1.

It is an illness due to a specific agent transmitted by an agent from a reservoir to a susceptible host through different modes of
transmission:
a. Contagious disease
D ]ZZk[QE<DYIGQhI<hI
c. Infectious disease
d. Iatrogenic disease

2. A clinically manifest disease of a man or animal resulting from an infection:

a. Contagious disease
b. Communicable disease
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d. Iatrogenic disease

3. Presence of classical sings and symptoms that are highly specific to a certain disease is known as:
a. Tell tall signs
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c. Distinctive sign
d. Fastigium sign

4. When will you consider that an infection is acquired in the hospital and called as nosocomial?
a. When infection occurred upon admission
b. When infection is acquired before discharge
c. When infection is validated by the laboratory of the hospital
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5. A infection that is completely manifested by signs and symptoms:

a. Opportunistic infection
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c. Communicable infection
d. Contagious infection

6. Which of the following is the main cause of nosocomial infection?

a. Surgical wound infection
b. Sepsis
E 1gQ[<gsjg<EjQ[NIEjQ][
d. Respiratory tract infection

7. Which of the following causative agent are able to live in a non-nutritive environment and is easily transmitted in the hospital?
a. S. aureus
D +<IgkOQ[]h<
c. E. Coli
d. H. influenza

8. The infection brought by normal biota of the body with low degree of virulence but may take advantage when the body is
immunocompromised:
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b. Nosocomial infection
c. True infection
d. Parasitic infection

9. When a disease can be easily transmitted from one person to another, such infection is:
a. Communicable
b. Infectious
E ][j<OQ]kh
d. Virulent

10. What is the difference between gonorrhea and influenza when taking into consideration being infectious and contagious?
 < ][]ggPI<QhQ[NIEjQ]kh<[GQ[NYkI[v<QhE][j<OQ]kh
b. Influenza is infectious and gonorrhea is contagious
c. Both are contagious and infectious
d. Gonorrhea and influenza are not contagious but only infectious

11. Which of the following statements are true?

a. All communicable diseases are infectious and contagious.
D YYE][j<OQ]khGQhI<hIh<gIQ[NIEjQ]khDkj[]j<YYQ[NIEjQ]kh<gIE][j<OQ]kh
c. Communicable diseases are all contagious but not infectious.
d. Infectious diseases are contagious and also communicable.

12. An organism that is capable of invading and multiplying in the body of the host:
< <kh<jQpI<OI[j
b. Reservoir
c. Bacteria
d. Carrier

13. The infecting ability of a microorganism depends on its degree of:

< +<jP]OI[IEQjs
b. Communicability
c. Teratogenecity
d. Epidemiology

14. Shigella species only requires 10 microorganisms to cause infection while Salmonella must have 1,000 bacteria to initiate disease. This
property of microorganism is known as:
a. Viability
b. Toxigenecity
E 6QgkYI[EI
d. Invasiveness

15. (Refer to number 16) Also, this directly proportional relationship of number and infection refers to what property of the causative agent?
< ]hI
b. Antigenicity
c. Specificity
d. Mode of action

16. A person whose medical history and symptoms suggest that he may now have or be developing some communicable disease is known as:
a. Patient
b. Carrier
c. Contact
G /khdIEj

17. A special type of toxin found on the cell wall of the gram negative bacteria that causes sepsis especially when they lyse themselves
(suicide bomber):
a. Exotoxin
b. Enterotoxin
E [G]j]rQ[
d. Epitoxin

18. The type of exotoxin that is released in the GI tract that stimulates the vomiting center of the body and exhibits its harmful effect by the
inflammation of the intestinal tract:
a. Exotoxin
D [jIg]j]rQ[
c. Endotoxin
d. Epitoxin
19. A non cellular microorganism that contains a nucleus of DNA and/or RNA with a surrounding protein coat and are self-limiting. Also
known as the ultimate parasite:
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b. Protozoa
c. Amoeba
d. Bacteria

20. Beds in the hospital are arranged in such a way that droplet transmission of microorganism can be prevented. This is done by:
a. Letting a single bed occupy a single room
b. Arranging the bed not facing the door or window
E +]hQjQ][Q[OjPIDIGÂZIjIg<q<sNg]ZI<EP]jPIg
d. Placing blinders in each patient, if possible.

21. When an infective microorganism escaping from the reservoir is suspended in the air and is carried through air current in the form of
droplet nuclei, the mode of transmission is:
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b. Droplet
c. Pressurized
d. Fomites

22. Which of the following is considered a fomite?

a. Staphylococcus aureus carrier
D 1gQ[<Yh
c. Mosquito
d. Hands

23. A vector that transmits a microorganism by harboring it to its system and serves as its reservoir:
a. Mechanical vector
D Q]Y]OQE<YpIEj]g
c. Accidental host
d. Intermediate vector

24. Which of the following will most likely acquire an infectious disease?
a. A 30 year old male who is alcoholic
b. A pregnant mother
E PI<YjPshIrk<Yq]gXIg
d. A patient who is discharged from the hospital

25. The pattern of infection where the pathognomonic signs of a specific disease is present is:
a. Incubation period
b. Prodromal period
E [p<hQ][›N<hjQOQkZdIgQ]G
d. Convalescent period

26. Cholera, tetanus, and typhoid fever occurs intermittently or on and off in different parts of the country. This is pattern of disease
occurrence is known as:
a. Endemic
b. Epidemic
E /d]g<GQE
d. Pandemic

27. A newly emerged strain of E. Coli that killed hundreds of hamburger eaters in the United States:
a. Sin Nombre Coli
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c. Colicollus coli
d. Legionairre’s coli
28. Level of prevention focused on the early sick and aimed to detect diseases at its early state:
a. Primary
D /IE][G<gs
c. Tertiary
d. Quarternary

29. Which of the following is a primary level of disease prevention:

a. Mass screening
b. Contact tracing
E <[Gq<hPQ[O
d. Prompt treatment

30. Health education is prevents communicable diseases through IEC. Which of the following refers to the part of IEC that involves behavioral
change?
a. Information
D GkE<jQ][
c. Communication
d. Integration

31. An information learned and caused a change in behavior of the client will only be effective if:
a. Able to apply everyday
D NhP<gIGqQjP]jPIgZIZDIgh]NjPIN<ZQYs]gIpI[jPIh]EQIjs
c. If kept and considered as own
d. Written and well documented

32. Which of the following vaccine is introduced intradermally at right deltoid region?
<  
b. DPT
c. Measles
d. Hep B

33. Which of the following vaccine is very sensitive from heat and should be stored at (-15 C to -25C) at the freezer?
< !I<hYIh
b. DPT
c. BCG
d. Hep B

34. Hep B is given for three doses and the schedule is:
< jDQgjPÇqIIXh<NjIgjPIÂhj G]hI<[GÉqIIXh<NjIg jPIÃ[G G]hI
b. At six months with interval of 4 weeks in each doses
c. At birth with 4 weeks interval
d. Given together with DPT and OPV

35. What will the nurse do if a child developed convulsion within 24 hours after giving DPT?
< QpI0/<[Gd<g<EIj<Z]Y<h]gGIgIG
b. Do not give the second dose of DPT.
c. Give the child DTaP instead.
d. The child must begin with DT only on the second dose because the child reacted negatively and developed pertussis with the
first dose.

36. Which of the following is true about Tetanus Toxoid?

a. It is given for mothers for two doses with one month interval with booster doses every next pregnancy.
D jQhOQpI[qQjPÁÁÆEE!<jGIYj]QGgIOQ][
c. It provides 99% immunity at the third dose
d. Infant is protected from tetanus for 10 years if TT2 is given
37. Environmental sanitation refers to the study of all factors in man’s physical environment which may exercise or may not exercise
deleterious effect on his health and well-being. Which of the following is not included?
a. Safe and Water Supply
b. Proper Excreta and Waste Disposal
c. Food Sanitation
G /Irk<Yq]gXIg’h]EEkd<jQ][h<[Qj<jQ][dg]Og<Z

38. The four R’s of food sanitation includes all of the following, except:
a. Right Source
D .QOPj+gQEI
c. Right Storage
d. Right Cooking

39. An adequately cooked food is heated with the temperature of:

a. 10-60 degrees C
D ÈÁGIOgIIh
c. 100 degrees C
d. 150 degrees C

40. For right storage, the following is correct except:

a. Foods should not be stored longer than 2 hours
D .IPI<jqQjPÇÁGIOgIIhEI[jgQOg<GI
c. Food must not be stored with room temperature
d. No rethawing, if possible.

41. Food establishments in the community shall be appraised as to their sanitary conditions. Which of the following is important for the cook
or cook helper to have?
a. Inspection
b. Approval of all food sources
c. Updated health services
G ]ZdYQ<[EIj]PI<YjPEIgjQNQE<jI

42. A patient is removed from the other persons because he is susceptible in acquiring a certain disease. This kind of isolation is called as:
a. Strict isolation
b. Contact isolation
c. Source isolation
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43. Which of the following is true regarding source isolation?

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b. Positive pressure in the room and negative outside
c. Equalized pressure from both areas
d. Negative pressure should be maintained inside and out

44. The restriction of activities of well person that has been exposed to a case of communicable disease to prevent disease transmission
during the incubation period but without limitation to movements:
a. Complete quarantine
b. Source isolation
E /kgpIQYY<[EI
d. Separation

45. A patient with typhoid fever and have several bouts of diarrheal stool prompts a nurse to use what kind of precaution:
a. Contact
b. Reverse Isolation
c. Drainage precaution
G [jIgQEdgIE<kjQ][
46. Which of the following statements about source isolation is false?
< QgI[jIgQ[OjPIg]]ZQhd<hhIGjPg]kOPNQYjIgh
b. The room is under negative air pressure
c. Source isolation is appropriate for patients with meningitis, whooping cough, or influenza
d. Transmission-based precautions will be necessary

47. Which of the following is not part of the standard precaution?

a. Hand washing between patient contacts
D +Y<EQ[O<d<jQI[jQ[<dgQp<jIg]]ZP<pQ[O[IO<jQpI<QgdgIhhkgI
c. Proper disposal of needles, scalpels and other sharps
d. Wearing gloves, masks, eye protection and gowns when appropriate

48. A patient with suspected tuberculosis has been admitted to the hospital. Which of the following is not appropriate?
< g]dYIjdgIE<kjQ][h
b. Source isolation
c. Standard precautions
d. Use of a type of N95 respirator by the health care provider

49. Which of the following precautions doesn’t require any private room?
a. Reverse isolation
b. Strict isolation
c. Droplet precaution
G 1[QpIgh<YdgIE<kjQ][

50. Which of the following statements about medical asepsis is false?

a. Disinfection is a medical aseptic technique
b. Hand washing is a medical aseptic technique
c. Medical asepsis is considered a clean technique
G 0PIO]<Y]NZIGQE<Y<hIdhQhQhj]IrEYkGI<YYZQEg]]gO<[QhZh

51. It is the killing of microorganisms by chemical and physical means. It can be done through dry heat, moist heat and radiation:
< QhQ[NIEjQ][
b. Sterilization
c. Sanitation
d. Disinfestation

52. You are caring a client in isolation. After nursing care is done what will you remove first after handling the patient?
a. Mask
b. Gown
E Y]pIh
d. Bonnet

53. The process of weakening microorganism through consecutive steps of freezing and dessication. This process is used for making vaccine:
a. Use of formaldehyde
D s]dPQYQv<jQ][
c. Attenuation
d. Moist heat application

54. The process of rendering surface that has been heavily exposed to infectious pathogen safe to handle is known as:
a. Disinfection
D IE][j<ZQ[<jQ][
c. Sterilization
d. Anti-septic

55. When a nurse uses alcohol on the client’s skin before an injection, she uses what kind of chemical-removing-microorganism?
< [jQhIdjQE
b. Disinfectant
 c. Decontaminant
d. Antimicrobial

56. The removal of stains and any contaminants from a kitchen utensils done at home is also known as:
a. /<[QjQv<jQ][
b. Sanitation
c. Decontamination
d. Disinfection

57. The client with tuberculosis is expelling large amount of sputum. The nurse, every time the client coughs, removes the soiled linen and
discards the tissues and burns it. This technique is what kind of disinfection?
a. Terminal
D ][EkggI[j
c. Longitudinal
d. Post-expulsion

58. The process of filling animal forms through use of gaseous agent.
< [G]]g.IhQGk<Y/dg<sQ[O¥./¦
b. Disinfestation
c. Sanitation
d. Gaseous Desentisization

59. Medical hand washing can be done for ___ and with elbows ___ :
a. 10 – 15 seconds: down
D ÂÁ ÂÆhIE][Ghkd
c. 3 - 5 minutes: down
d. 3 – 5 minutes: up

60. The removal of all harmful microorganisms is also known as:

a. Medical asepsis
b. Surgical asepsis
c. Sterilization
d. Decontamination

61. Clostridium tetani has the following characteristics, except:

a. Drum-stick in appearance and normal inhabitant of intestine
D Ig]DQEhd]gIŸN]gZQ[Og]GhP<dID<EjIgQ<
c. Found in soil fomites and excretion animals and human
d. Produces one of the most potent toxin

62. Incubation period of Clostridium tetani is:

a. 3 to 30 days
D ÄG<shj]ÄqIIXh
c. 3 to 9 days
d. 3 to 3 months

63. The incubation period of tetanus among infants is:

< Äj]ÄÁG<sh
b. 3 days to 3 weeks
c. 3 to 9 days
d. 3 to 3 months

64. Tetanolysis causes RBC destruction while tetanospasmin causes:

< [PQDQjQ][]NQZdkYhIhjP<jhj]dhZkhEYIE][jg<EjQ][
b. Direct control over contraction of muscles
c. Absence of sodium potassium pump that inhibits contraction
d. Stimulation of salivary which produces excessive salivation
65. The initial sign of tetanus is:
a. Trismus
D DG]ZQ[<YgQOQGQjs
c. Opisthotonus
d. Risus sardonicus

66. The pathognomonic sign of tetanus is:

< 0gQhZkh
b. Abdominal rigidity
c. Opisthotonus
d. Risus sardonicus

67. Which of the following management neutralized the toxins present in the body with tetanus?
< [jQŸjIj<[khj]rQ[
b. Tetanus immunoglobulin
c. Penicillin
d. Equine anti toxin

68. DPT immunization provides how many years of protection?

a. 2 years
b. 5 years
c. 7 years
G ÂÁsI<gh

69. Tetanus toxoid for mothers are given, except:

a. Two doses at the 2nd trimester
b. With one month interval
E jjPQOPgIOQ][!ÁÆEE
d. Booster dose in every other pregnancy

70. Prevention of tetanus neonatorum among infants is best achieved through:

< GIfk<jI<[GINNIEjQpIZ<jIg[<Y<[GEPQYGPI<YjP
b. Provision of adequate medicine to tetanus infected child
c. Proper wound care
d. Frequent hand washing among health care providers especially during child birth

71. Wounds with patients with suspected tetanus infection is best cleaned by:
a. Soap and water
D ÄÚPsGg]OI[dIg]rQGI
c. Iodophor
d. Cydex

72. Which of the following facts about meningitis is not true:

a. 2/3 of humans are asymptomatic carrier
b. It is caused by gram negative sphere bacteria
c. Can be caused by other bacteria other than Neisseria meningitides
G "][ŸQ[NIEjQ]kh<NjIg][IqIIX]NjgI<jZI[j

73. The following strains of N. meningitides do not have vaccines?

a. A
b. Y
c. C
G 

74. Which of the following causative agents of meningitis which is common among children?
< IZ]dPQYkhQ[NYkI[v<
 b. Streptococcus pneumonia
c. Meningococcus
d. E. coli

75. The drug of choice for this meningitis causative agent is Penicillin:
a. Hemophilus influenza
b. Streptococcus pneumonia
E !I[Q[O]E]EEkh
d. Clostridium tetani

76. Meningoccocemia is a result of the systemic profileration of the microorganism in the body characterized by except:
a. Petechial rash
b. Hypotension
c. DIC
G ][pkYhQ][

77. Meningitis is the characterized by flexion of the hip and knee while in supine position, when neck is flexed. This is known as:
a. Kernig’s sign
D gkGvQ[hXQ’hhQO[
c. Opisthotonus
d. Nuchal rigidity

78. Chemoprophylaxis for meningitis includes which of the following pharmacological intervention for 2 days and 2 dose and is
contraindicated for pregnant mothers and taking contraceptives:
a. Rifampicin
b. Penicillin
E INjgQ<r][I
d. Tetracycline

79. The drug of choice for Meningitis is:

a. Rifampicin
D +I[QEQYYQ[
c. Ceftriaxone
d. Penicilin

80. The following management decreases tendency of increased intra-cranial pressure, except:
a. Avoid valsalva maneuver
D GZQ[QhjIg<[jQŸGQkgIjQEh
c. Lessen environmental stimuli
d. Elevate head part

81. Which of the following causes of encephalitis is brought by a mosquito?

< <d<[IhII[EIdP<YQjQh
b. Amoebic meningoencephalitis
c. Toxic encephalitis
d. Spongiform encephalopathy

82. West Nile Encephalitis and St. Louis Encephalitis are mosquito-related encephalitis and is caused by:
< Y<pQpkgQh
b. Togavirus
c. Bunyavirus
d. Paramyxovirus

83. It is a kind of encephalitis that resulted from complication of communicable disease of viral origin due to ascending infection:
< /IE][G<gsI[EIdP<YQjQh
b. Amoebic encephalitis
c. Toxic encephalitis
 d. Mosquito-borne encephalitis

84. La crosse virus is very potent to patients who are:

< 1[GIgÂÆsI<gh]YG
b. Elderly
c. Pregnant
d. Male

85. The only mosquito borne encephalitis that have vaccine made from inactivated brain of mouse, given for three doses of I cc:
a. Australian X Encephalitis
b. Equine Encephalitis
E <d<[IhII[EIdP<YQjQh
d. St. Louise encephalitis

86. Mad cow disease is a kind of encephalitis and medically called as:
a. Kuru
b. Creudzfeldt Jakob Disease
c. Scrapie
G ]pQ[Ihd][OQN]gZI[EIdP<YQjQh

87. Amoebic encephalitis is brought by a microorganism from waters containing organic waste and enters body through nasal passages,
olfactory nerve reaching the CNS. What is this amoeba?
< "N]qYIgQ
b. Acanthamoeba
c. Plasmodium ovale
d. T. brucei

88. Increase ICP among infants is manifested primarily by all of the following, in exception of:
a. High-pitched cry
b. Bulging of fontanels
c. Decrease pulse rate
G +g]WIEjQYIp]ZQjQ[O

89. The following are the diagnostic procedures for encephalitis, except:
a. EEG
b. Blood culture
E "]hI<[GjPg]<jhq<D
d. Lumbar puncture

90. Which of the following intervention can be a preventive measure against encephalitis?
a. Avoid nasopharyngeal secretions from infected individuals with toxic encephalitis
D "dg]Og<Z]N$
c. Influenza virus vaccine
d. Proper food handling

91. The following are included in the CLEAN program of DOH:

a. Stream seeding
b. Zooprohylaxis
c. Stream clearing
d. IRS

92. Drug of choice for encephalitis is:

a. Penicillin
b. Ciprofloxacin
E 6<gQ<DYI
d. Azithromycin
93. In 1955, Jonas Salk introduced this vaccine to prevent poliomyelitis caused by Sabin’s vaccine?
a. OPV
D +6
c. OPT
d. OPM

94. Which of the following strain of Legio-debilitans causes permanent immunity?

< gk[PQYGI
b. Lansing
c. Leon
d. Paquita

95. Stage of poliomyelitis where no evident involvement of CNS noted?

< [p<hQpI
b. Pre-paralytic
c. Paralytic
d. Poliotic

96. Pathognomonic sign of poliomyelitis includes all of the following, except:

a. Hoyne’s sign
b. Poker’s sign
E /jQZh][’hhQO[
d. Paralysis

97. How many days will it take to have an irreversible paralysis among client with Poliomyelitis?
a. 30 days
D ÇÁG<sh
c. 90 days
d. 100 days

98. Which kind of paralysis that affects the cranial nerves and respiratory muscles?
a. Spinal
D kYD<g
c. Bulbo-spinal
d. Laundry’s paralysis

99. Diagnostic procedure for poliomyelitis includes all of the following, except:
a. Muscle Grading Scale
D YIEjg]I[EIdP<Y]Og<Z
c. Lumbar puncture
d. Stool exam

100. Priority nursing diagnosis for clients with poliomyelitis is:

< Zd<QgIGO<hIrEP<[OI
b. Impaired Physical Mobility
c. Self Care deficit
d. Ineffective airway clearance

101. IPV is given for three doses and:

a. 2 doses are given at 1 to two months interval
b. 3rd dose after 6 to 12 months
E QpI[<jÍōǟÂÉZ][jPh
d. Booster dose at 10 years old

102. Incubation period of Rabies virus for man is:

< ÂÁG<shj]ÂÁsI<gh
b. 3 to 8 weeks
 c. 3 to 10 days
d. Hours to 3 days

103. Rhabdovirus is:

< kYYIjhP<dIG
b. Drum-stick in appearance
c. Chinese characters-like
d. Cork-screw appearance

104. Intense salivation of a rabid animal is seen in what form?

a. Dumb form
b. Furious form
E ]jPGkZD<[GNkgQ]kh
d. None of the above

105. The pathognomonic sign of rabies is:

< sGg]dP]DQ<
b. Intense salivation
c. Bizarre behavior
d. Laryngospasm

106. Which of the following factors determines treatment of rabies, except?

a. Nature of contact
b. Animal species
c. Vaccination or clinical status of animal
G Z]k[j]Nh<YQp<dgIhI[jGkgQ[ODQjQ[OdIgQ]G

107. Absence of laryngospasm during the paralytic stage indicates:

< +]]gdg]O[]hQh
b. Recovery
c. Paralysis of extremities
d. Aerophobia

108. Pre-exposure vaccine is not given:

a. To high risk individuals such as veterinarians
b. For 3 doses of 1 ml IM
c. At 0, 7, 21 to 28 days
G j]<[QZ<Yhfk<g<[jQ[IG<[G]DhIgpIGN]gÂÁG<sh

109. Post-exposure prophylaxis is given for:

< ÂÅG]hIhdYkhÃD]]hjIgG]hIh
b. 3 doses and no booster doses
c. 21 doses included of which is the 3 booster doses
d. 10 doses plus 2 doses for the animal

110. A dog can be vaccinated as early as:

a. During at birth
D ÄZ][jPh
c. 6 weeks
d. One year

111. Which of the following neutralizes virus and said to be safe if given to human bitten by an infected dog?
a. ERIG, 40 IU/kg
D .ÃÁ1›XO
c. HyperRab 40 IU/kg
d. Imogam 60 IU/kg
112. If an animal dies after 10 days, the following are the considerations, except:
a. Animal should not be cooked for food
D IIdjPIDg<Q[Ng]vI[
c. Send animal’s head immediately to the laboratory for the detection of Negri bodies
d. Put it in a cool dawg

113. Management for the wound includes all of the following, except:
a. 70 % alcohol antisepsis
b. Running water and soap cleaning
E /kjkgIhQjIQNq]k[GQhY<gOIj]dgIpI[jIrEIhhQpIDYIIGQ[O
d. Place blockage tie above the injury site

114. A wild animal if even though unprovoked bit, animal should be:
a. Observed for 10 days
D QYYIG<j][EI
c. Send to PAWS
d. Donated to Malabon Zoo

115. The following are the characteristics of Cornyebacterium diptheriae, except:

a. Aerobic, non motile
b. Gram positive
c. Arrange like Chinese letters
G gkZhjQEXQ[<ddI<g<[EI

116. The causative agent of diphtheria manifest its infective property by:
a. Invasion in the throat by adhesion and initiates inflammatory response
D r]j]rQ[XQYYhYIkX]EsjIh<[GN]gZhE][OgIO<jQ][Q[jPIjPg]<j
c. Staying latent in the lungs after non-recognition of macrophages
d. Increase mucus production and impedes entry air going to lungs

117. The type of diphtheria where hoarseness of voice, DOB, and aphonia is observed:
a. Nasal
b. Pharyngeal
E <gs[OI<Y
d. Mucous membrane

118. What type of diphtheria is manifested where the client has exudative pseudomembrane on throat and vulva and considered uncommon
yet very dangerous?
a. Nasal
D +P<gs[OI<Y
c. Laryngeal
d. Mucous membrane

119. Pharyngeal type of diphtheria with 2 cultures already sent to the laboratory must have a strict isolation for:
< ÃÅP]kgh
b. 48 hours
c. 2 to 4 days
d. 14 days

120. Patients with diphtheria must have how many negative results should be taken to confirm absence of infection?
< 0PgII
b. Two
c. One
d. None, clinical sign is enough to confirm presence

121. The pathognomonic sign of diphtheria is:

a. Inspiratory whoop
 b. Hemoptysis
E +hIkG]ZIZDg<[I
d. Coryza

122. Equine diphtheria anti-toxin must be given for patients with diphtheria:
a. After three positive result to nose and throat culture
D pI[qQjP]kjY<D]g<j]gsgIhkYj
c. Together with penicillin or erythromycin to eliminate toxin that has already been absorbed
d. If not allergic to equine; otherwise, human equine anti-toxin must be given

123. If client is experiencing diphtheria, which of the following is a must at the client’s bedside?
a. Pair of scissors
b. Mechanical ventilator
E 0g<EPI]hj]ZshIj
d. Bottle

124. Which of the following complications is likely to happen for clients with diphtheria?
a. Meningitis
b. Orchitis
E !s]E<gGQjQh
d. Gastro-intestinal affectations

125. Contact isolation is needed for client with what kind of diphtheria?
a. Nasal
b. Laryngeal
E kj<[I]kh
d. Mucous membrane

126. Preventive measure against diphtheria is through vaccination. Which of the following considerations are not intended for diphtheria
vaccine?
a. 3 doses, given first at 6 weeks
D [WIEjIG!<jGIYj]QGgIOQ][
c. Booster dose every two years especially for travelers
d. DPT antigen is a whole cell vaccine

127. Which of the following about pertussis, is considered incorrect?

a. Patients under 6 months and vaccinated do not create a whoop
D 7P]]dQ[OE]kOPQhEP<g<EjIgQvIGDsgIdI<jIGpQ]YI[jE]kOPQ[ON]YY]qIGDsg<dQGIrdQg<jQ][
c. It produces pertussis toxin that increases mucus production
d. Pertussis is characterized also by increase in thoracic and intracranial pressure

128. Presence of whooping cough, increase thoracic pressure and involuntary micturition occurs on what stage of pertussis?
a. Invasive
D /d<hZ]GQE
c. Catarrhal
d. Convalescence

129. The diagnostic procedure for pertussis is:

a. Shick’s test
b. Maloney’s test
E ]gGIjŸOI[O]kjIhj
d. Pandy’s test

130. The client with Pertussis taking Penicillin is considered non-infective after:
a. Negative result on the laboratory test
D QpIG<sh<NjIgE][jQ[kIGjPIg<ds
c. Increased WBC up to 20 per cent
 d. Absence of whooping cough

131. Possible complication of Pertussis include, except:

a. Abdominal hernia
b. Increase ICP
c. Secondary infection
G YQ[G[Ihh

132. Patient with pertussis should be seggrated for 3 weeks from the appearance of paroxysmal cough through:
a. Contact isolation
b. Airborne isolation
E g]dYIjQh]Y<jQ][
d. Transmission based precaution

133. If a child experienced convulsion after a DPT immunization, which of the following intervention would the nurse do?
a. Give the next dose as scheduled
D QpI0<+][jPI[IrjG]hI
c. Give DT for the next dose
d. No vaccination on the next schedule

134. It is a acute and mutative highly communicable diseases that cause 20 M deaths (1918) rendering more mortality than the World War I.
a. Malaria
b. Tuberculosis
c. AIDS
G [NYkI[v<

135. The influenza virus is very virulent to those immunocompromised and extremes of age and has the ability to:
a. Reactivate after latent infection
D !kj<jI<[GEgI<jI<[]jPIghjg<Q[
c. Infiltrate other organs; hence, multiple organ failure
d. Affect gonads and may lead to sterility

136. Strain of influenza that is most severe and major cause of epidemics and endemics:
< 0sdI
b. Type B
c. Type C
d. Type D

137. The drug of choice for influenza, especially for type A is:
< Z<[jQGQ[I
b. Acyclovir
c. Zidovoudine
d. Zanamivir

138. Zanamivir (Reenza) and Oseltamivir (Tamiflu) are both effective to influenza virus type:
a. A
b. B
E ]jP<[G
d. Type C

139. Which of the following is a preventive measure against influenza?

a. Contact isolation
D 6<EEQ[<jQ][I<EPsI<gIhdIEQ<YYsN]gjg<pIYIgh
c. Chemoprophylaxis of Amantidine
d. Adequate nutrition

140. The major cause of disability in the world is brought by:

 a. Leprosy
D 0kDIgEkY]hQh
c. Pneumonia
d. Poliomyelitis

141. The following are characteristics of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, except:

a. Gram positive and rod shape
b. Acid-fast and highly aerobic
E <[DIXQYYIGDsGgsQ[O<[GGQhQ[NIEj<[jh
d. May cause delayed hypersensitivity reaction

142. The patient is considered non-infective after:

< 0q]j]N]kgqIIXh<NjIgjPIg<ds
b. one week after therapy
c. after negative Microscopic Examination result
d. after negative chest X-ray

143. The tuberculosis-causing microorganism can be transmitted through the following means, except:
a. Coughing, sneezing, singing
b. Direct invasion through mucus membrane or break in the skin
E IE]Ÿ]g<Yg]kjI
d. Unpasteurized milk or dairy products

144. Granuloma or tubercles that resist digestion and removal by macrophages are called:
< P][hE]ZdYIrIh
b. Caseous necrosis
c. Consumption
d. Cavity

145. TB in the bones is also known as:

a. Miliary Tuberculosis
b. TB meningitis
E +]jj’hGQhI<hI
d. Extrapulmonary TB

146. A tuberculosis patient have moderately advanced extent of disease progression if:
a. Lesions are demonstrated without excavation and confined to small part of one or both lungs
D $[I]gD]jPYk[Oh<gIQ[p]YpIGqQjP<j]j<YGQ<ZIjIg]NE<pQjQIhYIhhjP<[ÅEZ
c. Lesions are more than the volume of a single lung
d. Microorganisms traveled in the systemic circulation affecting only proximal organs

147. Which of the following TB category according to DOH, has a new smear negative PTB with minimal parenchymal lesions on Chest X-ray?
a. Category I
b. Category II
E <jIO]gs
d. Category IV

148. Immediate reporting of this category to the Regional Tuberculosis Program Center is a must:
a. Category I
b. Category II
c. Category III
G <jIO]gs6

149. Which of the following signs and symptoms may prompt a patient to seek medical attention suspecting tuberculosis?
a. Chest pain
b. Afternoon fever
E ]kOPN]gjq]qIIXh
 d. Shortness of breath

150. The standard diagnostic procedure for tuberculosis is:

< QgIEjhdkjkZhZI<gZQEg]hE]ds
b. Chest X-ray
c. Mantoux test
d. Purified protein derivative

151. Induration of 8 to 10 mm, according to DOH, means?

< +<hjIrd]hkgIj]jkDIgEkY]hQh
b. Positive tuberculosis case
c. Immunocompromised patient
d. Possible with HIV

152. Which of the following patient does not confirm positive test for Mantoux test?
a. 5 mm induration for those positive granuloma formation after CXR
b. 10 mm induration for those with DM, Renal Failure and hematological problem
c. 10 mm induration for those with sudden weight loss
G ÂÁZZN]g6d<jQI[j

153. Which of the following drug for TB is the only one in capsule form?
< .QN<ZdQEQ[
b. Ethambutol
c. Pyrazinamide
d. Isoniazid

154. TB formulation of anti-TB drugs that are prepared separately:

< /Q[OYIGgkON]gZkY<jQ][
b. Fixed dose combination
c. DOTS
d. MDT paucibacillary

155. Allergic reaction is frequently observed with:

a. Rifampicin
b. Ethambutol
E +sg<vQ[<ZQGI
d. Isoniazid

156. Which of the following is also used as a chemoprophylaxis for TB:

a. Rifampicin
b. Ethambutol
c. Pyrazinamide
G h][Q<vQG

157. Side effect of Ethambutol is:

a. Peripheral neuritis
D $g<[OID]GQYshIEgIjQ][h
c. Optic neuritis
d. Ototoxicity

158. The best method of prevention of TB and leprosy especially among children is:
a. Taking INH for prophylaxis
b. Good nutrition
c. Healthy environment
G  QZZk[Qv<jQ][

159. Patients taking isoniazid primarily, must:

 a. Take medication with food
D 0<XIpQj<ZQ[Ç
c. Be assessed every 2 to 4 weeks for vision
d. Have kidney and liver function test

160. The recommended regimen for patients under category 2 is:

< .;/N]gÃZ][jPh.;N]gÂZ][jP¥Q[jI[hQpIdP<hI¦<[GNQpIZ][jPh]N.¥Z<Q[jI[<[EIdP<hI¦
b. 2 months of HRZE (intensive phase) and 4 months of HR (maintenance phase)
c. HRZES for 3 months (intensive phase) and five months of HRE (maintenance phase)
d. 2 months of HRZE and 2 month of HR (intensive phase) and 4 months of HR (maintenance phase)

161. BCG immunization came from what mycobacterium strain?

a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b. Mycobacterium africanum
E !sE]D<EjIgQkZD]pQh
d. Mycobacterium caninum

162. Which of the following food handling measures are said to be incorrect?
< ]QYN]]G<ddg]rQZ<jIYsgI<EPQ[OÇÁGIOgIIh IYEQkh
b. Avoid tasting unusual or foods with peculiar odor.
c. Sanitization is the process of disinfecting kitchen utensils.
d. Wash hand before, during and after food preparation.

163. According to WHO, the following are the keys on how to maintain safety of food, except:
a. Cook thoroughly
b. Use safe water
c. Separate raw and cook
G 1hIP<[Gh<[QjQvIg

164. Diet that is frequently ordered for a client with diarrhea:

a. Acid ash diet
b. Alkaline ash diet
E Y<[GGQIj
d. High fiber diet

165. Which of the following bleeding episodes indicates upper GI bleeding

a. Hematemesis
D IZ<j]EPIvQ<
c. Melena
d. Hemoptysis

TYPHOID FEVER
166. The causative agent of typhoid fever is:
< /<YZ][IYY<I[jIgQE<
b. Salmonella typhosa
c. Salmonella enteritidis
d. Salmonella choleraesuis

167. A vector that transmits typhoid bacillus to its infective host:

a. Mosquito
b. Snail
E Ys
d. Feces

168. The pathognomonic sign of typhoid fever is:

< .]hIhd]jh][jPI<DG]ZI[
 b. Butterfly rash
c. Stimson’s sign
d. Forscheimer spots

169. Salmonella enterica / typhosa microorganism is virulent because which of the following mode of action?
a. Pushing itself from one cell to another by adhesin and actin tail
b. Attracts electrolytes and then expelled causing diarrhea
E kgg]qQ[Oj]jPI+IsIg’hd<jEPIh]NjPIhZ<YYQ[jIhjQ[I
d. Penetrating the intestinal wall and travels systemically

170. The following clinical manifestations are observed during the fastidial stage, except:
a. Typhoid psychosis
b. Carphologia
c. Subsultus tendinum
G [jIhjQ[<YdIgN]g<jQ][

171. A cook of a restaurant is free from typhoid bacillus only if:

< ÄE][hIEkjQpIEkYjkgIh<gIG][IqQjP][IZ][jPQ[jIgp<Y<[GN]k[G[IO<jQpI
b. After 48 hours of continued therapy and found negative during culture
c. After a negative scotch tape result
d. After 10 days of fecalysis and found negative

172. The following immunoglobulin findings indicate the early infection of typhoid fever:
< [EgI<hIO
b. Increase IgM
c. No Ig increase
d. Increase in both IgG and IgM

173. The drug of choice for typhoid fever is:

< PY]g<ZdPI[QE]Y
b. Ampicillin
c. Ceftriaxone
d. Penicillin

174. Chloramphenicol is contraindicated for children in the United States because it may cause:
a. Liver cirrhosis
D dY<hjQE<[IZQ<
c. Sterility
d. Blindness

175. Possible complication of typhoid fever includes, except:

a. Intestinal perforation
b. Hemorrhage
E rjg<Q[jIhjQ[<YjsdP]QGNIpIg
d. Peritonitis

176. Shigellosis is also known as, except:

a. Asylum dysentery
b. Bacillary dysentery
c. Blood flux
G Yj]g

177. The group of Shigella or dysentery bacillus that produces a Shiga toxin and is said to be the most virulent:
a. Shflesneri
b. Shboy-dii
E /PŸGshI[jIgQ<I
d. Sh-connei
178. The following are the means of transmitting Shigella or dysentery bacillus, except:
a. Feco-oral transmission
b. Contaminated water, milk and food
E g]dYIjjg<[hZQhhQ][
d. Transmission by fly

179. Which of the following nursing intervention in collecting stool specimen with Shigellosis?
a. Must be of sufficient amount to obtain accurate result, approximately one half of a drinking cup
b. 2 successive fecal sample twice a day
E !khjDIhI[jQ[jPIY<D]g<j]gs<j][EI
d. Must be refrigerated first to halt the growth of other microorganisms

180. The drug of choice for Shigellosis which is a combination of sulfamethoxazole and trimetropin:
a. Ampicillin
b. Tetracycline
E ]jgQZ]r<v]YI
d. Loperamide

181. Another term to connote cholera is, except:

a. Violent dysentery
b. El tor
E 7<hPIgq]Z<[’hGQhI<hI
d. Flux

182. Possible effects of diarrhea is:

a. Respiratory alkalosis
D sd]X<YIZQ<
c. Hypernatremia
d. Respiratory acidosis

183. During the collapse stage of cholera, the client will be experiencing what sign of dehydration which is considered also a pathognomonic
sign of cholera:
a. Marked mental depression
b. Sultus tendinum
E 7<hPIgq]Z<[’hhQO[
d. Rose spots on the abdomen

184. Drug of choice for cholera is:

a. Ampicillin
D 0Ijg<EsEYQ[I
c. Cotrimoxazole
d. Loperamide

185. Cholera, dysentery and typhoid fever can be prevented by CDT immunization given deltoid area and gives:
< ÇZ][jPhQZZk[Qjs
b. 1 year immunity
c. 3 years immunity
d. 5 months immunity

186. Which of the following gastro-intestinal disease is caused by protozoa?

a. Violent dysentery
b. Typhoid fever
c. Bacillary dysentery
G ZIDQEGshI[jIgs

187. The infective stage of Entamoeba histolytica is:

 a. Larva
D shj
c. Trophozoites
d. Gametocytes

188. The possible complication of amebiasis which is of greatest concern and most severe is:
< rjg<Q[jIhjQ[<Y<ZIDQ<hQh
b. Dehydration
c. Hemorrhage
d. Shock

189. The drug of choice for amebiasis is:

a. Chloramphenicol
b. Cotrimoxazole
E !Ijg][QG<v]YI
d. Tetracycline

PARAGONOMIASIS
190. The main and primary intermediate host of Paragonomiasis
a. Antemelania asperata
b. Varona litterata
E +<g<O][QZkhqIhjIgZ<[Q
d. Paragonimus siamenses

191. The following are the possible modes of transmission of Paragonomiasis

a. Ingestion of raw or insufficiently cooked crabs
b. Contamination of food and utensils
c. Drinking contaminated water
G /Irk<YE][j<Ej

192. Paragonomiasis is endemic in the following areas, except:

a. Mindoro, Camarines region
b. Sorsogon, Samar and Leyte
c. Albay, Cebu and Basilan
G kQZ<g<h+<[O<hQ[<[<[G;<ZD<YIh

193. Patients with Paragonomiasis are misdiagnosed because it has this disease manifestation:
< +0
b. Diptheria
c. Pneumonia
d. Pertussis

194. Diagnostic examination for Paragonomiasis are the following, except:

a. Sputum examination
b. CSF analysis
c. Immunology
G IE<YshQh

195. Drug of choice for Paragonomiasis is:

a. Praziquantel
D Ijg<v<[
c. Chloroquine
d. Penicilin

196. Alternative drug choice for Paragonomiasis

< 0"
b. Rifampicin
 c. Chloroquine
d. Tetracycline

197. The most important means of preventing Paragonomiasis is:

a. Sanitary disposal of excreta
D ]]Gh<[Qj<jQ][
c. Avoid bathing in infected water
d. Anti-mollusk campaign

198. Paralytic Shellfish Poisoning (PSP)is commonly known as:

< .IG0QGI
b. Green algae Poisoning
c. Sting Ray Poisoning
d. Paragonomiasis

199. Which of the following facts about PSP’s causative agent is not true?
a. Caused by Dinoflagellates
b. Common term is plankton
c. Less than 30 kinds of 2000 varieties ca cause poisoning
G [EgI<hIhDIE<khI]NE][jQ[k]khPQOPjIZdIg<jkgI<[G›]ghkZZIg

200. Which of the following mollusks is the cause of PSP, except:

a. Tahong
b. Talaba
c. Halaan
G +<Z<sd<s

201. Which of the following facts about shellfish with poison is not true:
a. It contains a toxin known as Pyromidium
b. The toxin affects the CNS primarily
E jE<[DI[Ikjg<YQvIDspQ[IO<g]g<[s<EQGQEh]YkjQ][
d. It can tolerate extreme heat and temperature

202. Classical clinical manifestations of PSP are the following, in exception to:
a. Paralysis
b. Ataxia
c. Dysphagia
G 1gjQE<gQ<

203. Which of the following victims would probably have the highest rate of survival after ingesting a poisonous shellfish?
a. Those who have eaten pamaypay, the least poisonous shellfish
D 0P]hIqP]P<pIhkgpQpIGjPINQghjÂÃP]kgh<NjIgQ[OIhjQ][
c. Those who have drank immediately sea water to counterpart shellfish’s poison
d. Those who urged and successfully vomited

204. A person who have eaten and manifested signs and symptoms of PSP must first:
a. Drink decaffeinated coffee
b. Take the shellfish and let it be examined by the laboratory technicians to know antibiotic of choice.
E [GkEIp]ZQjQ[O
d. Take metronidazole, as ordered.

205. During the early stage of poisoning, let the client do which of the following first aid measures to neutralize toxin, except?
a. Drinking pure coconut milk
b. Drinking milk
c. Drinking sodium bicarbonate solution
G gQ[XQ[OpQ[IO<g
206. The most common reason of botulism among infants is:
a. Eating fecal material of the child
b. Eating commercially prepared food such as Cerelac
E [jg]GkEjQ][]NP][Isj]D<Ds
d. Inadequately boiled drinking milk

207. Which of the following facts about botulism is not true:

a. Manifest within 12 to 36 hours
b. First 24 hours – critical
c. Initial signs and symptoms includes dry mouth, sore throat, weakness, vomiting diarrhea
G [N<[jh<gIgQOQG<[GZkhEYIE][jg<EjQ][QhIpQGI[j

208. Which of the following facts about STH is not true?

a. third most prevalent infection worldwide
b. ranked top 10 among the World’s Top Ten Infectious Diseases Killer
c. Deworming is the number one cost effective priority intervention among five to fourteen year group
G ßÆsI<gh]YG<gIjPIgIhIgp]QghŽqPQYIÇj]ÂÅ<gII<hQYsQ[NIEjIG

209. The three major causes of intestinal parasitic infection in the Philippines are, except:
a. Ascaris lumbricoides
b. Trichuris trichuria
c. Hookworms (Ancylostoma duodonale and Necator americanus)
G $rskgQhpIgZQEkY<gQh

210. Causative agent of pinworm:

< $rskgQhpIgZQEkY<gQh
b. Ascaris lumbricoides
c. Strogyloides stercoralis
d. Trichuris trichuria

211. Another term for pinworm:

< [jIg]DQ<hQh
b. Strongyloidiasis
c. Trichuriasis
d. Ancylostosomiasis

212. Primarily, pinworms are transmitted through:

a. Droplet
b. Soil
E ]ZQjIh
d. Airborne

213. The pathognomonic sign of Pinworm infection is:

a. Aplastic anemia
D "]Ejkg[<Y<[Q
c. Eczema
d. Hemorrhoids

214. Ascariasis lumbricoides is also known as:

a. Pinworm
b. Tapeworm
E .]k[Gq]gZ
d. Threadworm

215. It has a strong affinity to this part of the body where the eggs matures for 3 weeks:
a. Liver
 D k[Oh
c. Kidneys
d. GI tract

216. Threadworms are also known as:

a. Enterobiasis
D /jg][OsY]QGQ<hQh
c. Trichuriasis
d. Ancylostosomiasis

217. Threadworms are different from other roundworms because it has the following capacity, except:
a. Reproduce even without host
D OOhP<jEPQ[j]Y<gp<IQ[jPIQ[jIhjQ[I
c. Have an increase viability form known as the rhabdozoite
d. Eggs are the infective stage

218. Whipworm infection is caused by:

a. Oxyuris vermicularis
b. Ascaris lumbricoides
c. Strogyloides stercoralis
G 0gQEPkgQhjgQEPkgQ<

219. Ancylostomiasis is also known as:

a. Pinworm
b. Hookworm
c. Roundworm
G 0<dIq]gZ

220. Necator americanus and Ancylostoma duodanale infection can result:

a. Eczema
b. Ear infection
c. Anemia
G 6Qj<ZQ[ÂÃGINQEQI[Es

221. Tapeworm or flatworms are found in fish, beef and pork. Tapeworm infection from pork is caused by:
a. Diphyllobothrium latum
b. Taenia saginata
E 0<I[Q<h]YQkZ
d. Taenia baraziliense

222. Pinworms are embedded in the animal meat through what form?
a. Cysticerci
D +g]OY]jjQGh
c. Rhabdozoites
d. Sporozoites

223. The most efficient and cost-effective method done to determine worm infection is:
a. Stool Exam
D /E]jEPj<dIZIjP]G
c. Direct fecal smear
d. Sigmoidoscopy

224. Mebendazole and its drug family kills worms by:

a. Paralyzing the worms
D [PQDQjQ[OjPIOYkE]hIQ[j<XI]NjPIq]gZh
c. Detoxifying their toxins
d. Chemically altering their component
 225. The most effective measure against worm infections is:
a. Avoid walking bare footed
D +g]Z]jQ[OPsOQI[I
c. Vaccination
d. Isolation

HEPATITIS
226. Considered AIDS’ twin, it is the 2nd leading cause of cancer, second to tobacco:
a. Hepatitis A
D Id<jQjQh
c. Hepatitis C
d. Hepatitis D

227. Also known as post-infusion hepatitis:

a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
E Id<jQjQh
d. Hepatitis D

228. Another term for hepatitis B is:

< ]Z]Y]O]khhIgkZW<k[GQEI
b. Epidemic hepatitis
c. Catarrhal jaundice
d. Post-transfusion hepatitis

229. Most common type of hepatitis:

< Id<jQjQh
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
d. Hepatitis D

230. Transmission of hepatitis E includes which of the following?

< IE]Ÿ]g<Yg]kjI
b. Blood, sexual contact
c. Semen
d. Transfusion

231. Post infection of a fulminant hepatitis B:

a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis C
E Id<jQjQh
d. Hepatitis F

232. Which of the following intervention is appropriate for the Hepatitis A:

a. Blood screening for blood donation.
b. Use of disposable equipment especially syringe and needles.
E p]QG]g]Ÿ<[<YhIrk<YQ[jIgE]kghI
d. No sharing of personal items which may cause break in the skin. (e.g. razor)

233. Jaundice, a pathognomonic sign of hepatitis, appears on what stage of illiness:

a. Pre-icteric
D EjIgQE
c. Latent
d. Post-icteric

234. Diet of patients with a fulminant hepatitis includes all the following except:
 a. small, frequent feedings
b. high CHO
E Q[EgI<hI $"
d. high in vitamins, especially Vitamin B Complex

235. Which of the following is not nursing management intended to clients with hepatitis?
< .IYQIpIdgkgQjkh q<gZZ]QhjE]ZdgIhh]gIZ]YYQI[jY]jQ][
b. Health teaching – avoid alcohol
c. Isolation precaution
d. Administer medications as ordered (Corticosteroids, Liver protector – Essentiale)

236. Eruptions in the skin that present in the mucus membrane:

< r<[jPIZ
b. Enanthem
c. Papule
d. Lesions

237. Which of the following management is not included for the care of patients with integumentary problems?
a. Use calamine lotion
b. Administer anti-histamine
c. Trim nails and wear mittens among children
G 7I<gE][hjgQEjQpIEY]jPQ[Oj]<YYIpQ<jIQjEPQ[O

MEASLES
238. Measles is also known as, except:
< 0PgIIŸG<sZI<hYIh
b. Rubeola
c. Little Red Disease
d. Morbili

239. The pathognomic sign of measles is:

a. Forscheimer spots
D ]dYQX’hhd]jh
c. Stimson’s sign
d. Postherpetic Neuraglia

240. The following are the clinical manifestations of Measles, except”

a. Conjuctivitis with photophobia
b. Bright red spot with a blue-white spot at the center at the buccal mucosa
E ]qOg<GINIpIg
d. Deep red macula-papular eruptions

241. The appearance of rashes of measles is characterized by all of the following, except:
a. Begins at the hairline and behind the ears
D ddI<gh<jjPIjgk[XNQghj¥k[QN]E<Y¦
c. Desquamation occurs after rashes
d. Cephalocaudal appearance of rashes is observed

242. A complication of Measles wherein a defective virus enters the brain and causes seizure, paralysis and coma:
a. Bovine Spongiform Encephalitis
D /kD<EkjI/EYIg]hQ[O+<[I[EIdP<YQjQh
c. Herpes Zoster
d. African Sleeping Sickness

243. Measles vaccine is given with the following considerations, except:

a. Introduced once at nine months
D $ÆEEQhQ[jg]GkEIG<jGIYj]QGZkhEYI
c. AMV can be given as early as 6 months
 d. Report experience of fever and mild rashes for 3 to 4 days

244. Possible complication of measles include, except:

a. Pneumonia
b. Otitis media
c. Encephalitis
G .I[<YN<QYkgI

245. Measles can be prevented by a vaccine known as MMR and is given during the:
a. 9th months
D ÂÆjP Z][jP
c. 12th month
d. 14th month

GERMAN MEASLES
246. German measles is also known as, except:
a. Rubella
D .kDI]Y<
c. Roseola
d. Rothein

247. Characteristics of German measles rash include all of the following, except:
a. Pink-red maculopapular rash
D .<hPIh<gIhYQOPjYsDQOOIgjP<[ZI<hYIh
c. Rashes appears on face going to the trunk to the extremities
d. Rash disappearance is characterized by fine flaking

248. Avoidance of German measles is a must for pregnant mothers specifically for the first trimester because of its possible effect to the baby.
This is observed because:
a. The virus produces inflammatory response that is not conducive for the zygote.
D 0PIpQgkhE<[gI<GQYsd<hhjPg]kOPjPIdY<EI[j<<[Gdg]GkEIQjhINNIEjhj]jPINIjkh
c. It causes abortion
d. It dilates the cervix that causes propulsion of the fetus.

249. The following are the possible complication of German measles, except:
a. Congenital anomaly
b. Otitis media
c. Bronchopneumonia
G /kD<EkjI/EYIg]hQ[O+<[I[EIdP<YQjQh

CHICKEN POX
250. The causative agent of chicken pox is:
a. Herpes simplex
D kZ<[¥<YdP<¦PIgdIhpQgkhÄ¥p<gQEIYY<Ÿv]hjIgpQgkh¦
c. Paramyxovirus
d. Morbili virus

251. The possible sequelae of chicken pox when reactivated during the later years if life is:
a. Pneumonia
b. Peripheral Neuropathy
c. Cataract
G /PQ[OYIh

252. The appearance of rashes among clients with chicken pox start from the trunk and is initially characterized by what kind of lesion?
< !<EkY<I
b. Papulae
c. Vesicle
 d. Pustule

253. Penicillin is administered to patients with chicken pox is given because:

a. Penicillin inhibits the growth of microorganisms of chicken pox.
b. Penicillin alleviates signs and symptoms of chicken pox.
E +I[QEQYYQ[dgIpI[jh]jPIgQ[NIEjQ][<EE]Zd<[QIGd]hhQDYIDsEPQEXI[d]r
d. Penicillin prevents prolonged exposure to virus.

254. Aspirin is not given for patient with Chicken pox to prevent:
a. Creutzfeld-Jakob Syndrome
D .IsI’hhs[Gg]ZI
c. Herpes Zoster
d. Postherpetic neuralgia

255. Which of the following assessment procedures will diagnose chicken pox?
a. Varicella Zoster Ig is more than 10
D +PshQE<Y<hhIhhZI[j
c. Fecalysis
d. CSF analysis on the 2nd day

256. The burning pain experienced along the cluster of skin vesicles, along courses of peripheral sensory nerves experienced by those with
shingles is called:
< +]hjPIgdIjQE[Ikg<YOQ<
b. Herpetic Blisters
c. Dermatologic pain
d. Shingle’s pain

257. Involvement of the facial nerve in herpes zoster with facial paralysis, hearing loss, loss of taste in half of the tongue and skin lesions
around the ear and ear canal is known as:
< .<Zh<sŸPk[jhs[Gg]ZI
b. Cushing’s sydrome
c. Psychotic syndrome
d. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

258. The first disease where microorganism is discovered through the ages and in the bible:
< Idg]hs
b. Cholera
c. Typhus
d. Bubonic plague

259. Multidrug therapy was first introduced in the Philippines through a pilot study in Cebu and Ilocos Norte in:
< ÂÊÉÆ
b. 1987
c. 1989
d. 1991

260. MDT was implemented nationwide after the successful pilot study in Cebu and Ilocos Norte in:
a. 1985
b. 1987
E ÂÊÉÊ
d. 1991

261. Leprosy is still a health problem among 4 provinces in the Philippines, except:
a. Ilocos region
b. Basilan
c. Sulu
G d<ggQ
262. Which of the following leprosy type indicates skin lesions that are sharply demarcated and bilaterally symmetrical?
a. Lepromatous
D 0kDIgEkY]QG
c. Indeterminate
d. Borderline

263. In this type of leprosy, nodules, papules and macules are diffuse, infiltrations are bilaterally symmetrical, numerous and extensive, and
crusting of the nasal mucosa, obstructed breathing and epistaxis occurs.
< Idg]Z<j]kh
b. Tuberculoid
c. Indeterminate
d. Borderline

264. Leprosy type with hypopigmented macule with ill defined borders:
a. Lepromatous
b. Tuberculoid
E [GIjIgZQ[<jI
d. Borderline

265. A patient with more than 5 lesions is categorized as:

< /Q[OYIYIhQ][d<kEQD<EQYY<gs
b. Paucibacillary
c. Multibacillary
d. Tuberculoid

266. Paucubacillary is a non-infectious type of leprosy that is treated for how many months?
< Çj]ÊZ][jPh
b. 24 to 30 months
c. 12 to 24 months
d. 8 to 16 months

267. Which of the following manifestations is not considered a late sign of leprosy:
< [PsGg]hQh
b. Lagopthalmos
c. Madarosis
d. Gynecomastia

268. Diagnosis of leprosy is currently based on:

a. Positive slit skin smear
D YQ[QE<YhQO[h<[GhsZdj]Zh
c. ELISA
d. Antibody test

269. The use of two or more drugs for the treatment of leprosy and considered as a public health program:
< !0
b. DOTS
c. IMCI
d. MBS

270. A person is considered non-infectious after undergoing how many weeks of MDT?
a. Three weeks
D $[IqIIX
c. After the complete treatment of the Paucibacillay or Multibacillary treatment
d. Four weeks

271. How many blister pack should be completed for a patient with Multibacillary leprosy?
 a. 6 blisters packs for a maximum period of nine months
D ÂÃDYQhjIgd<EXhj]DIj<XI[qQjPQ[<Z<rQZkZdIgQ]G]NÂÉZ][jPh
c. 6 blister packs for a maximum period of 18 months
d. 12 blister packs to be taken within nine months

272. All but one is an early sign of leprosy:

< !<G<g]hQh
b. Change in skin color
c. Nasal obstruction or bleeding
d. Ulcers that doesn’t heal

273. Leprosy can be transmitted through:

a. Blood
b. Semen
c. Sex
G +g]Y][OIGhXQ[j]hXQ[E][j<Ej

274. A negative slit skin smear requires a single dose of the following drugs except:
a. Ofloxacin
b. Rifampicin
E Y]N<vQZQ[I
d. Minocycline

275. The drug that has a side effect of skin discoloration is:
< Y]N<vQZQ[I
b. Rifampicin
c. Dapsone
d. Streptomycin

276. Clofazimine is given how many times for a patient with Paucibacillary leprosy:
< $[EI<Z][jPjPI[G<QYs
b. Once a month only
c. Daily
d. None

277. Rifampicin in both Multibacillary and Paucibacillary treatment is given once a day with how many mg is recommended for a child with
leprosy?
a. 600 mg
D ÅÆÁZO
c. 100 mg
d. 50 mg

278. Should the patient fail to complete the regimen prescribed for MB, the patient should continue treatment until how many blister packs
are consumed?
a. 6
b. 12
c. 18
G ÃÅ

279. Which of the following management can prevent leprosy?

<  QZZk[Qv<jQ][
b. Leprosy vaccine
c. Slit skin smear
d. Chemoprophylaxis of rifampicin

280. The disease that is the most common concern in the Philippines is:
< /sdPQYQh
 b. Gonorrhea
c. Chlamydia
d. Trichomoniasis

281. The leading mode of transmission of HIV and STI in the Philippines is:
a. Sharing needles for injecting drug use
D /Irk<YE][j<Ej
c. Vertical transmission
d. Blood transfusion

282. What is the most effective means of preventing STI?

< 1hI]NE][G]Z
b. Contact tracing
c. Drug compliance
d. Routine screening of sexual workers

GONORRHEA
283. The pathognomonic sign of gonorrhea is:
a. Nocturnal ani
D YIIj
c. Dyspareunia
d. Chancre

284. Another term to connote gonorrhea is, except:

a. Strain
D !]g[Q[OGg]d
c. GC
G <GDY]]G

285. The most common reportable sexually transmitted disease is:

a. Trichomoniasis
b. Chylamydia
c. Syphilis
G ][]ggPI<

286. Neisseria gonorrhea and Treponema pallidum is contracted only during sexual intercourse because:
a. These microorganisms need physical contact to transfer from one another.
D 0PIhIZQEg]]gO<[QhZhY]pIPI<j<[GOg]qN<hjqPI[D]GsjIZdIg<jkgIQhPQOP
c. These microorganisms are active only during sexual intercourse.
d. These microorganisms possess the ability to penetrate only during sexual contact.

287. Neisseria gonorrhea have the ability to be transferred from the infective male going to the partner through:
< GPIhQ][]NjPIZQEg]]gO<[QhZj]jPIhdIgZGkgQ[OIrdkYhQ][
b. Enterotoxin production that is transmitted by the sperm
c. Penile contact to the mucosa of the vagina transmits the microorganism
d. Oral and anal sex even without withdrawal

288. The female who contracted the microorganism may have sterility because:
a. Microorganism attacks the ovaries and kills egg cells
D [G]j]rQ[d<g<YsvIEQYQ<Q[jPIN<YY]dQ<[jkDI
c. The microorganism clogs in the cervical opening preventing sperm to enter
d. Uterus keeps on contracting expulsing sperm away due to toxins produced by the microorganism

289. The drug of choice in the treatment of gonorrhea is:

< +I[QEQYYQ[
b. Azithromycin
c. Tetracycline
 d. Metronidazole

290. Which of the following is true about gonorrhea?

< IZ<YIh<gI<hsZdj]Z<jQEE<ggQIghZ<XQ[Ojg<[hZQhhQ][]NGQhI<hIpIgsI<hs<[Gk[GQ<O[]hIG
b. Males do not manifest any signs and symptoms for the first 10 days
c. Females produces a vaginal discharge that is cheesy in appearance
d. Infection of the eyes among infants is not possible unlike tetanus neonatorum

291. Which of the following are the possible complications of gonorrhea, except?
a. PID
b. Arthritis
c. Kidney damage
G QpIgEQggP]hQh

292. Syphilis is also known as:

< kIh
b. Trich
c. Gleet
d. Jack

293. The incubation period of syphilis is:

< ÂÁj]ÊÁG<sh
b. 2 to 10 days
c. 2 to 21 days
d. 4 to 20 days

294. The pathognomonic sign of syphilis is:

< P<[EgI
b. Gumma
c. Gleet
d. Painful urination

295. The presence of rashes, where the blood vessels are severely damaged, is an indicator that the stage of syphilis is now at what stage?
a. Primary
D /IE][G<gs
c. Latent
d. Tertiary

296. Syphilis microorganism is sensitive with antibiotics, specifically a single injection of:
a. Tetracycline
D I[v<jPQ[I+I[QEQYYQ[
c. Vancomycin
d. Metronifazole

297. The stage when a syphilis-infected individual remains infectious but not to other people:
a. Primary
b. Secondary
E <jI[j
d. Tertiary

298. The only sexually transmitted disease that may cause insanity is:
< /sdPQYQh
b. Gonorrhea
c. Trichomoniasis
d. Nonspecific vaginitis
299. The disease that manifests and same microbial invasion mechanism like that of Chylamydia and can only be differentiated through
culture test is:
a. Syphilis
D ][]ggPI<
c. Trichomoniasis
d. Herpes simplex

300. Cases of chylamdia is difficult to trace and diagnose because:

a. Microorganism is resistant to staining
D IZ<YIhqP]<gIQ[NIEjIG<gIkhk<YYs<hsZdj]Z<jQE
c. Males do not report it because of cultural factors
d. Microorganism looks like that of Treponema pallidum

301. One of the most common cause of ectopic pregnancy brought by a sexually transmitted disease is:
a. Syphilis
b. Gonorrhea
E PsY<ZsGQ<
d. Herpes simplex

302. The incubation period of Trichomonas vaginalis is

a. 10-20 days
b. 14-21 days
c. 10-30 days
G şÃÁG<sh

303. The distinguishing characteristic of vaginal discharge of those with is Trichomoniasis is:
< 7PQjIŸOgII[QhPGQhEP<gOIqQjPNQhPYQXI]G]g
b. Cheesy like discharge
c. Whitish with red spots discharge
d. Vinegar smelling greenish discharge

304. The medicine of choice for female who are infected with Trichomonas vaginalis is?
< !Ijg][QG<v]YI
b. Tetracycline
c. Penicillin
d. Erythromycin

305. The possible complication of trichomoniasis is:

a. PID
D IgpQE<YE<[EIg
c. Sterility
d. Blindness

306. A kind of candidiasis manifested in the nails is known as:

< $[sEP]ZsE]hQh
b. Moniliasis
c. Thrush
d. Diaper rash

307. Which of the following may likely contribute to the development of Candidiasis, except?
a. Cancer
b. Diabetes
c. Broad spectrum antibiotics
G IgIGQj<gsN<Ej]gh

308. Which of the following medication is effective against oral thrush?

< "shj<jQ[h]YkjQ][j<XI[Åj]ÇjQZIh<G<shqQhPIG<[Ghq<YY]qIG
 b. Imidazole suppository five times a day for 2 weeks
c. Myconazole retained for five minutes in the mouth then discarded
d. Amphotericin B via IV

309. Nursing management for Candidiasis includes:

a. Provide a diet high in alkaline
D +g]pQGIE<gIN]gQjEPQ[O
c. Increase fluid intake
d. Weigh the client everyday

310. Herpes simplex type that is transmitted through kissing, sharing kitchen utensils and/or sharing towels:
< 0sdIÂ
b. Type 2
c. Latent type
d. Type 3

311. Herpes simplex type that causes minor rash, itching, muscular pain and burning sensation is:
a. Type 1
D 0sdIÃ
c. Latent type
d. Type 3

312. The leading sexually transmitted disease among industrialized countries is:
< IgdIhhQZdYIr
b. Syphilis
c. Gonorrhea
d. Candidiasis

313. The first name for the end stage of HIV infection and coined on 1981 is:
< <sŸgIY<jIGQZZk[]GINQEQI[Eshs[Gg]ZI
b. Hypo-immunity syndrome
c. Acquired immune deficiency disease
d. Venereal disease

314. The year when Philippines had its first case of AIDS:
a. 1983
D ÂÊÉÅ
c. 1985
d. 1986

315. The second to largest region where AIDS is prevalent:

a. Africa
D /]kjP<hjhQ<
c. Latin America
d. Europe

316. The causative agent of AIDS is:

< .Ijg]pQgkh 0 6ŸÄ
b. Human lentivirus immuno-deficiency virus
c. Human immunocompetent virus
d. G6 PD virus

317. The period where no manifestations are observed for patient infected with HIV and laboratory results shows no remarkable immune
system defect?
< /Ig]ŸE][pIghQ][dIgQ]G
b. Cell-mediated period
c. Fastigium period
 d. Early asymptomatic period

318. How many times would a laboratory technician to withdraw blood sample from a patient to satisfy ELISA and Western Blot diagnostic
procedure?
< $[I
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four

319. The golden standard for confirming a positive individual infected with HIV:
a. ELISA
D 7IhjIg[Y]j
c. Immunosorbent test
d. Fluorescent Antibody test

320. A patient infected with HIV is said to be on its late stage when his/her CD4 cells are:
< IY]qÃÁÁEIYYh›ZZÄ
b. Below 300 cells/mm3
c. Below 400 cells/mm3
d. Below 100 cells/mm3

321. The transmission of HIV of a mother to her baby is known as:

< 6IgjQE<Yjg<[hZQhhQ][
b. Horizontal transmission
c. Definitive transmission
d. Diagonal transmission

322. Transmission of HIV is possible through, except:

a. Sexual contact
D QhhQ[O
c. Blood transfusion
d. Use of contaminated syringe

323. Opportunistic infection present during the early symptomatic stage includes all of the following, except:
a. Toxoplasmosis
b. Herpes Simplex
c. Candidiasis
G +[IkZ]EshjQEE<gQ[QQ+[IkZ][Q<

324. The leading cause of death among patients with AIDS is:
a. Herpes Simplex
b. Candidiasis
E 0kDIgEkY]hQh
d. AIDS-related Dementia

325. An enzyme of an HIV that causes transformation of RNA to DNA is known as:
a. Protease
D .IpIghIjg<[hEgQdj<hI
c. Integrase
d. Nuclease

326. The following are the consideration in taking good care of clients with HIV except:
a. Gloves should be worn when handling blood specimen, soiled linen or any body fluids.
D 0PIgZ]ZIjIgQhq<hPIGqQjPq<gZh]<dsq<jIg<[Gh]<XhQjqQjPÅÁÚ<YE]P]YN]gÂÁZQ[kjIh
c. Avoid contact to open wound or lesions.
d. Universal precaution and body substance isolation is a must.
327. Blood spills should be cleaned up promptly with a disinfectant solution of:
< ]khIP]YGDYI<EP
b. Alcohol
c. Iodine
d. Hydrogen peroxide

328. Patients with AIDS are said to immunocompromised. Which of the following intervention is the nurse would likely best perform to prevent
further infection:
a. Administration of antibiotics, as ordered
D <[Gq<hPQ[O
c. Monitor for oral infection and meningitis
d. Always check laboratory records of WBC and CD4 cells

329. Drug of choice for HIV is:

a. Indinavir
D ;QG]p]kGQ[I
c. Ritonavir
d. Acyclovir

330. Client refused to answer some of the questions asked by the nurse during the assessment phase. What will the nurse do?
< .IhdIEjEYQI[j’hQ[<DQYQjsj]GQhEkhhdg]DYIZ
b. Encourage verbalizations until information is extracted
c. Let the patient sign a refusal slip
d. Report patient to DOH at once

331. According to the goals of Reproductive health, all are true, except,
a. Every pregnancy should be intended
b. Every birth should be healthy
E pIgsq]ZI[hP]kYGDIOQpI[E][G]Zj]dg]jIEjPIghIYNNg]Z/0<[GdgIO[<[Es
d. Every sex should be free of coercion and infection

332. The four C’s of STD management includes all of the following, except:
a. Condom
b. Contact-tracing
c. Counseling
G ]]dIg<jQ][

333. Which of the management is included in the proposed strategy by the DOH to prevent mosquito-causing diseases such as dengue and
malaria?
a. Insecticide treated mosquito net
b. Breeding of larva-eating fish
c. Stream clearing
G 1hI]N$Y]jQ][j]jPIhXQ[

334. A mosquito net is said to be effective against mosquito, if the following characteristics is observed, except:
a. It is treated with pyethroid or pyethrinoids.
b. It must have 156 holes/ square inch.
c. It must be tuck under the bed or mat.
G 7QjP<hI<YDsjPI$<hQ[hdIEjIG

335. Stream seeding involves the following considerations, except:

< <[Qj]gNQhPQh<[INNIEjQpINQhPjP<jI<jhY<gp<
b. 2-4 fish per square meter should be placed for immediate result
c. 200 – 400 fish per hectare for delayed impact are bred.
d. Bio-ponds will be created by the Local Government Unit.

336. N-diethyl-D-toluamide is an effective chemical against mosquito because it provide protections for how many hours?
 a. 24 hours
D şÂÃP]kgh
c. 12 to 24 hours
d. 2-3 hours only

337. The mosquito instead of biting distal humans , bits an animal proximal to it. This technique is also known as:
a. Chemoprophylaxis
D ;]]dg]dPsY<rQh
c. Faunoprophylaxis
d. Malaria-dengue animal technique

338. A soap that is recommended by DOH that will propel mosquitoes away:
a. Safeguard
b. Lifebuoy
c. Likas Papaya
G <[v][Ihh]<d

339. A local plant that is proven to repel mosquito away:

a. Talahib
D 0<[OY<G
c. Tsaang gubat
d. Talong

DENGUE HEMORRHAGIC FEVER

340. Another term for dengue hemorrhagic fever is:
a. Brickback fever
b. Brokenbone syndrome
E gI<XD][INIpIg
d. Brokeback fever

341. The first dengue case in the Philippines was reported last:
< ÂÊÆÄ
b. 1958
c. 1984
d. 1985

342. Dengue cases usually peaks in months of:

< kYsj]"]pIZDIg
b. February to April
c. September to December
d. January to December

343. Among the viral strain of Dengue, the most common is, dengue virus type:
a. 1
D Ã
c. 3
d. 4

344. The following are the vectors that can carry the dengue virus, except:
a. Culex fatigans
b. Aedes Aegypti
c. Aedes albopictus
G IGIhd]IEQYkh

345. Characteristics of mosquito causing dengue includes all of the following, except:
a. Low flying mosquito
b. Bites at the lower extremities
 c. Bites before sunrise and sunset
G gIIGh][<NY]qQ[Oq<jIg

346. The virus attacks what blood formed element:

a. Thrombocytes
D !IO<X<gs]EsjIh
c. Eryhtrocytes
d. Leukocytes

347. Which of the following manifestations of the client, that according to WHO, may lead to definitive diagnosis of Dengue Hemorrhagic fever,
except:
a. Fever lasting 2-7 days
b. Thrombocytopenia
c. Positive tourniquet test plus petechiae, ecchymoses, purpura
G DG]ZQ[<Yd<Q[dYkhW]Q[jNIpIg

348. In what stage is Herman’s sign clinically manifested by the client?

< IDgQYIhj<OI
b. Hemorrhagic stage
c. Circulatory failure stage
d. Hypovolemic Shock

349. Which of the following are the signs and symptoms of bleeding among clients with Dengue, except?
< IZ]djshQh
b. Melena
c. Hematochezia
d. Hematemesis

350. Which of the following signs and symptoms would indicate that the client is in the late stage of dengue infection?
a. Vomiting of blood
b. Herman’s sign
E sd]jI[hQ][g<dQGqI<XdkYhI[<gg]qdkYhIdgIhhkgI
d. Abdominal pain with bone pain

351. A positive Rumpel Lead’s test indicates that:

a. Decrease blood supply is observed in the arm with tourniquet
D ÃÁ]gZ]gIdIjIEPQ<I<gIdgIhI[jdIgÂQ[EPhfk<gI
c. The client manifests general flushing of the skin
d. Melena is observed in the stool

352. Which of the following laboratory results will the nurse consistently monitors to those patients with Dengue?
a. Troponin
D +Y<jIYIjE]k[j
c. Liver Enzymes
d. Viral count

353. Which of the following management are not included to patients with Dengue?
a. Administer Vitamin K.
b. Complete bed rest
E +g]pQGIq<gZjPj]d<jQI[jhQNd]hhQDYIE]ZN]gjIgh
d. Do not give aspirin in cases of fever.

354. Majority of patients with dengue are candidate for transfusion if their platelet level is:
a. Below 150
b. Below 100
E IY]qÆÁ
d. Below 25
355. To prevent hypovolemic shock for patients with dengue, the nurse understands that this management is aimed to prevent such case:
a. Give ORS 75 ml/kg in 4 to 6 hours for children
D QpI$./$ kdj]Ãj]Ä N]gEPQYGgI[
c. Give one to three cups oral rehydration solution, in every bout
d. ORESOL will only be given to patients with those who are experiencing vomiting and diarrhea

356. In cases that the client is experiencing melena, what would be the most appropriate nursing response?
a. Provide ice chips
D EID<O]pIgjPI<DG]ZI[
c. Low fat, low fiber diet
d. Assume dorsal recumbent position

357. Which of the following diet can be given to patient with Dengue?
a. DAT
D "]]GYIh]kd
c. Pineapple and watermelon
d. NPO

358. Which of the following nursing intervention is best aimed against the prevention of dengue cases?
a. Insecticide use
D I<YjPIGkE<jQ][
c. Hand washing
d. Contact tracing

359. Another term for malaria is:

a. Brokeback fever
D OkI
c. Bilharziasis
d. Weil’s disease

360. The Plasmodium species that is most common in the Philippines and accounts for 70% of all malarial cases:
< +N<YEQd<gkZ
b. P. vivax
c. P. malariae
d. P. ovale

361. Which of the following species of plasmodium doesn’t exist in the Philippines?
a. P. falciparum
b. P. vivax
c. P. malariae
G +]p<YI

362. The following are the characteristics of malaria-causing mosquito, except:

a. Only female mosquito bites
b. Breeds on partly shaded water
c. Bites at night
G YI<[hj<O[<[jq<jIgQh<O]]GDgIIGQ[OhQjI

363. Which of the following vectors is the most common mosquito transmitting the Plasmodium species in the country?
a. Anopheles litoralis
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c. Anopheles balabacensis
d. Anopheles mangyanus

364. Plasmodium as an amoeba undergoes cycle. Which of the following is considered the definitive host of malaria?
a. Humans
 b. Streams
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d. Fly

365. What is the protozoan form that is present in the salivary glands of the mosquito?
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b. Merozoites
c. Thropozoites
d. Gametocytes

366. The protozoan stage present in the RBC, multiplies and causes lysis:
a. Sporozoites
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c. Thropozoites
d. Gametocytes

367. The initial and primary site of merozoite multiplication is found in the:
a. Lungs
b. Kidneys
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d. Gall bladder

368. The protozoa Plasmodium causes organ failure due to:

a. Production of toxins that causes cell death
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c. Formation of merozoites that inhibits cellular metabolism
d. Sequestration of water from the cell causing cellular lysis or dehydration

369. Amazingly, patients with malaria have a cycle of cold, hot and diaphoretic stage. Fever is evident in a particular period of time and not all
through the disease process because:
a. During febrile stage toxins are present.
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c. During febrile stage, iron is sequestered by the liver.
d. During febrile stage, the gametocytes are produced.

370. A diagnostic procedure that is a must in every case of Malaria in a certain community:
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b. Quantitative Buffy Coat
c. ELISA
d. Nocturnal Blood Examination

371. The drug of choice against malaria is:

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b. N-diethyl-D-toluamide
c. Pyethrinoids
d. Biltricide

372. Blood Schizonticides are given with the following dose:

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b. Given at a dose of 5 mg/kg once a day for two days, then 10 mg/kg single dose on the third day
c. Given at a dose of 10 mg/kg twice a day for two days, then 5mg/kg single dose on the third day
d. Given at a dose of 5 mg/kg twice a day for two days, then 5mg/kg single dose on the third day

373. Which of the following health teachings will be included if the patient is taking chloroquine?
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b. It should be given before meals.
c. Can be given even before C and S is completed or confirmed.
 d. Frequent ambulation is required when taking the medication.

374. Which of the following term is use to connote Filariasis?

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b. Schistosomiasis
c. Ascariasis
d. Trichenelliasis

375. Causative agent of Filariasis that accounts for 90% of all the cases:
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b. Brugia malayi
c. Brugia timori
d. Oncomelania quadrasi

376. The following regions in the Philippines, where Filariasis is said to be endemic are, except:
a. Region V
b. Region IX
c. Region X
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377. The immediate source or vector of Filariasis is:

a. Aedes Aegypti
b. Anopheles flavistoris
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d. Anopheles mangyanus

378. Lymphadenitis, Lymphangitis, epidydimitis is evidently seen in what clinical stage of Filariasis?
a. Asymptomatic stage
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c. Chronic stage
d. Immune stage

379. The enlargement and thickening of the skin of the lower extremities and/or upper extremities, scrotum or breast is known as:
a. Lymphedema
b. Lymphadenitis
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d. Funiculitis

380. A clinical diagnostic procedure for Filariasis that can be done at daytime:
a. NBE
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c. MBS
d. ELISA

381. Drug of choice for filarisis is:

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b. Biltricide
c. Chloroquine
d. Praziquantel

382. Medication given to client that kills the microfilirae may be given with this drug to prevent side effects:
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b. Penicillin
c. Metronidazole
d. Amoxicillin

383. Hydrocele among infected individuals with filariasis is surgically intervened through:
 a. Ligation and stripping of the lymphatics of pedicle of affected kidneys
b. Lymphoveous anastamosis
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d. Fistulectomy

384. Nocturnal form of filariasis-causing microorganism is active during:

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b. 8 PM to 12 PM
c. 12 PM to 5 AM
d. 7 PM to 10 AM

385. The medical term similar to schistosomiasis is :

a. Brokeback fever
b. Ague
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d. Weil’s disease

386. The causative agent of the Schistosomiasis that have the strong affinity with the urinary system is:
a. S. haematobium
b. S. mansoni
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d. S. schistosomium

387. The intermediate host of schistosoma species is:

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b. Aedes poecilus
c. Humans
d. Cattle

388. The infective stage of Schistosoma is:

a. Oncomelania
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c. Trophozoite
d. Gametocytes

389. The drug of choice for schistosomiasis:

a. Hetrazan
b. Doxycycline
c. Chloroquine
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390. Alternative drug for S. mansoni is:

a. Hetrazan
b. Biltricide
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d. Oxamniquine

391. After exposure to water, the susceptible individual must:

a. Drink the medication that has been prescribed as prophylaxis
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c. Treat water with iodine, standing 48 to 72 hours before use
d. Use rubber boots

392. Leptospirosis is also known as, except:

a. Weil’s disease, mud fever
b. Trench fever, flood fever
c. Spiroketal jaundice, Japanese seven days fever
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393. Which of the following characteristics does not refer to Leptospira species:
a. Species is divided into 19 serogroups and 200 serovar
b. Icterohemorrhagiae subspecies causes Weil’s disease and is most virulent
c. It is a slender spirochete with hooked ends
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394. Which of the following are the correct consecutive steps in the disease progression of leptospirosis?
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b. Icteric – septicemic and immune; anicteric – jaundice and hemorrhagic
c. Anicteric - jaundice and hemorrhagic; icteric – septicemic and immune
d. Anicteric – septicemic and jaundice; icteric hemorrhagic and immune

395. The clinical phase where jaundice is an evident clinical manifestation of Leptospirosis:
a. Leptospiremic phase
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c. Septicemic phase
d. Hemorrhagic phase

396. The following are the test for leptospirosis and with its respective day of specimen collection. Which of the following is incorrectly paired:
a. Blood – after 7 to 10 days
b. Urine – 7 days after
c. CSF – during the 10th day
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397. Which of the following is the primary carrier of Leptospira species?

a. Snails
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c. Dog
d. Bats

398. Which of the following preventive measures is the most effective against leptospirosis?
a. Use of rubber boots
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c. Use of chemoprophylactic drugs
d. Water treatment

399. Which of the following measure is the most effective method of preventing communicable diseases?
a. Information dissemination
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c. Communication
d. Hand washing

400. The following statement refers to the objective of EPI?

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b. To reduce the morbidity among children
c. Reduce the mortality among the children
d. Reduce the maternal mortality