MICROBIOLOGY

1. Which one of the following characteristics is not true for molds colonies?

- Mold’s colonies are smaller than those of bacteria

2. Which of the following terms is not correct about viral envelope?

- It is stable against drying, acid and detergent

3. Which one of the following is not acquired via the bites of arthropod vectors?

- Entamoeba

4. Which one of the following is wrong for tyndallization?

- It is a chemical sterilization method

5. Which of the following describe the autoclaving condition?

- 121 degree 15 ps. 15-25 min heat stem

6. If there is gas, foul smell, or sulfur granules in clinical samples, which one of the following
microorganisms is most probably responsible for this infection?

- Obligate anaerobe bacteria

7. Which of the characteristics is not used for classification of viruses?

- Chemical composition of mesosome

8. Which one of the parasites does attach to trypsin-activated lectin and mannose-6phosphate?

- Giardia lambia

9. Which sentence is not true about fungi?

- Their colonies are smaller than bacterial colonies

10. Which one of the following microscopes can be used for observing spirochete?

- Dark Field Microscopes

11. Which one of the followings can not be used to treat bacterial infection?

- Interferon

12. Which of the following culturing medium kills gram positive and is selective for gram negatives
(microbial growth and culture):

- EMB agar
13. Which one of the following microbial properties cannot be used for direct laboratory diagnosis of
infectious diseases?

- Antigenic structure of microorganism

14. Which of the following structures determine the shape of bacteria?

- Cell Wall

15. Which one of the following mediums can only be used for fungi culture?

- Sabourad dextrose agar

16. Which of the following antimicrobials inhibits cell-wall synthesis of fungi?

- Echinocandine

17. Which one of the following is the most resistant to sterilization?

- Spores

18. Which one is following wrong for parasites?

- Protozoa’s are multicellular organisms B) The severity of illness is related to infecting dose and the
number of organisms

19. Which one of the following sentences is not true for bacterial flagella?

- They are present all bacteria

20. Which one of the following microorganisms produces elementary body in their life cycle?

- Chlamydia

21. Which one of the following cannot be used to check bacterial growth in liquid medium?

- Colony shape

22. Which one of the following is a biological indicator of monitoring steam autoclave?

- Bacillus stearothermophilus

23. Which one of the following antimicrobials inhibit cell wall synthesis by inferring movement
peptidoglycan precursor through the cytoplasmic membrane?

- Bacitracin

24. Which one of the following is responsible majorly of variations in viruses?

- Transposable elements

25. What is the feature that Gram positive and Negative both have?

- NAMA
26. Which one of structure present all gram positive and gram-negative cell wall?

- n-acetymuramik acid

27. Which one of the following events can result in stop codon formation?

- Nonsense mutation

28. Which one of the following antimicrobials does show bactericitatic effect against many gram positive
bacteria?

- Erythromycin

29. Which one of the following antimicrobials cannot be used to has an anaerobic infection?

- Tobramicin

30. Which of the following conditions is not associated with dimorphism?

- Presence of polyenes

31. Which one of the following can lead to lysogenic transformation?

- Temperate phage

32. Which one of the following microbial properties cannot be used for direct laboratory diagnosis of
infectious diseases?

- Antigenic structure of microorganism

33. Which one of followings can inhibit viral uncoating?

- Rimantadine

34. Which of the following is not an obligate factor for the growth of human pathogens?

- Light

35. Which one of the following has a function on the direct DNA repair mechanism?

- Photolyase

36. Which one of the following antimicrobials can be used to treat a patient who has a chlamydia
infection?

- Tetracyline

37. Which of the following microorganism do not have both catalase and superoxide dismutase
enzymes?

- Obligate anaerobic bacteria

38. Which of the following is more resistant to high temperature?

- Prion
39. Which one of the following information is wrong for parasites?

- The protozoa are multicellular celled organisms

40. Which of the following substances is present in the cell wall of fungi?

- N-Acetyleglucasamine

41. Which one of the following molecules have function on DNA replication?

- DnaA protein

42. A man living in a rural area of Turkey has a large, painless sores on his head and face and diagnosed
as cutaneous leishmaniasis. This man has probably come into contact with which of the following
vectors?

- Sand flies

43. Which one of the following procedure is used to determine WBC in sputum?

- Microscopic examination

44. Which one of the following virus replicate in nucleous of the infected cell?

- Orthomyxoviruses

45. Which one of the following antimicrobial can be used to treat a patient who has an Anaplasma
infection?

- Doxycyclin

46. Which one of the following antimicrobials can be used to treat Mycoplasma infection?

- Minocycline

47. Which one of the following is an asexual spore produced by fungi?

- Blastoconidia

48. Which one of the following viruses does use its RNA as an mRNA for protein synthesis?

- Flavivirus

49. Which one of the following media is used for fungal isolation?

- Sabouraud Dextrose agar

50. Which of the following can lead to lysogenic transformation?

- Temperate phage

51. Which one of the following antimicrobials can be used to treat a patient who has a chlamydia
infection?

- Tetracyline
52. Which one of the following antimicrobials does not inhibit Mycobacterial growth?

- Daptomycin

53. In which of the following DNA repair mechanism, the photolyase is used to remove pyrimidine
dimers and alkylated bases in DNA?

- Direct DNA repair

54. Regarding transport of nutrients in bacterial cells, which of the following statements is wrong?

- Transport of some nutrients by facilitated diffusion needs a protein carrier and ATP

55. Which of the following medium does have inhibitors for Gram positive bacteria?

- McConkey agar

56. Which one of the following viruses can show antigenic shift?

- Segmented RNA viruses

57. Regarding targets of antimicrobial, which one of the following coupling is wrong?

- Sulfonamides---dihydrofolate reductase

58. Which one of the following fungal structures can be used in a diagnostic test for invasive fungal
infection?

- Beta D-glucan

59. Microscopy is used in microbiology for many purposes. Which one of the following properties of
microorganisms can not be obtained by microscopic examination?

- The number of bacteria in a colony

60. Which of the following can be used to obtain pure culture?

- Streak culture

61. Which one of the following structures does not present in any of the human viruses?

- Lysozyme

62. Which of the following microorganisms do not have both peptidoglycan layer and
Lipopolysaccharide in their cell wall?

- Orientia

63. Which one of the following antibiotics can not be used to inhibit the intracellular growth of
Chlamydia?

- Gentamicin
64. Which one of the following information is wrong for parasites?

- Trichomonas vaginalis is transmitted by fecal oral route

65. Which of the following microorganisms do have major outer membrane proteins (MOMP), which are
species- and strain- specific

- Chlamydia

66. Regrading antiviral action, which one of the following couplings is wrong?

- Zanamavir----uncoating inhibitor

67. Most of the human pathogens are neutrophiles, however some of them are able to grow at pH8.5-
11. What is called for these extremophilic bacteria?

- Alkaliphiles

68. Which of the followings can be used to observe motility of the microorganism?

- Wet mount slide

69. Direct macroscopic examination of the clinical samples gives us very useful data about the infection.
Which of the following data can not be obtained by macroscopic examination of the clinical sample?

- Cyst of protozoa

70. Which one of the following media kills gram positive bacteria and selective for isolation of gram
negatives?

- Eosin, methylene blue agar (EMB)

71. Which one of the following bacterial components can be used for vaccine preparation?

- Capsule

72. Which of the following does control the onset of initiation of bacterial DNA replication?

- DnaA

73. Which one of the following structures can not be used for classification and/or identification of
Fungi?

- Sequence analysis of 16S rDNA

74. Which one of the following fungi are classified in Eurotiomycetes

- Aspergillus

75. Which one of the following structures is present in Mycoplasma, Gram-positive, and Gram-negative
bacteria?

- DNA with associated RNA and proteins

76. Which of the following bacteria have a division in two perpendicular planes?

- Sarcina

77. Which one of the following dyes can be used to stay Gram negative bacteria in Gram staining
technique?

- Safranin

78. Which one of the following bacterial components can transport peptidoglycan monomers across the
cell membrane?

- Bactoprenol

79. Which of the following features cannot be used for classification of fungi?

- Gram staining

80. Which one of the following method can be used for subtyping of bacteria?

- Molecular methods

81. Which one include known oldest organism?

- Prokaryot

82. Not true for phase contrast microscope?

- Max magnification is 5000x

83. Not true about classification of virion?

- Gram stain

84. When sufficient bacteria are present in infection site they produce some specific small molecule to
activate their virulence genes. What is it called?

- Quorum sensing

85. Which of the followings does act as a cement to strengthen of peptidoglycans?

- WTA

86. Which is present in all pathogenic bacteria?

- Glycocalyx

87. Which structure shows variation between gram+ and gram- bacteria?

- Amino acid at position 3 in the tetrapeptide side chains

88. Can be obtained simple stain method?

- Shape of bacteria
89. Which is not correct regarding the bacteria endospore?

- Does not have peptidoglycan layer

90. Which is found only in the gram negative cell wall?

- Lipid A

91. Which is not belong cell membrane function?

- Biofilm

92. Which one is not true for bacterial endospores?

- Produced by only gram+ rods

93. Not correct?

- Flagella are originated from cytoplasm

94. Which one is not true for L form bacteria?

- Treated with cephalospor

95. Which one is onbly present in Gram(-)?

- Fimbria

96. What is the name of bacteria which have flagella/fimbria all over the bacteria?

- Pentricous

97. What is wrong about outer membrane?

- Between cell membrane and peptidoglycan layer

98. Regarding to bacterial endospores wrong information?

- Germination is the product of many vegatative cells from one spore

99. Which antibiotic does not inhibit Gram (-) bacteria?

- Vancomycin

100. Which one is wrong about fimbria?

- Long than flagella

101. Which one is wrong about L form ?

- L forms of bacteria aren’t resistant to antibiotics

102. Which one of the following is wrong for bacteria in death phase?

- Spores are made in this phase.

103. Regarding human pathogens, which of the following is true?

- All are chemoheterotrophic.

104. Which microorganism can't pass 0.45 mm filters?

- Capsulated bacteria

105. A non-capsulated streptococcus pneumoniae is mixed with DNA of capsulated S. pneumoniae

strain, after this process non-capsulated S.pneumoniae strain begin to produce capsule. Which of
following gene transfer mechanism was happened in this process?

- Transformation

106. Which can grow in 90 degrees Celsius?

- Archea

107. Which one is wrong for Rickettsia?

- Can grow only in blood agar

108. Which one of the following media kills gram positive bacteria and isolated gram negative bacteria?

- EMB

109. Which one of the following information is wrong?

- Transposone is a plasmid that can integrate into the bacterial chromosome.

110. which one is not essential to bacteria growth and life?

- Capsule

111. Which one is not true?

- All bacterias generations are less than 30 minutes

112. which one of the following functions is provided by bacteriophage?

- Transduction

113. Which is not true for chlamydia?

- After internalization, chlamydia degrades the phagosome membrane release into cytoplasm

114. Which one of following molecules doesn’t have role in bacterial replication?

- Reverse transcriptase

115. Which culture kills the gram positive bacteria?

- EMB
116. In what phase the bacteria grow in size?

- Lag phase

117. Which is not true for rickettsia?

- Stained well with gram stain

118. Which of the following culture technique is used for bacteriophagial typing?

- Solid culture

119. Which of these is not true for bacteria?

- DNA arranged by histones

120. Which one is not true about Erichia Anoplasma?

- Enrichment medium growing

121. Which microorganism forms “fried‐egg” colonies?

- Mycoplasma

122. Which one is subtyping method?

- Biotyping

123. Not correct for human pathogenic bacteria?

- Some of them halophilic

124. Which is major component for bacterial variability in natural population?

- Mobile genetic elements

125. From living together, one living thing benefits and the other is harmed. This way of life?

- Parasites

126. Which microorganism does not have ribosome?

- Viruses

127. Which one is not necessary for growth of microorganisms?

- Agar

128. Which one has sterol in its cell membrane?

- Mycoplasma

129. What is alteration between purine base and another purine base?

- Transition
130.

1.Chlamydia: common family antigen

2. Time taken to adapt: lag phase

3. lytic-----lysogenic bacteriophage

4. liquid media--->turbidity

131. Which one of the following terms is not correct for Chlamydia?

- They are susceptible to antibiotics which Inhibit peptidoglycan synthesize

132. Which medium is a selective medium for halophilic bacterium?

- Mannitol salt agar

133. Which one the following structures does not present in bacterial cytoplasm?

- Elementary body

134. Which one is not correct for Mycoplasma?

- They are resistant to antibiotics which are the cell wall inhibitors

135. Which one is wrong for EMB agar?

- Gram (+) bacteria can grow on EMB.

136. Which one is not correct about blood agar?

- it is selective

137. Which is not a property of chocolate agar?

- Virus can be cultured in it

138. Which show positive reaction for catalasetest?

- indicated by bubbling

139. which one of the following structure is responsible for absorption of fungal nutrients?

- Vegetative hyphae

140. Regarding to colonies of mold which one of the following information is wrong?

- They are rough colonies

141. Which is not an example of fungal asexual spores?

- Basidiospores

142. Which one is not an anti‐fungal ?

- Amantadine.
143. Which of these is not true for fungi?

- All are decidous

144. General properties fungi wrong?

- Obligateanaerop

145. Which is the following structure is not present fungal cell?

- Fimbria

146. Which one is wrong about mold colonies?

Resemble bacterial colonies*(true for yeast)

147. Which statement is wrong?

- T. vaginalis is transmitted in oral- faceal way

148. Perianal collection is important for which bacteria?

- Enterobius vermicularis

149. Which one of the following is wrong about blood films?

- In thick films methanol fixation is used

150. Which one is wrong about antimicrobial agents?

- Griseofulvin --> Inhibition of ergosterol synthesis

151. Which are of the followings cannot be used as anti-viral drug?

- Linezolid

152. Regarding to viral inclusion, which of the following is wrong?

- They are always situated in nucleus of infected cell

153. Which one is wrong for viruses?

- Naked viruses are released from cell without lysing

154. Which structure is not found any of viruses?

- Outer membrane

155. Which one is not true viroid?

- They are dsDNA molecules

156. Which one is not true for naked virus?

- Released by budding of host cells

157. Fresh stools should be exanimated under the microscope by using wet mount technique. Which
one of the following is false for wet mount tech.

- Bacteria

158. Which one false for thick film method?

- it requires methanol fixation before the staining

159. Not true about classification of virion?

- Gram stain

160. Which one of them interrupts D alanine D alanine termini on polypeptide side chain?

- Vancomycin

161. Which is wrong for helminths?

- Unicellular

162. Which one of characteristic can not be used detected virus in infected host?

- Observation reticulate body

163. Which statement about autoclaving is false?

- It uses fractional heating schedule in three days

164. What is called “capable of causing disease in previously healthy individual with intact immune
defenses?

- Primary pathogen

165. Which one cannot be used to detect viruses in infected host?

- Observation of colony morphology on solid medium

166. Which one is not direct diagnostic?

- Specific antibodies in clinical sample

167. Not used in laboratory diagnosis of infection diseases?

- Genetic recombination

168. Which is wrong for methylene blue?

- Methylene blue stains nuclei and often used for that purpose

169. Regarding to diagnosis of bacterial infection which of the following is a macrobacterial?

- Macro observation
170. Which one of the following statement can not limit usefulness of microbiological diagnosis?

- Take more then one sample

171. Which of the following is not mechanism of conversation of protoonconogene to onconogene?

- CpG island methylation in the promoter region

172. What is called for typing bacteria by using specific antibodies?

- serotyping

173. What is called for transfer of Hepatitis B virus surface antigen gene into escherichia coli?

- Transduction

174. Which protein has function on production of replication bubble at OriC?

- DnaA protein

175. Which is the viral form of chylamadia?

- Elementary body

178. Which of the followings is the type of bacterial growth?

- Binary fission

179. Antibiotic Question?

- Amphtericin-sterol inhibiton

180. Which one of the following is not a virulence factor of fungi?

- Shift

181. Which one of the following viruses has reverse transcription step at its replication cycle?

- Retrovirus

182. Which of the following cannot obtain macroscopic examination?

- Adult formation of the helminths

183. Which parasite can not transfer by water?

- Enterobius vermicularis

184. Which type of microscopy is used to examine bacteria that are stained by gram stain procedure?

- Bright-field microscopy

185. Which one is wrong for bacterial gram staining?

- In gram stain method, alcohol washing stage is killing bacterias

186. Which one of the following cellular structure is essential for Bacteria growth?

- Cell membrane

187. Which one is found in fungi?

- Beta glucan

188. Which one of the following is not a direct microbiological test used in diagnose of infectious
disease?

- Detection of antibody in serum

189. Which virus replicates in nucleus of the infected host?

- herpesviruses

190. For microscopic identification of which parasites Giemsa and Wright Staining can be used?

- Protozoa

191. Which one of the followings can not be seen by macroscopic examination of feces?

- Eggs

192. Which of the following shows the stage of Gram staining methods?

- Crystal Violet-Iodine-Ethanol-Safranin
193. Regarding to microbiology laboratory, which one of the following is observed by 40× objective of
light microscopy?

- Unstained microscopy of yeast

194. Which one is counterstrain in gram staining?

- Safranin

195. Which of the following cannot cause disease without the help of a suitable virus?

- Satellite ssRNA

196. Which one of the followings cannot be acquired by water consumption?

- Trichomonas Vaginalis

197. Which one of the following antibiotics does block protein elongation?

- Choloramphenicol

198. Which of the following drugs does inhibit ergosterol synthesis?

- Azoles
199. Which one of the following bacterial structures is an endotoxin?

- Lipid A

200. Which one of the following molecules having function on bacterial DNA synthesis is the target for
quinolones?

- Topoisomerases

201. If there is no visible growth on proper culture medium after overnight incubation, but there are
colonies after one month incubation. What is the generation time of this microorganism?

- 18-24 hour

102. Which type of Fungi produce germ tube?

- Candida albicans

203. Which of the following microscope types produces a three-dimensional image of the specimen?

- Differential Interference

204. Which one is the correct for Hierarchy of Taxonomic Categories?

- Enterobacteriaceae=>Escherichia=>Escherichia coli=>Escherichia coli O157:H7

205. Which of the following parasitic diseases is not caused by contaminated water?

- Trichinellosis

206. What is that bacteria divide in different directions and stay adjacent?

- Staphylococcus

207. Which one of the following microbiological investigations cannot be used for diagnosis of viral
infection?

- Macroscopic observation of the infectious agent

208. Which one is wrong about flagella?

- They originated from bacterial cell wall.

209. According to requirements of carbon and energy sources human pathogens are classified in which
one of the following groups?

- Chemoheterotrophic

210. Which one is wrong about helmiths?

- Multicellular organisms

211. Which one is used sterilization of injector?

- Ethylene Oxide
212. Which one of the following bacterial components can be used for vaccine preparation?
- Capsule
213. Which of the following structures is present in Mycoplasma, gram positive and gram
negative bacteria?
- DNA with associated RNA and protein

214. Which of the following is the most to resistant to sterilization?

- Spores
215. Regarding antiviral action, which one of the following coupling is wrong?
- Zanamavir - uncoating inhibitor
216. Which one of the following structures can not be used classification and/or identification
of fungi?

- Sequence analysis of 16s rDNA

217. Which of the following conditions is not associated with dimorphism?
- Presence of polyenes
218. Which one of the following is wrong for tyndallization?
- It's a chemical sterilization method

219. Which of the following is more resistant to high temperature?

- Prion
220. Which one of the below can not be obtained by microscope examination?
- Number of bacteria in colony
 BIOPHYSICS
1. Which mechanism of heat transfer is involved in heating a pot with water on a stove?

- Conduction

2. … converts biochemical events into measurable signals. Which is the correct word?

- Transducer

3. “During tension of foot, leg-kneegastroenemius muscle system act as a lever in ….” Fill in the
blanks with the following an appropriate class of lever.

- 3.class

4. Which one is wrong?

- Component of a system may not acquire a positional configuration that it has not got itself.

5. Which one of the followings is wrong for biomechanics?

- During straightening of arm extensors should not contract.

6. Who was the writer the book of “ Law of Medicine” ?

- ibn-i sina

7. Which one the application is thermodynamic?

I. Refrigerator

II. Gaz compressor

8. The heat doesn’t transfer spontaneously from cold to hot. Which thermodynamic law describes
that?

- Second Thermodynamic Law

9. Which one of the answers given below about proton-motive force transport processes in
mitochondria is incorrect?

- Movement of H+ from cytosol into matrix

10. “There are … forces between each bones and muscle.” Fill in the blanks with the approprite
phrases from those given below to form a complete.

- Action-reaction

11. Which of the following statement is wrong for biomechanics?

- II. During divergence of arm or pushing stg with hand, triceps apply a force to frontal arm bone as
lever in 2. class.
12. Consider the following thermodynamic properties.

I. work done on a system

II. heat absorbed

III. Entropy

Which of these properties are state functions?

- Only III

13. Which of the following is not the intensive property ........... Fill in the blank with the correct
answer.

- Heat

14. Which of the following statement is wrong for gradient?

- It is a scalar quantity

15. The basis for measuring the thermodynamic property of temperature is given by.............. Fill in
the blank with the correct answer.

- Zeroth law of thermodynamics

16. “_____“ is bioelectric measurement of the muscles. What is the correct word?

- Electromyography

17. Components of generalized medical instrumentation systems are shown with numbers in the
figure and their names are given below,

a. Signal Conditioning / b. Output Display / c. Sensor-Transducer / d. Measurand

Which match is the correct?

Answer: 1d- 2c- 3a- 4b

18. “The system does not change with time, and it is constant by time. The name of this state is … .
Fill in the blanks with the appropriate phrases from those given below to form a complete.

- Steady state

19. Electric current flows in the circuit from …………… terminal of the cell to the …………… terminal of
the cell. Fill in the blank with the correct answer.

- Positive, Negative

20. A person carries 20 kg load with his hand. The balanced force on the arm is 80 kg. What is the
mechanical advantage?

-¼
21. Which one is not one of the basic objectives of the instrumentation?

- Estimation

22. Which of the following scientist studied on the laws of viscous flow in vessels?

- Jean Louis Marie Poiseuille

23. Which of the following statement is not a property of open system?

- It doesn’t obtain negentropy

24. Which of the following statement is wrong for force and torque?

- The width of vertebra in human increases as go up

25. Which of the following statement is wrong for levers?

- During carrying weight with hand, biceps apply a force to frontal arm as lever in 2.class

26. Whenever energy is transformed, there is always an increase in the ….. Fill in the blank with the
correct answer

- Entropy of the universe

27. Which of the following is an example of potential rather than kinetic energy?

- A food molecule made up of energy-rich macromolecules

28. Which of the following is considered an open system?

- An organism

29. The work done by a closed system in a reversible process is always …. that done in an irreversible
process. Fill in the blank with the correct answer

- more than

30. …. is bioelectrical measurement of the muscles. What is the correct word?

- EMG (Electromyography)

31.

Which one of the following shows high precision but low accuracy?

- II

32. Which scientist works on "The Laws of Diffusion”?

- Adolf Fick
33. Which of the following is the first scientist discover the principle of color vision?

- Hermann Von Helmholtz

34. Which of the following statement is wrong Newton’s law and torque?

- Newton’s third law explains that for every acted force there is a reaction force, equal in size, in
direction

35. Which of the following type of work is performed when there is a change in the position of a cell or
of cell structure?

- Mechanical

36. E.O.G is a device what is used for?

- Cornea-Retina stranding potential

37. The source of bioelectric potential is ............ in nature. What is the correct answer?

- Ionic

38.

According to the picture what is the Moment of the weight on the elbow? (in Nm)

- 2.76

39. Which of the following statement is wrong Newton’s law and torque?

- Torque doesn’t depend on the fulcrum and the distance to fulcrum.

40. Which of the following statement wrong for the active membrane?

- Conductivity of sodium; don't depend on resistance of sodium.

41. Which one is right?

- Q reversible < Q irreversible and work reversible> work irreversible

42. When we touch the wood and metal spoon at the same temperature in the same environment, we
perceive the metal spoon colder. What is the reason of this?

- Thermal conductivity

43. ‘’The _______ is defined as a device that converts one form of energy to another. ’Complete the gap.

- Transducer

44. Which of the following scientist studied on the law of conservation of energy?

- Julius Robert Mayer

45. What does ion selectively depend on?

A)Diameter B)Charge C)Voltage

D)Channel. E)Shape

46. Which of the following statement is/are wrong for Goldmen-Holdgkin-Katz equation?

I. it describes only ion permeability

47.

Which battery equivale is correct for the K channel? ⬆️↖️

48. What is the largely responsible for negative resting membrane potential (around-70mv) in neuron?

- Electrogenic pump
49. At the peak of the action potential, the membrane potential is:............Fill in the blank with the
correct answer.

- Close to but less positive than the Na+ equilibrium potential (VNa)

50. If the cell membrane is -70 mV, and Nernst potential of Na+ is +55 mV, what is the electrochemical
potential of Na+?

- (-125mV)

51. Which of the below statement/s is/are true for gibbs-donnan potential?

II. The partial molar free energies for ions in both sides of membrane are in balance at equilibrium state.
III. At equilibrium state, there is electroneutrality for each side of membrane.

52. “….. occurs in the phospholipid bilayer of cell membrane” Fill in the blanks with correct phrase
below.

- Capacitive current

53. Which of the following patch clamp type is wrong?

- inside in

54. Which of the below statement/s is/are wrong for Goldman-Hodgkin-Katz equation?

- I. It describes only ion permeability

55. At what membrane voltage do neuronal voltage-gated Na+ channels become activated?

- (−50 mV)
56. If the cell membrane is -72 mV, and Nernst potential of K+ is -89 mV, what is the electrochemical
potential of K+?

- (+17 mV)

57. Membrane potential is a difference in electrical charge between ......... Fill in the blank with the
correct answer.

- The inside and outside of the cell

58. Neurons are specialized to receive, conduct and transmit .......... Fill in the blank with the correct
answer.

- Electrochemical signals

59. The resting membrane potential is close to the equilibrium potential for __________ because the
plasma membrane is relatively permeable to _______________. Fill in the blank with the correct
answer.

- K+, K+

60. Which of the following statements about ion channels is false?

- ATP is required for ion channels to function

61. Voltage regulation means ………. What is the correct answer?

- With changes in the membrane potential voltage-gated ion channels open and close

62. Which of the following statement is wrong for parameters of propagation of the action potentials?

- Time constant of cell membrane is not changed by the capacitance of the cell membrane.

63.

In figure, there are two sides which are separated by artificial membrane permeable to Na+ and Cl- ions
which are not at equilibrium. This membrane is not permeable to big A- ion. At initial state, there is
[NaA]= 6 mM in side I and there is [NaCl]= 6 mM in side II. According to the equilibrium state what is the
concentration of Cl- in side II ?

- 4 mM

64. Which of the following ions are directly involved in the generation of an action potential?

- Sodium ions (Na+) and potassium ions (K+)

65. When a neuron reaches action potential, it depolarizes and repolarizes in an amount of time on the
order of ________.

- Milliseconds

66. What is wrong for passive membrane?

- The transferred changes across the membrane at the unit time cannot calculate using the capacitive
current

67.

In figure, there are 2 sides which are separated by artificial membrane which is permeable to Na+ and
Cl- ions which are not at equilibrium. This membrane is not permeable for A-. For side 1 [NaA] is 3mM
and for side 2 [NaCl] is 3mM. At equilibrium state, what is the concentration of Cl- in side 2?

-2

68. The sodium potassium pump establishes concentration gradients....

- of higher sodium concentration outside the cell and higher potassium concentration inside the cell

69. Which of the following is wrong for active membrane?

- Cl is important for membrane potential.

70. Which one occurs when net charge is 0 although there is ion exist?

- Steady State

71. What happens if we block (close) the potassium (K+) leakage channels on a cell at resting membrane
potential?

- Cell membrane will be hyperpolarized

72. Which types of ions are the most in extracellular fluid?

- Na+

73. Which one is not a voltage gated channel?

- Li

74. What is passive answer of membrane?

- electrical potential

75. What ions are required for the Action Potential generation? - Na+\ K+ channels
76. .... is developed to explain the mechanism for propagation of the action potentials and excitability
from one part of a neuron or muscle to a distal part. Which of the following parameter is appropriate for
the blank?

- Cable Theory

77. Which is wrong for action potential?

- Time constant is not related to capacitance

78. Arrange these action potential events in their proper order:

1-Threshold level is reached. 2- K+ gates begin to open.

3- K+ gates close. 4- Na+ gates begin to open.

5- Na+ gates begin to close. 6- Membrane repolarization begins.

- 1→4→2→5→6→3

79. When the charge of the neuron is 60-70 mV, there is ...1...., and inside becomes ......2...... Fill in the
blanks with a suitable answer

- Action Potential / Positive

80. Which ones are wrong?

I‐ passive channels only located on dendrites

II‐voltage gated channels located on cell body

81. What is wrong for passive membrane?

- The transferred changes across the membrane at the unit time cannot be calculated using the
capacitive current

82. Cell membrane potential is -80 , nerst potential -129. What is the electrochemical potential?

- 49

83. Diffusion of K+ out of the cell make inside of it less positive or more negative and acts to restore the
original resting potential. This process is called .....

- Repolarization

84. During an action potential:

- The increase in Na permeability in membrane is positive feedback

85. Voltage regulate means...?

- Unless voltage regulate gates will not respond

86. Which of the following is NOT true of electric circuit?

- Short pathway

87. Energy is important to life forms because ………. What is the correct answer?

I. It is required to do work.

II. It is required to make specific alterations in the cell.

III. All life forms require a continuous supply of it.

88. If the cell membrane is -70 mV, and nernst potential of Na+ is +55 mV, what is the electrochemical
potential of Na+?

- (-70 mV)

89. What type of energy is in 🍐?

- Chemical energy

90. Source of Bioelectric potential is ____________ in nature. What is the correct word?

- Ionic

91. When muscle contract chemical energy is converted to mechanical energy with loss of heat. This is
an example of ........ thermodynamic

- first

92. Which coupling is wrong?

- Carrier: Recognition of cells

93. The variation of the electrical potential associated with the passage of a pulse along the membrane
of a muscle cell, or a nerve cell is called ..........

- Action potential

94. A spoon is inside a hot tea, the upper side of the spoon is not touching the tea but it’s hot. How does
this happen?

- Conduction

95.

Which of the following best describes the accuracy and precision of the diagram below?

- Low accuracy-high precision

96. When the cell become permeable to sodium_____ this is called ______ ?

- 55mV-depolarization

97. Which of the following is not a property of system :

- Equation of manner doesn’t depend on the parameter of other system

98. If the membrane potential is -70 mV and Nernst potential of Na is +60 mV , What is the
electrochemical potential of Na ?

- (-130mV)

99. What is wrong about active membrane?

- conductance of Na+ isn’t affected by resistance of Na+

100. The door of a running refrigerator inside a room was left open. Which of the following statements
is correct?

- The room will be gradually warmed up

101. Which of the following statement is wrong for biomechanics?

- During tension of foot, leg-knee-gastrocnemius muscle system act as lever in 1. class.

102. For living organisms which one is an important consequence of first law of thermodynamics?

- organism ultimately must obtain all of the necessary energy

103. Which of the following statement is wrong for levers?

- During carrying weight with hand, biceps apply a force to frontal arm as lever in 2. class.

104. Which of the following measurement identifies disorder?

- Entropy

105. Which condition does cause a decrease in the role of diffusion of a particle across a membrane?

- Decrease in concentration gradient of particle

106. The electrical signals with the help of which neurons transmit the signals are called……
- Neurotransmitters
 ANATOMY
1. Which feature is adjacent to post humeral artery?

- Surgical Neck of humerus

2. Which vertebra has "carotid tubercle"?

- C6

3. Tarsal tunnel is between which of these?

- Calcaneus-Talus

4. Which of the following is not a feature of the ulna?

- Lateral surface

5. Which bones does not articulate with bases of metacarpal bones?

- Triquetrum

6. Which one is not a part of Linea terminalis?

- Pubic Tubercle

7. Soleal line is a future of which bone?

- Tibia

8. Which one doesn't have internal surface?

- 1st rib

9. Which of the following is not a feature of a typical vertebrae?

- Dens

10. ´Ulnar notch´ belongs to which bone?

- Radius

11. Which feature transmits a spinal nerve?

- Intervertebral foramen

12. Which of the followings about clavicle is false?

- Medial 2/3 of clavicle is anteriorly concave

13. Which feature belongs to tibia?

- Intercondylar eminence
14. Which of the followings is false?

- Metacarpal bones are superior to carpal bones

15. Which of the followings is not a feature of atlas?

- Body

16. Which ribs are lack of crest on the head?

- 1,11,12

17. Which of the followings is not a feature of scapula?

- Inferior border

18. Which bony feature separates greater sciatic notch from lesser sciatic notch?

- Ischial spine

19. How many pairs of ´anterior sacral foramina´ are there?

-4

20. Which feature is characteristic for L3 vertebra?

- Mamillary body

21. ´Pedincle of a typical vertebra is..... to lamina of vertebra´ Fill in the blank with appropriate choice

- Anterior

22. Which bone articulates with 1st metatarsal bone and navicular bone?

- Medial cuneiform bone

23. Which feature does not contribute to pelvic outlet?

- Promontorium

24. Where is the linea aspera belong to?

- Femur

25. Which rib is the longest?

- 8th

26. Which of the followings accommodates tendon of long head of biceps brachii muscle?

- Intertubercular sulcus

27. Head of ulna is........ to olecranon´ Fill in the blank with appropriate choice

- Inferior
28. Which feature of scapula has an articular facet?

- Acromion

29. ´Adductory tubercle´ belongs to which of the following bones?

- Femur

30. Which vertebra has single superior demi facet?

- T10

31. Which thoracic vertebra has only one costal demi facet?

- T10

32. Which feature is adjacent to ulnar nerve?

- Medial epicondyle of humerus

33. ´groove for subclavian vein´ belongs to which bone?

- 1st rib

34. Which of the following statements is false?

- Carotic tubercle belongs to 5th cervical vertebra

35. Which of the followings does not articulate with metacarpal bones?

- Psiforme

36. Which statement about pelvis is false?

- Auricular surface of sacrum articulates with ischium

37. Which statement is false?

- Midsagittal plane transects body at shoulder joint

38. Which bones have styloid process?

- Radius - Ulna

39. Which rib articulates to sternal angle?

- 2nd

40. Conoid tubercle´ belongs to which bone?

- Clavicle

41. Which of the followings does not contribute to linea terminalis?

- Inferior ramus of pubis

42. Which of the following carpal bones articulate with metacarpal bones?

- Hamate

43. Patient with elbow trauma is evoluated in orthopedics clinic. Numbness and sensory loss are
indicated in little and ring fingers of left hand. Which one of the following structures is most likely to be
broken?

- Medial epicondyle of humerus

44. Which of the following cervical vertebrae has no body?

- 1st

45. Which plane transects body into anterior and posterior halves?

- Coronal

46. "intercondylar eminence" belong which bone?

- Tibia

47. Which of the following structure articulate with head of humerus?

- Glenoid cavity

48. “Jugular notch” is found on which bone?

- Manubrium

49. Which of the following features of scapula is articulate with clavicle?

- Acromion

50. Which one is pass from medial epicondyle?

- Ulnar nerve

51. Which one the following vertebras has non-bifid spinous process?

- 7th cervical vertebrae

52. Which bone articulate with the leg ?

- Talus

53. Promontorium is the feature of which bone?

- Sacrum

54. Indicate the term which means 'placing palm backwards in anatomical position?

- Pronation
55. Which plane divides the body into right and left halves?

- Sagittal plane

56. Which plane passes through the center of the body dividing it into equal right and left halves?

- Midsagittal Plane

57. Which plane is dived into two parts od bady as anterior and posterior?

- Coronal Plane

58.Which moves away from the midline?

- Abduction

59. Which one isn’t described 'the anatomical position'?

- Palms turned backward

60. Which one is not doing by mandible?

- Adduction

61. Which one is wrong?

- Coracoid process of scapula articulate with clavicle

62. Which one is not a carpal bone?

- Cuboid bone

63. Which one is not feature of scapula?

- Coronoid process

64. In which axal do we do the rotation movement?

- sagittal and coronal

65. Which one is not feature of clavicle?

- Coracoid process

66. Radial notch is a feature of which following bones?

- Ulna

67. Which following is the feature of scapula?

- Acromion

68. Which does not contribute to wrist joint?

- Ulna
69. Which one is related with elbow joint?

- Trochlear notch

70. Which one is in distal row of wrist?

- Trapezium

71. Which is not a carpal bone?

- Os cubodeum

72. Which is not a function of bones?

- Innervation of the joint capsule

73. What is described as outer membrane of bones?

- Periosteum

74. What is the latest ossified bone?

Clavicle

75. Which of the following doesn’t articulate with talus?

- Medial cuneiform bone

76. Which one doesn’t contribute in linea terminalis?

- Lunate surface

77. Lateral malleolus is a feature of which of the following bone?

- Fibula

78. Obturator foremen is a feature of which of the following bone?

- Hip bone

79. Which bone is articulate with leg?

- Talus

80. Which bone has promontorium?

- Sacrum

81. Which of the following is not feature of hip bone?

- Soleal line

82. Which one is not founded in femur?

- Surgical Neck
83. Which one is not associated with pelvis?

- Femur

84. Which one is tarsal bone?

- Medium Cuneiform

85. Which of the following vertebrae lacks body?

- Atlas

86. Which one does not articulate with sternum?

- 12th rib

87. Which rib consists of groove for subclavian artery?

- 1st rib

88. Which of the following is a distinguishing feature of cervical vertebrae?

- Transverse foramen

89. Which of the following articulates with sternum?

- 1st & 2nd ribs

90. Which one is 7th cervical vertebra?

- Prominens

91. Which rib is articulate with sternum angle?

- 2nd ribs

92. Which of the following features doesn’t belong the atlas?

- Dens

93. Which one of the following is not feature of typical vertebra?

- Transverse foramen

94. Which of the following characteristic feature of lumbar vertebrae?

- Mammillary process (Mammillary body)

95. Mammillary process takes place at which levels?

- L4

96. Which one is atypical rib?

- 1st ribs
97. Which one has transvers foremen?

- C1

98. Which of the following is not a part of Deltoid Ligament?

- Plantar Calcaneonavicular Ligament

99. Which type of joint allow abduction?

- Ball and Socket

100. Metacarpophalangeal joints are example for which joint type?

- Condylar

101. Which structure is not on the midline of the body?

- Conchal crest of maxilla

102. Which bone does not articulate with maxillary bone?

- Mandible

103. Which ligament bridges the distance between lateral masses on either side of atlas?

- Transverse ligament of atlas

104. Jugular foramen is formed by which of the following bones?

- Occipital bone - temporal bone

105. Which ligament is intra-articular?

- Anterior Cruciate Ligament

106. Fibers of olfactory nerve passes from which structure to enter cranial cavity?

- Cribriform plate

107. Which one is located on the external surface of mandible?

- Oblique Line

108. Sphenopalatine fossa interconnects which cavities?

- Nasal cavity - Pterygopalatine fossa

109. Which statement is false?

- Epiphyseal plate is a type of fibrous joint.

110. Which ligament attaches to basilar part of occipital bone?

- Anterior longitudinal ligament

111. Which of the following does not reinforce sacroiliac joint?

- Superior Pubic Ligament

112. Which part of palatine bone is visible in the orbital cavity?

- Orbital process

113. Medial wall of pterygopalatine fossa is formed by which bone?

- Perpendicular plate of palatine bone

114. Which of the followings interconnects nasal cavity and oral cavity?

- Incisive canal

115. Which one is not a feature of the Maxilla?

- Sphenoidal Process

116. Foramen rotundum interconnects which of followings?

- Pterygopalatine fossa - Middle cranial cavity

117. Which joint have an intra articular disc?

- Sternoclavicular joint

118. Which ligament does not reinforce wrist?

- Anular ligament of radius

119. Which joint includes articular disc?

- Temporomandibular joint

120. Anterior displacement of tibia is restricted by which ligament?

- Anterior cruciate ligament

121. Below given in the chooses are the openings-transmitted structures. Which one is wrong?

- Ovale foramen-middle meningeal artery

122. Which bone does not articulate to occipital bone?

- Mandible

123. Which of the followings is not a feature of maxilla?

- Posterior nasal spine

124. Which bone bounds choana?

- Sphenoid bone
125. Which of the followings is not a feature of ethmoid bone?

- Inferior nasal conchae

126. Which of the followings is a ball and socket type joint?

- Hip joint

127. Which ligament accommodates an artery?

- ligament of head of femur

128. ´arcuate eminence´ belongs to which bone?

- temporal bone

129. Which of the followings is not a feature of sphenoid body?

- anterior clinoid process

130. Which of the followings is paired?

- Alar ligament

131. Which of the following bones is a member of viscerocranium?

- palatine bone

132. Which of the followings does not articulate to ethmoid bone?

- temporal bone

133. Which of the followings interconnects cranial cavity orbital cavity?

- optic canal

134. Which bone is visible on the lateral wall of orbital cavity?

- zygomatic bone

135. Which joint has labrum?

- glenohumeral joint

136. Which of the followings does not contribute nasal septum?

- Perpendicular plate of palatine bone

137. Which of the followings interconnects pterygopalatine fossa and orbital cavity?

- Inferior orbital fissure

138. Which feature is not visible when cranium is viewed from lateral aspect?

- Inion
139. ´nasal notch´ belongs to which bone?

- maxilla

140. Which of the followings is not a feature of frontal bone?

- frontal angle

141. Which ligament does not attach to occipital bone?

- supraspinous ligament

142. Which of the followings is hinge type joint?

- humeroulnar joint

143. Which feature belongs to occipital bone?

- hypoglossal canal

144. Which of the followings connects orbital cavity to cranial cavity?

- Superior orbital fissure

145. Which of the followings does not articulate to zygomatic bone?

- Nasal bone

146. Which of the followings interconnects pterygopalatine fossa and nasal cavity?

- Sphenopalatine foramen

147. ´mental foramen´ belongs to which bone?

- Mandible

148. Which type of joint occurs between bodies of vertebrae?

- Symphesis

149. ´Subarcuate fossa´ belongs to which bone?

- Temporal bone

150. Which of the followings is not a feature of palatine bone?

- Frontal process

151. Which type of joint occurs between dens of axis and atlas?

- Pivot type

152. Which of the followings take part in formation of hard palate?

- Palatine process of maxilla

153. Which ligament reinforces acromioclavicular joint?

- Trapezoid ligament

154. Which of the followings does not articulate to ethmoid bone?

- Nasal bone

155. Which bone does not contribute to pterion?

- Zygomatic bone

156. Which one is not synovial joint?

- Distal Tibiofibular Joint

157. Which of the following is NOT a feature of sphenoid bone?

- Jugular Fossa

158. Which of the following is not a feature of anterior aspect of petrous part of temporal bone?

- External Auditory Meatus

159. Which of the followings is a hinge type joint?

- Knee joint

160. Which ligament reinforces hip joint?

- Zona Orbicularis

161. Conoid ligament reinforces which of the following joint?

- Acromioclavicular joint

162. Which of the following is in the Vertebral Canal?

- Posterior Longitudinal Ligament

163. Which bone not in orbital cavity?

- Nasal bone

164. Which one of the following ligaments interconnects the laminas of vertebrae?

- Flaval Ligament

165. Which openings interconnects middle cranial cavity and pterygopalatine fossa?

- Round foramen

166. Which bone does not contribute to nasal cavity?

- Zygomatic Bone
167. Which of the following is not a feature of the maxilla?

- Supraorbital foramen

168. Which one of the following does not articulate with Sphenoid Bone?

- Maxilla

169. Which followings wrong for frontal bone feature?

- Orbital portion that forms the floors of the orbits and the nasal cavities

170. Indicate the bone including POSTERIOR NASAL SPINE?

- Palatine Bone

171. Foramen rotundum interconnects which of followings?

- Pterygopalatine fossa - Middle cranial cavity

172. Which of the following ligament does not attach to occipital bone?

- Supraspinous ligament

173. Which of the following does not articulate with parietal bone?

- ethmoid

174. Which bone has Carotid Canal?

- temporal bone

175. Which of the following is not visible from inferior aspect of cranium?

- Parietal bone

176. Which is not a feature of synovial type joint?

- articular disc

177. Which bones form pyriform aperture?

- Maxilla-Nasal Bone

178. which bone is responsible for formation of oral nasal and orbital cavity?

- palatine

179. Which of the following does not open pterygopalatine fossa?

- Oval foramen

180. Which of the following is not visible on lateral wall of nasal cavity?

- nasal crest of palatine bone

181. Which of the following is fibrous type joint?

- suture

182. Which of the following includes glenoid labrum?

- Shoulder joint

183. Indicate the bone which doesn’t contribute to wrist joint?

- Ulna

184. Which ligament reinforce in elbow joint?

- Medial Collateral Ligament

185. Which bone has mitopic suture?

- Between frontal bones

186. Which one doesn't articulate with parietal bone?

- Ethmoid bone

187. Which one of the followings is found at the inferior aspect of petrous part of temporal bone?

- External opening of carotid canal

188. Ethmoidal notch is the feature of which bone?

- Frontal

189. Which one is not feature of sphenoid bone?

- Stylomastoid foramen

190. Which one of the following bones take part formation of jugular foramen?

- Temporal-Occipital

191. Which one of the following includes middle ear cavity and inner ear cavity?

- Temporal bone

192. Which one is not in Anterior Cranial Fossa?

- Internal Aperture of Carotid Canal

193. Which one does not include air sinus?

- Occipital bone

194. Which of bone has Carotid Canal?

- Temporal bone
195. Pterygopalatine fossa communicates with cranial cavity by which process?

- Foremen Rotundum *(and also pterygoid canal)

196. Which one is single bone?

- Sphenoid Bone

197. Which one doesn’t belong sphenoid bone?

- Facial canal

198. Carotid canal is bound to which bone & structure?-

- At the Pyramid of the Temporal Bone

199. Which structure is invisible (Not seen) from inferior aspect?

- foramen rotundum

200. Which one does not contribute nasal septum?

- nasal bone

201. Which of the following bones does NOT articulate with Lacrimal bone?

- Nasal bone

202. Which of the following interconnected orbital cavity and cranial cavity?

- Optic canal

203. Which of the followings contributes the medial wall of orbital cavity and lateral wall of nasal cavity?

- ethmoid

204. Which one of the following is a feature found only on ethmoid bone?

- Crista galli

205. Which bones include ant.nasal spine and post.nasal spine?

- Maxilla-Palatine

206. Which of the following bones does not contribute to lateral wall of nasal cavity?

- vomer

207. Which foramen connects nasal cavity to pterygopalatine fossa?

- Sphenopalatine fossa

208. Which one is Not found in Ethmoid?

- Inferior nasal concha

209. Connection between orbital cavity and cranial cavity?

- Optical foramen

210. Which bone articulates with lacrimal bone?

- Ethmoidal Bone

211. Which one does not include groove for venous sinus?

- Maxillary Bone

212. Which of bone has Carotid Sulcus?

- Sphenoid Bone

213. Which one indicates Posterior Nasal Spine?

- Horizontal process of palatine bone

214. Which one does not articulate with Vomer?

- Nasal Bone

215. Which one is single bone?

- Ethmoid Bone

216. Which one does not occur Lateral wall of the Nasal Cavity?

- Perpendicular Plate of Ethmoid Bone

217. Which one takes place formation of nasal septum?

- Perpendicular plate of ethmoid bone

218. Which of the following bones takes part in formation of nasal, oral, orbital cavities?

- Maxilla

219. Which structure does not open the pterygopalatine fossa?

- foramen ovale

220. Which is not a feature of synovial joint?

- Articular disc

221. Which one is not in Mandibula?

- mandibular fossa

222. Which one does not occur Medial wall of the Orbital Cavity?

- Zygomatic Bone
223. Which one of these movements is not done by mandible (Temporomandibular Joint)?

- adduction

224. attachment of muscle is called?

- Insertion

225. Which of the followings is a plane type joint?

- Sacroiliac joint

226. What is the type of movement of pivot joint?

- rotation

227. Which one does not reinforce the glenohumeral joint? (All of them reinforce)

A) Rotator cuff B) Skeletal arch C) Coracohumeral lig. D) Coracoacromial lig. E) Glenohumeral lig

228. Which one of the following ligaments forms greater sciatic foramen?

- Sacrospinous ligament

229. Which of the following ligaments lies within the vertebral canal?

- Posterior Longitudinal Ligament

230. Which of the following doesn't reinforce Median-Atlanto Axial joint?

- Interspinous Ligament

231. Which one of the following ligaments extends between lamina of neighboring vertebrae?

- Flaval Ligament (Ligamentum Flavum)

232. Which of the following does not include articular discus (Disc)?

- Intercarpal joint

233. Indicate (Find out) the ligament which is not posterior to bodies of vertebrae?

- Anterior Longitudinal Ligament

234. Which one does not reinforce hip joint?

- Sacrospinous ligament

235. Which bone is not a part of axial skeletal?

- femur

236. Which is an example of ellipsoidal joint?

‐ Radiocarpal Ligament
237. Which structure prevents fraction where tendon passes over bone?

- Bursae

238. Which one is not a vertebral canal ligament?

- Nuchal Ligament

239. Which of the following doesn't reinforce knee joint?

- Anterior talofibular ligament

240. Which one of the followings does not have a discus?

- Anterior Tibiofibular Proximal

241. Which is not a function of bones?

- Innervation of the joint capsule

242. Which feature is seen on the L3 vertebra?

- Mamillary process

243. Foramen magnum belongs to which bone?

- Occipital bone

244. Which of the followings is not seen in a patient in anatomical position?

- Palms facing backwards

245. Which feature belongs to hip bone?

- Lesser sciatic notch

246. Which of the following bones is lack of air sinus?

- Parietal bone

247. Trapezoid ligament reinforces which of the following joints?

- Acromioclavicular joint

248. Which bone does not take part in formation of orbital process?

- vomer

249. Infraorbital foramen is a feature of which bone?

- Maxilla

250. Which one is consist of 2 bones?

- Jugular Foramen
251. Which of these planes transects body into superior and inferior halves?

- Transverse

252. Which of the followings is feature of sacrum?

- Promontorium

253. Which of the following is a feature of mandible?

- Mental foramen

254. Which one is atypical rib?

- 1, 11, 12

255. Which following is feature of temporal bone?

- Petrous Part

256. Which one does not articulate with metacarpal bones?

- Scaphoideum

257. Which of the following determines the structure relative to the surface of the body?

- Superficial

258. Which one is wrong?

- coracoid articulates with clavicle

259. Which one of the vertebras has mamillary body?

- L3

260. Hypoglossal canal belongs to which bone?

- Occipital bone

261. Which ligament connects the laminas of two neighbor vertebras?

- flaval ligament

262. Which of the ligament does not reinforce the knee joint?

- inferior pubic ligament

263. indicate bones forming zygomatic arch:

- temporal bone-zygomatic bone

264. Which one of the following carpal bones is not a proximal row?

- Trapezoid
265. Which of the following is not a tarsal bone?

- Trapezium

266. Which one of these bones contributes to the base of the nasal cavity?

- palatine process of maxillary bone

267. Which one is Suprahyoid Muscle?

- Stylohyoid Muscle

268. Where is Submandibular Gland?

- Submandibular Triangle

269. Which one is not in Posterior Triangle?

- Longus Colli Muscle

270. Which nerve innervates diaphragm?

- Phrenic
271. Which one of the following ligaments forms greater sciatic foramen?
- Sacrospinous ligament
272. Which bone articulates with anterior surface of calcaneus?

- Cuboid
273. Which of the following is not a feature of femur?
- Popliteal surface
274. Which rib does not have a crest on the head?
- 1st ribs

275. Medial wall of pterygopalatine fossa is formed by which bone?

- Perpendicular plate of palatine bone

276. Which part of the sphenoid bone is seen from orbital cavity?

- Greater wing
277. Which part of palatine bone contributes to nasal septum?
- Nasal crest
278. Which one is carotid tubercle distinguished vertebrae?
- C6

279. Which structure is not visible from medial aspect of temporal bone?
- External auditory meatus
280. Which feature of occipital bone articulates with atlas?
- Condyles
281. Which carpal bone has a hook?

- Hamate
282. Coracoid process of scapula articulate with...
- With the sternum, scapula, humerus and furcula
283. Zygapophyseal joint takes place between which bony features?
A) spinous process of vertebra
B) transverse process of vertebra
C) articular process of vertebra****
D) bodies of vertebra
E) pedicle of vertebra

284. Which part of the sphenoid bone articulates palatine bone?

A) pterygoid process***
B) body
C) anterior clinoid process
D) cella turcica
E) posterior clinoid process
 BIOCHEMISTRY
1. Which tetrameric isoenzyme LDH subunit activity increases in myocardial infarction, because of heart
subunits of the enzyme?

- Lactate dehydrogenase 1

2. Which one of the following is correct?

- Orotic aciduria is the result of a defect in pyrimidine synthesis.

3. What is the slope of Lineweaver-Burk Plot?

- km / vmax

4.

Which one has the highest precision?

-A&C

5. Which of these statements explain the low action energy and the specificity of an enzyme?

I-Transient covalent bonds between enzyme and substrate.

II-Hydrophobic interactions between enzyme and substrate.

III-Transient group transfers between ratalytic functional groups on enzyme and

substrate.

6. What is the main product of the human pyrimidine?

- Beta alanine

7. Where are these enzymes found in all of the cell cytoplasm?

- Glycolysis enzymes

8. Which of the following is the function of vortex?

- mixing solution

9. Which one of the following statements is wrong?

- Yellow tip pipette is used to draw up to 1000 microliters

10. Which of the following statements about Gibbs free energy change is correct?

I. Gibbs free energy is usable energy or energy that is available to do work.

II. If the Gibbs free energy change for a reaction is negative, the reaction is an irreversible reaction.

III. A reaction with a positive Gibbs free energy change of reaction is called an endergonic reaction.

11. In case of two opposite pathways, there is no net ATP production. How the cell handles this
situation?

- no answers

12. Which of the macromolecules would yield only one type of monomer after complete hydrolysis?

- Glycogen

13. Which of the followings is sensible and resistance to chemical for preparing a solution?

- Erlenmaye flask

14. Which of the following statements regarding the Lineweaver-Burk plot is true?

- It can distinguish competitive, non- competitive and uncompetitive inhibitors.

15. Km changes and Vmax remains the same. What is the type of Enzyme inhibition?

- Competitive Inhibition

16. Which of the following mechanisms is not for controlling metabolic pathways?

- Control of Gibbs free energy

17. Which one of the following is correct?

- Carbamoyl phosphate gives carbamoyl group in pyrimidine synthesis.

18. Which of the following statements about allosteric control of enzymatic activity is false?

- Heterotropic allosteric effectors compete with substrate forbidding sites.

19.

20. Which one of the following statements is false regarding enzymes?

- Catalysts alter the equilibrium constant for a chemical reaction.

21. Which one of the following is the correct equation?

- Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Cofactor

22. Which one of the following is correct?

- Aspartate is used as both carbon and nitrogen source for the synthesis of de novo pyrimidine.
23. Which one of the following statements about metabolic pathways is correct?

I. Catabolic pathways are converged to Acetyl CoA.

IV. NADH, FADH2 molecules are produced during catabolic processes.

24. What class of enzyme is “dehydrogenase”?

- Oxidoreductase

25. The highest energy bond in ATP is located between which one of the following groups?

- Two phosphate groups

26. Which of the followings are true for allosteric enzymes

II- Allosteric activator (+) tends to shift the curve to a more hyperbolic profile

III- Binding to allosteric sites called cooperative binding, alters the activity of the enzyme

IV- Homotropic effectors is when the substrate itself serves as an effector

27. Which of the followings have an effect on ionization of the active sides of the enzyme?

- pH

28. When plotting the graph of velocity against substrate concentration for an enzyme, what is the
expected shape of the curve?

- Hyperbolic

29. Which sequence illustrates the order of steps in intermediary metabolism?

- Digestion - Acetyl CoA Production - Citric acid cycle - Oxidative phosphorylation

30. Which one does not occur in the mitochondria?

- Glycolysis

31. Which statements are true for anabolic reactions?

II- They need energy III- They use pool molecules

32. How many microliters in 10 milliliters?

- 10 x 10^3

33. Which of the following cannot be said about pyrimidine synthesis?

- Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase-1 is used in pyrimidine synthesis

34. Which of the following one provides nitrogen atom for both purine and pyrimidine rings?

- Aspartate
35. Which of the following is not the substrate specific enzyme?

- Hexokinase

36. Even though there is enough substrate present, why does the rxn/velocity graph increases and stops
at an exact point?

- Because the enzyme is saturated by the substrate.

37. Which of the following cannot be considered under enzyme regulation?

- Lowering activation energy

38. Which reaction & compartment pair is wrong?

- Citric acid cycle & Mitochondria

39. Which of the following elements is found in trace amount in human body?

- Copper

40. A purely competitive inhibitor of an enzyme has which one of the following kinetics?

- Increases Km without effecting Vmax

41. 5 millimeter equals ….. micrometers.

- 5x10^3

42. What are the names of the laboratory tools below ?

- Round bottom flask , beaker , graduated cylinder

43. Which of the following statements about metabolic pathways is correct?

- Mechanisms for controlling metabolic pathways are varied in cells.

44. Which of the following macromolecules yields to only one type of monomer after hydrolysis?

- Glycogen

45. Which statement is wrong?

- Beakers give accurate measurements of volume.

46. Which statement is wrong?

- We use heparin to get serum from blood

47. Which statement is wrong?

- Pre-analytical phase starts after trans- port of sample to lab.

48. Among the following test related errors which one is not a preanalytical error?

- Reporting and interpreting

49. Which one is used for getting serum?

- Coagulation activator

50. Whose concentration is the most important regulator of de novo purine synthesis?

- PRPP

51. Which one is not product of pyrimidine degradation?

- Uric Acid

52. Which enzyme-function pairs are true?

I- Lysases- addition double bonds

III-Oxidoreductase- Electron transference

IV- Isomerases- Changing structure

53. Which one is wrong about enzymes in clinical diagnosis?

- LDH is a dimetric enzyme and has 3 isozymes

54. Which change can be happened for noncompetitive inhibition?

- Vmax decreased

55. What is used for non-protein organic molecule that is required by some enzymes in order to catalyze
a reaction on substrate?

- co enzyme

56. Fill the blanks. The enzymes of the citric acid cycle are found in......... and the fatty acid synthesis
enzymes are found in........ and the RNA polymerases are found in..........

- Mitochondria, cytoplasm, nucleolus

57. Which organelle function and which oxidation type is impaired in the individual whose amount of
phytanic acid in urine is increased?

- Peroxisome-Alpha oxidation

58. Which of the following vitamins is required for the synthesis of the cofactor that is required for the
oxidation of succinate to fumarate in TCA cycle?

- Riboflavin

59. Which one of the following is not true for glycogen metabolism?

- Glycogen synthesis occurs by reversal of degradative (glycogen phosphorylase) pathway.

60. Which of the following is not one of the cofactors of fatty acid synthesis?

- NADH
61. Which of the following is not correct for fatty acid synthesis?

- Malonyl CoA is added to palmitate to lengthen the fatty acid chain in mitochondria

62. Which is wrong about high fructose corn syrup?

- It shortens the shelf life of foods

63. How does the Pentose Phosphate pathway work in a tissue that both requires NADPH and Pentose
Phosphate?

- Only the oxidative phase works

64. Which of the following is not one of the indicators showing that the cell has high energy?

- Iron

65. Which of the following belongs to the nutritive sweetener class?

- Maple syrup

66. Which of the following is wrong for the conversion of fructose 1,6-bisphosphate to fructose 6-
phosphate in gluconeogenesis?

8- Which of the following is not one of the indicators showing that the cell has high energy?

A- NADH B- Acetyl CoA C- Iron D- ATP E- Citrate

- Fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase enzyme is activated by AMP and inhibited by citrate.

67. Which one of the following is true for glycogen?

- Glycogenin is required for the formation of new glycogen particle.

68. Which of the following is one of the high energy phosphate compounds?

- Phosphoenolpyruvate

69. Which of the following is the rate limiting enzyme of fatty acid synthesis?

- Acetyl CoA carboxylase

70. Which of the following is not an intermediate synthesized from pyruvate?

- Aspartate

71. Which of the following enzymes is active in phosphorylated form?

- Glycogen phosphorylase
72. Which of the following statements about Electron Transport Chain (ETC) and Oxidative
Phosphorylation is correct?

I. Glycerophosphate shuttle is active in the brain and produces 1.5 ATP for each NADH molecule

II. ETC components are ordered from negative to positive according to their redox potential, in the form
of FMN, FAD, Q, Cyt b, Cyt c, Cyt a.

IV. Pyruvate, ADP and phosphate are transported into the mitochondrial matrix during oxidative
phosphorylation.an example of "intersperse”

73. Which of the following metabolite enzyme pair is the example of feed forward stimulation?

I. Citrate - Acetyl CoA Carboxylase

IV. Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate - Pyruvate kinase

74. A 12-year-old boy, who was being followed up in the hospital due to his appendicitis surgery, was
further examined due to the recurrent positivity of sugar in his urine test. Blood glucose and loading
tests of the patient were within normal limits. His development was completely normal, and liver and
kidney dysfunction were not found. Laboratory tests reveal that the sugar excreted in the ATP/urine is
fructose. When the patient´s clinical and laboratory findings are evaluated together, which of the
following is your possible diagnosis?

- Essential Fructosuria

75. After feeding with milk, the child has cramping pain, distension and diarrhea in the abdomen. Sugar
is detected in the child´s stool. When milk and dairy products are excluded from the diet, the complaints
pass. Which enzyme is possibly missing?

- Lactase

76. Which of the following statements about glycolysis regulation is correct?

I. Glucokinase is active only when the cell is rich in glucose because it has a higher Km value than
Hexokinase

II. Fructose 2,6 Bisphosphate activates glycolysis.

77. Which of the following is wrong about alcohol metabolism?

- Alcohol elimination rate is not affected by gender, age, food intake and drugs.

78. After a meal, blood glucose enters cells and is stored as glycogen, particularly in the liver. Which of
the following is the donor of new glucose molecules in glycogen?

- UDP-glucose

79. Which of the following is true for gluconeogenesis?

- Glucose cannot be delivered to the blood by gluconeogenesis from the muscles since there is no
glucose 6-phosphatase enzyme in the muscle.
80. Which of the following is the most common enzyme deficiency in the world?

- G6PDH deficiency

81. Which poison- accumulating intermediate of TCA cycle couples are given correctly?

I. Malonate-----Succinate

II. Arsenite -----α-ketoglutarate

III. Fluoroacetate----- Citrate

82. Which of the following situations causes decreased mitochondrial beta oxidation of fatty acids?

I. CPT-1 inhibition

II. Increased citrate

III. Increased Malonyl CoA

83. Which one of the following is true for glycogen synthetase?

- It is more specifically defined as UDP- glucose-glycogen glucosyl transferase

84. Increased amount of glucagon would cause which of the following conditions?

II. Pyruvate Carboxylase activation

III. Hormone sensitive lipase activation

85. Which of the following lipid structures does not participate in the structure of the cell membrane?

- Triacylglycerols

86. Dinitrophenol does not cause any of the following changes related to electron transport and
oxidative phosphorylation in mitochondria?

- ATP / ADP ratio increased

87. Which of the following cannot use ketone bodies as an energy source under any circumstances?

- Erythrocyte

88. Which of the following electron carriers is involved in biological oxidation by carrying electrons one
by one?

- Cytochrome c

89. Which of the following is wrong about the glycemic index (GI)?

I. The lower the GI, the faster blood sugar rises.

II. The higher the GI, the slower blood sugar rises.

III. GI values between 50-69 are high values.

90. Methylmalonic aciduria occurs as a result of a disturbance in the metabolic pathway of the following
substances?

- Succinyl- CoA

91. Which of the followings cannot be used by the aldose reductase enzyme as a substrate?

- Fructose

92. Which of the statements regarding fatty acid indicated as 18: 2 (ω−6) is wrong?

IV. It is a non-essential fatty acid that can be synthesized in the body

V. There are double bonds at the 6th and 9th carbons from the carboxyl end

93. Assuming that 3 molecules of glucose 6 phosphate progresses through the pentose phosphate
pathway and all products continue to glycolysis, how many Glyceraldehyde 3-Ps are formed?

-5

94. Which of the following is not true regarding energy metabolism?

- The bond between phosphate groups in ATP is the phosphodiester bond

95. Which vitamin derivatives is found in the structure of the fatty acid synthesize enzyme?

- Pantothenic acid

96. What should be the contents of tube used for glucose measurement in waiting blood samples ?

- Na fluoride

97. Which enzyme of fatty acid synthesis catalyze condensation of acetyl and malonyl groups to form
acetoacetyl-ACO?

- B ketoacyl ACP synthase

98. Which of the following Fatty acid oxidation types produce decarboxylic acids?

- Omega Oxidation

99. Which of the followings is the ketone body found in the bloodstream at highest concentration?

- Beta Hydroxybutyrate

100. Which of the following statements is/are true?

I. Fructokinase add a phosphate group to the first carbon of its substrate.

IV. Hexokinase add a phosphate group to the sixth carbon of its substrate.

101. Which of the following GLUT pairings is incorrect?

- Glut 3-Insulin dependent

102. Which of the following is true for alcohol metabolism?

I) Liver alcohol dehydrogenase enzyme is the major enzyme system for metabolising alcohol.

II) The microsomal ethanol oxidizing system (cytochrome p450) is responsible for alcohol-drug
interactions.

III) Acetaldehyde is oxidized to acetate by aldehyde dehydrogenase enzyme.

103. Which of the following is false for carbohydrates?

- The beta 1-4 glycosidic bonds in cellulose can be digested by humans.

104. Assume that you have a patient with a glucagon secreting pancreatic tumor. (glucagonoma) Which
of the following is seen as a result of hyperglucagonemia? (high glucagon in the blood)

- Hyperglycemia

105. Which of the following pairs causes the reaction below to proceed at the same direction?

Creatine + ATP < Phosphocreatine + ADP

- Creatine increase, ADP decrease

106. Which of the following is NOT among the effects of epinephrine on glycogen breakdown in muscle?

- Protein Phosphatases are activated.

107. Which of the followings is not an artificial sweetener?

- Asparagine

108. Which of the followings is not true?

2-Fructokinase enzyme adds a phosphate group to the 6th carbon atom of its substrate.

3-Galaktokinase enzyme adds a phosphate group to the 1st carbon atom of its substrate.

4- Hexokinase enzyme adds a phosphate group to the 6th carbon atom of its substrate.

109. Which of the following is non modifiable risk factor for Type-2 diabetes?

- familial history

110. Which of the following is not required for the rotation of the gamma subunit of the mitochondrial
F1 ATPase?

- Proton channels in the outer mitochondrial membrane

111. Which of the statements regarding fatty acid indicated as 18:2(w-6) is true ?

I - Has 18 carbons.

II - Contains two double bonds.

III - There are double bonds at the 9th and 12th carbons from the carboxyl end.
112. In glycolysis, which of the reactions are catalyzed by kinases? (There are numbers between
reactions and options are these numbers) (2021-2022 bc c2 q9)

113. Which of the following substances breakdown process doesn't cause methylmalonic acidemia?

- Branched chain fatty acid

114. How does the Pentose Phosphate Pathway work in a tissue that only uses Pentose Phosphate?

- Only non-oxidative phase works

115. Which ketone body is the most abundant in the blood?

- β-Hydroxybutyrate

116. Which disorder is an advantage for people with Malaria?

- Glucose-6-Phosphate Dehydrogenase Deficiency

117. Which of the following is not a symptom for diabetes type 2?

- Gaining weight

118. Which of the following hormones is activated with phosphorylation?

- Hormone sensitive lipase

119. Which of the followings about artificial sweeteners are true?

I. Artificial sweeteners are synthetic sugar substitutes.

II. Artificial sweeteners do not cause tooth decay and cavities and because of these advantages, they are
prepared to use chewing gums.

IV. Currently nutritive sweeteners are healthiest products on the market; however, the best solution for
any sweetener is moderation.

120. Which criteria given below is correct for diabetes in fast blood glucose, postprandial and HbA1C?

≥126 mg/dL, ≥200 mg/dL, ≥6.4 %

121. Which of the following is common in FMN and FAD?

- Riboflavin

122. Which of the following enzyme are allosterically activated by Calcium? (2 answers but choose E)

A) Citrate Synthase - E) Isocitrate Dehydrogenase

123. Which of the following enzymes is not used in gluconeogenesis, to bypass the irreversible steps in
glycolysis?

- Phosphofructokinase 1 (PFK1)
124. Which of the following is true for gluconeogenesis?

- The main substrates are pyruvate, lactate, glycerol.

125. What is wrong for alcohol oxidation?

- Alcohol is stored in the liver

126. If the substrate is lactate in gluconeogenesis, which of the following enzymes would be expected to
be active?

I. Cytosolic lactate dehydrogenase

II. Pyruvate carboxylase

IV. Mitochondrial PEP carboxykinase

127. Which one of the following gluconeogenesis enzymes is allosterically activated by citrate?

- Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase

128. Which of the following is the basic principle of the measurement of glucose by the hexokinase
method?

- The amount of NADPH formed at the end of the reaction is directly proportional to the concentration
of glucose in the serum and is measure at 340 nm

129. Which of the following is wrong for glucose measurement?

II. Once the blood is drawn at room temperature, the glucose concentration in the blood will decrease
by 15% per hour

III. Afternoon fasting blood glucose is higher than morning fasting blood glucose

130. Which of the following enzymes is not included in Pentose Phosphate Pathway?

- Fructose-1,6-Bisphosphatase

131. Which of the following statements about Pentose Phosphate Pathway are not true?

IV. Produces NADPH and Pentose Phosphate in the fat cells during fatty acid synthesis

132. Which of the following is the main substrate to limit the rate of the TCA cycle that converts excess
Acetyl-CoAs to ketone bodies?

- Oxaloacetate

133. Which of the followings about diabetic ketoacidosis are not true?

I. It occurs in Type I diabetes but not in Type II diabetes

III. First ketone body is acetone

134. In the fed state, dephosphorylation of the enzyme causes:

- Activation of Pyruvate Dehydrogenase

135. Which of the followings is not true in the fasting state?

- During fasted state, glucose entrance to the muscle cells is increased by the decreased insulin levels

136. Which of the followings about fructose metabolism are not true?

III. In Hereditary Fructose Intolerance first symptoms appear when a baby begins to be fed by mother
milk

IV. Hexokinase has a lower Km for Fructose than Fructokinase

137. Which of the followings about artificial sweeteners are not true?

III. Artificial sweeteners might cause cancer if consumed in larger amounts

V. Long and short term studies confirm that artificial sweeteners help weight loss

138. Which of the followings is not an artificial sweetener?

- Sucrose

139. Which of the following is the end product of odd numbered fatty acid β oxidation?

- Succinyl CoA
140. Which of the following correctly lists the amount of NADH and FADH2 harvested during glycolysis,
pyruvate oxidation and TCA cycle of 1 mole glucose molecule, respectively?

- 2 NADH; 2 NADH; 6 NADH; 2 FADH2

141. Which of the following is transferred to NAD+ by dehydrogenase?

- 1 electron and 1 hydrogen atom

142. The end product of the linear biochemical pathway given below, compound “F”, is a waste product
that is excreted and not used for a subsequent reaction in another biochemical pathway. A ↔ B ↔ C
↔ D ↔ E ↔ F The values for Delta G (kcal/mol) for each reaction is as follows, respectively: - 0.5, - 1.0,
- 0.4, - 0.3, +1,5 Which of the following statements is correct about this pathway?

- The increase in A concentrations makes the reaction go forward as written

143.

The structure of the ATP molecule is given. Which of the following statements about this molecule are
true?

III. Bond 3 and 4 are phosphoanhydride bonds, which yield energy upon hydrolysis

IV. ADP is formed by transferring the phosphate group in bond 4 to the substrate

144.

Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the reaction below?

- Phosphofructokinase-1
145. Which of the following statements about Electron Transfer Chain (ETC) and Oxidative
Phosphorylation are correct?

I. Low ADP concentration inhibits the oxidation part of oxidative phosphorylation

III. Uncouplers increase the oxidation rate in oxidative phosphorylation and causes high body
temperature

IV. Coenzyme Q is the only electron carrier not bound to a protein

146. Which of the following glycolysis reactions has the highest negative delta G value?

- Phosphoenolpyruvate + ADP → ATP + Pyruvate

147. Ethanol can be oxidized with different enzymes in different organelles. Which of the following
organelle-enzyme pairs at ethanol metabolism are correct?

I. Microsome - CYP2E1

II. Peroxisome - Catalase

III. Cytosol - Alcohol Dehydrogenase

148. Which of the following oil-fatty acid classification group pairs is correct?

I. Olive oil - long chain monounsaturated fatty acid

II. Coconut oil - medium chain saturated fatty acid

III. Fish oil - long chain polyunsaturated fatty acid

149. Which of the following is not essential in the desaturation of saturated fatty acids in their
synthesis?

- Cytochrome c

150. Which of the following diseases is often associated with hyperglycemia?

I. Carnitine Deficiency

II. Medium chain Acyl-CoA-Dehydrogenase deficiency

151. Which of the following statements about regulation of glycolysis are true?

I. Regulation of Pyruvate Kinase prevents futile cycles of glycolysis and gluconeogenesis

II. Fructose-1,6-Bisphosphate intermediate in glycolysis decreases Glyceraldehyde-3-Phosphate

concentration by activating Pyruvate Kinase

IV. The organs having high ratio of NAD+/NADH are lactate consuming organs

152. At the end of glycolysis, there are different fates of pyruvate. Which of the following product-
enzyme couples in the conversion of pyruvate are correct?

I. Alanine - Aminotransferase

II. Lactate - Lactate dehydrogenase

III. Acetyl CoA - Pyruvate dehydrogenase

IV. Oxaloacetate - Pyruvate Carboxylase

153. Which of the following is not a laboratory finding which is seen in hyperglycemia?

- Decreased glucose in urine

154. Which of the following findings is a prediabetic value according to ADA?

I. Fasting Glucose: 112 mg/dL

II. 2-hour Glucose in OGTT: 146 mg/dL

III. HbA1C: 6.0%

155. Which of the following is not one of the findings showing the relationship between excess sugar
intake and metabolic syndrome?

- Excess added sugar intake increases insulin sensitivity

156. Which of the following enzymes is not activated with dephosphorylation?

- Acyl-CoA Synthetase

157. Which of the following options is not correct about ethanol metabolism?

- CYP2E1 levels are decreased by chronic ethanol administration

158. Which of the following substrate and enzyme pairs is not true?

- Cellulose = β-1,4 glucosidase

159. Which of the following is not a reducing sugar?

- Sucrose

160. Which of the following is meant by the statement that glucose and mannose are epimers?

- They differ only in the configuration about one carbon atom

161. Which one of the following is true for glycogen?

- Glycogenin is required for the formation of new glycogen particle

162. Which one of the following is not true for glycogen metabolism?

- Glycogen synthesis occurs by reversal of degradative (glycogen phosphorylase) pathway

163. Which of the following name is most common of Fatty Acid oxidation?

- β oxidation

164. Which isozymes of LDH is found in RBC?

- LDH1

165. bile acid conjugation?

- glycine taurine

166. A teenager boy moderate to severe epigastric pain... eruptive xanthomas hepatosplenomegaly...
milky plasma... floating creamy layer... which lipoprotein is accumulating?

- chylomicrons

167. Which of the following enzyme is GTP dependent?

- Pepcarboxykinase

168. Which ETC complex transfers e- to 02 to produce H2O?

- Cytochrome a, a3

169. Which lipase is more important for neonate than healthy adults?

- Gastric lipase

170. Which ETC molecule is diffusible within the lipid bilayer of inner mitochondrial membrane?

- Coenzyme Q

171. Which enzyme uses H2O2 as substrate?

- Catalase
172. Which one describes best the connection between oxidative phosphorylation and ETC?

- H+ ions move from intermembrane space through ATPase to matrix.

173. Which disease is not included in Mucopolysaccharidoses?

- Hunter syndrome

174. Which substrates are used for lactose production?

- UDP-Galactose, glucose

175. If the values above are used in OGTT, how may patient have pre-diabetes risk?

- In OGTT pre-diabetes 140<- <-200mg/dl

176. Which monosaccharide is especially used in sperms?

- Fructose

177. Which enzyme deficiency cause hereditary fructose introlerance?

- Aldolase B

178. Dolichol linked oligosaccharide is donor of?

- N-linked glycoproteins

179. Which one of the carbohydrates is used as diagnostic agent for the evaluation of glomerular
filtration rate (GFR)?

- Inulin

180. In which part of the body is glucose-6-Phosphatase not found?

- Muscle and Adipose tissue

181. In which step of TCA cycle is FADH2 produced?

- Succinate DH

182. Which step of glycolysis is inhibited by Arsenite?

- Glyceraldehyde 3-P Dh

183. Which of the substrates or coenzymes is not a prosthetic group of pyruvate DH complex?

- Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide Phosphate

184. Which TCA cycle enzyme uses the same prosthetic group of pyruvate DH?

- Alpha-Ketoglutarate DH complex
185. A Nigerian boy (Bünyamin) goes to USA for studying medicine. He was treated with primaquine and
he had hemolytic anemia. Which enzyme deficiency causes this illness?

- Glucose- 6P Dehydrogenase

186. What is the name of same sugars differ in configuration around one specific carbon atom?

- Epimer

187. How is lactate transferred to glucose?

- Liver -> Muscle

188. Which of the B vitamin is required for transketolase?

- Thiamine

189. Which one is not included in Uronic Acid Pathway?

- 6-Phosphogluconate

190. Which of the glycogenolysis enzyme releases free glucose?

- Amylo ( 1-> 6)- glucosidase

191. Which ones accumulation cause cataract formation in diabetes?

- Sorbitol

192. Which one is the common substrate for glycolysis, glyconeogenesis and glycogenolysis?

- Glucose 6-P

193. Which one is the most potent positive effector of pyruvate carboxylase?

- Acetyl CoA

194. Which of the following are correct regarding regulation of glycolysis?

I. DHAP <--> Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate reaction continues as DHAP turning into Glyceraldehyde-3-

phosphate because the following glycolysis steps decrease the amount of Glyceraldehyde3-phosphate.
II. Fructose-2,6 biphosphate is a metabolite produced by glycolysis pathway enzyme.

195. Which of the transporters is insulin dependent?

- GLUT4

196. Which one of the followings has the highest phosphoryl- transfer potential?

- Phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP)

197. DHAP → Glyceraldehyde 3P (Enzyme: Triosephosphate isomerase) (^G´= 7,5 kcal/mol.) Which
statement is true about this formula?

- The reaction is endergonic and requires free energy.

198. Which of the following is correct regarding fatty acid oxidation?

- Fatty acids are carried in the cell by albumin. B) Fatty acids are activated by fatty acyl synthase on
mitochondria membrane

199. Which of the following answers isn’t related to why fructose in fruits doesn’t cause damage in liver
unlike industrial fructose?

- Fructose found in fruits skip glycolysis regulation step (PFK)

200. Gives us the ability to consider both carbohydrate amount and quality. Also it is the best way to
differentiate the effect of different types and amounts of food to the blood sugar level. Which of the
following describes these definitions?

- Glycemic load

201. Which of the following enzymes give electron directly to the coenzyme Q in etc.?

1-Glycerol 3-phospate dehydrogenase

3-Acyl Coa dehydrogenase

202. What is the uses of ketone body. Which is wrong ?

- At starvation can be taken by RBC for alternative energy sources

203. Which of the following about gluconeogenisis is not true?

- Citrate stimulates it by increasing g6p activity

204. There is a woman who is 20, goes to hospital with compliant of black urine. The laboratory
examination shows that she has anemia. She has this symptoms after eating fava beans. What is her
problem?

- Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency

205. Which of the following increased concentration of the molecules in mitochondria inhibits transfer
of electrons to oxygen in the electron transport chain?

- NADH

206. Which is following compounds leeds to ADP phosphorylation because of their group transfer
potential?

1) Phosphoenolpyruvate

2) Phosphocreatine

4) 1,3 biphosphoglycerate

207. Which one is not true about glycogen metabolism?

- Glycogen synthesis occur in the reverse degradation pathway

208. If malonate is added to the mitochondrial preparation where TCA is present, which compound's
level would decrease?

- Fumarate

209. Which following describes aldolase B deficiency?

- It causes Hereditary Fructose Intolerance

210. Which One of the following is true about aldohexoses (e.g., glucose) in the form
CHO(CHOH)4CH2OH?

- There are 16 different straight chain structure therefore there are 16 different sugars

211. Which one is the coenzymes of the enzymes, which catalises only oxidation reaction of the
conversion of glucose to pyruvate(glycolysis)?

- NAD+

212. Which of the following cells use only glucose as an energy source?

- RBCs

213. Venous, whole blood and serum are blood samples used for glucose measurement, but produce
different results. What is the order of results according to glucose level from lowest to highest?

1. |||. Whole blood 2. |. Serum 3. ||. Plasma

214. Which of the following vitamin is required for the synthesis of cofactor required for the oxidation of
malate in TCA cycle?

- Niacin

215. Correct order the Fatty Acid Synthesis steps?

1) Condensation

2) reduction of ketoacyl

3) Dehydration

4) Reduction of double bonds

216. Which lipid compound is found in least concentration in serum?

- Free Fatty Acids

217. Which of the following glycolysis reaction is catalyzed by Aldolase?

1,3-Biphosphoglycerate----Dihydroxyacetone phosphate+Glyceraldehyde-3-Phosphate
218. Rotenone works by inhibiting transfer of electrons from complex-1 to complex Q. Rotenone inhibits
ETC by reducing which complexes?

1-complex 3

2-complex 2

4-complex q

219. Which of the following is the right pairing options for DM test and its use?

- to monitor insulin production-----C peptide

- to monitor ketoacidosis-----Urinary ketone analysis

- to monitor kidney function-----Microalbumin

220. Which is the following the DM diagnostic tests different from others for analyze?

- HbA1C

221. Which of the following metabolite-enzyme pair is the example of feed forward stimulation?

- Fructose 1,6 biphosphate -Pyruvate kinase

222. Which of the following causes phosphocreatine <-> creatine reaction to proceed in the same way?

1. Increase ATP concentration

2. Increase creatine concentration

3. Decrease ADP concentration

223. What makes malonyl-CoA an important intermediate in fatty acid synthesis?

- It inhibits carnitines Shuttle that takes fatty acid into the mitochondria for oxidation

224. Which one of the following is not inhibited by high ratio of NADH/NAD+ ratio caused by Alcohol
consumption?

- Ketogenesis

225. After venous blood sample is drawn with suspect of DM patient in tubes which only contains NaF
(centrifuged) which glycolysis enzyme is inhibited before Centrifuged?

- Enolase

226. Which one of the following true for glycogen?

- Glycogenin require for synthesizing new glucose particles

227. Which of the following use only glucose as an energy source?

- Red Blood Cells

228. Which one of the followings is not related to diabetic ketoacidosis?

- Accumulation of sorbitol

229. Which of the following enzyme is active when is phosphorylated?

- Glycogen phosphorylase

230. Regarding to fatty acid oxidation which one is wrong?

- At cells occurs in cytosol.

231. Which of the following tissue doesn’t have Thiophorase and cannot use ketone bodies as its own
energy source?

- Liver

232. In 18 C fatty acid degradation how many ATPs we get if all Acetyl Coa molecules turn into CO2 and
H20?

- 120

233. It is the most common lysosomal disease. The deficient enzyme causes the accumulation of
glucocerebrosides. Hepatomegaly and osteoporosis of long bones are observed. What is your diagnosis?

- Gaucher

234. Which one is not true abbreviation for fatty acid? 18:2 (9-12)

- First double bond is between 12th and 13th carbons from carboxyl end .

235. Which of the following statements regarding the lipid structure is wrong?

- Triglycerides are amphipathic molecules which includes both hydrophilic and hydrophobic parts.

236. In _____ , dietary cholesterols enter ______ then go to _____ with circulation system . After that
cholesterols converted to _______ with ACAT in hepatocytes with LCAT in ______ . Fill the gaps.

A) erythrocytes, chylomicrons, the liver, cholesterol esters, plasma

237. After venous blood sample had been drawn from the patient who is suspicious for DM ...? .. the
blood tube only contains Iodoacetate and the tube was centrifuged. Which type of blood sample was
obtained with this sample?

- Venous serum

238. A gall stone that blocked the upper part of the bile duct would cause an increase in which of the
following?

- Excretion of fats in the feces

239. A 85 year old man with frequent urination was seen by his primary care physician. Which of the
following can be accepted in risk factors for Type II Diabetes Mellitus?

III. A parent or sibling with diabetes mellitus type II

IV. High triglyceride and cholesterol and low HDL

240. A 43 year old woman attend to hospital with polyuria , polydipsia . After examinations she
diagnosed with Diabetes Mellitus Type II . Which examination is not ADA standard exam for diabetes
diagnosis?

- INSULIN

241. Which mechanisms produce ATP or GTP?

II. Phosphoenolpyruvate → pyruvate

III. Succinyl CoA → Succinate

IV. 1,3 Biphosphoglycerate →3 phoshphoglycerate

242. Which of the following pathways are activated by high insulin/glucagon ratio?

I. Glycolysis

II. Glycogen synthesis

IV. Fatty Acid Synthesis

243. Imagine a toxin is introduced to the human body and inhibited the establishment of the proton
gradient in intermembrane space. What would you predict as a result?

- ATP Synthase would be unable to produce ATP

244. Which of the following activate PDH complex?

- Dephosphorylation by Pyruvate Dehydrogenase Phosphatase

245. Which of the following findings have been commonly seen in glycogen storage disease Type I ( Von
Gierke ) ?

I. Increased glycogen in liver

III. Increased uric acid concentration

IV. Increased triglyceride concentration

246. Which one of the following is the reason for the acceptance of TCA Cycle as a ‘ Cycle ‘ because of its
resynthesis ?

- Oxaloacetate

247. Which one of the followings is not a gluconeogenesis precursor molecule?

- Fatty acid
248. Which ones are correct?

III. Lactate dehydrogenase can convert lactose to glucose because NADH/NAD+ ratio is high

249. In which of the following all of individual are high energy indicators in a cell?

- ATP,, fructose 2,6 bisphosphate,, NADH

250. Which of the following statements about phosphorylated compounds is/are true?

III. The changes in ADP/ATP ratio has been used to differentiate cell death and viability

IV. Hydrolysis of ATP is coupled to energetically unfavorable reactions to maket hem proceed

251. Which of the following glycolysis is the most unfavorable one?

- Fructose-1,6-biphosphate → Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate + Dihydroxyacetone phosphate

252. Which of the following statements about energy carrier molecules is true?

- One molecule of FADH2 can cause the transfer of two hydrogen atoms

253. What is the way that a molecule with FAD follows through ETC?

- FAD → FeS → Q → Cytb → FeS → Cytc1 → Cytc →Cyta3 → O2

254. Initial glycosylation in collagen?

- hydroxylysine

255. Myoglobin and hemoglobin incorrect?

- hemoglobin monomeric, myoglobin tetrameric

256. Gel like structure have .... for the .....

- Proteoglycans

257. Achandroplasia cause short stature in a family, parents have normal stature but two children of
them have short stature with achandroplasia. What can the reason of it?

- Germline mosaicism

258. Thiamine (vitamin b1) deficiency causes-

Wernicke – Korsakoff

259. Which one doesn’t produce from hypothalamus?

- MSH

260. Which is type of regulation use phosphorylation and dephosphorylation?

- Covalently modification
261. Which one is not a property of histone?

- Leucine + Arginine

262. Which one is correct for X inactivation?

- Seen in all somatic cells of females and it is the inactivation of one of the X chromosome

263. Which one is not autosomal dominant?

- Phenylketonuria

264. Which of the following statement is wrong about human genome organization?

- Pseudogenes are active

265. Which one of the following is not indication for chromosome analyzing?

- All newborn

266. Which one is not a triplet disorder?

- Cystic fibrosis

267. Which one is not inherited multifactorial inheritance?

- Coroner Heart Disease

268. Which hormones increase in response to an increase in blood Ca+2 levels?

- PTH

269. Which one is cause right shift O2 dissociation curve?

- pH increase

270. Which of the component of ETC is affected from the carbonmoxide?

- cytochrome c oxidase

271. Which component of ETS complex does not provide proton to intermembrane space?

- ATP-synthetase

272. Which one is true about secondary structure?

- In B-pleated sheets, H bonds are perpendicular to the backbone.

273. What is the net charge of basic medium of an amino acid?

- (-1)

274. Which one polarized the light to left?

- (-)Lysine
275. Which one has S group in its side chain?

- Methionine

276. Which one is a basic amino acid?

- Histidine

277. If you use Trypsin to cleave which sequence you get?

-Phe-Gly-Met-Lys

278. Which deficiency causes Wernicke-Korsakoff disease?

- B1(Thiamine)

279. Which one has the toxic effect even if it is a water soluble Vitamin?

- B6 (pyridoxine)

280. Which one is not true for D vitamin?

- Rickets for adults, Osteomalacia is for children.

281. Which one of these not true regarding glycosaminoglycans?

- Heparin-not suphated

282. Which plasma protein is used diagnose for intravascular hemolysis?

- Haptoglobin

283. Which one of the following molecules have function on DNA replication?

- DNA A protein

284. Which plasma protein synthesis doesn't occur in the liver?

- Immunoglobulin G

285. Which of the following does not synthesized from tyrosine amino acid?

- Melatonin

286. In which of the following diseases you can see typical beta-gama binding in the serum protein
electrophoresis?

- Cirrhosis

287. Which plasma protein is acute phase and conjugated basic drugs?

- a1acid glycoprotein

288. Which enzyme is deficient in Hurler Syndrome?

- a-L-idorunidase
289. Which vitamin is involved in collagen synthesis?

- Vitamin C

290. 80 years old man.Bone pain. Serum level 10.00,albumin level 2,77, normal lipid level and a2
globulin increasd.Which test ?

- Haptoglobin

291. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

- Fatty acids are not used by the brain during prolonged starvation

292. Which of the following state regarding the proteins is not true?

- The target protein for lysosomal breakdown are generally intracellular proteins

293. Which of the following is important in SDS-PAGE test?

- both charge and molecular weight

294. 45 years-old male patient has complaints of increased dyspnea on exertion and shortness of breath
during exercise for the last several months. He denies cough, hemoptysis, chest pain, dysphasia, weight
loss, night sweats, or fevers. The patient states he used to smoke a few cigarettes a day while he was
young but had quit a few years ago. Pulmonary function tests and chest X-ray are abnormal. He has a
moderate elevation of liver transaminases. When you order protein electrophoresis, in which band do
you expect to find abnormality?

- α1 band

295. Which one of the following is wrong for protein and amino acids?

- Proteins of animal origin are considered a "incomplete" protein.

296. Which is wrong for protein energy malnutrition?

- It is common in adolescents.

297. Which of the following amino acids do not form alpha-ketoglutarate?

- Alanine

298. Which of the following factors increase urea synthesis?

1-NAG (N-acetyl glucosamine)

2-Protein rich meal

3-Arginine increase

299. Incorrect for aa?

- phenylalanine and tyrosine are acidic

300. Which of the following has a function on the direct DNA repair mechanism

- Photolyases

301. Which of the following amino acids has both basic and aromatic properties?

- Histidine

302. Which of the following sentence regarding protein degradation is not correct?

- Blood glycoproteins are degraded by polyubiquitination process

303. Which of the following enzyme is not active in dephosphorylated form?

- Glycogen phosphorylase

304. Which of the following amino acids is a nonpolar amino acid?

- Methionine

305. In which of the following are the sources of nitrogen participating in the urea structure correctly
stated?

- Glutamate and Aspartate

306. Which of the below are correct about glucuronic acid pathway?

II. Provides biosynthetic precursors like the pentose phosphate pathway

III. Interconverts some less common sugars to ones that can be metabolized

307. In which protein electrophoresis band, a copper-containing protein with ferroxidase activity is
located?

-α2

308. In which one of the following the following diseases collagen metabolism is not defected?

- Emphysema

309. Tests performed in a 38-year-old male patient who was admitted to the hospital with episodic
sweating, palpitations and increased blood pressure, showed that the level of metanephrine in the 24-
hour urine sample was high. Which of the following is your primary pre-diagnosis in planning the
advanced examination for the patient?

- Pheochromocytoma

310. A 23-year-old male presents to the ER with a fracture of his humerus, sustained in what appeared
to be a minor fall. He has a history of multiple fractures after a seemingly minor trauma. He also has
“blue sclera” and an aortic murmur. His underlying problem is most likely due to a mutation in which
one of the following proteins?

- Type 1 collagen
311. Essential pentosuria stems from the deficiency occurred in which of the following reactions?

- L-Xylulose → L-Xylitol

312. Sulfate groups contribute to the negative charge commonly associated with which one of the
following?

- Glycosaminoglycans (& Mucopolysaccharides)

313. Which of the following molecule in the kidney is participate in ammonium excretion and can be
converted to a substrate for gluconeogenesis?

- Glutamine

314. In which of the followings is the permanent acceptor / donor pair in the transamination reactions
of amino acids correctly expressed?

- Alpha Ketoglutarate / Glutamate

315. Which one of the following is an extracellular step in collagen synthesis?

- Removal of N and C terminal propeptides by specific peptidases

316. A 45 years-old male patient has complaints of increased dyspnea on exertion and shortness of
breath during exercise for the last several months. He denies cough, hemoptysis, chest pain, dysphasia,
weight loss, night sweats, or fevers. The patient states he used to smoke a few cigarettes a day while he
was young but had quit a few years ago. Pulmonary function tests and chest X-ray are abnormal. He has
a moderate elevation of liver transaminases. When you order protein electrophoresis, in which band do
you expect to find abnormality?

- α1 band

317. Which of the following is a function of the Serine amino acid?

- Participation in the structure of sphingosine

318. Which of the following molecule is not used as an energy source for liver metabolism?

- Acetoacetate

319. What is the isoelectric point of histidine? (pK1: 2, pK2: 7; pK3: 9)

-8

320. During synthesis of mature collagen fiber, which one of the following steps would occur within the
fibroblast?

- Formation of a triple helix

321. Which one of the following is wrong for protein and amino acids?

- Proteins of plant origin are considered a "complete" protein.

322. Which of the below sentences is correct regarding protein digestion metabolism?

III. Amino acid active transport from intestinal lumen is regulated by Na ATPase pump on the other side
of the membrane

IV. Hartnup disease is a genetic neutral amino acid transport defect in the small intestine and the
kidneys

V. In the γ-glutamyl cycle, glutathione acts as a carrier of neutral amino acids into intestinal cells

323. Which of the following statements about the 26S proteasome-mediated proteolysis is false?

- Short peptides are released by the degradation of proteins and Ubiquitin.

324. Which amino acid is ketogenic?

- Lysine

325. Which one of the following plays a role cell migration?

- Laminin

326. Which of the following is correct about glycoproteins?

I. Almost all of the globular proteins present in human plasma are glycoproteins

II. In N-linked glycosylation the sugar is attached through a nitrogen (NH) within the a asparagine or
arginine side group on the protein

IV. Glycoconjugates are formed in processes termed glycosylation.

327. For starting nitrogen-linked glycoprotein synthesis, carbohydrate units in the endoplasmic
reticulum are linked to which of the following molecules?

- Dolichol phosphate

328. Which one of the following amino acids is an essential amino acid?

- Tryptophane

329. At a neutral pH, a mixture of amino acids in solution would be predominantly is which one of the
followings?

- Dipolar ions

330. In which one of the following the following diseases collagen metabolism is not defected?

- Emphysema

331. Which of the followings is not synthesized from Glycine amino acid?

- Melanin
332. Which of the following is fatty acids and ketone body oxidation organs?

I. Myocardium

II. Skeletal muscle

IV. Renal cortex

333. Which of the following best represents the backbone arrangement of two peptide bonds?

- Cα—C—N—Cα—C—N

334. Which of the following amino acids is the precursor for Melatonin synthesis?

- Tryptophan

335. Which of the following statements is wrong?

- One nitrogen comes from glutamate and the other from alanine to synthesize urea

336. Which plasma protein measurement is useful for the evaluation and interpretation of hemolysis?

- Haptoglobin

337. Which of the urea cycle defect is X-linked Recessive?

- Ornithine transcarbamylase

338. Which one of the following is a dicarboxylic amino acid?

- Aspartic acid

339. Which of the following molecule is not used as an energy source for liver metabolism?

- Acetoacetate

340.

Which of the following enzymes in the glucuronic acid pathway catalyzes the reaction be-low?

- Phosphoglucomutase

341. Which of the following deficiencies cannot be related to vegetarian type nutrition?

- Fatty acid

342. Which kinase is responsible for the phosphorylation of metabolically important enzymes (such as
glycogen synthase) via glucagon and/or epinephrine action?

- Protein kinase A
343. What is the name of the electrophoresis band that carries the positive acute-phase plasma protein,
which transports basic and neutral lipophilic drugs in circulation?

- ɣ- band

344. At neutral Ph, a mixture of amino acid in solution would be predominantly...

- dipolar ions (zwitterion)

345. Which one of the following amino acids does NOT contain methyl-group in its side chain?

- Glycine

346. What is the amino acid that disrupts the alpha-helical structure?

- Proline

347. Which one of the following amino acids is aromatic and contain an OH group in its side chain?

- Tyrosine

348. Which of the following is wrong?

- D-lysine rotates polarized light to the right

349. What is the isoelectric point of lysine? (pL1=2,41 pL2=8,59 pL3=10,65)

- 9,62

350. Which one of the following amino acids contain an amide group?

- glutamine

351. Which of the following is a characteristic of glycine?

- Optically inactive

352. Which of the following amino acid contain a Sulfuric‐S group?

‐ Cysteine

353. Which of the following amino acids include two amino group in its structure?

- Lysine

354. Which one has S group in its side chain?

‐ Methionine

355. Which one is not a property of peptide bond?

- Parts can freely rotate in structure

356. Which is the structure of beta stratified protein?

- Secondary structure
357. What is the type of bond that occurs between cysteine residues in a polypeptide chain?

- Disulfide

358. Which one of the following is right?

- Beta-bends are composed of four amino acids, one of them usually is proline

359. Which one of the followings is not a feature of peptide bonds?

- Cis configuration

360. Which bones in the secondary structure of proteins provides the stability?

- H bonds

361. Which one is true about secondary structure?

‐ In B‐pleated sheets, H bonds are perpendicular to the backbone

362. Which is the source of Sulphate in GAGs?

- PAPs

363. Which one of the following is the primary inhibitor neurotransmitter in the brain?

- GABA

364. Which one is in ground substance?

- GAGs

365. Which type of collagen predominantly found in basal membrane?

- Type IV

366. Which one is the most abundant components of tendons?

- Collagen

367. Which one of the following is characteristic of glycine that might account for its use as the initial
amino acid in repeats of collagen molecule (G-X-Y)?

- Smaller molecular diameter compared to the other amino acids

368. On which residue of collagen does intracellular glycosylation occur?

- Hydroxylysine

369. Which of the following is apply to elastin?

- Desmosin

370. which one is not found in collagen?

‐ hydroxytryptophan (Tryptophan)
371. Which one is the most in tendon? (Which of the following does the tendon contain?)

- Collogen

372. Which one is the most type of collagen in basal lamina?

- Type IV

373. Which one is the highest in collogen structure?

- Glycine

374. Which aa metabolism ... yield free ammonium?

- Glutamate dehydrogenase

375. Which one causes Parkinson' disease in decreasing levels?

- Dopamine

376. Which one is precursor of urea cycle?

- Carbonyl

377. Which one is the first step of catabolism of most aa to α - ketoglutamete from ... ?

- Glutamate

378. Which of the following is the final metabolic product of serotonin in Urine?

- 5' Hydroxyindole Acetic Acid (5-HIAA)

379. Which of the following is not a pyrimidine molecule?

- Glycine

380. Which one has a role on short term indicator of protein malnutrition?

- Prealbumin

381. Which one is serotonin precursor?

- Tryptophan

382. Which of the following contributes to both nitrogen and carbon atoms to pyrimidine ring?

- Aspartate

383. Which one is neurotransmitter?

- Acetylcholine

384. Which pair (amino acid substrate-product) is wrong? A. Tryptophan - Serotonin /

B. Tyrosine – Melanin / C. Arginine - Nitric oxide / D. Glycine – Heme

E. Aspartate – Creatinine **
385. which type of Hemoglobin is most abundant inside the RBC?

- Hemoglobin A

386. Which of the following has minimum mobility in the electrical field?

- Gamma globulin

387. Which group of plasma protein deficiency causes hepatitis?

- α2 globulin

388. Which of the following plasma protein levels decrease during on inflammation?

- Transferrin

389. Which of the following is detergent used to achieve linear structure of proteins in electrophoresis?

- SDS

390. Which is not true for protein electrophoresis?

- Ig proceeds alpha-antitrypsin

391.

Which disease that this shape shows?

- Monoclonal gammopathy

392. Which disease happens cause of polymerization of hemoglobin which leads to a cascade of effects
decreasing blood flow?

- Sickle cells

393. Which one of the following structures is not a glycosaminoglycan?

- Keratin

394. Sulfate groups contribute to the negative charge commonly associated with? (2 answers)

- Glycosaminoglycans / - Mucopolysaccharides

395. Which of the following is activated sugars in galactose, glycogen and glycoprotein?

- Uridine Di phosphate

396. What is the type of protein defect that results in Marfan syndrome?

- Fibrillin
397. A water soluble protein is most likely to have highest proportion of which of following aminoacid
residue buried to it's core?

- Isoleucine

398. Which of the followings define the hyperammonemia toxicity best?

- Renal failure

399. Which of the following is not synthesized from tyrosine?

- Serotonin

400. Which is used for treatment of Parkinson’s Disease?

- L Dopa

401. Regarding to protein metabolism which one is not true?

- The target proteins for lysosomal breakdown are generally intracellular proteins

402. Which of the fallowing preferred substrate for resting cardiac muscle?

- Fatty Acid

403. Which of the following plasma proteins is missing in the emphysema?

- a1 antitripsin404.

405. Which of the following is not one of the findings of nephrotic syndrome?

- Low blood a2 macroglobulin levels

406. Regarding to electrophoresis which one is wrong?

- Negative charged particles migrate toward cathode

407. Which is not cause secondary hyperlipidemia?

- Smoking

408. Which of the following lipids is mostly found in the mitochondrial membranes?

- Cardiolipin

409. Which of the following parameters is not used in Framingham’s risk score?

- Triglycerides

410. Which of the following could be used as energy source in cardiac muscle?

1.fatty acid / 2.lactate / 3.glucose / 4.ketone bodies

411. Which of the following apolipoprotein is found in İDL but not LDL?

- Apo E
412. Which of the following molecules is defective in Marfan syndrome, which is characterized by the
long thin extremities, lens subluxation, skeletal muscle deformities and aortic aneurysm ?

- Fibrillin

413. What is the polar head of lechitin? A)Serine

- Choline

414. Which of the following enzymes is found in snake venom?

- Phospholipase A2

415. Which of the options below is the result of 7-dehydrocholesterol reductase (DHCR7) deficiency?

- Smith-Lemli-Opitz syndrome

416. Which of the following protein responsible for packaging triacylglycerols into neutral fat droplets in
adipose tissue?

- Perilipin

417. Which one is the wrong regarding measurement of lipid?

- If amount of TAG is less than 400 mg/dL , then LDL is measured spectrophotometer.

418. Hyperactivity, anxiety, and insomnia might be a symptom of which of the following?

- Decreased GABA

419. Which one of the eicosanoids has vasodilation and smooth muscle relaxation effect?

- Prostaglandin E2

420. Which of the following is not a property of cholesterol metabolism?

- A fatty acid bound to Carbon 3

421. Which of the following muscle contraction element is MI marker?

- Troponin

422. Which of the following is wrong about brown adipocytes?

- They are mainly located around internal organs in the mesenteric region of abdomen

423. Which of the following enzymes is involved in the formation of cross links in collagen synthesis?

- Lysyl oxidase

424. Which one is responsible for the formation of cholesterol ester in the cell?

- ACAT
425. What about resistin is true?

- Has insulin antagonist effect on glucose metabolism

426. Ground substance consists of which of the following?

- Proteoglycan

427. Which of the following is wrong about cholesterol synthesis?

- Synthesis takes place in mitochondria

428. Which of the following lipoproteins causes creamy layer formation when the plasma is kept at 4°C?

- Chylomicron

429. Calculate the LDL Cholesterol level of a patient whose Total Cholesterol value is 250 mg/dL,
Triglyceride value is 200 mg/dL, and HDL cholesterol value is 30 mg/dL.

- 180

430. Which of the following molecule is not a part of sphingomyelin?

- Methionine

431. Which of the following is a peripheral effect of leptin in the body?

- Hematopoietic cell proliferation

432. Which of the following/followings is preferred to be used as an energy source in the skeletal muscle
during fasting?

I. Fatty acids

III. Branched-chain amino acids

433. Which of the following is the regulation point in the bile acid synthesis as the rate limiting step?

- 7 alpha-hydroxylase

434. Which of the neurotransmitter function type-precursor pairings is not true?

- Aspartate --- excitatory --- Serine

435. The conversion of nascent chylomicrons to mature chylomicrons requires which of the following?

- High-density lipoprotein

436. Ahmet is a 21 year old student. Total Cholesterol level is 390 mg/dL, LDL Cholesterol level is 190
mg/dL and Triglycerides level is 450 mg/dL. Which of the followings defines the laboratory results best?

- Mixed hyperlipidemia

437. Which of the followings occurs as a result of catecholamine catabolism?

- Vanillylmandelic acid (VMA).

438. Which of the following is not a modifiable factor for cardiovascular heart disease?

- Gender

439. The relationship between chondrocytes and cartilage tissue is between which of the following and
adipocytes?

- Fat tissue

440. Which of the followings about sliding filament theory of muscle contraction is not true?

- thin filaments become smaller

441. In which of the following are the apolipoproteins common to both chylomicron and VLDL given
correctly?

- Apo CII, Apo E

442. Which enzyme is mainly responsible for releasing of prostaglandin precursor arachidonic acid from
cell membrane lipids?

- Phospholipase A2

443. Which one of the following is a characteristic of loose connective tissue?

- It is not resistant against stretching

444. Which of the following occurs in non-shivering thermogenesis?

- Fatty acids uncouple oxidative phosphorylation

445. Which of the following is synthesized from cholesterol?

- Aldosterone

446. Which of the following lipoprotein-apolipoprotein pairings is wrong?

- IDL-------Apo C

447. Which of the following diseases occur due to 7dehydrocholesterol reductase deficiency?

- Smith-Lemli-Opitz (SLO) syndrome

448. Which of the following/followings can be considered as primary mechanisms of atherosclerosis?

I-Monocyte adhesion

II-Endothelial injury

449. Which of the following lipoproteins increases in familial dysbetalipoproteinemia (type 3

hyperlipidemia)?

- IDL
450. Which one of the following is a large glycoprotein with dimer structure of 2 large units joined by
disulfide bond important in cell-ECM interactions?

- Fibronectin

451. Which of the followings about the cholesterol metabolism is not true?

- HMG CoA formation from acetyl Coa occurs in the mitochondria

452. Which of the following is not included in the properties of slow oxidative (type 1) muscle fibers?

- Cells are thickened

453. Which one of the following hormone-insulin effect pair is not correct?

- Adiponectin: Increases insulin resistance

454. Which plasmalogen, a complex lipid, is more common in heart tissue?

- Phosphatidyl-choline

455. Which complex lipid is formed by displacement of CMP from CDP-diacylglycerol by

phosphatidylglycerol?

- Cardiolipin

456. Which type of collagen is major component of basement membrane?

- Type 4

457. Which one doesn’t occur after catecholamine catabolism?

- L Dopa

458. LDL level?

- Depends on risk factor

459. The absorbance value of a solution containing 180 LDL cholesterol is 0.5. What is a concentration of
a solution with absorbance value of 0.3?

- 108

460. What is the LDL value based on Friedwald Equations? (Data: Total cholestrol 195, Hdl cholestrol 45,
Tg 140)

- 122

461. Blood group antigens are formed by more than two carbohydrate containing glycolipids. What is
the name of that glycolipids?

- Globosides
462. Which one is not used by muscle when fasting?

1.Fatty acid / 2.Glucose

463. Which one is not derived from mesenchymal stem cell?

- Osteoclast

464. Which one is NOT derived from adipose chemical?

- Fibronectin

465. Which of the statements are true? During the muscle contraction

1. The width of A zone stays same

2. Z lines move closer together

3. Sarcomeres become smaller

4. The filaments do not change in length

5. The width of I band becomes smaller

466. Which of the following elements of muscle contraction is used widely in the diagnosis of myocardial
infarction?

- Troponin

467. Which one is not true?

- Muscle cells synthesize glycogen and FAs during resting and recovery period *(Muscle cannot
synthesize FA)

468. Which of the statements are true?

I. L-Dopa is use in the treatment of Parkinson’s disease because it can pass the blood-brain barrier

II. Decrease in the excitatory neurotransmitters cause fatigue, sleepiness and loss of motivation

III. Glutamate is the most abundant neurotransmitter in CNS and primary excitatory neurotransmitter

IV. Acetylcholine induce the contraction of skeletal muscles, but it inhibits the contraction of the cardiac
fibers.

V. Acetylcholine is the primary neurotransmitter in the neuromuscular junction and its excitatory

469. Which one of the followings true for collagen?

1.contain carbohydrate residue.

3.Most abundant protein molecule

470. Which of the following contains desmosine cross-links?

- elastin
471. Which one of following mediator is responsible for inhibition of appetite?

- Leptin

472. Which one of the these is not adipose derived chemical?

- Ghrelin

473. Which molecule produced from adipocyte to increase insulin sensitivity?

- Leptin

474. Which one is not CNS action of leptin?

- Hematopoietic cell proliferation

475. Some TAGs* are transferred to HDL* and some Cholesterol esters* are transferred to VLDL*

modification. VLDL * remnants IDL* are converted to LDL* in plasma.

476. The major apoprotein is different in which of the following lipoproteins?

- Chylomicron

477. Which one of the following couples is wrong?

- LDL - B48

478. Which of the following is similar to plasminogen competes with plasminogen for fibrin binding sites
thus increased plaque formation?

- Apo (a)

479. Pancreatitis is a common complication of which of the following of primary dyslipidemia?

- Type l

480. Which of the following vitamin absorption is not efficient in Abetalipoproteinemia?

- Vitamin B

481. The liver cholesterol pool is not used for which of the following's synthesis?

- Chylomicron

482. Which is the least found in plasma?

- Free fatty acids

483. Which one of the following is not true for ghrelin?

- Stimulates insulin production

484. Which enzyme is missing in Hunter syndrome?

- Iduronate sulfatase
485. Which bond of cellulose in the human gut cannot be digested because it cannot be hydrolyzed?

- beta glycosidic bond

486. When a patient is suspected to have liver and bone diseases together, which of the following
enzyme is more helpful for diagnosis?

- Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)

487. Which of the following reactions of the glucuronic acid pathway is absent in humans?

- L-Glunolactone → Keto L-Glunolactone

488. Which of the following correctly lists the correct order of terms related to glucose measurement?
The ........ colored tube containing ...............inhibits ........... and stops glycolysis therefore this tube can
be used for glucose analysis in waiting samples.

- gray, Na fluoride, enolase

489. Which of the following/followings about diabetic ketoacidosis is/are not true?

I. It occurs in Type I diabetes but not in Type II diabetes

III. First ketone body to be produced is acetone

490.

In the graph star sign indicates what type of enzyme inhibition?

- Non-competitive inhibition

491. Which of the following statements are related with structure of proteins are true?

I. Secondary structures are formed by a regular repeating pattern of hydrogen bond formation between
backbone atoms

II. Side chains are not involved in secondary structures of proteins

IV. Three-dimensional structure of a protein is determined by primary structure

492. Which of the following is a synthetic pyrimidine analogue?

- 5-fluorouracil

493. Which of the following findings is a diabetic value according to ADA?

I. Fasting Glucose: 145 mg/dL

II. 2-hour Glucose in OGTT: 220 mg/dL

494. Which of the following is the slowest mechanism for regulating the activity of a metabolic pathway
control enzyme?

- Increase in the synthesis of the enzyme

495. Which of the following plasma proteins is found in alpha-2 band in protein electrophoresis?

- Haptoglobin

496. Which of the following statements regarding complex lipids is not correct?

- Plasmalogens have an ether-linked hydrocarbon chain at C-1 of glycerol d) Phospholipase A catalyzes

the cleavage of the phosphodiester bond of phospholipids and produces a phosphatidic acid and an
alcohol

497. Which of the following is not a parameter that can be measured with a urine strip?

- Stercobilinogen

498. A 23-year-old male patient presents to the emergency department with a fractured humerus. The
patient has a history of multiple fractures after a minor trauma to what appears to be a minor fall. He
also has a “blue sclera” and an aortic murmur. The underlying problem is most likely caused by the
mutation of which of the following proteins?

- Type 1 collagen

499. Which of the following metabolic reactions produces ATP or GTP?

II. Succinyl CoA → Succinate

III. 1,3-bisphoshoglycerate → 3-phosphoglycerate

IV. Phosphoenolpyruvate → Pyruvate

500. Which of the following is caused by the increase in the amount of glucagon?

II. Pyruvate Carboxylase activation

III. Hormone sensitive lipase activation

501. Which of the following vitamins’ coenzyme form is involved in the simultaneous transfer of 2
electrons and 2 protons?

- Riboflavin

502. Complete the following statement about lipoprotein metabolism by filling in the blanks with the
correct term. Which of the following correctly lists the correct order of terms?

´____ esterify dietary cholesterol to transport to____ and packages it as ____. Acyl coenzyme A (CoA)-
cholesterol acyl transferase (ACAT) converts ____ to store excess cholesterol in the cell. Lecithin-
cholesterol acyltransferase (LCAT) is found____ .

- Enterocytes, liver, chylomicron, cholesterol esters, in plasma

503. Which is the rate limiting enzyme in glycogenolysis?

- Phosphorylase

504. Which of the following metabolites is involved in glycogenolysis, glycolysis, and gluconeogenesis?

- Glucose-6-phosphate

505. Which one of the statements is wrong about the Gibbs free energy change for an exergonic
reaction? Delta G = Delta G0´ + RT ln{[Products]/[Reactants]}

- Under standard conditions, Delta G value becomes more negative.

506. Which of the following does not be synthesized from pyruvate in human?

- Ethanol

507. In which step of the citric acid cycle, FADH2 is formed?

- Succinate dehydrogenase step

508. Which of the following sentences regarding gluconeogenesis regulation is not correct?

- AMP is an allosteric activator of Fructose 1,6 bisphosphatase

509. In which case, beta-gamma bridging is observed?

- Cirrhosis
510. Which of the amino acids given below carries the nitrogen atoms of the muscle amino acids to the
liver?

- Alanine

511. It is formed in pineal gland, its synthesis controlled by light and it is important in circadian rhythms.
Which of the followings is the defined structure and its amino acid precursor?

- Melatonin-Tryptophan

512. In which of the following condition we do not see hyperuricemia in a patient?

- Carbamoyl phosphate synthase deficiency

513. Which of the following amino acid pairs are important in alpha helix formation?

- proline-glycine

514. Which of the following statements about the exercise biochemistry is true?

I. Phosphagen system is the first to supply ATP for the muscles during exercise but has a limited source
lasting for about 15 seconds

III. Aerobic System is an unlimited energy source as long as nutrients last

515. Which of the following enzymes is not included in Pentose Phosphate Pathway?

- Triose phosphate isomerase

516. Which of the followings is the first ketone body to be formed?

- Acetoacetate

517. Which of the following sentence regarding protein degradation is not correct?

- Blood glycoproteins are degraded by polyubiquitination process

518. Which of the following lipoprotein apolipoprotein pairings is wrong?

- Chylomicron ----- Apo B-48

519. Which of the following statements about Electron Transport Chain (ETC. and Oxidative
Phosphorylation are correct?

I. Low ADP concentration inhibits the oxidation part of oxidative phosphorylation.

III. Uncouplers increases the oxidation rate in oxidative phosphorylation and causes high body
temperature.

IV. Coenzyme Q is the only electron carrier not bound to a protein

520. Which nucleotide is used for the activation of intermediates in glycerophospholipid synthesis?

- CDP

521. Which of the following is not present in Lineweaver-Burk Plot formula for enzyme kinetics?

- pH

522.

Which of the following enzymes in the glucuronic acid pathway catalyzes the reaction below?

- Phosphoglucomutase

523. Which of the following plasma proteins is not synthesized in the liver?

- IgG

524. Which of the following glycolysis reactions has the highest negative delta G value?

- Phosphoenolpyruvate + ADP → ATP + Pyruvate

525. Which of the following is not one of the test used in the diagnosis or follow-up of diabetes?

- Alanine aminotransferase
526. In most patients with gout as well as those with Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, purines are overproduced
and overexerted. Yet the hypoxanthine analogue allopurinol, which effectively treats gout, has no effect
on the severe neurological symptoms of Lesch-Nyhan patients because it does not do which one of the
following?

- Decrease de novo purine synthesis

527. Which of the following Monosaccharide metabolism disorders shows the mildest clinical
symptoms?

- Essential fructosuria

528. In which protein electrophoresis band, a copper-containing protein with ferroxidase activity is
located?

-α2

529. Which of the following is transported to the mitochondrial matrix during oxidative
phosphorylation?

I. ADP / II. Pyruvate / III. Phosphate

530. Which of the following has the highest Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA. for carbohydrate
intake?

- Breastfeeding

531. Which of the following blood glucose values indicates the presence of impaired fasting glucose?

- 100-125

532. Which type of enzyme specificity is found in “hexokinase” enzymes?

- Group specificity

533. Which of the following glycolysis reactions would be affected in the presence of arsenic?

- Glyceraldehyde 3-Phosphate → 1,3-bisphoshoglycerate

534. Which is the rate-controlling step of pyrimidine synthesis that exhibits allosteric inhibition by
cytidine triphosphate (CTP)?

- Aspartate transcarbamoylase

535. Which of the following statements about regulation of glycolysis are true?

I. Alanine is a negative allosteric effector on glycolysis.

III. The organs having low ratio of NADH/NAD+ are lactate consuming organs

536. Glycosaminoglycans linked to core protein via which amino acid to form brush border?

- Serine

537. Which amino acid carries the amino group of the amino acids into the mitochondria in liver?
- Glutamate

538. Which of the fallowing laboratory equipment is used measure value more accuracy than others?

- Graduated cylinder

539. Which of the followings regarding the eicosanoids in not true?

- Leukotrienes stimulates bronchodilation

540. which serum protein is evaluated in immunofixation electrophoresis?

- Immunoglobulin

541. Which one is right for adiponectin?

I) Stimulates interleukin-10 (IL-10).

II) Stimulates COX-2.

IV) Stimulates eNOS.

542. If precursor is lactate, which intermediate is not produce in gluconeogenesis?

- Malate

543. Which of following is not a function of glycine?

- It is most important methyl donor

544. after a high calorie meal intake, during absorptive phase of liver, which of the following metabolic
event is not observed?

- Stimulation of PEP-carboxylase

545. How does PPP work in rapidly dividing cell?

- most of glucose 6 P convert into fructose 6P and glyceraldehyde 3P by glycolytic pathway.

Transaldolase and transketolase convert 2 molecules of fructose 6P and one glyceraldehyde 3P into 3
ribose 5P reversal of non-oxidative phase

546. Which TCA cycle enzyme uses niacin as a coenzyme?

- isocitrate dehydrogenase

547. In Electron Transport Chain by which of the following enzyme complex electrons are transferred to
O2?

- Complex 4

548. Which level of hba1c is diabetic?

- 6.8

549. Which one of the following amino acid has an aliphatic side chain?
- Leucine

550. Which one of the apolipoprotein lipoprotein matchings is wrong?

- Chylomicron remnant - Apo C2

551. Which of the followings statement about cholesterol metabolism is not true?

- From cholesterol we can synthesize Vitamin E

552. Which of the following vitamin coenzyme form involve in transfer 2 electrons and 1 proton
simultaneously?

- Niacin

553. Which of the following is not an artificial sweetener?

- Glutamate

554. Which of the metabolic pathway -organelle couple is wrong?

I) Fatty acid synthesis-mitochondria

IV) Gluconeogenesis (most reaction)-mitochondria

555. During a physical activity requiring short term, max power, which of the following substrates is
used primarily by skeletal muscle?

- phosphocreatine

556. What is the LDL value based on Friedwald Equations? (Data: Total cholestrol 240, Hdl cholestrol 35,
Tg 200)

- 165

557. Which of the following ATP depended on kinases catalyze ATP+AMP=2ADP?

- Adenylate kinase

558. Which of the following glycolysis reaction is catalyzed by Aldolase?

1,3-Biphosphoglycerate----Dihydroxyacetone phosphate+Glyceraldehyde-3-Phosphate

559. Which one is not a conjugated protein?

- Scleroprotein

560. Which of the following does not use ketone bodies under any condition?

- Erythrocyte

561. Which of the following increased concentrations of the molecules in mitochonderia inhibits transfer
of electrons to oxygen in the ETC?
- NADH

562. Which of the following is wrong for the sliding theory that is effective in muscle contraction?

- Overlap zone becomes smaller

563. Which is not required for glycogen synthesis?

- Glycogen phosphorylase

564. Which of the following is not one of the substrate-enzyme pairings found in humans?

Cellulose - β-1,4 glucosidase

565. Which of the following is not found in adipose tissue?

- Glycerol kinase

566. Which of the following proteins distinguish serum electrophoresis and CSF electrophoresis?

- Beta2 transferrin

567. Which enzyme deficiencies caused by diseases is wrong?

- Galactose intolerance – galactokinase

568. What value should LDL be desired in an individual with a heart attack?

- 100

569. Which is regulator enzyme of pentose phosphate pathway?

- Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase

570. Which one is not a function of lipids?

- Muscle contraction

571. What is the net energy production of a 16 carbon fatty acid when it is completely oxidized?

- 106

572. Which of the followings about for ketone bodies are true?

1) Ketone bodies are formed when fats are rapidly broken down

3) Prolonging fasting or Diabetes increase that formation

4) Heart muscle can use ketone bodies as energy source

5) Excessive production ketone bodies cause acidic

573. Which statement is wrong for fatty acid synthesis?

- glucagon increases fatty acid synthesis

574. Which of the statements about muscle contraction is/are true?

1- glycogen phosphorylase in muscle is activated with amp ,ca

2- heart muscle use glucose when blood glucose level is elevated

4- fatty acid oxidation is control with malonyl Coa concentration in muscle

5- troponin is a biomarker myocardial infarction

575. Which of the following statements about the neurotransmission process is not true?

- Histamine levels are decreased during inflammation.

576. Which of the following is the first synthesized glycerophospholipid?

- phosphatidic acid

577. Which of the following is wrong with proteolytic?

- Arginine and glycine residues are participation in process

578. Which band is lack in a emphysema patient?

- Alpha 1 band

579. Which one is True?

I. hexokinase is normally active in cell when glucokinase only turns on glycose levels is high

III. fructose-2 phosphate is the most potent allosteric enzyme of PFK enzyme

IV. high NADH/NAD ratio in heart cell, lactate dehydrogenase turns lactate to pyruvate

580. Which of the following is activated by high insulin/glucagon ratio?

I – glycolysis

II- glycogen synthesis

III- fatty acid synthesis

581. Which one isn't the mechanism of the regulation enzyme activation?

- Lowering activation energy

582. Gluconeogenic conversion of lactate into glucose by the liver require?

- Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxylase

583. Which of the following is not modifable factor for cardiovascular heart disease?

- Age

584. Which of the following hbA1c values is a prediabetic value?

- 5.7
585. Which of the following enzyme use oxygen and NADP during reaction and inhibited by presence of
bile acid?

- 7 ∝ hydroxylase

586. Patient's fasting glucose is 115 after 15??? hours fasting. what is your diagnose?

- IFT

587. Which one is not pre-analytic error?

- incorrect report

588. During breakdown of purine nucleotides for urine acid, adenosine deaminase directly converts
adenosine to which one of the following?

- Inosine

589. Which is not adipokines derivative chemical?

- cAMP

590. which of the following is not true for enzymes?

- they increase rapidity of reaction by increasing activation energy

591. What is glucokinases class according to the EC (Enzyme Commission)?

- Transferases

592. Which of the following is not a secreted glycoprotein?

- Blood group antigens

593. Which of the following amino acid contain a Sulfuric-S group?

- Cysteine

594. Which of the following contributes to both nitrogen and carbon atoms to pyrimidine ring?

- Aspartate

595. Regulatory enzyme of ketone synthesis?

- HMG Synthase

596. Which of the following doesn’t participate in the pathways related with homocysteine metabolism?

- Cystathionine

597. Which enzyme has liver, intestine and bone isoenzymes?

- LDL
598. Major metabolite that are produced under normal circumstance by liver and skeletal muscle that
live in cori cycle?

- Lactate

599. Which one is function of LCAT?

- Transfers of cholesterol to other lipoproteins

600. Which of the following is not needed for the de novo of fatty acids?

- Carnitine

601. Correct ordering of lipoproteins from the highest to lowest density?

- HDL, LDL, VLDL, Chylomicron

602. Uncouplers dissociate oxidation in Resp. Chain form phosphorylation and high dose of aspirin. And
aspirin is an uncoupler for oxidative phosphorylation. Which one is not an effect of high dose aspirin?

- Hypothermia (low body temperature) occurs

603. Which one has the lowest reduced potential?

- Cytochrome a3

604. Which reaction occurs in mitochondria and cytoplasm?

- Heme Synthesis

605. Which type of food is consumed rarely?

- Food that has more sugar and energy

606. Which one is not features of vitamin A?

- Bone mineralization

607. Which one is precursor of F.A synthesis?

- Malonyl CoA

608. Which one is necessary for transmission of long F.A from cytoplasm to mitochondria?

- Coenzyme A

609. Which one is regulation step of de novo purine synthesis?

- PRPP → 5-phosporibosylamine

610. Which one is not correct about Gibbs free energy?

- If /\G is positive, this reaction is spontaneously .

611. Which one is not correct about hemoglobin structure?

- One hemoglobin includes two iron atoms ( Fe )

612. Which one occurs during noncompetitive reaction?

- Vmax decreases, Km is stable

613. Substrate level phosphorylation in TCA cycle is step?

- Succinate thiokinase

614. Reducing equivalents from succinate enter the mitochondrial respiratory chain at…?

- FAD

615. In Classic Galactosemia, accumulation of which compound cause severe symptoms such as cataract
and mental retardation?

- Galactitol

616. Which one of the compounds block the flow of protons through ATP synthase at respiratory chain?

- Oligomycin

617. Which one of the following statements about glycogen metabolism is wrong?

- Glycogenolysis liberates glucose-1 phosphate and free glucose in muscle tissue

618. Which pair (amino acid substrate-product) is wrong?

- Thyrosine - Melanin

619. The pentose phosphate pathway protects erythrocytes against hemolysis by assisting me enzyme?

- Glutathione peroxidase

620. Which one of the following is a rate limiting enzyme of gluconeogenesis?

- Pyruvate carboxylase

621. Which of the following statements about pyruvate kinase enzyme is wrong?

- In pyruvate kinase deficiency, increased ratio of ADP to ATP in red blood cells is seen In many glycolytic
tissues, alanine activates conversion of phosphoenolpyruvate into pyruvate

622. UDP Glucuronic acid is required for the reactions below except?

- Glycogen synthesis

623. Which one is true for vitamins?

Newborns are prone to vitamin K deficiency therefore are injected with Vitamin K to protect from
Vitamin K deficiency
624. Which one is not a steroid hormone?

- Insulin

625. What is wrong for diabetic ketoacidosis?

- Tissues cannot absorb glucose and this causes activation of glycolysis

626. Which hormone is not synthetized from hypothalamus?

- ACTH

627. What is wrong for cholesterol metabolism?

- Vitamin A is synthesized from cholesterol.

628. Which of the followings is synthesized during fatty acid synthesis and inhibits fatty acid oxidation in
carnitine acetyltransferase step?

- Malonyl CoA

629. Which one is found highest in collogen structure?

- Glycine

630. Which one is wrong for protein structure?

- All of the hemoglobin contained in the body is composed of two alpha and two beta subunits

631. Which of the following/s is/are expected to see in insulin-dominant metabolism?

- Phosphofructokinase is active
632. Which of the following protein responsible for packaging triacylglycerols into neutral fat
droplets in adipose tissue?
- Perilipin
633. Which is not a laboratory finding which is seen in hyperglycemia?
- Decreased glucose in urine

634. Which of the following muscle contraction elements is used in Myocardial Infarction
diagnosis?
- Troponin
635. Which of the following takes place in oxidative phosphorylation by transferring electrons
one by one?
- Cytochrome C
636. During glycogenesis first glucose bound to which amino acid part of the glycogenin
(primer) protein?
- Tyrosine
637. Which of the following is the rate limiting enzyme of cholesterol synthesis?

- HMG CoA reductase

638. Which lipid elevation cause the formation of creamy layer on top of the lipemic serum
after standing test?
- Chylomicrons
639. What is the LCAT activator?
- Apo A1

640. Which enzyme catalyze the reaction?

Fructose-6-phosphate>>>>>fructose-1,6-bisphosphate

- Phosphofructokinase-1 (PFK-1)
641. Which of the followings occurs as a result of catecholamine catabolism?
- Vanillylmandelic acid (VMA).

642. When velocity of enzyme activity is plotted against substrat concentration, which of the
following is obtained?
- Hyperbolic curve
643. Which one of following mediator is responsible for inhibition (decrease) of appetite?
- Leptin

644. It is formed in pineal gland, its synthesis controlled by light and it is important in circadian
rhythms. Which of the followings is the defined structure and its amino acid precursor?

- Melatonin-Tryptophan
645. Which of the following statements is wrong?
- One nitrogen comes from glutamate and the other from alanine to synthesize urea
646. Imagine a toxin is introduced to the human body and inhibited the establishment of the
proton gradient in intermembrane space. What would you predict as a result?
- ATP Synthase would be unable to produce ATP

647. Which of the following is the main substrate to limit the rate of the TCA cycle that converts
excess Acetyl-CoAs to ketone bodies?

- Oxaloacetate
648. Which of the following values can be defined as the improved fasting glucose according to
ADA?
- 90-120**
- 100-125** (IF THE QUESTION HAS IMPARED INSTEAD OF IMPROVED)
649. In purine metabolism which one of the following purine nucleotide formed first?
- Inosine monophosphate
 HISTOLOGY & EMBRYOLOGY
1. Which one of these systems is widely distributed in several anatomical sites but does not form an
organ system?

- Skeletal system

2. Which of the following choices does not belong to the main classification of "four basic tissues"?

- Bone tissue

3. Which type of microscope is used for scanning the surface of the tissue?

- SEM - AFM

4. Which of the given information is wrong about fixation step of tissue preparing process?

- The most important thing for fresh tissue is not to contact with air and sunlight, so you can put it into a
well closed dark colored bottle within water for 1-2 days.

5. After using increased degrees of alcohol and reached 100% pure alcohol level which chemical will can
be used at next step of tissue preparing process?

- Xylene

6. Which one of the given microscopes has the best resolving power?

- The transmission electron microscope

7. Which of the given information is wrong about stains and staining procedures?

- To protect the slide from environmental harmful effects we should close over the glasses with coverslip
immediately after eosin step at staining procedure of Hematoxylen&amp;Eosin.

8. Which of the followings does not belong to optical parts of a light microscope?

- Fine adjustment knob

9. Which organelle is responsible from autolysis?

- Lysosome

10. Which step comes just after that ‘clearing’ at tissue processing?

- Embedding

11. Which one of the following chemicals is not used during H&E staining process of a tissue sample
taken on a microscopic slide?

- Formaldehyde

12. Which of the given information is true about staining steps?

- Most commonly used acidic dye for routine staining at a histology lab is ‘Eosin’
13. What is the magnification level of the ocular lens (not the objective lens) on a compound
microscope?

- 10x

14. Which is wrong about “tissue preparation procedure”?

- All tissues’ preparation steps chemical and duration are the same except light and electron microscope.

15. Fill in the blanks:

.............. is most commonly used in fixative in electron microscope.

.............. allows the perception of three-dimensional views of the surface of cells or tissues.

............... is a microscope in which a beam of electron is transmitted through an ultra-thin specimen.

- Glutaraldehyde - SEM - TEM

16. Which type of microscope especially used for examination of living cells?

- Electron Microscope

17. Which of the following is wrong about light microscope?

- The magnification power is the summing of the objective and ocular lens magnification power

18. Which steps allow the tissue to be visualized?

- Staining

19. What is the 3D structural shape when 2D figures show circle of different size?

- Sphere

20. How thick or thin should a histological sample be microtomed for light microscope?

- Micrometer

21. How many cells exist in 1millimeter cube?

- 1000000

22. What is power magnification to be able to see cells that 1cm long with light microscopy?

- 1000X

23. Which part of cell is stained blue color?

- Nucleus

24. Which of the following organelles does not have cell membrane?

- Ribosomes
25. Which of the organelles has its own DNA?

- Mitochondria

26. Which of the following is not belong to the intermediate filament classes?

- Kinesin

27. What is the name of the stain that use to observe mitochondria in kidney tubules?

- Iron Hematoxylin

28. What is the type of intracellular inclusion that we can distinguish with osmium tetroxide dye?

- Lipid inclusion

29. Which of cells carry out their secretions by using the constituve pathway one of the general pathway
of exocytosis?

- Plasma cells

30. Which of the following structures doesn’t belong to the class of integral membrane proteins?

- Inclusion

31. Which statement about peroxisome is false?

- Peroxisomes possess two membranes

32. Which of the following is a member of rapidly renewing population?

- Blood cells

33. Which one about cell cycle is false?

- In G2 phase cell gathers nutrients and synthesizes RNA and proteins necessary for DNA synthesis and
chromosome replication.

34. With which protein does the microtubules of the developing mitotic spindle attach to the
chromosomes?

- Kinetochores

35. Which of the following information about the smooth-surfaced endoplasmic reticulum (sER) is not
true?

- sER has its own DNA

36. In which of the following structures are the microtubules found?

- Central part of the cilium

37. In which of the following organelles lysosomal enzymes and lysosomal membrane proteins are
synthesized?

- Rough-surfaced endoplasmic reticulum

38. In which phase of the following stages does the crossing-over occurs?

- Pakiten

39. Which of the following intermediate filaments are found in the nucleoplasm?

- Lamins

40. Which of the following proteins are involved in the movement of intracellular organelles associated
with microtubules?

- Cytoplasmic dyneins and kinesins

41. Which of the following information about cell death mechanisms including necrosis and apoptosis is
not true?

- Damage to the plasma membrane may also be initiated by viruses, or proteins called perforins in the
apoptosis

42. Which of the following organelles is not a non-membranous organelle?

- Peroxisomes

43. Which of the following is not an integral membrane protein?

- Crystals

44. Which of the following statements is not true for endocytosis?

- Phagocytosis is clathrin-dependent endocytosis

45. In which of the following organelles lysosomal enzymes and lysosomal membrane proteins are
synthesized?

- rER

46. Which of the followings are the components of the Nissl bodies in nerve cells?

- It consists of rER and a large number of free ribosomes

47. Which of the following is not an inclusion?

- Catalase

48. Which of the followings about the microtubules of the cytoskeleton elements is not true?

- The microtubules grow from β-tubulin rings that serve as nucleation sites for each microtubule
embedded in MTOC
49. Which of the following information about necrosis and apoptosis (cell death mechanisms) is not
true?

- Viruses or proteins called perforins in the apoptosis can damage the plasma membrane

50. Which of the followings is false for chromatin structure in the cell nucleus?

- Eight nucleosomes form one turn in the coil of chromatin fibril, which is approximately 100-folder
shorter than unfolded DNA.

51. Which of the following statements is false for cell nucleus?

- The nucleus of dividing cell consists 4 components; chromatin, nucleolus, nuclear envelope,
nucleoplasm

52. Which part of nucleolus represents site of initial ribosomal assembly and contains densely packed
perisomal particles?

- Granular Material (pars granulosa)

53. All living organisms, bacteria, plants, animal is made of cells, what are the components found in all
cells?

- Membrane-DNA-ribosome

54. Which of the following mitochondrion organelle resembles most?

- Bacteria

55. Staggered Tetramer, forming non-polarized unit?

- Intermediate Filament

56. Which is the best defining of the difference between Heterochromatin and Euchromatin?

- Heterochromatin is transcriptionally inactive, Euchromatin is transcriptionally active

57. Which is dyed from kresil violet?

- rER

58. What is the 3D shape of cell that shows different sizes of 2D shape triangle?

- Pyramid

59. Which type of cell surface modification contains microfilament?

- Microvilli

60. Which signification is needed if we want to see mitochondria 1 cm on Transmission Electron

Microscope?

- 10000
61. Which one of the organelles is used for transcription from DNA to RNA?

- Nucleus

62. Which of the following cell types is demonstrated here?

- Pyramidal cell

63. Which of the following is wrong?

- G2 checkpoints control for protein synthesis involved in mitotic machinery formation and
environmental factors

64. Which of the statements about human cell is correct?

- Human cells contain 23000 protein coding genes each

65. Which one is wrong about cell cycle regulation?

- Substrate kinases are proteins needed for regulation

66. Which of the following statement about nuclear envelope is not correct?

- Nuclear envelope is not part of endomembrane system

67. Which dye used for glycogn granules?

- Best’s carmine

68. Which of the following has more membrane surface/volume ratio?

- Protozoa

69. Which one is false for cell nucleus?

- Nucleus of non-dividing cells contain only 2 parts ( nucleolus and chromatin )

70. Which one include known oldest organism?

- Prokaryote

71. Which one is wrong?

- Vancomycin for gram (-)

72. Which one of the following is delivered from ectodermal germ layer?

- Central Nervous System

73. How many days does the developmental gestational age that begins with fetrilizarion?

- 266 days

74. Which one does not occur during gastrulation?

- extraembryonic coelom formation

75. 1-Cytotrophoblasts

2-Endothelial lining of fetal capillaries

3-Syncytiotrophoblasts

4-Mesenchymal tissue

Choose the answer that gives the layers of the placental membrane in correct order starting from
outside (maternal side) towards fetal capillaries.

- 3,1,4 and 2

76. Choose the statement that is not included within the 4 rules of teratology.

- During the first two weeks of development, the embryo is either lost or continues to live when exposed
to a teratogen.

77. Which of the following isn't of the placental functions?

- Amnion fluid production

78. Which of the following develops in the mesoderm from primitive node to the prechordal plate in the
embryo disc?

- Notochord

79. Which of the following is not true for the implantation process?

- The blastocyst entirely embedded in the endometrium by day 21 after fertilization

80. Which one of the followings isn't a characteristic for the development of an ovarian follicle?

- Formation of corpus luteum

81. Which organelle don't have major function in spermiogenesis?

- Endoplasmic reticulum

82. Which statement is false for oogenesis?

- At ovulation, the nucleus of the secondary oocyte begins the second meiotic division but progress only
to prophase, when division is arrested.

83. What is the major event occurring during first week?

- Cleavage of the zygote

84. The corpus luteum of pregnancy remains functionally active throughout the first...... of pregnancy.
Fill in the blanks.

- 20 weeks
85. When does the acrosome reaction begins? It begins when.............

- The sperm come into contact with corona radiata,

86. How many days after implantation occur bleeding?

- 14-15

87. Embryoblasts are ---------, that they have the potential to become ANY of the 220 types of cells in the
human body

- Pluripotent stem cells

88. False for 3rd week of embryonal development?

- Development of somites in extraembryonic mesoderm forms myotome, dermatome, sclerotome

89. Which of the followings is false for menstrual cycle?

- Ovulation is the shortest phase of cycle and FSH (Follicle stimulating hormone) peak is necessary for
ovulation

90. Which one of the following isn't a phase of fertilization?

- Lysis of the oocyte and sperm cell membranes

91. Chose the wrong statement about the somites.

- Dermatome forms the epidermis of the skin

92. Which one of the followings is false for spermatogenesis?

- Primary spermatocyte subsequently undergoes the firs meiotic division to form 2 diploid secondary
spermatocytes

93. Which phase of the menstrual cycle is characterized by growing of many tiny blood vessels in uterus
and preparation of the uterine wall for receiving a zygote?

- Proliferative phase

94. During the organogenesis process which of the following structures acts as an organization center?

- Notochord

95. Which is the following is not true for the first formation of blood cells and vessels in the embryo?

- Occurs in the intraembryonic mesoderm.

96. Choose the most commonly used measurement criteria to examine the development of a 7–8-week-
old embryo.

- Measurement of the crown-rump (sitting) length of the embryo.

97. How many days does the developmental gestational age that begins with fertilization?

- 266 days

98. Which one of the followings is responsible for zona reaction during fertilization?

- Enzymes released by cortical granules

99. Which one of the followings is false for spermatogenesis?

- The secondary spermatocytes subsequently undergo the first meiotic division to form four haploid
spermatids.

100. Which of the following statements is correct about the 3rth week of embryonal development?

- Development of primitive streak responsible for the identification of axes of embryo

101. What kind of cells have pluripotency during the embryonic period?

- Blastomeres

102. Which one is incorrect about embryonic staging?

- blastula during days 5,6 contains synciotrophoblast and cytotrophoblast

103. Which one is incorrect about ebryonic 3D shapes?

- Trilaminar disk without chorion => 2 balls on top of each other

104. Achondroplasia disease is classified as:

- Gene mutation

105. Which of following is incorrect regarding major embryonic process?

- Folding is the transformation of the bilaminar into trilaminar disc

106.Connect the embryonic structure with its germ layer.

Somite–––Paraxial mesoderm

Urogenital system–––Intermediate mesoderm

Epidermis–––Surface ectoderm

107. Which of the following structures must degenerate for blastocyst implantation to occur?

- Zona Pellicuda

108. Which of the following statement is wrong about morula?

- The cavity inside is called blastocyte

109. Which one is correct?

- Primitive streak induces the thickening of ectoderm and formation of neural tube which is primordial
CNS.

110. Not true about implantation process?

- The blastocyst is entirely embedded in the endometrium by day 21 after fertilization

111. Which one is wrong about the vasculogenesis?

- Occurs during fetal period

112. What would happen if the trophoblast did not secrete hCG upon implantation of the blastocyst?

- Menses would flush out the blastocyst out of uterus.

113. Which is not include in spermiogenesis?

- ER

114. Which phase is not in fertilization?

- Disassociated of oocyte and sperm membrane

115. Which property is wrong about acrosomal reaction?

- Capacitated sperms show morphological changes

116. Which phase of the menstrual cycle characterized by the increase level of progesterone that make
uterine wall thicker?

- Luteal Phase

117. Which one is the main organizing center in gastrulation?

- Primitive streak

118. Which of the following layers form the chorion?

1-Extraembryonic somatic mesoderm

3-Cytotrophoblast

4-Syncytotrophoblast

119. Which one is usually the longest and the most variable phase of cell cycle?

- G1

120. When embryo goes into uterus, cell is at which stage?

- Morula
121. Which of the following is not extraembryonic membrane?

‐ Decidua

122 Which of the followings of spermatogonium processes has n(haploid)?

1‐Spermatogonium 2‐Primer

123. Which cells secrete testosterone in male reproductive system?

- Leydig cells

124. Which one is wrong for oogenesis?

- Primary Oocyte complete first meiotic division just before ovulation / Secondary oocyte begins second
meiotic division if penetration by sperm occurs.

125. After how many days does the uterus starts getting ready for implantation?

- 4-5 Days

126. How long is the menstrual cycle?

- 28 Days

127. What is wrong about capacitation?

‐ Acrosomal reactions occur before capacitation is completed

128. Which phase isn't in fertilization?

- Breakdown of pronucleus

129. Which one is wrong?

- Zona pellucida make hatching after fertilization

130. Which one of the following isn't a result of fertilization?

- Restoration of phenotype

131. Which one isn't characteristic of acrosome reactions?

- Reaction leads to a modification on zona pellucida that blocks polyspermy

132. Which one does not occur at fertilization?

- Lysis of the male and female membranes

133. Blastomeres of individual isolated at 4-cell stage and cultured until blastocysts stage then it in vitro
for different carrier (mothers)? What will be the result?

- Birth of identical babies

134. Which of the following is true about first week of development and implantation?

- Inner cell mass of blastocyst

135. Which one is wrong for implantation process?

- Implantation complete 21 day after fertilization

136. What is the definition of Pluripotent?

- Pluripotent: The ability to turn into all the mature (adult) cell types of the body

137. Which one is wrong for embryonic development?

- hCG is secreted by cytotrophoblast

138. Which one is false about embryonic stem cell?

‐ They are multipotent

139. Which one do not occur during implantation?

- Hatching happens during 8‐9th days before implantation

140. Which one is true?

- Totipotent – zygote

141. Which one does not have zona pellucida?

- Late Blastocyte

142. Which one does not occur in the end of second week?

- Tertiary Villi

143. When is the Primary chorionic villi formed?

- 13-14 days

144. Which embryonic process is driven by primitive streak?

- Gastrulation

145. These characteristics properties belong to which structure?

• Forming in 16th day of development • Define primitive axis of embryo

• Origin from mesenchyme arise from primitive pit • Vertebral column develop in its around
• Induce ectoderm to form neural plaque

- Notochord

146. Which one is differentiated to the somite?

- Paraxial mesoderm
147. Which one is not exist in secondary villi?

- Fetal capillary

148. Which one is wrong about 3.week?

- Somites differentiate

149. From where is HCG secreted?

- Syncytiotrophoblast

150. Which part induces neural tube to form?

- Notochord

151. In which period is the primitive streak firstly appear and what is its major event?

- 3 weeks, gastrulation

152. Which one is wrong about somites?

- Dermatome - epidermis of skin

153. Which of the following are originated from somites?

I-Dermatome / III-Sclerotome / IV-Myotome

154. Which one of the followings develop from ectoderm?

- Epidermis

155. Which one of the followings is part of the plecenta?

1‐ Decidua bazalis / 4‐ Chorion Frondozum

156. Which one of the following is true about muscle tissue?

- Troponin C is a component of thin filament complex and it binds calcium ion

157. Which one of the following structures is not seen in smooth muscle?

- Fascia adherens

158. Which of the following cell in the skin contains Birbeck granules?

- Langerhans cells

159. Which layer of the epidermis is stained more basophilic?

- Stratum granulosum

160. Which one of these cellular junctions on lateral domain form impermeable connections between
two adjacent cells?

- Tight junctions
161. Which of the following cell types aren't found in cerebrum?

- Satellite cells

162. Which of the following is not find in perikaryon of a neuron?

- Terminal button

163. Which of the following suggestions is wrong about peripheric nervous system?

- The outermost and thickest connective tissue sheath is named as epimysium.

164. Which of the following is not a squamous epithelium tissue?

- Urothelium

165. Which of the following is not true about epithelial tissue?

- It is a vascular tissue

166. Which one of the followings is false for dense irregular connective tissue?

- Dense irregular connective tissue is the main functional component of tendons, ligaments, and
aponeurosis.

167. Which one of these is the main structure of the microvilli?

- Actin filaments

168. Which type of leukocytes are derived from megakaryocytes?

- Thrombocytes

169. Which one of the followings is false for erythrocytes?

- A high concentration of hemoglobin is present within erythrocytes and is responsible for their uniform
basophilic staining with methylene blue

170. Which one of the followings is not true for the fibroblasts of the connective tissue?

- Fibroblasts contains bundles of longitudinally disposed actin filaments and dense bodies similar to
those observed in smooth muscle cells

171. Which of the following is true for Merkel’s cells?

- They have neurosecretory granules

172. Which type of blood cells are associated with allergic reactions, parasitic infections, and chronic
inflammation?

- Eosinophils
173. Which type of connective tissue constitute the structural framework of bone marrow and many
lymphoid structures, as well as a framework enveloping certain cells?

- Reticular connective tissue

174. Which one of these cells have a polyploid nucleus (8-64 n) and the biggest cells in the bone marrow
that give rise to thrombocytes?

- Megakaryocyte

175. If you see the properties given below at the preparation which you observe under light microscope,
which tissue/organ can this preparation belong to?

+ Cells are making branching between themselves.

+ Borders between two neighbor cells are stained more darker than usual striations.

+ Nucleus/nuclei of cell located centrally.

+ Longitudinal section of cells includes cross-striations.

+ Cells have acidophilic cytoplasm and basophilic nuclei.

- Heart

176. Which one of the followings is false for hyaluronic acid (hyaluronan)?

- Hyaluronan is the only GAG that contain sulfate, so macromolecules can easily diffuse through
hyaluronan network

177. Which one of the followings is true about cerebellum?

- Stratum gangliosum layer is made up by Purkinje cells.

178. Which type of cells in the connective tissue have intended or kidney shaped nucleus and lysosomes
are abundant in the cytoplasm?

- Histiocytes

179. Which one of the followings is false for neutrophils?

- They are also identified by their bi- lobulated nucleus

180. Match epithelial apical cell surface specializations with the organs, whose epithelium is a good
example for these cell surface specializations.

- Microvillus proximal tubules ---------< Kidney

- Cilia ---------< Trachea

- Stereocilia --------< Epididymis

181. Which type of cells arise from a hematopoietic stem cell (CD34+) in the bone marrow and circulate
in the peripheral blood and after migrating into the connective tissue, differentiate and produce their
characteristic metachromatic granules?

- Mast cells

182. Match the cytoskeletal elements or adhesion molecules with the correct cell adhesion complex in
terms of lateral and basal cell surface specializations.

- Zonula Adherens --------< Actin microfilaments

- Macula Adherens --------< Intermediate filaments

- Hemidesmosoms --------< Integrins

183. Chose the cell surface specialization, whose structure is named as the axoneme.

- Cilium

184. Which of the followings is the thickest sheath located just under beneath tendon structure,
surrounds all fascicles and fibers of the whole muscle and composed of ırregular dense connective
tissue?

- Epimysium

185. Which one of the followings is wrong about muscle tissue?

- Troponin-T is a component of thin filament complex and it binds calcium ion.

186. Which of the followings is wrong about axonal transport?

- Every axon has just a "one-direction transport" as anterograde or retrograde named.

187. Which type of connective tissue is located in the umbilicus and has the ground substance that is
largely made up of mucopolysaccharides (hyaluronic acid and chondroitin sulfate) which referred to as
Wharton’s jelly?

- Mucous connective tissue

188. Which of the following is different than the others in terms of its function?

- Gap Junctions

189. Which of the following serves as a selective permeability barrier in epithelium?

- Zonula Occludens

190. Where do we see the pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium?

- Upper respiratory tract

191. Which of the followings is originated from mesoderm?

- Microglia
192. Which of the followings are not the layer of epidermis?

- Stratum melanosum

193. Where do we see the transitional epithelium?

- Urinary bladder

194. Which of the following neuroglial cell is not found at medulla spinalis?

- Schwann cell

195. Which statement is wrong about skeletal muscle myofilaments?

- Deficiency of desmin protein causes Duschenne’s Muscular Dystrophia (DMD).

196. Which type of connective tissue forms lamina propria of mucous membranes?

- Areolar connective tissue

197. Which of the following neuroglial cell belongs to peripheral nervous system?

- Satellite

198. If you see the properties given below at the preparation which you observe under light microscope,
which tissue/organ can this preparation belong to?

+Composed of long fibers

+Long fibers enveloped by connective tissue sheets.

+Nuclei of cell located peripherally.

+Longitudinal section of cells include cross striations.

+Cells have acidophilic cytoplasm and basophilic nuclei.

- Tongue

199. Which types of leucocytes are most common type of mononuclear leucocytes and do not have
phagocytic function?

- Lymphocytes

200. Which of the following cells are not belong to the epidermis?

- Malpighi cells

201. Match epithelial apical cell surface specializations with the organs, whose epithelium is a good
example for these cell surface specializations.

- Microvillus ------- Kidney proximal tubules

- Cilia -------- Trachea

- Stereocilia ------- Epididymis

202. Which one is wrong for irregular dense connective tissue?

- It primarily found in tendons

203. Which type of collagen is abundant in hyaline cartilage?

- Type 2

204. Which of the following is the factor that is shared by both extrinsic and intrinsic clotting pathways
and plays an important role in formation of thrombin from prothrombin by activating the
prothrombinase?

- Factor X

205. Which one of the following statements is true?

- Astrocyte is in between nerve and capillary

206. Which junctional complex bind cardiac cells together to prevent their pulling apart under repetitive
contractions

- Macula Adherens

207. Select the choice that gives two different types of agranulocytes?

- Monocyte-Lymphocytes

208. Which of following statement is true?

- Perineurium is connective tissue surrounds nerve fascicles

209. What is the histological characteristic of Wharton’s Jelly?

- Hyaluronic acid

210. Which one is true for striated muscle?

- Sarcomere is functional unit of striated muscle

211. Which one is involved in immune system and is capable antibody production?

- Lymphocytes

212. Which one of the following is involved in allergic reaction and produce histamine and heparin?

- Basophil

213. Which statement is true?

- Perineurium is a layer of connective tissue surrounding fascicle

214. Which one is false for connective tissue and it's localization?

- Dens irregular connective tissue-mucous

215. Which type of collagen is the major component and comprising 50% of basal lamina proteins?

- Type 4

216. Which of the followings is not a glycoprotein of ground substance in the connective tissue?

- Hyaluronic acid

217. Which of the connective tissue cells produce collagen elastic and reticular fibers and ground
substance of Extracellular matrix?

- Fibroblast

218. Which one of the following is false?

- Deficiency of desmin plays role at Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy and it's X-linked recessive trait. *(not
desmin, dystrophin)

219. Which of the following is one of the most important protein which is responsible for maintaining
the shape of erythrocyte?

- Spectrin

220. Which of the following molecule is in the fibrinolysis?

- Plasmin

221. When you think of the function and the structure of the following lateral or basal surface
specializations which one is different from all the others?

- Hemidesmosome

222. In which of the following apical structure actin filaments found?

- Stereocilia

223. Which of the following surrounded by the cell membrane and contain a central pair of isolated
microtubules surrounded by 9 more pairs of microtubules?

- Cilia

224. In a epithelial cell, what is the name of the network that connects actin filament, intermediate
filament and spectrin?

- Terminal web

225. Which one abundant in Basal lamina?

- Type 4

226. Which apical modification is related with absorption?

- Microvilli
227. Which cytosolic component doesn’t contain microtubeles?

- Microvillus

228. What is the type of connective tissue which is Jelly-like and produces Mucin?

- Mucous connective tissue

229. Which dye is used for elastic fibers in connective tissue?

- Orcein

230. Which one is not a multiadhesive protein in extracellular matrix?

- Aggrecan

231. Which one is not a multiadhesive protein in extracellular matrix?

- Fibroblast

232. Which one is the biggest blood cell and differentiate into macrophage?

- Monocyte

233. Sulfate group contribute to negativity charge commonly associated with?

- GAG

234. Which one is true about muscles?

- Dense body in smooth muscles have alpha-actinin

235. Which types of tissue is that endocardium-myocardium-pericardium have?

- Heart muscle

236. Which junctional complex binds cardiac cells together?

- Desmosome

237. Which one is true for striated muscle?

- Sarcomere between 2 adjacent Z lines (½ I band + 1 A band + ½ I band)

238. Which one is true about striated muscle?

- It has less mitochondria than cardiac muscle

239. Which one is true about polarity?

- Macula adherens (desmosome) bind cardiac muscle together

240. Which one stores Ca + in sarcoplasmic reticulum?

- Skeletal muscle
241. Which of the following definition is wrong?

- Perineurium: It's the connective tissue sheath which surrounds bundles (fascicles) of muscle fibers

242. Which one is true?

- Astrocyte is buffer between nerve and capillary*(Blood barrier)

243. Which one isn't the component of axoplasm?

- Free ribosomes

244. Which cells do not function in the central nervous system?

- Schwann cells

245. Which one is wrong for neurons?

- Purkinje cells of cerebellum are pseudounipolar neurons

246. Which one is not common for axon and dendrites?

- Myelin Sheet

247. Which type of synapse is not true?

- Dendrospinous

248. False for Nissl bodies?

- Their number higher in terminal region of axons

249. Which one is not included in axons?

- Golgi

250. Which one is wrong type of synapses?

- Axosinaptic

251. Which one is true?

- Astrocytes are brain barrier

252. Which one is founded bipolar neurons?

- Retina

253. Which of the statements is not true for dermis?

- Pacinian encapsulated bodies are the receptors that sense sensitive touching

254. Which one stain more basic?

- Stratum Basale
255. Which structure have different embryonic origin?

- Langerhans*(bone marrow)

256. Not true for melanocyte?

- Contain Keratahyoline granules

257. Which is not in the dermis?

- Stratum spinosum

258. Which one is wrong about Epithelial Tissue?

- Epidermis is formed by mesoderm layer

259. Which one includes both specific granules and azurophilic granules?

- Neutrophil

260. Which one is not CFU-GEMM?

- Lymphocyte

261. Which one is wrong about thrombocyes?

- Transforming of fibrinogen to fibrin is provided by thromboplastin

262. Choose the correct statement regarding the somites.

- Dermatome of the somites gives rise to dermis of the skin.

263. Which of the following is not on the lateral surface of the cell?

- Hemidesmosoms

264. Which one is a special dye for Elastic fibers of connective tissue?

- Orsein

265. What are the common (preserved) layers of a 4 week placental membrane and a 4 month placental
membrane?

- II. Endothelial lining of fetal capillaries / III. Syncytiotrophoblasts

266. When implantation starts after bleeding?

- 14-15 days later

267. Which of the following you do not expect to see while you are observing a cerebellum preparation
under light microscope?

- Schwann cell
268. Which one of the following is not an accessory protein that belongs to sarcomere structure?

- Myosin II

269. Which statement is the best definition of “Medicine”?

- It is the science and art of healing. It encompasses a variety of health care practices evolved to
maintain and restore health by the prevention and treatment of illnesses.

270. Which of the following information about microscopes is false?

- Transmission, Phase-contrast and Scanning are the three types of electron microscope.

271. Which of the following information about tissue preparing process is false?

- Vital and non-vital tissues can be observed with light microscope.

272. Which of the following is a numerical chromosomal abnormality?

- Trisomy

273. Which one of the following structures does seen at heart muscle?

- Fascia adherens

274. Which of the following is associated with 9+2 microtubule (axoneme structure)?

- Cilium

275. What is the epithelium of the trachea and upper respiratory tract?

- Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

276. Which couple at the following choices both include microscope types that give information about
surface properties of material?

- Scanning electron microscope - atomic force microscope

277. Which one of the following statements is wrong about nervous tissue?

- White matter of cerebellum is located outside, just under beneath of piamater.

278. Which of the following is the major protein component of microtubules?

- Tubulin

279. When does the capacitation begins? It begins when….

- The sperm enters into the female genital tract

280. Chose the correct statement regarding the neural tube formation.

- Neural tube originates from the surface ectoderm

281. Which of the following cell does not find in the erythropoiesis?

- Myelocyte

282. Which of the following histological stains is not specific for DNA?

- Hematoxylin

283. In which time period do body plan and embryonic organ systems develop?

- 2nd and 3rd months respectively

284. Which is false for smooth muscle cell?

- Interconnected by desmosome and hemidesmosome

285. Which layer of bilaminar disc forms all tissues and organs of embryo?

- Epiblast

286. Which of the following layer of epidermis contains keratohyaline granules?

- Stratum granulosum

287. Match the followings

- Somites-----Paraxial mesoderm

- GIS lining (epithelium)-----Endoderm

- Urogenital system-----Intermediate mesoderm

- Epidermis------Surface ectoderm

288. Which of the statements concerning human embriyotic folding events is not correct?

- Amniotic membrane forms and surrounds the embryo proper

289. Which one is wrong for fixation step of tissue preparing process?

- Some fixative in a jam can be used for different tissue at different times in three months.

290. There are 2 type electron microscope. At ........... E.M. electrons pass through cells so we get a very
detailed image from inside of the cell and structural elements of the cell. At ........... E.M. type, electrons
reflect from surface of material which we want to investigate so we get a 3D image of surface.

- transmission-scanning

291. Which structure given below cannot seen in dermis under the light microscope within skin
preparation?

- Keratohyaline granules

292. Which is not true about cells?

- Plant and animal cells are about 20 nanometer

293. Under light microscope you are investigating a specimen which is colored black. Which of the
following structure cannot be that one you are observing?

- Lymphocyte-Wright Giemsa

294. Which one of the followings are true for peroxisome?

II. They are responsible for the breakdown of hydrogen peroxide

III. The oxidation of fatty acids happens in peroxisomes

IV. They are responsible for the breakdown of alcohol

295. Which one of the following cell type is stable, slowly renewing and maintaining tissue form?

-Fibroblasts

296. Which one is found in smooth muscle?

- Caveola

297. Which one is wrong about 3 Week?

- Somites differentiate

298. Which one examines relationship between antigen and antibody?

- Immunochemistry

299. Which one is not aims of fixation?

- Cell viability

300. Which microscope examines unstained and living organisms?

- Phase – Contrast Microscope

301. Which one derivatives from mesoderm?

- Endothelium

302. Which one is not features of Meiosis?

- Meiosis causes to remain stable number of humans

303. When is the Primary chorionic villi formed?

- 13-14 days

304. Which one is not a phase of fertilization?

- Dissociation of sperms and ovaries membranes

305. Zygote is an example for which kind of stem cell?

- Totipotent
306. What is wrong for heterochromatin?

- Indicates metabolically inactive cells such as neurons (found much in sperm and lenfosit cels)

307. Which of the followings is used mainly in fixation?

- %10 Formaldehyde

308. Which one is not a membranous organelle?

- Ribosomes
309. Which one of the following isn't a phase of fertilization?
- Lysis of the oocyte and sperm cell membranes
310. Which of the followings is false for menstrual cycle?
- Ovulation is the shortest phase of cycle and FSH (Follicle stimulating hormone) peak is
necessary for ovulation
311. Which of the following is not a squamous epithelium tissue?
- Urothelium
312. Which one of the followings is false for spermatogenesis?

- Primary spermatocyte subsequently undergoes the firs meiotic division to form 2 diploid
secondary spermatocytes
313. Choose the statement that is not included within the 4 rules of teratology.
- During the first two weeks of development, the embryo is either lost or continues to live when
exposed to a teratogen.
314. Which one of these cellular junctions on lateral domain form impermeable connections
between two adjacent cells?
- Tight junctions

315. The corpus luteum of pregnancy remains functionally active throughout the first...... of
pregnancy. Fill in the blanks.
- 20 weeks
316. Which of the following organelles is not a non-membranous organelle?
- Peroxisomes
317. During the organogenesis process which of the following structures acts as an organization
center?
- Notochord
318. In which phase of the following stages does the crossing-over occurs?
- Pakiten
319. Which type of blood cells are associated with allergic reactions, parasitic infections, and
chronic inflammation?
- Eosinophils
320. Which one of these systems is widely distributed in several anatomical sites but does not
form an organ system?
- Skeletal system
321. Which statement is false for oogenesis?
- At ovulation, the nucleus of the secondary oocyte begins the second meiotic division but
progress only to prophase, when division is arrested.
322. What’s the total magnification?
- Total Magnification: MP of objective x MP of ocular.

323. Which of the following give rise to urogenital structures?

A) Endothermal germ layer****

B) Exothermal germ layer
C) Paraxial mesoderm
D) Somites
E) Lateral mesoderm

324. Which of the following is not done by the placenta?

A. Exchange of gases
B. Exchange of nutrients and electrolytes
C. Transmission of maternal antibodies
D. Hormone Production
E. Amniotic fluid production***
 BIOSTATISTICS
1. Which of the following is not an example for dependent measurement?
- Comparing patients of control groups according to their Hb levels

2. %70 is a 70 ______ of something and calculated by multiplying the magnitude of interest by 0.70.
70th ________ is the value where 70% of the data fall below and 30% fall above

- percentage/percentile

3. ___________ estimation, decision, modeling with the help of sampling on the basis of statistical
theory.

- Inferential statistics

4. What is the type of error that occurs during the hypothesis testing process when a null hypothesis is
rejected, even though it is true in population?

- Type-I error

5. Which of the following sequence is correct while conducting a research?

3)population is identified

1) sample frame is determined

2) sample size is determined

4)samples are taken by adequate sampling

6. Choose the wrong statement?

- Focal group studies are quantitative research

7. Which word group is suitable for the blanks in the following sentence? If there is a/an ……… value in a
data distribution; then ………. should be used as a summary measure.

- Outlier, median

8. What are the types of variables such as stages of cancer (Stage I-II-III), pain intensity (mild, moderate,
severe), level of education (primary, high school, university)?

- Qualitative- Ordinal

9.

Some variables and the values that these variables can take are given above. Which of the following give
the correct order of types of these variables?

- Continuous-Discrete-Nominal-Ordinal
10.

The ages of the patients who recieved ulcer treatment were compared according to the type of
treatment and the following output was obtained. According to these results, which of the statements is
correct?

- The 0,430 difference between mean age is not statistically significant (p=0.933)

11. Which is the correct term for the following blank? “The descriptive measures (mean, rate, etc.)
calculated with the data obtained from the sample are called ……………..”

- Statistics

12. Which one of the following is not the correct property of normal distribution?

- Standard deviation is the sole parameter of the distribution.

13.

Which of the following statements is true according to the results given above? (α=0.05)

- The variances in the two groups are not homogenous (p=0.042)

14. Which of the followings can be an example for discrete variables?

- The distribution of the number of patients who died in a clinic.

15.

Which of the following statements is wrong according to the results given above?

- There is no difference between chroinc lung disease absent and present group according to FVC values
(p=0.383)

16. Identify the appropriate graphs;

I. Number of patients coming to the clinic everyday in one week

II. Age of patients

III. Gender of patients

IV. Pain level of patients

- Error - Error - Bar - Bar

17. Which of the followings does the researcher consider when choosing the appopriate test for
analysis?

1)whether normally distributed or not

3)whether group is dependent or not

4) type1 error rate

18.

The results obtained in a study comparing FVC (forced vital capacity) values of patients with and without
chronic lung disease are as follows. Which of the following statements is wrong according to the results
given above?

- The appropriate descriptive statistics to describe FVC values within groups are median (min-max).

19. Which of the following sentences are wrong?

- The range of the Spearman correlation coefficient is 0 to 1 whereas the range of the Pearson
correlation coefficient is -1 to 0.
20.

The findings of a research examining the effect of standing work on varicose veins as follows. Which of
the following statement is true according to SPSS output given below?

- The relation between working position and varicose veins is statistically significant (p<0.008).

21.

The output of a correlation analysis is given below. Which interpretation about the output is true?

- There is a weak, positive correlation between PostHTC and HbA1C.

22. Which of the given chart type(s) is appropriate for the quantitative (continuous or discrete)
variables?

I. Bar graph

II. Histogram

23. Which of the following statement(s) regarding correlation analysis is wrong?

II. When the distribution of at least one variable is not normal distributed, the Pearson correlation test is
used.

24. Which of the following statements is false for a study where more than two independent group
comparisons will be made?

- If the p value is lower than 0.05 as a result of more than two group comparisons, pairwise comparisons
of groups are not required.

25.

The Ferritin levels of individuals were recorded before and after treatment. The test result obtained to
examine the difference between the two measurements was given above?

- There is no significant difference between the mean values of before and after Ferritin levels (p=0,001).
26.

The HDL values of patients in three different treatment groups were compared and the result was
obtained as follows. Which of the following statements is true according to this test result given above?
(α=0.05)

- The p-value got from the analysis is 0.596, so the null hypothesis cannot be rejected.

27.

Above there is a cross table regarding the treatment results of patients receiving 2 different ulcer
treatments. Which of the followings is true according to these results?

- There is no relation between the treatments and results (p=0.728)

28. Which of the following is not an example for dependent measurements?

- Comparing patient and control groups according to hemoglobin level values.

29.

The correlation analysis test results between cholesterol, diastolic blood pressure (DBP) and HbA1c
values obtained from a group of patients were given below. Which of the followings is true according to
these results?

- Because the distribution of DBP is normal and HbA1c is not normal, the correlation between DBP and
HbA1c was calculated by Spearman correlation coefficient.
30. In a study conducted to examine whether a drug has a decreasing effect on the amount of sugar in
the blood, the amount of sugar in the blood of 40 diabetic patients was determined before this drug was
administered. Patients were given this drug for a certain period of time, and the amount of sugar was
measured again for each 40 patients. Which statistical test must be used to investigate whether the
drug has a decreasing effect of sugar for these patients? (Parametric test assumptions were supported).

- Paired sample t-test

31.

The results obtained in a study comparing FVC (forced vital capacity) values of patients with and without
chronic lung disease are as follows.

- There is a difference between chronic lung disease absent and present group according to mean FVC
values (p<0.05).

32. What is the correct term for the following blank? ........ is the set of all items or individuals of interest

- Population

33. Which one of the sampling types is non-probability sampling?

- Convenience Sampling

34.

45 patients are recruited to evaluate the effect of a new developed drug on hematocrit amount.
Hematocrit levels before and after are measured. Which test could we use to evaluate drug?

- Wilcoxon

35. Biostatistics is the science of ________ data.

1)Collecting

2)Monitoring

3)Analyzing

4)Summarizing

5)Interpreting
36. Which of the following is one of the not-probability sampling techniques?

- Snow ball

37. Any characteristics of an individual that is of interest to the researcher is called ............ while the
value of the a variable obtained and recorded in an individual is called .........

- variable, measurement

38. ............ each data value or quality can be allocated into one and only one of a number of categories
and cannot be put into any meaningful order / .......... has value whish are counts i.e 0,1,2

- nominal / discrete

39. A researcher wants to summarize the ethnicity groups got from a sample , which type of graph is
appropriate to summarize ethnicity groups ?

- Bar chart

40. 120 patients were randomly assigned to two groups (A and B) to compare the efficiency of the drug
A and B respectively. The elapsed time between these drugs and falling asleep was recorded. What is
the correct interpretation of analysis comparing these two groups with respect to elapsed time,
according to the SPSS output of independent samples test given below. Sig: 0,437 Sig(2-tailed):
0,312(equal variances assumed) 0,314(equal variances not assumed)

- there is no difference between these two groups with respect to elapsed time and falling asleep.
(p=0,314)

41. Which one is true?

- Difference between control group and method A and B Group according to weight gain is statically
significant (p=0.001).

42. Which one defines that sample should accurately reflect the distribution of relevant variable in
population?

- Validity

43. Which of the following is/are correct for the ANOVA test?

I- welch statistics is used in ANOVA for unequal variances.

II- there is no need to apply post-hoc tests when p is greater than the error level.

III- kruskal Wallis test is the nonparametric test for ANOVA.

44. Which one/ones below are the purposes of ANOVA?

I. Comparing mean that’s over 3

45. What would be the p-value of 0.01 after Bonferroni adjustment in ANOVA with 4 independent
group? Could you accept or cannot accept the Null hypothesis when alpha is set at 0.05 ?

B) p=0.0016 cannot accept

D) p=0.0025 cannot accept

46. (2021-2022) FINAL QUESTIONS: 1 - 9 - 10 - 11 - 12 - 20