CHAPTER 1:

1. In today’s market, which of the following industries appears to have a need for project
management?

A. Aerospace & defense

B. Construction

C. Information systems

D. All industries have a need for project management

2. Which of the following is not one of the PMBOKâ Guide’s five process groups?

A. Feasibility studies

B. Planning

C. Execution

D. Closure

3. Which of the following is normally not one of the traditional components of the triple
constraint?

A. Within time

B. Within cost

C. Within performance (Scope, technology or quality)

D. Accepted by the customer

4. Which of the following is a potential benefit of using project management?

A. Maximization of continuous reporting

B. No need for identification of functional responsibilities

C. Identification of time limits for scheduling

D. No need for a project management methodology

5. Which of the following functions of classical management is generally not performed by the
project manager?

A. Planning

B. Organizing

C. Staffing

D. Controlling

6. Which of the following three types of deliverables discussed in the book would be used to
classify the final report that must be presented to the customer at the end of the project?

A. Hardware deliverables

B. Software deliverables

C. Interim deliverables

D. Validation deliverables
7. Which of the following is not an organizational stakeholder?

A. Executive officers

B. Unions

C. Employees

D. Customers

8. Which of the following is not a product/market stakeholder?

A. Creditors

B. Customers

C. Suppliers

D. Governments

9. Which of the following is not a capital market stakeholder?

A. Banks

B. Unions

C. Shareholders

D. Creditors
10. Which of the following is directly controlled by the project manager?

A. Money

B. Manpower

C. Information / technology

D. None of the above

11. Which of the following is reflective of the changes in project management according to Dr.
Thamhain?

A. Moving from dynamic to linear processes

B. Moving toward full utilization of information technology

C. Moving away from the use of an enterprise-wide methodology

D. Moving from effectiveness to efficiency

12. Successful project management requires a good daily working relationship between project
and line managers.

A. True

B. False
13. Successful project management does not require that people understand how to report to
multiple bosses.

A. True

B. False

14. The project manager’s role as an integrator of activities does not include integration of
activities necessary to:

A. Develop the plan

B. Execute the plan

C. Make changes to the plan

D. All of above are PM roles

15. The PM’s role with regard to interface management does not include interfacing:

A. Within the project team

B. Between the project team and functional organizations

C. Between the project team and senior management

D. Between senior management and various external stakeholders

16. Which of the following is the role of the PM rather than the role of the functional manager?

A. What work will be done

B. How the work will be done

C. Who will do it

D. Where it will be done

17. Which of the following problems affects the functional manager’s ability to staff and
support a project during execution?

A. Limited availability of resources

B. Predetermined deadlines

C. Unscheduled changes to the project plan

D. all of the above

18. What type of project manager would have employees (i.e. team members) that report
directly to the project manager full-time for the duration of the project?

A. Lightweight team leader

B. Heavyweight team leader

C. Tiger team leader

D. Leopard Team leader

19. When team members take direction from both the project and line managers, the type of
project manager is usually

A. Lightweight team leader

B. Heavyweight team leader

C. Tiger team leader

D. Leopard team leader

20. On a project headed up by a lightweight project manager, employees have their

performance reviews made by:

A. Line managers only

B. Line managers with input from the project managers

C. Concurrence jointly by project managers and line managers

D. Project managers only

21. Which of the following is normally not part of a team member’s role?

A. Accepting responsibility for a deliverable

B. Sharing information with the sponsor

C. Sharing information with the team

D. Completing the work at the earliest possible time.

22. In which life cycle phase do project sponsors become most actively involved in the project?

A. Initiation

B. Execution

C. Monitor and control

D. Closure

23. Which of the following is not part of the project sponsor’s role?

A. Conflict resolution

B. Priority-setting

C. Selection of project team members

D. Monitoring performance at a high level

24. Project sponsorship almost always resides at the executive levels

A. True

B. False
25. Which of the following promises can project managers make to functional employees
assigned to a project?

A. Promotions

B. Overtime

C. Future work assignments

D. None of the above

26. Which of the following most likely represents a project champion rather than a project
manager?

A. Manages people

B. Seeks perfection

C. Willing to take risks

D. Prefers to work in groups

CHAPTER 2:

1. Typical cost overruns on Government contracts in the early years of project management
reached:

A 20%

B 50%

C 100%

D 300%

2. Which of the following techniques led to the acceptance of project management principles?

A. Over-the-fence management

B. Total quality management

C. Six Sigma

D. The need for better management of smaller projects

3. The growth of project management came about more so from desire rather than necessity.

A. True

B. False
4. Industries that have _____ tasks and operate in a _____ environment demonstrated the
greatest need for project management.

A. Simple; Dynamic

B. Simple; Static

C. Complex; Dynamic

D. Complex; Static

5. During the 1970s and 1980s, formal project management practices were put in place
because the constraints were _____ and _____ boundaries had to be crossed

A. Loose; several

B. Loose; few

C. Tight; several

D. Tight; few

6. Project management restructuring allowed companies to manage projects that _____.

A. Could not be handled by the traditional organization

B. Had undefined objectives

C. Did not require effective cost control

D. Require little functional integration

7. Which of the following is not necessarily an obstacle to effective project management?

A. Changes in technology

B. Changes in project sponsorship

C. Increased project complexity

D. Unstable economy

8. Uncontrolled obstacles can result in:

A. Increased profits

B. Reduction in manpower

C. An inability to cope with changes in technology

D. Easier establishment of objectives

9. Effective project management pushes decision-making down in the organization

A. True

B. False
10. According to the text, which of the following is not a life cycle phase for project
management maturity?

A. Embryonic Phase

B. Planning Phase

C. Growth Phase

D. Maturity Phase

11. Most people seem to believe that the most common driving force for maturity in project
management is:

A. Survival

B. Executive understanding

C. New Product development

D. Customer expectations

12. If a company advertises on television that they consider themselves as a solution provider
to satisfy your business needs, then their driving force was most likely:

A. Competitiveness

B. Customer expectations
C. Efficiency and effectiveness

D. Executive understanding

13. Which of the following is not a present view of project management?

A. Accomplishing more work in less time and with fewer people

B. A reduction in power and authority struggles

C. Improvements in quality

D. Providing good products rather than business solutions

14. Which of the following industry types has the greatest need for project management?

A. Project-driven

B. Hybrids

C. Non-project-driven

D. Pure functional-type

15. The major difference between projects and programs is usually:

A. Cost

B. Time
C. Technology requirements

D. Quality requirements

16. Which category of projects would be most suited for a small project that stays in one
functional unit and is headed up by the functional manager?

A. Individual

B. Staff

C. Special

D. Matrixed

17. Which category of projects would involve a large number of functional units where the
workers may be assigned either part-time or full-time?

A. Individual

B. Staff

C. Special

D. Matrixed

18. Companies can become reasonably mature in project management by designing the right
support systems. In general, how much time usually elapses after maturity before a company
becomes excellent in project management execution?
A. 1 year B. 2 years

C. 5 years D. 10 years

19. The primary difference between formal versus informal execution of a project is the:

A. Time constraint

B. Budgetary considerations

C. Need for a breakthrough in technology

D. Amount of paperwork

20. For informal project management to be effective, which of the following must exist among
the project team?

A. Effective communications

B. Cooperation

C. Trust

D. All of the above

21. All of the stakeholders involved in a project either directly or indirectly may have a
different definition of project success.

A. True

B. False
22. Which of the following is not a major benefit of using life cycle phases?

A. Providing structure to project management

B. Easier task of selecting the project manager

C. Standardizing planning, scheduling and control

D. Structured decision-making

23. The most difficult decision for a sponsor at the gate review meetings is to:

A. Allow the project to continue without an increase in the budget

B. Allow the project to continue with a budget increase

C. Approval of scope changes

D. Cancel the project

24. Which of the following is generally not one of the five processes integrated into an
enterprise project management methodology?

A. Manpower staffing

B. Total quality management

C. Scope change management

D. Risk management

25. Historically, which functional organization provided the greatest resistance to project
management implementation?

A. Sales

B. Procurement

C. Information Systems/ Technology

D. Engineering

CHAPTER 3:

1. According to Grinnell and Apple, organizational restructuring is needed because

management is unhappy with technical skills though projects are being completed within time
and cost.

A. True

B. False
2. Which of the following is not one of the three critical terms to consider when looking at
organizational workflow?

A. Span of control

B. Authority

C. Responsibility

D. Accountability

3. Accountability can be defined as:

A. Authority plus responsibility

B. Authority without responsibility

C. Responsibility without authority

D. Pure responsibility

4. In which of the following structures is budgeting and cost control easier to perform?

A. Classical

B. Strong matrix

C. Balanced matrix
D. Weak matrix

5. In which organizational form is there no customer focal point?

A. Traditional

B. Projectized

C. Strong matrix

D. Weak matrix

6. In which organizational form is response to the customer’s needs the slowest?

A. Traditional

B. Projectized

C. Strong matrix

D. Weak matrix
7. In which organizational form is it highly unlikely that project management would be a
career path?

A. Traditional

B. Projectized

C. Strong matrix

D. Weak matrix

8. In which organizational form does the project manager have the greatest authority over the
assigned resources?

A. Traditional

B. Projectized

C. Strong matrix

D. Weak matrix

9. In which organizational form are the formal and informal organizations well established?

A. Traditional

B. Strong matrix

C. Balanced matrix

D. Weak matrix
10. Which of the following is not one of the integration mechanisms considered when creating
work integration positions?

A. Rules and procedures

B. Project manager’s rank and pay grade

C. Planning processes

D. Direct contact

11. With departmental project management, the person assigned to head up the project is
called a:

A. Project head

B. Project manager

C. Project leader

D. Project supervisor

12. In departmental project management, the person that ultimately ends up managing the
project, assuming several departments are involved, is the:

A. Project manager

B. Project leader
C. Department manager(s)

D. Division manager

13. With the project expeditor organizational structure, the expeditor is usually brought on
board:

A. At the beginning of the project

B. At the end of the first life cycle phase

C. When the project is 50% complete

D. When a problem arises

14. Project expeditors generally have authority over the functional managers.

A. True

B. False

15. With a line-staff organizational structure, department managers will readily accept
instructions from the project manager.

A. True
B. False

16. In a line-staff organizational structure, the person heading up the project is called the:

A. Project supervisor

B. Project leader

C. Project coordinator

D. Project division leader

17. In line-staff project management, the ultimate authority on the project resides with the
division manager.

A. True

B. False

18. Other than the traditional structure, which organizational form has strong communication
channels?

A. Projectized

B. Strong matrix

C. Balanced matrix

D. Weak Matrix
19. Which of the following organizational forms provides the least career path opportunities
for project personnel?

A. Projectized

B. Strong matrix

C. Balanced matrix

D. Weak Matrix

20. Which organizational structure generally retains team members long after they are
needed?

A. Projectized

B. Strong matrix

C. Balanced matrix

D. Weak Matrix

(E) 21. Matrix structures allow for workers to be shared on multiple projects and at a lower
than usual cost.

A. True

B. False

22. In which organizational form do we usually have the best balance among the time, cost and
performance constraints on a project?

A. Traditional

B. Projectized
C. Line-staff

D. Matrix

23. In which organizational form do we usually have a sharing of authority and responsibility?

A. Traditional

B. Projectized

C. Line-staff

D. Matrix

24. Before becoming a project manager within a matrix organization, training should be
provided in all of the following except:

A. Matrix operations

B. Wage and salary administration

C. Problem-solving

D. Role definitions

25. In a strong matrix structure, employees take daily direction from:

A. Project manager only

B. Functional manager only

C. Both, but the project manager has greater influence

D. Both, but the functional manager has greater influence

CHAPTER 4:
1. Most people seem to believe that the number one behavioral issue in project management
is multiple-boss reporting.

A. True

B. False

2. Which of the following is not a personal attribute of a project manager?

A. Honesty and integrity

B. Energy and toughness

C. Poor coping skills

D. Decision-making skills

3. Project manager selection is usually made by the:

A. Senior levels of management

B. Customer’s selection process

C. Line management based upon cooperation on past projects

D. Voting by the team members

4. Which of the following is a job-related characteristic that a PM should possess or may be

expected to possess?

A. Necessity for feasibility studies

B. Project’s priority and risks.

C. Requirement for complex technical expertise

D. All of the above

5. The wrong people are often selected as project managers because of:

A. A belief that project management maturity comes with age

B. A belief that someone who knows the customer well will make the best project manager

C. A belief that entrepreneurial skills are always necessary

D. all of the above

6. It is usually easier to manage one large project on a full-time basis than to manage multiple
small projects at the same time.

A. True

B. False

7. Which of the following is often regarded as the best way to train project managers?

A. On-the-job-training

B. Formal education

C. Seminars

D. Personal readings

8. According to the text, the “next generation” project manager must exhibit skills in all of the
following except:

A. Integration skills
B. Risk management skills

C. Wage and salary administration skills

D. Knowledge of the business

9. Which of the following is usually not a major concern for the PM during the organizational
staffing process?

A. Union vs nonunion personnel

B. Where the resources will come from

C. Skill level of the resources

D. Type of organizational structure for the project?

10. Probably the greatest risk to a project manager on a long-term project is to receive the best
employees and then:

A. Have them seek perfection rather than just meeting the requirements

B. Find that your costs are escalating

C. Being unable to motivate them.

D. Losing them to other projects at an inopportune time

11. In a weak matrix structure, teamwork is not vital for project success because the team
members are under the control of their functional manager.

A. True

B. False

12. Which people generally receive no visibility or credit for a job well done.
A. Project sponsors

B. Project managers

C. Project team members

D. Functional managers

13. Strange as it may seem, project managers should encourage conflicts to take place during
recruitment and staffing.

A. True

B. False

14. Under which of the following situations should an employee be terminated from the
project?

A. Failure to follow rules, policies and procedures

B. Failure to accept formal authority

C. Professionalism more important than company loyalty.

D. all of the above

15. Which of the following is not usually an option for a PM dealing with an incompetent
worker?

A. On-the-spot appraisals

B. Re-assignment to less critical activities

C. Removal from the company

D. Removal from the project

16. A typical project office (not to be confused with a project management office) responsible
for the management of a large project includes the project manager and the:

A. Project sponsor

B. Project sponsor and assistant project managers

C. Assistant project managers

D. Assistant project managers and functional managers

17. During the past few years, which project management skill seems to have outpaced all
other skills?

A. Technical skills

B. Business conceptual skills

C. Behavioral skills

D. Problem-solving skills

18. Professionally-trained people with advanced degrees often prefer:

A. To work on project tasks alone

B. To work in groups with people devoted to their discipline

C. To work in groups with people not devoted to their discipline

D. Never to work on project teams

19. Project team members often feel threatened by the possibility of the cancellation of the
project. In which organizational form is this threat the greatest?
A. Projectized

B. Strong matrix

C. Balanced matrix

D. Weak matrix

20. Some companies assign employees to a project management position as a lateral transfer
move without a salary increase because:

A. The project is short term in nature

B. The project maybe cancelled

C. The employee must demonstrate performance first

D. The employee reports to a functional organization

21. The person most qualified to assess the overall risk in a work package activity in a project is
the:

A. PM

B. Sponsor

C. Team member

D. Team member and / or line manager

22. Once an employee is assigned to a project, the project manager has the authority to
provide team members with work assignments above their pay grade so that they can get
promoted.

A. True

B. False
23. Who determines grade level of the employee needed to accomplish a task?

A. Project sponsor

B. Project manager

C. Functional manager

D. A consensus vote during the project’s kickoff meeting.

24. You have just been awarded a contract in which you told the customer that a certain
employee would be assigned full time on the project. Once the project begins, you discover that
the employee is splitting his time between two projects per the instructions of his functional
manager. You should:

A. Do nothing

B. Determine the impact on the project and discuss it with the project sponsor

C. Determine the impact on the project and discuss it with the functional manager

D. Determine the impact on the project and discuss it with the customer
25. After contract award, a customer requests that some of the senior workers in the
functional areas be assigned to the project team. You priced out the project assuming the
average worker would be assigned and furthermore assumed that the average worker could do
the job effectively. You should discuss this first with:

A. The average workers

B. The senior workers

C. The project sponsor

D. The functional manager

CHAPTER 5

1. Which of the following scheduling techniques is most appropriate today for managing a
project?

A. BAR charts

B. Milestone charts

C. PERT charts

D. Precedence charts

2. Which of the following scheduling techniques is most appropriate today for reporting
project status to a customer during an interchange meeting?

A. BAR charts
B. Milestone charts

C. PERT charts

D. Precedence charts

3. The major disadvantage of using a bar chart on large projects is that bar charts:

A. Cannot identify critical paths

B. Do not show dependencies between activities

C. Cannot identify milestones

D. Cannot show slack

4. Which of the following is not one of the four network diagramming techniques?

A. PERT

B. GERT

C. VERT

D. PDM

5. Which of the following activity-on-arrow network diagramming methods does not require
three estimates for durations?

A. PERT

B. GERT

C. ADM
D. PDM

6. Which of the following network diagramming methods do not use dummy activities?

A. PERT

B. GERT

C. ADM

D. PDM

7. Which of the following network diagramming methods allows for branching and looping?

A. PERT

B. GERT

C. ADM

D. PDM

8. Which of the following is an activity-on-node network diagramming method?

A. PERT

B. GERT

C. ADM

D. PDM

9. Which of the following cannot be determined after performing a forward pass and a
backward pass on a network diagram?

A. The critical path

B. The end date of the project

C. The effort in each activity

D. The slack in each activity

10. Negative slack is the result of:

A. The forward pass going beyond the customer’s end date and the backward pass is
measured from the customer’s end date

B. Non-critical-path activity using up all of their slack

C. The critical path can be completed before the customer’s desired end date

D. All of the above

11. Activities with zero time durations are called:

A. Low-slack activities

B. No-slack activities

C. Dummy activities

D. Special activities
12. Which of the following is false concerning the critical path in a network?

A. It is the longest path in the network

B. It is the shortest amount of time in which the project can be completed

C. It is the path that contains the greatest number of activities

D. It is the path where each activity has zero slack

13. The critical path is the path in the network with the greatest amount of risk.

A. True

B. False

14. If the optimistic time for an activity is 6 weeks, the pessimistic time is 24 weeks and the
most likely time is 12 weeks, then the expected duration is:

A. 7 weeks

B. 13 weeks

C. 22 weeks

D. 24 weeks

15. Which of the following schedule compression techniques usually requires adding more
resources to each work package that is being compressed?

A. Overtime

B. Crashing
C. Outsourcing

D. Descoping

16. In which of the following schedule compression techniques is the cost of rework usually the
greatest?

A. Overtime

B. Crashing

C. Performing series work in parallel

D. Outsourcing

17. Which of the following schedule compression techniques is often the lowest risk and with
the added benefit of lowering the cost?

A. Crashing

B. Descoping

C. Outsourcing

D. Overtime

18. Smoothing out project resources from period to period is called

A. Resource leveling

B. Resource allocation or resource limited planning

C. Better effort planning

D. Slack utilization planning

19. Laying out a network diagram when you know before-hand the size of the available
resource pool is called:

A. Resource leveling

B. Resource allocation or resource limited planning

C. Better effort planning

D. Slack utilization planning

20. An activity in a network has the following characteristics: ES = 5, EF = 9 and LF = 12. LS =

_____.

A. 5

B. 8

C. 9

D. 12

21. An activity in a network has the following characteristics: ES = 10, EF = 18 and LS = 12. The
duration of the activity is:

A. 6

B. 8

C. 10

D. Cannot be determined

22. If the slack in a 12 week activity is 6 weeks and ES = 4, then LF = _____.

A. 4

B. 10

C. 16

D. 22

23. The measurement of lag is made within an activity whereas slack is measured between
activities.

A. True

B. False

24. PERT network reflect what type of precedence diagram?

A. Start-to-start

B. Start-to-finish

C. Finish-to-start

D. Finish-to-finish

25. What are the maximum number of inputs and outputs that can exist in a node in the
precedence diagramming method?

A. 3 each

B. 5 each

C. 10 each
D. It is unlimited

26. Which of the following is normally not one of the three critical parameters provided in
information reporting to the customer?

A. Time

B. Cost

C. Performance

D. Risks

27. Which type of chart provides the least “predictive” value?

A. Bar chart

B. PERT

C. ADM

D. PDM

28. A charting technique designed to illustrate the inductive and deductive reasoning
necessary to achieve some objective is called a _____ Diagram / network

A. Gantt

B. Logic

C. Descriptive

D. Intuition
29. The shortest time necessary to complete all of the activities in a network is called the:
A. Activity duration length
B. Critical path
c. Maximum slack path
D. Compression path

30. Which of the following cannot be identified after performing a forward and backward pass?
A. Dummy activities
B. Slack time
C. Critical path activities
D. How much overtime is planned
31. Which of the following is not a commonly used technique for schedule compression?
A. Resource reduction
B. Reducing scope
C. Fast-tracking activities
D. Use of overtime

32. A network-based schedule has four paths, namely 7, 8, 9, and 10weeks. If the 10-weekpath
is compressed to 8 weeks, then:
A. We now have two critical paths.
B. The 9-week path is now the critical path.
C. Only the 7-week path has slack.
D. Not enough information is provided to make a determination.

33. The major disadvantage of using bar charts to manage a project is that bar charts:
A. Do not show dependencies between activities
B. Are ineffective for projects under one year in length
C. Are ineffective for projects under $1 million in size
D. Do not identify start and end dates of a schedule

34. The first step in the development of a schedule is a:

A. Listing of the activities
B. Determination of dependencies
C. Calculation of effort
D. Calculation of durations

35. Reducing the peaks and valleys in manpower assignments in order to obtain a relatively
smooth manpower curve is called:
A. Manpower allocation
B. Manpower leveling
C. Resource allocation
D. Resource commitment planning

36. Activities with no time duration are called:

A. Reserve activities
B. Dummy activities
C.Zero slack activities
D. Supervision activities

37. Optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely activity times are associated with:
A. PERT B. GERT C. PDM D. ADM
38. The most common constraint or relationship in a precedence network is:
A. Start-to-start
B. Start-to-finish
C. Finish-to-start
D. Finish-to-finish

39. A network-based technique that allows for branching and looping is:
A. PERT
B. GERT
C. PDM
D. ADM
40. If an activity on the critical path takes longer than anticipated, then:
A. Activities not on the critical path have additional slack.
B. Activities not on the critical path have less slack.
C. Additional critical path activities will appear.
D. None of the above.

41. Which of the following is not one of the three types of dependencies?
A. Mandatory C. Internal
B. Discretionary D. External
42. You have an activity where the early start is week 6, the early finish is week 10 the latest
start is week 14, and the latest finish is week 18. The slack in this activity is:
A. 4 weeks
B. 6 weeks
C. 8 weeks
D. 18 weeks