinosaurs are classified into two different superorders because of the difference
in their 34__________

In the Triassic Period, 35__________evolved into thecodonts, for example, lizards and
snakes.

Dinosaur skulls differed from those of any other known animals because of the presence of
vomers: 36__________

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Questions 37-40
Choose one phrase (A-H) from the List of features to match with the Dinosaurslisted below.

Write the appropriate letters (A-H) in boxes 37-40 on your answer sheet.

The information in the completed sentences should be an accurate summary of the points
made by the writer.

NB. There are more phrases (A-H) than sentences, so you will not need to use them all.

You may use each phrase once only.

Dinosaurs
37. Dinosaurs differed from lizards, because

38. Saurischian and ornithischian dinosaurs

39. Unlike therapods, sauropodomorphs

40. Some dinosaurs used their tails to balance, others

List of features

A are both divided into two orders.

B the former had a "fully improved gait".

C were not usually very heavy.

D could walk or run on their back legs.

E their hind limbs sprawled out to the side.

F walked or ran on four legs, rather than two.

G both had a pelvic girdle comprising six bones.

H did not always eat meat.

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TEST 19

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LISTENING
SECTION 1 : QUESTIONS 1-10
Questions 1-4
Answer the following questions using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A
NUMBER for each answer.

How many people are Cindy and Bob planning the picnic for?

1______________________________________________

On which date will the picnic be held?

2______________________________________________

What is the total budget for food and drink per person?

£ (3)______________________________________________

Which food does Bob specifically say is unsuitable?

4______________________________________________

Questions 5-8
Complete the following notes about the three catering companies Bob and Cindy discuss.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER.
Paris Kitchen
lack of variety of food

poor quality 5_______________

Company Caterers
expensive

6_______________discount for groups of 30 or more

Celebrations
new company

only 7_______________for picnics

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8_______________dishes

offers free samples

Questions 9-10
Answer the questions using ONE WORD OR A TELEPHONE NUMBER.

When will Bob and Cindy go to Celebrations?

9______________________________________________

What is Celebrations“ telephone number?

10______________________________________________

SECTION 2 : QUESTIONS 11-20


Questions 11-12
Complete the notes on the Citizens Advice Bureau using NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for
each gap.

11_________a solicitor

suggest where you can find free legal advice

inform you whether you can get 12_________to cover legal costs.

Questions 13-14
Complete the notes on the police using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each gap.

don't be aggressive

do not try to bribe police officers

ask plain-clothes police officers for 13_________

give your true name and address if asked

do not sign anything without a solicitor's 14_________

you can make one telephone call

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Questions 15-16
Complete the following notes on. illegal actions using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for
each gap.

The following three things are illegal:

the possession of 15_______________

the possession or 16_______________of drugs

disorderly conduct

Questions 17-20
Decide which FOUR of the following statements are true, according to the speaker.
Write the appropriate letters in any order on your answer sheet.

I. It is socially acceptable to drink a lot of alcohol.


J. People often arrange to meet in bars.
K. Drinking non-alcoholic drinks in bars is socially acceptable.
L. You can drink a little and still drive a car.
M. You can drink in public.
N. Doctors can give patients otherwise illegal drugs.
O. You must be over 18 to buy alcohol.
P. Many people use illegal drugs.

SECTION 3 : QUESTIONS 21-30


Questions 21-25
Complete the following sentences using NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each gap

Melissa’s first tip is not to 21_____________late

Simona says that a presenter should not 22_____________

David explains that the second "P" in PGP means 23_____________

David says PGP will 24_____________and promote retention.

Carlos offers a general piece of advice for public speaking, which is know
your 25_____________

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Questions 26-30
Identify which speaker is being referred to in each statement.
Write the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.

A Carlos

B David

C Melissa

D Simona

26. He/She thinks an overhead projector is usually needed.


27. He/She mentions that jokes can be useful in context.
28. He/She mentions that the question and answer part is very important.
29. He/She says that finishing early might be a good idea.
30. He/She says that you should drink enough.

SECTION 4 : QUESTIONS 31-40


Questions 31-33
Answer the following questions using NO MORE THAN ONE WORD OR A DATE for each
answer.

Which metal were the Celts using at the beginning of the first millennium B.C.?

31____________________________________

When did excavation at Hallstatt begin?

32____________________________________

When were Celtic remains near La Tene uncovered?

33____________________________________

Questions 34-37
Answer the following questions about Hallstatt culture using NO MORE THAN THREE
WORDS OR AN NUMBER for each answer.

How many periods of Hallstatt culture were there?

34____________________________________

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Which two items were traded over long distances at the beginning of the Hallstatt period?

35____________________________________

Where were settlements built during the Hallstatt C period?

36____________________________________

What led to a stratified society?

37____________________________________

Questions 38-40
Complete the following sentences about La Téne culture using NO MORE THAN THREE
WORDS for each gap.

Celtic 38___________took place during the La Téne period.


After 400 B.C., the La Téne culture 39___________
Weapons and everyday items can be found in La Tene 40___________across Europe

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READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on Reading Passage
1 below.

New Zealand Seaweed


Call us not weeds; we are flowers of the sea.

Section A

Seaweed is a particularly nutritious food, which absorbs and concentrates traces of a wide
variety of minerals necessary to the body's health. Many elements may occur in seaweed -
aluminium, barium, calcium, chlorine, copper, iodine and iron, to name but a few - traces
normally produced by erosion and carried to the seaweed beds by river and sea currents.
Seaweeds are also rich in vitamins: indeed, Eskimos obtain a high proportion of their bodily
requirements of vitamin C from the seaweeds they eat.

The nutritive value of seaweed has long been recognised. For instance, there is a remarkably
low incidence of goitre amongst the Japanese, and for that matter, amongst our own Maori
people, who have always eaten seaweeds, and this may well be attributed to the high iodine
content of this food. Research into old Maori eating customs shows that jellies were made
using seaweeds, fresh fruit and nuts, fuchsia and tutu berries, cape gooseberries, and many
other fruits which either grew here naturally or were sown from seeds brought by settlers
and explorers.

Section B

New Zealand lays claim to approximately 700 species of seaweed, some of which have no
representation outside this country. Of several species grown worldwide, New Zealand also
has a particularly large share. For example, it is estimated that New Zealand has some 30
species of Gigartina, a close relative of carrageen or Irish moss. These are often referred to
as the New Zealand carrageens. The gel-forming substance called agar which can be
extracted from this species gives them great commercial application in seameal, from which
seameal custard is made, and in cough mixture, confectionery, cosmetics, the canning, paint

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and leather industries, the manufacture of duplicating pads, and in toothpaste. In fact,
during World War II, New Zealand Gigartina were sent toAustralia to be used in toothpaste.

Section C

Yet although New Zealand has so much of the commercially profitable red seaweeds,
several of which are a source of agar (Pterocladia, Gelidium, Chondrus, Gigartina), before
1940 relatively little use was made of them. New Zealand used to import the Northern
Hemisphere Irish moss (Chondrus crispus) from England and ready-made agar from Japan.
Although distribution of the Gigartina is confined to certain areas according to species, it is
only on the east coast of the North Island that its occurrence is rare. And even then, the east
coast, and the area around Hokiangna, have a considerable supply of the two species of
Pterocladia from which agar is also available. Happily, New Zealand-made agar is now
obtainable in health food shops.

Section D

Seaweeds are divided into three classes determined by colour - red, brown and green - and
each tends to live in a specific location. However, except for the unmistakable sea lettuce
(Ulva), few are totally one colour; and especially when dry, some species can change colour
quite significantly - a brown one may turn quite black, or a red one appear black, brown,
pink or purple.

Identification is nevertheless facilitated by the fact that the factors which determine where
a seaweed will grow are quite precise, and they therefore tend to occur in very well-defined
zones. Although there are exceptions, the green seaweeds are mainly shallow-water algae;
the browns belong to medium depths, and the reds are plants of the deeper water. Flat rock
surfaces near mid-level tides are the most usual habitat of sea bombs, Venus’ necklace and
most brown seaweeds. This is also the location of the purple laver or Maori karengo, which
looks rather like a reddish-purple lettuce. Deep-water rocks on open coasts, exposed only at
very low tide, are usually the site of bull kelp, strap weeds and similar tough specimens.
Those species able to resist long periods of exposure to the sun and air are usually found on
the upper shore, while those less able to stand such exposure occur nearer to or below the
low-water mark. Radiation from the sun, the temperature level, and the length of time
immersed all play a part in the zoning of seaweeds.

Section E
Propagation of seaweeds occurs by spores, or by fertilisation of egg cells. None have roots in
the usual sense; few have leaves, and none have flowers, fruits or seeds. The plants absorb
their nourishment through their fronds when they are surrounded by water: the base or
"holdfast" of seaweeds is purely an attaching organ, not an absorbing one.

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Section F

Some of the large seaweeds maintain buoyancy with air-filled floats; others, such as bull
kelp, have large cells filled with air. Some, which spend a good part of their time exposed to
the air, often reduce dehydration either by having swollen stems that contain water, or they
may (like Venus' necklace) have | swollen nodules, or they may have distinctive shape like a
sea bomb. Others, like the sea cactus, are filled with slimy fluid or have coating of mucilage
on % the surface. In some of the larger kelps, this coating is not only to keep the plant moist
but also to protect it from the violent action of waves.

SECTION 1: QUESTIONS 1-13


Questions 1-6
Reading Passage 1 has six sections A-F.
Choose the correct heading for each section from the list of headings below.
Write the correct number i-x in boxes 1-6 on your answer sheet.

i Locations and features of different seaweeds

ii Various products of seaweeds

iii Use of seaweeds in Japan

iv Seaweed species around the globe

v Nutritious value of seaweeds

vi Why it doesn't dry or sink

vii Where to find red seaweeds

viii Underuse of native species

ix Mystery solved

x How seaweeds reproduce and grow

1. Section A 6. Section F

2. Section B

3. Section C

4. Section D

5. Section E

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Questions 7-10
Complete the flow chart below.

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 7-10 on your answer sheet.

7_________________

8_________________

9_________________

10_________________

Questions 11-13
Classify the following description as relating to

A Green seaweeds

B Brown seaweeds

C Red seaweeds

Write the correct letter A, B, or C in boxes 11-13 on your answer sheet.

11. Can resist exposure to sunlight at high-water mark

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12. Grow in far open sea water

13. Share their habitat with karengo

READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based on Reading
Passage 2 below.

Optimism and Health


Mindset is all. How you start the year will set the template for the rest, and two scientifically
backed character traits hold the key: optimism and resilience (if the prospect leaves you
feeling pessimistically spineless, the good news is that you can significantly boost both of
these qualities).

Faced with 12 months of plummeting economics and rising human distress, staunchly
maintaining a rosy view might seem deludedly Pollyannaish. But here we encounter the
optimism paradox. As Brice Pitt, an emeritus professor of the psychiatry of old age at
Imperial College, London, told me: “Optimists are unrealistic. Depressive people see things
as they really are, but that is a disadvantage from an evolutionary point of view. Optimism is
a piece of evolutionary equipment that carried us through millennia of setbacks.”

Optimists have plenty to be happy about. In other words, if you can convince yourself that
things will get better, the odds of it happening will improve - because you keep on playing
the game. In this light, optimism “is a habitual way of explaining your setbacks to yourself”,
reports Martin Seligman, the psychology professor and author of Learned Optimism. The
research shows that when times get tough, optimists do better than pessimists - they
succeed better at work, respond better to stress, suffer fewer depressive episodes, and
achieve more personal goals.

Studies also show that belief can help with the financial pinch. Chad Wallens, a social
forecaster at the Henley Centre who surveyed middle-class Britons’ beliefs about income,

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has found that “the people who feel wealthiest, and those who feel poorest, actually have
almost the same amount of money at their disposal. Their attitudes and behaviour patterns,
however, are different from one another.”

Optimists have something else to be cheerful about - in general, they are more robust. For
example, a study of 660 volunteers by the Yale University psychologist Dr. Becca Levy found
that thinking positively adds an average of seven years to your life. Other American research
claims to have identified a physical mechanism behind this. A Harvard Medical School study
of 670 men found that the optimists have significantly better lung function. The lead author,
Dr. Rosalind Wright, believes that attitude somehow strengthens the immune system.
“Preliminary studies on heart patients suggest that, by changing a person’s outlook, you can
improve their mortality risk,” she says.

Few studies have tried to ascertain the proportion of optimists in the world. But a 1995
nationwide survey conducted by the American magazine Adweek found that about half the
population counted themselves as optimists, with women slightly more apt than men (53
per cent versus 48 per cent) to see the sunny side.

Of course, there is no guarantee that optimism will insulate you from the crunch’s worst
effects, but the best strategy is still to keep smiling and thank your lucky stars. Because (as
every good sports coach knows) adversity is character-forming - so long as you practise the
skills of resilience. Research among tycoons and business leaders shows that the path to
success is often littered with failure: a record of sackings, bankruptcies and blistering
castigation. But instead of curling into a foetal ball beneath the coffee table, they resiliently
pick themselves up, learn from their pratfalls and march boldly towards the next
opportunity.

The American Psychological Association defines resilience as the ability to adapt in the face
of adversity, trauma or tragedy. A resilient person may go through difficulty and
uncertainty, but he or she will doggedly bounce back.

Optimism is one of the central traits required in building resilience, say Yale University
investigators in the. Annual Review of Clinical Psychology. They add that resilient people
learn to hold on to their sense of humour and this can help them to keep a flexible attitude
when big changes of plan are warranted. The ability to accept your lot with equanimity also
plays an important role, the study adds.

One of the best ways to acquire resilience is through experiencing a difficult childhood, the
sociologist Steven Stack reports in the Journal of Social Psychology. For example, short men
are less likely to commit suicide than tall guys, he says, because shorties develop
psychological defence skills to handle the bullies and mickey-taking that their lack of stature
attracts. By contrast, those who enjoyed adversity-free youths can get derailed by setbacks
later on because they’ve never been inoculated against aggro.

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If you are handicapped by having had a happy childhood, then practising proactive optimism
can help you to become more resilient. Studies of resilient people show that they take more
risks; 'they court failure and learn not to fear it.

And despite being thick-skinned, resilient types are also more open than average to other
people. Bouncing through knock-backs is all part of the process.

It’s about optimistic risk-taking - being confident that people will like you. Simply smiling
and being warm to people can help. It’s an altruistic path to self-interest - and if it achieves
nothing else, it will reinforce an age-old adage: hard times can bring out the best in you.

SECTION 2: QUESTIONS 14-26


Questions 14-17
Complete the summary below using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from Reading Passage
2 for each answer.
A study group from Yale University had discovered that optimism can stretch one's life
length by 14_________________years. And another group from Harvard thinks they have
found the biological basis - optimists have better 15_________________because an
optimist outlook boosts one's 16_________________. The study
on 17_________________was cited as evidence in support of this claim.

Questions 18-22
Complete each sentence with the correct ending A-H.

18. Brice Pitt believes

19. The research at Henley Centre discovers

20. The study conducted by Adweek finds

21. The Annual Review of Clinical Psychology reports

22. Steven Stack says in his report

A material wealth doesn't necessarily create happiness.


E feelings of optimism vary according to gender.

B optimists tend to be unrealistic about human evolution.


F good humour means good flexibility.

C optimism is advantageous for human evolution.G evenness of mind under stress is important to building r

D adversity is the breeding ground of resilience. H having an optimistic outlook is a habit.

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Questions 23-26
Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading Passage?
In boxes 23-26 on your answer sheet write

YES if the statement agrees with the views of the writer

NO if the statement contradicts the views of the writer

NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

23. The benefits of optimism on health have been long known.

24. Optimists have better relationships with people than pessimists.

25. People with happy childhoods won't be able to practise optimism.

26. Resilient people are often open, and even thickskinned.

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READING PASSAGE 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based on Reading
Passage 3 below.

The Columbian Exchange


A Millions of years ago, continental drift carried the Old World and New World apart,
splitting North and South America from Eurasia and Africa. That separation lasted so long
that it fostered divergent evolution; for instance, the development of rattlesnakes on one
side of the Atlantic and of vipers on the other. After 1492, human voyagers in part reversed
this tendency. Their artificial re-establishment of connections through the commingling of
Old and New World plants, animals, and bacteria, commonly known as the Columbian
Exchange, is one of the more spectacular and significant ecological events of the past
millennium.

B When Europeans first touched the shores of the Americas, Old World crops such as wheat,
barley, rice, and turnips had not travelled west across the Atlantic, and New World crops
such as maize, white potatoes, sweet potatoes, and manioc had not travelled east to
Europe. In the Americas, there were no horses, cattle, sheep, or goats, all animals of Old
World origin. Except for the llama, alpaca, dog, a few fowl, and guinea pig, the New World
had no equivalents to the domesticated animals associated with the Old World, nor did it
have the pathogens associated with the Old World’s dense populations of humans and such
associated creatures as chickens, cattle, black rats, and Aedes aegypti mosquitoes. Among
these germs were those that carried smallpox, measles, chickenpox, influenza, malaria, and
yellow fever.

C As might be expected, the Europeans who settled on the east coast of the United States
cultivated crops like wheat and apples, which they had brought with them. European weeds,
which the colonists did not cultivate, and, in fact, preferred to uproot, also fared well in the
New World. John Josselyn, an Englishman and amateur naturalist who visited New England
twice in the seventeenth century, left us a list, “Of Such Plants as Have Sprung Up since the
English Planted and Kept Cattle in New England,” which included couch grass, dandelion,
shepherd’s purse, groundsel, sow thistle, and chickweed.

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One of these, a plantain (Plantago major), was named “Englishman’s Foot” by the
Amerindians of New England and Virginia who believed that it would grow only where the
English “have trodden, and was never known before the English came into this country”.
Thus, as they intentionally sowed Old World crop seeds, the European settlers were
unintentionally contaminating American fields with weed seeds. More importantly, they
were stripping and burning forests, exposing the native minor flora to direct sunlight, and
the hooves and teeth of Old World livestock. The native flora could not tolerate the stress.
The imported weeds could, because they had lived with large numbers of grazing animals
for thousands of years.

D Cattle and horses were brought ashore in the early 1600s and found hospitable climate
and terrain in North America. Horses arrived in Virginia as early as 1620 and in
Massachusetts in 1629. Many wandered free with little more evidence of their connection
to humanity than collars with a hook at the bottom to catch on fences as they tried to leap
over them to get at crops. Fences were not for keeping livestock in, but for keeping livestock
out.

E Native American resistance to the Europeans was ineffective. Indigenous peoples suffered
from white brutality, alcoholism, the killing and driving off of game, and the expropriation of
farmland, but all these together are insufficient to explain the degree of their defeat. The
crucial factor was not people, plants, or animals, but germs. Smallpox was the worst and the
most spectacular of the infectious diseases mowing down the Native Americans. The first
recorded pandemic of that disease in British North America detonated among the Algonquin
of Massachusetts in the early 1630s. William Bradford of Plymouth Plantation wrote that
the victims “fell down so generally of this disease as they were in the end not able to help
one another, no, not to make a fire nor fetch a little water to drink, nor any to bury the
dead”. The missionaries and the traders who ventured into the American interior told the
same appalling story about smallpox and the indigenes. In 1738 alone, the epidemic
destroyed half the Cherokee; in 1759 nearly half the Catawbas; in the first years of the next
century, two thirds of the Omahas and perhaps half the entire population between the
Missouri River and New Mexico; in 1837-38 nearly every last one of the Mandans and
perhaps half the people of the high plains.

F The export of America’s native animals has not revolutionised Old World agriculture or
ecosystems as the introduction of European animals to the New World did. America’s grey
squirrels and muskrats and a few others have established themselves east of the Atlantic
and west of the Pacific, but that has not made much of a difference. Some of America’s
domesticated animals are raised in the Old World, but turkeys have not displaced chickens
and geese, and guinea pigs have proved useful in laboratories, but have not usurped rabbits
in the butcher shops.

G The New World’s great contribution to the Old is in crop plants. Maize, white potatoes,
sweet potatoes, various squashes, chiles, and manioc have become essentials in the diets of

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hundreds of millions of Europeans, Africans, and Asians. Their influence on Old World
peoples, like that of wheat and rice on New World peoples, goes far to explain the global
population explosion of the past three centuries. The Columbian Exchange has been an
indispensable factor in that demographic explosion.

H All this had nothing to do with superiority or inferiority of biosystems in any absolute
sense. It has to do with environmental contrasts. Amerindians were accustomed to living in
one particular kind of environment, Europeans and Africans in another. When the Old World
peoples came to America, they brought with them all their plants, animals, and germs,
creating a kind of environment to which they were already adapted, and so they increased
in number. Amerindians had not adapted to European germs, and so initially their numbers
plunged. That decline has reversed in our time as Amerindian populations have adapted to
the Old World’s environmental influence, but the demographic triumph of the invaders,
which was the most spectacular feature of the Old World’s invasion of the New, still stands.

SECTION 3: QUESTIONS 27-40


Questions 27-34
Reading Passage 3 has eight paragraphs A-H.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the correct letter A-H in boxes 27-34 on your answer sheet.

27. A description of an imported species that is named after the English colonists

28. The reason why both the New World and Old World experienced population growth

29. The formation of new continents explained

30. The reason why the indigenous population declined

31. An overall description of the species lacked in the Old World and New World

32. A description of some animal species being ineffective in affecting the Old World

33. An overall explanation of the success of the Old World species invasion

34. An account of European animals taking roots in the New World

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Questions 35-38
Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading Passage?
In boxes 35-38 on your answer sheet write

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

35. European settlers built fences to keep their cattle and horses inside.

36. The indigenous people had been brutally killed by the European colonists.

37. America's domesticated animals, such as turkey, became popular in the Old World.

38. Crop exchange between the two worlds played a major role in world population

Questions 39-40
Answer the questions below using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for
each answer.

Who reported the same story of European diseases among the indigenes from the American
interior?

39__________________________

What is the still existing feature of the Old World's invasion of the New?

40__________________________

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TEST 20

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LISTENING
SECTION 1 : QUESTIONS 1-10
Questions 1-6
Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer

Position Place Notes

Speak foreign languages

1___________ Parkview Hotel Have a valid 2___________

Include 3___________

Pay is low

General Assistant Lakeside Hotel


Free 4___________

Issue a 5___________

Wear 6___________
Catering Assistant Hotel 98
Night shift work Travel outside the city

Questions 7-10
Complete the flow chart below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

RECRUITMENT PROCESS
STEP ONE

Complete a 7___________

STEP TWO

Do a 8___________about personal skills

STEP THREE

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Participate a training course involving 9___________

STEP FOUR Get a 10___________about the work

SECTION 2 : QUESTIONS 11-20


Questions 11-14
Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

REGISTRATION OF FOREIGN NATIONALS AT THE HEALTH CENTER


STANDARD PROCEDURES

Register as a 11_____________

Fill in a medical history form with details of previous


illness, 12_____________surgeries and 13_____________

Complete a 14_____________with personal information such as name,


address and telephone number.

Questions 15-20
Circle the correct letter, A, B or C.

15. The nurse can help you with

d. minor operation
e. all sorts of remedy.
f. a small injury

16. You don’t have to pay for the chiropodist if

d. you have registered at the health center.


e. you are in your late’ sixties.
f. you have foot trauma.

17. In case of emergency

d. you can ask for a home visit.


e. you must go to the hospital directly.
f. you should have an open surgery.

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18. On Friday afternoons

d. you don’t need to wait for a long time.


e. you don’t need to make an appointment
f. you ought not to come at a specified time.

19. If you require a repeat prescription

d. you have to see the doctor again.


e. you need a special form.
f. you can get one from the chemist.

20. In which case you needn’t pay for the prescription

d. if you are a student.


e. if you are unemployed or very poor.
f. if you are pregnant.

SECTION 3 : QUESTIONS 21-30


Questions 21-23
Complete the sentences below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

People domesticate bees for honey and 21____________

Commercial crops such as almond, cherry, 22____________, water melon, cucumber,


depend on pollination.

Animal pollination contributes 23____________dollars a year to world agriculture.

Questions 24-25
Choose TWO letters, A-D.

According to the professor, what factors have affected pollinator populations?

e. Parasites.
f. Air pollution.
g. Hunting.
h. Farm chemicals.

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Questions 26-29
What are the features of each pollinator?

Choose the correct letter, A-F.

26. Monarch butterfly

27. Indian subcontinent butterflies

28. Spectacular tropical butterflies

29. Long-nosed bat.

A It pollinates four out of live food crops in North America.

B It has been mistaken for a similar animal.

C It feeds on the nectar of lavender.

D It has been affected by environmental alteration.

E It has been smuggling traded.

F It returns to the specific site every year.

Question 30
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

30. What can be done to protect pollinators?

d. Beekeeping needs to focus on honey production.


e. People should use more organic approach of cultivation.
f. Scientists should exploit more wild plants.

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SECTION 4 : QUESTIONS 31-40


Questions 31-35
Complete the summary below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

THE LONDON EYE


The London Eye, or 31__________Wheel is an extremely large passenger-carrying Ferris
wheel situated on the banks of the 32__________in Central London in the United Kingdom.
It attracts 33__________people annually. Back in 2000, 34__________was the main
sponsor. Today, the London Eye is operated by the London Eye Company Limited, a Merlin
Entertainments Group Company. Standing at a height of 35__________is the largest Ferris
wheel in Europe, and has become the most popular paid tourist attraction in the United
Kingdom, visited by over three million people in one year.

Questions 36-40
Label the diagram below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

36__________ 39__________

37__________ 40__________

38__________

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READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on Reading Passage
1 below.

Going Bananas
The world's favourite fruit could disappear forever in 10 years’ time

The banana is among the world's oldest crops. Agricultural scientists believe that the first
edible banana was discovered around ten thousand years ago. It has been at an
evolutionary standstill ever since it was first propagated in the jungles of South-East Asia at
the end of the last ice age. Normally the wild banana, a giant jungle herb called Musa
acuminata, contains a mass of hard seeds that make the fruit virtually inedible. But now and
then, hunter- gatherers must have discovered rare mutant plants that produced seedless,
edible fruits. Geneticists now know that the vast majority of these soft-fruited I plants
resulted from genetic accidents that gave their cells three copies of each chromosome
instead of the usual two. This imbalance prevents seeds and pollen from developing
normally, rendering the mutant plants sterile. And that is why some scientists believe the
world’s most popular fruit could be doomed. It lacks the genetic diversity to fight off pests
and diseases that are invading the banana plantations of Central America and the
smallholdings of Africa and Asia alike.

In some ways, the banana today resembles the potato before blight brought famine to
Ireland a century and a half ago. But “it holds a lesson for other crops, too,” says Emile
Frison, top banana at the International Network for the Improvement of Banana and
Plantain in Montpellier, France. “The state of the banana,” Frison warns, “can teach a

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broader lesson: the increasing standardisation of food crops round the world is threatening
their ability to adapt and survive.”

The first Stone Age plant breeders cultivated these sterile freaks by replanting cuttings from
their stems. And the descendants of those original cuttings are the bananas we still eat
today. Each is a virtual clone, almost devoid of genetic diversity. And that uniformity makes
it ripe for disease like no other crop on Earth. Traditional varieties of sexually reproducing
crops have always had a much broader genetic base, and the genes will recombine in new
arrangements in each generation. This gives them much greater flexibility in evolving re-
sponses to disease - and far more genetic resources to draw on in the face of an attack. But
that advantage is fading fast, as growers increasingly plant the same few, high-yielding
varieties. Plant breeders work feverishly to maintain resistance in these standardised crops.
Should these efforts falter, yields of even the most productive crop could swiftly crash.
“When some pest or disease comes along, severe epidemics can occur,” says Geoff Hawtin,
director of the Rome-based International Plant Genetic Resources Institute.

The banana is an excellent case in point. Until the 1950s, one variety, the Gros Michel,
dominated the world’s commercial banana business. Found by French botanists in Asia in
the 1820s, the Gros Michel was by all accounts a fine banana, richer and sweeter than
today’s standard banana and without the latter’s bitter aftertaste when green. But it was
vulnerable to a soil fungus that produced a wilt known as Panama disease. “Once the fungus
gets into the soil, it remains there for many years. There is nothing farmers can do. Even
chemical spraying won’t get rid of it,” says Rodomiro Ortiz, director of the International
Institute for Tropical Agriculture in Ibadan, Nigeria. So plantation owners played a running
game, abandoning infested fields and moving to “clean” land - until they ran out of clean
land in the 1950s and had to abandon the Gros Michel. Its successor, and still the reigning
commercial king, is the Cavendish banana, a 19th-century British discovery from southern
China. The Cavendish is resistant to Panama disease and, as a result, it literally saved the
international banana industry. During the 1960s, it replaced the Gros Michel on
supermarket shelves. If you buy a banana today, it is almost certainly a Cavendish. But even
so, it is a minority in the world’s banana crop.

Half a billion people in Asia and Africa depend on bananas. Bananas provide the largest
source of calories and are eaten daily. Its name is synonymous with food. But the day of
reckoning may be coming for the Cavendish and its indigenous kin. Another fungal disease,
black Sigatoka, has become a global epidemic since its first appearance in Fiji in 1963. Left to
itself, black Sigatoka - which causes brown wounds on leaves and premature fruit ripening -
cuts fruit yields by 50 to 70 per cent and reduces the productive lifetime of banana plants
from 30 years to as little as 2 or 3. Commercial growers keep black Sigatoka at bay by a
massive chemical assault. Forty sprayings of fungicide a year is typical. But despite the
fungicides, diseases such as black Sigatoka are getting more and more difficult to control.
“As soon as you bring in a new fungicide, they develop resistance,” says Frison. “One thing

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we can be sure of is that black Sigatoka won't lose in this battle.” Poor farmers, who cannot
afford chemicals, have it even worse. They cap do little more than watch their plants die.
“Most of the banana fields in Amazonia have already been destroyed by the disease,” says
Luadir Gasparotto, Brazil’s leading banana pathologist with the government research agency
EMBRAPA. Production is likely to fall by 70 per cent as the disease spreads, he predicts. The
only option will be to find a new variety.

But how? Almost all edible varieties are susceptible to the diseases, so growers cannot
simply change to a different banana. With most crops, such a threat would unleash an army
of breeders, scouring the world for resistant relatives whose traits they can breed into
commercial varieties. Not so with the banana. Because all edible varieties are sterile,
bringing in new genetic traits to help cope with pests and diseases is nearly impossible.
Nearly, but not totally. Very rarely, a sterile banana will experience a genetic accident that
allows an almost normal seed to develop, giving breeders a tiny window for improvement.
Breeders at the Honduran Foundation of Agricultural Research have tried to exploit this to
create disease-resistant varieties. Further back-crossing with wild bananas yielded a new
seedless banana resistant to both black Sigatoka and Panama disease.

Neither Western supermarket consumers nor peasant growers like the new hybrid. Some
accuse it of tasting more like an apple than a banana. Not surprisingly, the majority of plant
breeders have till now turned their backs on the banana and got to work on easier plants.
And commercial banana companies are now washing their hands of the whole breeding
effort, preferring to fund a search for new fungicides instead. “We supported a breeding
programme for 40 years, but it wasn't able to develop an alternative to the Cavendish. It
was very expensive and we got nothing back,” says Ronald Romero, head of research at
Chiquita, one of the Big Three companies that dominate the international banana trade.

Last year, a global consortium of scientists led by Frison announced plans to sequence the
banana genome within five years. It would be the first edible fruit to be sequenced. Well,
almost edible. The group will actually be sequencing inedible wild bananas from East Asia
because many of these are resistant to black Sigatoka. If they can pinpoint the genes that
help these wild varieties to resist black Sigatoka, the protective genes could be introduced
into laboratory tissue cultures of cells from edible varieties. These could then be propagated
into new disease-resistant plants and passed on to farmers.

It sounds promising, but the big banana companies have, until now, refused to get involved
in GM research for fear of alienating their customers. “Biotechnology is extremely expensive
and there are serious questions about consumer acceptance,” says David McLaughlin,
Chiquita’s senior director for environ- mental affairs. With scant funding from the
companies, the banana genome researchers are focusing on the other end of the spectrum.
Even if they can identify the crucial genes, they will be a long way from developing new
varieties that smallholders will find suitable and affordable. But whatever biotechnology’s

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academic interest, it is the only hope for the banana. Without it, banana production
worldwide will head into a tailspin. We may even see the extinction of the banana as both a
lifesaver for hungry and impoverished Africans and the most popular product on the world’s
supermarket shelves.

SECTION 1: QUESTIONS 1-13


Questions 1-3
Complete the sentences below with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for
each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 1-3 on your answer sheet.

Banana was first eaten as a fruit by humans almost 1__________years ago.

Banana was first planted in 2__________

Wild banana’s taste is adversely affected by its 3__________

Questions 4-10
Look at the statements (Questions 4-10) and the list of people. Match each statement with
the correct person A-F.

Write the correct letter A-F in boxes 4-10 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

List of People B David McLaughlin D Ronald Romero F Geoff Hawtin

A Rodomiro Ortiz C Emile Frison E Luadir Gasparotto

4. A pest invasion may seriously damage banana industry.

5. The effect of fungal infection in soil is often long-lasting.

6. A commercial manufacturer gave up on breeding bananas for disease-resistant

7. Banana disease may develop resistance to chemical sprays.

8. A banana disease has destroyed a large number of banana plantations.

9. Consumers would not accept genetically altered crops.

10. Lessons can be learned from bananas for other crops.

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Questions 11-13
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1?
In boxes 11-13 on your answer sheet write

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

11. Banana is the oldest known fruit.

12. Gros Michel is still being used as a commercial product.

13. Banana is the main food in some countries.

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READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based on Reading
Passage 2 below.

Coastal Archaeology of Britain


A The recognition of the wealth and diversity of England’s coastal archaeology has been one
of the most important developments of recent years. Some elements of this enormous
resource have long been known. The so-called ‘submerged forests’ off the coasts of
England, sometimes with clear evidence of the human activity, had attracted the interest of
antiquarians since at least the eighteenth century, but serious and systematic attention has
been given to the archaeological potential of the coast only since the early 1980s.

B It is possible to trace a variety of causes for this concentration of effort and interest. In the
1980s and 1990s scientific research into climate change and its environmental impact spilled
over into a much broader public debate as awareness of these issues grew; the prospect of
rising sea levels over the next century, and their impact on current coastal environments,
has been a particular focus for concern. At the same time archaeologists were beginning to
recognize that the destruction caused by natural processes of coastal erosion and by human
activity was having an increasing impact on the archaeological resource of the coast.

C The dominant process affecting the physical form of England in the post- glacial period has
been rising in the altitude of sea level relative to the land, as theglaciers melted and the
landmass readjusted. The encroachment of the sea, the loss of huge areas of land now
under the North Sea and the English Channel, and especially the loss of the land bridge
between England and France, which finally made Britain an island, must have been

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immensely significant factors in the lives of our prehistoric ancestors. Yet the way in which
prehistoric communities adjusted to these environmental changes has seldom been a major
theme in discussions of the period. One factor contributing to this has been that, although
the rise in relative sea level is comparatively well documented, we know little about the
constant reconfiguration of the coastline. This was affected by many processes, mostly
quite, which have not yet been adequately researched. The detailed reconstruction of
coastline histories and the changing environments available for human use will be an
important theme for future research.

D So great has been the rise in sea level and the consequent regression of the coast that
much of the archaeological evidence now exposed in the coastal zone. Whether being
eroded or exposed as a buried land surface, is derived from what was originally terres-trial
occupation. Its current location in the coastal zone is the product of later unrelated
processes, and it can tell us little
about past adaptations to the sea. Estimates of its significance will need to be made in the
context of other related evidence from dry land sites. Nevertheless, its physical
environment means that preservation is often excellent, for
example in the case of the Neolithic structure excavated at the Stumble in Essex.

E In some cases these buried land surfaces do contain evidence for human exploitation of
what was a coastal environment, and elsewhere along the modem coast there is similar
evidence. Where the evidence does relate to past human exploitation of the resources and
the opportunities offered by the sea and the coast, it is both diverse and as yet little
understood. We are not yet in a position to make even preliminary estimates of answers to
such fundamental questions as the extent to which the sea and the coast affected human
life in the past, what percentage of the population at any time lived within reach of the sea,
or whether human settlements in coastal environments showed a distinct character from
those inland.

F The most striking evidence for use of the sea is in the form of boats, yet we still have much
to learn about their production and use. Most of the known wrecks around our coast are
not unexpectedly of post-medieval date, and offer an unparalleled opportunity for research
which has yet been little used. The prehistoric sewn-plank boats such as those from the
Humber estuary and Dover all seem to belong to the second millennium BC; after this there
is a gap in the record of a millennium, which cannot yet be explained before boats reappear,
but it built using a very different technology. Boatbuilding must have been an extremely
important activity around much of our coast, yet we know almost nothing about it. Boats
were some of the most complex artefacts produced by pre-modem societies, and further
research on their production and use make an important contribution to our understanding
of past attitudes to technology and technological change.

G Boats need landing places, yet here again our knowledge is very patchy. In many cases the
natural shores and beaches would have sufficed, leaving little or no archaeological trace, but

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especially in later periods, many ports and harbors, as well as smaller facilities such as
quays, wharves, and jetties, were built. Despite a growth of interest in the waterfront
archaeology of some of our more important Roman and medieval towns, very little
attention has been paid to the multitude of smaller landing places. Redevelopment of
harbor sites and other development and natural pressures along the coast are subject these
important locations to unprecedented threats, yet few surveys of such sites have been
undertaken.

H One of the most important revelations of recent research has been the extent of
industrial activity along the coast. Fishing and salt production are among the better
documented activities, but even here our knowledge is patchy. Many forms of fishing will
leave little archaeological trace, and one of the surprises of recent survey has been the
extent of past investment in facilities for procuring fish and shellfish. Elaborate wooden fish
weirs, often of considerable extent and responsive to aerial photography in shallow water,
have been identified in areas such as Essex and the Severn estuary. The production of salt,
especially in the late Iron Age and early Roman periods, has been recognized for some time,
especially in the Thames estuary and around the Solent and Poole Harbor, but the reasons
for the decline of that industry and the nature of later coastal salt working are much less
well understood. Other industries were also located along the coast, either because the raw
materials outcropped there or for ease of working and transport: mineral resources such as
sand, gravel, stone, coal, ironstone, and alum were all exploited. These industries are poorly
documented, but their remains are sometimes extensive and striking.

I Some appreciation of the variety and importance of the archaeological remains preserved
in the coastal zone, albeit only in preliminary form, can thus be gained from recent work,
but the complexity of the problem of managing that resource is also being realized. The
problem arises not only from the scale and variety of the archaeological remains, but also
from two other sources: the very varied natural and human threats to the resource, and the
complex web of organizations with authority over, or interests in, the coastal zone. Human
threats include the redevelopment of historic towns and old dockland areas, and the
increased importance of the coast for the leisure and tourism industries, resulting in
pressure for the increased provision of facilities such as marinas. The larger size of ferries
has also caused an increase in the damage caused by their wash to fragile deposits in the
intertidal zone. The most significant natural threat is the predicted rise in sea level over the
next century especially in the south and east of England. Its impact on archaeology is not
easy to predict, and though it is likely to be highly localized, it will be at a scale much larger
than that of most archaeological sites. Thus protecting one site may simply result in
transposing the threat to a point further along the coast. The management of the
archaeological remains will have to be considered in a much longer time scale and a much
wider geographical scale than is common in the case of dry land sites, and this will pose a
serious challenge for archaeologists.

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SECTION 2: QUESTIONS 14-26


Questions 14-16
Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D.

Write your answers in boxes 14-16 on your answer sheet.

14. What has caused public interest in coastal archaeology in recent years?

e. The rapid development of England’^coastal archaeologyThe rapid development of


England’^coastal archaeology
f. The rising awareness of climate change
g. The discovery of an underwater forest
h. The systematic research conducted on coastal archaeological findings

15. What does the passage say about the evidence of boats?

e. There’s enough knowledge of the boatbuilding technology of the prehistoric people.


f. Many of the boats discovered were found in harbours.
g. The use of boats had not been recorded for a thousand years.
h. Boats were first used for fishing.

16. What can be discovered from the air?

e. Salt mines
f. Roman towns
g. Harbours
h. Fisheries

Questions 17-23
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 2?
In boxes 17-23 on your answer sheet write

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

17. England lost much of its land after the ice age due to the rising sea level.

18. The coastline of England has changed periodically.

19. Coastal archaeological evidence may be well protected by sea water.

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20. The design of boats used by pre-modern people was very simple.

21. Similar boats were also discovered in many other European countries.

22. There are few documents relating to mineral exploitation.

23. Large passenger boats are causing increasing damage to the seashore.

Questions 24-26
Choose THREE letters A-G.

Write your answers in boxes 24-26 on your answer sheet.

Which THREE of the following statements are mentioned in the passage?

h. How coastal archaeology was originally discovered


i. It is difficult to understand how many people lived close to the sea.
j. How much the prehistoric communities understand the climate change
k. Our knowledge of boat evidence is limited.
l. Some fishing ground was converted to ports.
m. Human development threatens the archaeological remains
n. Coastal archaeology will become more important in the future.

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READING PASSAGE 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based on Reading
Passage 3 below.

Travel Books
There are many reasons why individuals have travelled beyond their own societies. Some
travellers may have simply desired to satisfy curiosity about the larger world. Until recent
times, however, travellers did start their journey for reasons other than mere curiosity.
While the travellers’ accounts give much valuable information on these foreign lands and
provide a window for the understanding of the local cultures and histories, they are also a
mirror to the travellers themselves, for these accounts help them to have a better under-
standing of themselves.

Records of foreign travel appeared soon after the invention of writing, and fragmentary
travel accounts appeared in both Mesopotamia and Egypt in ancient times. After the
formation of large, imperial states in the classical world, travel accounts emerged as a
prominent literary genre in many lands, and they held especially strong appeal for rulers
desiring useful knowledge about their realms. The Greek historian Herodotus reported on
his travels in Egypt and Anatolia in researching the history of the Persian wars. The Chinese
envoy Zhang Qian described much of central Asia as far west as Bactria (modern- day
Afghanistan) on the basis of travels undertaken in the first century BCE while searching for
allies for the Han dynasty. Hellenistic and Roman geographers such as Ptolemy, Strabo, and
Pliny the Elder relied on their own travels through much of the Mediterranean world as well
as reports of other travellers to compile vast compendia of geographical knowledge.

During the post-classical era (about 500 to 1500 CE), trade and pilgrimage j? emerged as
major incentives for travel to foreign lands. Muslim merchants sought trading opportunities

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throughout much of the eastern hemisphere. They described lands, peoples, and
commercial products of the Indian Ocean basin from East Africa to Indonesia, and they
supplied the first written accounts of societies in sub-Saharan West Africa. While merchants
set out in search of trade and profit, devout Muslims travelled as pilgrims to Mecca to make
their hajj and visit the holy sites of Islam. Since the prophet Muhammad’s original
pilgrimage to Mecca, untold millions of Muslims have followed his example, and thousands
of hajj accounts have related their experiences. East Asian travellers were not quite so
prominent as Muslims during the post-classical era, but they too followed many of the
highways and sea lanes of the eastern hemisphere. Chinese merchants frequently visited
South-East Asia and India, occasionally venturing even to East Africa, and devout East Asian
Buddhists undertook distant pilgrimages. Between the 5th and 9th centuries CE, hundreds
and possibly even thousands of Chinese Buddhists travelled to India to study with Buddhist
teachers, collect sacred texts, and visit holy sites. Written accounts recorded the
experiences of many pilgrims, such as Faxian, Xuanzang, and Yijing. Though not so numerous
as the Chinese pilgrims, Buddhists from Japan, Korea, and other lands also ventured abroad
in the interests of spiritual enlightenment.

Medieval Europeans did not hit the roads in such large numbers as their Muslim and East
Asian counterparts during the early part of the post-classical era, although gradually
increasing crowds of Christian pilgrims flowed to Jerusalem, Rome, Santiago de Compostela
(in northern Spain), and other sites. After the 12th century, however, merchants, pilgrims,
and missionaries from medieval Europe travelled widely and left numerous travel accounts,
of which Marco Polo’s description of his travels and sojourn in China is the best known. As
they became familiar with the larger world of the eastern hemisphere - and the profitable
commercial opportunities that it offered - European peoples worked to find new and more
direct routes to Asian and African markets. Their efforts took them not only to all parts of
the eastern hemisphere, but eventuallv to the Americas and Oceania as well.

If Muslim and Chinese peoples dominated travel and travel writing in post- classical times,
European explorers, conquerors, merchants, and missionaries took centre stage during the
early modern era (about 1500 to 1800 CE). By no means did Muslim and Chinese travel
come to a halt in early modern times. But European peoples ventured to the distant corners
of the globe, and European printing presses churned out thousands of travel accounts that
described foreign lands and peoples for a reading public with an apparently insatiable
appetite for news about the larger world. The volume of travel literature was so great that
several editors, including Giambattista Ramusio, Richard Hakluyt, Theodore de Biy, and
Samuel Purchas, assembled numerous travel accounts and made them available in
enormous published collections.

During the 19th century, European travellers made their way to the interior regions of Africa
and the Americas, generating a fresh round of travel writing as they did so. Meanwhile,

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European colonial administrators devoted numerous writings to the societies of their


colonial subjects, particularly in Asian and African colonies they established. By mid-century,
attention was flowing also in the other direction. Painfullv aware of the military and
technological prowess of European and Euro-American societies, Asian travellers in particu-
lar visited Europe and the United States in hopes of discovering principles useful for the
organisation of their own societies. Among the most prominent of these travellers who
made extensive use of their overseas observations and experiences in their own writings
were the Japanese reformer Fukuzawa Yu- kichi and the Chinese revolutionary Sun Yat-sen.

With the development of inexpensive and reliable means of mass transport, the 20th
century witnessed explosions both in the frequency of long-distance travel and in the
volume of travel writing. While a great deal of travel took place for reasons of business,
administration, diplomacy, pilgrimage, and missionary work, as in ages past, increasingly
effective modes of mass transport made it possible for new kinds of travel to flourish. The
most distinctive of them was mass tourism, which emerged as a major form of consumption
.for individuals living in the world’s wealthy societies. Tourism enabled consumers to get
away from home to see the sights in Rome, take a cruise through the Caribbean, walk the
Great Wall of China, visit some wineries in Bordeaux, or go on safari in Kenya. A peculiar
variant of the travel account arose to meet the needs of these tourists: the guidebook,
which offered advice on food, lodging, shopping, local customs, and all the sights that
visitors should not miss seeing. Tourism has had a massive economic impact throughout the
world, but other new forms of travel have also had considerable influence in contemporary
times.

SECTION 3: QUESTIONS 27-40


Questions 27-28
Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D.
Write your answers in boxes 27-28 on your answer sheet.
27. What were most people travelling for in the early days?

e. Studying their own cultures


f. Business
g. Knowing other people and places better
h. Writing travel books

28. Why did the author say writing travel books is also “a mirror” for travellers themselves?

e. Because travellers record their own experiences.


f. Because travellers reflect upon their own society and life.
g. Because it increases knowledge of foreign cultures.
h. Because it is related to the development of human society.

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Questions 29-36
Complete the table on the next page.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from Reading Passage 3 for each answer.
TIME TRAVELLER DESTINATION PURPOSE OF TRAVEL

Classical Greece Herodotus Egypt and Anatolia To gather information


for the study
of 29_________

Han Dynasty Zhang Qian Central Asia To seek 30_________

Roman Empire Ptolemy, Strabo, The Mediterranean To


Pliny the Elder acquire 31_________

Post-classical Muslims From East Africa to For trading


era (about 500 Indonesia, Mecca and 32_________
to 1500 CE)

5th - Chinese 33_________ To collect Buddhist


9thCenturies CE Buddhists texts and for spiritual
enlightenment

Early modern To satisfy public


era (about 1500 European curiosity for the New
to 1800 CE) explorers The New World World

To provide information
During 19th Colonial for the 34_______ they
century administrators Asia, Africa set up

Sun Yat-sen, To study


the 35_________of
Fukuzawa
By mid-century Europe and the their societies
of the 1800s Yukichi United States

People from

36_________
For entertainment and
20th century countries Mass tourism pleasure

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Questions 37-40
Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D.

Write your answers in boxes 37-40 on your answer sheet.

37. Why were the imperial rulers especially interested in these travel stories?

e. Reading travel stories was a popular pastime.


f. The accounts are often truthful rather than fictional.
g. Travel books played an important role in literature.
h. They desired knowledge of their empire.

38. Who were the largest group to record their spiritual trips during the post-classical era?

e. Muslim traders
f. Muslim pilgrims
g. Chinese Buddhists
h. Indian Buddhist teachers

39. During the early modern era, a large number of travel books were published to

e. meet the public’s interest.


f. explore new business opportunities.
g. encourage trips to the new world.
h. record the larger world.

40. What’s the main theme of the passage?

e. The production of travel books


f. The literary status of travel books
g. The historical significance of travel books
h. The development of travel books

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TEST 21

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LISTENING
SECTION 1 : QUESTIONS 1-10
Questions 1-6
Complete the form below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

PATIENT RECORD
Time of appointment: 10:00 am

Given names: Simon 1________________

Family name: Lee

Date of birth: 2________________1989

Address: 3________________Adams Terrace, Wellington

Phone number: 0211558809

Name of insurance company: 4________________

Date of last eye test: 5________________

Patient’s observations: Problems seeing 6________________

Questions 7-10
Answer the questions below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

When must Simon wear his glasses?

7________________________________________________

What type of glasses are the least expensive?

8________________________________________________

What is good about the glasses Simon chooses?

9________________________________________________

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How does Simon decide to pay?

10________________________________________________

SECTION 2 : QUESTIONS 11-20


Questions 11-12
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

11. Who is buried in the tomb of the Taj Mahal?

d. the emperor Shahjahan


e. the wife of Shahjahan
f. the emperor and his wife

12. Where did the white marble come from?

d. India
e. China
f. Persia

Questions 13-16
Label the plan below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

13________________________________

14________________________________

15________________________________

16________________________________

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Question 17
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
17. What is the purpose of the Rest House?

d. a place for the poor to stay


e. a meeting place for pilgrims
f. an architectural feature

Questions 18-20
Complete the flow chart below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
How running water is provided
Water taken from the 18________________by bullocks.

Water channelled into the 19________________

Water piped to the 20________________

SECTION 3 : QUESTIONS 21-30


Questions 21-24
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C

21. What background information does Daisy give about rice?

d. Wild rice is grown throughout Asia


e. Some types of rice need less water than others.
f. All rice varieties have a lovely aroma

22. Erik says that a priority for rice farmers is to be able to

d. grow rice without fertilizers.


e. predict the weather patterns.
f. manage water resources.

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23. Where is the International Rice Research Institute?

d. The Philippines
e. China
f. Japan

24. Scientists in Bangladesh want to find a

d. more effective type of fertilizer.


e. strain of rice resistant to flooding.
f. way to reduce the effects of global warming.

Questions 25-30
Which country do the following statements apply to?

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

A Japan

B China

C Thailand

25. They grow the most rice in the world.

26. They export the most rice in the world.

27. They aim to increase the nutritional value of rice.

28. Less rice is eaten than in the past.

29. An annual rice festival takes place.

30. A new type of rice is now popular locally.

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SECTION 4 : QUESTIONS 31-40


Questions 31-33
Complete the sentences below.

Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD for each answer,

RADIO WRITING
You may have to ignore some of the ordinary 31____________of writing.

Written words do not indicate things like emphasis, the 32____________of reading or
where to pause.

A script needs to sound like a 33____________

Questions 34-40
Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Know who you are talking to


Imagine a typical listener:

e.g. imagine telling your 34____________about a film.

Create an informal tone:

e.g. use words like 35____________

Work out what you are going to say

Remember:

listeners cannot ask questions

you cannot 36____________ideas

Make your script logical:

37____________the information.

Use concrete images e.g. compare the size of a field to a 38____________

Use the 39____________to get attention. Check the script by 40____________

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READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on Reading Passage
1 below.

Dirty River But Clean Water


Floods can occur in rivers when the flow rate exceeds the capacity of the river channel,
particularly at bends or meanders in the waterway. Floods often cause damage to homes
and businesses if they are in the natural flood plains of rivers. While riverine flood damage
can be eliminated by moving away from rivers and other bodies of water, people
have traditionally lived and worked by rivers because the land is usually flat and fertile and
because rivers provide easy travel and access to commerce and industry.

A Fire and flood are two of humanity’s worst nightmares. People have,therefore,always
sought to control them. Forest fires are snuffed out quickly. The flow of rivers is regulated
by weirs and dams. At least, that is how it used to be. But foresters have learned that forests
need fires to clear out the brash and even to get seeds to germinate. And a similar
revelation is now – dawning on hydrologists. Rivers – and the ecosystems they support –
need floods. That is why a man-made torrent has been surging down the Grand Canyon. By
Thursday March 6th it was running at full throttle, which was expected to be sustained for
60 hours.

B Floods once raged through the canyon every year. Spring Snow from as far away as
Wyoming would melt and swell the Colorado river to a flow that averaged around 1,500
cubic metres (50,000 cubic feet) a second. Every eight years or so, that figure rose to almost
3,000 cubic metres. These floods infused the river with sediment, carved its beaches and
built its sandbars.

C However, in the four decades since the building of the Glen Canyon dam, just upstream
of the Grand Canyon, the only sediment that it has collected has come from tiny,
undammed tributaries. Even that has not been much use as those tributaries are not
powerful enough to distribute the sediment in an ecologically valuable way.

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D This lack of flooding has harmed local wildlife. The humpback chub,for example, thrived
in the rust-redwaters of the Colorado. Recently, though, its population has crashed. At first
sight, it looked as if the reason was that the chub were being eaten by trout introduced for
sport fishing in the mid-20th century. But trout and chub co-existed until the Glen Canyon
dam was built, so something else is going on. Steve Gloss, of the United States’ Geological
Survey (USGS), reckons that the chub’s decline is the result of their losing their most
valuable natural defense, the Colorado’s rusty sediment. The chub were well adapted to the
poor visibility created by the thick, red water which gave the river its name, and depended
on it to hide from predators. Without the cloudy water the chub became vulnerable.

E And the chub are not alone. In the years since the Glen Canyon dam was built, several
species have vanished altogether. These include the Colorado pike-minnow, the razorback
sucker and the round-tail chub. Meanwhile, aliens including fathead minnows, channel
catfish and common carp, which would have been hard, put to survive in the savage waters
of the undammed canyon, have move din.

F So flooding is the obvious answer. Unfortunately, it is easier said than done. Floods were
sent down the Grand Canyon in 1996 and 2004 and the results were mixed. In 1996 the
flood was allowed to go on too long. To start with,all seemed well. The floodwaters built up
sandbanks and infused the river with sediment. Eventually, however, the continued flow
washed most of the sediment out of the canyon. This problem was avoided in 2004, but
unfortunately, on that occasion, the volume of sand available behind the dam was too low
to rebuild the sandbanks. This time, the USGS is convinced that things will be better. The
amount of sediment available is three times greater than it was in 2004. So if a flood is going
to do some good, this is the time to unleash one.

G Even so, it may turn out to be an empty gesture. At less than 1,200 cubic metres a
second, this flood is smaller than even an average spring flood, let alone one of the mightier
deluges of the past. Those glorious inundations moved massive quantities of sediment
through the Grand Canyon,wiping the slate dirty, and making a muddy mess of silt and muck
that would make modern river rafters cringe.

SECTION 1: QUESTIONS 1-13


Questions 1-7
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage?
In boxes 1-7 on your answer sheet, write
TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

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1. Damage caused by fire is worse than that caused by flood


2. The flood peaks at almost 1500 cubic meters every eight years.

3. Contribution of sediments delivered by tributaries has little impact.

4. Decreasing number of chubs is always caused by introducing of trout since mid 20th
century.

5. It seemed that the artificial flood in 1996 had achieved success partly at the very
beginning.

6. In fact, the yield of artificial flood water is smaller than an average natural flood at
present.

7. Mighty floods drove fast moving flows with clean and high quality water.

Questions 8-13
Complete the summary below.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 8-13 on your answer sheet.

The eco-impact of the Canyon Dam


Floods are people’s nightmare. In the past, canyon was raged by flood every year. The snow
from far Wyoming would melt in the season of 8___________and caused a flood flow peak
in Colorado river. In the four decades after people built the Glen Canyon dam, it only could
gather 9___________together from tiny, undammed tributaries.

Humpback chub population on reduced, why?

Then, several species disappeared including Colorado pike-minnow, 10___________and the


round-tail chub. Meanwhile, some moved in such as fathead minnows, channel catfish
and 11___________. The non-stopped flow leaded to the washing away of the sediment out
of the canyon, which poses great threat to the chubs because it has poor 12________ away
from predators. In addition, the volume of 13________available behind the dam was too
low to rebuild the bars and flooding became more serious.

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READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based on Reading
Passage 2 below.

Activities for Children


A Twenty-five years ago, children in London walked to school and played in parks and
playing fields after school and at the weekend. Today they are usually driven to school by
parents anxious about safety and spend hours glued to television screens or computer
games. Meanwhile, community playing fields are being sold off to property developers at an
alarming rate. ‘This change in lifestyle has, sadly, meant greater restrictions on children,’
says Neil Armstrong, Professor of Health and Exercise Sciences at the University of Exeter. ‘If
children continue to be this inactive, they’ll be storing up big problems for the future.’

B In 1985, Professor Armstrong headed a five-year research project into children’s fitness.
The results, published in 1990, were alarming. The survey, which monitored 700 11-16-year-
olds, found that 48 per cent of girls and 41 per cent of boys already exceeded safe
cholesterol levels set for children by the American Heart Foundation. Armstrong adds,
“heart is a muscle and need exercise, or it loses its strength.” It also found that 13 per cent
of boys and 10 per cent of girls were overweight. More disturbingly, the survey found that
over a four-day period, half the girls and one-third of the boys did less exercise than the
equivalent of a brisk 10-minute walk. High levels of cholesterol, excess body fat and
inactivity are believed to increase the risk of coronary heart disease.

C Physical education is under pressure in the UK – most schools devote little more than 100
minutes a week to it in curriculum time, which is less than many other European countries.

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Three European countries are giving children a head start in PE, France, Austria and
Switzerland – offer at least two hours in primary and secondary schools. These findings,
from the European Union of Physical Education Associations, prompted specialists in
children’s physiology to call on European governments to give youngsters a daily PE
programme. The survey shows that the UK ranks 13th out of the 25 countries, with Ireland
bottom, averaging under an hour a week for PE. From age six to 18,British children
received, on average, 106 minutes of PE a week. Professor Armstrong, who presented the
findings at the meeting, noted that since the introduction of the national curriculum there
had been a marked fall in the time devoted to PE in UK schools, with only a minority of
pupils getting two hours a week.

D As a former junior football international, Professor Armstrong is a passionate advocate for


sport. Although the Government has poured millions into beefing up sport in the
community, there is less commitment to it as part of the crammed school curriculum. This
means that many children never acquire the necessary skills to thrive in team games. If they
are no good at them, they lose interest and establish an inactive pattern of behaviour.
When this is coupled with a poor diet, it will lead inevitably to weight gain. Seventy per cent
of British children give up all sport when they leave school, compared with only 20 per cent
of French teenagers. Professor Armstrong believes that there is far too great an emphasis
on team games at school. “We need to look at the time devoted to PE and balance it
between individual and pair activities, such as aerobics and badminton, as well as team
sports. “He added that children need to have the opportunity to take part in a wide variety
of individual, partner and team sports.

E The good news, however, is that a few small companies and children’s activity groups have
reacted positively and creatively to the problem. Take That, shouts Gloria Thomas, striking a
disco pose astride her mini-spacehopper. Take That, echo a flock of toddlers, adopting
outrageous postures astride their space hoppers. ‘Michael Jackson, she shouts, and they all
do a spoof fan-crazed shriek. During the wild and chaotic hopper race across the studio
floor, commands like this are issued and responded to with untrammelled glee. The sight of
15 bouncing seven-year-olds who seem about to launch into orbit at every bounce brings
tears to the eyes. Uncoordinated, loud, excited and emotional, children provide raw
comedy.

F Any cardiovascular exercise is a good option, and it doesn’t necessarily have to be high
intensity. It can be anything that gets your heart rate up: such as walking the dog,
swimming, miming, skipping, hiking. “Even walking through the grocery store can be
exercise,” Samis-Smith said. What they don’t know is that they’re at a Fit Kids class, and that
the fun is a disguise for the serious exercise plan they’re covertly being taken through. Fit
Kids trains parents to run fitness classes for children. ‘Ninety per cent of children don’t like
team sports,’ says company director, Gillian Gale.

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G A Prevention survey found that children whose parents keep in shape are much more
likely to have healthy body weights themselves. “There’s nothing worse than telling a child
what he needs to do and not doing it yourself,” says Elizabeth Ward, R.D., a Boston
nutritional consultant and author of Healthy Foods, Healthy Kids . “Set a good example and
get your nutritional house in order first.” In the 1930s and ’40s, kids expended 800 calories a
day just walking, carrying water, and doing other chores, notes Fima Lifshitz, M.D., a
pediatric endocrinologist in Santa Barbara. “Now, kids in obese families are expending only
200 calories a day in physical activity,” says Lifshitz, “incorporate more movement in your
family’s lifepark farther away from the stores at the mall, take stairs instead of the elevator,
and walk to nearby friends’ houses instead of driving.”

SECTION 2: QUESTIONS 14-26


Questions 14-17
The reading Passage has seven paragraphs A-G.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the correct letter A-G, in boxes 14-17 on your answer sheet.

14. Health and living condition of children

15. Health organization monitored physical activity

16. Comparison of exercise time between UK and other countries

17. Wrong approach for school activity

Questions 18-21
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 2?
In boxes 18-21 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

18. According to American Heart Foundation, cholesterol levels of boys are higher than
girls’.

19. British children generally do less exercise than some other European countries.

20. Skipping becomes more and more popular in schools of UK.

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21. According to Healthy Kids, the first task is for parents to encourage their children to
keep the same healthy body weight.

Questions 22-26
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write your answers in boxes 22-26 on your answer sheet.

22. According to paragraph A, what does Professor Neil Armstrong concern about?

e. Spending more time on TV affect academic level


f. Parents have less time stay with their children
g. Future health of British children
h. Increasing speed of property’s development

23. What does Armstrong indicate in Paragraph B?

e. We need to take a 10 minute walk everyday


f. We should do more activity to exercise heart
g. Girls’ situation is better than boys
h. Exercise can cure many disease

24. What is aim of Fit Kids’ trainning?

e. Make profit by running several sessions


f. Only concentrate on one activity for each child
g. To guide parents how to organize activities for children
h. Spread the idea that team sport is better

25. What did Lifshitz suggest in the end of this passage?

e. Create opportunities to exercise your body


f. Taking elevator saves your time
g. Kids should spend more than 200 calories each day
h. We should never drive but walk

26. What is main idea of this passage?

e. health of the children who are overweight is at risk in the future


f. Children in UK need proper exercises
g. Government mistaken approach for children
h. Parents play the most important role in children’s activity

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READING PASSAGE 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based on Reading
Passage 3 below.

Mechanisms of Linguistic Change


A The changes that have caused the most disagreement are those in pronunciation. We
have various sources of evidence for the pronunciations of earlier times, such as the
spellings, the treatment of words borrowed from other languages or borrowed by them, the
descriptions of contemporary grammarians and spelling-reformers, and the modern
pronunciations in all the languages and dialects concerned From the middle of the sixteenth
century, there are in England writers who attempt to describe the position of the speech-
organs for the production of English phonemes, and who invent what are in effect systems
of phonetic symbols. These various kinds of evidence, combined with a knowledge of the
mechanisms of speech-production, can often give us a very good idea of the pronunciation
of an earlier age, though absolute certainty is never possible.

B When we study the pronunciation of a language over any period of a few generations or
more, we find there are always large-scale regularities in the changes: for example, over a
certain period of time, just about all the long [a:] vowels in a language may change into long
[e:] vowels, or all the [b] consonants in a certain position (for example at the end of a word)
may change into [p] consonants. Such regular changes are often called sound laws. There
are no universal sound laws (even though sound laws often reflect universal tendencies),
but simply particular sound laws for one given language (or dialect) at one given period

C It is also possible that fashion plays a part in the process of change. It certainly plays a part
in the spread of change: one person imitates another, and people with the most prestige
are most likely to be imitated, so that a change that takes place in one social group may be
imitated (more or less accurately) by speakers in another group. When a social group goes
up or down in the world, its pronunciation of Russian, which had formerly been considered
desirable, became on the contrary an undesirable kind of accent to have, so that people

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tried to disguise it. Some of the changes in accepted English pronunciation in the
seventeenth and eighteenth centuries have been shown to consist in the replacement of
one style of pronunciation by another style already existing, and it is likely that such
substitutions were a result of the great social changes of the period: the increased power
and wealth of the middle classes, and their steady infiltration upwards into the ranks of the
landed gentry, probably carried elements of middle-class pronunciation into upper-class
speech.

D A less specific variant of the argument is that the imitation of children is imperfect: they
copy their parents’ speech, but never reproduce it exactly. This is true, but it is also true that
such deviations from adult speech are usually corrected in later childhood. Perhaps it is
more significant that even adults show a certain amount of random variation in their
pronunciation of a given phoneme, even if the phonetic context is kept unchanged. This,
however, cannot explain changes in pronunciation unless it can be shown that there is some
systematic trend in the failures of imitation: if they are merely random deviations they will
cancel one another out and there will be no net change in the language.

E One such force which is often invoked is the principle of ease, or minimization of effort.
The change from fussy to fuzzy would be an example of assimilation, which is a very
common kind of change. Assimilation is the changing of a sound under the influence of a
neighbouring one. For example, the word scant was once skamt, but the /m/ has been
changed to /n/ under the influence of the following /t/. Greater efficiency has hereby been
achieved, because /n/ and /t/ are articulated in the same place (with the tip of the tongue
against the teeth-ridge), whereas /m/ is articulated elsewhere (with the two lips). So the
place of articulation of the nasal consonant has been changed to conform with that of the
following plosive. A more recent example of the same kind of thing is the common
pronunciation of football as football.

F Assimilation is not the only way in which we change our pronunciation in order to increase
efficiency. It is very common for consonants to be lost at the end of a word: in Middle
English, word-final [-n] was often lost in unstressed syllables, so that baken ‘to bake’
changed from *‘ba:kan+ to *‘ba:k3+,and later to *ba:k+. Consonant-clusters are often
simplified. At one time there was a [t] in words like castle and Christmas, and an initial [k] in
words like knight and know. Sometimes a whole syllable is dropped out when two
successive syllables begin with the same consonant (haplology): a recent example is
temporary, which in Britain is often pronounced as if it were tempory.

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SECTION 3: QUESTIONS 27-40


Questions 27-30
Complete the summary below.

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 27-30 on your answer sheet.

The pronunciation of living language undergo changes throughout thousands of years. Large
scale regular Changes are usually called 27__________. There are three reasons for these
changes. Firstly, the influence of one language on another; when one person
imitates another pronunciation(the most prestige’s), the imitation always partly involving
factor of 28__________. Secondly, the imitation of children from adults1 language
sometimes are 29__________, and may also contribute to this change if there are
insignificant deviations tough later they may be corrected Finally, for those random
variations in pronunciation, the deeper evidence lies in the 30__________ or minimization
of effort.

Questions 31-37
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 3?
In boxes 31-37 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

31. It is impossible for modern people to find pronunciation of words in an earlier age

32. The great change of language in Russian history is related to the rising status and fortune
of middle classes.

33. All the children learn speeches from adults white they assume that certain language is
difficult to imitate exactly.

34. Pronunciation with causal inaccuracy will not exert big influence on language changes.

35. The word scant can be pronounced more easily than skamt

36. The [g] in gnat not being pronounced will not be spelt out in the future.

37. The sound of ‘temporary’ cannot wholly present its spelling.

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Questions 38-40
Look at the following sentences and the list of statements below. Match each statement
with the correct sentence, A-D.

Write the correct letter, A-D, in boxes 38-40 on your answer sheet

A Since the speakers can pronounce it with less effort

B Assimilation of a sound under the influence of a neighbouring one

C It is a trend for changes in pronunciation in a large scale in a given


period

D Because the speaker can pronounce [n] and [t] both in the same
time

38. As a consequence, ‘b’ will be pronounced as

39. The pronunciation of [mt] changed to [nt]

40. The omit of 't' in the sound of Christmas

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TEST 22

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LISTENING
SECTION 1 : QUESTIONS 1-10
Question 1
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

Example What’s the name of the accommodation house?

A. Jerry House
B. Thomas House
C. Student House

1. The accommodation was originally built as _____

d. student flat.
e. local museum
f. private house.

Questions 2-3
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which of the following TWO facilities are NOT in the house?
f. bathroom h. computer room j. garage
g. balcony i. garden
Questions 4-7
Complete the table below.

Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

RULE

Bedroom and bathroom 4___________

5___________room Use before 11 p.m.

Lounge 6___________after 11 p.m

Yard 7___________

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Questions 8-10
Complete the sentences below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer

8___________is only allowed on weekends.

The opening time of the front door is 9___________

You can go to Room 101 beside reception to get a 10___________

SECTION 2 : QUESTIONS 11-20


Questions 11-17
Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for
each answer.

Item Tennis Soccer

Number of teams 11___________ 4

Age 16-22 Up to 12___________

13___________ court 2 14___________

Date 15___________ 16___________evenings

17___________ George Hansen Paul Bhatt

Questions 18-20
Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

The match always begins with a 18___________

19___________will be awarded an honour and prize.

All players must write a 20___________by April 18th.

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SECTION 3 : QUESTIONS 21-30


Questions 21-24
Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

The tutor’s new room number is 21___________

The tutorial time is at 22___________The reason for the student to see his tutor is
to 23___________

The student’s trouble is to have many 24___________to read.

Questions 25-28
Choose your answer below and write the letters, A-F, next to Questions 25-28.

What recommendations does the tutor make about the reference books?

Bayer: 25___

Oliver: 26___

Billy: 27___

Andrew: 28___

A All

B Research method

C Main Body

D Conclusion

E Avoid

F Argument

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Questions 29-30
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Which TWO of the following points does the tutor warn student’s research work?

f. interviewees
g. make data clearly
h. time arrangement
i. reference books
j. questionnaire design

SECTION 4 : QUESTIONS 31-40


Questions 31-40
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Magic Meteor Astronomy


Meteors are usually.named 31___________________

Meteoroids belong to inner 32___________________system.

Meteor storms are more beautiful and amazing than 33___________________

The biggest meteor storm happened in 34___________________

Leonids are usually connected with 35___________________

A 36___________________is brighter than any of the stars and planets.

Most meteors appear colour of 37___________________

In the 17th Century, many people regarded meteorite as 38___________________

The most magnificent meteorite event took place on 39___________________1908.

Dinosaurs became extinct about 40___________________years ago.

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READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on Reading Passage
1 below.

The Impact of the Potato


Jeff Chapman relates the story of history the most important vegetable

A The potato was first cultivated in South America between three and seven thousand years
ago, though scientists believe they may have grown wild in the region as long as 13,000
years ago. The genetic patterns of potato distribution indicate that the potato probably
originated in the mountainous west-central region of the continent.

B Early Spanish chroniclers who misused the Indian word batata (sweet potato) as the name
for the potato noted the importance of the tuber to the Incan Empire. The Incas had learned
to preserve the potato for storage by dehydrating and mashing potatoes into a substance
called Chuchu could be stored in a room for up to 10 years, providing excellent insurance
against possible crop failures. As well as using the food as a staple crop, the Incas thought
potatoes made childbirth easier and used it to treat injuries.

C The Spanish conquistadors first encountered the potato when they arrived in Peru in 1532
in search of gold, and noted Inca miners eating chuchu. At the time the Spaniards failed to
realize that the potato represented a far more important treasure than either silver or gold,
but they did gradually begin to use potatoes as basic rations aboard their ships. After the
arrival of the potato in Spain in 1570,a few Spanish farmers began to cultivate them on a
small scale, mostly as food for livestock.

D Throughout Europe, potatoes were regarded with suspicion, distaste and fear. Generally
considered to be unfit for human consumption, they were used only as animal fodder and
sustenance for the starving. In northern Europe, potatoes were primarily grown in botanical
gardens as an exotic novelty. Even peasants refused to eat from a plant that produced ugly,

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misshapen tubers and that had come from a heathen civilization. Some felt that the potato
plant’s resemblance to plants in the nightshade family hinted that it was the creation of
witches or devils.

E In meat-loving England, farmers and urban workers regarded potatoes with extreme
distaste. In 1662, the Royal Society recommended the cultivation of the tuber to the English
government and the nation, but this recommendation had little impact. Potatoes did not
become a staple until, during the food shortages associated with the Revolutionary Wars,
the English government began to officially encourage potato cultivation. In 1795, the Board
of Agriculture issued a pamphlet entitled “Hints Respecting the Culture and Use of
Potatoes”; this was followed shortly by pro-potato editorials and potato recipes in The
Times. Gradually, the lower classes began to follow the lead of the upper classes.

F A similar pattern emerged across the English Channel in the Netherlands, Belgium and
France. While the potato slowly gained ground in eastern France (where it was often the
only crop remaining after marauding soldiers plundered wheat fields and vineyards), it did
not achieve widespread acceptance until the late 1700s. The peasants remained suspicious,
in spite of a 1771 paper from the Facult de Paris testifying that the potato was not harmful
but beneficial. The people began to overcome their distaste when the plant received the
royal seal of approval: Louis XVI began to sport a potato flower in his buttonhole, and
Marie-Antoinette wore the purple potato blossom in her hair.

G Frederick the Great of Prussia saw the potato’s potential to help feed his nation and lower
the price of bread, but faced the challenge of overcoming the people’s prejudice against the
plant. When he issued a 1774 order for his subjects to grow potatoes as protection against
famine, the town of Kolberg replied: “The things have neither smell nor taste, not even the
dogs will eat them, so what use are they to us?” Trying a less direct approach to encourage
his subjects to begin planting potatoes, Frederick used a bit of reverse psychology: he
planted a royal field of potato plants and stationed a heavy guard to protect this field from
thieves. Nearby peasants naturally assumed that anything worth guarding was worth
stealing, and so snuck into the field and snatched the plants for their home gardens. Of
course, this was entirely in line with Frederick’s wishes.

H Historians debate whether the potato was primarily a cause or an effect of the huge
population boom in industrial-era England and Wales. Prior to 1800,the English diet had
consisted primarily of meat, supplemented by bread, butter and cheese. Few vegetables
were consumed, most vegetables being regarded as nutritionally worthless and potentially
harmful. This view began to change gradually in the late 1700s. The Industrial Revolution
was drawing an ever increasing percentage of the populace into crowded cities, where only
the richest could afford homes with ovens or coal storage rooms, and people were working
12-16 hour days which left them with little time or energy to prepare food. High yielding,
easily prepared potato crops were the obvious solution to England’s food problems.

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I Whereas most of their neighbors regarded the potato with suspicion and had to be
persuaded to use it by the upper classes, the Irish peasantry embraced the tuber more
passionately than anyone since the Incas. The potato was well suited to the Irish the soil and
climate, and its high yield suited the most important concern of most Irish farmers: to feed
their families.

J The most dramatic example of the potato’s potential to alter population patterns occurred
in Ireland, where the potato had become a staple by 1800. The Irish population doubled to
eight million between 1780 and 1841,this without any significant expansion of industry or
reform of agricultural techniques beyond the widespread cultivation of the potato. Though
Irish landholding practices were primitive in comparison with those of England, the potato’s
high yields allowed even the poorest farmers to produce more healthy food than they
needed with scarcely any investment or hard labor. Even children could easily plant, harvest
and cook potatoes, which of course required no threshing, curing or grinding. The
abundance provided by potatoes greatly decreased infant mortality and encouraged early
marriage.

SECTION 1: QUESTIONS 1-13


Questions 1-5
Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer in Reading Passage 1?

In boxes 1-5 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

1. The early Spanish called potato as the Incan name ‘Chuchu’

2. The purposes of Spanish coming to Peru were to find out potatoes

3. The Spanish believed that the potato has the same nutrients as other vegetables

4. Peasants at that time did not like to eat potatoes because they were ugly

5. The popularity of potatoes in the UK was due to food shortages during the war

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Questions 6-13
Complete the sentences below with NO MORE THAN ONE WORD from the passage 1 for
each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 6-13 on your answer sheet.

In France, people started to overcome their disgusting about potatoes because the King put
a potato 6____________in his button hole.

Frederick realized the potential of potato but he had to handle the 7____________against
potatoes from ordinary people.
The King of Prussia adopted some 8____________psychology to make people accept
potatoes.
Before 1800, the English people preferred eating 9____________with bread, butter and
cheese.
The obvious way to deal with England food problems were high yielding potato 10________
The Irish 11____________and climate suited potatoes well.
Between 1780 and 1841, based on the 12____________of the potatoes, the Irish population
doubled to eight million.
The potato’s high yields help the poorest farmers to produce more healthy food almost
without 13____________

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READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based on Reading
Passage 2 below.

Life-Casting and Art


Julian Bames explores the questions posed by Life-Casts, an exhibition of plaster moulds of
living people and objects which were originally used for scientific purposes

A Art changes over time and our idea of what art is changes too. For example, objects
originally intended for devotional, ritualistic or re-creational purposes may be recategorised
as art by members of other later civilisations, such as our own, which no longer respond to
these purposes.

B What also happens is that techniques and crafts which would have been judged inartistic
at the time they were used are reassessed. Life-casting is an interesting example of this. It
involved making a plaster mould of a living person or thing. This was complex, technical
work, as Benjamin Robert Haydon discovered when he poured 250 litres of plaster over his
human model and nearly killed him. At the time, the casts were used for medical research
and, consequently, in the nineteenth century life-casting was considered inferior to
sculpture in the same way that, more recently, photography was thought to be a lesser art
than painting. Both were viewed as unacceptable shortcuts by the ’senior 1 arts. Their
virtues of speed and unwavering realism also implied their limitations; they left little or no
room for the imagination.

C For many, life-casting was an insult to the sculptor’s creative genius. In an infamous
lawsuit of 1834, a moulder whose mask of the dying French emperor Napoleon had been
reproduced and sold without his permission was judged to have no rights to the image. In
other words, he was specifically held not to be an artist. This judgement reflect the view of

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established members of the nineteenth-century art world such as Rodin, who commented
that life-casting ‘happens fast but it doesn’t make Art’. Some even feared that ‘if too much
nature was allowed in, it would lead Art away from its proper course of the Ideal.

D The painter Gauguin, at the end of the nineteenth century, worried about future
developments in photography. If ever the process went into colour, what painter would
labour away at a likeness with a brush made from squirrel-tail? But painting has proved
robust. Photography has changed it, of course, just as the novel had to reassess narrative
after the arrival of the cinema. But the gap between the senior and junior arts was always
narrower than the traditionalists implied. Painters have always used technical back-up such
as studio assistants to do the boring bits, while apparently lesser crafts involve great skill,
thought, preparation and, depending on how we define it, imagination.

E Time changes our view in another way, too. Each new movement implies a reassessment
of what has gone before. What is done now alters what was done before. In some cases this
is merely self-serving, with the new art using the old to justify itself. It seems to be saying,
look at how all of that points to this! Aren’t we clever to be the culmination of all that has
gone before? But usually it is a matter of re-alerting the sensibility, reminding us not to take
things for granted. Take, for example, the cast of the hand of a giant from a circus, made by
an anonymous artist around 1889, an item that would now sit happily in any commercial or
public gallery. The most significant impact of this piece is on the eye, in the contradiction
between unexpected size and verisimilitude. Next, the human element kicks in. you note
that the nails are dirt-encrusted, unless this is the caster’s decorative addition, and the
fingertips extend far beyond them. Then you take in the element of choice, arrangement,
art if you like, in the neat, pleated, buttoned sleeve-end that gives the item balance and
variation of texture. This is just a moulded hand, yet the part stands utterly for the whole. It
reminds us slyly, poignantly, of the full-size original

F But is it art? And, if so, why? These are old tediously repeated questions to which artists
have often responded, ‘It is art because I am an artist and therefore what I do is art.
However, what doesn’t work for literature works much better for art – works of art do float
free of their creators’ intentions. Over time the “reader” does become more powerful. Few
of us can look at a medieval altarpiece as its painter intended. We believe too little and
aesthetically know too much, so we recreate and find new fields of pleasure in the work.
Equally, the lack of artistic intention of Paul Richer and other forgotten craftsmen who
brushed oil onto flesh, who moulded, cast and decorated in the nineteenth century is now
irrelevant. What counts is the surviving object and our response to it. The tests are simple:
does it interest the eye, excite the brain, move the mind to reflection and involve the heart.
It may, to use the old dichotomy, be beautiful but it is rarely true to any significant depth.
One of the constant pleasures of art is its ability to come at us from an unexpected angle
and stop us short in wonder.

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SECTION 2: QUESTIONS 14-26


Questions 14-18
Reading Passage 2 has six paragraphs, A-F.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the correct letter, A-F, in boxes 14-18 on your answer sheet.

14. an example of a craftsman’s unsuccessful claim to ownership of his work

15. an example of how trends in art can change attitudes to an earlier work

16. the original function of a particular type of art

17. ways of assessing whether or not an object is art

18. how artists deal with the less interesting aspects of their work

Questions 19-24
Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading Passage 2?

In boxes 19-24 on your answer sheet, write

YES if the statement agrees with the views of the writer

NO if the statement contradicts the views of the writer

NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

19. Nineteenth-century sculptors admired the speed and realism of life-casting

20. Rodin believed the quality of the life-casting would improve if a slower process were
used

21. The importance of painting has decreased with the development of colour photography

22. Life-casting requires more skill than sculpture does

23. New art encourages us to look at earlier work in a fresh way

24. The intended meaning of a work of art can get lost over time

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Questions 25-26
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write the correct letter in boxes 25-26 on your answer sheet.

25. The most noticeable contrast in the cast of the giants hand is between the

e. dirt and decoration


f. size and realism
g. choice and arrangement
h. balance and texture

26. According to the writer, the importance of any artistic object lies in

e. the artist’s intentions


f. the artist’s beliefs
g. the relevance it has to modem life
h. the way we respond to it

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READING PASSAGE 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based on Reading
Passage 3 below.

Honey bees in trouble


Can native pollinators fill the gap?

A Recently, ominous headlines have described a mysterious ailment, colony collapse


disorder(CCD),that is wiping out the honeybees that pollinate many crops. Without
honeybees, the story goes, fields will be sterile, economies will collapse, and food will be
scarce.

B But what few accounts acknowledge is that what’s at risk is not itself a natural state of
affairs. For one thing, in the United States, where CCD was first reported and has had its
greatest impacts, honeybees are not a native species. Pollination in modem agriculture isn’t
alchemy, it’s industry. The total number of hives involved in the U.S. pollination industry has
been somewhere between 2.5 million and 3 million in recent years. Meanwhile, American
farmers began using large quantities of organophosphate insecticides, planted large-scale
crop monocultures, and adopted “clean farming” practices that scrubbed native vegetation
from field margins and roadsides. These practices killed many native bees outright—they’re
as vulnerable to insecticides as any agricultural pest—and made the agricultural landscape
inhospitable to those that remained. Concern about these practices and their effects on
pollinators isn’t new—in her 1962 ecological alarm cry Silent Spring, Rachel Carson warned
of a ‘Fruitless Fall’ that could result from the disappearance of insect pollinators.

C If that ‘Fruitless Fall, has not—yet—occurred, it may be largely thanks to the honeybee,
which farmers turned to as the ability of wild pollinators to service crops declined. The

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honeybee has been semi-domesticated since the time of the ancient Egyptians, but it wasn’t
just familiarity that determined this choice: the bees’ biology is in many ways suited to the
kind of agricultural system that was emerging. For example, honeybee hives can be closed
up and moved out of the way when pesticides are applied to a field. The bees are generalist
pollinators, so they can be used to pollinate many different crops. And although they are
not the most efficient pollinator of every crop, honeybees have strength in numbers, with
20,000 to 100,000 bees living in a single hive. “Without a doubt, if there was one bee you
wanted for agriculture, it would be the honeybee, “says Jim Cane, of the U.S. Department of
Agriculture. The honeybee, in other words, has become a crucial cog in the modem system
of industrial agriculture. That system delivers more food, and more kinds of it, to more
places, more cheaply than ever before. But that system is also vulnerable, because making a
farm field into the photosynthetic equivalent of a factory floor, and pollination into a series
of continent-long assembly lines, also leaches out some of the resilience characteristic of
natural ecosystems.

D Breno Freitas, an agronomist, pointed out that in nature such a high degree of
specialization usually is a very dangerous game: it works well while all the rest is in
equilibrium, but runs quickly to extinction at the least disbalance. In effect, by developing an
agricultural system that is heavily reliant on a single pollinator species, we humans have
become riskily overspecialized. And when the human-honeybee relationship is disrupted, as
it has been by colony collapse disorder, the vulnerability of that agricultural system begins
to become clear.

E In fact, a few wild bees are already being successfully managed for crop pollination. “The
problem is trying to provide native bees in adequate numbers on a reliable basis in a fairly
short number of years in order to service the crop,” Jim Cane says. “You’re talking millions
of flowers per acre in a two-to three-week time frame, or less, for a lot of crops.” On the
other hand, native bees can be much more efficient pollinators of certain crops than
honeybees, so you don’t need as many to do the job. For example, about 750 blue orchard
bees (Osmia lignaria) can pollinate a hectare of apples or almonds, a task that would require
roughly 50,000 to 150,000 honeybees. There are bee tinkerers engaged in similar work in
many comers of the world. In Brazil, Breno Freitas has found that Centris tarsata, the native
pollinator of wild cashew, can survive in commercial cashew orchards if growers provide a
source of floral oils, such as by interplanting their cashew trees with Caribbean cherry.

F In certain places, native bees may already be doing more than they’re getting credit for.
Ecologist Rachael Winfree recently led a team that looked at pollination of four summer
crops (tomato, watermelon, peppers, and muskmelon) at 29 farms in the region of New
Jersey and Pennsylvania. Winfiree’s team identified 54 species of wild bees that visited
these crops, and found that wild bees were the most important pollinators in the system:
even though managed honeybees were present on many of the farms, wild bees were
responsible for 62 percent of flower visits in the study. In another study focusing specifically

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on watermelon, Winfree and her colleagues calculated that native bees alone could provide
sufficient pollination at 90 percent of the 23 farms studied. By contrast, honeybees alone
could provide sufficient pollination at only 78 percent of farms.

G “The region I work in is not typical of the way most food is produced,” Winfree admits.
In the Delaware Valley, most farms and farm fields are relatively small, each fanner typically
grows a variety of crops, and farms are interspersed with suburbs and other types of land
use which means there are opportunities for homeowners to get involved in bee
conservation, too. The landscape is a bee-friendly patchwork that provides a variety of
nesting habitat and floral resources distributed among different kinds of crops, weedy field
margins, fallow fields, suburban neighborhoods, and semi natural habitat like old woodlots,
all at a relatively small scale. In other words, ’’pollinator-friendly” farming practices would
not only aid pollination of agricultural crops, but also serve as a key element in the over all
conservation strategy for wild pollinators, and often aid other wild species as well.

H Of course, not all farmers will be able to implement all of these practices. And researchers
are suggesting a shift to a kind of polyglot agricultural system. For some small-scale farms,
native bees may indeed be all that’s needed. For larger operations, a suite of managed
bees—with honeybees filling the generalist role and other, native bees pollinating specific
crops—could be augmented by free pollination services from resurgent wild pollinators. In
other words, they’re saying, we still have an opportunity to replace a risky monoculture with
something diverse, resilient, and robust.

SECTION 3: QUESTIONS 27-40


Questions 27-30
Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading Passage?

In boxes 27-30 on your answer sheet, write

YES if the statement agrees with the views of the writer

NO if the statement contradicts the views of the writer

NOT if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about


GIVEN this

27. In the United States, farmers use honeybees in a large scale over the past few years

28. Cleaning farming practices would be harmful to farmers’

29. The blue orchard bee is the most efficient pollinator among native bees for every crop

30. It is beneficial to other local creatures to protect native bees

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Questions 31-35
Choose the correct letter, A,B,C or D.

Write your answers in boxes 31-35 on your answer sheet.

31. The example of the ‘Fruitless Fair underlines the writer’s point about

e. needs for using pesticides.


f. impacts of losing insect pollinators.
g. vulnerabilities of native bees.
h. benefits in building more pollination industries.

32. Why can honeybees adapt to the modem agricultural system?

e. the honeybees can pollinated more crops efficiently


f. The bees are semi-domesticated since ancient times.
g. Honeybee hives can be protected away from pesticides.
h. The ability of wild pollinators using to serve crops declines.

33. The writer mentions factories and assembly lines to illustrate

e. one drawback of the industrialised agricultural system.


f. a low cost in modem agriculture.
g. the role of honeybees in pollination.
h. what a high yield of industrial agriculture.

34. In the 6th paragraph,Wlnfree’s experiment proves that

e. honeybee can pollinate various crops.


f. there are many types of wild bees as the pollinators.
g. the wild bees can increase the yield to a higher percentage
h. wild bees work more efficiently as a pollinator than honey bees in certain cases

35. What does the writer want to suggest in the last paragraph?

e. the importance of honey bees in pollination


f. adoption of different bees in various sizes of agricultural system
g. the comparison between the intensive and the rarefied agricultural system
h. the reason why farmers can rely on native pollinators

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Questions 36-40
Complete each sentence with the correct ending, A-F, below.

Write the correct letter, A-F, in boxes 36-40 on your answer sheet

36. Headline of colony collapse disorder states that

37. Viewpoints of Freitas manifest that

38. Examples of blue orchard bees have shown that

39. Centris tarsata is mentioned to exemplify that

40. One finding of the research in Delaware Valley is that

A native pollinators can survive when a specific plant is supplied.

B it would cause severe consequences both to commerce and


agriculture.

C honey bees cannot be bred.

D some agricultural landscapes are favorable in supporting wild bees.

E a large scale of honey bees are needed to pollinate.

F an agricultural system is fragile when relying on a single pollinator

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TEST 23

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LISTENING
SECTION 1 : QUESTIONS 1-10
Questions 1-6
Complete the form below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Moving Company Service Report


Example Answer

Full Name: Jane Bond

Phone Number: 1_____________

USA Address: 509 (2)_____________

1137 (3)_____________, Seattle

Packing Day: 4_____________

Date: 11th March

Clean-up by: 5:00 p.m.

Day: 5_____________14th

About the Price: Rather expensive

Storage Time: 6_____________

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Questions 7-10
Where does the speaker decide to put items in?

Write the correct letter, A, B, or C, next to questions 7-10.

A in emergency pack

B in personal package

C in storage with the furniture

Items
7. cutlery and dishes

8. kettle

9. alarm clock

10. CD player

SECTION 2 : QUESTIONS 11-20


Questions 11-16
Complete the table below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

ANNUAL WULLABALLOO CONFERENCE

TIME CONTENT LOCATION

9:00 a.m. Title of the Main Hall


lecture: 11_____________

Lecturer: John Smith from


the 12_____________

Garden Room on the


10:30 a.m. Presentation of papers
ground floor

11:15 a.m. Coffee break Main Hall

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Sea View Restaurant on


the 13_____________
1:00 p.m. Lunch
The lift on
the 14_____________

2:00 p.m. Presentation of further papers Ballroom

15_____ p.m. Afternoon tea Ballroom

5:00 p.m. Conference will be finished Main Hall

5:10-6:10 p.m. Informal reception 16_____________

Questions 17-20
Choose the correct letter, A, B, or C.

17. Tickets are available

d. only at the reception desk.


e. tomorrow evening.
f. at any time before the reception.

18. The delegates will be charged........

d. $6.50
e. $15.00
f. $25.00

19. The restaurant is famous for

d. steak.
e. fish.
f. barbecue.

20. The trip on Sunday costs

d. $35 in total.
e. $35 plus entrance fees.
f. $35 plus lunch.

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SECTION 3 : QUESTIONS 21-30


Questions 21-26
Choose the correct letter, A, B, or C.

GENERAL COURSE DETAILS


21. What is the defining characteristic of a specialised course?

d. Taking a proficiency exam


e. Attending the class frequently
f. Compulsory and regular

22. The Microbiology courses are available for

d. full-time and flexible-time students.


e. Microbiology students only.
f. students on a flexible schedule.

23. The Biology courses are available for

d. all students.
e. full-time students only.
f. freshmen only.

24. Who are interested in Microbiology courses?

d. People who need work experience


e. People from off-campus
f. People who work at hospital

25. A Medical Science course will be opened next year because

d. there are no experimental facilities.


e. the lab equipment is too expensive.
f. the building is damaged.

26. Which is the quickest increasing subject in enrolment?

d. Medical Science
e. Statistics
f. Environmental Science

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Questions 27-29
Choose THREE letters, A-G, and write each next to questions 27-29.

Which THREE compulsory courses must be taken?

h. Medical Science
i. Computing
j. Mathematics
k. Laboratory Techniques
l. Statistics
m. Medicine
n. Environmental Science

Question 30
Complete the sentence below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for the answer.

There are three full scholarships that cover tuition and provide $1,500 cash as a 30________

SECTION 4 : QUESTIONS 31-40


Questions 31-37
Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

How to Choose Flooring Materials

Source
There are some man-made materials like 31__________

Before being used, material undergoes 32__________

Wood should be cut and 33__________

Stone should be cut and 34__________

Selection

Aside from environmental factors, one should take 35__________into

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account during construction.

Some properties of materials affect mood, such as 36__________, texture,


and colour.

Use a mathematical formula to choose the type of wood,


because 37__________are subjective, which are ambiguous in verbal
description.

Questions 38-40
Complete the table below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

MATERIAL REFLECTANCE RATE

Polished silver Almost 1.0

White-painted plastic Approximately 38__________

Quarry tile Approximately 39__________

40__________ Almost 0.0

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READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on Reading Passage
1 below.

William Gilbert and Magnetism


A

The 16th and 17th centuries saw two great pioneers of modern science: Galileo and Gilbert.
The impact of their findings is eminent. Gilbert was the first modern scientist, also the
accredited father of the science of electricity and magnetism, an Englishman of learning and
a physician at the court of Elizabeth. Prior to him, all that was known of electricity and
magnetism was what the ancients knew, nothing more than that the lodestone possessed
magnetic properties and that amber and jet, when rubbed, would attract bits of paper or
other substances of small specific gravity. However, he is less well known than he deserves.

Gilbert’s birth pre-dated Galileo. Born in an eminent local family in Colchester County in the
UK, on May 24, 1544, he went to grammar school, and then studied medicine at St John’s
College, Cambridge, graduating in 1573. Later he travelled in the continent and eventually
settled down in London.

He was a very successful and eminent doctor. All this culminated in his election to the
president of the Royal Science Society. He was also appointed personal physician to the
Queen (Elizabeth I), and later knighted by the Queen. He faithfully served her until her

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death. However, he didn’t outlive the Queen for long and died on November 30, 1603, only
a few months after his appointment as personal physician to King James.

Gilbert was first interested in chemistry but later changed his focus due to the large portion
of mysticism of alchemy involved (such as the transmutation of metal). He gradually
developed his interest in physics after the great minds of the ancient, particularly about the
knowledge the ancient Greeks had about lodestones, strange minerals with the power to
attract iron. In the meantime, Britain became a major seafaring nation in 1588 when the
Spanish Armada was defeated, opening the way to British settlement of America. British
ships depended on the magnetic compass, yet no one understood why it worked. Did the
Pole Star attract it, as Columbus once speculated; or was there a magnetic mountain at the
pole, as described in Odyssey, which ships would never approach, because the sailors
thought its pull would yank out all their iron nails and fittings? For nearly 20 years, William
Gilbert conducted ingenious experiments to understand magnetism. His works include On
the Magnet, Magnetic Bodies, and the Great Magnet of the Earth.

Gilbert’s discovery was so important to modern physics. He investigated the nature of


magnetism and electricity. He even coined the word “electric”. Though the early beliefs of
magnetism were also largely entangled with superstitions such as that rubbing garlic on
lodestone can neutralise its magnetism, one example being that sailors even believed the
smell of garlic would even interfere with the action of compass, which is why helmsmen
were forbidden to eat it near a ship’s compass. Gilbert also found that metals can be
magnetised by rubbing materials such as fur, plastic or the like on them. He named the ends
of a magnet “north pole” and “south pole”. The magnetic poles can attract or repel,
depending on polarity. In addition, however, ordinary iron is always attracted to a magnet.
Though he started to study the relationship between magnetism and electricity, sadly he
didn’t complete it. His research of static electricity using amber and jet only demonstrated
that objects with electrical charges can work like magnets attracting small pieces of paper
and stuff. It is a French guy named du Fay that discovered that there are actually two
electrical charges, positive and negative.

He also questioned the traditional astronomical beliefs. Though a Copernican, he didn’t


express in his quintessential beliefs whether the earth is at the centre of the universe or in
orbit around the sun. However, he believed that stars are not equidistant from the earth but
have their own earth-like planets orbiting around them. The earth itself is like a giant
magnet, which is also why compasses always point north. They spin on an axis that is
aligned with the earth’s polarity. He even likened the polarity of the magnet to the polarity

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of the earth and built an entire magnetic philosophy on this analogy. In his explanation,
magnetism is the soul of the earth. Thus a perfectly spherical lodestone, when aligned with
the earth’s poles, would wobble all by itself in 24 hours. Further, he also believed that the
sun and other stars wobble just like the earth does around a crystal core, and speculated
that the moon might also be a magnet caused to orbit by its magnetic attraction to the
earth. This was perhaps the first proposal that a force might cause a heavenly orbit.

His research method was revolutionary in that he used experiments rather than pure logic
and reasoning like the ancient Greek philosophers did. It was a new attitude towards
scientific investigation. Until then, scientific experiments were not in fashion. It was because
of this scientific attitude, together with his contribution to our knowledge of magnetism,
that a unit of magneto motive force, also known as magnetic potential, was named Gilbert
in his honour. His approach of careful observation and experimentation rather than the
authoritative opinion or deductive philosophy of others had laid the very foundation for
modern science.

SECTION 1: QUESTIONS 1-13


Questions 1-7
Reading Passage 1 has seven paragraphs A-G.

Choose the correct heading for each paragraph from the list of headings below.

Write the correct number i-x in boxes 1-7 on your answer sheet.

List of headings

i Early years of Gilbert vi Professional and social recognition

ii What was new about his scientific research method


vii Becoming the president of the Royal Science Society

iii The development of chemistry viii The great works of Gilbert

iv Questioning traditional astronomy ix His discovery about magnetism

v Pioneers of the early science x His change of focus

1. Paragraph A 4. Paragraph D 7. Paragraph G

2. Paragraph B 5. Paragraph E

3. Paragraph C 6. Paragraph F

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Questions 8-10
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1?

In boxes 8-10 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

8. He is less famous than he should be.

9. He was famous as a doctor before he was employed by the Queen.

10. He lost faith in the medical theories of his time.

Questions 11-13
Choose THREE letters A-F.

Write your answers in boxes 11-13 on your answer sheet.

Which THREE of the following are parts of Gilbert’s discovery?

g. Metal can be transformed into another.


h. Garlic can remove magnetism,
i. Metals can be magnetised.
j. Stars are at different distances from the earth.
k. The earth wobbles on its axis.
l. There are two charges of electricity.

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READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based on Reading
Passage 2 below.

The 2003 Heatwave


It was the summer, scientists now realise, when global warming at last made itself
unmistakably felt. We knew that summer 2003 was remarkable: Britain experienced its
record high temperature and continental Europe saw forest fires raging out of control, great
rivers drying to a trickle and thousands of heat-related deaths. But just how remarkable is
only now becoming clear.

The three months of June, July and August were the warmest ever recorded in western and
central Europe, with record national highs in Portugal, Germany and Switzerland as well as
in Britain. And they were the warmest by a very long way. Over a great rectangular block of
the earth stretching from west of Paris to northern Italy, taking in Switzerland and southern
Germany, the average temperature for the summer months was 3.78°C above the long-term
norm, said the Climatic Research Unit (CRU) of the University of East Anglia in Norwich,
which is one of the world's leading institutions for the monitoring and analysis of
temperature records.

That excess might not seem a lot until you are aware of the context - but then you realise it
is enormous. There is nothing like this in previous data, anywhere. It is considered so
exceptional that Professor Phil Jones, the CRU's director, is prepared to say openly - in a way
few scientists have done before - that the 2003 extreme may be directly attributed, not to
natural climate variability, but to global warming caused by human actions.

Meteorologists have hitherto contented themselves with the formula that recent high
temperatures are “consistent with predictions” of climate change. For the great block of the
map - that stretching between 35-50N and 0-20E - the CRU has reliable temperature records

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dating back to 1781. Using as a baseline the average summer temperature recorded
between 1961 and 1990, departures from the temperature norm, or “anomalies”, over the
area as a whole can easily be plotted. As the graph shows, such is the variability of our
climate that over the past 200 years, there have been at least half a dozen anomalies, in
terms of excess temperature - the peaks on the graph denoting very hot years -
approaching, or even exceeding, 2°C. But there has been nothing remotely like 2003, when
the anomaly is nearly four degrees.

“This is quite remarkable,’ Professor Jones told The Independent. “It’s very unusual in a
statistical sense. If this series had a normal statistical distribution, you wouldn’t get this
number. The return period [how often it could be expected to recur] would be something
like one in a thousand years. If we look at an excess above the average of nearly four
degrees, then perhaps nearly three degrees of that is natural variability, because we’ve seen
that in past summers. But the final degree of it is likely to be due to global warming, caused
by human actions.”

The summer of 2003 has, in a sense, been one that climate scientists have long been
expecting. Until now, the warming has been manifesting itself mainly in winters that have
been less cold than in summers that have been much hotter. Last week, the United Nations
predicted that winters were warming so quickly that winter sports would die out in Europe’s
lower-level ski resorts. But sooner or later, the unprecedented hot summer was bound to
come, and this year it did.

One of the most dramatic features of the summer was the hot nights, especially in the first
half of August. In Paris, the temperature never dropped below 23°C (73.4°F) at all between 7
and 14 August, and the city recorded its warmest-ever night on 11-12 August, when the
mercury did not drop below 25.5°C (77.9°F). Germany recorded its warmest-ever night at
Weinbiet in the Rhine Valley with a lowest figure of 27.6°C (80.6°F) on 13 August, and
similar record-breaking nighttime temperatures were recorded in Switzerland and Italy.

The 15,000 excess deaths in France during August, compared with previous years, have
been related to the high night-time temperatures. The number gradually increased during
the first 12 days of the month, peaking at about 2,000 per day on the night of 12-13 August,
then fell off dramatically after 14 August when the minimum temperatures fell by about
5°C. The elderly were most affected, with a 70 per cent increase in mortality rate in those
aged 75-94.

For Britain, the year as a whole is likely to be the warmest ever recorded, but despite the
high temperature record on 10 August, the summer itself - defined as the June, July and
August period - still comes behind 1976 and 1995, when there were longer periods of
intense heat. “At the moment, the year is on course to be the third hottest ever in the
global temperature record, which goes back to 1856, behind 1998 and 2002, but when all
the records for October, November and December are collated, it might move into second

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place/' Professor Jones said. The ten hottest years in the record have all now occurred since
1990. Professor Jones is in no doubt about the astonishing nature of European summer of
2003. “The temperatures recorded were out of all proportion to the previous record," he
said.

“It was the warmest summer in the past 500 years and probably way beyond that. It was
enormously exceptional."

His colleagues at the University of East Anglia's Tyndall Centre for Climate Change Research
are now planning a special study of it. “It was a summer that has not been experienced
before, either in terms of the temperature extremes that were reached, or the range and
diversity of the impacts of the extreme heat," said the centre's executive director, Professor
Mike Hulme.

“It will certainly have left its mark on a number of countries, as to how they think and plan
for climate change in the future, much as the 2000 floods have revolutionised the way the
Government is thinking about flooding in the UK. The 2003 heatwave will have similar
repercussions across Europe."

SECTION 2: QUESTIONS 14-26


Questions 14-19
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 2? In
boxes 14-19 on your answer sheet write

YES if the statement agrees with the views of the writer

NO if the statement contradicts the views of the writer

NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks


about this

14. The average summer temperature in 2003 is almost 4 degrees higher than the average
temperature of the past.

15. Global warming is caused by human activities.

16. Jones believes the temperature variation is within the normal range.

17. The temperature is measured twice a day in major cities.

18. There were milder winters rather than hotter summers.

19. Governments are building new high-altitude ski resorts.

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Questions 20-21
Answer the questions below using NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each
answer.Write your answers in boxes 20-21 on your answer sheet.

What are the other two hottest years in Britain besides 2003?

20________________________________

What will also influence government policies in the future like the hot summer in 2003?

21________________________________

Questions 22-25
Complete the summary below using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for
each answer. Write your answers in boxes 22-25 on your answer sheet.

The other two hottest years around the globe were 22____________

The ten hottest years on record all come after the year 23____________

This temperature data has been gathered since 24____________

Thousands of people died in the country of 25____________

Question 26
Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D.

Write your answer in box 26 on your answer sheet.

26. Which one of the following can be best used as the title of this passage?

e. Global Warming
f. What Caused Global Warming
g. The Effects of Global Warming
h. That Hot Year in Europe

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READING PASSAGE 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based on Reading
Passage 3 below.

Amateur Naturalists
From the results of an annual Alaskan betting contest to sightings of migratory birds,
ecologists are using a wealth of unusual data to predict the impact of climate change.

A Tim Sparks slides a small leather-bound notebook out of an envelope. The book's
yellowing pages contain bee-keeping notes made between 1941 and 1969 by the late
Walter Coates of Kilworth, Leicestershire. He adds it to his growing pile of local journals,
birdwatchers' lists and gardening diaries. "We're uncovering about one major new record
each month," he says, "I still get surprised." Around two centuries before Coates, Robert
Marsham, a landowner from Norfolk in the east of England, began recording the life cycles
of plants and animals on his estate - when the first wood anemones flowered, the dates on
which the oaks burst into leaf and the rooks began nesting. Successive Marshams continued
compiling these notes for 211 years.

B Today, such records are being put to uses that their authors could not possibly have
expected. These data sets, and others like them, are proving invaluable to ecologists
interested in the timing of biological events, or phenology. By combining the records with
climate data, researchers can reveal how, for example, changes in temperature affect the
arrival of spring, allowing ecologists to make improved predictions about the impact of
climate change. A small band of researchers is combing through hundreds of years of
records taken by thousands of amateur naturalists. And more systematic projects have also
started up, producing an overwhelming response. "The amount of interest is almost
frightening," says Sparks, a climate researcher at the Centre for Ecology and Hydrology in
Monks Wood, Cambridgeshire.

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C Sparks first became aware of the army of "closet phenologists”, as he describes them,
when a retiring colleague gave him the Marsham records. He now spends much of his time
following leads from one historical data set to another. As news of his quest spreads, people
tip him off to other historical records, and more amateur phenologists come out of their
closets. The British devotion to recording and collecting makes his job easier - one man from
Kent sent him 30 years' worth of kitchen calendars, on which he had noted the date that his
neighbour's magnolia tree flowered.

D Other researchers have unearthed data from equally odd sources. Rafe Sagarin, an
ecologist at Stanford University in California, recently studied records of a betting contest in
which participants attempt to guess the exact time at which a specially erected wooden
tripod will fall through the surface of a thawing river. The competition has taken place
annually on the Tenana River in Alaska since 1917, and analysis of the results showed that
the thaw now arrives five days earlier than it did when the contest began.

E Overall, such records have helped to show that, compared with 20 years ago, a raft of
natural events now occur earlier across much of the northern hemisphere, from the opening
of leaves to the return of birds from migration and the emergence of butterflies from
hibernation. The data can also hint at how nature will change in the future. Together with
models of climate change, amateurs' records could help guide conservation. Terry Root, an
ecologist at the University of Michigan in Ann Arbor, has collected birdwatchers' counts of
wildfowl taken between 1955 and 1996 on seasonal ponds in the American Midwest and
combined them with climate data and models of future warming. Her analysis shows that
the increased droughts that the models predict could halve the breeding populations at the
ponds. "The number of waterfowl in North America will most probably drop significantly
with global warming," she says.

F But not all professionals are happy to use amateur data. "A lot of scientists won't touch
them, they say they're too full of problems," says Root. Because different observers can
have different ideas of what constitutes, for example, an open snowdrop. "The biggest
concern with ad hoc observations is how carefully and systematically they were taken," says
Mark Schwartz of the University of Wisconsin, Milwaukee, who studies the interactions
between plants and climate. "We need to know pretty precisely what a person's been
observing - if they just say 'I noted when the leaves came out', it might not be that useful."
Measuring the onset of autumn can be particularly problematic because deciding when
leaves change colour is a more subjective process than noting when they appear.

G Overall, most phenologists are positive about the contribution that amateurs can make.
"They get at the raw power of science: careful observation of the natural world," says
Sagarin. But the professionals also acknowledge the need for careful quality control. Root,
for example, tries to gauge the quality of an amateur archive by interviewing its collector.
"You always have to worry - things as trivial as vacations can affect measurement. I
disregard a lot of records because they're not rigorous enough," she says. Others suggest

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that the right statistics can iron out some of the problems with amateur data. Together with
colleagues at Wageningen University in the Netherlands, environmental scientist Arnold van
Vliet is developing statistical techniques to account for the uncertainty in amateur
phenological data. With the enthusiasm of amateur phenologists evident from past records,
professional researchers are now trying to create standardised recording schemes for future
efforts. They hope that well-designed studies will generate a volume of observations large
enough to drown out the idiosyncrasies of individual recorders. The data are cheap to
collect, and can provide breadth in space, time and range of species. "It's very difficult to
collect data on a large geographical scale without enlisting an army of observers," says Root.

H Phenology also helps to drive home messages about climate change. "Because the public
understand these records, they accept them," says Sparks.
It can also illustrate potentially unpleasant consequences, he adds, such as the finding that
more rat infestations are reported to local councils in warmer years. And getting people
involved is great for public relations. "People are thrilled to think that the data they've been
collecting as a hobby can be used for something scientific - it empowers them," says Root.

SECTION 3: QUESTIONS 27-40


Questions 27-33
Reading Passage 3 has eight paragraphs A-H.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the correct letter A-H in boxes 27-33 on your answer sheet.

27. The definition of phenology

28. How Sparks first became aware of amateur records

29. How people reacted to their involvement in data collection

30. The necessity to encourage amateur data collection

31. A description of using amateur records to make predictions

32. Records of a competition providing clues to climate change

33. A description of a very old record compiled by generations of amateur naturalists

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Questions 34-36
Complete the sentences below with NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for
each answer. Write your answers in boxes 34-36 on your answer sheet.

Walter Coates’s records largely contain the information of 34__________

Robert Marsham is famous for recording the 35__________of animals and plants on his
land.

According to some phenologists, global warming may cause the number of waterfowl in
North America to drop significantly due to increased 36__________

Questions 37-40
Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D.

Write your answers in boxes 37-40 on your answer sheet.

37. Why do a lot of scientists discredit the data collected by amateurs?

e. Scientific methods were not used in data collection.


f. Amateur observers are not careful in recording their data.
g. Amateur data is not reliable.
h. Amateur data is produced by wrong candidates.

38. Mark Schwartz used the example of leaves to illustrate that

e. amateur records can’t be used.


f. amateur records are always unsystematic.
g. the colour change of leaves is hard to observe.
h. valuable information is often precise.

39. How do the scientists suggest amateur data should be used?

e. Using improved methods


f. Being more careful in observation
g. Using raw materials
h. Applying statistical techniques in data collection

40. What’s the implication of phenology for ordinary people?

e. It empowers the public.


f. It promotes public relations.
g. It warns people of animal infestation.
h. It raises awareness about climate change in the public.

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TEST 24

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LISTENING
SECTION 1 : QUESTIONS 1-10
Questions 1-3
Complete the notes below write ONE WORD only for each answer.

NOTES OF CUSTOMER INFORMATION


example answer

information source : found in the brochure

Included services 1_______________and accommodation

Sydney arrival date: 15th of 2_______________

Accommodation criteria: 3_______________

Questions 4-6
Complete the form below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

BOOKING INFORMATION

Room type: 4_______________

Credit card holder: 5_______________

Total cost for one night: 6_______________

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Questions 7-10
Complete the sentence below.

Write no more than TWO words for answer.

The 7_______________is within walking distance of the accommodation

The customer books 8_______________

Aboriginals stone carvings are in the 9_______________

The Dreamtime can be experienced beneath the 10_______________

SECTION 2 : QUESTIONS 11-20


Questions 11-15
Complete the Notes Below

Write NO MORE THAN 2 WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer

Public Service broadcast


Volunteer workers must be at least 11_______________years old

Job applicants should not have 12_______________

Job applicants are asked to


submit 13_______________and 14_______________

The employer will pay the expenses of 15_______________and phone calls.

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Questions 16-20
Complete the table below

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer

Requirement for
People need help Duties volunteers Service Time

- Excellent health

Wheelchair users Drive - must own a First Aid 17_______________


clients certificate from
to scenic the 16_______________
locations

- Read English clearly

The blind Read - No 18_____________is an


books to advantage
Monday mornings
blind
people

- have knowledge of basic


first aid
19_______________ Take 1 week in August
care of - good health
them on
- can elevate to a maximum
holiday
of 20_____________

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SECTION 3 : QUESTIONS 21-30


Questions 21-30
Complete the notes below

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer

Environmental change Discussion


Agricultural work is having an 21____________effect on the environment.

Too much farming operation has caused a serious problem, which is


called 22____________

Many places now seem to look like desert rather than 23____________.

One proof the article had pointed out to show that things can hardly grow in
some areas is the 24____________

The relation between the number of farmers and the acreage of woodland
is 25____________

One reason for plants cannot grow is that the earth contains too
much 26____________

Researchers have carried out a test to show the 27____________of the


solution.

The possible range of salinity to grow plants is 28____________

The 29____________in Dr.Horst's books are useful and worth studying.

The student needs a 30____________to do his presentation

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SECTION 4 : QUESTIONS 31-40


Questions 31-35
Complete the sentences below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.


Bees that help with pollination benefit flowers and 31____________

Bees produce wax that can be made into candles and 32____________

Dragonflies primarily eat 33____________

Insects in summer can be harmful because they can carry such deadly diseases as
malaria, 34____________and sleeping sickness

Harmful insects may destroy crops, clothes, furniture, and even the 35____________

Questions 36-40
Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

How to kill bad Insects


Chemical Method

These solutions to insect problems are often not worthwhile because:

a) They are effective on a 36____________

b) They Can bring harm to 37____________

c) Insects become 38____________to the chemicals quickly.

Biological methods

These Methods are 39____________than chemical methods of eliminating


harmful insects.

Breeding control method

In order to control the breeding of insects, one needs to understand the


insects’ 40____________

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READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on Reading Passage
1 below.

How to Spot a Liar


However much we may abhor it, deception comes naturally to all living things. Birds do it by
feigning injury to lead hungry predators away from nesting young. Spider crabs do it by
disguise: adorning themselves with strips of kelp and other debris, they pretend to be
something they are not – and so escape their enemies. Nature amply rewards successful
deceivers by allowing them to survive long enough to mate and reproduce. So it may come
as no surprise to learn that human beings- who, according to psychologist Gerald Johnson of
the University of South California, or lied to about 200 times a day, roughly one untruth
every 5 minutes- often deceive for exactly the same reasons: to save their own skins or to
get something they can’t get by other means.

But knowing how to catch deceit can be just as important a survival skill as knowing how to
tell a lie and get away with it. A person able to spot falsehood quickly is unlikely to be
swindled by an unscrupulous business associate or hoodwinked by a devious spouse.
Luckily, nature provides more than enough clues to trap dissemblers in their own tangled
webs- if you know where to look. By closely observing facial expressions, body language and
tone of voice, practically anyone can recognise the tell-tale signs of lying. Researchers are
even programming computers – like those used on Lie Detector -to get at the truth by
analysing the same physical cues available to the naked eye and ear. “With the proper
training, many people can learn to reliably detect lies,” says Paul Ekman, professor of
psychology at the University of California, San Francisco, who has spent the past 15 years
studying the secret art of deception.

In order to know what kind of Lies work best, successful liars need to accurately assess other
people’s emotional states. Ackman’s research shows that this same emotional intelligence is

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essential for good lie detectors, too. The emotional state to watch out for is stress, the
conflict most liars feel between the truth and what they actually say and do.

Even high-tech lie detectors don’t detect lies as such; they merely detect the physical cues
of emotions, which may or may not correspond to what the person being tested is saying.
Polygraphs, for instance, measure respiration, heart rate and skin conductivity, which tend
to increase when people are nervous – as they usually are when lying. Nervous people
typically perspire, and the salts contained in perspiration conducts electricity. That’s
why sudden leap in skin conductivity indicates nervousness -about getting caught, perhaps
-which makes, in turn, suggest that someone is being economical with the truth. On the
other hand, it might also mean that the lights in the television Studio are too hot- which is
one reason polygraph tests are inadmissible in court. “Good lie detectors don’t rely on a
single thing” says Ekma ,but interpret clusters of verbal and non-verbal clues that suggest
someone might be lying.”

The clues are written all over the face. Because the musculature of the face is directly
connected to the areas of the brain that processes emotion, the countenance can be a
window to the soul. Neurological studies even suggest that genuine emotions travel
different pathways through the brain than insincere ones. If a patient paralyzed by stroke on
one side of the face, for example, is asked to smile deliberately, only the mobile side of the
mouth is raised. But tell that same person a funny joke, and the patient breaks into a full
and spontaneous smile. Very few people -most notably, actors and politicians- are able to
consciously control all of their facial expressions. Lies can often be caught when the liars
true feelings briefly leak through the mask of deception. We don’t think before we feel,
Ekman says. “Expressions tend to show up on the face before we’re even conscious of
experiencing an emotion.”

One of the most difficult facial expressions to fake- or conceal, if it’s genuinely felt - is
sadness. When someone is truly sad, the forehead wrinkles with grief and the inner corners
of the eyebrows are pulled up. Fewer than 15% of the people Ekman tested were able to
produce this eyebrow movement voluntarily. By contrast, the lowering of the eyebrows
associated with an angry scowl can be replicated at will but almost everybody. “ If someone
claims they are sad and the inner corners of their eyebrows don’t go up, Ekmam says, the
sadness is probably false.”

The smile, on the other hand, is one of the easiest facial expressions to counterfeit. It takes
just two muscles -the zygomaticus major muscles that extend from the cheekbones to the
corners of the lips- to produce a grin. But there’s a catch. A genuine smile affects not only
the corners of the lips but also the orbicularis oculi, the muscle around the eye that
produces the distinctive “crow’s feet” associated with people who laugh a lot. A counterfeit
grin can be unmasked if the corners of the lips go up, the eyes crinkle, but the inner corners
of the eyebrows are not lowered, a movement controlled by the orbicularis oculi that is

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difficult to fake. The absence of lowered eyebrows is one reason why the smile looks so
strained and stiff.

SECTION 1: QUESTIONS 1-13


Questions 1-5
YES if the statement agrees with the views of the writer

NO if the statement contradicts the views of the writer

NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about


this

1. All living animals can lie.

2. Some people tell lies for self-preservation.

3. Scientists have used computers to analyze which part of the brain is responsible for telling
lies.

4. Lying as a survival skill is more important than detecting a lie.

5. To be a good liar, one has to understand other people's emotions.

Questions 6-9
Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D.

Write your answers in boxes 6-9.

6. How does the lie detector work?

e. It detects whether one's emotional state is stable.


f. It detects one’s brain activity level.
g. It detects body behavior during one's verbal response.
h. It analyses one's verbal response word by word.

7. Lie detectors can't be used as evidence in a court of law because

e. Lights often cause lie detectors to malfunction.


f. They are based on too many verbal and non-verbal clues.
g. Polygraph tests are often inaccurate.
h. There may be many causes of certain body behavior.

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8. Why does the author mention the paralyzed patients?

e. To demonstrate how a paralyzed patient smiles


f. To show the relation between true emotions and body behavior
g. To examine how they were paralyzed
h. To show the importance of happiness from recovery

9. The author uses politicians to exemplify that they can

e. Have emotions.
f. Imitate actors.
g. Detect other people's lives.
h. Mask their true feelings.

Questions 10-13
Classify the following facial traits as referring to

A sadness

B anger

C happiness

Write the correct letter A,B or C in boxes 10-13.

10. Inner corners of eyebrows raised

11. The whole eyebrows lowered

12. Lines formed around

13. Lines form above eyebrows

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READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based on Reading
Passage 2 below.

Being Left-handed in a Right-handed World


The world is designed for right-handed people. Why does a tenth of the population prefer
the left?

A The probability that two right-handed people would have a left-handed child is only about
9.5 percent. The chance rises to 19.5 percent if one parent is a lefty and 26 percent if both
parents are left-handed. The preference, however, could also stem from an infant’s
imitation of his parents. To test genetic influence, starting in the 1970s British biologist
Marian Annett of the University of Leicester hypothesized that no single gene determines
handedness. Rather, during fetal development, a certain molecular factor helps to
strengthen the brain’s left hemisphere, which increases the probability that the right hand
will be dominant, because the left side of the brain controls the right side of the body, and
vice versa. Among the minority of people who lack this factor, handedness develops entirely
by chance. Research conducted on twins complicates the theory, however. One in fivesets
of identical twins involves one right-handed and one left-handed person, despite the fact
that their genetic material is the same. Genes, therefore, are not solely responsible for
handedness.

B Genetic theory is also undermined by results from Peter Hepper and his team at Queen’s
University in Belfast, Ireland. In 2004 the psychologists used ultrasound to show that by the
15th week of pregnancy, fetuses already have a preference as to which thumb they suck. In
most cases, the preference continued after birth. At 15 weeks, though, the brain does not
yet have control over the body’s limbs. Hepper speculates that fetuses tend to prefer
whichever side of the body is developing quicker and that their movements, in turn,
influence the brain’s development. Whether this early preference is temporary or holds up

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throughout development and infancy is unknown. Genetic predetermination is also


contradicted by the widespread observation that children do not settle on either their right
or left hand until they are two or three years old.

C But even if these correlations were true, they did not explain what actually causes left-
handedness. Furthermore, specialization on either side of the body is common among
animals. Cats will favor one paw over another when fishing toys out from under the couch.
Horses stomp more frequently with one hoof than the other. Certain crabs motion
predominantly with the left or right claw. In evolutionary terms, focusing power and
dexterity in one limb is more efficient than having to train two, four or even eight limbs
equally. Yet for most animals, the preference for one side or the other is seemingly random.
The overwhelming dominance of the right hand is associated only with humans. That fact
directs attention toward the brain’s two hemispheres and perhaps toward language.

D Interest in hemispheres dates back to at least 1836. That year, at a medical conference,
French physician Marc Dax reported on an unusual commonality among his patients. During
his many years as a country doctor, Dax had encountered more than 40 men and women for
whom speech was difficult, the result of some kind of brain damage. What was unique was
that every individual suffered damage to the left side of the brain. At the conference, Dax
elaborated on his theory, stating that each half of the brain was responsible for certain
functions and that the left hemisphere controlled speech. Other experts showed little
interest in the Frenchman’s ideas. Over time, however, scientists found more and more
evidence of peopleexperiencing speech difficulties following injury to the left brain. Patients
with damage to the right hemisphere most often displayed disruptions in perception or
concentration. Major advancements in understanding the brain’s asymmetry were made in
the 1960s as a result of so-called split-brain surgery, developed to help patients with
epilepsy. During this operation, doctors severed the corpus callosum—the nerve bundle that
connects the two hemispheres. The surgical cut also stopped almost all normal
communication between the two hemispheres, which offered researchers the opportunity
to investigate each side’s activity.

E In 1949 neurosurgeon Juhn Wada devised the first test to provide access to the brain’s
functional organization of language. By injecting an anesthetic into the right or left carotid
artery, Wada temporarily paralyzed one side of a healthy brain, enabling him to more
closely study the other side’s capabilities. Based on this approach, Brenda Milner and the
late Theodore Rasmussen of the Montreal Neurological Institute published a major study in
1975 that confirmed the theory that country doctor Dax had formulated nearly 140 years
earlier: in 96 percent of right-handed people, language is processed much more intensely in
the left hemisphere. The correlation is not as clear in lefties, however. For two thirds of
them, the left hemisphere is still the most active language processor. But for the remaining
third, either the right side is dominant or both sides work equally, controlling different

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language functions. That last statistic has slowed acceptance of the notion that the
predominance of right-handedness is driven by left-hemisphere dominance in language
processing. It is not at all clear why language control should somehow have dragged the
control of body movement with it. Some experts think one reason the left hemisphere
reigns over language is because the organs of speech processing—the larynx and tongue—
are positioned on the body’s symmetry axis. Because these structures were centered, it may
have been unclear, in evolutionary terms, which side of the brain should control them, and
it seems unlikely that shared operation would result in smooth motor activity. Language and
handedness could have developed preferentially for very
different reasons as well. For example, some researchers, including evolutionary
psychologist Michael C. Corballis of the University of Auckland in New Zealand, think that
the origin of human speech lies in gestures. Gestures predated words and helped language
emerge. If the left hemisphere began to dominate speech, it would have dominated
gestures, too, and because the left brain controls the right side of the body, the right hand
developed more strongly.

F Perhaps we will know more soon. In the meantime, we can revel in what, if any,
differences handedness brings to our human talents. Popular wisdom says right-handed,
left-brained people excel at logical, analytical thinking. Lefthanded, right-brained individuals
are thought to possess more creative skills and may be better at combining the functional
features emergent in both sides of the brain. Yet some neuroscientists see such claims as
pure speculation. Fewer scientists are ready to claim that left-handedness means greater
creative potential. Yet lefties are prevalent among artists, composers and the generally
acknowledged great political thinkers. Possibly if these individuals are among the lefties
whose language abilities are evenly distributed between hemispheres, the intense interplay
required could lead to unusual mental capabilities.

G Or perhaps some lefties become highly creative simply because they must be more clever
to get by in our right-handed world. This battle, which begins during the very early stages of
childhood, may lay the groundwork for exceptional achievements.

SECTION 2: QUESTIONS 14-26


Questions 14-18
Reading Passage 2 has seven sections A-G.
Which section contains the following information?
Write the correct letter A-G in boxes 14-18 on your answer sheet.

14. Preference of using one side of the body in animal species.


15. How likely one-handedness is born.
16. The age when the preference of using one hand is settled.

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17. Occupations usually found in left-handed population.


18. A reference to an early discovery of each hemisphere’s function.

Questions 19-22
Look at the following researchers (Questions 19-22) and the list of findings below.
Match each researcher with the correct finding.
Write the correct letter A-G in boxes 19-22 on your answer sheet.

List of Findings

A Early language evolution is correlated to body movement and thus affecting the
preference of use of one hand.

B No single biological component determines the handedness of a child.

C Each hemisphere of the brain is in charge of different body functions.

D Language process is mainly centered in the left-hemisphere of the brain.

E Speech difficulties are often caused by brain damage.

F The rate of development of one side of the body has influence on hemisphere
preference in fetus.

G Brain function already matures by the end of the fetal stage.

19. Marian Annett


20. Peter Hepper
21. Brenda Milner & Theodore Rasmussen
22. Michael Corballis

Questions 23-26
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 2?
In boxes 23-26 on your answer sheet write

YES if the statement agrees with the views of the writer

NO if the statement contradicts the views of the writer

NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

23. The study of twins shows that genetic determinationis not the only factor for left-
handedness.
24. Marc Dax’s report was widely accepted in his time.

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25. Juhn Wada based his findings on his research of people with language problems.
26. There tend to be more men with left-handedness than women.

READING PASSAGE 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based on Reading
Passage 3 below.

What is a dinosaur?
A. Although the name dinosaur is derived from the Greek for "terrible lizard", dinosaurs
were not, in fact, lizards at all. Like lizards, dinosaurs are included in the class Reptilia, or
reptiles, one of the five main classes of Vertebrata, animals with backbones. However, at
the next level of classification, within reptiles, significant differences in the skeletal anatomy
of lizards and dinosaurs have led scientists to place these groups of animals into two
different superorders: Lepidosauria, or lepidosaurs, and Archosauria, or archosaurs.

B. Classified as lepidosaurs are lizards and snakes and their prehistoric ancestors. Included
among the archosaurs, or "ruling reptiles", are prehistoric and modern crocodiles, and the
now extinct thecodonts, pterosaurs and dinosaurs. Palaeontologists believe that both
dinosaurs and crocodiles evolved, in the later years of the Triassic Period (c. 248-208 million
years ago), from creatures called pseudosuchian thecodonts. Lizards, snakes and different
types of thecodont are believed to have evolved earlier in the Triassic Period from reptiles
known as eosuchians.

C. The most important skeletal differences between dinosaurs and other archosaurs are in
the bones of the skull, pelvis and limbs. Dinosaur skulls are found in a great range of shapes
and sizes, reflecting the different eating habits and lifestyles of a large and varied group of

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animals that dominated life on Earth for an extraordinary 165 million years. However, unlike
the skulls of any other known animals, the skulls of dinosaurs had two long bones known as
vomers. These bones extended on either side of the head, from the front of the snout to the
level of the holes on the skull known as the antorbital fenestra, situated in front of the
dinosaur's orbits or eyesockets.

D. All dinosaurs, whether large or small, quadrupedal or bipedal, fleet-footed or slow-


moving, shared a common body plan. Identification of this plan makes it possible to
differentiate dinosaurs from any other types of animal, even other archosaurs. Most
significantly, in dinosaurs, the pelvis and femur had evolved so that the hind limbs were held
vertically beneath the body, rather than sprawling out to the sides like the limbs of a lizard.
The femur of a dinosaur had a sharply in-turned neck and a ball-shaped head, which slotted
into a fully open acetabulum or hip socket. A supra-acetabular crest helped prevent
dislocation of the femur. The position of the knee joint, aligned below the acetabulum,
made it possible for the whole hind limb to swing backwards and forwards. This unique
combination of features gave dinosaurs what is known as a "fully improved gait". Evolution
of this highly efficient method of walking also developed in mammals, but among reptiles it
occurred only in dinosaurs.

E. For the purpose of further classification, dinosaurs are divided into two orders:
Saurischia, or saurischian dinosaurs, and Ornithischia, or ornithischian dinosaurs. This
division is made on the basis of their pelvic anatomy. All dinosaurs had a pelvic girdle with
each side comprised of three bones: the pubis, ilium and ischium. However, the orientation
of these bones follows one of two patterns. In saurischian dinosaurs, also known as lizard-
hipped dinosaurs, the pubis points forwards, as is usual in most types of reptile. By contrast,
in ornithischian, or bird-hipped, dinosaurs, the pubis points backwards towards the rear of
the animal, which is also true of birds.

F. Of the two orders of dinosaurs, the Saurischia was the larger and the first to evolve. It is
divided into two suborders: Therapoda, or therapods, and Sauropodomorpha, or
sauropodomorphs. The therapods, or "beast feet", were bipedal, predatory carnivores. They
ranged in size from the mighty Tyrannosaurus rex, 12m long, 5.6m tall and weighing an
estimated 6.4 tonnes, to the smallest known dinosaur, Compsognathus, a mere 1.4m long
and estimated 3kg in weight when fully grown. The sauropodomorphs, or "lizard feet
forms", included both bipedal and quadrupedal dinosaurs. Some sauropodomorphs were
carnivorous or omnivorous but later species were typically herbivorous. They included some
of the largest and best-known of all dinosaurs, such as Diplodocus, a huge quadruped with
an elephant-like body, a long, thin tail and neck that gave it a total length of 27m, and a tiny
head.

G. Ornithischian dinosaurs were bipedal or quadrupedal herbivores. They are now usually
divided into three suborders: Ornithipoda, Thyreophora and Marginocephalia. The
ornithopods, or "bird feet", both large and small, could walk or run on their long hind legs,

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balancing their body by holding their tails stiffly off the ground behind them. An example is
Iguanodon, up to 9m long, 5m tall and weighing 4.5 tonnes. The thyreophorans, or "shield
bearers", also known as armoured dinosaurs, were quadrupeds with rows of protective
bony spikes, studs, or plates along their backs and tails. They included Stegosaurus, 9m long
and weighing 2 tonnes.

H. The marginocephalians, or "margined heads", were bipedal or quadrupedal


ornithschians with a deep bony frill or narrow shelf at the back of the skull. An example is
Triceratops, a rhinoceros-like dinosaur, 9m long, weighing 5.4 tonnes and bearing a
prominent neck frill and three large horns.

SECTION 3: QUESTIONS 27-40


Questions 27-33
Reading Passage 3 has 8 paragraphs (A-H).
Choose the most suitable heading for each paragraph from the List of headingsbelow.
Write the appropriate numbers (i-xiii) in Boxes 27-33 on your answer sheet.

One of the headings has been done for you as an example.

NB. There are more headings than paragraphs, so you will not use all of them.

27. Paragraph A

28. Paragraph B

29. Paragraph C

30. Paragraph D

31. Paragraph E

32. Paragraph F

33. Paragraph G

Example : Paragraph H Answer: x

List of headings

i 165 million years

ii The body plan of archosaurs

iii Dinosaurs - terrible lizards

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iv Classification according to pelvic anatomy

v The suborders of Saurischia

vi Lizards and dinosaurs - two distinct superorders

vii Unique body plan helps identify dinosaurs from other animals

viii Herbivore dinosaurs

ix Lepidosaurs

x Frills and shelves

xi The origins of dinosaurs and lizards

xii Bird-hipped dinosaurs

xiii Skull bones distinguish dinosaurs from other archosaurs

Questions 34-36
Complete then sentences below.

Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each blank space.

Write your answers in boxes 34-36 on your answer sheet.

Lizards and dinosaurs are classified into two different superorders because of the difference
in their 34__________

In the Triassic Period, 35__________evolved into thecodonts, for example, lizards and
snakes.

Dinosaur skulls differed from those of any other known animals because of the presence of
vomers: 36__________

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Questions 37-40
Choose one phrase (A-H) from the List of features to match with the Dinosaurslisted below.

Write the appropriate letters (A-H) in boxes 37-40 on your answer sheet.

The information in the completed sentences should be an accurate summary of the points
made by the writer.

NB. There are more phrases (A-H) than sentences, so you will not need to use them all.

You may use each phrase once only.

Dinosaurs
37. Dinosaurs differed from lizards, because

38. Saurischian and ornithischian dinosaurs

39. Unlike therapods, sauropodomorphs

40. Some dinosaurs used their tails to balance, others

List of features

A are both divided into two orders.

B the former had a "fully improved gait".

C were not usually very heavy.

D could walk or run on their back legs.

E their hind limbs sprawled out to the side.

F walked or ran on four legs, rather than two.

G both had a pelvic girdle comprising six bones.

H did not always eat meat.

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TEST 25

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LISTENING
SECTION 1 : QUESTIONS 1-10
Questions 1-4
Complete the form below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Product Incident Report

Example Answer

Product: rice cooker

Model Number: 1______________

Price of the Product: £(2)______________

Name of the Branch: 3______________

Problem: 4______________

Questions 5-10
Complete the form below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

CUSTOMER’S INFORMATION DETAILS

Name: Herbert Hewitt

Address: 5______________

Postcode: 6______________

Method of payment: 7______________

Card’s Expiry Date: 8______________

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Method of Compensation: 9______________

Shopping Frequency:
10______________

SECTION 2 : QUESTIONS 11-20


Questions 11-15
Listen to the directions and match the places in questions 11-15 to the appropriate place
among A-E on the map.

11. Student Centre

12. Health Centre

13. Internet Unit1

14. Complaint Office

15. Cafe

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Questions 16-20
Complete the sentences below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Students in a room don’t need to share a 16_________with ones in other rooms.

Everyone has to write down his name on the 17_________

All the students use a 18_________to enter the dorm's front door.

If you want to wash your clothes, go to the laundry room which is located in
the 19_________The dormitory closes at 20_________every night.

SECTION 3 : QUESTIONS 21-30


Questions 21-22
Choose the correct letters, A-C, and write each next to questions 21 and 22.

According to Betty, which lines describe the sales of both cheese and oil in New
Zealand and Colombia?

21________

22_________

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Questions 23-24
Write the correct letters, A-E, next to questions 23-24.

Which TWO of the following are sales strategies for chocolate in Italy and Germany?

a. Locate near a children’s school


b. Change the location of the product on shelves
c. Give a free gift
d. Make it the cheapest brand
e. Make Schmutzig the second cheapest brand

Questions 25-30
Complete the table below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Research plan
Betty is interested in how 25__________affects the sales of cosmetics and 26__________

Bruce is going to be concerned with how 27__________may impact on sales of cookies and
the relationships among 28__________, 29__________, and sales.

The professor advised the students to bear in mind the extensions of 30__________

SECTION 4 : QUESTIONS 31-40


Questions 31-37
Complete the table below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Talking about the history of bikes


Years/Time Feature Advantage Disadvantage

wooden wheels
need 31 __________
1830s covered with metal than walking quite 32__________

33 __________ Chain and sprocket easier


are 34 __________ and 35__________ride harder to balance

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1880s use 36__________ more comfortable The faster you go, the
more you feel every
bump.

dangerous before
1890s equal-sized wheels 37__________
brakes appeared

Questions 38-40
Choose THREE letters, A-F, and write them next to questions 38-40.

The invention of different gears on a bicycle affected which THREE of the following?

a. Wheel size
b. Balance
c. Rate of speed
d. The back wheel
e. Safety
f. Downhill travel

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READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on Reading Passage
1 below.

Learning by Examples
A Learning Theory is rooted in the work of Ivan Pavlov, the famous scientist who discovered
and documented the principles governing how animals (humans included) learn in the
1900s. Two basic kinds of learning or conditioning occur, one of which is famously known as
the classical conditioning. Classical conditioning happens when an animal learns to associate
a neutral stimulus (signal) with a stimulus that has intrinsic meaning based on how closely in
time the two stimuli are presented. The classic example of classical conditioning is a dog's
ability to associate the sound of a bell (something that originally has no meaning to the dog)
with the presentation of food (something that has a lot of meaning to the dog) a few
moments later. Dogs are able to learn the association between bell and food, and will
salivate immediately after hearing the bell once this connection has been made. Years of
learning research have led to the creation of a highly precise learning theory that can be
used to understand and predict how and under what circumstances most any animal will
learn, including human beings, and eventually help people figure out how to change their
behaviours.

B Role models are a popular notion for guiding child development, but in recent years very
interesting research has been done on learning by examples in other animals. If the subject
of animal learning is taught very much in terms of classical or operant conditioning, it places
too much emphasis on how we allow animals to learn and not enough on how they are
equipped to learn. To teach a course of mine, I have been dipping profitably into a very
interesting and accessible compilation of papers on social learning in mammals, including
chimps and human children, edited by Heyes and Galef (1996).

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C The research reported in one paper started with a school field trip to Israel to a pine forest
where many pine cones were discovered, stripped to the central core. So the investigation
started with no weighty theoretical intent, but was directed at finding out what was eating
the nutritious pine seeds and how they managed to get them out of the cones. The culprit
proved to be the versatile and athletic black rat,(Rattus rattus), and the technique was to
bite each cone scale off at its base, in sequence from base to tip following the spiral growth
pattern of the cone.

D Urban black rats were found to lack the skill and were unable to learn it even if housed
with experienced cone strippers. However, infants of urban mothers cross-fostered by
stripper mothers acquired the skill, whereas infants of stripper mothers fostered by an
urban mother could not. Clearly the skill had to be learned from the mother. Further elegant
experiments showed that naive adults could develop the skill if they were provided with
cones from which the first complete spiral of scales had been removed; rather like our new
photocopier which you can work out how to use once someone has shown you how to
switch it on. In the case of rats, the youngsters take cones away from the mother when she
is still feeding on them, allowing them to acquire the complete stripping skill.

E A good example of adaptive bearing we might conclude, but let’s see the economies. This
was determined by measuring oxygen uptake of a rat stripping a cone in a metabolic
chamber to calculate energetic cost and comparing it with the benefit of the pine seeds
measured by calorimeter. The cost proved to be less than 10% of the energetic value of the
cone. An acceptable profit margin.

F A paper in 1996, Animal Behaviour by Bednekoff and Baida, provides a different view of
the adaptiveness of social learning. It concerns the seed caching behaviour of Clark's
Nutcracker (Nucifraga columbiana) and the Mexican Jay (Aphelocoma ultramarina). The
former is a specialist, caching 30,000 or so seeds in scattered locations that it will recover
over the months of winter; the Mexican Jay will also cache food but is much less dependent
upon this than the Nutcracker. The two species also differ in their social structure: the
Nutcracker being rather solitary while the Jay forages in social groups.

G The experiment is to discover not just whether a bird can remember where it hid a seed
but also if it can remember where it saw another bird hide a seed. The design is slightly
comical with a cacher bird wandering about a room with lots of holes in the floor hiding
food in some of the holes, while watched by an observer bird perched in a cage. Two days
later, cachers and observers are tested for their discovery rate against an estimated random
performance. In the role of cacher, not only the Nutcracker but also the less specialised Jay
performed above chance; more surprisingly, however, jay observers were as successful as
jay cachers whereas nutcracker observers did no better than chance. It seems that, whereas
the Nutcracker is highly adapted at remembering where it hid its own seeds, the social living
Mexican Jay is more adept at remembering, and so exploiting, the caches of others.

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SECTION 1: QUESTIONS 1-13


Questions 1-4
Reading Passage 1 has seven paragraphs A-G.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the correct letter A-G in boxes 1-4 on your answer sheet.

1. A comparison between rats’ learning and human learning

2. A reference to the earliest study in animal learning

3. The discovery of who stripped the pine cone

4. A description of a cost-effectiveness experiment

Questions 5-8
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1?

In boxes 5-8 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

5. The field trip to Israel was to investigate how black rats learn to strip pine cones.

6. The pine cones were stripped from bottom to top by black rats.

7. It can be learned from other relevant experiences to use a photocopier.

8. Stripping the pine cones is an instinct of the black rats.

Questions 9-13
Complete the summary below using words from the box.

Write your answers in boxes 9-13 on your answer sheet.

While the Nutcracker is more able to cache seeds, the Jay relies 9___________on caching
food and is thus less specialised in this ability, but more 10___________. To study their
behaviour of caching and finding their caches, an experiment was designed and carried out
to test these two birds for their ability to remember where they hid the seeds.

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In the experiment, the cacher bird hid seeds in the ground while the other 11___________.
As a result, the Nutcracker and the Mexican Jay showed different performance in the role
of 12___________at finding the seeds - the observing 13___________didn’t do as well as its
counterpart.

less social remembered Nutcracker

more cacher watched

solitary observer Jay

READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based on Reading
Passage 2 below.

A New Ice Age


William Curry is a serious, sober climate scientist, not an art critic. But he has spent a lot of
time perusing Emanuel Gottlieb Leutze’s famous painting “George Washington Crossing the
Delaware”, which depicts a boatload of colonial American soldiers making their way to
attack English and Hessian troops the day after Christmas in 1776. “Most people think these
other guys in the boat are rowing, but they are actually pushing the ice away,” says Curry,
tapping his finger on a reproduction of the painting. Sure enough, the lead oarsman is
bashing the frozen river with his boot. “I grew up in Philadelphia. The place in this painting is
30 minutes away by car. I can tell you, this kind of thing just doesn’t happen anymore.”

But it may again soon. And ice-choked scenes, similar to those immortalised by the 16th-
century Flemish painter Pieter Brueghel the Elder, may also return to Europe. His works,
including the 1565 masterpiece “Hunters in the Snow”, make the now-temperate European
landscapes look more like Lapland. Such frigid settings were commonplace during a period
dating roughly from 1300 to 1850 because much of North America and Europe was in the

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throes of a little ice age. And now there is mounting evidence that the chill could return. A
growing number of scientists believe conditions are ripe for another prolonged cooldown,
or small ice age. While no one is predicting a brutal ice sheet like the one that covered the
Northern Hemisphere with glaciers about 12,000 years ago, the next cooling trend could
drop average temperatures 5 degrees Fahrenheit over much of the United States and 10
degrees in the Northeast, northern Europe, and northern Asia.

“It could happen in 10 years,” says Terrence Joyce, who chairs the Woods Hole Physical
Oceanography Department. “Once it does, it can take hundreds of years to reverse.” And he
is alarmed that Americans have yet to take the threat seriously.

A drop of 5 to 10 degrees entails much more than simply bumping up the thermostat and
carrying on. Both economically and ecologically, such quick, persistent chilling could have
devastating consequences. A 2002 report titled “Abrupt Climate Change: Inevitable
Surprises”, produced by the National Academy of Sciences, pegged the cost from
agricultural losses alone at $100 billion to $250 billion while also predicting that damage to
ecologies could be vast and incalculable. A grim sampler: disappearing forests, increased
housing expenses, dwindling fresh water, lower crop yields, and accelerated species
extinctions.

The reason for such huge effects is simple. A quick climate change wreaks far more
disruption than a slow one. People, animals, plants, and the economies that depend on
them are like rivers; says the report: "For example, high water in a river will pose few
problems until the water runs over the bank, after which levees can be breached and
massive flooding can occur. Many biological processes undergo shifts at particular
thresholds of temperature and precipitation.”

Political changes since the last ice age could make survival far more difficult for the world's
poor. During previous cooling periods, whole tribes simply picked up and moved south, but
that option doesn't work in the modern, tense world of closed borders. "To the extent that
abrupt climate change may cause rapid and extensive changes of fortune for those who live
off the land, the inability to migrate may remove one of the major safety nets for distressed
people,” says the report.

But first things first. Isn't the earth actually warming? Indeed it is, says Joyce. ‘ In his
cluttered office, full of soft light from the foggy Cape Cod morning, he explains how such
warming could actually be the surprising culprit of the next mini-ice age. The paradox is a
result of the appearance over the past 30 years in the North Atlantic of huge rivers of fresh
water - the equivalent of a 10-foot-thick layer - mixed into the salty sea. No one is certain
where the fresh torrents are coming from, but a prime suspect is melting Arctic ice, caused
by a build-up of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere that traps solar energy.

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The freshwater trend is major news in ocean-science circles. Bob Dickson, a British
oceanographer who sounded an alarm at a February conference in Honolulu, has termed
the drop in salinity and temperature in the Labrador Sea - a body of water between
northeastern Canada and Greenland that adjoins the Atlantic - "arguably the largest full-
depth changes observed in the modern instrumental oceanographic record”.

The trend could cause a little ice age by subverting the northern penetration of Gulf Stream
waters. Normally, the Gulf Stream, laden with heat soaked up in the tropics, meanders up
the east coasts of the United States and Canada. As it flows northward, the stream
surrenders heat to the air. Because the prevailing North Atlantic winds blow eastward, a lot
of the heat wafts to Europe. That’s why many scientists believe winter temperatures on the
Continent are as much as 36 degrees Fahrenheit warmer than those in North America at the
same latitude. Frigid Boston, for example, lies at almost precisely the same latitude as balmy
Rome. And some scientists say the heat also warms Americans and Canadians. “It’s a real
mistake to think of this solely as a European phenomenon," says Joyce.

Having given up its heat to the air, the now-cooler water becomes denser and sinks into the
North Atlantic by a mile or more in a process oceanographers call thermohaline circulation.
This massive column of cascading cold is the main engine powering a deep-water current
called the Great Ocean Conveyor that snakes through all the world’s oceans. But as the
North Atlantic fills with fresh water, it grows less dense, making the waters carried
northward by the Gulf Stream less able to sink. The new mass of relatively fresh water sits
on top of the ocean like a big thermal blanket, threatening the thermohaline circulation.
That in turn could make the Gulf Stream slow or veer southward. At some point, the whole
system could simply shut down, and do so quickly. “There is increasing evidence that we are
getting closer to a transition point, from which we can jump to a new state.”

SECTION 2: QUESTIONS 14-26


Questions 14-17
Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D.

Write your answers in boxes 14-17 on your answer sheet.

14. The writer uses paintings in the first paragraph to illustrate

a. possible future climate change.


b. climate change of the last two centuries.
c. the river doesn’t freeze in winter anymore.
d. how George Washington led his troops across the river.

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15. Which of the following do scientists believe to be possible?

a. The temperature may drop over much of the Northern Hemisphere.


b. It will be colder than 12,000 years ago.
c. The entire Northern Hemisphere will be covered in ice.
d. Europe will look more like Lapland.

16. Why is it difficult for the poor to survive the next ice age?

a. People don’t live in tribes anymore.


b. Politics are changing too fast today.
c. Abrupt climate change causes people to live off their land.
d. Migration has become impossible because of closed borders.

17. Why is continental Europe much warmer than North America in winter?

a. Wind blows most of the heat of tropical currents to Europe.


b. Europe and North America are at different latitudes.
c. The Gulf Stream has stopped yielding heat to the air.
d. The Gulf Stream moves north along the east coast of North America.

Questions 18-22
Look at the following statements (Questions 18-22) and the list of people in the box below.

Match each statement with the correct person A-D.

Write the appropriate letter A-D in boxes 18-22 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

18. Most Americans are not prepared for the next ice age.

19. The result of abrupt climate change is catastrophic.

20. The world is not as cold as it used to be.

21. Global warming is closely connected to the ice age.

22. Alerted people to the change of ocean water in a conference

List of People C Bob Dickson

A William Curry D National Academy of Sciences

B Terrence Joyce

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Questions 23-26
Complete the flow chart below.

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 23-26 on your answer sheet.

23____________

24____________

25____________

26____________

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READING PASSAGE 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based on Reading
Passage 3 below.

The Fruit Book


It’s not every scientist who writes books for people who can’t read. And how many scientists
want their books to look as dog-eared as possible? But Patricia Shanley, an ethnobotanist,
wanted to give something back. After the poorest people of the Amazon allowed her to
study their land and its ecology, she turned her research findings into a picture book that
tells the local people how to get a good return on their trees without succumbing to the lure
of a quick buck from a logging company. It has proved a big success.

A The book is called Fruit Trees and Useful Plants in the Lives of Amazonians, but is better
known simply as the “fruit book”. The second edition was produced at the request of
politicians in western Amazonia. Its blend of hard science and local knowledge on the use
and trade of 35 native forest species has been so well received (and well used) that no less a
dignitary than Brazil’s environment minister, Marina Silva, has written the foreword. “There
is nothing else like the Shanley book,” says Adalberto Verrisimo, director of the Institute of
People and the Environment of the Amazon. “It gives science back to the poor, to the
people who really need it.”

B Shanley’s work on the book began a decade ago, with a plea for help from the Rural
Workers’ Union of Paragominas, a Brazilian town whose prosperity is based on exploitation
of timber. The union realised that logging companies would soon be knocking on the doors
of the caboclos, peasant farmers living on the Rio Capim, an Amazon tributary in the
Brazilian state of Para. Isolated and illiterate, the caboclos would have little concept of the
true value of their trees; communities downstream had already sold off large blocks of
forest for a pittance. “What they wanted to know was how valuable the forests were,”

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recalls Shanley, then a researcher in the area for the Massachusetts-based Woods Hole
Research Centre.

C The Rural Workers’ Union wanted to know whether harvesting wild fruits would make
economic sense in the Rio Capim. “There was a lot of interest in trading non-timber forest
products (NTFPs),” Shanley says. At the time, environmental groups and green-minded
businesses were promoting the idea. This was the view presented in a seminal paper,
Valuation of an Amazonian Rainforest, published in Nature in 1989. The researchers had
calculated that revenues from the sale of fruits could far exceed those from a one- off sale
of trees to loggers. “The union was keen to discover whether it made more sense conserving
the forest for subsistence use and the possible sale of fruit, game and medicinal plants, than
selling trees for timber,” says Shanley. Whether it would work for the caboclos was far from
clear.

D Although Shanley had been invited to work in the Rio Capim, some caboclos were
suspicious. “When Patricia asked if she could study my forest,” says Joao Fernando Moreira
Brito, "my neighbours said she was a foreigner who’d come to rob me of my trees." In the
end, Moreira Brito, or Mangueira as he is known, welcomed Shanley and worked on her
study. His land, an hour's walk from the Rio Capim, is almost entirely covered with primary
forest. A study of this and other tracts of forest selected by the communities enabled
Shanley to identify three trees, found throughout the Amazon, whose fruit was much
favoured by the caboclos: bacuri (Platonia insignis), uxi (Endop- leura uchi) and piquia
(Cayocas villosum). The caboclos used their fruits, extracted oils, and knew what sort of
wildlife they attracted. But, in the face of aggressive tactics from the logging companies,
they had no measure of the trees' financial worth. The only way to find out, Shanley
decided, was to start from scratch with a scientific study. “From a scientific point of view,
hardly anything was known about these trees,” she says. But six years of field research
yielded a mass of data on their flowering and fruiting behaviour. During 1993 and 1994, 30
families weighed everything they used from the forest - game, fruit, fibre, medicinal plants -
and documented its source.

E After three logging sales and a major fire in 1997, the researchers were also able to study
the ecosystem's reaction to logging and disturbance. They carried out a similar, though less
exhaustive, study in 1999, this time with 15 families. The changes were striking. Average
annual household consumption of forest fruit had fallen from 89 to 28 kilogrammes
between 1993 and 1999. “What we found,” says Shanley, “was that fruit collection could
coexist with a certain amount of logging, but after the forest fire, it dropped dramatically.”
Over the same period, fibre use also dropped from around 20 to 4 kilogrammes. The fire
and logging also changed the nature of the caboclo diet. In 1993 most households ate game
two or three times a month. By 1999 some were fortunate if they ate game more than two
or three times a year.

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F The loss of certain species of tree was especially significant. Shanley’s team persuaded
local hunters to weigh their catch, noting the trees under which the animals were caught.
Over the year, they trapped five species of game averaging 232 kilogrammes under piquia
trees. Under copaiba, they caught just two species averaging 63 kilogrammes; and under
uxi, four species weighing 38 kilogrammes. At last, the team was getting a handle on which
trees were worth keeping, and which could reasonably be sold. “This showed that selling
piquia trees to loggers for a few dollars made little sense,” explains Shanley. “Their local
value lies in providing a prized fruit, as well as flowers which attract more game than any
other species.”

G As a result of these studies, Shanley had to tell the Rural Workers’ Union of Paragominas
that the Nature thesis could not be applied wholesale to their community - harvesting
NTFPs would not always yield more than timber sales. Fruiting patterns of trees such as uxi
were unpredictable, for example. In 1994, one household collected 3,654 uxi fruits; the
following year, none at all.

H This is not to say that wild fruit trees were unimportant. On the contrary, argues Shanley,
they are critical for subsistence, something that is often ignored in much of the current
research on NTFPs, which tends to focus on their commercial potential. Geography was
another factor preventing the Rio Capim caboclos from establishing a serious trade in wild
fruit: villagers in remote areas could not compete with communities collecting NTFPs close
to urban markets, although they could sell them to passing river boats.

I But Shanley and her colleagues decided to do more than just report their results to the
union. Together with two of her research colleagues, Shanley wrote the fruit book. This, the
Bible and a publication on medicinal plants co-authored by Shanley and designed for people
with minimal literacy skills are about the only books you will see along this stretch of the Rio
Capim. The first print ran to only 3,000 copies, but the fruit book has been remarkably
influential, and is used by colleges, peasant unions, industries and the caboclos themselves.
Its success is largely due to the fact that people with poor literacy skills can understand
much of the information it contains about the non-timber forest products, thanks to its
illustrations, anecdotes, stories and songs. “The book doesn’t tell people what to do,” says
Shanley, “but it does provide them with choices.” The caboclos who have used the book
now have a much better understanding of which trees to sell to the loggers, and which to
protect.

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SECTION 3: QUESTIONS 27-40


Questions 27-32
Reading Passage 3 has nine paragraphs A-I.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the correct letter A-I in boxes 27-32 on your answer sheet.

27. A description of Shanley’s initial data collection

28. Why a government official also contributes to the book

29. Reasons why the community asked Shanley to conduct the research

30. Reference to the starting point of her research

31. Two factors that alter food consumption patterns

32. Why the book is successful

Questions 33-40
Complete the summary below.

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 33-40 on your answer sheet.

Forest fire has caused local villagers to consume less:

33___________________

34___________________

Game
There is the least amount of game hunted under 35_______________yield is
also 36_______________. Thus, it is more reasonable to keep 37_______________.

All the trees can also be used for 38_______________besides selling them to loggers. But
this is often ignored, because most researches usually focus on the 39_______________of
the trees.

The purpose of the book:

To give information about 40_______________

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TEST 26

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LISTENING
SECTION 1 : QUESTIONS 1-10
Questions 1-5
Complete the form below
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Example Answer

Aim: protecting environment through recycling

Type of group: non-profit

Frequency of newspaper
1_____________
collection:

Name: 2_____________

Address: 3_____________

E-mail: 4_____________

Postcode: 5_____________

Questions 6-10
Complete the form below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Recycling

Ways of recycling Newspaper: in a 6_____________box

Nearest rubbish collection


On the East Side of 7_____________
centre

Rubbish that can be recycled Blue box: 8_____________

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Green box: glass and plastics

Yellow box: paper

Rubbish that cannot be


9_____________
recycled

Name of a booklet 10_____________

SECTION 2 : QUESTIONS 11-20


Questions 11-17
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

“CV and Interview Skills” Semina


The speaker suggests that the students use the 11_____________when they
begin writing resumes.

The students should be sure not to keep the CV 12_____________

A 13_____________cover letter is useful when applying for a job and should


be included.

The speaker believes the CV should have a beautiful 14_____________

The CV should not have any spelling and grammar 15_____________The


words in a CV can describe your 16_____________

Don’t forget to put down a 17_____________on the CV.

Questions 18-20
Choose THREE letters, A-G, and write them next to questions 18-20.

What THREE details should job applicants know in the interview?

a. Working hours e. Training


b. Promotion prospect f. Holidays
c. Salary range g. Location
d. Pension contribution bonus

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SECTION 3 : QUESTIONS 21-30


Questions 21-30
Choose the correct letter, A, B, or C.

A Consultation with the Returning Students Advisor

21. What does the man want to have?

a. A break
b. A talk
c. A class

22. What does the man think of children nowadays?

a. Confident
b. Intelligent
c. Mature

23. What type of people does the man want to teach?

a. Children
b. Students
c. Adults

24. What did the man do when he encountered former students?

a. Had a conversation
b. Ran away
c. Taught them

25. What is the man’ s greatest weakness ?

a. Being old-fashioned
b. Lack of confidence
c. Being introverted

26. When did Doctor Lindsey go to college?

a. 18 years ago
b. After starting a family
c. When she was 35 years old

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27. How did the woman feel when she was a freshman?

a. Hopeless
b. Unsuccessful
c. Stressed

28. How does the man feel about his career?

a. Unique
b. Boring
c. Impressive

29. What does the man finally decide to study?

a. Languages
b. Business
c. Liberal Arts

30. Which change in students’ life is NOT important to Frank?

a. Classroom technology
b. Student housing
c. University facilities

SECTION 4 : QUESTIONS 31-40


Questions 31-34
Complete the sentences below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

The university uses 31____________as their teaching method.

Research skills include writing and 32____________

Books of Economics are kept in the 33____________

Maths books are kept in the 34____________Building.

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Questions 35-36
Choose the correct letter, A, B, or C.

35. Which is NOT provided for students in most of the large buildings?

a. Printing
b. Photocopying
c. Typing

36. Which of the following can be used when you want to print?

a. Computer printers
b. Prepaid cards
c. Laser printers

Questions 37-40
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

If you go straight out those doors, the 37___________is directly opposite this building.

If you make a right turn outside the door and go to the second building, that’s
the 38___________.

You can see the 39___________if you look out of that window.

The Media Centre is located in front of the 40___________.

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READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on Reading Passage
1 below.

The Mozart Effect


A

Music has been used for centuries to heal the body. In the Ebers Papyrus (one of the earliest
medical documents, circa 1550 BC), it was recorded that physicians chanted to heal the sick
(Castleman, 1994). In various cultures, we have observed singing as part of healing rituals. In
the world of Western medicine, however, using music in medicine lost popularity until the
introduction of the radio. Researchers then started to notice that listening to music could
have significant physical effects. Therapists noticed music could help calm anxiety, and
researchers saw that listening to music, could cause a drop in blood pressure. In addition to
these two areas, music has been used with cancer chemotherapy to reduce nausea, during
surgery to reduce stress hormone production, during childbirth, and in stroke recovery
(Castleman, 1994 and Westley, 1998). It has been shown to decrease pain as well as
enhance the effectiveness of the immune system. In Japan, compilations of music are used
as medication of sorts. For example, if you want to cure a headache or migraine, the album
suggested is Mendelssohn’s "Spring Song”, Dvorak's “Humoresque”, or part of George
Gershwin’s "An American in Paris” (Campbell, 1998). Music is also being used to assist in
learning, in a phenomenon called the Mozart Effect.

Frances H. Rauscher, PhD, first demonstrated the correlation between music and learning in
an experiment in 1993. His experiment indicated that a 10-minute dose of Mozart could

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temporarily boost intelligence. Groups of students were given intelligence tests after
listening to silence, relaxation tapes, or Mozart’s "Sonata for Two Pianos in D Major” for a
short time. He found that after silence, the average IQ score was 110, and after the relax-
ation tapes, the score rose a point. After listening to Mozart’s music, however, the score
jumped to 119 (Westley, 1998). Even students who did not like the music still had an
increased score in the IQ test. Rauscher hypothesised that “listening to complex, non-
repetitive music, like Mozart's, may stimulate neural pathways that are important in
thinking” (Castleman, 1994).

The same experiment was repeated on rats by Rauscher and Hong Hua Li from Stanford.
Rats also demonstrated enhancement in their intelligence performance. These new studies
indicate that rats that were exposed to Mozart’s showed “increased gene expression of
BDNF (a neural growth factor), CREB (a learning and memory compound), and Synapsin I (a
synaptic growth protein) ” in the brain’s hippocampus, compared with rats in the control
group, which heard only white noise (e.g. the whooshing sound of a V radio tuned between
stations).

How exactly does the Mozart Effect work? Researchers are still trying to determine the
actual mechanisms for the formation of these enhanced learning pathways. Neuroscientists
suspect that music can actually help build and strengthen connections between neurons in
the cerebral cortex in a process similar to what occurs in brain development despite its type.

When a baby is born, certain connections have already been made - like connections for
heartbeat and breathing. As new information is learned and motor skills develop, new
neural connections are formed. Neurons that are not used will eventually die while those
used repeatedly will form strong connections. Although a large number of these neural
connections require experience, they must also occur within a certain time frame. For
example, a child born with cataracts cannot develop connections within the visual cortex. If
the cataracts are removed by surgery right away, the child’s vision develops normally.
However, after the age of 2, if the cataracts are removed, the child will remain blind
because those pathways cannot establish themselves.

Music seems to work in the same way. In October of 1997, researchers at the University of
Konstanz in Germany found that music actually rewires neural circuits (Begley, 1996).
Although some of these circuits are formed for physical skills needed to play an instrument,
just listening to music strengthens connections used in higher-order thinking. Listening to
music can then be thought of as “exercise” for the brain, improving concentration and
enhancing intuition.

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If you’re a little sceptical about the claims made by supporters of the Mozart Effect, you’re
not alone. Many people accredit the advanced learning of some children who take music
lessons to other personality traits, such as motivation and persistence, which are required in
all types of learning. There have also been claims of that influencing the results of some
experiments.

Furthermore, many people are critical of the role the media had in turning an isolated study
into a trend for parents and music educators. After the Mozart Effect was published to the
public, the sales of Mozart CDs stayed on the top of the hit list for three weeks. In an article
by Michael Linton, he wrote that the research that began this phenomenon (the study by re-
searchers at the University of California, Irvine) showed only a temporary boost in IQ, which
was not significant enough to even last throughout the course of the experiment. Using
music to influence intelligence was used in Confucian civilisation and Plato alluded to
Pythagorean music when he de- jj scribed its ideal state in The Republic. In both of these
examples, music did not cause any overwhelming changes, and the theory eventually died
out. Linton also asks, “If Mozart’s music were able to improve health, why was Mozart
himself so frequently sick? If listening to Mozart’s music increases intelligence and
encourages spirituality, why aren’t the world’s smartest and most spiritual people Mozart
specialists?” Linton raises an interesting point, if the Mozart Effect causes such significant
changes, why isn’t there more documented evidence?

The “trendiness’’ of the Mozart Effect may have died out somewhat, but there are still
strong supporters (and opponents) of the claims made in 1993. Since that initial experiment,
there has not been a surge of supporting evidence. However, many parents, after playing
classical music while pregnant or when their children are young, will swear by the Mozart
Effect.

A classmate of mine once told me that listening to classical music while studying will help
with memorisation. If we approach this controversy from a scientific aspect, although there
has been some evidence that music does increase brain activity, actual improvements in
learning and memory have not been adequately demonstrated.

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SECTION 1: QUESTIONS 1-13


Questions 1-5
Reading Passage 1 has eight paragraphs A-H.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the correct letter A-H in boxes 1-5 on your answer sheet.

1. A description of how music affects the brain development of infants

2. Public’s first reaction to the discovery of the Mozart Effect

3. The description of Rauscher’s original experiment

4. The description of using music for healing in other countries

5. Other qualities needed in all learning

Questions 6-8
Complete the summary below.

Choose NO MORE THAN ONE WORD from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 6-8 on your answer sheet.

During the experiment conducted by Frances Rauscher, subjects were exposed to the music
for a 6_________period of time before they were tested. And Rauscher believes the
enhancement in their performance is related to the 7_________, non-repetitive nature of
Mozart’s music. Later, a similar experiment was also repeated on 8_________

Questions 9-13
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1?

In boxes 9-13 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

9. All kinds of music can enhance one’s brain performance to somewhat extent.

10. There is no neural connection made when a baby is born.

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11. There are very few who question the Mozart Effect.

12. Michael Linton conducted extensive research on Mozart’s life.

13. There is not enough evidence in support of the Mozart Effect today.

READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based on Reading
Passage 2 below.

The Ant and the Mandarin


In 1476, the farmers of Berne in Switzerland decided there was only one way to rid their
fields of the cutworms attacking their crops. They took the pests to court. The worms were
tried, found guilty and excommunicated by the archbishop. In China, farmers had a more
practical approach to pest control. Rather than relying on divine intervention, they put their
faith in frogs, ducks and ants. Frogs and ducks were encouraged to snap up the pests in the
paddies and the occasional plague of locusts. But the notion of biological control began with
an ant. More specifically, it started with the predatory yellow citrus ant Oeco-phylla
smaragdina, which has been polishing off pests in the orange groves of southern China for at
least 1,700 years. The yellow citrus ant is a type of weaver ant, which binds leaves and twigs
with silk to form a neat, tent-like nest. In the beginning, farmers made do with the odd ants'
nests here and there. But it wasn't long before growing demand led to the development of a
thriving trade in nests and a new type of agriculture - ant farming.

For an insect that bites, the yellow citrus ant is remarkably popular. Even by ant standards,
Oecophylla smaragdina is a fearsome predator. It's big, runs fast and has a powerful nip -
painful to humans but lethal to many of the insects that plague the orange groves of
Guangdong and Guangxi in southern China. And for at least 17 centuries, Chinese orange

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growers have harnessed these six-legged killing machines to keep their fruit groves healthy
and productive.

Citrus fruits evolved in the Far East and the Chinese discovered the delights of their flesh
early on. As the ancestral home of oranges, lemons and pomelos, China also has the
greatest diversity of citrus pests. And the trees that produce the sweetest fruits, the
mandarins - or kan - attract a host of plant-eating insects, from black ants and sap-sucking
mealy bugs to leaf-devouring caterpillars. With so many enemies, fruit growers clearly had
to have some way of protecting their orchards.

The West did not discover the Chinese orange growers' secret weapon until 1 the early 20th
century. At the time, Florida was suffering an epidemic of citrus canker and in 1915 Walter
Swingle, a plant physiologist working for the US f Department of Agriculture, was sent to
China in search of varieties of orange that were resistant to the disease. Swingle spent some
time studying the citrus orchards around Guangzhou, and there he came across the story of
the cultivated ant. These ants, he was told, were "grown'' by the people of a small village
nearby who sold them to the orange growers by the nestful.

The earliest report of citrus ants at work among the orange trees appeared in a book on
tropical and subtropical botany written by Hsi Han in AD 304. "The people of Chiao-Chih sell
in their markets ants in bags of rush matting. The nests are like silk. The bags are all
attached to twigs and leaves which, with the ants inside the nests, are for sale. The ants are
reddish-yellow in colour, bigger than ordinary ants. In the south, if the kan trees do not have
this kind of ant, the fruits will all be damaged by many harmful insects, and not a single fruit
will be perfect."

Initially, farmers relied on nests which they collected from the wild or bought in the market
where trade in nests was brisk. "It is said that in the south orange trees which are free of
ants will have wormy fruits. Therefore, people race to buy nests for their orange trees,"
wrote Liu Hsun in Strange Things Noted in the South in about 890.

The business quickly became more sophisticated. From the 10th century, country people
began to trap ants in artificial nests baited with fat. "Fruit-growing families buy these ants
from vendors who make a business of collecting and selling such creatures," wrote Chuang
Chi-Yu in 1130. "They trap them by filling hogs' or sheep's bladders with fat and placing
them with the cavities open next to the ants' nests. They wait until the ants have migrated
into the bladders and take them away. This is known as 'rearing orange ants'." Farmers
attached k the bladders to their trees, and in time the ants spread to other trees and built
new nests.

By the 17th century, growers were building bamboo walkways between their trees to speed
the colonisation of their orchards. The ants ran along these narrow bridges from one tree to
another and established nests "by the hundreds of thousands”.

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Did it work? The orange growers clearly thought so. One authority, Chhii Ta-Chun, writing in
1700, stressed how important it was to keep the fruit trees free of insect pests, especially
caterpillars. "It is essential to eliminate them so that the trees are not injured. But hand
labour is not nearly as efficient as ant power..."

Swingle was just as impressed. Yet despite his reports, many Western biologists t were
sceptical. In the West, the idea of using one insect to destroy another was new and highly
controversial. The first breakthrough had come in 1888, when the infant orange industry in
California had been saved from extinction by the Australian vedalia beetle. This beetle was
the only thing that had made any in- T roads into the explosion of cottony cushion scale that
was threatening to destroy the state's citrus crops. But, as Swingle now knew, California's
"first'' was nothing of the sort. The Chinese had been expert in bio-control for many
centuries.

The long tradition of ants in the Chinese orchards only began to waver in the 1950s and
1960s with the introduction of powerful organic insecticides. Although most fruit growers
switched to chemicals, a few hung onto their ants. Those who abandoned ants in favour of
chemicals quickly became disillusioned. As costs soared and pests began to develop
resistance to the chemicals, growers began to revive the old ant patrols in the late 1960s.
They had good reason to have faith in their insect workforce.

Research in the early 1960s showed that as long as there were enough ants in the trees,
they did an excellent job of dispatching some pests - mainly the larger insects - and had
modest success against others. Trees with yellow ants produced almost 20 per cent more
healthy leaves than those without. More recent trials have shown that these trees yield just
as big a crop as those protected by expensive chemical sprays.

One apparent drawback of using ants - and one of the main reasons for the early scepticism
by Western scientists - was that citrus ants do nothing to control mealy bugs, waxy-coated
scale insects which can do considerable damage to fruit trees. In fact, the ants protect mealy
bugs in exchange for the sweet honey-dew they secrete. The orange growers always denied
this was a problem but Western scientists thought they knew better.

Research in the 1980s suggests that the growers were right all along. Where X mealy bugs
proliferate under the ants' protection, they are usually heavily parasitised and this limits the
harm they can do.

Orange growers who rely on carnivorous ants rather than poisonous chemicals maintain a
better balance of species in their orchards. While the ants deal with the bigger insect pests,
other predatory species keep down the numbers of smaller pests such as scale insects and
aphids. In the long run, ants do a lot less damage than chemicals - and they're certainly
more effective than excommunication.

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SECTION 2: QUESTIONS 14-26


Questions 14-18
Look at the following events (Questions 14-18) and the list of dates below.

Match each event with the correct time A-G.

Write the correct letter A-G in boxes 14-18 on your answer sheet.

14. The first description of citrus ants is traded in the marketplace.

15. Swingle came to Asia for research.

16. The first record of one insect is used to tackle other insects in the western world.

17. Chinese fruit growers started to use pesticides in place of citrus ants.

18. Some Chinese farmers returned to the traditional bio-method

List of Dates

A 1888

B AD 890

C AD 304

D 1950s

E 1960s

F 1915

G 1130

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Questions 19-26
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 2?

In boxes 19-26 on your answer sheet write

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

19. China has more citrus pests than any other country in the world.

20. Swingle came to China to search for an insect to bring back to the US.

21. Many people were very impressed by Swingle's discovery.

22. Chinese farmers found that pesticides became increasingly expensive.

23. Some Chinese farmers abandoned the use of pesticide.

24. Trees with ants had more leaves fall than those without.

25. Fields using ants yield as large a crop as fields using chemical pesticides.

26. Citrus ants often cause considerable damage to the bio-environment of the orchards.

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READING PASSAGE 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based on Reading
Passage 3 below.

Music: Language We All Speak


Section A

Music is one of the human species' relatively few universal abilities. Without formal training,
any individual, from Stone Age tribesman to suburban teenager, has the ability to recognise
music and, in some fashion, to make it. Why this should be so is a mystery. After all, music
isn't necessary for getting through the day, and if it aids in reproduction, it does so only in
highly indirect ways. Language, by contrast, is also everywhere - but for reasons that are
more obvious. With language, you and the members of your tribe can organise a migration
across Africa, build reed boats and cross the seas, and communicate at night even when you
can't see each other. Modern culture, in all its technological extravagance, springs directly
from the human talent for manipulating symbols and syntax.

Scientists have always been intrigued by the connection between music and language. Yet
over the years, words and melody have acquired a vastly different status in the lab and the
seminar room. While language has long been considered essential to unlocking the
mechanisms of human intelligence, music is generally treated as an evolutionary frippery -
mere "auditory cheesecake", as the Harvard cognitive scientist Steven Pinker puts it.

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Section B

But thanks to a decade-long wave of neuroscience research, that tune is changing. A flurry
of recent publications suggests that language and music may equally be able to tell us who
we are and where we're from - not just emotionally, but biologically. In July, the journal
Nature Neuroscience devoted a special issue to the topic. And in an article in the 6 August
issue of the Journal of Neuroscience, David Schwartz, Catherine Howe, and Dale Purves of
Duke University argued that the sounds of music and the sounds of language are intricately
connected.

To grasp the originality of this idea, it's necessary to realise two things about how music has
traditionally been understood. First, musicologists have long emphasised that while each
culture stamps a special identity onto its music, music itself has some universal qualities. For
example, in virtually all cultures, sound is divided into some or all of the 12 intervals that
make up the chromatic scale -that is, the scale represented by the keys on a piano. For
centuries, observers have attributed this preference for certain combinations of tones to
the mathematical properties of sound itself.

Some 2,500 years ago, Pythagoras was the first to note a direct relationship between the
harmoniousness of a tone combination and the physical dimensions of the object that
produced it. For example, a plucked string will always play an octave lower than a similar
string half its size, and a fifth lower than a similar string two thirds its length. This link
between simple ratios and harmony has influenced music theory ever since.

Section C

This music-is-math idea is often accompanied by the notion that music, formally speaking at
least, exists apart from the world in which it was created. Writing recently in The New York
Review of Books, pianist and critic Charles Rosen discussed the long-standing notion that
while painting and sculpture reproduce at least some aspects of the natural world, and
writing describes thoughts and feelings we are all familiar with, music is entirely abstracted
from the world in which we live. Neither idea is right, according to David Schwartz and his
colleagues. Human musical preferences are fundamentally shaped not by elegant algorithms
or ratios but by the messy sounds of real life, and of speech in particular – which in turn is
shaped by our evolutionary heritage. "The explanation of music, like the explanation of any
product of the mind, must be rooted in biology, not in numbers per se," says Schwartz.

Schwartz, Howe, and Purves analysed a vast selection of speech sounds from a variety of
languages to reveal the underlying patterns common to all utterances. In order to focus only
on the raw sounds, they discarded all theories about speech and meaning, and sliced
sentences into random bites. Using a database of over 100,000 brief segments of speech,
they noted which frequency had the greatest emphasis in each sound. The resulting set of

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frequencies, they discovered, corresponded closely to the chromatic scale. In short, the
building blocks of music are to be found in speech.

Far from being abstract, music presents a strange analogue to the patterns created by the
sounds of speech. "Music, like visual arts, is rooted in our experience of the natural world,"
says Schwartz. "It emulates our sound environment in the way that visual arts emulate the
visual environment." In music we hear the echo of our basic sound-making instrument - the
vocal tract. The explanation for human music is simpler still than Pythagoras's mathematical
equations: We like the sounds that are familiar to us - specifically, we like the sounds that
remind us of us.

This brings up some chicken-or-egg evolutionary questions. It may be that music imitates
speech directly, the researchers say, in which case it would seem that language evolved
first. It's also conceivable that music came first and language is in effect an imitation of song
- that in everyday speech we hit the musical notes we especially like. Alternately, it may be
that music imitates the general products of the human sound-making system, which just
happens to be mostly speech. "We can't know this," says Schwartz. "What we do know is
that they both come from the same system, and it is this that shapes our preferences."

Section D

Schwartz's study also casts light on the long-running question of whether animals
understand or appreciate music. Despite the apparent abundance of "music" in the natural
world - birdsong, whalesong, wolf howls, synchronised chimpanzee hooting - previous
studies have found that many laboratory animals don't show a great affinity for the human
variety of music making.

Marc Hauser and Josh McDermott of Harvard argued in the July issue of Nature
Neuroscience that animals don't create or perceive music the way we do. The fact that
laboratory monkeys can show recognition of human tunes is evidence, they say, of shared
general features of the auditory system, not any specific chimpanzee musical ability. As for
birds, those most musical beasts, they generally recognise their own tunes - a narrow
repertoire - but don't generate novel melodies like we do. There are no avian Mozarts.

But what's been played to animals, Schwartz notes, is human music. If animals evolve
preferences for sound as we do - based upon the soundscape in which they live - then their
"music" would be fundamentally different from ours. In the same way our scales derive
from human utterances, a cat's idea of a good tune would derive from yowls and meows. To
demonstrate that animals don't appreciate sound the way we do, we'd need evidence that
they don't respond to "music" constructed from their own sound environment.

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Section E

No matter how the connection between language and music is parsed, what is apparent is
that our sense of music, even our love for it, is as deeply rooted in our biology and in our
brains as language is. This is most obvious with babies, says Sandra Trehub at the University
of Toronto, who also published a paper in the Nature Neuroscience special issue.

For babies, music and speech are on a continuum. Mothers use musical speech to "regulate
infants' emotional states", Trehub says. Regardless of what language they speak, the voice
all mothers use with babies is the same: "something between speech and song". This kind of
communication "puts the baby in a trancelike state, which may proceed to sleep or
extended periods of rapture". So if the babies of the world could understand the latest
research on language and music, they probably wouldn't be very surprised. The upshot, says
Trehub, is that music may be even more of a necessity than we realise.

SECTION 3: QUESTIONS 27-40


Questions 27-31
Reading Passage 3 has five sections A-E.

Choose the correct heading for each section from the list of headings below.

Write the correct number i-viii in boxes 27-31 on your answer sheet.

27. Section A 30. Section D

28. Section B 31. Section E

29. Section C

List of Headings viii Are we genetically designed for music?

i Communication in music with animals

ii New discoveries on animal music

iii Music and language contrasted

iv Current research on music

v Music is beneficial for infants.

vi Music transcends cultures.

vii Look back at some of the historical theories

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Questions 32-38
Look at the following people (Questions 32-38) and the list of statements below.
Match each person with the correct statement.
Write the correct letter A-G in boxes 32-38 on your answer sheet.
32. Steven Pinker 35. Schwartz, Howe, and
Purves
33. Musicologists 37. Charles Rosen
36. Marc Hauser and Josh
34. Greek philosopher 38. Sandra Trehub
McDermott
Pythagoras
List of Statements

A Music exists outside of the world it is created in.

B Music has a universal character despite cultural influences on it.

C Music is a necessity for humans.

D Music preference is related to the surrounding influences.

E He discovered the mathematical basis of music.

F Music doesn't enjoy the same status of research interest as


language.

G Humans and monkeys have similar traits in perceiving sound.

Questions 39-40
Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D.

Write your answers in boxes 39-40 on your answer sheet.

39. Why was the study of animal music inconclusive?

a. Animals don’t have the same auditory system as humans.


b. Tests on animal music are limited.
c. Animals can’t make up new tunes.
d. There aren’t enough tests on a wide range of animals.

40. What is the main theme of this passage?

a. Language and learning


b. The evolution of music
c. The role of music in human society
d. Music for animals

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TEST 27

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LISTENING
SECTION 1 : QUESTIONS 1-10
Questions 1-10
Complete the table below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Address Beatle Road Oakington Avenue Mead Street Devon Close complex

3 bedrooms, a
3 bedrooms, a living 2 bedrooms, a living 1 bedroom, a living room, a
Rooms kitchen, a living
room, 1__________ room, 5__________ study
room

Shared living room,


a lamp with 8__________; a
Facilities a nearby restaurant bathroom, kitchen TV and VCR
dining hall
and 3__________

Living room
Provided stuff Internet and utilities a 6__________ free 9__________
furniture

Rental fee $(2)__________ $340 - $400 $600 $500

The garden is too Due to some shared


Sometimes it is
Drawback big to be cleaned facilities, it Not including 10__________
quite 7__________
up. seems 4__________

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SECTION 2 : QUESTIONS 11-20


Questions 11-20
Complete the form below.

Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Waste sorting, collection, and disposal


Necessary characteristics of dustbins: Solid and 11_____________
Three kinds:

Recyclable garbage (blue or green bin)

Waste sorting Unrecyclable garbage (yellow bin)

Toxic waste (red bin)

Commercial waste collection:

It mainly refers to 12__________waste.

Waste Warning signs state not to 13__________blue/green bins.


collection
Those 14__________metals will cause environmental pollution.

Household waste collection:


All kitchen garbage should be put into a 15__________bag.

The garbage disposal plant is situated in an 16__________space or field.

The waste is disposed of at least once every 17__________

Waste disposal The dustbin should be cleared at night because of 18__________


The waste is mainly produced by 19__________, industry, retail, and
offices.
Please do not dispose of 20__________in any of the bins.

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SECTION 3 : QUESTIONS 21-30


Questions 21-24
Complete the sentences below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

The research topic should come from one of the headings in the 21___________

At least one reference needs to be from 22___________

The data Julie found on past experiments is in 23___________

Ricky has pointed out that aside from journals, he can also use 24___________about
scientific experiments.

Questions 25-30
Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

25. How should the essay be written?

a. single-spaced
b. double-spaced
c. double spaces

26. The main heading is required to be ______

a. italic
b. underlined
c. bold

27. Regarding all the requirements, the essay must be ________

a. handwritten
b. typed
c. both ways are acceptable

28. Where should the student number the pages?

a. top left corner


b. bottom right corner
c. top right corner

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29. What is the suitable width of the margins?

a. 325 pixels
b. 3.25 pixels
c. 3.25 centimeter

30. What should be included in the essay?

a. student's phone number


b. student's ID number
c. student's ID picture

SECTION 4 : QUESTIONS 31-40


Questions 31-38
Complete the sentences below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

This paper pertains to one major concern about water for people everywhere - that is
a 31___________source of water.

Australia is a dry continent and thus water is very 32___________

We utilise the most water for 33___________

We discover the purest water in rivers, creeks, 34___________

Rainfall is a useful source of water unless there is significant 35___________

People in the West wish the water to be 36___________

Water is highly prone to 37___________

In the home, one of the most important uses of water is for 38___________

Questions 39-40
Choose the correct letter, A, B, or C.

39. The mechanisms for water


management are
40. The government’s 1989 White Paper
a. inadequate
a. caused a concern.
b. nearly adequate
b. is unreliable.
c. admirable
c. is inconclusive

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READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on Reading Passage
1 below.

A Wonder Plant
The wonder plant with an uncertain future: more than a billion people rely on bamboo for
either their shelter or income, while many endangered species depend on it for their survival.
Despite its apparent abundance, a new report says that species of bamboo may be under
serious threat.

Every year, during the rainy season, the mountain gorillas of Central Africa migrate to the
foothills and lower slopes of the Virunga Mountains to graze on bamboo. For the 650 0r so
that remain in the wild, it’s a vital food source. Although there are at almost 150 types of
plant, as well as various insects and other invertebrates, bamboo accounts for up t0 90
percent of their diet at this time of year. Without it, says Ian Redmond, chairman of the Ape
Alliance, their chances of survival would be reduced significantly. Gorillas aren’t the only
locals keen on bamboo. For the people who live close to the Virungas, it’s a valuable and
versatile raw material used for building houses and making household items such as mats
and baskets. But in the past 100 years or so, resources have come under increasing pressure
as populations have exploded and large areas of bamboo forest have been cleared to make

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way for farms and commercial plantations.


B

Sadly, this isn’t an isolated story. All over the world, the ranges of many bamboo species
appear to be shrinking, endangering the people and animals that
depend upon them. But despite bamboo’s importance, we know surprisingly little
about it. A recent report published by the UN Environment Programme (UNEP) and the
Inter-national Network for Bamboo and Rattan (INBAR) has revealed just how profound is
our ignorance of global bamboo resources, particularly in relation to conservation. There are
almost 1,600 recognized species of bamboo, but the report concentrated on the 1,200 or so
woody varieties distinguished by the strong stems, or culms, that most people associate
with this versatile plant. Of these, only 38 ‘priority species’ identified for their commercial
value have been the subject of any real scientific research, and this has focused mostly on
matters relating to their viability as a commodity. This problem isn’t confined to bamboo.
Compared to the work carried out on animals, the science of assessing the conservation
status of plants is still in its infancy. “People have only started looking hard at this during the
past 10-15 years, and only now are they getting a handle on how to go about it
systematically,” says Dr. Valerie Kapos, one of the report’s authors and a senior adviser in
forest ecology and conservation to the UNEP.

Bamboo is a type of grass. It comes in a wide variety of forms, ranging in height from 30
centimeters to more than 40 meters. It is also the world’s fastest-growing woody plant;
some species can grow more than a meter in a day. Bamboo’s ecological role extends
beyond providing food and habitat for animals. Bamboo tends to grow in stands made up of
groups of individual plants that grow from root systems known as rhizomes. Its extensive
rhizome systems, which tie in the top layers of the soil, are crucial in preventing soil erosion.
And there is growing evidence that bamboo plays an important part in determining forest
structure and dynamics. “Bamboo’s pattern of mass flowering and mass death leaves
behind large areas of dry biomass that attract wildfire,” says Kapos. “When these burn, they
create patches of open ground within the forest far bigger than would be left by a fallen
tree.”Patchiness helps to preserve diversity because certain plant species do better during
the early stages of regeneration when there are gaps in the canopy.

However, bamboo’s most immediate significance lies in its economic value. Modern
processing techniques mean that it can be used in a variety of ways, for example, as flooring
and laminates. One of the fastest growing bamboo products is paper-
25 percent of paper produced in India is made from bamboo fiber, and in Brazil,
100,000 hectares of bamboo are grown for its production. Of course, bamboo’s main
function has always been in domestic applications, and as a locally traded commodity it’s

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worth about $4.5billion annually. Because of its versatility, flexibility and strength (its tensile
strength compares to that of some steel), it has traditionally been used in construction.
Today, more than one billion people worldwide live in bamboo houses. Bamboo is often the
only readily available raw material for people in many developing countries, says Chris
Stapleton, a research associate at the Royal Botanic Gardens. “Bamboo can be harvested
from forest areas or grown quickly elsewhere, and then converted simply without expensive
machinery or facilities,” he says. “In this way, it contributes substantially to poverty
alleviation and wealth creation.”

Given bamboo’s value in economic and ecological terms, the picture painted by theUNEP
report is all the more worrying. But keen horticulturists will spot an apparent contradiction
here. Those who’ve followed the recent vogue for cultivating exotic species in their gardens
will point out that if it isn’t kept in check, bamboo can cause real problems. “In a lot of
places, the people who live with bamboo don’t perceive it as being endangered in any way,”
says Kapos. “In fact, a lot of bamboo species are actually very invasive if they’ve been
introduced.”So why are so many species endangered? There are two separate issues here,
says Ray Townsend, vice president of the British Bamboo Society and arboretum manager at
the Royal Botanic Gardens. “Some plants are threatened because they can’t survive in the
habitat-they aren’t strong enough or there aren’t enough of them, perhaps. But bamboo
can take care of itself-it is strong enough to survive if left alone. What is under threat is its
habitat.”It is the physical disturbance that is the threat to bamboo, says Kapos. “When
forest goes, it is converted into something else: there isn’t anywhere for forest plants such
as bamboo to grow if you create a cattle pasture.”

Around the world, bamboo species are routinely protected as part of forest eco-systems in
national parks and reserves, but there is next to nothing that protects bamboo in the wild
for its own sake. However, some small steps are being taken to address this situation. The
UNEP-INBAR report will help conservationists to establish effective measures aimed at
protecting valuable wild bamboo species. Townsend, too, sees the UNEP report as an
important step forward in promoting the cause of bamboo conservation. “Until now,
bamboo has been perceived as a second-class plant. When you talk about places such as the
Amazon, everyone always thinks about the hardwoods. Of course these are significant, but
there is a tendency to overlook the plants they are associated with, which are often bamboo
species. In many ways, it is the most important plant known to man. I can’t think of another
plant that is used so much and is so commercially important in so many countries.”He
believes that the most important first step is to get scientists into the field. “We need to go
out there, look at these plants and see how they survive and then use that information to
conserve them for the future.”

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SECTION 1: QUESTIONS 1-13


Questions 1-7
Reading Passage I has six sections A-F.
Which section contains the following information ?
Write the correct letter A-F in boxes 1-7 on your answer sheet
NB You may use any letter more than once

1. Comparison of bamboo with other 5. How bamboos are put to a variety of


plant species uses

2. Commercial products of bamboo 6. An explanation of how bamboo can


help the survival of a range of plants
3. Limited extent of existing research
7. The methods used to study bamboo
4. A human development that destroyed
large areas of bamboo

Questions 8-11
Use the information in the passage to match the people (listed A-D) with opinions or deeds
below. Write the appropriate letters A-D in boxes 8-11 on your answer sheet.
NB you may use any letter more than once

A Ian Redmond C Ray Townsend

B Valerie Kapos D Chris Stapleton

8. Destroying bamboo jeopardizes to 10. Some people do not think that


wildlife. bamboo is endangered.
9. People have very confined knowledge 11. Bamboo has loads of commercial
of bamboo. potentials.

Questions 12-13
Answer the questions below using NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each
answer. Write your answers in boxes 12-13 on your answer sheet

What environmental problem does the unique root system of bamboo prevent?

12____________
Which bamboo product is experiencing market expansion?

13____________

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READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based on Reading
Passage 2 below.

Children’s Literature
Stories and poems aimed at children have an exceedingly long history:lullabies, for example,
were sung in Roman times, and a few nursery games and rhymes are almost as ancient. Yet
so far as written-down literature is concerned, while there were stories in print before 1700
that children often seized on when they had the chance, such as translations of Aesop’s
fables, fairy-stories and popular ballads and romances, these were not aimed at young
people in particular. Since the only genuinely child-oriented literature at this time would
have been a few instructional works to help with reading and general knowledge, plus the
odd Puritanical tract as an aid to morality, the only course for keen child readers was to read
adult literature. This still occurs today, especially with adult thrillers or romances that
include more exciting, graphic detail than is normally found in the literature for younger
readers.

By the middle of the 18th century there were enough eager child readers, and enough
parents glad to cater to this interest, for publishers to specialize in children’s books whose
first aim was pleasure rather than education or morality. In Britain, a London merchant
named Thomas Boreham produced Cajanus, The Swedish Giant in 1742, while the more
famous John Newbery published A Little Pretty Pocket Book in 1744. Its contents - rhymes,
stories, children’s games plus a free gift (‘A ball and a pincushion’)——in many ways
anticipated the similar lucky-dip contents of children’s annuals this century. It is a tribute to
Newbery’s flair that he hit upon a winning formula quite so quickly, to be pirated almost
immediately in America.

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Such pleasing levity was not to last. Influenced by Rousseau, whose Emile(1762) decreed
that all books for children save Robinson Crusoe were a dangerous diversion, contemporary
critics saw to it that children’s literature should be instructive and uplifting. Prominent
among such voices was Mrs. Sarah Trimmer, whose magazine The Guardian of Education
(1802) carried the first regular reviews of children’s books. It was she who condemned fairy-
tales for their violence and general absurdity; her own stories, Fabulous Histories (1786)
described talking animals who were always models of sense and decorum.

So the moral story for children was always threatened from within, given the way children
have of drawing out entertainment from the sternest moralist. But the greatest blow to the
improving children’s book was to come from an unlikely source indeed: early 19th century
interest in folklore. Both nursery rhymes, selected by James Orchard Halliwell for a folklore
society in 1842, and collection of fairy-stories by the scholarly Grimm brothers, swiftly
translated into English in 1823,soon rocket to popularity with the young, quickly leading to
new editions, each one more child-centered than the last. From now on younger children
could expect stories written for their particular interest and with the needs of their own
limited experience of life kept well to the fore.

What eventually determined the reading of older children was often not the availability of
special children’s literature as such but access to books that contained characters, such as
young people or animals, with whom they could more easily empathize, or action, such as
exploring or fighting, that made few demands on adult maturity or understanding.

The final apotheosis of literary childhood as something to be protected from unpleasant


reality came with the arrival in the late 1930s of child-centered best-sellers intend on
entertainment at its most escapist. In Britain novelist such as Enid Blyton and Richmal
Crompton described children who were always free to have the most unlikely adventures,
secure in the knowledge that nothing bad could ever happen to them in the end. The fact
that war broke out again during her books’ greatest popularity fails to register at all in the
self-enclosed world inhabited by Enid Blyton’s young characters. Reaction against
such dream-worlds was inevitable after World War II, coinciding with the growth of
paperback sales, children’s libraries and a new spirit of moral and social concern. Urged on
by committed publishers and progressive librarians, writers slowly began to explore new
areas of interest while also shifting the settings of their plots from the middle-class world to
which their chiefly adult patrons had always previously belonged.

Critical emphasis, during this development, has been divided. For some the most important
task was to rid children’s books of the social prejudice and exclusiveness no longer found
acceptable. Others concentrated more on the positive achievements of contemporary
children’s literature. That writers of these works are now often recommended to the
attentions of adult as well as child readers echoes the 19th-century belief that children’s
literature can be shared by the generations, rather than being a defensive barrier between
childhood and the necessary growth towards adult understanding.

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SECTION 2: QUESTIONS 14-26


Questions 14-18
Complete the table below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from Reading Passage 2 for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 14-18 on your answer sheet.

DATE FEATURES AIM EXAMPLE

Not aimed at young Education and


Before 1700 Puritanical tract
children morality

A Little Pretty Pocket


By the middle Collection
Read for Book
of 18th of 14__________and
pleasure (exported
century games
to 15__________)

To be more
Early Growing interest Nursery rhymes
children-
19thcentury in 16__________ and 17__________
centered

Enid Blyton and


Stories of harm-
Late 1930s Entertainment Richarnal Crompton’s
free 18__________
novels

Questions 19-21
Look at the following people and the list of statements below.
Match each person with the correct statement.
Write the correct letter A-E in boxes 19-21 on your answer sheet.

List of statements

A Wrote criticisms of children’s literature C Was not a writer originally

B Used animals to demonstrate the absurdity of fairy


D Translated
tales a book into English

E Didn’t write in the English language

19. Thomas Boreham


20. Mrs. Sarah trimmer
21. Grimm Brothers

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Questions 22-26
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 2?
In boxes 22-26 on your answer sheet write

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

22. Children didn’t start to read books until 1700.


23. Sarah Trimmer believed that children’s books should set good examples.
24. Parents were concerned about the violence in children’s books.
25. An interest in the folklore changed the direction of the development of children’s books.
26. Today children’s book writers believe their works should appeal to both children and
adults.

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READING PASSAGE 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based on Reading
Passage 3 below.

Talc Powder
Peter Rrigg discovers how talc from Luzenac’s Trimouns in France find its way into food and
agricultural products—from chewing gum to olive oil.

High in the French Pyrenees, some 1,700m above see level, lies Trimouns, a huge deposit of
hydrated magnesium silicate - talc to you and me. Talc from Trimouns, and from ten other
Luzenac mines across the globe, is used in the manufacture of a vast array of everyday
products extending from paper, paint and plaster to cosmetics, plastics and car tyres. And of
course there is always talc’s best known end use: talcum powder for babies’ bottoms. But
the true versatility of this remarkable mineral is nowhere better displayed than in its
sometimes surprising use in certain niche markets in the food and agriculture industries.

Take, for example, the chewing gum business. Every year, Talc de Luzenac France—which
owns and operates the Trimouns mine and is a member of the international Luzenac Group
(art of Rio Tinto minerals)—supplies about 6,000 tones of talc to chewing gum
manufacturers in Europe. “We’ve been selling to this sector of the market since the
1960s,”says Laurent Fournier, sales manager in Luzenac’s Specialties business unit in
Toulouse. “Admittedly, in terms of our total annual sales of talc, the amount we supply to

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chewing gum manufacturers is relatively small, but we see it as a valuable niche market: one
where customers place a premium on securing supplies from a reliable, high quality source.
Because of this, long term allegiance to a proven suppler is very much a feature of this
sector of the talc market.”Switching sources—in the way that you might choose to buy, say,
paperclips from Supplier A rather than from Supplier B—is not a easy option for chewing
gum manufacturers,”Fournier says. “The cost of reformulating is high, so when customers
are using a talc grade that works, even if it’s expensive, they are understandably reluctant to
switch.”

But how is talc actually used in the manufacture of chewing gum? PatrickDelord, an
engineer with a degree in agronomics, who has been with Luzenac for 22 years and is now
senior market development manager, Agriculture and Food, in Europe, explains that
chewing gums has four main components. “The most important of them is the gum
base,”he says. “It’s the gum base that puts the chew into chewing gum. It binds all the
ingredients together, creating a soft, smooth texture. To this the manufacturer then adds
sweeteners, softeners and flavourings. Our talc is used as a filler in the gum base. The
amount varies between, say, ten and 35 per cent, depending on the type of gum. Fruit
flavoured chewing gum, for example, is slightly acidic and would react with the calcium
carbonate that the manufacturer might otherwise use as a filler. Talc, on the other hand,
makes an ideal filler because it’s non-reactive chemically. In the factory, talc is also used to
dust the gum base pellets and to stop the chewing gum sticking during the lamination and
packing process,”Delord adds.

The chewing gum business is, however, just one example of talc’s use in the food sector. For
the past 20 years or so, olive oil processors in Spain have been taking advantage of talc’s
unique characteristics to help them boost the amount of oil they extract from crushed
olives. According to Patrick Delord, talc is especially useful for treating what he calls
“difficult” olives. After the olives are harvested-preferably early in the morning because
their taste is better if they are gathered in the cool of the day - they are taken to the
processing plant. There they are crushed and then stirred for 30-45 minutes. In the old days,
the resulting paste was passed through an olive press but nowadays it’s more common to
add water and centrifuge the mixture to separate the water and oil from the solid matter.
The oil and water are then allowed to settle so that the olive oil layer can be decanted oft
and bottled. “Difficult” olives are those that are more reluctant than the norm to yield up
their full oil content. This may be attributable to the particular species of olive, or to its
water content and the time of year the olives are collected—at the beginning and the end of
the season their water content is often either too high or too low. These olives are easy to
recognize because they produce a lot of extra foam during the stirring process, a
consequence of an excess of a fine solid that acts as anatural emulsifier. The oil in this
emulsion is lost when the water is disposed of. Not only that, if the waste water is disposed
of directly into local fields—often the case in many smaller processing operations—the
emulsified oil may take some time to biodegrade and so be harmful to the environment.

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“If you add between a half and two percent of talc by weight during the stirring process, it
absorbs the natural emulsifier in the olives and so boosts the amount of oil you can
extract,”says Delord. “In addition, talc’s flat, 'platy’ structure helps increase the size of the
oil droplets liberated during stirring, which again improves the yield. However, because talc
is chemically inert, it doesn’t affect the colour, taste, appearance or composition of the
resulting olive oil.”

If the use of talc in olive oil processing and in chewing gum is long established, new
applications in the food and agriculture industries are also constantly being sought by
Luzenac. One such promising new market is fruit crop protection, being pioneered in the US.
Just like people, fruit can get sunburned. In fact, in very sunny regions up to 45 percent of
atypical crop can be affected by heat stress and sunburn. However, in the case of fruit, it’s
not so much the ultra violet rays which harm the crop as the high surface temperature that
the sun’s rays create.

To combat this, farmers normally use either chemicals or spray a continuous fine canopy of
mist above the fruit trees or bushes. The trouble is, this uses a lot of water—normally a
precious commodity in hot, sunny areas—and it is therefore expensive. What’s more, the
ground can quickly become waterlogged.” So our idea was to coat the fruit with talc to
protect it from the sun,”says Greg Hunter, a marketing specialist who has been with Luzenac
for ten years. “But to do this, several technical challenges had first to be overcome. Talc is
very hydrophobic: it doesn’t like water. So in order to have a viable product we needed a
wettable powder—something that would go readily into suspension so that it could be
sprayed onto the fruit. It also had to break the surface tension of the cutin (the natural
waxy, waterproof layer on the fruit) and of course it had to wash off easily when the fruit
was harvested. No-one’s going to want an apple that’s covered in talc.”

Initial trials in the state of Washington in 2003 showed that when the product was sprayed
onto Granny Smith apples, it reduced their surface temperature and lowered the incidence
of sunburn by up to 60 per cent. Today the new product, known as Invelop Maximum SPF, is
in its second commercial year on the US market. Apple growers are the primary target
although Hunter believes grape growers represent another sector with long term potential.
He is also hopeful of extending sales to overseas markets such as Australia, South America
and southern Europe.

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SECTION 3: QUESTIONS 27-40


Questions 27-32
Use the information in the passage to match each use of talc power with correct application
from A, B or C. Write the appropriate letters A-C in boxes 27-32 on your answer sheet.
NB you may use any letter more than once

A Chewing gum manufacture C Fruit crop protection

B Olive oil extraction

27. Talc is used to prevent foaming. 31. Talc is used to prevent sunburn.
28. Talc is used to prevent stickiness. 32. Talc is used to help increase the size of
29. Talc is used to boost production. the product.
30. Talc is used as a filler to provide a base.
Questions 33-38
Complete the following summary below using NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the
Reading Passage for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 33-38 on your answer sheet.

The use of talc powder in the olive oil industry in Spain has been around
for 33__________ years. It is extremely useful in dealing with “difficult” olives which often
produce a lot of 34__________due to the high content of solid matter.

The traditional method of oil extraction used in some smaller plants often
produces 35__________, which contains emulsified oil, and if it is directly disposed of, it
may be 36__________to the environment, because it cannot 37__________. But adding talc
powder can absorb the emulsifier and increase the production, because the size of
oil 38__________grows.

Questions 39-40
Answer the questions below using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for
each answer.Write your answers in boxes 39-40 on your answer sheet.

What are the last two stages of chewing gum manufacturing process?

39____________________________________

Which group of farmers does Invelop intend to target next?

40____________________________________

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TEST 28

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LISTENING
SECTION 1 : QUESTIONS 1-10
Questions 1-4
Complete the form below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

HOUSE SERVICE INFORMATION

Example Answer

Name: Barbara Hill

Location: 1____________London

Postcode: SW105

Rooms: two 2____________bedrooms

The other room used as: an 3____________

Downstairs: kitchen-diner, conservatory, and 4____________

Pets: 2 dogs and 3 cats

Questions 5-7
Choose the correct letter, A, B, or C.

5. Which of these extra services does the customer agree to do?

a. Change the bed linen


b. Do some gardening work
c. Clean the glass

6. What does the customer want cleaned every three months?

a. Curtains
b. Carpets
c. Mats

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7. What does the customer want done with clothes?

a. Wash and iron the clothes


b. Iron the clothes
c. Clean and dry the clothes

Questions 8-10
Complete the sentences below.

Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

The agent’s address is 12 (8)__________Road.

Her house will get cleaned next 9__________

The maximum time of cleaning service is 10__________ hours

SECTION 2 : QUESTIONS 11-20


Questions 11-17
Choose the correct letter, A, B, or C.

11. The main purpose of the service is to

a. educate people.
b. persuade people to fly.
c. provide people with comfort.

12. The number of people working at Sydney Airport is

a. 200
b. 360
c. 440

13. Dogs are chosen according to

a. their ability to stay calm.


b. their friendliness.
c. their skill at locating narcotics.

14. The number of postal items processed last year amounted to

a. 4,400.
b. 52,000.
c. 72,000

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15. People carrying items that are not allowed

a. will get arrested.


b. will be refused on board.
c. will be given a warning.

16. Which of the following is NOT allowed to be taken on the flight?

a. Carry-on items
b. Plant seeds
c. Parcels

17. What is the proper security protocol for a pocket knife found in a carry-on suitcase?

a. It is returned to the passenger after examination.


b. It is thrown away in a safe receptacle.
c. It is passed on to higher-level authorities.

Questions 18-20
Complete the sentences below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

The acceptable material for packing goods in Australia is 18_______________

The belongings most of time are refused due to problems with the 19_______________

The customs must be given notice of the goods from 20_______________days before it
arrives in Australia.

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SECTION 3 : QUESTIONS 21-30


Questions 21-26
Write the correct letter, A-F, next to questions 21-26.

A Video Resource Centre

B Reading Room

C Food Service Centre

D Periodicals Section

E Enquiry Desk

F Satellite TV Station

21________ 23________ 25________

22________ 24________ 26________

Questions 27-30
Complete the sentences below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

If you need to find information on a certain book, you can use 27_________check-out cards.

If you want to find information in a specific field, use the 28_________guides.

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Computers in some 29_________cannot be linked to the network.

You can find more information in a 30_________on my desk.

SECTION 4 : QUESTIONS 31-40


Questions 31-35
Choose the correct letter, A, B, or C.

31. The student thought there were no crocodiles in Northern Africa because

a. North Africa contains very little wildlife for the crocodile to prey on.
b. she found no mention in the literature of their existence there.
c. there is very little water in North Africa.

32. Generally, crocodiles live in groups of about

a. 20
b. 38
c. 46

33. African crocodiles usually live in areas with

a. hot, dry climates.


b. hot, wet rainforests.
c. warm, wet climates

34. Crocodiles in dry areas live in caves located

a. underground.
b. in mountainsides.
c. underwater.

35. What change caused changes in crocodile populations in North Africa?

a. They were driven away by a fierce predator.


b. Crocodiles evolved from desert creatures to wetland creatures.
c. North Africa used to be wetland but slowly turned to desert over time.

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Questions 36-40
Complete the sentences below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Desert crocodiles sometimes live in places with dry periods that last up
to 36_________ months.

A hole dug by a female crocodile in which to lay eggs can have a 37_________of up to 60cm.

Local people are not 38_________crocodiles.

Crocodiles 39_________out of fear when humans populate their habitat.

Researchers want to study more about population size, 40_________, and relations to other
populations of crocodiles.

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READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on Reading Passage
1 below.

The Sweet Scent of Success


A Innovation and entrepreneurship, in the right mix, can bring spectacular results and
propel a business ahead of the pack. Across a diverse range of commercial successes, from
the Hills Hoist clothes line to the Cochlear ear implant, it is hardto generalize beyond saying
the creators tapped into something consumers could not wait to get their hands on.
However, most ideas never make it to the market. Some ideas that innovators are spruiking
to potential investors include new water-saving shower heads, a keyless locking system,
ping-pong balls that keep pollution out of rainwater tanks, making teeth grow from
stemcells inserted in the gum, and technology to stop LPG tanks from exploding. Grant
Kearney, chief executive of the Innovation Xchange, which connects businesses to
innovation networks, says he hears of great business ideas that he knows will never get on
the market. “Ideas by themselves are absolutely useless,”he says. “An idea only becomes
innovation when it is connected to the right resources and capabilities".

B One of Australia’s latest innovation successes stems from a lemon-scented bath-room


cleaner called Shower Power, the formula for which was concocted in afactory in Yatala,
Queensland. In 1995, Tom Quinn and John Heron bought a struggling cleaning products
business, OzKleen, for 250,000. It was selling 100 different kinds of cleaning products,
mainly in bulk. The business was in bad shape, the cleaning formulas were ineffective and

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environmentally harsh, and there were few regular clients. Now Shower Power is claimed to
be the top-selling bathroom cleaning product in the country. In the past 12 months ,almost
four million bottles of OzKleen’s Power products have been sold and the company forecasts
2004 sales of 10 million bottles. The company’s, sales in2003 reached $11 million, with 700k
of business being exports. In particular, Shower Power is making big inroads on the British
market.

C OzKleen’s turnaround began when Quinn and Heron hired an industrial chemist to
revitalize the product line. Market research showed that people werelooking for a better
cleaner for the bathroom, universally regarded as the hardest room in the home to clean.
The company also wanted to make the product formulas more environmentally friendly One
of Tom Quinn’s sons, Peter, aged 24 at the time, began working with the chemist on the
formulas, looking at the potential for citrus-based cleaning products. He detested all the
chlorine-based cleaning products that dominated the market. “We didn’t want to use
chlorine, simple as that,”he says. “It offers bad working conditions and there’s no money in
it.”Peter looked at citrus ingredients, such as orange peel, to replace the petroleum by-
products in cleaners. He is credited with finding the Shower Power formula. “The head,”he
says. The company is the recipe is in a vault somewhere and in my sole owner of the
intellectual property.

D To begin with, Shower Power was sold only in commercial quantities but Tom Quinn
decided to sell it in 750ml bottles after the constant “raves”from customers at their retail
store at Beenleigh, near Brisbane. Customers were travel- ling long distances to buy
supplies. Others began writing to OzKleen to say how good Shower Power was. “We did a
dummy label and went to see Woolworths,”Tom Quinn says. The Woolworths buyer took a
bottle home and was able to remove a stain from her basin that had been impossible to
shift. From that point on, she championed the product and OzKleen had its first super-
market order, for a palette of Shower Power worth $3000. “We were over the moon,”says
OzKleen’s financial controller, Belinda McDonnell.

E Shower Power was released in Australian supermarkets in 1997 and became the top-
selling product in its category within six months. It was all hands on deck cat the factory,
labeling and bottling Shower Power to keep up with demand. OzKleen ditched all other
products and rebuilt the business around Shower Power. This stage, recalls McDonnell, was
very tough. “It was hand-to-mouth, cashflow was very difficult,” she says. OzKleen had to
pay new-line fees to supermarket chains, which also squeezed margins.

F OzKleen’s next big break came when the daughter of a Coles Myer executive used the
product while on holidays in Queensland and convinced her father that Shower Power
should be in Coles supermarkets. Despite the product success, Peter Quinn says the
company was wary of how long the sales would last and hesitated to spend money on
upgrading the manufacturing process. As a result, he remembers long periods of working
round the clock to keep up with orders. Small tanks were still being used, so batches were

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small and bottles were labelled and filled manually. The privately owned OzKleen relied on
cash flow to expand. “The equipment could not keep up with demand,” Peter Quinn says.
Eventually a new bottling machine was bought for $50,000 in the hope of streamlining
production, but he says: “We got ripped off.” Since then, he has been developing a new
automated bottling machine that can control the amount of foam produced in the liquid, so
that bottles can be filled more effectively - “I love coming up with new ideas.” The machine
is being patented.

G Peter Quinn says OzKleen’s approach to research and development is open slather. “If I
need it, I get it. It is about doing something simple that no one else is doing. Most of these
things are just sitting in front of people ... it’s just seeing the opportunities.” With a tried
and tested product, OzKleen is expanding overseas and developing more Power-brand
household products. Tom Quinn, who previously ran a real estate agency, says: “We are
competing with the same market all over the world, the cleaning products are sold
everywhere.” Shower Power, known as Bath Power in Britain, was launched four years ago
with the help of an export development grant from the Federal Government. “We wanted
to do it straight away because we realised we had the same opportunities worldwide.”
OzKleen is already number three in the British market, and the next stop is France. The
Power range includes cleaning products for carpets, kitchens and pre-wash stain removal.
The Quinn and Heron families are still involved. OzKleen has been approached with offers to
buy the company, but Tom Quinn says he is happy with things as they are. “We’re having
too much fun.”

SECTION 1: QUESTIONS 1-13


Questions 1-7
Reading Passage 1 has six paragraphs, A-G.
Which paragraph contains the following information?
Write the correct letter A-G, in boxes 1-7 on your answer sheet.
NB You may use any letter more than once.

1. Description of one family member persuading another of selling cleaning products


2. An account of the cooperation of all factory staff to cope with sales increase
3. An account of the creation of the formula of Shower Power
4. An account of buying the original OzKleen company
5. Description of Shower Power’s international expansion
6. The reason of changing the packaging size of Shower Power
7. An example of some innovative ideas

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Questions 8-11
Look at the following people and list of statements below.
Match each person with the correct statement.
Write the correct letter A-E in boxes 8-11 on your answer sheet

List of Statement

A Described his story of selling his product to a chain store

B Explained there was a shortage of money when sales suddenly increased

C Believe innovations need support to succeed

D Believes new products like Shower Power may incur risks

E Says business won’t succeed with innovations

8. Grant Kearney
9. Tom Quinn
10. Peter Quinn
11. Belinda McDonnell

Questions 12-13
Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D.
Write your answers in boxes 12-13 on your answer sheet.

12. Tom Quinn changed the bottle size to 750ml to make Shower Power

a. Easier to package.
b. Appealing to individual customers.
c. Popular in foreign markets.
d. Attractive to supermarkets.

13. Why did Tom Quinn decide not to sell OzKleen?

a. No one wanted to buy OzKleen.


b. New products were being developed in OzKleen.
c. He couldn’t make an agreement on the price with the buyer.
d. He wanted to keep things unchanged.

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READING PASSAGE 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based on Reading
Passage 2 below.

Mrs. Carlill and the Carbolic Smoke Ball


On 14 January 1892, Queen Victoria’s grandson Prince Albert Victor, second in line to the
British throne, died from flu. He had succumbed to the third and most lethal wave of the
Russian flu pandemic sweeping the world. The nation was shocked. The people mourned.
Albert was relegated to a footnote in history.

Three days later, London housewife Louisa Carlill went down with flu. She was shocked. For
two months, she had inhaled thrice daily from a carbolic smoke ball, a preventive measure
guaranteed to fend off flu - if you believed the advert. Which she did. And why shouldn’t she
when the Carbolic Smoke Ball Company had promised to cough up £100 for any customer
who fell ill? Unlike Albert, Louisa recovered, claimed her £100 and set in train events that
would win her lasting fame.

It started in the spring of 1889. The first reports of a flu epidemic came from Russia. By the
end of the year, the world was in the grip of the first truly global flu pandemic. The disease
came in waves, once a year for the next four years, and each worse than the last.

Whole cities came to a standstill. London was especially hard-hit. As the flu reached each
annual peak, normal life stopped. The postal service ground to a halt, trains stopped
running, banks closed. Even courts stopped sitting for lack of judges. At the height of the
third wave in 1892, 200 people were buried every day at just one London cemetery. This flu
was far more lethal than previous epidemics, and those who recovered were left weak,
depressed, and often unfit for work. It was a picture repeated across the continent.

Accurate figures for the number of the sick and dead were few and far between but Paris,
Berlin and Vienna all reported a huge upsurge in deaths. The newspapers took an intense
interest in the disease, not just because of the scale of it but because of who it attacked.
Most epidemics carried off the poor and weak, the old and frail. This flu was cutting as great

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a swathe through the upper classes, dealing death to the rich and famous, and the young
and fit.

The newspaper-reading public was fed a daily diet of celebrity victims. The flu had worked
its way through the Russian imperial family and invaded the royal palaces of Europe. It
carried off the Dowager Empress of Germany and the second son of the king of Italy, as well
as England’s future king. Aristocrats and politicians, poets and opera singers, bishops and
cardinals - none escaped the attentions of the Russian flu.

The public grew increasingly fearful. The press might have been overdoing the doom and
gloom, but their hysterical coverage had exposed one terrible fact.

The medical profession had no answer to the disease. This flu, which might ft not even have
begun in Russia, was a mystery. What caused it and how did it spread? No one could agree
on anything.

By now, the theory that micro-organisms caused disease was gaining ground, g but no one
had identified an organism responsible for flu (and wouldn’t until 1933). In the absence of a
germ, many clung to the old idea of bad airs, or miasmas, possibly stirred by some great
physical force - earthquakes, perhaps, or electrical phenomena in the upper atmosphere,
even a passing comet.

Doctors advised people to eat well avoiding “unnecessary assemblies”, and if they were
really worried, to stuff cotton wool up their nostrils. If they fell ill, they should rest, keep
warm and eat a nourishing diet of “milk, eggs and farinaceous puddings”. Alcohol figured
prominently among the prescriptions: one eminent English doctor suggested champagne,
although he conceded “brandy M in considerable quantities has sometimes been given with
manifest advantages”. French doctors prescribed warm alcoholic drinks, arguing that they
never saw an alcoholic with flu. Their prescription had immediate results: over a three-day
period, 1,200 of the 1,500 drunks picked up on the streets of Paris claimed they were
following doctor’s orders.

Some doctors gave drugs to ease symptoms - quinine for fever, salicin for headache, heroin
for an “incessant cough”. But nothing in the pharmacy remotely resembled a cure. Not
surprisingly, people looked elsewhere for help. Hoping to cash in while the pandemic lasted,
purveyors of patent medicines competed for the public’s custom with ever more outrageous
advertisements. One of the most successful was the Carbolic Smoke Ball Company.

The carbolic smoke ball was a hollow rubber ball, 5 centimetres across, with a nozzle
covered by gauze. Inside was a powder treated with carbolic acid, or phenol. The idea was
to clutch it close to the nose and squeeze gently, inhaling deeply from the emerging cloud of
pungent powder. This, the company claimed, would disinfect the mucous membranes,
curing any condition related to “taking cold”. In the summer of 1890, sales were steady at
300 smoke balls a month. In January 1891, the figure skyrocketed to 1,500.

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Eager to exploit the public’s mounting panic, the Carbolic Smoke Ball Company made
increasingly extravagant claims. Oh 13 November 1892, its latest advert in the Pall Mall
Gazette caught the eye of south London housewife Louisa Carlill. “Carbolic Smoke Ball,” it
declared, “will positively cure colds, coughs, asthma, bronchitis, hoarseness, influenza,
croup, whooping cough ...”. And the list went on. But it was the next part Mrs. Carlill found
compelling. “A £100 reward will be paid by the Carbolic Smoke Ball Company to any person
who contracts the increasing epidemic influenza, colds or any disease caused by taking cold,
after having used the carbolic smoke ball according to the printed directions supplied with
each ball. £1,000 is deposited with the Alliance bank, Regent Street, showing our sincerity in
the matter.”

Mrs. Carlill hurried off to buy a smoke ball, price 10 shillings. After carefully reading the
instructions, she diligently dosed herself thrice daily until 17 January - when she fell ill.

On 20 January, Louisa’s husband wrote to the Carbolic Smoke Ball Company. Unfortunately
for them, Mr. Carlill happened to be a solicitor. His wife, he wrote, had seen their advert and
bought a smoke ball on the strength of it. She had followed the instructions to the letter,
and yet now - as their doctor could confirm - she had flu.

There was no reply. But £100 was not a sum to be sneezed at. Mr. Carlill persisted. The
company resisted. Louisa recovered and sued. In June, Mr. Justice Hawkins found in Mrs.
Carlill’s favour. The company’s main defence was that adverts were mere “puffery” and only
an idiot would believe such extravagant claims. Judge Hawkins pointed out that adverts
were not aimed at the wise and thoughtful, but at the credulous and weak. A vendor who
made a promise “must not be surprised if occasionally he is held to his promise”.

Carbolic appealed. In December, three lord justices considered the case. Carbolic’s lawyers
tried several lines of defence. But in the end, the case came down to a single matter: not
whether the remedy was useless, or whether Carbolic had committed fraud, but whether its
advert constituted a contract - which the company had broken. A contract required
agreement between two parties, argued Carbolic’s lawyers. What agreement had Mrs.
Carlill made with them?

There were times, the judges decided, when a contract could be one-sided. The advert had
made a very specific offer to purchasers: protection from flu or £100. By using the smoke
ball as instructed, Mrs. Carlill had accepted that offer. The company might just have
wriggled out of if if it hadn’t added the bit about the £1,000 deposit. That, said the judges,
gave buyers reason to believe Carbolic meant what it said. “It seems to me that if a person
chooses to make extravagant promises of this kind, he probably does so because it pays him
to make them, and, if he has made them, the extravagance of the promises is no reason in
law why he should not be bound by them,” pronounced Lord Justice Bowen.

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Louisa got her £100. The case established the principle of the unilateral contract and is
frequently cited today.

SECTION 2: QUESTIONS 14-26


Questions 14-17
Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading Passage?
In boxes 14-17 on your answer sheet write

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

14. Cities rather than rural areas were badly affected by the pandemic flu.
15. At the time of the flu pandemic, people didn’t know the link between micro-organisms
and illnesses.
16. People used to believe flu was caused by miasmas.
17. Flu prescriptions often contained harmful ingredients.

Questions 18-21
Complete the diagram below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 18-21 on your answer sheet.

18_________ 20_________

19_________ 21_________

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Questions 22-25
Look at the following people (Questions 22-25) and the list of statements.
Match each person with the correct statement.
Write the correct letter A-F in boxes 22-25 on your answer sheet.

List of Statements

A Filed a complaint which was never responded to

B Broke the contract made with Carbolic Smoke Ball Company

C Initiated a legal case

D Described the audience of advertisement

E Claimed that most advertisements are fraudulent

F Treated advertisement as a type of contract

22. Mrs. Carlill

23. Mrs. Carlill’s husband

24. Judge Hawkins

25. Lord Justice Bowen

Question 26
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
Write your answers in box 26 on your answer sheet.

26. Why is Mrs. Carlill’s case often cited in present-day court trials?

a. It proved the untrustworthiness of advertisements.


b. It established the validity of one-sided contract.
c. It explained the nature of contract.
d. It defended the rights of consumers.

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READING PASSAGE 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based on Reading
Passage 3 below.

Communicating Styles and Conflict


Knowing your communication style and having a mix of styles on your team can provide a
positive force for resolving conflict.

A As far back as Hippocrates’ time (460-370B.C.), people have tried to understand


other people by characterizing them according to personality type or
temperament.Hippocrates believed there were four different body fluids that influenced
four basic types of temperament. His work was further developed 500 years later by Galen.
These days there are any number of self-assessment tools that relate to the basic
descriptions developed by Galen, although we no longer believe the source to be the types
of body fluid that dominate our systems.

B The values in self-assessments that help determine personality style. Learning styles,
communication styles, conflict-handling styles, or other aspects of individuals is that they
help depersonalize conflict in interpersonal relationships. The depersonalization occurs
when you realize that others aren’t trying to be difficult, but they need different or more
information than you do. They’re not intending to be rude: they are so focused on the task
they forget about greeting people. They would like to work faster but not at the risk of

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damaging the relationships needed to get the job done. They understand there is a job to
do. But it can only be done right with the appropriate information,
which takes time to collect. When used appropriately, understanding communication
styles can help resolve conflict on teams. Very rarely are conflicts true personality issues.
Usually they are issues of style, information needs, or focus.

C Hippocrates and later Galen determined there were four basic temperaments: sanguine,
phlegmatic, melancholic and choleric. These descriptions were developed centuries ago and
are still somewhat apt, although you could update the wording. In today’s world, they
translate into the four fairly common communication styles described below:

D The sanguine person would be the expressive or spirited style of communication. These
people speak in pictures. They invest a lot of emotion and energy in their communication
and often speak quickly. Putting their whole body into it. They are easily sidetracked onto a
story that may or may not illustrate the point they are trying to make. Because of their
enthusiasm, they are great team motivators. They are concerned about people and
relationships. Their high levels of energy can come on strong at times and their focus is
usually on the bigger picture, which means they sometimes miss the details or the proper
order of things. These people find conflict or differences of opinion invigorating and love to
engage in a spirited discussion. They love change and are constantly looking for new and
exciting adventures.

E Tile phlegmatic person - cool and persevering - translates into the technical or systematic
communication style. This style of communication is focused on facts and technical details.
Phlegmatic people have an orderly methodical way of approaching tasks, and their focus is
very much on the task, not on the people, emotions, or concerns that the task may evoke.
The focus is also more on the details necessary to accomplish a task. Sometimes the details
overwhelm the big picture and focus needs to be brought back to the context of the task.
People with this style think the facts should speak for themselves, and they are not as
comfortable with conflict. They need time to adapt to change and need to understand both
the logic of it and the steps involved.

F Tile melancholic person who is soft hearted and oriented toward doing things for others
translates into the considerate or sympathetic communication style. A person with this
communication style is focused on people and relationships. They are good listeners and do
things for other people-sometimes to the detriment of getting things done for themselves.
They want to solicit everyone’s opinion and make sure everyone is comfortable with
whatever is required to get the job done. At times this focus on others can distract from the
task at hand. Because they are so concerned with the needs of others and smoothing over
issues, they do not like conflict. They believe that change threatens the status quo and tends
to make people feel uneasy, so people with this communication style, like phlegmatic
people need time to consider the changes in order to adapt to them.

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G The choleric temperament translates into the bold or direct style of communication.
People with this style are brief in their communication - the fewer words the better. They
are big picture thinkers and love to be involved in many things at once. They are focused on
tasks and outcomes and often forget that the people involved in carrying out the tasks have
needs. They don’t do detail work easily and as a result can often underestimate how much
time it takes to achieve the task. Because they are so direct, they often seem forceful and
can be very intimidating to others. They usually would welcome someone challenging them.
But most other styles are afraid to do so. They also thrive on change, the more the better.

H A well-functioning team should have all of these communication styles for true
effectiveness. All teams need to focus on the task, and they need to take care of
relationships in order to achieve those tasks. They need the big picture perspective or the
context of their work, and they need the details to be identified and taken care of for
success. We all have aspects of each style within us. Some of us can easily move from one
style to another and adapt our style to the needs of the situation at hand-whether the focus
is on tasks or relationships. For others, a dominant style is very evident, and it is more
challenging to see the situation from the perspective of another style. The work
environment can influence communication styles either by the type of work that is required
or by the predominance of one style reflected in that environment. Some people use one
style at work and another at home.

The good news about communication styles is that we have the ability to develop flexibility
in our styles. The greater the flexibility we have, the more skilled we usually are at handling
possible and actual conflicts. Usually it has to be relevant to us to do so, either because we
think it is important or because there are incentives in our environment to encourage it. The
key is that we have to want to become flexible with our communication style. As Henry Ford
said, “Whether you think you can or you can’t, you’re right!”

An Nhiên IELTS Page 635


Listening 4 Nguyễn Minh Trườ ng

SECTION 3: QUESTIONS 27-40


Questions 27-34
Reading Passage 3 has eight sections A-H.
Choose the correct heading for each section from the list of headings below.
Write the correct number i-x in boxes 27-34 on your answer sheet.

List of Headings

i Summarising personality types

ii Combined styles for workplace

iii Physical explanation

iv A lively person who encourages

v Demanding and unsympathetic personality

vi Lazy and careless personality

vii The benefits of understanding communication styles

viii Cautious and caring

ix Factual and analytical personality

x Self-assessment determines one’s temperament

27. Section A
28. Section B
29. Section C
30. Section D
31. Section E
32. Section F
33. Section G
34. Section H

An Nhiên IELTS Page 636


Listening 4 Nguyễn Minh Trườ ng

Questions 35-39
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 3?
In boxes 35-39 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

35. It is believed that sanguine people dislike variety.


36. Melancholic and phlegmatic people have similar characteristics.
37. Managers often select their best employees according to personality types.
38. It is possible to change one’s personality type.
39. Workplace environment can affect which communication style is most effective.

Question 40
Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D.
Write your answers in box 40 on your answer sheet.

40. The writer believes using self-assessment tools can

a. help to develop one’s personality.


b. help to understand colleagues’ behaviour.
c. improve one’s relationship with the employer.
d. directly resolve conflicts.

An Nhiên IELTS Page 637

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